Mulki müdafiə fənnindən test sualları
1. What applies to emergency military?
A) phenomenon, resulting from the use of weapons of mass destruction
B) phenomenon, resulting from actions of terrorist organizations
C) phenomenon, resulting from the collision drug traffickers
D) effects resulting from shootouts criminal organizations
E) phenomenon, resulting from a mass poisoning with the use of hazardous
chemical substances and bacterial agents.
2. What is the situation which has arisen as a result of the government crisis,
ethnic strife, terrorism, drug trafficking?
A) The situation of military-political
B) the situation is critical and criminal nature
C) the situation of crisis and economic nature
D) the situation is a state of war and terror
E) the situation is man-made and domestic nature.
3. In what could turn social situation, if not prevent it in a timely manner?
A) in emergency military
B) in the man-made disastera
C) in environmental emergencies
D) in the emergency of a political nature
E) in the emergency social and cultural nature.
4. What is a conflict of emergencies?
A) military clashes, extremist political struggle, social unrest, terrorism
B) ethnic and religious conflicts, accidents and disasters, environmental
changes
C) military clashes, geophysical hazards and disasters, fighting gangs
D) Dangerous geophysical and hydrological phenomena environment
E) extremist political struggle, drug trafficking, smuggling.
5. Refers to the natural and disaster?
A) and meteorological phenomena agrometereologicheskie; geophysical
hazards; hydrological hazards; infectious diseases of humans, animals and
vegetation; geological hazards
B) hydrological hazards of the sea; change the state of the hydrosphere, and
biosphere; infectious diseases of humans, animals, vegetation
C) infectious diseases of humans, animals and vegetation; sudden
destruction of buildings and houses, leakage from the spread of virulent
toxic substances
D) the spread of radioactive substances; spread into the environment
biologically hazardous substances; accident in communal life-support
systems
E) wildfires, hydrological hazards at sea, geological hazards, geological
hazards; Emergencies related to changes of land, atmosphere and
hydrosphere; Emergencies related to changes in the biosphere.
6. What is a conflict-free emergency?
A) natural (natural, natural), technological, environmental disasters and
catastrophes
B) natural (natural, natural), environmental, social disasters and catastrophes
C) environmental, terrorist, smuggling phenomena and processes
D) man-made phenomena and processes, techno-natural, religious and
national character
E) local, regional, facility, global disasters and catastrophes
7. How to share disaster on the scale of the impact and severity?
A) local, facility, local, regional, national, global
B) local (partial), national, large-scale, regional, local
C) the regional, national, global, disastrous, local
D) local, local, regional, transnational, emergency
E) local, local, global, contrast, crisis, catastrophic.
8. What is a man-made disaster?
A) traffic accidents (accidents) and catastrophes; fires; explosions; sudden
destruction of buildings, houses and household accidents
B) fires and explosions in transport; sudden destruction of buildings and
houses; forest wildfires
C) an accident as a result of the spread of radioactive substances,
hydrodynamic accident; hydrological hazards
D) explosions mountain ranges; death of climbers; avalanches, fires in the
Communication and
E) the sudden destruction of buildings and houses; the spread of exotic
diseases; geophysical hazards
9. Depending on the classification of man-made disaster that relates to
transportation accidents (accidents)?
A) accidents on main pipelines
B) an accident in the sewer system
C) an accident in the water system
D) an accident in heating systems
E) an accident in the municipal pipelines
10. Depending on the classification of industrial and transport accidents, to
a variety of man-made phenomena is the discovery of unexploded live
ammunition?
A) military and domestic nature
B) the sudden destruction of buildings and houses
C) detection (loss) of chemically hazardous substances
D) detection (loss) of radioactive sources
E) aviaavarii (car accident)
11. What kinds of traffic accidents are not related to the accident?
A) with the collapse of the earth
B) air crash
C) water accident
D) ground accident
E) underground accident
12. What does not apply to environmental emergencies?
A) Emergency associated with the hydrological and geophysical hazards
B) Emergency associated with changes in state land
C) emergencies related to atmospheric changes and hazards
D) Emergency associated with changes in the hydrosphere
E) ES, associated with changes in the biosphere
13. To what kind of environmental disaster is the fact of "the emergence
latitude zone" acid rain "?
A) disaster-related changes in the composition and properties of the atmosphere
B) Emergency associated with changes in the hydrosphere
C) Emergency associated with changes in the biosphere
D) Emergency associated with changes in the state of the water surface of the
ocean
E) ES, associated with changes in the state of the water surface of the ocean
14. To what kind of disaster is the fact of "dry water sources and the occurrence
of sudden need for drinking water?"
A) disaster-related changes in the state of the hydrosphere
B) Emergency associated with changes in the composition and properties of the
atmosphere
C) Emergency associated with changes in the biosphere
D) Emergency associated with changes in the state of the water surface of the
ocean
E) ES, associated with changes in the state of the water surface of the ocean
15. To what kind of disaster is the mass death of cattle?
A) Emergency associated with changes in the biosphere
B) Emergency associated with changes in the composition and properties of the
atmosphere
C) emergencies related to infectious diseases of farm animals
D) Emergency associated with the occurrence of epiphytoties
E) Emergency associated with the emergence of epizootic
16. What is the name of infectious diseases of farm animals?
A) epizootic
B) epidemic
C) panfitotiya
D) epiphytotic
E) fauna of exotic diseases
17. What are the names of people infectious diseases?
A) epidemic
B) enzootic
C) epizootic
D) epiphytotic
E) panfitotiya
18. What is the condition of crops?
A) epiphytotic
B) epidemic
C) enzootic
D) epizootic
E) an exotic disease
19. To what kind of emergencies include landslides, mudflows, Marjal, falls,
dust devils?
A) dangerous geological, natural phenomena
B) hydrological hazards
C) geophysical hazards
D) meteorological hazards
E) agro-meteorological hazards
20. To what kind of emergencies include storm, hurricane, storm, hail, heavy
snowfall?
A) meteorological and agro-meteorological hazards
B) agrometeofizicheskie hazards
C) geophysical hazards
D) atmospheric-physical phenomena
E) geological hazards
21. What is an emergency?
A) is the circumstances arising as a result of natural disasters, major accidents
and disasters, as well as factors of military, economic, social and political
considerations resulting in death
B) This circumstance arising from factors of political, economic, crisis,
catastrophic
C) this circumstances arising as a result of earthquakes, mudslides, destruction
of dams, road traffic accidents, traffic congestion, etc.
D) is the circumstances arising as a result of the destruction of buildings and
structures, ethnic strife and other factors of social and military-political and
economic nature.
E) is the circumstances arising as a result of natural disasters, industrial
accidents and injuries, as well as public opinion polls and the anti-crisis actions.
22. include emergency peaceful nature?
A) natural disasters, environmental changes in the environment, fire at the
warehouse of spare parts
B) natural disasters, radioactive contamination from a nuclear explosion,
accidents and disasters
C) the appearance of the source of the chemical destruction of chemical bombs,
floods, mudslides, accidents in the maritime transport
D) natural disasters, electromagnetic pulse, a plane crash, the drying up of
water sources
E) mass death of animals, violation of the ozone layer of the atmosphere, from
ethnic ballistic missiles
23. What is a disaster?
A) This is an extremely natural phenomena that lead to significant destruction
of property, shock and death.
B) This is an extremely natural phenomena that lead to the defeat of the people,
the sudden destruction of buildings and structures, infectious diseases of
animals
C) this extraordinary natural phenomena, which lead to a change of state land,
heavy snowfall, landslides, wildfires.
D) This is an extremely natural phenomena that lead to emergency situations
involving a change of state land, avalanches and landslides and damage to
fertile land
E) is an extraordinary natural phenomena that are associated with fires and
explosions at nuclear power plants, accidents in the water system, for platinum,
gas pipelines
24. What is a disaster?
A) earthquakes, mudslides, landslides, hurricanes, landslides, floods, snow
drifts, infectious diseases of humans, animals, plants
B) the sudden destruction of buildings and houses, as a result of the accident
spread (leakage) of highly toxic substances, hydrodynamic accident
C) meteorological and agro-meteorological phenomena that change the state of
the soil and the earth's crust, changes in the composition properties of the
atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere
D) areas inland sea pollution, extinction of animals and different kinds of
plants, hail, rain, heavy snowfall, strong heat
E) an exotic disease in humans especially dangerous infectious diseases,
epizootic, the disappearance of flora and fauna that are sensitive to changes in
the living environment
25. What is an industrial accident?
A) is the sudden stoppage of the object, which leads to the destruction of
buildings, equipment and injure people
B) is a partial stoppage of the object, which leads to the defeat and loss of life,
destruction of buildings and structures and equipment
C) it is a slow stop operation of the facility, which leads to the destruction of
buildings, equipment and injure people
D) is the emergency stop operation of the object, which leads to the destruction
of buildings, equipment and injure people
E) is a special stop operation of the facility, in order to prevent the possible
destruction of buildings, structures, technological equipment related to the
accident in the energy business.
26. What is a disaster?
A) are those industrial accidents that lead to massive loss of life
B) those work-related accidents, which lead to massive destruction of buildings
and structures
C) are those industrial accidents that lead to massive forest fires
D) are those industrial accidents that lead to mass destruction of people and the
surrounding vegetation
E) are those industrial accidents that lead to disabling a significant amount of
valuable equipment and process equipment.
27. What are some work-related accidents and disasters?
A) explosions, fires, flooding, pollution, radioactive, toxic and highly toxic
substances
B) landslides, hurricanes, landslides, floods, pollution and radioactive
emergency chemical agents
C) earthquakes, mudslides, fires, snow drifts, infectious diseases of humans and
animals
D) train accidents, active avalanches and landslides on the territory of
production facilities, the presence in the land of heavy metals and other harmful
substances high concentration.
E) forest, underground, prairie fires, fires and explosions
bystrovosplamenyayuschihsya substances, fires and explosions on transport,
fire in the subway.
28. At 8 hours 00 minutes there was a nuclear explosion. At 11 hours 00
minutes the radiation level was Rizm = 40 R / h. Knowing from the table that
the factor for converting radiation levels at 1:00 Ks = 3 to determine the
radiation level at 1 hour after a nuclear explosion.
A) 120 R / h
B) 130 R / h
C) 140 R / h
D) 150 R / h
E) 160 R / h
29. What is the gamma radiation?
A) are electromagnetic waves similar to X-rays and rays of light propagating in
the air at a speed of 300.000km / sec for hundreds of meters
B) an electromagnetic field, X-rays and emits light rays propagating in the
environment at a rate 300.000km / sec to hundreds of meters
C) are electromagnetic waves propagating in the air similar to X-rays and rays
of light at a speed of 300.000km / sec for hundreds of meters
D) is the X-rays, similar to electromagnetic waves and rays of light propagating
in the environment at a speed of 300.000km / sec for hundreds of meters
E) is a radioactive radiation in the electromagnetic field propagating light
beams at a speed of 300.000km / sec for hundreds of meters
30. At 9 hours 00 minutes the radiation level was 80 R1 = F / hour, 9 hours 30
minutes 55 R2 = R / h. The ratio P2 / P1 = 0.70, and depending on the time of
the explosion to the second measure passed 2 hours (T = 2). From Table Ks = 3.
determine the radiation level at 1 hour after a nuclear explosion.
A) 165 R / h
B) 127.5 F / hour
C) 128.5 F / hour
D) 195,5 R / h
E) 130.5 p / h
31. Determine the dose employed in the shops if the radiation level at 1 hour
after vigorous explosion was R = 400 R / h. The radiation dose to the open area
is A = 160R. Radiation attenuation coefficient shop Khosla = 7.
A) 22,8R
B) 25R
C) 27R
D) 29R
E) 31P
32. What is a non-SI units of measurement of X-ray exposure dose and gamma
radiation?
A) X-rays
B) R / hr
C) mR / s
D) mR / hr
E) and X-ray mR / hr
33. What is the dose of radiation received personal composition of the passage
of the vehicle on the territory of which the average radiation level is Rav = 120
R / h. Vehicle speed V = 40 km / h, the travel distance S = 20 km. Start of
overcoming zone 1 hour after a nuclear explosion. Radiation attenuation
coefficient of the vehicle Khosla = 2
A) 30P
B) 40P
C) 50P
D) 60P
E) 70r
34. What is used as a non-SI units of measurement dose X-ray and gamma
radiation?
A) R / hr
B) X-rays
C) mR
D) kilojoule
E) x-ray / m2
35. What units measure radiation levels of gamma radiation?
A) R / hr; mR / hr
B) P; mR
C) R / hr; P
D) R / hr; mR
E) mR / hr; mR
36. What types of ionizing radiation of radioactive substances are most
dangerous to humans?
A) gamma radiation
B) a beta-radiation
C) alpha radiation
D) beta and alpha radiation
E) gamma and alpha radiation
37. What types of ionizing radiation of radioactive substances less dangerous to
humans?
A) an alpha-particle
B) a beta-particle
C) gamma radiation
D) alpha and gamma radiation
E) beta and gamma radiation
38. Aircraft B-52 was used poison Vi-X Weather conditions: wind speed V = 2
m / s, the depth of the infected cloud Q = 6 km, the length L = 8 km. Determine
the area of the spread of the infected cloud.
