Biol 212 Worksheet:
Exam Review II
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Leader:
Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Greg
Biology 212 (2)
Kukday
10/4/15
1. Which of the following statements regarding energy is true?
a. Potential energy represents the energy of motion.
b. Kinetic energy represents the stored energy, such as chemical bonds.
c. The first law of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed.
d. The second law of energy states that the transformation of energy must decrease
entropy.
2. Which of the following statements regarding ATP is false?
a. Breaking the phosphate bond requires energy.
b. Reforming new bonds after breaking the phosphate bond releases energy.
c. The total ΔG for ATP hydrolysis is +8.2 kcal / mol.
d. It is easy to break the high energy phosphate bond.
3. What does ATP stand for?
a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Adenine triphosphate
c. Adenosine trans-phosphate
d. Adenine trans-phosphate
4. What word refers to a reaction that releases energy?
a. Exergonic
b. Endergonic
c. Intergonic
d. Intragonic
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5. The ΔG for a certain reaction is +5.1 kcal / mol. Which of the following statements is
false?
a. This reaction is endergonic.
b. This reaction will not happen spontaneously.
c. If coupled with ATP hydrolysis, this reaction will happen spontaneously.
d. A large amount of energy is released at the end of the reaction.
6. Enzymes are usually which biological molecule?
a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
d. Nucleic Acid
7. An enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction by:
a. increasing the energy of the reaction.
b. lowering the energy of the products.
c. lowering the activation energy.
d. raising the energy of the products.
8. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme regulation is false?
a. Activators turn “on” an enzyme.
b. Competitive inhibitors permanently turn “off” an enzyme.
c. Enzymes can be inhibited at the active site or at an allosteric site.
d. In feedback inhibition, the products of a series of reactions inhibit an earlier step
to prevent over accumulation of a product.
9. What is the overall energy yield of a single glycolysis cycle?
a. 0 ATP, 2 NADH
b. 2 ATP, 2 NADH
c. 4 ATP, 4 NADH
d. 4 ATP, 0 NADH
10. ______ is the typical carbon starting material of glycolysis, and ______ is the product.
a. Lipids; Acetyl CoA
b. Glucose; Pyruvate
c. Fructose; Acetaldehyde
d. Glucose; Oxaloacetate
11. What type of fermentation occurs in animal cells in the absence of oxygen?
a. Lactic acid (lactate) fermentation
b. Alcoholic fermentation
c. Galactic fermentation
d. None of these; fermentation can only occur in yeast cells.
12. Which of the following statements regarding pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) is false?
a. PDH is an enzyme complex that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA
b. PDH deficiency can result in lactate acidosis.
c. A treatment option for PDH deficiency is a high carbohydrate, low fat diet.
d. Dichloroacetate blocks the enzyme that inactivates PDH.
13. Which of the steps of cellular respiration is incorrectly matched with its location for
eukaryotes?
a. Glycolysis – Cytoplasm
b. Pyruvate processing – Mitochondrial matrix
c. Citric acid cycle – Plasma membrane of mitochondria
d. Oxidative phosphorylation – Inner membrane of mitochondria
14. Which of the following is false regarding oxidative phosphorylation?
a. Carbon monoxide is the final electron acceptor of the ETC; it is reduced to form
carbon dioxide and water.
b. The ETC and ATP synthesis are coupled; that is, one process cannot happen
without the other occurring as well.
c. One way to measure ATP synthesis is by using a radioactive ADP precursor and
checking for the appearance of labelled ATP.
d. DNP acts as an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation.
15. What does DNP stand for?
a. 2,5-Dinitrophosphate
b. 3,4-Dinucleicphosphate
c. 3,6-Deoxynitrophenol
d. 2,4-Dinitrophenol
16. What is the total reaction for photosynthesis?
a. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O  C6H12O6 + 6 CO
b. 3 CO2 + 2 H2O  C2H6O3 + 2 O2
c. 6 CO2 + 12 H2O  C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O
d. 12 CO2 + 6 O2 + 6H2O  12CH4 + 3OH17. Which of the following statements regarding chlorophyll is true?
a. Chlorophyll absorbs green light the best; this is why we see plants as green.
b. Light is captured in the head region of the chlorophyll.
c. Chlorophyll absorbs light at all wavelengths of the visible spectrum.
d. The tail region of chlorophyll has no known function.
