DUMPS
BASE
EXAM DUMPS
CISCO
100-140
28% OFF Automatically For You
Cisco Certified Support Technician (CCST) IT
Support
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1.A company wants to reduce its IT support costs without sacrificing service quality.
Which KPI would be most helpful in identifying potential cost-saving areas while
maintaining service standards?
A. Average handle time per ticket
B. Total number of tickets received per month
C. Ratio of escalated versus resolved tickets
D. Cost per ticket
Answer: D
Explanation:
The cost per ticket KPI is essential for identifying how much is being spent per issue
handled. This KPI helps in pinpointing inefficiencies in the support process and areas
where resources may be optimized without compromising service quality.
Option A is incorrect because while average handle time provides efficiency insights,
it does not directly relate to cost management.
Option B is incorrect as the total number of tickets does not provide direct insights into
cost efficiency or areas for cost reduction.
Option C is incorrect because the escalation ratio focuses more on the quality or
complexity of service rather than cost efficiency.
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2.Following a merger, an IT department needs to ensure its support services remain
robust.
Which KPI should be closely monitored to assess the impact of the merger on help
desk performance?
A. Change in the number of support tickets after the merger
B. Employee turnover rate in the IT department
C. Average resolution time for support tickets
D. Percentage of IT budget spent on help desk operations
Answer: C
Explanation:
Monitoring the average resolution time for support tickets after a merger is crucial as it
provides direct insights into whether the merger has affected the help desk’s ability to
resolve issues efficiently. An increase in resolution time might indicate integration
issues or increased complexity in IT support demands.
Option A is incorrect because a mere change in the number of tickets does not
directly indicate performance quality; it could merely reflect increased demand or
broader service scope.
Option B is incorrect as employee turnover gives insights into staff satisfaction and
stability but not direct help desk performance.
Option D is incorrect because the percentage of the IT budget spent on help desk
operations reflects financial management rather than operational effectiveness.
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3.What must be enabled on a Windows computer to allow mapping of an SMB
network drive?
A. Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
C. File and Printer Sharing
D. Hyper-V
Answer: C
Explanation:
File and Printer Sharing must be enabled on a Windows computer to allow other
devices on the network to access files and printers and to permit the mapping of
drives over the network.
Option A is incorrect because Internet Information Services (IIS) is used for hosting
web services, not for SMB network drive mapping.
Option B is incorrect as Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used for remote desktop
connections, not for mapping network drives.
Option D is incorrect because Hyper-V is a virtualization technology and does not
directly relate to network drive mapping.
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4.Which protocol is primarily used when a user attempts to map a drive to access files
stored on a cloud service like Box?
A. SMB
B. FTP
C. WebDAV
D. SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
WebDAV WebDAV (Web Distributed Authoring and Versioning) is the protocol
commonly used to map network drives that access files stored on cloud services like
Box, enabling users to manage and edit files remotely.
Option A is incorrect because SMB is typically used for local network file sharing, not
for cloud services.
Option B is incorrect as FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is generally used for transferring
files directly and is less common for drive mapping.
Option D is incorrect because SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used
for managing network and devices on IP networks, not for mapping drives to cloud
services.
5.What is the primary purpose of the gpupdate command in a Windows environment?
A. To update the system's time with the network time protocol
B. To reinstall the operating system
C. To refresh Group Policy settings immediately
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D. To check the disk space on all connected drives
Answer: C
Explanation:
To refresh Group Policy settings immediately Gpupdate is a command-line tool used
to force a Group Policy update immediately, ensuring that any changes made in
Group Policy are applied quickly without waiting for the next periodic update.
Option A is incorrect because updating the system’s time with the network time
protocol is handled by the w32tm or similar commands.
Option B is incorrect as reinstalling the operating system is not a function of
gpupdate.
Option D is incorrect because checking the disk space is typically done with the
diskpart or chkdsk commands.
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6.Which command can be used to force a background update of all Group Policy
settings, including security settings, without logging off?
A. gpupdate /logoff
B. gpupdate /force
C. gpupdate /sync
D. gpupdate /boot
Answer: B
Explanation:
The gpupdate /force command re-applies every policy, new and old, which effectively
refreshes all settings that are set by the prevailing group policies, including security
settings, without the need for logging off or restarting the computer.
Option A is incorrect because gpupdate /logoff forces a logoff after the Group Policy
settings have been updated, which is necessary when the changes cannot be applied
while the user is logged on.
Option C is incorrect as gpupdate /sync causes the computer to wait for the next
computer startup or user logon to apply the policy changes synchronously.
Option D is incorrect because gpupdate /boot forces a reboot of the computer to apply
policies that can only be applied during boot.
7.What happens if the gpupdate /force command is unable to apply one or more
policy settings during its execution?
A. The command will make multiple attempts until successful
B. The command will ignore all failed settings and continue
C. The command will halt at the first error encountered
D. The command will log the issue and continue applying other policies
Answer: D
Explanation:
The command will log the issue and continue applying other policies When gpupdate
/force encounters an error applying a policy, it logs the failure and continues with the
next policy setting. This allows for the application of as many updates as possible,
identifying specific issues without halting the entire process.