A) 48 km2
B) 46 km2
C) 47 km2
D) 49 km2
E) 50 km2
39. What is the purpose dosimeters?
A) to define and measure radiation levels in the area, the degree of infection of
people, food and property of radioactive substances
B) to identify and measure the dose poisoning people, food contamination,
equipment and property agents and SDYAV
C) to define and measure the dose agents and SDYAV in the affected area
(infection) radioactive substances
D) for the definition of species of bacteria and infections in the area of
disinfection, sanitation, and people degassing
E) for the definition and measurement of radioactive and chemically hazardous
toxic and poisonous substances on the ground
40. What is called the degree of radioactive contamination of the object?
A) the amount of radioactive substances introduced to the object per unit of
time
B) the number of ionizing radiation incident on the object at a time
C) the amount of the exposure dose of X-rays incident on the object at a time
D) the amount of the exposure dose of gamma radiation incident on the object
at a time
E) the amount of the alpha, beta and gamma particles, with the object caught
per time unit
41. In what units is measured by the degree of radioactive contamination of
gamma radiation?
A) mR / hr
B) R / h
C) mR / cm2
D) P / m2
E) disintegrations / min
42. What is estimated radioactive contamination?
A) at the level of radiation
B) at an irradiation dose
C) according to the degree of infection
D) on the exposure dose
E) by gamma irradiation
43. What is estimated human exposure radioactive substances?
A) by the number of doses
B) exposure dose
C) exposure dose
D) the degree of exposure
E) radiation levels
44. What are the methods of detection and measurement of ionizing particles?
A) photographic, chemical, scintillation, ionization
B) photographic, biological, chemical, ionization
C) photographic, position, scintillation, ionization
D) mechanical, medical, stand-alone, ionization
E) autonomous, custodial, evacuation, stationary, portable
45. What method of detection and measurement of ionizing radiation dosimetry
used in all devices?
A) ionization
B) ionizing
C) exposure
D) photographic
E) chemical
46. What is the sensing device (radiation detector) in the survey instrument?
A) an ionization chamber and gas meter
B) a photographic camera and a scintillation counter
C) the ionization chamber and gas trap
D) ionizing radiation and trap gas trap
E) camera and fotogazoapparaturny counter
47. What is the ionization chamber?
A) an inert gas filled closed volume in which are arranged two mutually
isolated electrode
B) water filled closed volume in which are arranged two mutually isolated
electrode
C) a gas-filled closed volume in which two connected with each other electrode
D) air-filled closed volume in which there are two connected to each other
isolated electrode
E) air-filled closed volume, in which there are isolated from each other by two
ionizing element
48. Find the area of possible contamination of the infected cloud depth of 10
km2. Angle spread poison is 450
A) 3,924 km2
B) 4,924 km2
C) 5,924 km2
D) 6,925 km2b
E) 7,924 km2
49. Which register ionizing radiation chamber having an inlet port?
A) gamma and beta radiation
B) a gamma-radiation and positron
C) beta radiation and pi-Mizonov
D) neutrons and electrons
E) All kinds of radiation
50. The radiation level at 1 hour after a nuclear explosion was 60 R / h.
Attenuation coefficient tractor K = 4. Determine the time of the tractor driver in
the contaminated area. Permissible radiation dose for workers 30 R.
A) 2:00
C) 3:00
C) 4 hours
D) 5:00
E) 6:00
51. What distinguishes the types of dosimeters?
A) Indicators of radioactivity (signaling) rentgenmetry, radiometersrentgenimetry, radiometers, dosimeters individual
B) indicators, alarms, alarm-rentgenmetry, radiometry- alarms, alarms
dozimetryC) indicators, alarms, indicators, rentgenmetry, signaling radiometers,
indicators of exposure, chemical reconnaissance unit
D) dose meters, meters presence of agents and bacterial agents, meters,
indicators, gauges, rentgenmetry
E) signaling dose rates, power meters doses, dose meters, gauges levels of
radiation areas
52. What groups are divided dosimeters?
A) radiation reconnaissance, monitoring the degree of contamination and
exposure control
B) radiation meters area, exploration area of radiation, radiation control area
C) levels of radiation dose intelligence, reconnaissance extent of infection,
intelligence irradiation
D) signaling dose of radiation, radiation dose rate meters, control dose rate
E) radiation survey extent of infection, control the level of radiation exposure
control
53. What do the indicators of radioactivity?
A) for the detection of radioactive contamination by beta and gamma radiation
and audio sound-light signal
B) for the detection of radioactive contamination on alpha and beta radiation
and measuring radiation levels on it
C) for the detection of radioactive contamination by gamma radiation and
neutrons and measure radiation levels on it
D) for the detection of radioactive contamination by beta rays and neutrons and
measure radiation levels on it
E) for the detection of radioactive contamination by alpha, beta, gamma
radiation and measuring radiation levels on it
54. What is the purpose radiometers?
A) to measure and control the degree of radiological contamination by
radioactive substances on alpha and beta radiation and neutrons on different
surfaces, machinery, equipment, water, food, clothing, air and property
B) for radiation monitoring the degree of contamination by radioactive
substances to gamma rays and neutrons of different surfaces, equipment, water
and property
C) for radiation monitoring the degree of contamination by radioactive
substances to gamma rays and neutrons of various surfaces, vehicles,
machinery, equipment, water, food, clothing and air
D) for radiation monitoring radiation levels in the areas contaminated with
radioactive substances on alpha- and gamma-rays and neutrons
E) to measure and control the level of radiation in the area, machinery,
equipment for alpha and beta rays and neutrons
55. What is the purpose radiometers rentgenmetry-DP-5A, 5B and DP-DP-5V?
A) to measure radiation levels in the area and the degree of infestation of
radioactive different items related to alpha, beta and gamma radiation
B) to measure the neutron radiation levels in the area, the degree of infestation
by gamma radiation and beta radiation detection
C) for the detection and measurement of alpha, beta, gamma and neutron
radiation in the terrain
D) for measuring the levels of radiation on the terrain and the degree of
infestation agents and SPS as well as gamma radiation
E) to measure radiation levels in the area and extent of radioactive infestation of
various items on the beta, gamma and neutron radiation
56. What is the purpose of personal dosimeters kits?
A) for the control of the absorbed dose of radiation exposure of people in
finding them on the ground contaminated with radioactive substances
B) for the control (measurement) dose of radioactive contamination,
contaminated with radioactive substances
C) for the control (measurement) dose of radioactive contamination of the skin
of people and their clothes in finding them on the infected area
D) for monitoring (measuring) the dose of ionizing radiation to the area where
rescue operations are carried out
E) to determine the dose agents and SDYAV and bacterial agents of which may
become infected people in the area of the lesion
57. Determine the time of the summary command through radioactive
contamination zone. Data: the radiation level of 80 R / h, the maximum
radiation dose is 40 F, the attenuation factor K = 2.
A) 1:00
C) 2:00
C) 3:00
D) 4:00
E) 5:00
58. When a group method of monitoring radiation exposure?
A) when people are in the same conditions of radiation exposure
B) when a lot of people, but not enough dosimeters
C) in the case of the mass migration of people from dangerous areas
D) in the case of a group of prevention of persons caught in the zone of
radiation exposure
E) when people are divided into groups, and the radiation dose is measured
once in a group
59. When an individual method of monitoring radiation exposure?
A) for individual and team composition, to perform tasks in isolation from each
other and from their groups
B) for persons periodically perform tasks in the area of radiation exposure
C) for a group of people when measurements are performed in a group of
groups
D) for sample measurements of radiation dose people who were in the infected
area
E) where each person uses a separate indicator tubes
60. What is the range of measurement of radiation levels by gamma radiation
radiometer-rentgenmetra DP-5A, B, C?
A) 0,05mR / h-200r / h
B) 0,5 P / H-200r / h
C) 5 R / h-200r / h
D) 0,5 mR / hr-200r / h
E) 0,05 P / H-200r / h
61. What is the measuring range of the dosimeter DCT-50A?
A) 2P-50P
B) 2MR-100R
C) 0,2R-50P
D) 2P / H-50P / h
E) 0,2R / h-150r / h
62. What is the maximum dose of radiation can be measured by a dosimeter
DCT-50A?
A) 50P
B) 50P / h
C) 100P
D) 100P / h
E) 150r
63. What is the measuring range of the dosimeter ID-1?
A) 20-500rad
B) 0-500rad
C) 0,5-500rad
D) 0,05-200rad
E) 0,5-200rad
64. Find the area of the actual infection of the infected cloud depth of 10 km2.
Elapsed time after the accident, 4:00. Vertical stability of air inversion 0.081.
A) 3.24 km2
B) 4.24 km2
C) 5.24 km2
D) 6,24 km2
E) 7.24 km2
65. What is the purpose VPHR?
A) to determine the presence of chemical agents in air, on the ground and other
objects in the field
B) for the detection of gamma radiation on the ground and other objects in the
field
C) to measure the amount of OM in the air, on the ground and other objects in
the field
D) for the detection and measurement type agents and bacterial agents in the
air, on the ground and other objects in the field
E) to determine the presence of radioactive and toxic substances in the air, on
the ground and other objects in the field
66. What is the unit VPHR?
A) hand pump, paper tapes with indicator tubes suppressant filters, nozzles
pump, protective caps, flashlight, warmer ammunition to her shoulder blades,
instructions memo to the instrument
B) hand pump, videotapes with indicator tubes suppressant filters, nozzles
pump, protective caps, flashlight, warmer ammunition to her shoulder blades,
instructions memo to the instrument
C) hand pump, paper tapes with detector tubes, gas filters, nozzles pump,
protective caps, flashlight, warmer ammunition to her shoulder blades,
instructions memo to the instrument
D) hand pump, paper tapes with detector tubes, filters suppressant, the pump
head, the protective tips, flashlight, warmer ammunition to her shoulder blades,
instructions memo to the instrument
E) hand pump, paper tapes with detector tubes, filters suppressant, the pump
head, the protective tips, flashlight, cartridges heaters, shovels, instructions
memo.
67. What is the marking of test tubes VPHR to determine nerve agents such as
sarin, soman, v-gas emissions?
A) with a red ring and a red dot
B) with three green rings
C) with a yellow ring
D) with a yellow ring and yellow dot
E) with a green ring and green dots
68. What is the marking of test tubes VPHR to determine obscheyadovityh OB
type phosgene, diphosgene, hydrogen cyanide and cyanogen chloride?
A) with three green rings
B) with a red ring and a red dot
C) with a yellow ring
D) with three red rings
E) with three rings yellow
69. What is the marking of individual tubes VPHR to determine the blister type
OB mustard?
A) with a yellow ring
B) with a red ring and a red dot
C) with three green rings
D) with a green ring
E) one red with ring
70. What is called a lesion resulting from industrial accidents and natural
disasters?
A) the territory in which as a result of industrial accidents and natural disasters,
there was a mass death of people, animals and vegetation in the destruction of
buildings, structures and other processing equipment, as well as infection
(lesions) the earth's surface and the environment by radioactive and toxic potent
(poisonous ) substances and bacterial agents
B) the territory in which the consequences of natural disasters and a nuclear
explosion, a massive loss of life, animals and vegetation as a result of the
destruction process plants
C) the territory in which the consequences of natural disasters and the use of
chemical weapons was a mass death of people, animals and vegetation due to
destructive and toxic action on the outcome of emergency
D) the territory in which the consequences of natural disasters and the use of
depleting resources, a massive loss of life, animals and plants due to the
negative effects of emergencies caused by radioactive and bacterial
contamination areas
E) the territory in which the consequences of natural disasters caused by the
destruction of communications and power plants, there was a mass slaughter
among the people, animals and vegetation, contamination of the environment
by radioactive and chemical toxic substances and bacterial agents.
71. What may have lesions as a result of natural disasters and industrial
accidents?
A) simple (same type) and complex
B) Single and multiple
C) simple (same type) and multitype
D) local and object
E) subjective and objective
72. What is called simple (same type) lesion?
A) is the center, which appeared as a result of exposure to only one destructive
factor
B) is the center, which appeared as a result of similar factors affecting
C) this center, which appeared as a result of exposure to a maximum of two
types of damaging factors
D) is the center, which appeared as a result of only two earthquakes
E) is the center, which appeared as a result of only one nuclear explosion
73. What kind of forms, depending on the nature of the damaging factors, there
are lesions?
A) round, as a band, uncertain
B) District, straight, zigzag
C) round, rectangular, uncertain
D) circular, triangular, lane
E) in strip form, mushroom, bulk
74. What degree of destruction needs to be specified in the lesions resulting
from natural disasters and industrial accidents?
A) full, strong, moderate, weak
B) full, strong, medium, partial
C) global, regional, local, facility
D) catastrophic, strong, moderate, partial
E) emergency that must be restored to be repaired, capital
75. As distributed overpressure on the degree of destruction in the lesions by
natural disasters and industrial accidents?
