Exam Revision choice questions
U1 AOS 1
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statements about the two particles 5927X and 5928Z+ is correct? A. They are a pair of
isotopes of the same element.
B. They have the same number of neutrons.
C. Particle Z is significantly heavier than particle X.
D. They contain the same number of electrons.
2. When the light emitted by hydrogen in the sun is analysed, the emission spectrum shows many distinct
lines.
Which one of the following statements about these distinct lines is true?
A. Each line corresponds to a particular electron energy level in the hydrogen atom.
B. Each line is produced as electrons gain the energy required to reach an excited state.
C. Each line represents the energy released as electrons transition to lower energy levels.
D. Each line represents a different element present in the sun.
3.
Silver nanoparticles, considered to have antibacterial properties, are typically 10 nm in diameter. A red blood cell
has an average diameter of 7 μm. How many silver nanoparticles, lined up side by side with no spaces between
them, could fit across the diameter of the blood cell?
A. 700
B. B. 70
C. 1.43
D. 0.7
4.
What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 4p subshell of an atom?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
5.
What could the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s13p6 represent?
A. A ground state atom of argon, Ar
B. A ground state chloride ion, Cl–
C. An excited atom of chlorine, Cl
D. An excited potassium ion, K+
6.
In which group of the periodic table will the element that has uncharged atoms with an electronic configuration
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 be located?
A. Group 2
B. Group 5
C. Group 11
D. Group 13
7.
Which of the following statements about trends in the periodic table are true? I. Atomic radius increases going
across a period in the periodic table.
II. Both ionisation energy and non-metallic character increase across a period in the periodic table.
III. Metallic character increases going down a group and decreases going across the periodic table. IV.
Metallic character decreases going down a group and increases going across the periodic table.
A. Only statements (II) and (III) are correct.
B. Only statements (I) and (II) are correct.
C. Only statements (I) and (III) are correct.
D. Only statements (I) and (IV) are correct.
8.
Where would an element with a relatively low first ionisation energy and a relatively high reactivity be found?
A. s block
B. p block
C. d block
D. f block
9.
When element Q from group 16 of the periodic table reacts with element J from group 1, what compound is
formed?
A. Ionic with the empirical formula Q2J
B. A metal alloy with the empirical formula JQ
C. Ionic with the empirical formula J2Q
D. Ionic with the empirical formula JQ
10. How do metallic atoms differ from non-metals?
A. They have a smaller atomic radius than non-metals in the same period.
B. They readily form ionic bonds when bonding with other metals.
C. They have a smaller number of valence electrons.
D. They have a higher effective nuclear charge.
11. Which of the following statements contrasting transition metals and the main group metals of groups 1, 2 and 13
is NOT true?
A. Transition metals typically form coloured compounds, whereas main group metals do not.
B. Transition metals are generally less reactive than main group metals.
C. Main group metals tend to have higher density than transition metals.
D. Main group metals form ions of a fixed charge, whereas transition metal ions can vary in their charge.
12. Consider the following qualities of metals L, M, and Q:
• Metal L tarnishes quickly in air and bubbles in cold water, producing hydrogen gas.
• The lustrous quality and inertness of metal M makes it typical for use in jewellery.
• Although metal Q does not react with water, it will react in dilute acid. In order of reactivity from the most
reactive to the least reactive, the metals are
A. M > Q > L.
B. B. Q > L > M.
C. C. L > M > Q.
D. D. L > Q > M.
13. Which of the following lists contains only ionic compounds?
A. CH4, HCl, NaCl
B. H2O, CuSO4·5H2O, MgSO4·7H2O
C. BaF2, AlF3, OF2
D. BaCl2·2H2O, FeS, AgNO3
14. A student tested an ionic compound for electrical conductivity and found that it did not conduct as a solid, but did
when dissolved in distilled water. What is the best reason to explain this?
A. When dissolved, the delocalised electrons are free to move.
B. Dissolving allows the conducting metal cations to separate from the non-conducting non-metal anions.
C. Cations and anions held in the solid ionic lattice can move freely once the lattice is dissolved.
D. The ionic compounds gain electrical conductivity from the surrounding water molecules.
15. Element X exists in only two stable isotopes, 72X and 74X. If the lighter isotope makes up 70% of all X atoms,
what will the relative atomic mass of X be?
A. Less than 72
B. Greater than 74
C. Between 72 and 73
D. Between 73 and 74
16. What is the molar mass of CuSO4·5H2O?
A. 159.6 g mol–1
B. 249.6 g mol–1
C. 177.6 g mol–1
D. 127 g mol–1
17. Magnetite is mineral found in iron ore. Its formula is Fe3O4. What is the percentage composition by mass of iron
in magnetite?
