Seismology Part V: Surface Waves: Rayleigh John William Strutt (Lord Rayleigh) 1842 -1919 Why are surface waves important? The Earth is a finite body and is bounded by a free surface; that is, the part we live on and build buildings on. Plus, they are often the 300 pound gorilla on a seismogram! An Earthquake recorded at Binghamton, NY The way to think about how to explain surface waves is to ask if there are any possible solutions to the wave equation that would trap energy at the surface. The trick is to see if you can make evanescent waves somehow, just like in critical refractions. Thus, we begin our discussion by recalling the free surface boundary condition: Free Surface. No displacement constraint. Traction is zero. (That’s why it’s free!) Again, if the interface is horizontal, then n = (0,0,1) and T T1 ,T2 ,T3 13 , 23 , 33 (0,0,0) Recall that u2 u3 u1 u3 13 23 x3 x2 x3 x1 u1 u2 u3 u3 33 2 x3 x1 x2 x3 If we concern ourselves only with motion in the (x1, x3) plane, then u2 = 0 and d/dx2 = 0, so u1 u3 23 0 13 0 x3 x1 u1 u3 u3 33 2 0 x1 x3 x3 (i.e., 23 does not provide any additional constraints). The potentials in the layer will be the sum of incident and reflected P and the potential due to a reflected SV wave: layer incident reflected layer refracted We can write the solution to the wave equations as: incident A1 exp( i ( px1 x3 t)) reflected A2 exp( i ( px1 x3 t)) reflected B2 exp( i ( px1 x3 t)) 1 1 1 The signs in the arguments that correspond to the direction of propagation, and the appropriate choices of the x3 factors. The x1 factor is the same in every case because of Snell's law. Recall that 1 p 2 v 2 cos(i) v v v k3 So, in general, we consider the displacements at the interface substituting the above expressions into the following: 3 2 u xˆ 1 x1 x2 x3 1 3 xˆ 2 x2 x3 x1 2 1 xˆ 3 x3 x1 x2 In the x1, x3 plane this becomes: 2 u xˆ 1 x1 x3 2 1 3 xˆ 3 xˆ 2 x3 x1 x3 x1 Let's see what happens when we apply the no traction boundary condition: u u u 33 1 3 2 3 0 x3 x1 x3 u1 2 ip R i 1 2 x1 x1 x1 x3 x1 2 p 2 R 2 p 1 2 u3 2 i1 R ip2 x3 x3 x3 x1 x3 2 21 R p 1 2 33 2 p 2 R 2 p 2 1 2 1 R p 1 2 0 or Next 2 2 p 2 1 2 R 2p 1 2 0 2 u1 u3 13 0 x3 x1 u1 2 i p i p R 1 2 1 R 1 2 x3 x3 u 2 2 3 i i p p p 2 1 R 2 1 R x1 x1 so 2 2p1 R p 1 2 0 Evaluating the above at x3 = 0: p 2 1 2 A1 A2 2p 1 B2 0 2 2p1 A1 A2 p 1 B 0 2 We solve for A2/A1 =RPP and B2/A1=RSS (for potentials!) Eliminating B2: p A A 4 p A A 2 p 4 p A p 2 p 4 p A p 2 1 2 p 2 1 2 2 1 2 R PP 2 1 1 2 2 2 p 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 p 1 1 2 2 2 Hence 2 1 4 p 1 1 p 2 1 2 p 2 1 4 p 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 Eliminating A2: 2p p 2 A A p 2 p B 0 4 p p 2A p 2p 4p B 0 2p1 p 2 1 2 A1 A2 4 p 21 1 B2 0 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 Hence RPS 4 p1 p 2 1 2 2 p 2 1 2 p 2 1 4 p 21 1 2 1 Note that there is an angle of incidence where almost all the reflected energy is S. We can repeat the above exercise with an incident SV wave to obtain: p RSS RSP 2 p 4 p 4 p p 2 p 4 p p 1 2 p 1 4 p 2 1 1 2 2 p 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 Because a > b, there will exist an angle of incidence where the P wave “refracts” along the free surface. Note however that in this case, p > 1/ and n is imaginary = i(p2 – 1/2)1/2 and the total scalar potential is: exp( i( px1 t)) A1 exp( ˆ1 x3 ) A2 exp( ˆ1 x3 ) To prevent this from blowing up with large x3, we must have A1 = 0. If we require u1 