A) complete? P> 50kPa
strong? P = 30-50 kPa
? P = average 20-30kPa
weak? P = 10-20kPa
B) full ΔR≥50kPa
strong? P = 30-50 kPa
? P = average 40-30kPa
weak? P = 10-20kPa
C) complete? P> 50kPa
strong? P = 30-50 kPa
? P = average 10-30kPa
weak? P = 5-20kPa
D) complete ΔR≥50kPa
strong? P = 40-50 kPa
? P = average 20-40kPa
weak? P = 10-20kPa
E) complete? P> 50kPa
strong? P = 40-50 kPa
? P = average 20-40kPa
weak? P = 10-20kPa
76. What is the distribution of the force of the earthquake on the degree of
destruction in the lesions of natural disasters?
A) total score of 11-12
Strong 9-10
average 7-8 points
weak 5-6
B) the total of 10-12 points
Strong 8-10 points
average 6-8 points
weak points 4-6
C) total score of 13-15
strong 10-12 points
average 8-9
weak 6-7
D) total score of 14-15
strong 12-13 points
average 10-11 points
weak 7-9
E) the total 11-12 points
Strong 9-10
average 6-8 points
weak 4-5
77. The nature of the destruction and damage of volumetric structures (plants)
are divided into 2 groups. That refers to the first group of destruction (damage)?
A) destruction (damage) of buildings and completely change their position
relative to the foundation or support on which they sit.
B) destruction (damage) of the individual designs of buildings or parts thereof
C) destruction (damage) of buildings and deformation of partially their
individual structures or elements
D) destruction (damage) of buildings due to the deformation of individual
structures or elements
E) destruction (damage) of buildings caused by cracking of the foundation or
support on which they sit
78. The nature of the destruction and damage of volumetric structures (plants)
are divided into 2 groups. That relates to the second group of destruction
(damage)?
A) destruction (damage) of the individual designs of buildings or parts thereof
B) destruction (damage) of buildings and completely change their position
relative to the foundation or support on which they sit
C) destruction (damage) of buildings and deformation of partially their
individual structures or elements
D) destruction (damage) of buildings due to the deformation of individual
structures or elements
E) destruction (damage) of buildings caused by cracking of the foundation or
support on which they sit
79. What types of reconstruction are provided depending on the existing
situation as a result of accidents and natural disasters?
A) partial, temporary, thoroughly-capital
B) term, minor, temporary
C) short-term, solid (full)
D) long-term, short-term, quick
E) solid (full), flimsy most important
80. What are the types of lesions caused disaster?
A) lesion of natural disasters and industrial accidents. Hearth of nuclear
destruction. Lesion on conventional weapons of mass destruction. Hearth
chemical destruction. Hotbed of biological destruction. Hearth combined injury.
B) lesion from industrial accidents and natural disasters. Hearth of nuclear
destruction. Hearth light radiation. Hearth chemical destruction. Hotbed of
biological destruction. Hearth combined injury.
C) lesion of natural disasters and industrial accidents. Hearth of nuclear
destruction. Hotbed of chemical and biological destruction. Lesion radioactive
substances. Hearth combined injury. Lesion on conventional weapons.
D) lesion from industrial accidents and natural disasters. Hearth of nuclear
destruction. Lesion of the shock wave. Hotbed of chemical and biological
destruction. Hearth combined injury. Lesion conventional means of destruction.
E) lesion from natural disasters. Lesion of the electromagnetic pulse. Hearth of
nuclear destruction. Hearth chemical destruction. Hearth bacteriological
destruction. Hearth combined injury.
81. What is called a hotbed of nuclear destruction?
A) the territory in which as a result of exposure to damaging factors of nuclear
explosion there were mass destruction of people, plants and animals,
destruction of buildings, fires and radioactive contamination
B) the area where radioactive substances were massive destruction of people,
animals and plants, an earthquake destroyed buildings and structures, having
fires and radioactive contamination
C) the territory within which as a result of exposure to damaging factors of
nuclear explosion there were massive poisoning of people, and then, their death,
various infection, accidents and disasters, fire, chemically dangerous objects
D) the territory within which as a result of exposure to optical radiation were
massive fires
E) the territory in which as a result of exposure to electromagnetic pulses, a
massive loss of life, animals, out of order, electric and other production lines,
large environmental damage inflicted to the state.
82. What is the airblast?
A) is the area of a sharp contraction in the air (and water gruntA), propagating
in all directions from the site (tsentrA) explosion at supersonic speed
B) is a compacted mass of air (water and gruntA) moving with the speed of
light in all directions from the center of the explosion
C) is an area of sharp compression of the air (water gruntA) directed towards
the enemy to destroy his manpower and facilities of the national economy
D) is sharply compressed air stream, mixed with water and the soil aimed at the
suppression of fires on chemically hazardous objects and installations refining
E) is a compacted mass of air that is used to clear the paths and passages for
technology in the rescue efforts in the lesions.
83. What are the types of injuries from exposure to air shock waves on
vulnerable people, depending on the magnitude of overpressure?
A) light 20-40 kPa
average of 40-60 kPa
heavy 60-100 kPa
very heavy> 100 kPa
B) light 20-40 kPa
average of 40-80 kPa
heavy 80-100 kPa
very heavy> 100 kPa
C) light 10-20 kPa
average 20-40 kPa
heavy 40-80 kPa
very heavy> 100 kPa
D) light 20-40 kPa
average 40-50 kPa
heavy 50-80 kPa
extremely difficult 80-100 kPa
E) light 10-30 kPa
average 30-50 kPa
heavy 50-90 kPa
extremely difficult 90-100 kPa
84. As a result, in time of peace may be the hearth of nuclear destruction?
A) as a result of accidents (accidents) in nuclear power plants, nuclear power
plants and other nuclear-hazardous facilities
B) as a result of accidents (accidents) on nuclear submarines, their reactors and
other biological objects
C) as a result of accidents (accidents) in nuclear power plants, reactors, deeplanders and other radiation-hazardous installations
D) as a result of tests at nuclear test sites ionizing charges, nuclear plants and
other biological elements of the periodic table
E) as a result of accidents (accidents) cruise missiles, warheads stuffed laser,
electron charge and other carriers
85. What characterizes the focus of nuclear destruction?
A) the number of affected; size of area affected; infection zones with different
levels of radiation; areas of fire, flooding, destruction and damage to buildings
and structures
B) the number of agents and SDYAV poisoned people, the size of the area of
damage, areas of infection, areas of fires, floods, destruction and damage to
buildings and structures
C) the amount affected by toxins, total area of construction sites for nuclear
reactors, areas of fire, flooding, destruction and damage to buildings and
structures
D) The number of wounded from shrapnel bombs; size of area affected;
infection zones with different levels of radiation; areas of fire, flood damage
and damage to buildings and structures
E) the number of affected; size of the area of the earthquake; flood zones
SDYAV; fire zones flooding, destruction and damage to buildings and
structures
86. What are the areas of destruction in the hearth of nuclear destruction posed
by air shock wave?
A) full ΔRf≥50kPa
strong ΔRf = 30-50kPa
Middle ΔRf = 20-30kPa
weak ΔRf = 10-20kPa
B) full ΔRf≥50kPa
strong ΔRf = 30-50kPa
Middle ΔRf = 40-30kPa
weak ΔRf = 10-30kPa
C) full ΔRf≥50kPa
strong ΔRf = 30-50kPa
Middle ΔRf = 20-30kPa
weak ΔRf = 5-20kPa
D) full ΔRf≥50kPa
strong ΔRf = 25-50kPa
Middle ΔRf = 15-25kPa
weak ΔRf = 5-15kPa
E) full ΔRf≥50kPa
strong ΔRf = 40-50kPa
Middle ΔRf = 30-40kPa
weak ΔRf = 20-30kPa
87. What are the types of nuclear explosions?
A) high-altitude-H> 10km
air-H <10km
ground
underground
surface
underwater
B) altitude-H> 10km
air
Ground-H <10km
underground
surface
underwater
C) high-altitude-H <10km
air-H> 10km
Ground-H = 50m
underground
surface-H = 50m
underwater
D) high-altitude-H = 10km
nevysotny-H = 2km
Ground-H = 100m
underground
surface
underwater
E) atmospheric-H> 10km
air-H <2km
Ground-H = 50m
underground
surface-H = 50m
underwater
88. What is called thermal radiation of a nuclear explosion?
A) is the flow of radiant energy, which includes a set of visible light and close
to it on the spectrum of ultraviolet and infrared rays, propagating in all
directions of the center of a nuclear explosion
B) is the flow of radiant energy, which includes a set of the light pulse and
close to it on the infrared spectrum of electromagnetic beams propagating in all
directions from the center of a nuclear explosion
C) is the flow of radiant energy, which includes a set of laser beams and close
to it on the spectrum of ultraviolet and infrared rays, propagating in all
directions from the center of a nuclear explosion
D) is the flow of radiant energy, including visible light and a set of related
thereto ultraviolet and infrared electromagnetic beams propagating in all
directions from the center of a nuclear explosion
E) is the flow of radiant energy, which includes a set of visible light and laser
beams propagating in all directions at the speed of light from the center of a
nuclear explosion
89. What is the source of light radiation?
A) the luminous area of the explosion, which consists of heated to a high
temperature nuclear weapon materials, air and soil (in ground explosion)
B) the luminous area of the explosion, which consists of heated to a particular
temperature substances nuclear explosion, air and water (if surfaced explosion)
C) the luminous area of the explosion, which consists of heated to a certain
temperature nuclear weapon materials, air and soil
D) explosion luminous region, consisting of laser beams, heated to a high
temperature, together with the air and ground
E) the luminous area of the explosion, which consists of a light pulse, heated to
a high temperature air, soil and water
90. What is the main parameter of the damaging effect of light radiation?
A) light pulse and the time of its duration
B) laser pulse and the time of its duration
C) electromagnetic pulse and the period of validity
D) Beam momentum and the period of validity
E) amplitude impulse and time of its duration.
91. What is the light pulse?
A) is the ratio of the amount of light energy to the area of the illuminated
surface is perpendicular to the propagation of light rays of all time glow
B) is the ratio of the amount of laser light energy to the area of the illuminated
surface which is perpendicular to the propagation of laser beams of light for all
time glow
C) the ratio of the electromagnetic energy of light to the area illuminated
surface is perpendicular to the propagation of electromagnetic rays of light for
all time glow
D) ratio of the beam of light energy to the area illuminated surface is
perpendicular to the beam propagation of light emission for all time
E) ratio of the amplitude of waves of light to the area of the illuminated surface
which is perpendicular to the propagation of light wave amplitude for all time
glow.
92. In what units is measured by a pulse of light?
A) kJ / m2; cal / cm2
B) kJ / m2; kp / cm2
C) rad / m2; kJ / m2
D) kJ / m3; cal / m3
E) kPa / m2; kJ / cm2
93. How to burn unprotected people are divided on the severity of their bodies
depending on the size of the light pulse of a nuclear explosion?
A) I degree at H = 80-160kDzh / m2
Grade II at H = 160-400kDzh / m2
Grade III at H = 400-600kDzh / m2
And with grade IV> 600kDzh / m2
B) I degree at H = 80-160kDzh / m2
Grade II at H = 160-500kDzh / m2
Grade III at H = 500-600kDzh / m2
And with grade IV> 600kDzh / m2
C) I degree at H = 100-200kDzh / m2
Grade II at H = 200-400kDzh / m2
Grade III at H = 400-600kDzh / m2
And with grade IV> 600kDzh / m2
D) I degree at H = 80-200kDzh / m2
Grade II at H = 200-400kDzh / m2
Grade III at H = 400-600kDzh / m2
And with grade IV> 600kDzh / m2
E) I degree at H = 80-180kDzh / m2
Grade II at H = 180-260kDzh / m2
Grade III at H = 260-460kDzh / m2
IV degree at H = 460-600kDzh / m2
94. What type of light radiation strikes the eye?
A) temporary blindness
burn fundus
burn the cornea and eyelids
B) temporary blindness
burn the cornea and eyelids
loss of an eye
C) temporary blindness
burn fundus
burn eyelashes and eyebrows
D) temporary blindness
eye cataracts
burn the cornea and eyelids
E) complete blindness
burn fundus
burn the cornea and eyelids
95. What areas of fires arise from the light emission of a nuclear explosion?
A) the individual fire zone, the zone of continuous fire, the combustion zone
and corruption in the rubble
B) zone of rapid fire fighting, fire undamped zone, a zone of partial fires
C) area of individual undamped fire zone of continuous burning and smoldering
fires in the area of partial blockages
D) zone of continuous fire combustion zone and corruption in the rubble, the
combustion zone is highly toxic substances.
E) zone of radioactive fires, chemical combustion zone, a zone of biological
fires.
96. What is the area of the fire?
A) is the area within which a result of the effects of weapons of mass
destruction and other means of enemy attack or natural disaster fires broke
B) is an area within which a result of exposure to carbon monoxide and other
toxic gases produced by chemical reactions that occur fires
C) is an area within which the result sunstroke occurs fire and oil goes into the
fire
D) is an area within which the resulting electromagnetic pulse of a nuclear
explosion or natural disaster occur fires
E) is an area within which a lightning strike occurs fire fire-resistant and
refractory materials, which develops into a continuous fire
97. What is the area of individual fires?
A) is the regions and areas of development in the territories where fires occur in
separate buildings, structures
B) is the regions and areas, building on whose territory the fires occur in all
buildings and structures
C) this areas and building plots on the territory of which burns most surviving
buildings and structures
D) is the regions and areas of development, in the territory of which the burn
destroyed buildings and structures I, II, III degree of fire resistance
E) is the regions and areas of development, in the territory of which the fires
create a lot of smoke and are characterized by burning in the rubble.