Option A is incorrect because gpupdate does not repeatedly attempt to apply a policy
setting if it fails initially.
Option B is incorrect as it does not simply ignore failed settings; it logs them.
Option C is incorrect because the command does not halt at the first error; it
continues with other policies.
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8.A technician finds a small fire has started in a trash bin near workstations while
performing end-of-day
duties.
What should be the technician’s first course of action?
A. Attempt to extinguish the fire using a water-based extinguisher
B. Evacuate the area and immediately alert the fire department
C. Remove flammable materials from the vicinity of the trash bin to prevent the fire
from spreading
D. Use a cloth or blanket to smother the flames
Answer: B
Explanation:
Evacuate the area and immediately alert the fire department The first priority in the
event of a fire is to ensure personal safety and that of others by evacuating the area
and alerting the fire department, even if the fire appears small and contained.
Option A is incorrect because using a water-based extinguisher on potential electrical
or chemical fires commonly found in office environments can be hazardous.
Option C is incorrect because attempting to move flammable materials could
endanger the individual by exposing them to the fire.
Option D is incorrect because smothering the flames does not guarantee the fire will
be controlled safely, and it can risk personal safety.
9.While inspecting the IT department’s storage area, a technician discovers that
power strips are daisy-chained together and are showing signs of wear.
What is the most appropriate safety action to take regarding fire prevention?
A. Ignore the issue as it is common practice in busy IT departments
B. Replace the worn power strips and ensure no power strips are daisy-chained
together
C. Cover the worn areas with electrical tape to prevent exposure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Replace the worn power strips and ensure no power strips are daisy-chained together
Replacing worn power strips and correcting improper use, such as daisy-chaining,
adheres to fire safety guidelines by reducing the risk of electrical fires due to
overloading and wear.
Option A is incorrect because ignoring the issue could lead to a serious fire hazard.
Option C is incorrect because using electrical tape is a temporary fix that does not
address the fundamental safety risk of worn and improperly used power strips.
Option D is incorrect because simply rearranging equipment does not resolve the
underlying safety issue of using worn and improperly connected power strips.
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10.A technician is scheduled to replace a broken LCD screen on a laptop.
What is the most important safety procedure to follow before starting the repair?
A. Work on a metal surface to keep the tools organized
B. Disconnect the laptop from any power source and remove the battery
C. Start by cleaning the broken screen with a wet cloth
D. Test the broken screen one more time to ensure it is not functioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disconnect the laptop from any power source and remove the battery To ensure
personal safety, it is essential to disconnect the laptop from all power sources and
remove the battery before starting any repair, especially on electrical components like
an LCD screen. This prevents any electrical shock or short-circuiting during the repair.
Option A is incorrect because working on a metal surface could increase the risk of
electrical conductivity and shock.
Option C is incorrect because using a wet cloth can lead to moisture entering the
device, which is hazardous.
Option D is incorrect as testing the screen while connected to a power source can be
dangerous and does not contribute to personal safety.
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11.When installing new hardware inside a desktop computer, which safety measure
should a technician take to avoid personal injury?
A. Install the hardware as quickly as possible to reduce exposure to the internal
components
B. Ensure all power sources are disconnected and the area is well-lit
C. Apply lubricant to screws to make installation easier and faster
D. Wear gloves to protect against sharp edges inside the computer casing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ensure all power sources are disconnected and the area is well-lit Disconnecting all
power sources before working on a computer is crucial to avoid electrical shock, and
working in a well-lit area helps in avoiding physical injury by clearly seeing the
components being handled, thereby preventing mishandling.
Option A is incorrect because the speed of installation does not necessarily correlate
with safety and can lead to mistakes.
Option C is incorrect because using lubricant on screws is not a standard safety
procedure and could damage the hardware.
Option D is incorrect as wearing gloves might hinder the ability to handle small
components and does not protect against electrical hazards.
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12.A technician needs to check network cables in a tight and cluttered server room.
What safety precaution is most important to prevent accidents?
A. Move quickly through the server room to minimize time spent in a confined space
B. Use appropriate signage to indicate maintenance is in progress and secure loose
cables before beginning work
C. Bring additional lighting to use if the server room lighting is insufficient
D. Keep all tools in a belt to avoid leaving them on the floor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Use appropriate signage to indicate maintenance is in progress and secure loose
cables before beginning work Using signage to indicate that maintenance work is
being carried out helps prevent others from entering and possibly interfering with the
equipment or tripping over unsecured cables. Securing cables also minimizes the risk
of tripping, which is crucial in a cluttered environment.
Option A is incorrect because moving quickly can increase the risk of tripping or
damaging equipment.
Option C is incorrect as additional lighting, while helpful, does not prevent tripping
hazards or physical injuries from unsecured cables.
Option D is incorrect because keeping tools in a belt, although useful for organization,
does not address the main safety concerns in a cluttered server room.
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13.What is the most important security measure to implement when using VNC to
provide remote support to an end user’s device?