u3 2 13 2p1 R p 1 2 0 x3 x1 If A1 = 0, then in the absence of an SV wave we have: 2p1 R 0 Which means that A2 = 0! So, these evanescent (exponentially decaying) P waves cannot propagate by themselves. To trap energy at the surface, we need to generate interference between P and SV waves, and this is what Lord Rayleigh figured out in 1887. The way to do this is to presume that an appropriate solution might exist and then see if it really does. So, let's presume that we can trap energy at the surface by allowing both evanescent P and SV waves to exist simultaneously. In this case, the potentials are: A exp( i ( px1 t))exp( ˆ x3 ) 1 B exp( i ( px1 t))exp( ˆ x3 ) 1 Note that in this case p > 1/ > 1/which means the that the horizontal apparent velocity is less than both the shear and compressional wave velocities. Now let's apply the traction free boundary conditions: u1 u3 u3 33 0 2 x3 x1 x3 2 p 2 i 2 p ˆ 1 2 u3 2 ˆ1 ip2 x3 x3 x3 x1 x3 2 ˆ1 i 2 p ˆ 1 2 2 33 2 p 2 i 2 p ˆ 2 1 u1 2 ip ˆ 1 2 x1 x1 x1 x3 x1 2 2 ˆ1 i 2 p ˆ 1 2 0 2 Evaluating at x3 = 0 p A ip ˆ 1 B 2 ˆ1 A ip ˆ 1 B 0 2 2 B 2 ipˆ A p 2 ˆ Bi2p ˆ A p 2 ˆ1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 ˆ , so ˆ and Remember that i A p 2 2 1 2 B2p 1 ip ˆ 1 Now apply the other traction condition u1 u3 13 0 x3 x1 u1 2 i p ip ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 2 1 1 2 x3 x3 u3 2 2 i p ip p 2 ˆ ˆ 1 2 1 x1 x1 Thus, evaluating at x3 = 0 ip ˆ1 A ˆ 1 B ip ˆ1 A p 2B 2ip ˆ1 A p 2 ˆ 1 B 0 or 2p1 A p 1 B 0 2 The question now is: is there a nontrivial choice for A and B that satisfies these two equations? We write them in matrix form: p 2 2 2 1 2p1 2p 1 A 0 2 p 1 B 0 The above system of equations will have nontrivial solutions for A and B only if the determinate of the 2x2 matrix is 0. Thus, we requirethat p 2 2 1 2 p 2 1 4 p 2 11 0 2 This term is the same as the denominator of the all the reflection coefficients (RPP, RPS, RSS, RSP), and is called the Rayleigh denominator. Note that if we were dealing with real reflected waves the amplitude would be infinite! But remember that we started off assuming that we would be dealing with evanescent waves trapped at the surface. Let's divide this equation by so we can talk about wavespeeds instead of elastic moduli. Also remember that 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 p 2 2 1 2 2 p 4 p 0 2 2 2 2 p 2 2 2 p 2 4 2 p 2 0 2 2 1 p 2 2p p 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 p 2 1 1 0 factor out p4: 2 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 12 2 2 1 12 0 2 p p p v p 1 p 2 v 2 pv 1/ pv 1 i 1 1/ pv i 1 c 2 / v 2 2 2 v 2 2 2 2 2 1 c / v c / v 1 p where c = 1/p is the apparent horizontal velocity. So 2 c c2 2 22 2 4 2 1 c 2 / 2 1 c2 / 2 0 we need to solve this for c. Factor a 2 from the above: c 2 c 2 2 2 2 2 2 22 2 4 1 c / 1 c / 0 c 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 1 c / 1 c / 0 Multiply the above by c 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 1 c / 1 c / 2 To get c 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 161 c / 1 c / 0 The first term on the left becomes: 2 2 c 4 c c8 c6 c4 c6 c4 c2 4 4 2 4 8 4 6 4 4 4 6 16 4 16 2 c4 c2 4 4 16 2 16 c8 8 8 c6 6 24 c4 4 32 c2 2 16 The second term on the left is: 4 c 161 c 2 / 2 1 c 2 / 2 161 c 2 / 2 c 2 / 2 2 2 Combining c8 8 8 c6 6 24 c4 4 16 c2 2 16 c2 2 16 c4 2 2 0 c 2 c 6 c4 c2 2 c 2 8 4 24 2 1616 2 16 2 0 2 6 2 c 6 c4 24 16 6 8 4 c 2 2 2 161 2 0 A solution to the above can be