98. What is the area of continuous fire?
A) the territory in which burns most surviving buildings and structures
B) the territory where fires occur in certain buildings and structures and long
burn without attenuation
C) the territory in which the burn destroyed buildings and structures I, II, III
degree of fire resistance
D) the territory in which fires occur immediately and long burn without
attenuation
E) the territory in which fires create a strong smoke and are characterized by
burning or smoldering in the rubble.
99. What is the area of corruption and burning in the rubble?
A) is the area where the burn destroyed buildings and structures I, II, III degree
of fire resistance characterized by excessive smoke and long smoldering in the
rubble
B) is an area where fires occur in certain buildings and structures, and there is a
danger of its transition to neighboring objects
C) is an area where as a result of exposure to optical radiation burns most of the
surviving buildings with the release of large amounts of smoke
D) is an area where as a result of a fire you can not even put it out because of
the strong smoke
E) ) is an area where as a result of exposure to optical radiation burns most of
the surviving buildings with the release of large amounts of smoke
100. What are the factors affecting occur at high-altitude nuclear explosion?
A) light radiation, ionizing radiation and shock wave
B) all the factors affecting
C) acts as a shock wave seismic waves
D) increased radioactive contamination
E) all the factors affecting
101. What are the factors affecting occur when air nuclear explosion?
A) All factors affecting except radioactive contamination
B) penetrating radiation and electromagnetic pulse
C) all affecting factors other than the shock wave
D) a shock wave in the form of seismic waves and light emission
E) all affecting factors other than the shock wave
102. What are the factors affecting occur in ground and surface nuclear
explosion?
A) all the factors affecting
B) all affecting factors other than light emission
C) shock wave, thermal radiation, radioactive contamination
D) all of the factors affecting except ionizing radiation
E) all of the factors affecting except electromagnetic pulse
103. What are the factors affecting occur in underground and underwater
nuclear explosion?
A) a shock wave in the form of seismic waves and radioactive contamination
B) ionizing radiation and radioactive contamination
C) light radiation and shock wave
D) electromagnetic pulse and the shock wave
E) all of the factors affecting except radioactive contamination
104. In what units is measured overpressure
A) Pa; kgf / cm2
B) Pa; kg / m2
C) Pa; kg / m2
D) kg / cm2; m / sec
E) kgf / cm2; m / sec
105. Due to what a shock wave in the air in a nuclear explosion?
A) due to the enormous heat energy generated in the area of nuclear fission
splitting
B) due to the enormous energy released in the atmosphere of ionizing radiation
C) due to the enormous energy released in the explosion
D) due to the tremendous energy released by light radiation
E) due to the tremendous energy released by an electromagnetic pulse
106. What are the main parameters of the shock wave characterizing its
destructive and destructive effect?
A) 1. excess pressure in the shock front
2. The pressure of the high-speed (wind) pressure
3. The duration of the wave
B) 1. atmospheric pressure in the shock front
2. The pressure of the high-speed (wind) pressure
3. The duration of the wave
C) 1. overpressure at the beginning of the shock wave
2. The pressure of the high-speed (wind) pressure
3. The duration of the wave
D) 1. overpressure at the end of the shock
2. The pressure of the high-speed (wind) pressure
3. The duration of the wave
E) 1. overpressure in the wave velocity head
2. The pressure of the front head
3. nezatuhaemost wave action in time
107. What is the excess pressure in the shock front?
A) is the difference between the maximum pressure in the shock front and
normal atmospheric pressure before the wave front
B) is the difference between the low pressure area in front of the shock wave
and the maximum pressure in the shock front
C) is the sum of the maximum pressure in the shock front and normal
atmospheric pressure before this front
D) is the difference between the maximum atmospheric pressure in front of the
shock wave and the normal pressure in the shock front
E) is the difference between the normal pressure in the shock front and the
maximum atmospheric pressure before this front
108. What could be the shock defeat by nature of its effects on humans and
animals?
A) the direct and indirect
B) direct and linear
C) direct and indirect
D) direct and secondary
E) immediate and direct
109. Under the influence of air shock waves on vulnerable people and animals
at what its magnitude are extremely severe concussion and injuries?
A) ΔRf> 100 kPa
B) ΔRf = 60 ÷ 100 kPa
C) ΔRf = 60 ÷ 80kPa
D) ΔRf = 40 ÷ 60 kPa
E) ΔRf = 80 ÷ 90kPa
110. Under the influence of air shock waves on unprotected humans and
animals, with some of its largest arise severe concussion and injuries?
a. ΔRf = 60 ÷ 100 kPa
b. ΔRf = 60 ÷ 70kPa
c. ΔRf = 60 ÷ 90kPa
of ΔRf = 60 ÷ 80kPa
d. ΔRf = 70 ÷ 80kPa
111. Under the influence of air shock waves on unprotected humans and
animals, with some of its biggest defeat of moderate severity occur?
A) ΔRf = 40 ÷ 60 kPa
B) ΔRf = 40 ÷ 50kPa
C) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 50kPa
D) ΔRf = 30 ÷ 50kPa
E) ΔRf = 30 ÷ 40kPa
112. Under the influence of air shock waves on unprotected humans and
animals, with some of its biggest defeat light arise?
A) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 40kPa
B) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 30kPa
C) = ΔRf 10-30kPa
D) ΔRf = 10 ÷ 20kPa
E) = ΔRf 10-40kPa
113. For what values of overpressure shock wave occurs zone of complete
destruction (12%) the source of a nuclear explosion?
A) = ΔRf ≥50kPa
B) = ΔRf 40-50kPa
C) = ΔRf 30-50kPa
D) = ΔRf 30-40kPa d. ΔRf = 20-40kPa
114. In any overpressure shock wave occurs zone badly damaged (10%) the
source of a nuclear explosion?
A) ΔRf = 30 ÷ 50kPa
B) ΔRf = 30 ÷ 40kPa
C) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 40kPa
D) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 30kPa
E) ΔRf = 10 ÷ 20kPa
115. In any overpressure shock wave zone arises secondary damage (18%) the
source of a nuclear explosion?
A) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 30kPa
B) ΔRf = 10 ÷ 25kPa
C) ΔRf = 10 ÷ 20kPa
D) ΔRf = 20 ÷ 25kPa
E) ΔRf = 5 ÷ 10kPa
116. For what values of overpressure shock wave zone arises weak destruction
(60%) focus of a nuclear explosion?
A) = ΔRf 10-20kPa
B) = ΔRf 10-15kPa
C) = ΔRf 5-10kPa
D) = ΔRf 5-8kPa
E) = ΔRf 3-5kPa
118. What are the effects of a nuclear explosion?
A) shock wave, thermal radiation, ionizing radiation, radioactive contamination,
electromagnetic pulse
B) shock wave, thermal radiation, ionizing radiation, biological contamination,
electromagnetic pulse
C) shock wave laser radiation, ionizing radiation, radioactive contamination,
electromagnetic pulse
D) impact strength, thermal radiation, atmospheric radiation, radioactive
contamination, electromagnetic pulse
E) impact force, light radiation, ionizing radiation, atmospheric contamination
of the terrain, electromagnetic pulse
119. What is ionizing radiation?
A) is the flux of gamma rays and neutrons emitted (radiated) in the environment
of the area of a nuclear explosion
B) a stream of gamma-radiation energy emitted (radiated) from the environment
of a nuclear explosion
C) is the flux of gamma rays and protons emitted (radiated) in the environment
of the area of a nuclear explosion
D) is the flux of gamma rays and neutrons emitted (radiated) from the epicenter
of a nuclear explosion
E) is the flux of gamma rays and neutrons, as well as ionizing radiation alpha
and beta particles emitted (radiated) from a nuclear explosion
120. What is an x-ray?
A) is such a dose of gamma radiation in the absorption of which in 1sm3 dry air
under normal conditions (0 ° C and 760 mm Hg) produced 2.083 billion ion
pairs
B) is the amount of gamma rays which in 1m3 of dry air under normal
conditions (0 ° C and 760 mm Hg) produced 2.083 billion ion pairs
C) is the amount of gamma rays and protons, in which dry air of 1m3 in normal
conditions (0 ° C and 760 mm Hg) produced 2.083 billion ion pairs
D) is that dose of neutron radiation in the absorption of which in 1m3 of dry air
under normal conditions (18 ° C and 760 mm Hg) produced 2.083 billion ion
pairs
E) that dose of alpha, beta and gamma radiation at an absorption 1sm3 in dry air
under normal conditions (18 ° C and 760 mm Hg) was produced 2.083 billion
ion pairs
121. What is the source of ionizing radiation?
A) nuclear reactions and radioactive decay products of a nuclear explosion
B) a chain reaction and radioactive decay products of a nuclear explosion
C) nuclear reaction and decay products of atmospheric nuclear explosion
D) nuclear reaction and decay of neutrons and protons in a nuclear explosion
products
E) nuclear reaction and debris decay products of neutron flux
122. What is the unit of measurement of radiation levels?
A) roentgen per hour; X-rays per second
B) X-rays per kilogram; amperes per hour
C) amperes per hour; amperes per kilogram
D) amperes per kilogram; X-ray
E) roentgen per hour; amperes per second
123. What are the safe (permissible) dose people in wartime?
A) for the 4-day 50p; 30 days-100R; 3 months-200r; 1-year-300r
B) for 4 hours-50p; 30 days-100R; 3 months-200r; 1-year-400r
C) for 4 hours-50p; 30 days-100R; 3 months-300r; 1-year-400r
D) for the 4-day 50p; 30 days-150r; 3 months-250r; 1-year-300r
E) for the 4-day 50p; 30 days-100R; 3 months-300r; 1-year-500r
124. What is called the level of radiation that characterizes the degree of
radioactive contamination?
A) is the exposure dose of radiation at a height 0,7-1m over contaminated
ground
B) is a radioactive environment in which a person receives a certain amount of
exposure dose in x-ray-hours
C) is the dose rate, which is created on the ground in the area of radioactive
contamination
D) this dose streams alpha, beta and gamma particles emitted from the center of
explosion in different directions at a certain speed
E) is the power of the radiation dose received by a person is in the area of
radioactive contamination
125. What is the value of the exposure dose of radiation to the complete decay
of radioactive substances (D∞) and levels of radiation for 1 hour (P1) and 10
hours (P10) after a nuclear explosion on the outer boundary of the zone of
moderate contamination (zone A)?
A) = D∞ 40rad; P1 = 8 p / h; P10 = 0.5 p / h
B) = D∞ 30rad; P1 = 8 p / h; P10 = 0.5 p / h
C) = D∞ 20rad; P1 = 8 p / h; P10 = 0.5 p / h
D) = D∞ 25rad; P1 = 18 p / h; P10 = 0.5 p / h
E) = D∞ 10rad; P1 = 12 / h; P10 = 0.5 p / h
126. What is the value of the exposure dose of radiation to the complete decay
of radioactive substances (D∞) and levels of radiation for 1 hour (P1) and 10
hours (P10) after a nuclear explosion on the outer boundary of the strong
contamination (zone B)?
A) = D∞ 400rad; P1 = 80 p / h; P10 = 5 p / h
B) = D∞ 300rad; P1 = 70 p / h; P10 = 5 p / h
C) = D∞ 250rad; P1 = 80 p / h; P10 = 5 p / h
D) = D∞ 200rad; P1 = 60 p / h; P10 = 5 p / h
E) = D∞ 350rad; P1 = 80 p / h; P10 = 5 p / h
127. What is the value of the exposure dose of radiation to the complete decay
of radioactive substances (D∞) and levels of radiation for 1 hour (P1) and 10
hours (P10) after a nuclear explosion on the outer boundary of the danger of
infection (zone A)?
A) = D∞ 1200rad; P1 = 240 p / h; P10 = 15 p / h
B) = D∞ 1100rad; P1 = 220 r / hr; P10 = 15 p / h
C) = D∞ 1000rad; P1 = 220 r / hr; P10 = 15 p / h
D) = D∞ 1000rad; P1 = 240 p / h; P10 = 15 p / h
E) = D∞ 800rad; P1 = 200 p / h; P10 = 15 p / h
128. What is the value of the exposure dose of radiation to the complete decay
of radioactive substances (D∞) and levels of radiation for 1 hour (P1) and 10
hours (P10) after a nuclear explosion on the outer boundary of the extremely
dangerous infection (Zone D)?