A. Ensure the VNC session is configured to allow file transfers by default
B. Use a strong, unique password for each VNC session and ensure it is encrypted
C. Set the VNC viewer to fullscreen mode to better observe the user's screen
D. Allow the user to control the VNC session to maintain their autonomy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Use a strong, unique password for each VNC session and ensure it is encrypted
Using strong, unique passwords for each session, coupled with encryption, is crucial
to protect the data integrity and privacy of the user during a VNC session.
Option A is incorrect because enabling file transfers by default could pose a security
risk if not strictly necessary.
Option C is incorrect because fullscreen mode does not enhance security, it only
affects the visibility of the session.
Option D is incorrect as allowing the user to control the session might hinder the
technician’s ability to troubleshoot efficiently and does not necessarily improve
security.
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14.A Linux user is setting up a home server and needs to confirm their IPv6 address
for proper configuration.
What command should the IT support technician recommend they use?
A. sudo dhclient -6
B. hostname -I
C. ip -6 addr
D. netstat -rn
Answer: C
Explanation:
ip -6 addr The ip -6 addr command is specifically designed to display IPv6 addresses
associated with all network interfaces. It provides a clear and concise listing, making it
ideal for users needing to verify or configure network settings related to IPv6.
Option A is incorrect because sudo dhclient -6 is used to obtain or renew an IPv6
address from a DHCP server, not to display existing configurations.
Option B is incorrect because hostname -I shows all network addresses (both IPv4
and IPv6) without distinguishing between them, which can be confusing.
Option D is incorrect because netstat -rn displays routing tables, which focus more on
routes than on displaying specific interface addresses.
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15.During a VNC session, how should a technician respond if they need to access
confidential files on the user’s computer to resolve an issue?
A. Access the files without notifying the user, as they have already consented to the
session
B. Notify the user and request permission before accessing any confidential files
C. Avoid accessing the files and ask the user to open them instead
D. Record the session as evidence of the necessity for accessing confidential files
Answer: B
Explanation:
Notify the user and request permission before accessing any confidential files It is
critical to maintain transparency and trust by notifying the user and requesting
permission prior to accessing any confidential files, which respects their privacy and
adheres to ethical guidelines.
Option A is incorrect because even with initial consent, accessing sensitive files
requires explicit ongoing consent.
Option C is incorrect because it might not resolve the issue if the technician needs
direct access to properly troubleshoot.
Option D is incorrect as recording the session without explicit consent can violate
privacy laws and does not address the need for permission to access sensitive
information.
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16.What is the best practice when an employee receives an email that appears to be
from their bank asking for immediate verification of their login details?
A. Reply directly to the email with the requested information to avoid account
suspension
B. Ignore the email as banks do not contact customers via email
C. Contact the bank using a verified phone number to check the legitimacy of the
request
D. Forward the email to a colleague to get their opinion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Contact the bank using a verified phone number to check the
legitimacy of the request Contacting the bank directly via a verified phone number
ensures that the employee does not fall prey to phishing by verifying the authenticity
of the communication through secure means.
Option A is incorrect because replying directly to the email could lead to personal
information being sent to phishers.
Option B is incorrect because while banks typically do not ask for sensitive
information via email, ignoring the email does not confirm whether there is a genuine
issue with the account.
Option D is incorrect because forwarding the email does not address the verification
of the request and could potentially expose more people to the phishing attempt.
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17.An employee clicks on a link in an email that they later suspect to be a phishing
attempt.
What is the first action they should take?
A. Continue working and monitor the system for any unusual activity
B. Immediately change all their passwords
C. Disconnect their computer from the internet and report the incident to IT security
D. Delete the email to prevent further risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Disconnect their computer from the internet and report the
incident to IT security Disconnecting the computer helps prevent any potential
malware from communicating with its controller or spreading to other systems, and
reporting to IT security allows for a proper response to the incident.
Option A is incorrect because continuing to work without taking action could allow
potential malware or a breach to worsen.
Option B is incorrect because changing passwords immediately without first securing
the system might not prevent further damage if malware has been installed.
Option D is incorrect because simply deleting the email does not mitigate the risk if
the link has already been clicked.
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18.A user’s laptop that was encrypted with BitLocker has been recovered after being
lost. The user does not remember the BitLocker password but has access to their
Microsoft account.
What is the best next step to regain access to the laptop?
A. Perform a system restore to remove BitLocker
B. Use the BitLocker recovery key linked to their Microsoft account
C. Reinstall the Windows operating system
D. Reset the BIOS settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Use the BitLocker recovery key linked to their Microsoft account
BitLocker integrates with a user’s Microsoft account, where a backup of the recovery
key is often saved, allowing the user to regain access to their encrypted device.
Option A is incorrect because a system restore cannot bypass or remove BitLocker
encryption Option C is incorrect because reinstalling Windows would result in data
loss and should only be considered if all recovery options fail Option D is incorrect
because BIOS settings do not affect BitLocker encryption or the recovery process
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19.During a routine security check, a user discovers they do not have a recorded
BitLocker recovery key for their device.
What should they do first to ensure they can recover their system in the event of a
lockout?
