Self Assessment Examination
7. Which of the following is characterized by
18: COMMON PATHOLOGICAL AND
painful, vesicular skin eruptions? (p299)
FUNCTIONAL DISORDERS
a. herpes simplex
1. Which of the following is not a part of the
b. herpes zoster
ocular adnexa? (p297)
c. squamous cell carcinoma
a. eyelids
d. basal cell carcinoma
b. lacrimal system
c. conjunctiva
8. Which of the following is the first treatment
d. orbit
step in the majority of infant dacryocystitis?
(p299)
2. An abnormality in which one or both eyelids
a. massage and antibiotic drops
droop is known as: (p297)
b. steroid drops
a. blepharoptosis
c. surgery
b. entropion
d. observe for 3 months
c. ectropion
d. dermatochalasis
9. Allergic conjunctivitis is commonly
characterized by: (p300)
3. Excessive eyelid skin, commonly caused by
a. mucopurlent discharge
aging is known as: (p297)
b. inflammation of the conjunctiva
a. blepharoptosis
c. itching
b. entropion
d. redness
c. ectropion
d. dermatochalasis
10. A raised, whitish, triangular-shaped wedge of
fibrovascular tissue on the conjunctiva is
4. Yellowish fatty deposits that occur on the
called: (p301)
upper and lower eyelids, usually on the
a. pinguecula
medial side are called: (p298)
b. pterygium
a. stye
c. both a & b
b. chalazion
d. none of the above
c. xanthelasma
d. basal cell carcinoma
11. A corneal dendritic figure is associated with:
(p302)
5. The tumor that typically has a raised surface
a. pinguecula
with “pearly” edges is (p299)
b. pterygium
a. squamous cell carcinoma
c. herpes zoster
b. basal cell carcinoma
d. herpes simplex
c. keratocanthoma
d. skin tag
13. Which condition are the following symptoms
associated with: epiphoria, foreign body
6. A tumor that a patient may describe as a “scab
sensation, burning and sometimes itching?
that will not heal” would most likely be a:
(p302-303)
(p299)
a. pinguecula
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. xanthelasma
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. keratitis sicca
c. keratocanthoma
d. all of the above
d. skin tag
1
Self Assessment Examination
14. Which of the following conditions are
21. Another name for herpes zoster is: (p299)
associated with “cells and flare”? (p303)
a. Varicella
a. anterior uveitis
b. Chicken pox
b. keratitis sicca
c. Ophthalmicus
c. Sjögren’s syndrome
d. Shingles
d. glaucoma
22. Which of the following types of conjunctivitis
15. The most common form of glaucoma is:
is most commonly associated with contact lens
(p303)
wear? (p300)
a. primary open angle glaucoma
a. Giant papillary
b. acute angle closure glaucoma
b. Bacterial
c. secondary glaucoma
c. Atopic
d. congenital glaucoma
d. Vernal
16. A pseudophakic patient has had (p304)
a. cataract surgery
b. glaucoma surgery
c. an intraocular lens implant
d. retinal surgery
23. Treatment for a subconjunctival hemorrhage
is: (p301)
a. Antibiotic eyedrops
b. Cold compresses and artificial tears
c. Lid scrubs and warm compresses
d. Antibiotic ointment
17. The leading cause of legal blindness for people
over the age of 65 in the United States is:
(p305)
a. cataract
b. glaucoma
c. eye injury
d. macular degeneration
24. Which of the following can affect visual acuity
by extending across the cornea? (p301)
a. Pinguecula
b. Pterygium
c. Neither A nor B
d. Both A & B
18. Inward turning of the eyelid is known as:
(p297)
a. Ectropion
b. Entropion
c. Blepharoptosis
d. Dermatochalasis
25. A patient who has a corneal abrasion caused by
a tree branch is at risk for: (p302)
a. Superficial punctuate keratitis
b. Bacterial keratitis
c. Fungal keratitis
d. Exposure keratitis
19. A patient with xanthelasma should have
bloodwork done to check for: (p298)
a. Abnormal red blood cells
b. Abnormal white blood cells
c. Abnormal lipid levels
d. Anemia
26. The type of keratitis that manifests a
characteristics branch-shaped figure on the
cornea is: (p302)
a. Herpes simplex
b. Fungal
c. Bacterial
d. Superficial punctuate
20. The most common eyelid malignancy is:
(p299)
a. Chalazion
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Xanthelasma
27. The degenerative corneal disease that results in
irregular astigmatism is: (p302)
a. Keratoconus
b. Arcus
c. Keratitis sicca
d. Sjögren’s syndrome
2
Self Assessment Examination
28. Which of the following is not a treatment of
34. Which of the following surgical procedures
keratitis sicca? (p303)
uses a silicone band to apply pressure to the
a. Artificial tears
retina? (p305)
b. Punctal occlusion
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
c. Cautery
b. Argon laser retinopexy
d. Epiphoria
c. Pneumoretinopexy
d. Scleral buckling
29. Which of the following eye conditions would
most likely manifest a constricted pupil?