A) = D∞ 4000rad; P1 = 800 p / h; P10 = 50 p / h
B) = D∞ 3800rad; P1 = 600 p / h; P10 = 50 p / h
C) = D∞ 380rad; P1 = 800 p / h; P10 = 50 p / h
D) = D∞ 3600rad; P1 = 600 p / h; P10 = 50 p / h
E) = D∞ 3600rad; P1 = 600 p / h; P10 = 50 p / h
129. At what value the level of radiation is considered contaminated area?
A) P = 0.5 p / h or more
B) P = 0.5 p / day or more
C) P = 5 p / h or more
D) R p = 0.5 / day or less
E) R = p 5 / min or more
130. As there is radioactive contamination?
A) as a result of fallout of radioactive products and radioactive substances from
the cloud of a nuclear explosion
B) as a result of falling out of the cloud of a nuclear explosion of substances
that emit infrared and neutron radiation
C) as a result of falling out of the cloud of a nuclear explosion of substances
that emit ultraviolet radiation and neutron
D) as a result of precipitation from a nuclear explosion cloud substance emitting
alpha, beta and gamma radiation
E) as a result of falling out of the cloud of a nuclear explosion substances
emitting gamma and neutron radiation
131. What distinguishes the degree of radiation sickness according to the
obtained exposure dose of radiation?
A) I D = degree-100-200r
Grade II-D = 200-400r
Grade III-D = 400-600r
Grade IV-D> 600r
B) I-degree D = 100-200r
Grade II-D = 200-300r
Grade III-D = 300-600r
Grade IV-D> 600r
C) I D = degree-100-200r
Grade II-D = 200-400r
Grade III-D = 400-500r
Grade IV-D> 500r
D) I-degree D = 60-80r
Grade II-D = 80-160r
Grade III-D = 160-300r
Grade IV-D = 300-400r
E) I degree-D = 160-280r
Grade II-D = 280-380r
Grade III-D = 380-500r
Grade IV-D = 500-600r
132. At what dose received radiation may come radiation sickness I (mild)
degree?
A) A = 100-200r
B) A = 80-160r
C) D = 60-100r
D) D = 60-80r
E) D = 120-180r
133. At what dose received radiation may come radiation sickness II (middle)
degree?
A) A = 200-400r
B) A = 220-380r
C) D = 240-360r
D) D = 220-320r
E) D = 240-340r
134. At what dose received radiation may come radiation sickness III (severe)
degree?
A) A = 400-600r
B) A = 400-500r
C) D = 300-400r
D) D = 300-500r
E) D = 200-400r
135. At what dose received radiation may come radiation sickness IV (very
severe) degree?
A) D> 600
B) D> 500
C) D> 400
D) D> 300r
E) D> 200r
136. What is the electromagnetic pulse?
A) is a short-term electric and magnetic fields resulting from exposure to
gamma rays and neutrons in the atoms of the environment and the formation of
the flow of electrons and positively charged ions
B) is stored for a long time, electric and magnetic fields resulting from exposure
to gamma rays and neutrons in the atoms of the environment and the formation
of the flow of electrons and positively charged ions
C) is a periodic electric and magnetic fields resulting from exposure to gamma
rays and neutrons in the atoms of the environment and the formation of the flow
of electrons and positively charged ions
D) is the impulsive electric and magnetic fields resulting from exposure to
gamma rays and neutrons in the atoms of the environment and the formation of
the flow of electrons and positively charged ions
E) is ionized electric and magnetic fields resulting from exposure to gamma
rays and neutrons in the atoms of the environment and the formation of the flow
of electrons and positively charged ions.
137. What is the main parameter of an electromagnetic pulse?
A) the electromotive force (EMF), which causes all the wires and power lines
the induced (ultra-high) voltage
B) light energy that causes all the wires and power lines EHV
C) pulse of electrical charges, which causes all the wires and power lines EHV
D) the flux of gamma rays and neutrons, which causes all the wires and power
lines EHV
E) the energy of the magnetic field, which causes all the wires and high voltage
power lines.
138. What has an effect on the human electromagnetic pulse?
A) directly
B) affects electricity
C) has a magnetic effect
D) causes paralysis
E) acts on memory
139. At that electromagnetic pulse is the most dangerous?
A) on the instrument, unequipped special protection
B) per person without protection
C) for buildings and structures
D) for the navigation systems of transport equipment
E) for vegetation environment
140. What is the speed of propagation of electromagnetic pulse?
A) 300.000 km / sec
B) 250.000 km / sec
C) 280.000 km / sec
D) 280.000 km / sec
E) 180.000 km / sec
141. What is called a hotbed of chemical destruction?
A) is the area within which a result of the use of chemical weapons or exposure
to toxic substances and highly toxic substances were massive destruction of
people, farm animals, vegetation
B) is an area within which as a result of exposure to chemical weapons or toxic
substances and highly toxic substances were massive destruction of buildings
and structures as well as the mass death of people, animals, vegetation
C) is a territory within which as a result of exposure to chemical weapons or
toxic substances and highly toxic substances there was a mass poisoning of
biological pesticides and toxins humans, animals, vegetation
D) is an area within which a result of the use of chemical weapons or exposure
to toxic substances and highly toxic substances occurred atmospheric
contamination of the environment, which led to the massive loss of life, flora
and fauna
E) is an area within which a result of the use of chemical weapons or exposure
to toxic substances and highly toxic substances was poisoning the earth's
surface, leading to soil erosion, loss of agricultural lands, pastures
142. What is the toxic substances?
A) are chemical compounds for extermination applying chemical weapons
B) are biological compounds for extermination Applications in Biological
Weapons
C) are compounds hazardous wastes in an environmentally hazardous products
designed to kill people use environmental weapons
D) are compounds toxic and hazardous waste energy for destruction of people
use gas weapons
E) is a chemical and biological compounds toxic substances intended to kill
people in the use of chemical and biological weapons
143. What is a potent toxic substances?
A) are chemical substances intended for use in the economic purposes that a
spill or release are capable of causing mass destruction of people, animals and
plants
B) are biological substances intended for use in the economic purposes that a
spill or release are capable of causing mass destruction of people, animals and
plants
C) this compound wastes in an environmentally harmful admixtures used in the
economic purposes that a spill or release are capable of causing mass
destruction of people, animals and plants
D) are compounds toxic impurities oil and gas products used in the economic
purposes that a spill or release are capable of causing mass destruction of
people, animals and plants
E) is a chemical and biological compounds substances used in the economic
purposes that a spill or release are capable of causing mass destruction of
people, animals and plants.
144. What toxic substances are a group of nerve?
A) sarin, soman, v-fumes
B) hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, carbon monoxide, hydrogen
phosphide
C) phosgene, diphosgene
D) mustard, nitrogen mustard
E) chloroacetophenone, Adams
145. What toxic substances belong to the group obscheyadovitogo action?
A) hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, hydrogen phosphide
B) sarin, soman, v-fumes
C) phosgene, diphosgene
D) Net mustard, nitrogen mustard
E) chloroacetophenone, Adams
146. What toxic substances are a group of blister?
A) pure mustard, sulfur mustard, nitrogen mustard,
B) hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, carbon monoxide
C) phosgene, diphosgene
D) Adams, si es
E) sarin, soman
147. What toxic substances are a group of irritating?
A) chloroacetophenone, Adams, si es
B) mustard, lyunzit
C) hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, carbon monoxide, hydrogen
phosphide
D) sarin, soman
E) phosgene, diphosgene
148. What toxic substances belong to the group psychochemical action?
A) «LSD" bi-zet, meksain
B) Adams, si es
C) hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, carbon monoxide
D) sarin, soman
E) phosgene, diphosgene
149. What groups are divided according to the classification of toxic
substances?
A) persistent, unstable, poisonous smoke
B) tight, loose, poisonous gas
C) persistent, unstable, poisonous gas
D) tight, loose, poisonous smoke
E) potent, slabodeystvuyuschie, poisonous smoke
150. What toxic substances are persistent?
A) v-gases, soman, sulfur mustard
B) Adams, si es
C) «LSD" bi-zet, si es, v-gases
D) sarin, cyanogen chloride
E) phosphine, hydrocyanic acid
151. What are the toxic substances are unstable?
A) phosgene, hydrocyanic acid, cyanogen chloride
B) v-gas, sarin
C) sarin, soman
D) «LSD" bi-zet,
E) Adams, si es, v-gases, bi-zet
152. What is called the concentration of contamination?
A) is the amount of toxic substances contained in the unit volume of air
B) is the amount of toxic substances contained in a unit weight of air
C) is the amount of toxic substances contained in a unit mass of air
D) is the weight of toxic substances contained in the unit volume of air
E) is the area of toxic substances contained in a unit weight of air
153. What is called the density of infection?
A) is the amount of toxic substance in per unit area
B) is the weight of the toxic substance per unit area of land or water
C) is the amount of toxic substance that falls to earth ground or water
D) is the weight of the toxic substance that falls to earth ground or water
E) is the area of toxic substances per unit area
154. In some parts of the human body is manifested defeat poisonous
substances in the local damaging effect?
A) on the skin, eyes, on the organs of respiration and digestion
B) on the head, legs, arms
C) on the face, the neck, forehead, in blood
D) on the skin, on clothing, respiratory organs
E) on digestive organs, joints, in the head
155. In some parts of the human body is manifested defeat poisonous
substances with an overall damaging effect?
A) in contact with toxic substances in the blood
B) in contact with the toxic substance on the exposed areas of the body
C) in contact with poison on your clothes
D) in contact with toxic substances in the respiratory system
E) in contact with toxic substances in the digestive organs
156. What are the Effects of toxic substances on the human body?
A) death, temporarily incapacitating
B) death, non-fatal common
C) hazardous, non-hazardous, local
D) deadly, dangerous, non-hazardous
E) contact, no contact, mixed
157. What poisons are deadly?
A) nerve, choking, blister
B) nerve, psychochemical
C) obscheyadovitye, psychochemical
D) obscheyadovitye irritating
E) blister, irritating
158. What poisons are time-incapacitating?
A) psychochemical irritating
B) blister, psychochemical
C) blister, irritating
D) obscheyadovitye irritating
E) asphyxiating, psychochemical
159. Which toxic substances are poisons blister?
A) fatal
B) non-fatal
C) psychological
D) biological
E) temporarily incapacitating
160. What is called a hotbed of bacteriological (biological) weapons?
A) the territory in which a result of direct exposure to bacterial (toxic) means to
create a source of infectious diseases and poisoning occurs mass destruction of
people, animals and vegetation
B) the territory in which the application of chemical compounds of biological
means there is a source of infectious diseases and poisoning, leading to the
mass destruction of people, animals and plants
C) the territory in which as a result of spraying toxic chemicals and toxic agents
occurs poisoning the soil, sources of drinking water in artesian wells, resulting
in massive loss of life, farm animals and vegetation
D) the territory in which a result of direct exposure to bacterial (toxic) means to
create a source of infectious diseases and poisonings occur massive destruction
facilities and processing plants, destruction of people, animals and vegetation
E) the territory in which the result of direct effects on humans and animals
infrared and ultraviolet radiation toxic, infection occurs kitchens and water
sources, resulting in massive loss of life, animals and vegetation.
161. What is the quarantine?
A) is a system of anti-regime and restrictive measures undertaken to prevent the
spread of infectious diseases from the source of contamination, as well as the
complete isolation of all hearth bacteriological destruction and elimination of
infectious diseases in it
B) is a system of anti-regime and preventive measures aimed at preventing the
spread of unsanitary focus of infection, as well as the complete isolation of the
entire hearth bacteriological destruction and elimination of infectious diseases
in it
C) is a system of medical and regime-restrictive measures undertaken to
prevent the spread of infectious diseases from the source of contamination, as
well as the complete isolation of all hearth bacteriological destruction and
elimination of infectious diseases in it
D) is a system of anti-regime and restrictive measures aimed at preventing the
spread of infectious diseases from the source of infection, and partial isolation
of all hearth bacteriological destruction and elimination of infectious diseases in
it
E) is a system of routine-preventive and organizational-medical activities
carried out to prevent the spread of infections from the source of contamination,
as well as the organization of sanitation of people and animals in the outbreak
of bacteriological destruction.
162. What is observation?
A) is a special event isolation-restrictive and preventive nature, conducted in
the hearth bacteriological destruction aimed at preventing the spread of
infectious diseases
B) is a special event insulating-preventive and therapeutic restrictive conducted
in the focus of chemical contamination in order to prevent the spread of
diseases of the gastrointestinal tract
C) is a special event insulating-restrictive and preventive nature carried out in
the field, aimed at the prevention of cardiovascular and intestinal diseases
D) is a special event insulating-preventive and sanitary-epidemiological held in
quarantine area of infectious diseases to prevent the spread of infection
E) is the special events committee pest control, rodent control and disinfection
carried out on the hearth bacteriological and chemical contamination for the
prevention of diseases in humans and animals.