A. Encrypt the drive again with BitLocker to generate a new key
B. Back up their data to an external drive and disable BitLocker
C. Use the BitLocker management tool to back up the recovery key
D. Change the BitLocker password to reset the recovery key
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Use the BitLocker management tool to back up the recovery key
The BitLocker management tool allows users to back up their recovery key by printing
it, saving it to a file, or saving it to their Microsoft account, ensuring they have access
to it if needed.
Option A is incorrect because re-encrypting the drive does not necessarily secure
access to a lost recovery key and may lock the user out if done improperly Option B is
incorrect because while backing up data is critical, it does not solve the issue of
accessing a recovery key for BitLocker Option D is incorrect because changing the
BitLocker
password does not change or reset the recovery key
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20.A user is setting up BitLocker on a new laptop and needs to choose how to back
up their recovery key.
Which option provides the safest backup method?
A. Save the recovery key to a USB drive
B. Store the recovery key in the cloud service provided by the laptop manufacturer
C. Print the recovery key and store it in a secure location
D. Send the recovery key to their email account
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Print the recovery key and store it in a secure location Printing the
recovery key and storing it securely (such as in a safe) protects against digital theft
and ensures the user has physical access to the key when needed.
Option A is incorrect because while a USB drive is a viable option, it can be lost or
damaged, posing a risk of loss Option B is incorrect because relying solely on a
manufacturer’s cloud service could be risky if the service experiences downtime or
data loss Option D is incorrect because email accounts can be compromised, making
it a less secure method for storing sensitive recovery keys
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21.A user reports that their computer is running slowly following a recent Windows
update.
What should a technician suggest first to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Roll back the latest Windows update
B. Check for and install any pending updates
C. Perform a full system format
D. Replace the user's computer with a newer model
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Check for and install any pending updates Sometimes, initial
updates can cause system slowdowns due to incomplete installations or pending
subsequent updates that might include bug fixes or improvements.
Option A is incorrect because rolling back an update might remove important security
patches and is not a first-line troubleshooting step Option C is incorrect because
performing a full system format is too drastic for an initial troubleshooting step and
can lead to data loss Option D is incorrect because replacing the computer should be
a last resort and is not cost-effective based on the issue described
22.After updating an application, a user is unable to open it, and an error message
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indicates a missing file.
What is the best course of action to resolve this application issue?
A. Reinstall the application
B. Delete the user profile associated with the application
C. Ignore the error and reboot the computer
D. Update the computer's BIOS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Reinstall the application Reinstalling the application can replace
the missing file and correct any installation errors that occurred during the update
process.
Option B is incorrect because deleting the user profile does not guarantee that
missing application files will be restored Option C is incorrect because simply ignoring
the error does not address the underlying issue causing the application to fail to open
Option D is incorrect because BIOS updates are unrelated to application-level errors
and won’t solve a missing file problem
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23.A user’s workstation fails to complete Windows updates, continuously looping on
the “Configuring updates” screen.
What is the most effective first step to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Run the Windows Update Troubleshooter
B. Clear the Windows Update download cache
C. Disconnect the workstation from the network
D. Manually download and install the updates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Run the Windows Update Troubleshooter The Windows Update
Troubleshooter is designed to automatically diagnose and fix common problems with
Windows Update, which can resolve issues related to updates not installing correctly.
Option B is incorrect as it might be a valid step but it is more technical and not the first
step before using built-in troubleshooting tools Option C is incorrect because
disconnecting from the network will not solve issues related to updates that have
already been downloaded and are being configured Option D is incorrect because
manually installing updates does not address potential underlying problems with the
update process itself and is more complex for most users
24.A user reports that they are experiencing slow browser performance and frequent
website errors.
What is the most effective initial step to resolve these issues?
A. Clear the browser cache and cookies
B. Update the web browser to the latest version
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C. Restart the computer
D. Reinstall the web browser
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Clear the browser cache and cookies Clearing the browser cache
and cookies can often resolve performance issues and errors related to data stored
from previously visited websites,
which might be corrupt or outdated.
Option B is incorrect because while updating the browser is important, it does not
immediately address potential problems caused by cached data Option C is incorrect
because restarting the computer does not clear browser-specific cached data that
could be causing the issues Option D is incorrect because reinstalling the browser is
a more drastic step that should be considered only if simpler solutions do not resolve
the problem
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25.During an online banking session, a user notices that pages are loading incorrectly
or displaying outdated information.
What should they do first to try and fix this issue?
A. Delete the browser history
B. Clear the browser cache
C. Change their online banking password
D. Switch to a different Internet service provider
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Clear the browser cache Clearing the browser cache removes
stored data that may prevent web pages from loading updated content correctly,
which is essential for sites like online banking where information changes frequently.
Option A is incorrect because deleting history affects only the list of visited sites and
does not typically impact how web pages are loaded Option C is incorrect because
changing a password does not affect how web pages are rendered or updated Option
D is incorrect because switching ISPs is an extreme and largely irrelevant action for
this type of issue
26.A user complains that a website is not displaying the latest updates even though
the site’s administrator confirms the updates were made.
What should the user do first to ensure they are viewing the most current content?