18. Which of the following statements regarding photosystems is false?
a. There are two different photosystems in plants.
b. Electrons flow from Photosystem I to Photosystem II via an ETC.
c. Electrons that reach a high reducing potential come from the splitting of water.
d. Photosystems are effectively a group of organized chlorophyll molecules.
19. Which of the following is not a product of the light reactions?
a. NADPH
b. ATP
c. FADH2
d. O2 (molecular oxygen)
20. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a. Thylakoid membrane
b. Cytoplasm
c. Stroma
d. Granum
21. Which of the following is not a phase of the Calvin cycle?
a. Fixation
b. Reduction
c. Oxidation
d. Regeneration
22. What is the correct reaction that happens during the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle?
a. 3 RuBP + 3 CO2  6 3PGA
b. 6 3PGA + 6 ATP + 6 NADPH  6 G3P
c. 5 G3P + 3 ATP  3 RuBP
d. None of the above correctly represents the reduction phase.
23. Which of the following is false regarding Rubisco?
a. It is thought to be the most abundant enzyme on Earth.
b. It is vital in the generation of RuBP.
c. Rubisco’s active sites can interact with CO2 and O2.
d. Rubisco stands for Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase.
24. Regarding the Hershey-Chase experiment, which of the following is false?
a.
32
P was used to create radioactive DNA
b.
15
N was used to create radioactive proteins
c. This experiment showed that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material.
d. Radioactive proteins were only found in the “ghosts” outside cells.
25. Which of the following is true regarding DNA Polymerase?
a. It can synthesize DNA in both the 5’3’ and 3’5’ directions.
b. It can only synthesize DNA in the 3’5’ direction.
c. It can only synthesize DNA in the 5’3’ direction.
d. DNA Polymerase does not require a primer to start synthesis.
26. The replication fork is:
a. the Y-shaped region where the DNA is split into two separate strands for copying
b. growing as DNA replication proceeds because synthesis is bidirectional
c. the location at which the replication process begins
d. present only in bacterial cells and not in eukaryotes
27. Which enzyme is correctly matched with its function?
a. Helicase – reforms the double helix following replication
b. Primase – removes primers following DNA synthesis
c. Topoisomerase – relieves tension downstream from the replication fork
d. Ligase – separates the two DNA strands to prepare for synthesis
28. What enzyme removes the RNA primer from the beginning of each Okazaki fragment?
a. DNA Polymerase I
b. DNA Polymerase II
c. DNA Polymerase III
d. DNA Ligase
29. If the sequence 5’-ATCAAGCATTCA-3’ were replicated, what strand would be formed?
a. 5’-ATCAAGCATTCA-3’
b. 5’-TAGTTCGTAAGT-3’
c. 5’-ACTTACGAACTA-3’
d. 5’-TGAATGCTTGAT-3’
30. What correctly represents the central dogma?
a. DNA  mRNA  Protein
b. DNA  tRNA  mRNA  Protein
c. mRNA  DNA  tRNA
d. mRNA  tRNA  Protein
31. What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
a. The genotype is the proteins that are produced; the phenotype is the proteins that
are absent that should be produced.
b. The genotype is the sequence of bases present; the phenotype is the proteins that
these sequences produce.
c. The genotype is the proteins produced that do not have effect the organism; the
phenotype is proteins that affect an organism’s outward appearance.
d. The genotype and phenotype are different words that describe the same thing.
32. Reverse transcriptase is commonly found in what types of organism?
a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Plants
d. Animals
33. A codon is made up of how many bases?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. Codons vary in the number of bases they are made of.
The following table may be needed for the following questions.
34. What does it mean that the genetic code is redundant?
a. Most amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
b. One codon never codes for more than one amino acid.
c. One codon can always code for multiple amino acids.
d. None of the above – the genetic code is not redundant.
35. CUA codes for which amino acid?
a. Isoleucine
b. Serine
c. Leucine
d. CUA can code for two of these amino acids.