163. What disease can occur as a result of the use of biological weapons?
A) plague, cholera, anthrax, botulism
B) tularemia, stem rust, ischemia
C) angina, gastric ulcer, tularemia
D) cholera, stroke, stem rust
E) potato blight, tuberculosis of the lungs, stomach ulcer
164. What is the focus of the combined injury?
A) is the area within which the simultaneous or sequential action of two or
more types of weapons of mass destruction, as well as other means of attack the
enemy there were mass destruction of people, animals and plants were
destroyed and (or) damaged buildings and facilities, and fires broke
contamination (dirt) areas
B) is an area within which the disaster occurred mass destruction of people,
animals and plants
C) is an area within which the use of biological weapons was a mass slaughter
among the people, animals and plants
D) is an area within which a result of exposure to chemical weapons or toxic
substances and highly toxic substances were massive destruction of people,
animals and vegetation
E) is an area within which the simultaneous or sequential action of two or more
types of destructive factors of nuclear explosions occurred mass destruction of
people, animals and vegetation, destruction of buildings, structures and
technological installations, there were fires and radioactive contamination
165. Which zones divided the territory in the application of chemical weapons?
A) I zone of direct infection
Zone II clouds contaminated air
B) I zone contamination emergency chemical agents
Zone II poison clouds
C) I zone of direct contamination by radioactive substances
Zone II clouds contaminated air
D) I area contaminated by chemicals
Zone II of the radioactive cloud
E) I zone contamination of toxic substances, microbes and toxins
Zone II clouds contaminated air
166. What is the civil defense?
A) is an integral part of the activities carried out by the state, government
agencies, businesses and individuals in order to ensure public safety and
national economy in peacetime or wartime
B) is an integral part of the activities carried out by the state, government
agencies, businesses and individuals in order to ensure the safety of industry
and agriculture in peacetime or wartime
C) is an integral part of the activities carried out by the state, government
agencies, businesses and individuals in order to ensure the safety of workers
and employees of economic objects by their evacuation to safe areas in wartime
D) is an integral part of the activities carried out by the state, government
agencies, businesses and individuals in order to ensure the safety of the sphere
of military, political, social, economic and cultural factors in war and peace
E) is an integral part of the activities carried out by the state, government
agencies, businesses and individuals in order to prevent the occurrence of
natural disasters, industrial accidents and disasters, as well as military factors,
social and political
167. What is the role of civil defense?
A) in the preparation of the activities to identify and idenfitsirovaniyu
dangerous and harmful factors, the study of the forms and methods of
protection of human ways of bringing to the minimum extent of hazardous and
harmful factors, preparation of measures to eliminate the effects of industrial
accidents and natural disasters in peacetime and wartime
B) in the preparation of measures to repel enemy air raids in order to ensure the
safety of population and the national economy from the effects of weapons of
mass destruction, natural disasters and major accidents in peacetime and
wartime
C) in the preparation of measures to identify and idenfitsirovaniyu dangerous
and harmful factors, the study of the forms and methods of protection of human
organization of their treatment of radiation sickness, burns, occupational
injuries in the application of the enemy weapons of mass destruction in
peacetime and wartime
D) activities in preparation for the insurance of the population from dangerous
and harmful factors, the study of the forms and methods of protection, treatment
and rehabilitation of the population in the application of the enemy weapons of
mass destruction, as well as natural disasters and occupational injuries in
wartime and in peacetime
E) in the preparation of measures to protect the population and the economy
from the effects of weapons of mass destruction, bringing the consequences of
the terrible tragedy of war, natural disasters and major industrial injuries to a
minimum by providing victims of moral and financial support, as well as the
organization of their treatment and rehabilitation in nursing homes, hospitals
rest homes in war and peace
168. What are the main tasks of civil defense?
A) the protection of population and economy from the consequences of
emergencies; timely warning (warning) of the dangers threatening the life and
health of people and a reminder about the rules of their behavior in such a
situation; organization and carrying out rescue and other emergency rescue and
recovery operations in the lesions and flooded areas; leadership training and
government forces SP system to protect and practice in emergencies, as well as
the organization and training of the population appropriate forms and methods
of protection and actions in emergency situations; participate in the
development and implementation of engineering and other measures to improve
the sustainability of economic facilities in emergencies
B) the protection of population and economy from the consequences of
emergencies; timely warning of the dangers threatening the life and health of
people and their involvement in the construction of shelters and shelters;
organization and carrying out rescue and other emergency rescue and recovery
operations in the lesions and flooded areas; Prepare guidance and command
personnel SP forces, as well as teaching people how to protect themselves and
actions in emergency situations; development and implementation of
engineering, technical and other measures to improve the sustainability of
economic facilities in emergencies
C) protection of population and economy from the consequences of
emergencies; design and construction of shelters and shelters SP; timely
warning of the dangers threatening the life and health of people and remind
them about the rules of their behavior in such a situation; organization and
carrying out rescue and other emergency rescue and recovery operations in the
lesions and flooded areas; leadership training and government forces SP system
to protect and practice in emergencies, as well as the organization and training
of the population techniques and methods of protection and actions in
emergency situations; development and implementation of engineering,
technical and other measures to improve the sustainability of economic
facilities in emergencies
D) protection of population and economy from the consequences of
emergencies; raising the awareness of the population on how to implement
security of vital economic facilities, conducting rescue and other emergency
rescue and recovery operations in the areas of major accidents and natural
disasters; leadership training and government forces SP system to protect and
practice in emergencies; carrying out engineering and other measures to
improve the sustainability of national economy in emergency
E) the protection of population and economy from the consequences of
emergencies; raising the awareness of the population about the dangers arising
from the use of enemy weapons of mass destruction, how to behave during the
evacuation of citizens in the suburban area, etc .; organization and carrying out
rescue and other emergency rescue and recovery operations in the lesions and
flooded areas; leadership training forces to respond to all kinds and forms of
emergency in war and peace; participate in the development and
implementation of engineering and other measures to improve the sustainability
of facilities and vigilance of the population.
169. On what principle is based civil defense?
A) the territorial-production
B) territorial and industrial
C) of the precinct and survey
D) Scientific Production
E) regionally-professional
170. What is the principle of the territorial organization of civil defense?
A) activities SD organized throughout the country
B) SD organized events throughout the facility
C) activities SD organized throughout the affected area
D) activities SD organized throughout the region
E) activities SD organized throughout the production structure
171. What is the principle of different and integrated approach to the planning
of the SD?
A) military, strategic, economic and other characteristics of cities, districts,
industrial and social purpose
B) the military-industrial and socio-economic and other measures of cities,
districts, sites, production units
C) scale, the importance enomichnosti and ecology of cities, districts, industrial
and social purpose
D) the extent of the devastation, the number of victims and the possibility of
rescue operations without the involvement of foreign aid
E) the individual and integrated approach to site selection, timing and amount
involved SNAVR for this effort and funds
172. What is the principle of mass and enforcement activities of the Civil War?
A) event should cover the entire population of the Republic and shall carry
mandatory work-force
B) event should include all objects in the region of defeat and should bear the
character of forced labor population
C) event should cover the entire scope of the planned activities with the
mandatory involvement of experts in different fields
D) event should cover the area of disasters, accidents and natural disasters with
the obligatory engagement of the entire population of the republic
E) event should bear the character of a mass and conducted under the control of
law enforcement.
173. What is the principle of constant readiness civil defense system?
A) in a state of readiness to immediately and effectively start its operations in
the event of an emergency
B) in a state of vigilance to immediately and effectively respond to the signals
of distress
C) in a state of readiness for emergency humanitarian actions in the safety
population
D) personnel specialists constantly prepare civilians for the needs of SP
E) be in constant readiness and respond to SOS signals in emergencies
174. What is the principle of immediate emergency warning?
A) immediately inform the population of the republic and the possible
emergencies arising
B) to immediately declare an alarm at the facilities of the economy and the
possible emergencies arising
C) immediately stop all radio and television to inform about the time of the
forthcoming "Special newscast"
D) immediately declare "Collection" command personnel SD forces and send
them to the area or possible emergencies arising
E) immediately hold a meeting "of the Security Council" of the Republic, and
then inform the public media and the decision of Emergency
175. What is the principle of coherence in the system of civil defense
organizations?
A) are closely connected and adaptability of government bodies and Ministry of
Emergency Situations of the Republic forces involved in civil defense
B) a close relationship of production, economic agencies and special units SD
involved in providing civil defense
C) is closely associated administration of government and law enforcement
agencies MOE, involved in providing civil defense
D) business connectivity and reliable state structures MOE, involved providing
civil defense
E) mutual information and efficiency between public authorities and by the
MOE, involved in the provision of civil defense
176. For planning civil defense tasks emanating from the plans and oversee
their implementation that is created on the ground?
A) headquarters SD
B) forces and means SD
C) the combined formation SD
D) rescue units SD
E) service SD
177. For special events and create for this purpose forces and civil defense
assets, to ensure the activities of these forces and means during SNAVR that is
created on the ground?
A) service SD
B) headquarters SD
C) forces and means SD
D) summary form SD
E) rescue units SD
178. What are the human elements includes Civil Defence Organization object?
A) the head of the object, the chief of staff of SD, deputy head of the object,
GO service, the formation of a general-purpose services form a special purpose
B) the head of the object, his deputies, SD service, the formation of a generalpurpose formation of special purpose
C) the head of the object, Chief of Staff of Defense and his deputies, SD
service, the formation of general and special purpose
D) Manager, Chief of Staff, Chief of Defense, the Deputy Head of Service, the
formation of the General Services Administration, the formation of specialpurpose services
E) the chief object SD, SD headquarters, branch personnel evacuation
commission, service and formation of SD, SD combined detachments
179. What form part of the civil defense forces?
A) units of the DPP; established emergency rescue teams; non-military
formations; the formation of organizations, agencies and ministries and
departments, required to perform special events SD
B) units of the DPP; staff emergency repair formation; formation of a common
purpose; formation services; special form of ministries and departments
involved in the implementation of special events SD
C) SDmilitary units; rescue regular and irregular form; formation of internal
troops; formation of ministries and departments, heads of executive powers,
attracted to the implementation of special events SD
D) units of the DPP; established emergency rescue teams; unit fire stations,
medical units of the Ministry of Health; formation of ministries, departments,
organizations and institutions required to perform special events SD
E) units of the DPP; fire departments SD; SD health services; SD investigation
services; construction services SD; Rescue regular and irregular service SD;
mechanized service SD
180. Who is credited in non-military formations SD?
A) men from 18 to 60 years
women from 18 to 55 years old
B) men from 18 to 62 years
women from 18 to 57 years old
C) men from 18 to 60 years
women 20 to 50 years
D) men from 18 to 62 years
women from 20 to 55 years
E) men from 20 to 60 years
women 20 to 50 years
181. What are the objects of the economy, specialized formation of SD?
A) in nuclear power plants and chemically hazardous objects
B) in nuclear power plants and chemical laboratories
C) at all sites
D) in the Ministry of Defense Industry
E) in the Ministry for Emergency Situations
182. What are the form of subordination to SD?
A) territorial, facility
B) national, regional
C) Regional
D) regional, facility
E) master, slave,
183. What are the formation of SD on tasks performed?
A) general purpose, special purpose, specialized
B) territorial, special purpose, general purpose
C) main, auxiliary, specialized
D) rescue, medical, construction
E) master, slave, imparted
184. What are the formation of a common purpose?
A) summary, rescue, summary mechanized
B) objects does, territorial, national
C) main, auxiliary, imparted
D) master, slave, imparted
E) rescue, medical, construction
185. What are the formation of a special purpose?
A) intelligence, medical assistance, fire
B) reconnaissance, search, mechanized
C) the registration, search, rescue
D) intelligence, counterintelligence, investigative
E) intelligence, chemical, bacteriological
186. What is the purpose personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) to protect people from radioactive and toxic substances and bacterial agents
B) to protect people from toxic substances and bacterial agents
C) to protect the human respiratory organs from radioactive substances, toxic
substances and bacterial agents
D) to protect rescuers during search operations
E) to protect divers during search and rescue operations
187. How to share personal protective equipment as intended?
A) on the respiratory and skin protection
B) on hearing protection, eye protection and skin protection
C) for filtering respiratory protection and insulating skin protection
D) on filtering respirators, insulation kits and simple skin care
E) on the insulating respirators, first-aid and individual insulators respiratory
188. As classified personal respiratory protection?
A) filter masks, insulating gas masks, respirators, protozoa or other available
means, CPAs-4
B) the individual filter kits, masks, Apparatus, the simplest means, CPAs-4
C) filter-insulating masks, respirators, individual first aid kit, CPAs-4
D) filtering respirators, insulation kits, simple eye protection, CPAs-4
E) isolating respirators, first-aid, individual insulators respiratory CPAs-4
189. What are the personal protection of the skin?
A) isolating and filtering
B) leather and material
C) isolating and leather
D) cloth and insulating
E) industrial manufacturing and home-made
190. What kind of skin protection are insulated?
A) Hazmat suit, lightweight protective suit L-1 and protective overalls, rubber
boots, gloves and balaclava
B) Hazmat suit, lightweight protective suit L-1, a set of filter clothes FTRA-58
C) lightweight protective suit L-1, a gas mask GP-5, DP-6, the usual cloak
soaked in a special solution
D) combined arms kits AI-2, a conventional protective suit, a light mask, boots
E) filter-insulated overalls, improvised protective suit, NBC suit
191. What kind of skin protection are filters?
A) Set the filter clothes FTRA-58
B) a set of combined-arms protective MEE-58
C) Set the filter jumpsuit FBS-58
D) set a light protective filter-ZFP-5 /
E) a set of protective coveralls KPC-58
192. What is in the filter clothes FTRA-58?
A) from cotton (x / B) overalls, male underwear, c / b balaclava and two pairs
of x / b socks
B) from cotton (x / B) overalls, men's sweater, c / b balaclava and two pairs of x
/ b socks
C) of cotton (x / B) cloak, men's sweater, c / b balaclavas and two pairs of x / b
socks
D) of cotton (x / B) suits, men's shirts and underwear, c / b balaclavas and two
pairs of socks
E) of cotton mantles (x / B), men's shirts and underwear c / b balaclavas and
two pairs of socks
193. Of what are the means at hand to protect the skin?
A) Conventional capes and cloaks made of rubberized fabric, vinyl chloride or
polyethylene coat of thick woolen cloth, coarse cloth or leather, rubber boots
industrial and household products, rubber boat, galoshes, shoes made of leather
and imitation leather with galoshes, rubber or leather gloves and canvas gloves
B) Conventional capes and cloaks made of thick cloth, coarse cloth, coat of
thick woolen cloth or leather, tarpaulin boots, household products, velvet shoes,
slippers, knitted sweaters and gloves, mittens Coarse
C) conventional bolonevyh capes, cloaks, coats and jackets, cotton trousers,
rubber boots and tarpaulin for military purposes, boots made of rubberized
fabric and leather, suede shoes, galoshes, rubber, leather and knitted gloves may
D) normal capes and cloaks, blankets made of cloth, rubberized fabric or
leather, suede coats, suits of woolen cloth, coarse cloth, rubber, rubber-coated
and impregnated with a special solution of boots, shoes and shoes, galoshes,
canvas gloves and leather gloves
E) normal capes and cloaks of thick fabric, drape jumpsuit from, coarse cloth,
lightweight protective blankets, rubber boots industrial and domestic purposes,
rubber boots, galoshes and shoes suknovyh boots, leather or canvas gloves and
mittens.