found for any and . As an example, assume a Poisson solid () in which case 2 = 32: c 6 c4 16 2 2 24 16 0 6 8 4 c 2 2 3 3 c 6 c 4 c 2 56 32 6 8 4 2 0 3 3 which has roots c2 2 2 4,2 ,2 2 3 3 Of these, only the last satisfied c < , and in this case c = 0.9194 generally c is in the range of 0.9 to 0.95 What are the particle motions? We need to solve for displacement (u): 2 u1 x1 x3 2 u3 x3 x1 u1 ip ˆ 1 2 u3 ˆ1 ip2 at x3=0. From the 33 = 0 condition above, we found that 2 2 A p 2 1 B2p 1 or p 2 1 2 B A 2p 1 2 p 2 1 2 A 2 2 2 2 2 2 p 1 c 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 c / 1 c 3 2 Ap A A 2 2 2 p 1 2 c 1 2c 1 Recall that A exp( i ( px1 t))exp( ˆ x3 ) B exp( i ( px1 t))exp( ˆ x3 ) 1 1 The shear term for u1 is then c 2 2 2 exp( i ( px1 t)) exp( ˆ 1 A ˆ 1 x3 ) ˆ 1 2 2c 1 c 2 2 2 ˆ 1 A exp( i ( px1 t))ip exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) ip 2c 1 c 2 2 2 1 A exp( i ( px1 t))ip exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) p 2c 1 c 2 A exp( i ( px1 t))ip 2 2exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) 2 Combining: u1 ip ˆ 1 2 1 c 2 A exp( i ( px1 t))ip exp( ˆ1 x3 ) 2 2exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) 2 The shear term for u3 is: c 2 2 2 ip2 ipA exp( i ( px1 t))exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) 2c 1 c 2 2 2 A exp( i ( px1 t)) exp( ˆ 1 x3 ) 2 2c ˆ 1 Combining: u3 ˆ1 ip2 c 2 2 2 A exp( i ( px1 t)) exp( x ) ˆ1 exp( ˆ1 x3 ) ˆ 1 3 2 2c ˆ 1 Now, because of the "i" in front of u1, the u1 motion is 90 degrees out of phase with that of u3 (i = e i/2). Another way to see this is to consider the real parts of u1 and u2. u1 will have a sine for the first term, and u2 a cosine. For a Poisson solid, c = 0.9194 = 0.531. If we also let k=p=/c ˆ 1 0.85 and ˆ1 0.39 and be the Rayleigh wave number, then u1 iAk exp( i(kx1 t))exp(0.85kx3 ) 0.58exp(0.39kx3 ) u3 Ak exp( i(kx1 t))0.85exp(0.85kx3 ) 1.47exp(0.39kx3 ) At the surface (x3 = 0): u1 0.42iAk exp( i(kx1 t)) u3 0.62Akexp( i(kx1 t)) The motion described by the above is retrograde elliptical. At a depth of about /5, the motion goes to zero, and reverses to a prograde motion at deeper depths. Notes: 1. There is no tangential motion (u2 = 0) 2. The rate of decay depends on k, which means that longer wavelength waves penetrate deeper into the earth. 3. Wavespeed (c) does not depend intrinsically on frequency, so these waves are not dispersive in a half space. However, if and/or increase with depth, the waves will disperse with the longer wavelengths coming in first. 4. Two Dimensional spreading means these guys are large amplitude for long distances. Scorpions use them to locate prey. 5. Wave curvature is required to generate Rayleigh waves, which means that deep sources generally do not produce them. Example of Dispersion of Rayleigh waves Rayleigh waves are not naturally dispersive, but become so if there are vertical variations in wavespeed. A simple but useful example of what happens can be had by considering what happens in a fluid layer over a half space. Let the boundary between the fluid and the solid be at x3 = 0, and the top of the fluid at x3 = -H. There are no S waves in the fluid, and the P wave potentials are: w C1 exp( i( px1 wx3 t))C2 exp( i( px1 wx3 t)) In the half space, we have Aexp( i( px1 x3 t)) B exp( i ( px1 x3 t)) At the surface of the liquid, the boundary condition is u1 u3 u1 u3 u3 33 2 0 x3 x1 x3 x1 x3 u xˆ 1 xˆ 3 x1 x3 u1 ip R 2 p 2 R x1 x1 x1 x1 u3 