35. The _____________ is the main supplier of
(p303)
blood and oxygen to the retina. (p306)
a. keratitis sicca
a. central retinal artery (CRAO)
b. angle closure glaucoma
b. central retinal vein (CRVO)
c. iritis
c. optic nerve
d. open angle glaucoma
d. choroid
30. A pooling of blood in the anterior chamber is a:
(p304)
a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
b. Hyphema
c. Leukocyte
d. Uveitis
36. The hallmark of proliferative diabetic
retinopathy is: (p307)
a. New blood vessel growth
b. Myopic shifts
c. The appearance of exudates
d. The appearance of Microaneurysms
31. Light sensitivity, tearing, and uncontrolled
blinking can be symptoms of: (p304)
a. Primary open angle glaucoma
b. Secondary glaucoma
c. Congenital glaucoma
d. Acute angle closure glaucoma
37. Grave’s disease is associated with: (p308)
a. Hypertension
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Thyroid dysfunction
d. Sickle cell disease
38. Plaquenil may be prescribed for: (p308)
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypertension
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
32. Patients with _________ glaucoma have
increased optic nerve cupping and visual field
loss, despite the intraocular pressure being
within “normal” limits. (p304)
a. acute angle closure
b. primary open angle
c. secondary
d. low tension
39. The most notable effect of sickle cell disease on
the ocular system is: (p309)
a. Dry eyes
b. Neovascularization
c. Color vision defects
d. Visual field defects
33. Which of the following is not associated with a
posterior vitreous detachment? (p305)
a. Vitreous shrinkage
b. Decreased visual acuity
c. Floaters
d. Flashes of light
40. Which of the following is associated with
AIDS? (p309)
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Xanthelasma
c. Arcus
d. Toxoplasmosis
3
41.
42.
43.
44.
Self Assessment Examination
Symptoms of entropion are… (p297)
48. _____________ is a bilateral, hereditary,
a. tearing
progressive degeneration of the retina, mainly
b. foreign body sensation
the rods. (p305)
c. possible corneal abrasion
a. retinal detachment
d. all of the above
b. retinitis pigmentosa
c. sclera buckling
Symptoms of ectropion are… (p297)
d. retinal hole
a. tearing
b. possible corneal abrasion
49. Patients with______________, a chronic
c. inflammation
connective tissue disease, generally have a
d. a & c
combination of dry eyes, dry mouth, and
arthritis. (p303)
The following are most commonly caused by
a. Sjögren’s syndrome
age-relation…(p297)
b. glaucoma
a. entropion
c. keratitis sicca
b. dermatochalasis
d. dermatochalasis
c. ptosis
d. all of the above
50. _______________ is an inherited blood
disorder that affects red blood cells. An
___________ is an inflammation (and/or
estimated 70,000 people in the U.S. have it.
infection) of the lacrimal sac. (p299)
(p308)
a. chalazion
a. AIDS
b. hordeolum
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. dacryocystitis
c. Sickle cell disease
d. pinguecula
d. none of the above
45. A ________ is a yellowish-white, slightly
raised mass comprised of degenerated elastic
tissue, found in the nasal and temporal
conjunctiva. (p301)
a. pterygium
b. pinguecula
c. cataract
d. stye
51. Which muscle(s) raises the eyelids? (p297)
a. levator palpebrae superioris
b. ciliary
c. orbicularis oculi
d. lateral rectus
52. Surgery is usually indicated in congenital ptosis
to avoid: (p297)
a. strabismus
b. retinal detachment
c. glaucoma
d. occlusion amblyopia
46. What is another name for a stye? (p298)
a. chalazion
b. internal hordeolum
c. external hordeolum
d. xanthelasma
53. Despite treatment, the xanthelasma often recur
in about ____ of cases. (p298)
a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 55%
d. 60%
47. Patients over the age of sixty may present with
a ring-shaped, grayish-white deposit of
phospholipid and cholesterol near the
peripheral edge of the cornea. (p302)
a. keratitis sicca
b. keratoconus
c. arcus senilis
d. glaucoma
4
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
Self Assessment Examination
A stye is most commonly associated with
61. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
(p298).