A. Refresh the page multiple times
B. Clear the browser cache and refresh the page
C. Update the operating system
D. Contact the website's technical support
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Clear the browser cache and refresh the page Clearing the
browser cache followed by refreshing the page ensures that the user’s browser loads
the most recent version of the web pages, reflecting the latest updates.
Option A is incorrect because simply refreshing the page may not always load new
content if the browser is pulling data from the cache Option C is incorrect because an
operating system update is unlikely to impact how individual web pages are cached or
displayed Option D is incorrect because the issue is likely related to local caching on
the user’s browser, not a problem that the website’s support team can resolve
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27.An IT support technician needs to map a shared drive using SMB protocol for
users in a Windows environment so they can access departmental documents.
What is the most important step to ensure all users have continuous access?
A. Assign a static IP address to the server hosting the shared drive
B. Schedule regular restarts of the server to ensure it does not hang
C. Enable firewall exceptions for SMB on all user computers
D. Encrypt the files stored on the shared drive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Assign a static IP address to the server hosting the shared drive
Assigning a static IP address to the server ensures that the network path to the
shared drive remains consistent, preventing disruptions in user access due to IP
address changes typically associated with DHCP configurations.
Option B is incorrect because regular restarts could disrupt access and are not a
sustainable method for ensuring server reliability.
Option C is incorrect because while necessary, enabling SMB firewall exceptions
does not address potential disruptions caused by IP address changes.
Option D is incorrect because file encryption, while enhancing security, does not
ensure continuous access to the mapped drive.
28.A company is integrating Amazon S3 buckets for cloud storage and requires users
to map these as a network drive on their local machines.
Which tool should IT support recommend for seamless integration and mapping?
A. AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)
B. Amazon S3 File Gateway
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. Amazon DataSync
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. AWS Storage Gateway AWS Storage Gateway allows for the
seamless integration of Amazon S3 buckets with on-premises environments by
enabling users to connect and map cloud storage as a network drive. This facilitates
straightforward access to cloud storage using familiar file-based interfaces.
Option A is incorrect because the AWS CLI is powerful for management tasks but
does not facilitate the mapping of S3 buckets as network drives.
Option B is incorrect because while it could potentially be used for a similar function,
S3 File Gateway is not as comprehensive in integrating S3 with on-premises file
systems compared to Storage Gateway.
Option D is incorrect because Amazon DataSync is primarily used for data transfer
between on-premises storage and AWS and does not support direct mapping as a
network drive.
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29.When mapping a shared drive in a mixed environment of Windows and macOS
users, what is a crucial consideration to ensure all users can access files
consistently?
A. Formatting the shared drive using NTFS
B. Ensuring all filenames are case-sensitive
C. Using a cross-platform compatible file system like exFAT
D. Configuring different drive letters for Windows and path volumes for macOS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Using a cross-platform compatible file system like exFAT Using a
file system that is compatible with both Windows and macOS, such as exFAT,
ensures that all users, regardless of their operating system, can read and write to the
shared drive without issues related to file system compatibility.
Option A is incorrect because NTFS may not be fully compatible with macOS,
especially for writing files without additional software.
Option B is incorrect because while case sensitivity can be an issue, it does not
address the fundamental file system compatibility.
Option D is incorrect because while necessary for individual system navigation, it
does not address the underlying file system compatibility issues.
30.An organization is transitioning to remote work and needs to ensure employees
have continuous access to their files. They decide to use OneDrive for business to
map drives on employees’ computers.
What is a key step in setting this up correctly for all users regardless of their location?
A. Configure VPN access to the corporate network for each user
B. Ensure each user's computer is part of the same Active Directory domain
C. Set up OneDrive files on-demand to minimize local storage use
D. Assign static IP addresses to all remote devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Set up OneDrive files on-demand to minimize local storage use
Setting up OneDrive files on-demand allows users to access their files without fully
downloading them to their device, thus saving on local storage and allowing
immediate access to a large number of files as needed without waiting for full syncs.
Option A is incorrect because VPN is not necessary for accessing OneDrive, which is
cloud-based and accessible over the internet.
Option B is incorrect because being part of an Active Directory domain isn’t required
for accessing OneDrive.
Option D is incorrect because static IP addresses are irrelevant for accessing cloud
services like OneDrive.
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31.A user is experiencing issues with the slow loading of files from a mapped
OneDrive folder.
What would be an effective first step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Increase the user's bandwidth by upgrading their internet plan
B. Check if the files are set to "Always keep on this device" and adjust if necessary
C. Convert all files to a different format that requires less space
D. Reinstall the OneDrive application on the user's device
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Check if the files are set to “Always keep on this device” and
adjust if necessary OneDrive’s “Always keep on this device” setting ensures files are
stored locally and synched with the cloud, which can slow down file access if the local
drive becomes overloaded. Adjusting this setting can help manage local storage and
improve file loading times.
Option A is incorrect because while bandwidth might be a factor, it’s more efficient to
first check settings that could be causing unnecessary data usage.
Option C is incorrect because converting file formats is a drastic step that doesn’t
directly address the potential causes of slow loading within OneDrive.
Option D is incorrect because reinstalling OneDrive should be a last resort after
settings adjustments and other troubleshooting steps have been tried.