36. Given the following DNA strand, predict the amino acid sequence.
5’-ATGCCCGATCGGTATTAA-3’
3’-TACGGGCTAGCCATAATT-5’
a. Met – Pro – Asp – Arg – Tyr – STOP
b. STOP – Tyr – Arg – Asp – Pro – Met
c. Tyr – Gly – Leu – Ala – Ile – Ile
d. Ile – Ile – Ala – Leu – Gly – Tyr
37. A mRNA undergoes the following mutation:
AUG-AAG-ACU-AUC-AUU to AUG-UAG-ACU-AUC-AUU
What is this type of mutation called?
a. Silent mutation
b. Nonsense mutation
c. Missense mutation
d. Frame shift mutation
38. What is a holoenzyme?
a. An enzyme that is only present in eukaryotes.
b. An enzyme that catalyzes the addition of phosphate to molecules.
c. An enzyme that is required for correcting mutations to DNA.
d. None of the above
39. What is a difference between DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases?
a. RNA polymerases synthesize in the 3’5’ direction, while DNA polymerases
synthesize in the 5’3’ direction.
b. RNA polymerases require a primer, while DNA polymerases do not.
c. RNA polymerases do not require a primer, while DNA polymerases do.
d. RNA polymerases are able to synthesize in either the 3’5’ direction or the
5’3’ direction, while DNA polymerases synthesize only in the 5’3’ direction.
40. What are the three phases of transcription?
a. Denaturation, annealing, extension
b. Introduction, growth, decline
c. Priming, polymerization, reduction
d. Initiation, elongation, termination
41. Which of the following is a promoter for eukaryotes?
a. -10 box
b. -35 box
c. TATA box
d. All of the above are promoters for eukaryotes.
42. Which of the following statements regarding exons and introns is false?
a. Exons are the coding regions of mRNA.
b. Introns are only present in eukaryotes and are absent in prokaryotes.
c. Introns are the noncoding regions of mRNA.
d. All of the above statements are true.
43. What is a tRNA covalently linked to its corresponding amino acid called?
a. Reduced tRNA
b. siRNA
c. Aminoacyl tRNA
d. Aminophenol tRNA
44. What is true about tRNA?
a. There are about 100 different tRNA in most cells, so each codon has more than
one tRNA that can bind to it, while each tRNA binds to only one codon.
b. The wobble hypothesis states that an anticodon can bind to a codon even if the
third position is not the typical Watson-Crick base pairing.
c. There are only about 40 different tRNA in most cells, so not all amino acids are
able to be produced in each cell.
d. tRNA molecules can have a variety of structures.
45. How many subunits do ribosomes have?
a. 2 equal size subunits
b. 2 smaller subunits and 2 larger subunits
c. 1 smaller subunit and 1 larger subunit
d. Ribosomes can have any number of subunits.
46. Which of the following is the function of the A site of the ribosome?
a. Where peptide bonds are formed
b. Where the ribosome accepts aminoacyl tRNA
c. Where tRNA molecules exit the ribosome
d. All of the above happen at the A site of the ribosome.
47. What is the purpose of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
a. Ribosome binding site preceding the start codon
b. Calls for termination ahead of the stop codon
c. Sequence that codes for an enzyme to degrade a protein that has an error
d. Aids in the formation of peptide bonds
The following table may be needed for the following questions.
48. Which of the following is a correct difference between alcoholics and nonalcoholics?
a. The ADH3*1/*2 genotype is more common in alcoholics than in nonalcoholics.
b. Alcoholics and nonalcoholics are equally likely to have the ALDH2*2 allele.
c. The ADH2*1/*1 genotype is more common in nonalcoholics than in alcoholics.
d. All of the above are accurate differences between alcoholics and nonalcoholics.
49. Which of the following is not a level of gene expression in eukaryotes?
a. Chromatin remodeling
b. RNA processing
c. Post-translational
d. All of the above are levels of gene expression in eukaryotes.
50. What is a nucleosome?
a. Fundamental subunit of chromatin
b. DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins
c. A enzyme that promotes the unraveling of DNA
d. Both a and b are correct.
51. Which of the following statements regarding enhancers is false?
a. Enhancers can be located more than 100,000 bases away from the promoter.
b. Enhancers may be located in introns.
c. If an enhancer is moved to a new location on the same chromosome, they are
unable to continue functioning.
d. Enhancers function using positive control.
52. Which of the following statements about basal transcription factors is incorrect?
a. They interact with the promoter.
b. They are not cell-type specific.
c. They are required for transcription.
d. They regulate gene expression.