tearing, swelling, and watery discharge and can
a. staphylococcus bacteria
be caused by allergy to pollen? (p300)
b. inflamed Meibomian gland
a. atopic
c. basal cell carcinoma
b. bacterial
d. herpes zoster
c. allergic
d. viral
A clogged or inflamed Meibomian gland, an oil
secreting gland found in the tarsus of the eyelid
62. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
(p298)
mucopurlent discharge, redness, and a “gritty”
a. stye
feeling; usually contagious and can be caused
b. external hordeolum
by a bacterial infection? (p300)
c. chalazion
a. allergic
d. shingles
b. atopic
c. bacterial
Hordeolums are usually associated with an
d. contact
infection of __________, whereas chalazion are
__________ of the same glands that affect
63. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
hordeolums. (p298)
redness, swelling, and itching and can be
a. lipogranulomas, staph aureus
caused by allergy to eyedrops or cosmetics?
b. staph aureus, lipogranulomas
(p300)
c. staphylococcus bacteria, staph aureus
a. allergic
d. staph aureus, staphylococcus bacteria
b. atopic
c. bacterial
__________ is the second most common
d. contact
malignant eyelid tumor. (p299)
a. squamous cell carcinoma
64. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
b. basal cell carcinoma
itching and ropey discharge, papillae on the
c. sebaceous cell carcinoma
palpebral conjunctiva and most commonly
d. malignant melanoma
occurs in ages 3 to 25 in warm weather
climates? (p300)
Herpes zoster or shingles, is most commonly
a. giant papillary
found in people over age ___. (p299)
b. atopic
a. 40s
c. vernal catarrh
b. 50s
d. viral
c. 60s
d. 70s
65. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
redness, discharge, swelling, and gritty feeling;
Which area(s) can be involved in cases of
usually contagious and can be caused by
herpes zoster ophthalmicus? (p299)
viruses? (p300)
a. forehead
`
a. vernal
b. eyelids
b. viral
c. conjunctiva
c. atopic
d. all of the above
d. bacterial
60. Ocular disturbance(s) of herpes zoster: (p299)
a. corneal ulcers
b. secondary glaucoma
c. a & b
d. ptosis
5
Self Assessment Examination
66. The transparent mucous membrane that covers
72. The __________ is the transparent, front part of
the entire eye, except the cornea, is know as
the eye that covers the anterior chamber.
the: (p300)
(p301).
a. palpebral conjunctiva
a. sclera
b. bulbar conjunctiva
b. conjunctiva
c. fornix
c. cornea
d. sclera
d. lens
67. What membrane lines the inner lids? (p300)
a. palpebral conjunctiva
b. bulbar conjunctiva
c. fornix
d. sclera
73. __________ simply means inflammation of the
cornea. (p302.
a. keratitis
b. uveitis
c. iritis
d. conjunctivitis
68. The opaque, protective layer of the eye, made
of collagen and elastic fibers. (p300)
a. palpebral conjunctiva
b. bulbar conjunctiva
c. fornix
d. sclera
74. A patient with __________ will report a
painful, photophobic, red eye, usually with
decreased vision and tearing. (p302)
a. herpes simplex keratitis
b. bacterial keratitis
c. exposure keratitis
d. superficial punctate keratitis
69. The common term for conjunctivitis is: (p300)
a. giant papillary
b. uveitis
c. pink eye
d. iritis
75. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are mostly
seen by: (p302)
a. contact lens wearers
b. fingernail eye injuries
c. tree branch eye injuries
d. herpes simplex patients
70. A decongestant or antihistamine eyedrop may
be given to a patient with __________ (or
allergic) conjunctivitis, while an antibacterial
eyedrop would be given in the case of bacterial
conjunctivitis. (p300).
a. atopic
b. viral
c. vernal
d. none of the above
76. Which type of eyedrops should never be used
in the case of a herpes simplex virus ulcer?