32.When mapping a shared SMB drive for a team that needs access to real-time
collaborative documents, what configuration should be prioritized to ensure optimal
performance?
A. Enable offline files for all accessing the SMB share
B. Configure the SMB protocol to use the highest encryption level
C. Optimize SMB caching settings on the server
D. Restrict access to the SMB share based on user roles
Answer: C
Explanation:
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caching settings can significantly improve performance for users by reducing the load
times and improving the responsiveness of the shared drive, especially when dealing
with collaborative documents that require frequent access.
Option A is incorrect because enabling offline files might reduce real-time
collaboration effectiveness as users might end up working on local copies instead of
the server version.
Option B is incorrect because while encryption is important for security, it does not
necessarily improve performance and can sometimes reduce it.
Option D is incorrect because while necessary for security, restricting access does
not inherently improve the performance of an SMB share.
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33.An IT support technician is assisting a user who needs to map Google Drive as a
network drive on their Windows 10 computer to facilitate easier file management and
offline access.
What is the most effective way to achieve this?
A. Use the built-in Windows "Map Network Drive" feature in File Explorer
B. Install and configure Google Drive for desktop
C. Create a new network location using the FTP protocol
D. Directly modify Windows Registry to recognize Google Drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Install and configure Google Drive for desktop Google Drive for
desktop integrates Google Drive with the File Explorer, allowing users to stream their
drive files directly from the cloud, sync selected directories in Google Drive to local
copies, and map Google Drive as a network drive effectively.
Option A is incorrect because the standard Windows “Map Network Drive” feature
does not natively support mapping cloud storage services like Google Drive without
additional software.
Option C is incorrect because FTP is not used for connecting to Google Drive and
would not provide secure or functional integration.
Option D is incorrect because modifying the Windows Registry is not a supported or
safe method for mapping Google Drive as a network drive.
34.During a TeamViewer session, how should a technician handle a situation where
they need to access a user’s sensitive files to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Proceed to access the files without informing the user to maintain the flow of the
session
B. Inform the user and request permission to access the specific files needed for
troubleshooting
C. Avoid accessing the files and attempt to solve the issue without direct file access
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D. Record the session without consent to document the necessity of accessing
sensitive files
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Inform the user and request permission to access the specific files
needed for troubleshooting Informing the user and requesting permission not only
adheres to ethical guidelines but also maintains transparency and builds trust during
the remote support process.
Option A is incorrect because accessing sensitive files without user consent can
violate privacy and trust.
Option C is incorrect because it may prevent the technician from fully resolving the
issue if file access is crucial.
Option D is incorrect because recording the session without consent is unethical and
could violate both legal and company policies.
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35.When configuring a new employee’s access in AWS IAM, what is a best practice
for ensuring they only have the necessary permissions to fulfill their job
responsibilities?
A. Grant full administrative privileges to ensure no access barriers
B. Use managed policies to assign permissions
C. Assign permissions directly to individual user accounts
D. Always use default IAM policies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Use managed policies to assign permissions Using managed
policies is a best practice for assigning permissions in AWS IAM. Managed policies
are maintained by AWS and are designed to provide permissions that align with
common job functions, which helps in applying the principle of least privilege
effectively.
Option A is incorrect because granting full administrative privileges can lead to
excessive permissions beyond what is necessary for job responsibilities.
Option C is incorrect because assigning permissions directly to users can lead to
complicated and potentially insecure configurations. It is better to assign permissions
to roles or groups and then associate users with these roles or groups.
Option D is incorrect because relying solely on default IAM policies may not
adequately match the specific security requirements of the organization or the
principle of least privilege.
36.What should be done immediately after concluding a remote support session via
TeamViewer?
A. Leave TeamViewer running on the user's device for future access if needed
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B. Ensure that the session is completely terminated and that the user closes
TeamViewer
C. Schedule the next session using the same connection parameters to streamline
future support
D. Ask the user to uninstall TeamViewer to prevent unauthorized access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Ensure that the session is completely terminated and that the user
closes TeamViewer Properly terminating the session and ensuring the user closes
TeamViewer are crucial steps to secure the user’s device from unauthorized access
post-session.
Option A is incorrect because leaving remote access software running can pose a
security risk.
Option C is incorrect because reusing connection parameters can compromise
security.
Option D is incorrect as uninstalling TeamViewer might not be necessary if further
support is anticipated, but it should be secured properly.
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37.During a phone support call, a user aggressively insists on bypassing standard
verification processes due to urgency.
What is the appropriate response for the help desk technician?
A. Comply with the request to avoid conflict
B. Politely refuse and adhere to established verification procedures
C. Transfer the call to a supervisor without verification
D. Ask security questions unrelated to the user verification process to confuse the
caller
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Politely refuse and adhere to established verification procedures
Maintaining adherence to verification procedures is essential, even under pressure, to
protect against social engineering tactics that rely on creating a sense of urgency to
bypass security controls.
Option A is incorrect because complying with such requests can lead to security
breaches.
Option C is incorrect as transferring the call without following verification processes
can expose the organization to risks if the caller is malicious.