A. 24.1%
B. 42.9%
C. 72.3%
D. 77.7%
18. One mole of iron(III) nitrate nonahydrate, Fe(NO 3)3·9H2O contains
A. 3 mol of O atoms.
B. 9 mol of O atoms.
C. 10 mol of O atoms.
D. 18 mol of O atoms.
19. A 27.77 g sample of a mystery element contains 0.1460 mol atoms of the element. What is the element most likely to
be? A. Beryllium, Be
B. Osmium, Os
C. Niobium, Nb
D. Rhenium, Re
20. Which of the following contains the greatest number of hydrogen atoms?
A. 10 g of hydrogen gas, H2
B. 6.02 × 1023 molecules of glucose, C6H12O6
C. 6.02 × 1024 methane, CH4, molecules
D. 5 mol of ammonia, NH3
Short Answer questions
SECTION B — Short answer questions
Question 1 (5 marks)
Use only the elements marked in the following periodic table to match the descriptions in the questions. Each
element can be selected only once.
Li
O
Mg
Ne
Cl
Zn
Sr
Cs
Pt
At
a. What is the most electronegative element? 1 mark
b. What is the halogen with the most metallic character? 1 mark
c. Which element is filling its 5s subshell? 1 mark
d. Which d-block element could form a substitutional alloy with copper? 1 mark
e. Which element is closest in chemical properties to fluorine?
1 mark
Question 2 (3 marks)
Write the subshell electronic configuration for the following.
a. Germanium, Ge 1 mark
b. Phosphide ion, P3–
1 mark
c. Vanadium(II) ion, V2+
1 mark
Question 3 (3 marks)
Complete the following table by filling in the names or formulae for these ionic compounds.
Name
Formula
Question 4 (3 marks)
Electronegativity is a property that shows distinct trends in the periodic table.
a. Define what is meant by the term ‘electronegativity’. 1 mark
b.
Electronegativity is found to increase going across a period in the periodic table. Explain this trend. 1 mark
c.
Elements with a large atomic radius tend to have lower electronegativities than smaller ones. Explain why this
occurs. 1 mark
Question 5 (5 marks)
Complete the following.
a. Draw a diagram representing a metal lattice, and describe the components of the lattice. 1 mark
b. Explain why solid metals are malleable whereas ionic solids are not. 2 marks
c.
Explain why rapid cooling of molten (melted) metal produces a brittle substance. 1 mark
d. Both metals and ionic compounds usually have high melting points. Explain why this is the case. 1 mark
Question 6 (5 marks)
Ethanoic acid, CH3COOH, is a naturally occurring compound found in vinegar.
a. In 20.6 grams of ethanoic acid, calculate
i. the amount in moles of ethanoic acid.
1 mark
ii. the amount of carbon atoms in moles.1 mark
iii. the number of hydrogen atoms.2 marks
b. What mass in mg of ethanoic acid would be present in 5.0 × 10–4 moles of the compound?1 mark
Question 7 (3 marks)
Question 8 (3 marks)
A student carried out an experiment to form an oxide of titanium. In the experiment, a sample of titanium metal was heated
strongly in a crucible until no further visible change or change in mass was observed. The data obtained during the
experiment is in the following table.
Use the data to calculate the following.
a. The mass of oxygen added to the titanium metal during the experiment
b. The empirical formula of the titanium oxide
2 marks
1 mark
U1 AOS 2
Multiple choice questions
1. Which of the following best describes a molecular compound?
A. Ions held together by the electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions
B. Atoms containing elements that differ greatly in electronegativity
C. Atoms in which the elements share electrons
D. A lattice of non-metallic atoms held together by shared electrons
2. Both bonding and non-bonding electrons are present in the valence structures of covalent compounds. How many nonbonding electrons are present in the structure of methane, CH 4?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
3. The following table shows the electronegativity values of five different elements.
Based on the information in the table, what would be expected?
A. A bond formed between Y and Z would be strongly polar due to the high electronegativity values.
B. The compound formed from elements Z and W would be ionic in nature.
C. A bond formed between X and Z would be polar with the more positive end found at Z.
D. The bond formed between W and X would be more polar than the one formed between X and Z.
4. The shape of a molecule can have a marked effect on its polarity. Which of the following molecules contains polar
bonds but is an overall non-polar molecule?
A. The linear molecule HF.
B. The tetrahedral molecule SiCl4
C. The angular molecule H2S
D. The pyramidal molecule PBr3
5. Which of the following pairs of molecules consist only of polar molecules?
A. H2O and CH4
B. NH3 and N2
C. HCl and NaOH
D. HBr and OBr2
6. Covalent solids can be classified as covalent network (3D) lattices, covalent layer (2D) lattices, or molecular lattices.
Which of the following has the substances correctly assigned?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
7. A student researches the properties of three substances: magnesium sulfate, MgSO 4 ; sulfur dioxide, SO2 ; and
magnesium metal, Mg. Which of the following statements regarding these substances is correct?