(p302)
a. steroid
b. antibacterial
c. antihistamine
d. all of the above
71. Spontaneous bleeding from a blood vessel
under the conjunctiva is known as a: (p300)
a. hyphema
b. iritis
c. a & b
d. subconjunctival hemorrhage
77. Which type of keratitis can develop when the
eyelids do not completely cover the cornea?
(p302)
a. herpes simplex keratitis
b. bacterial keratitis
c. exposure keratitis
d. superficial punctate keratitis
6
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
Self Assessment Examination
Which type of keratitis cause is unknown?
85. Which type of uveitis is unilateral, low-grade?
(p302)
inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, in
a. herpes simplex keratitis
which the affected iris appears lighter in color.
b. Thygesons’superficial punctate
(p303)
keratitis
a. anterior
c. bacterial keratitis
b. posterior
d. exposure keratitis
c. heterochromic
d. lens-induced
What method(s) are used to help correct
keratoconus? (p 302)
86. Which type of uveitis occurs after the lens
a. soft contact lenses
capsule is torn from trauma or cataract
b. rigid gas-permeable lenses
surgery? (p303)
c. penetrating keratoplasty
a. anterior
d. b & c
b. posterior
c. heterochromic
The uvea, or uveal tract, contain the pigmented,
d. lens-induced
vascular layer(s) of the eye, which are: (p303)
a. anterior iris
87. Which type of uveitis is inflammation of the
b. ciliary body
choroid? (p303)
c. posterior choroid
a. anterior
d. all of the above
b. posterior
c. heterochromic
Which area(s) are involved in anterior uveitis?
d. lens-induced
(p303)
a. iris
88. _________ is a common and potentially
b. ciliary body
blinding ocular condition characterized by:
c. posterior choroid
elevated intraocular pressure, and increase in optic
d. a & b
nerve cupping, and defects in the visual field?
(p303)
What are the hallmark signs of anterior uveitis?
a. glaucoma
(p303)
b. cataract
a. eyeball protrusion
c. retinitis pigmentosa
b. leukocytes
d. retinal detachment
c. keratitis
d. ptosis
89. __________ occurs when the anterior chamber
angle becomes blocked, stopping the aqueous
Treatment of chronic uveitis: (p303)
outflow, which cause the intraocular pressure to
a. anti-inflammatory medication
rise at a very fast rate. (p 304)
b. cylcoplegic eyedrops
a. secondary glaucoma
c. monitor IOP
b. primary open angle glaucoma
d. all of the above
c. acute angle closure glaucoma
d. congenital glaucoma
Which is not a form of uveitis? (p303)
a. posterior
90. Which type of glaucoma is the result of a
b. lens-induced
separate ocular manifestation, or injury? (p304)
c. primary
a. primary
d. heterochromic
b. acute
c. low tension
d. secondary
7
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
Self Assessment Examination
Which type of glaucoma is high intraocular
97. The majority of retinal detachments originate
pressure in one or both eyes, from birth to six
from: (p305)
months of age, caused by developmental
a. retinal hole
abnormalities in the anterior chamber? (p304)
b. retinal tear
a. primary
c. a & b
b. congenital
d. neither a or b
c. low tension
d. secondary
98. Symptoms of macular degeneration include the
following except. (p305)
A __________ is an opacity or cloudiness of
a. difficult reading small print
the crystalline lens. (p304)
b. straight lines appear broken/crooked
a. cataract
c. hazy/dark spot in central vision
b. ptosis
d. decreased peripheral vision
c. xanthelasma
d. arcus senilis
99. How many forms of macular degeneration are
there? (p305)
Symptoms of cataract include the following
a. 1
except. (p304)
b. 2
a. gradual blurring
c. 3
b. halos/haze around lights
d. 4
c. epiphoria
d. decreased night vision
100. Which form of macular degeneration is the
most severe? (p305)
The ________ is the transparent, thick, jellya. wet
like substance that fills the posterior two thirds
b. dry
of the eye. (p304)
c. age-related
a. cornea
d. congenital
b. vitreous
c. aqueous
101. All of the following are treatments that play a
d. none of the above
role in slowing the progression of macular
degeneration except: (p305)
Which of the following surgical procedures
a. photodynamic therapy
uses an intraocular injection of an inert gas
b. pegaptan sodium injections
bubble? (p305)
c. multivitamins
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
d. sclera buckling
b. Argon laser retinopexy