Option D is incorrect because using unrelated security questions is unprofessional
and does not address the issue of adhering to security protocols.
38.What is a key reason why help desk technicians are often targets of social
engineering attacks?
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A. They have limited access to technical systems and data
B. They are typically new employees with less experience
C. They are trained to be helpful and may overlook security protocols
D. They work in isolated environments without support
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. They are trained to be helpful and may overlook security protocols
Help desk technicians are trained to assist users and resolve issues efficiently, which
can sometimes make them susceptible to social engineering if they prioritize
helpfulness over strict adherence to security protocols.
Option A is incorrect because help desk technicians often have significant access, not
limited.
Option B is incorrect because being a new employee is not a generalizable trait of
help desk technicians.
Option D is incorrect because help desk technicians typically work in team
environments and have access to support.
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39.A user has extended their desktop across two monitors for better multitasking but
finds that the mouse does not move smoothly between screens.
What is the most likely setting to adjust to resolve this issue?
A. Swap the primary and secondary display roles
B. Align the monitors correctly in the display settings
C. Increase the screen resolution on the second monitor
D. Decrease the refresh rate on the primary monitor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Align the monitors correctly in the display settings Proper
alignment of monitors in the display settings ensures that the mouse and applications
can move seamlessly between screens, which is crucial for an effective extended
desktop setup.
Option A is incorrect. Swapping display roles changes functionality but does not affect
the smoothness of cursor movement between screens.
Option C is incorrect. Screen resolution should be consistent for a smooth experience
but changing it on one monitor does not address cursor movement issues directly.
Option D is incorrect. Refresh rates impact visual performance but won’t affect the
cursor’s ability to move between screens.
40.During a meeting, a user tries to project their laptop’s screen onto a conference
room display but only the desktop background is visible on the external screen; no
icons or applications are shown.
What should be done to correct this issue?
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A. Set the external display to duplicate the laptop screen
B. Change the wallpaper on the external display
C. Adjust the brightness settings on the external display
D. Configure the external display as the primary monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Set the external display to duplicate the laptop screen Setting the
external display to duplicate (mirror) the laptop screen ensures that all content,
including icons and applications, appears on both screens, which is necessary for
presentations.
Option B is incorrect. Changing the wallpaper does not affect the display of icons or
applications.
Option C is incorrect. Brightness settings affect visibility but not the content displayed.
Option D is incorrect. Making the external display the primary monitor would not solve
the issue of missing icons or applications on the projected screen.
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41.A user reports that the screen brightness on their Windows 10 laptop is too high,
causing eye strain.
What should the technician instruct the user to adjust first?
A. Modify the color calibration settings
B. Change the screen saver settings
C. Adjust the brightness settings from the system tray
D. Update the graphics card drivers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Adjust the brightness settings from the system tray Adjusting the
brightness directly from the system tray provides a quick and straightforward method
for users to control screen brightness directly from the Windows interface.
Option A is incorrect as color calibration affects color output but not the brightness
level of the display Option B is incorrect as the screen saver settings do not impact
the ongoing brightness levels of a display
Option D is incorrect as updating graphics drivers is not directly related to adjusting
screen brightness settings
42.During a presentation, a user finds that the projected image is too dim, making it
difficult for the audience to see.
Which action should the user take to resolve this issue on a Windows laptop?
A. Increase the contrast setting through the display adapter properties
B. Adjust the brightness setting using the function keys on the laptop
C. Change the display mode to extend these displays
D. Reconfigure the power saving settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Adjust the brightness setting using the function keys on the laptop
Using the function keys to adjust brightness is a fast solution that affects the display
output immediately, which is crucial during a presentation.
Option A is incorrect as the contrast setting will affect the color depth but not the
overall brightness of the display Option C is incorrect as changing the display mode
does not directly affect the brightness of the screens Option D is incorrect as power
saving settings may control brightness but are less direct and immediate than using
function keys
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43.A user is working outdoors and finds the screen of their Windows 10 device
difficult to see in bright sunlight.
What is the quickest way for the user to improve screen visibility?
A. Enable High Contrast mode through the Ease of Access settings
B. Adjust the display brightness from the settings application
C. Activate Windows Night Light feature
D. Turn off automatic brightness control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Adjust the display brightness from the settings application
Manually adjusting the brightness through the settings application can significantly
improve visibility, especially in brightly lit environments.
Option A is incorrect as High Contrast mode alters color schemes to improve
readability but does not increase display brightness Option C is incorrect as the Night
Light feature reduces blue light but does not increase overall visibility in sunlight
Option D is incorrect although turning off automatic brightness control allows for
manual adjustment, it does not itself increase brightness
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44.An IT administrator is setting up access for a new team member who needs to
manage EC2 instances but should not have access to manage RDS databases.
Which AWS IAM feature should the administrator use to configure these permissions?
A. Group memberships
B. Multi-factor authentication
C. Custom IAM policies
D. IAM roles for EC2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Custom IAM policies Custom IAM policies allow administrators to
precisely define and control access to AWS services. By creating a policy that
explicitly grants permissions to manage EC2 instances and denies access to RDS
databases, the administrator can ensure the new team member has the correct
access rights.