A. Both Mg and MgSO4 have high melting points but only MgSO4 conducts electricity in its molten form.
B. Neither MgSO4 nor SO2 would conduct electricity in the solid state.
C. Both SO2 and MgSO4 have high melting points and conduct electricity in their liquid state.
D. Both SO2 and Mg can conduct electricity in either the liquid or solid state.
8. Fluoromethane, CH3F, can be solidified if cooled to −138°C. Apart from dispersion forces, what bond types would be
present in a sample of frozen fluoromethane?
A. Both covalent bonds and hydrogen bonding
B. Hydrogen bonding only
C. Covalent bonding and dipole–dipole interactions
D. Covalent bonding only
9. Hydrocarbons can be classified as alkanes, alkenes or alkynes. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Due to the presence of multiple bonds, alkenes and alkynes tend to be more polar than alkanes.
B. Alkenes have a larger proportion of hydrogen than alkanes.
C. Alkynes are the only compounds that have just triple bonds between each carbon.
D. Alkanes, alkenes and alkynes have only dispersion forces for their intermolecular attraction.
10. Which of the following statements about the organic molecule 3,3-dimethylpent-2-ene are true? I. It is an unsaturated
molecule. II. It has a total of 7 carbon atoms. III. It has a different molecular formula from 3-ethylpent-2-ene.
A. Only statements (I) and (II) are true.
B. Only statements (I) and (III) are true.
C. Only statement (III) is true.
D. Only statement (I) is true
11. What is the number of hydrogen atoms present in one molecule of propanoic acid?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
12. Which of the following is expected to have the lowest boiling point?
A. CH3OH
B. CH3CH3
C. CH3CH2CH3
D. CH3NH2
13. The ester shown here was formed by a condensation reaction between which reactants?
A. Ethanol and methanol
B. Methanol and ethanoic acid
C. Ethanol and methanoic acid
D. Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
14. Which one of the following molecules cannot undergo an addition reaction?
A. CH3CH2CH3
B. Propene
C. CH3CHCHCH3
D. But-1-ene
15. Which of the following describes a substitution reaction?
A. Ethene reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
B. Ethane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water
C. Ethene reacts with HCl(g) in the presence of a catalyst to produce chloroethane.
D. Ethane reacts with chlorine gas in the presence of UV light to produce chloroethane and HCl.
16. What is the correct systematic (IUPAC) name of CH3CH2CH(CH3 )CH2CH2Cl?
A. 1-chloro-3-methylpentane
B. 3-methyl-6-pentachloride
C. 1-chloro-2-methylpentane
D. 1-chloro-4-ethylbutane
17. What is the number of different structural isomers that have the formula C5H12?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
18. Consider the following polymer
segment.
A. Molecule A
B. Molecule B
C. Molecule C
D. Molecule D
19. What is the process of fractional distillation used to do?
A. Separate crude oil into its individual hydrocarbon compounds
B. Break down longer hydrocarbon chains into smaller, more useful, molecules
C. Remove hydrogen atoms from alkanes to make unsaturated molecules
D. Separate the hydrocarbon mixture into groups of similar boiling points
20. Which of the following statements about thermosetting and thermoplastic polymers is correctly classified?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Short Answer Section
Question 1 (8 marks)
The following table lists two molecules. Complete the following for each molecule.
a. Draw the Lewis (electron dot) formula. 1 mark for each
b. Draw the structure giving its shape according to VSEPR theory and including any non-bonding electrons. 1 mark for each
c. Classify each as polar or non-polar and mark in the 𝛿– and 𝛿+ regions on opposite ends of any of the polar structures.
Leave blank if non-polar. 1 mark for each
d. Classify the shape of the molecule. 1 mark for each
Question 2 (4 marks)
Explain why the properties of these substances differ by referring to their bonding.
a. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is the hardest naturally occurring substances but graphite is
soft and tends to form flakes. 1 mark
b. Butane has a lower boiling point than pentane. 1 mark
c. Hexane and butanoic acid have a similar molar mass, but hexane has a boiling point of 68 °C while butanoic acid has a
boiling point of 163 °C. 1 mark
d. Both carbon dioxide, CO2 , and water are molecules containing polar bonds and three atoms, yet CO 2 is non-polar while
water is polar. 1 mark
Question 3
a. Complete the following table, providing either the systematic (IUPAC) name or the structural formula as required for the
compounds. 4 marks
b. Write the semi-structural (condensed) formula for ethylbutanoate. 1 mark
c.
Write the molecular formula for octane. 1 mark
Question 4 (4 marks)
Draw and systematically name two structural isomers for a pair of alcohols that have the molecular formula C3H8O.
Question 5
a. Determine the empirical and molecular formula of a compound composed of 18.24 g Carbon, 0.51 g Hydrogen, and
16.91 g Fluorine has a molar mass 562.0 g/mol.
b. The percent composition of an unknown substance is 75.42 % Carbon, 6.63 % Hydrogen, 8.38 % Nitrogen, and 9.57
% Oxygen. If its molar mass is 334.0 g/mol what is its empirical and molecular formula?