c. pneumatic retinopexy
102. All of the following multivitamins have been
d. Scleral buckling
researched to show a decrease in the
progression of macular degeneration except:
Which of the following surgical procedures
(p305)
uses an injection of silicone oil into the
a. vitamin E
vitreous? (p305)
b. vitamin C
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
c. vitamin D
b. Argon laser retinopexy
d. Zinc
c. Pneumoretinopexy
d. Scleral buckling
8
Self Assessment Examination
103. Central retinal vein occlusion is generally
110. Which surgical procedure removes cloudy
caused by a ________. (p306)
vitreous? (p307)
a. hyphema
a. vitrectomy
b. thrombus
b. argon laser retinopexy
c. trauma
c. scleral buckling
d. plaque
d. Pneumoretinopexy
104. The following patients are at greater risk for
central retinal vein occlusion except: (p306)
a. diabetes
b. myopic
c. high blood pressure
d. glaucoma
111. Which surgical procedure is the most common
treatment for diabetic retinopathy? (p307)
a. laser
b. vitrectomy
c. intraocular injections
d. scleral buckling
105. __________ is a metabolic disease in which
the body doesn’t produce or properly use
insulin. (p306)
a. retinitis pigmentosa
b. macular degeneration
c. sickle cell
d. diabetes mellitus
112. The most common systemic disease in
American adults with approximately one in
every four adults affected. (p307)
a. hypertension
b. high blood pressure
c. diabetes
d. a & b
106. In some case, the first sign of diabetes in a
patient is large fluctuations in: (p306)
a. refraction
b. balance
c. IOP
d. peripheral vision
113. Normally, systolic blood pressure (the first
and largest number) measures between:
(p307)
a. 110 and 120 mmHg
b. 120 and 130 mmHg
c. 130 and 140 mmHg
d. 140 and 150 mmHg
107. The early stages of diabetic retinopathy is
called: (p307)
a. vascular
b. proliferative
c. non-proliferative
d. b & c
114. Diastolic blood pressure (the second, small
number measure between: (p307)
a. 55 and 65 mmHg
b. 65 and 75 mmHg
c. 75 and 85 mmHg
d. 85 and 95 mmHg
108. Weak spots in enlarged retina blood vessels
are called: (p307)
a. exudates
b. microaneurysms
c. vein irregularities
d. arterial hemorrhages
115. High blood pressure ocular findings include
the following except: (p307)
a. wide arterioles
b. vein irregularities
c. flame-shaped hemorrhages
d. cotton-wool spots
109. The following are different stages of diabetic
retinopathy except: (p307)
a. background
b. proliferative
c. non-proliferative
d. macular degeneration
116. What is a clinical sign of the presence of
Grave’s disease? (p308)
a. exophthalmos
b. erythematosis
c. ptosis
d. iritis
9
Self Assessment Examination
117. The following are ocular symptoms of
123. __________ results from an infected mother
Grave’s disease except: (p308)
passing the infection to the fetus. (p309)
a. lagophthalmos
a. congenital histoplasma
b. amblyopia
b. congenital sarcoma
c. optic nerve inflammation
c. congenital toxoplasmosis
d. fibrotic extraocular muscles
d. congenital myasthenia
118. __________ is an acquired, autoimmune
disorder that results in fatigable muscle
weakness, made worse by activity and
improved with rest. (p308)
a. Grave’s disease
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Sickle cell disease
124. Symptoms of ocular toxoplasmosis are the
following except: (p309-310)
a. inflamed retina
b. hazy vision
c. new floaters
d. severe ocular pain
119. __________ is a chronic inflammatory disease
that can affect various parts of the body,
especially the skin, joints, blood, and kidneys.
(p308)
a. Grave’s disease
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Sickle cell disease
120. __________ is a multi-system disorder of
opportunistic infections caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus. (p309)
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Acquired Immune Deficiency
Syndrome
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Sickle cell disease
121. __________ is a fungal infection thought to be
responsible for ocular histoplasmosis
syndrome. (p309)
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Histoplasma capulatum
122. The __________ is a protozoan that can affect
many body tissues, such as the liver, lungs,
and brain. (p309)
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Histoplasma capulatum
d. Sickle cell disease
10