2 2 i w I R w I R x3 x3 x3 x3 33 2 p 2I R 2w2I R 0 p 2 I R w I R 2 Which will be true for all p only if I = -R. Evaluating at x3 = H gives C1 exp( iwH ) C2 exp(iwH ) or or C1 C2 exp(2iwH ) C2 C1 exp( 2iwH ) At the interface, we require that u3 is continuous: w u iw R x3 T u3 iT ip x3 x1 3 So iw R i T ip Evaluating at x3 = 0 gives: wC C1 exp( 2iwH ) A pB Note that 1 exp( 2iwH ) 1 cos(wH ) i sin( wH ) 2 1 cos2 (wH ) sin 2(wH ) 2i cos(wH )sin( wH ) 2cos2 (wH ) 2i cos(wH )sin( wH ) 2cos(wH )exp( iwH ) So C w1 exp( 2iwH ) 2wC1 cos(wH )exp( iwH ) 2wC1 cos(wH )exp( iwH ) A pB Continuity of the gives: 33 33 u u u1 u3 u3 1 3 w 33 2 x3 x1 x3 x1 x3 From above: 33 u1 u3 2 2 2 2 w p w I R w w I R x1 x3 For the half space: u1 T ip T i x1 x1 x1 x3 x1 2 p 2T 2 p u3 T iT ip x3 x3 x3 x1 x3 T 2 p 2 2 33 p T p 2 T 2 p 2 2 2 2 2 1 Thus 2 p 2 wI R 2 ww I R 2 2 p 2T 2 p 2 21 T 2 p 2 Evaluating this equation at x3 = 0 gives: Ap 2 Bp 2 p wC1 C2 p 2 w 2 2 2 Note that C2 C1 exp( 2iwH ) C1 C2 C1(1 exp( 2iwH )) 1 exp( 2iwH ) 1 cos(wH ) i sin( wH ) 1 cos2 (wH ) sin 2(wH ) 2i cos(wH )sin( wH ) 2 2sin 2 (wH ) 2i cos(wH )sin( wH ) 2i sin( wH )cos(wH ) i sin( wH ) 2i sin( wH )exp( iwH ) So 2 2 2 2 wC1 C2 p w 2iwC1 p w sin( wH )exp( iwH ) On the right side: A p 2 2 2 Ap 2 2 2 Bp 2 p B2p Hence 2iwC1 p w sin( wH )exp( iwH ) A p 2 2 2 2 2 B2p w wp w 2 w w 2 2 So 2iwC 1 sin( wH )exp( iwH ) A p 2 2 2 Finally, we have to satisfy the shear stress condition on the interface: u1 u3 13 x3 x1 is zero in the liquid, so we must have 13 = 0 at the interface. u 2 1 i p i p T 1 1 T 1 x3 x3 u3 2 2 i i p p p 1 T 1 T x1 x1 So p1T 1 p1T p 2 0 T 2p p 2 0 1 1 Evaluating the above at x3 = 0 A2p1 B p 2 1 0 We now have 3 equations with 3 unknowns (A, B, and C1). Writing these in matrix form: 2p A p 2 2 0 2 2 2 p 2p 2i w sin( )exp( i )B 0 p 2w cos( )exp( i ) C1 wH Non trivial solutions exist when the determinate of the above matrix is zero: 4 p exp( i )(2pw cos( ) piw sin( )) 2p 2 2 exp( i )( p 2 22 )w cos( ) i w sin( ) 0 or 2p (2pw piw tan( )) p 2 2 ( p 2 22 )w i w tan( ) 0 solving for tan(): 2p piw i wp 2 2 tan( ) tan( )i w 2 p 2 p 2 2 ˆ tan( )i wp 2 2 tan( ) 2 w w4 p 2 p 2 2 ( p 2 22 ) 2w tan( ) 4 p 2 p 2 2 ( p 2 22 ) w ˆ The term in the brackets is just the (negative) Raleigh denominator again. Recalling the substitutions we made before: 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 The term in the brackets becomes: 2 2 p 2 1 2 2 2 4 p p 1 1 1 4 2 p 2 1 1 p 2 2 2 2 21 2 p 2 1 2 4 2 p 2 1 1 2 p 2 1 2p 2 2 p 2 1 2 2 factor out p4: 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 p 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 p p p v p 1 p 2 v 2 pv 1/ pv 1 i 1 1/ pv i 1 c 2 / v 2 2 2 v 2 2 2 2 2 1 c / v c / v 1 p where c = 1/p is the apparent horizontal velocity. So the bracket term becomes 2 c 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 p c 2 2 2 4 1 c / 1 c / Factor a 2 from the above to get: 2 c 2 c 4 2 2 2 2 2 p 2 22 2 4 1 c / 1 c / or 2 2 2 2 c c c 4 2 p 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 Thus 2 2 2 2 w 4 2 c c c tan( ) p 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 w ˆ 2 2 2 2 2 w c c c 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 4 w c ˆ 4 (NB: For readers of the textbook by Lay and Wallace, this is their equation 4.3.6 except that the density terms are inverted. Note that there is an extra 1/ term in their equation 4.3.6 which is obviously wrong since the tangent MUST be dimensionless.