194. What medical remedies used in civil defense?
A) the individual first aid kits, individual anti-gas package, individual dressing
package
B) the individual first aid kit, an individual anti-gas package, individual
antibacterial package
C) the individual first aid kit, first aid kit car, set dressings, harnesses, bandages
D) the individual first aid kit, disposable syringes, anti-gas and antibacterial suit
E) dressing bandages, swabs, anti-gas light bandage pack, antibacterial serum
and tablets.
195. As part of the first-aid kit?
A) a set of drugs that prevent or reduce the impact on the human body
radioactive radiation, chemical and bacterial agents
B) a set of drugs that prevent or reduce the impact on the human body of carbon
monoxide, smoke poisoning, ionizing radiation
C) a set of drugs that prevent or reduce pain syndromes, choking, vomiting and
convulsions from exposure to radioactive, chemical and bacterial agents
D) a set of products radiation protection, anti-gas and bacterial protection, as
well as removing pain syndromes
E) set of drugs that prevent or reduce pain syndromes for sprains, fractures,
wounds, as well as the radioactive and chemical poisoning bacteriological
196. What is simply respiratory protection?
A) with the dust cloth mask PTM-1, cotton-gauze bandages and other similar
means
B) with the dust mask cotton PVM-1, tissue-gauze bandages and other similar
means
C) with the dust gauze masks MMP-1, cotton-cloth bandages and other similar
means
D) with the dust of tissue-gauze mask PTM-1. cotton bandages and other
similar means
E) with the dust mask cotton tissue-PTM-1, gauze bandages and other similar
means
197. What determines the scope and extent of radioactive contamination?
A) the power and type of nuclear explosion, the type and power of the nuclear
reactor destroyed NPP, weather conditions, terrain and other factors
B) from the power and type of earthquake destruction of the territory of a
nuclear reactor nuclear power plant resistance RH, terrain and other factors
C) on the power of the explosion of the neutron bomb, the type and capacity of
the destroyed reactor nuclear power plant, weather conditions and other factors
D) on the power of the air bombing, stuffed warhead destruction of the territory
of a nuclear reactor nuclear power plant, the density of the fog and cloud of a
nuclear explosion, and other factors
E) on the power of the explosion of the hydrogen bomb, the type and capacity
of the reactor nuclear power plant, the weather conditions of the terrain and
other factors
198. When there is a strong radioactive contamination?
A) for terrestrial and shallow underground nuclear explosions
B) with ground and air nuclear explosions
C) aviation and high-altitude nuclear explosions
D) for surface and shallow underwater explosions
E) for air and shallow underground explosions
199. In some parts of the area derives most powerful contaminated with
radioactive substances?
A) near the epicenter of the explosion
B) on the whole track radioactive cloud
C) in the zone of danger of infection
D) in strong infection
E) depends on the radius of the zone of infection
200. What is characterized by the harmful effect of radioactive contamination?
A) dose and the radiation level
B) dose of bacteria and exposure
C) and the number of infection dose RH
D) the radiation dose and the number of SPS
E) the dose range and number of neutrons infection
201. What factors radiation situation arises?
A) from the explosion of a nuclear bomb and a nuclear reactor nuclear power
plant
B) from the explosion of a chemical bomb and nuclear accident
C) from the explosion at the nuclear power plant nuclear warheads
D) for the earthquake disaster zone NPP
E) from the explosion and fire at a warehouse warheads
202. In the area of nuclear explosions and radioactive cloud on the track which
areas of infection occur?
A) zone of moderate, strong, dangerous and extremely dangerous infection
B) zone of weak, strong, very strong and dangerous infection
C) zone of strong, highly dangerous and extremely dangerous infection
D) zone of moderate, weak, strong, and very strong infection
E) area is extremely weak, strong and extremely strong contamination
203. What determines the extent and nature of infections from agents and
SDYAV?
A) of the quantity of OM ejected SDYAV, type, storage conditions, weather
conditions and terrain
B) the nature of bacterial agents used, the type, use conditions, weather
conditions and the terrain
C) the nature of the radioactive materials used, the type, storage conditions,
weather conditions and the terrain
D) the nature of the unsanitary conditions, varieties used RH, conditions of use
and terrain
E) on the species SDYAV, their grades, application, storage rigidity, weather
conditions depending on the time of year
204. What determines the scale of the area of chemical contamination?
A) area of chemical contamination, which includes the area of application of
chemical weapons (SDYAC spill area) and the territory in which the spread of
contaminated air cloud dangerous levels
B) area of microbial contamination, types of toxins and bacteria
C) zone of radioactive contamination, γ-rays, and toxic substances spilled
SDYAV
D) zone of distribution of the radioactive cloud, which includes agents and
SDYAV
E) degassing zone, decontamination, the extent of sanitation and human food
205. Depending on the scale of use of chemical weapons, the number of emitted
(ignited) of toxic substances in the area of infection may occur:
A) one or more centers of chemical destruction
B) one or more centers of radioactive defeat
C) one or more centers of Bacteriological defeat
D) center of chemical and radiological lesions
E) outbreak of toxic components and potent radiation poisoning.
206. What is the engineering environment?
A) is the scale and extent of the destruction of buildings and structures, utilities
and energy networks, protective structures, bridges, waterworks, having an
impact on objects, forces and population SD
B) is the scale and extent of the destruction of main pipelines, municipal sewer
systems, water supply systems, artesian wells, affecting the supply of drinking
water to the population
C) the situation arising after the earthquakes, natural disasters and other natural
phenomena, resulting in disrupted traffic across bridges, waterworks and other
objects SD
D) the situation arising after emergency situations of natural and man-made,
partially disabling Railway and highways
E) is the scale and scope of the construction of utilities, buildings, structures,
utilities and energy networks that exceed building codes per unit area
207. What determines the nature of the engineering environment?
A) the magnitude of the overpressure and the dynamic pressure, duration and
speed of the shock wave
B) the magnitude of the pressure parameters tsunami sea wave length and
height of sea waves
C) the magnitude of the velocity head of debris flow, the water area of the spill
and the duration of catastrophic flooding
D) intensity of the air attack and the nature of bombs
E) on the hardness of the tectonic layer of the crust and the amplitude of
tremors
208. What are the nuclear explosions create a strong destruction of objects?
A) land and low air blasts
B) ground-based and high-altitude explosions
C) and low air underground explosions
D) in all types of air blasts
E) for coastal surface and ground explosions
209. What the destruction zone conventionally divided the entire area of the
lesion?
A) total area, strong, medium and weak destruction
B) zone of complete, partial, medium and weak destruction
C) zone of strong, not strong, weak and moderate damage
D) zone of strong, medium, weak and moderate damage
E) area is particularly strong, strong, medium and moderate damage
210. What is meant by the fire situation?
A) the extent and nature of fires that occurred in cities and other settlements,
etc., affect the activity of objects, forces and population SD
B) the extent and nature of explosive and fire events affecting the operations of
troops SD
C) the extent and nature of the flame of fire, the ambient temperature
D) the extent and nature of fires that occur in urban areas, processing plants,
nuclear reactors, affecting the operations forces SD
D0 scope and nature of fires arising from explosions of any nature affecting the
holding SNAVR
211. What determines the extent and nature of the fires?
A) the density of the development of fire resistance of buildings, terrain and
weather conditions.
B) on the importance of building, fire tanks with water to extinguish fires,
weather conditions and time of year
C) of the packing density of refractory materials, the value of buildings and
structures, terrain, time of year
D) from training firefighters to extinguish the fire, the construction of buildings
and structures, the nature of the personnel of the fire brigade
E) on the responsiveness of firefighters at a distress signal, time of arrival and
begin, fire-fighting
212. As classified fires in the affected areas?
A) the individual fire zone, the zone of continuous fire, the combustion zone
and corruption in the rubble
B) zone of rapid fire fighting, fire undamped zone, a zone of partial fires
C) area of individual undamped fire zone of continuous decay and burning fires
in the area of partial blockages
D) zone of continuous fire, the combustion zone and corruption in the rubble,
the combustion zone is highly toxic substances
E) zone of radioactive fires, chemical combustion zone, a zone of biological
fires.
213. radiation, chemical, engineering and fire situation can be identified and
assessed:
A) 1. forecasting; 2. according to intelligence
B) 1. specialists; 2. according to intelligence
C) 1. data comparison; 2. According to the intelligence services
D) 1. forecasting; 2. According to the situation
E) 1. According to intelligence; 2. Inspection of the terrain.
214. What is the inversion?
A) this phenomenon when cold air is below, and warm-top
B) is a phenomenon where the warm air at the bottom and cold at the top
C) this phenomenon when cold and warm air are mixed and move vertically up
D) is a phenomenon when cold and warm air are mixed and move vertically
downwards
E) is a phenomenon when cold and warm air stratified
215. What is the isothermal?
A) is a phenomenon characterized by a state of equilibrium vertical air
B) is a phenomenon characterized by a state of equilibrium horizontal air
C) is a phenomenon characterized by a state of separation of horizontal and
vertical equilibrium air
D) is a phenomenon that characterizes the state of the horizontal and vertical
mixing of air balance
E) is the phenomenon of strong heating of air
216. What is convection?
A) is a phenomenon where the lower layers of air heated near the ground, rise
up, and the upper layers of the cold fall down
B) is a phenomenon where the lower layers of cold air rises upwards, while the
upper layers of the sun-warmed air descends
C) this phenomenon, when the lower and upper layers of air mixed
D) is a phenomenon where the cold air at the bottom and warm air-top
E) is a phenomenon where the cold air at the top and bottom of the warm air
217. What is the radiation situation?
A) is the scale and extent of radioactive contamination, influence the activity of
production facilities, forces and population SD
B) is the scale and extent of the destruction of buildings, bridges, waterworks,
etc., affect the operations of production facilities, forces and population SD
C) is the extent and nature of contamination by toxic and highly toxic
substances which have an impact on the production of objects, forces and
population SD
D) is the scale and extent of radiological contamination, influence the activity
of production facilities, forces and population SD
E) is the extent and radiochemical contamination, influence the activity of
production facilities, forces and population SD
218. What is the chemical environment?
A) is the extent and nature of contamination agents and SDYAV, affect the
operations of production facilities, forces and population SD
B) is the scale and extent of contamination with radioactive substances,
influence the activity of production facilities, forces and population SD
C) is the extent and nature of contamination as a result of the radiological
impact of harmful substances and chemicals that affect the operations of
production facilities, forces and population SD
D) is a scale and a set of toxic and highly toxic chemicals that affect the activity
of production facilities, civil defense and forces the population as a result of
contamination
E) is the extent and nature of damage to areas of high explosive and chemical
weapons that affect the activity of chemical production objects, forces and
population SD
219. What can be obtained by intelligence agencies have the most accurate and
reliable data on radioactive and chemical contamination, destruction and fires
on the routes for the nomination and the premises (the Area)?
A) 1. by measuring the levels of radiation; 2. by determining the type of agents
and SDYAV radiation and chemical reconnaissance; 3. Exploring by
B) 1. by measuring the amount of light energy incident on the infected area; 2.
by determining the type of agents and SDYAV radiation and chemical
reconnaissance; 3. Exploring by
C) 1. by measuring the levels of radiation; 2. by determining the scope and
extent of destruction; 3. Exploring by
D) 1. by measuring the levels of radiation; 2. by determining the type of agents
and SDYAV radiation and chemical reconnaissance; 3. by determining the area
of the infected area
E) 1. by determining the value of the excess pressure of the shock wave; 2. by
measuring the concentration of agents and SDYAV on the infected area; 3.
Exploring by
220. In this connection, and why staffs GO pre identify and assess the situation
on the results of prediction?
A) due to the fact that the formation of trace radioactive cloud spread RH,
SDYAV fires and lasts for several hours
B) due to the fact that the process of disintegration of the exposure dose of
radiation to track radioactive cloud spread RH, SDYAV fires and lasts for
several hours
C) due to the fact that the formation of trace radioactive cloud spread RH, SPS
and complete the process of decay and burning in the rubble lasts for several
hours
D) due to the fact that the duration of ionizing radiation lasts for a very short
time, and the formation of trace radioactive cloud lasts very long
E) due to the fact that the formation of trace radioactive cloud, primary and
secondary cloud of chemical contamination and time to continue the continuous
fire lasts for several hours
221. What is the sequence of forecasting the extent and nature of possible
infection?
A) define the power use of weapons;
B) determine the speed and direction of the surface wind;
C) determine the coordinates of the weapons used;
D) determine the nature of the vertical stability of air;
E) determine the direction and speed of formation of the radioactive cloud;
222. What is the primary cloud by accident with the release of SPS?
A) is a cloud SDYAV resulting from an instantaneous transition into the
atmosphere of the contents of the container with the SPS at its destruction
B) is a radioactive cloud formed in the beginning of the process of radioactive
contamination
C) is a cloud SDYAV, the image at the time of bottling tanks with SPS
D) is a cloud SDYAV, formed by evaporation of the spilled substance
E) is the trace of a cloud formed as a result of dropping drops agents and
SDYAV when applying enemy chemical weapons
223. What is the secondary cloud by accident with the release of SPS?
A) is a cloud SDYAV, formed by evaporation of the spilled substance with the
underlying surface
B) SPS is a cloud formed in the time of use of chemical weapons the enemy
C) is a cloud SDYAV resulting from an instantaneous transition into the
atmosphere of the contents of the container with the SPS at its destruction
D) is a cloud SDYAV, formed by evaporation of toxins of biological weapons
E) is a cloud SDYAV, formed by evaporation of secondary substances of
chemical or biological weapons
224. What influences the behavior of agents and SDYAV in the atmosphere?
A) the degree of vertical stability of air
B) the degree of horizontal stability of the air
C), the relative stability of the air
D) the degree of humidity
E) the degree of thermal conductivity of air
225. What are the vertical stability of the air there?
A) inversion, convection, isothermal
B) Innovation, convection, isothermal
C) invektsiya, thermal insulation, isothermal
D) invektsiya, convection, izotermiktsiya
E) innovation, coronation, thermal insulation
226. On what data can be defined degree of vertical stability of air?
A) according to the weather forecast data of the meteorological observations or
B) according to the thermal conductivity of air or moisture
C) according to the forecast or estimate weather conditions
D) according to stability or horizontal air sloёnnosti
E) on any data is not defined
227. What is the basis for identifying engineering environment?
A) the degree of destruction
B) the condition of roads and walkways
C) the extent and degree of blockages
D) The required equipment and forces SD
E) to establish the feasibility of rescue
228. What determines when predicting fire situation?
A) to determine the nature of fires at the facility and the area required by the
forces and means of fire units SD
B) the nature of the fires at the site and in the area, the usefulness of the fireprevention measures formations SD
C) the scale of individual fires, continuous fire, smoldering and burning in the
rubble
D) the damage fires, creating a need for fire services SD
E) The order of the extent of fires and fire-prevention measures in the area of
fire
229. What actions are carried out after the detection of radiation, chemical,
engineering and fire situation prediction?
A) assessment of the situation, depending on the type of emergency
B) analysis of the effects of actions in the areas of emergency
C) a sequence of disaster management
D) identification of the volume of technical work
E) report to higher headquarters SD
230. Why is the identification and assessment of the situation should be updated
forecasting survey conducted directly on the ground?
a. because it is indicative
b. because it is preliminary
c. because it is purely indicative
city because it is inaccurate
d. because it nenosit reconnaissance character
231. What is meant by the actual situation of emergencies?
A) situation, the identified forces and intelligence agents directly at the site, in
areas where formations on routes nomination and in the countryside
B) situation revealed by the forces and means of Staff SD directly at the site, in
areas where formations on routes nomination and in the countryside
C) environment, the identified forces and means of collective units directly at
the site, in areas where formations on routes nomination and in the countryside
D) environment, the identified forces and means of evacuation commissions
directly at the site, in areas where evacuees routes nomination and in the
countryside
E) environment, the identified forces and means of fire units directly in areas
where populations on the routes nomination and in the countryside
232. What is the situation revealed for the timely provision of the Chief of Staff
GO information about emergencies and making the most appropriate decisions
to protect the population and conduct SNAVR?
A) the actual
B) Preliminary
C) radiation
D) engineering
E) Fire
233. What is organized to identify the actual situation?
A) radiation, chemical, engineering, fire investigation
B) antiradiation, anti-gas, engineering and fire investigation
C) the actual, pre, post and information intelligence
D) radiation, anti-gas, engineering and fire investigation
E) radiation, chemical and engineering research area
234. What are the units conducted reconnaissance of the situation?
A) observation posts, intelligence teams, engineering units and fire
investigation
B) intelligence posts, watchdog groups, links the chemical environment,
exploration
C) observation posts, anti-gas groups, links engineering environment
exploration
D) intelligence posts, intelligence groups, links chemical and biological
environment, exploration
E) observation posts engineering, fire, radiation and chemical stop Intelligence
235. What is the composition of fasting radiation and chemical surveillance?
A) Head of fasting, health physicist-chemist and radio operator
B) the chief of the post, scout and health physicist
C) chief post, reconnaissance and chemist
D) intelligence chief and two scouts
E) intelligence chief, health physicist and chemist
236. Why is organized and conducted engineering intelligence?
A) identify the state of the roads, bridges, overpasses and buildings
B) to identify the extent of the devastation
C) identifying prioritization rescue
D) identify the engineering environment
E) identify evacuation routes population
237. What is meant reconnaissance groups and links?
A) to conduct reconnaissance on routes and in the lesions
B) for group and team leader Intelligence
C) for the detection of debris on the routes and the lesions
D) to identify the scope of the upcoming SNAVR
E) to select the best evacuation routes population
238. What are equipped with reconnaissance groups (units)?
A) radiation and chemical reconnaissance means of protection, surveillance and
communications, a set of the signs
B) seismic devices, means of protection, surveillance and communications, a
set of the signs
C) radiation and chemical reconnaissance, fire extinguishing agents, medical
care and communications, a set of the signs
D) electrical measuring instruments radiation by means of chemical analysis,
self-defense, surveillance and communications, a set of warning signs
E) optical observation devices, VPHR, fire extinguishing agents, relationships,
constraints, warning
239. What gives reconnaissance groups (units) engineering environment?
A) cards binding of protective structures, devices and tools, warning signs,
RXR devices, protective equipment, surveillance and communications
B) a set of the signs, means of protection, surveillance and communication,
radiation and chemical reconnaissance
C) warning signs, radiological devices and biological prospecting, remedies,
surveillance and communications
D) cards binding of protective structures, fences with warning signs, devices of
chemical and biological intelligence, protective equipment and communications
E) card binding of protective structures, devices, radiation, seismic, chemical
detection, protection equipment, surveillance and communication.
240. Why is organized and conducted reconnaissance fire?
A) to identify the boundaries of the fire, wind speed and direction, pathways,
natural and artificial obstacles, water sources, and ways to bypass foci to pass
through them
B) to identify the extent of the fire, the direction and speed of its distribution,
natural and artificial obstacles, water sources, and ways to bypass foci to pass
through them
C) to determine the nature of the fire, the direction and speed of its distribution,
natural and artificial obstacles, water sources, and ways to bypass foci to pass
through them
D) for the detection of fire conditions, direction and speed of the spread of fire,
natural and artificial obstacles, water sources, and ways to bypass to pass
through them
E) to identify the extent and nature of the fire, the direction and speed of its
distribution, natural and artificial obstacles, water sources, and ways to bypass
to pass through them
241. What gives reconnaissance groups (units) fire intelligence?
A) by means of fire protection, fire-retardant suits, surveillance and
communications facilities, off-road vehicles
B) fire extinguishing, fire-retardant suits, observation equipment,
communications, travel terrain
C) by means of fire equipment, protective suits, means of observation and
communication, all terrain vehicles
D) fire protection, radiation and chemical reconnaissance, observation
equipment, communications and travel terrain
E) fire extinguishing agents, protective suits, means of observation and
communication, radiation and chemical reconnaissance, transport, sample
analyzers water sources
242. What should be the measures to protect the population in an emergency?
A) activities are focused, be mandatory and based on the principle of forced and
collective
B) should cover the entire population, be voluntary and based on rules
developed at the sites
C) should be focused, be selective and based on the principles of population
coverage
D) should be daily, to be forced, and based on the principles of categorization
of objects
E) should be specific, be inclusive and based on the principles of commitment
243. What are the main objectives of protecting the population in emergency
situations?
A) create the necessary conditions to protect, prevent or reduce to a minimum
the possible damage from destructive factors and rescue
B) create the necessary conditions to ensure the protection of people in
emergency situations; Exposure injurious effects on the population
C) create the necessary conditions to ensure the protection of people in
emergency situations; maximum minimizing the damaging factors
D) to create maximum conditions for evacuation of people from the emergency
area; to prevent possible damage to people from the effects of disaster
E) to create the best possible facilities while ensuring people's safety facilities;
prevent or reduce to a minimum loss of material objects of the national
economy
244. What factors disaster should be protected population in peacetime?
A) from possible accidents and industrial accidents, natural disasters and other
damaging factors threatening the life and health of people
B) from probable occupational injuries and infectious diseases, catastrophic
flooding and other adverse effects of fires and explosions
C) from possible attacks and air raids of the enemy, natural disasters and other
adverse technological, environmental and social
D) from the injurious effects of modern weapons of mass destruction and
secondary damaging factors arising from the destruction of potentially
dangerous objects
E) from possible industrial accidents and catastrophes, atmospheric and
environmental phenomena and other factors affecting the chemical and
biological effects.
245. What factors disaster should be protected population in time of war?
A) from the damaging factors of modern weapons of mass destruction and
secondary damaging factors encountered in the destruction of chemical plants
and other potentially dangerous objects
B) from the injurious effects of modern warfare attacks and secondary
damaging factors of WMD
C) from damaging factors arising from accidents and disasters, as well as
secondary effects on the people in the destruction of chemical and other
potentially dangerous objects
D) from the injurious effects of industrial accidents and catastrophes, natural
disasters and other damaging factors threatening the life and health of people
E) from the damaging effects of modern weapons of mass destruction and
secondary factors caused by natural disasters and environmental changes in the
atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere.
246. What are the main principles of the organization and conduct of population
protection from disaster?
A) on the territorial-production principle; differentiated planning; Integrated
choice of means of protection; with the participation of all citizens in the
compulsory
B) on the territorial distribution of tasks; Integrated planning differentiated
selection of protective equipment; on the principle of "appropriateness and
sufficiency"; with the participation of all citizens in the compulsory
C) on the production shop principle; differentially-integrated planning on the
principle of "appropriateness and sufficiency"; with the participation of all
citizens in the compulsory
D) for qualitative and effective choice of means of protection; differentiated
approach to planning; Integrated choice of protection options; with the
participation of all citizens in the compulsory
E) on the territorial-administrative principle; differentiated planning; Integrated
choice of means of protection; with the participation of all citizens in the
compulsory
247. What are the established group of cities SD?
A) a special, first, second, third
B) a special, special, custom, suitable
C) categorized the main, secondary, special
D) a special encrypted, special, first
E) political, administrative, cultural, industrial
248. What are categorized city civil defense?
A) major political, administrative, industrial, economic and cultural centers
B) major political, administrative, sports and cultural centers
C) large military, educational, administrative and cultural centers
D) major political, port, energy and transport centers
E) large transport, research, energy and government centers
249. What are the main methods of protection of the population?
A) shelter (placement) of people in protective structures; the use of personal
protective equipment and medical; evacuation of people from dangerous areas
to safe areas
B) shelter population in protective structures; evacuation of people from
dangerous areas to safe areas; quarantine and observation
C) shelter population in the safe areas; evacuation and placing people in
protective structures; Learning alert about the dangers of
D) placement of people in confined spaces; the use of personal protective
equipment and medical; evacuation of the population in mountainous terrain
and in forests
E) shelter people in protective structures; use of respiratory protective
equipment and medical equipment; evacuation of people in flood-free and safe
areas
250. What are alerts?
A) To warn the population of cities and rural residents of imminent danger of
any kind and the need to take protective measures
B) to obtain early warning of urban and rural population of the occurrence of
earthquakes and their evacuation to safe areas
C) to provide early warning of the need to take refuge in shelters, field
distributors and simple shelters in the event of an approaching natural disaster,
technological and environmental
D) for early warning of the need to evacuate the areas of catastrophic flooding
and sheltering SD
E) for timely action to declare a quarantine and observation in order to evacuate
people from the area of a nuclear explosion
Cavabların –A variantı doğrudur
Hazırladı
Hacıyeva İ.