Option A is incorrect because group memberships would manage permissions at a
broader level and would not necessarily restrict access to specific AWS services
unless tied to specific policies.
Option B is incorrect because multi-factor authentication enhances security for
account access but does not control specific permissions.
Option D is incorrect because IAM roles for EC2 are used to grant permissions to
EC2 instances themselves, not to users managing those instances.
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45.A company requires its developers to access AWS resources from the corporate
office only.
What should be included in the IAM policy to enforce this requirement?
A. Resource tags
B. IP whitelisting in the policy condition
C. Time-based restrictions
D. SAML 2.0 integration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. IP whitelisting in the policy condition To restrict access to AWS
resources from specific locations, an administrator can include a condition in the IAM
policy that whitelists IP addresses. This ensures that developers can only access
resources from the corporate office.
Option A is incorrect because resource tags are used for organizing and managing
resources, not for controlling access based on location.
Option C is incorrect because time-based restrictions control when resources can be
accessed, not where they can be accessed from.
Option D is incorrect because SAML 2.0 integration is
used for federated authentication with external identity providers, not for restricting
access based on IP addresses.
46.During an IT department audit, it was noted that response times could be
improved. The IT manager is considering changes to optimize support processes.
Which of the following would most effectively reduce the time to first response?
A. Introducing a triage system that categorizes tickets upon receipt
B. Implementing mandatory overtime for technicians during peak periods
C. Encouraging technicians to take fewer breaks
D. Increasing the number of technicians on each shift
Answer: A
Explanation:
A triage system effectively categorizes tickets by urgency and complexity, allowing
the most critical issues to be addressed promptly. This reduces the time to first
response by ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently and appropriately
according to the priority.
Option B is incorrect because mandatory overtime may address volume but not
efficiency or speed of first response.
Option C is incorrect as reducing breaks can decrease technician effectiveness and
job satisfaction over time.
Option D is incorrect because simply increasing staff does not guarantee faster initial
responses without a system to prioritize tickets.
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47.An IT support technician is configuring multifactor authentication (MFA) for a
secure application. The organization wants to use an authenticator app that generates
time-based one-time passwords (TOTPs).
Which of the following aspects should the technician emphasize as the most secure
practice when deploying this MFA method?
A. Requiring users to install the authenticator app on their corporate computers
B. Advising users to store backup codes in a secure but accessible location
C. Encouraging users to synchronize their app across multiple devices
D. Setting the TOTP to expire after each login session
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Advising users to store backup codes in a secure but accessible
location
When using authenticator apps that generate TOTPs, it’s critical to prepare for
situations where a user might lose access to their device. Storing backup codes
securely ensures that users can regain access without compromising security.
Option A is incorrect because installing authenticator apps on corporate computers
could expose them to additional risks if these computers are compromised.
Option C is incorrect because synchronizing the app across multiple devices could
increase the risk of unauthorized access if one of the devices is compromised.
Option D is incorrect because TOTPs naturally expire quickly (usually every 30 to 60
seconds) and do not need to be manually set to expire after each session, which
could unnecessarily complicate the login process.
48.The IT department is implementing MFA for accessing the company’s VPN. The
security policy mandates the use of a physical hardware token in addition to regular
passwords.
What is the primary security benefit of using a hardware token for MFA in this
scenario?
A. It eliminates the need for a password
B. It can be remotely updated by IT at any time
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C. It provides a physical object that must be possessed in order to authenticate
D. It allows for an unlimited number of authentication attempts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. It provides a physical object that must be possessed in order to
authenticate Hardware tokens for MFA add a layer of security by requiring the user to
possess a specific physical device to log in, which significantly reduces the risk of
remote attacks and unauthorized access.
Option A is incorrect because the hardware token is used in conjunction with, not as a
replacement for, a password.
Option B is incorrect because hardware tokens generally do not receive remote
updates, as they are designed to be secure standalone devices.
Option D is incorrect because allowing unlimited authentication attempts would
actually reduce security, contrary to the purpose of MFA.
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49.A user reports that they are unable to access their account despite entering the
correct password and using their smartphone-based authenticator app for MFA.
What is the first troubleshooting step the technician should take?
A. Reset the user’s password immediately
B. Check for and resolve any time-sync issues on the user's smartphone
C. Disable MFA temporarily to verify the user's password
D. Recommend that the user switches to a different type of MFA device
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Check for and resolve any time-sync issues on the user’s
smartphone Smartphone-based authenticator apps rely heavily on accurate time
settings to generate valid TOTPs. If there is a time-sync problem on the user’s
device, it can cause the TOTPs to be out of sync with the server, leading to
authentication failures.
Option A is incorrect because resetting the password does not address potential
issues with the authenticator app.
Option C is incorrect because disabling MFA compromises security and should be
avoided unless absolutely necessary.
Option D is incorrect because switching MFA devices does not address the
underlying issue if it’s related to time synchronization on the current device.
50.A user is preparing to upgrade their Linux system and needs to check their current
operating system version to ensure compatibility with new software.
Which command should the technician advise the user to execute?
A. uname -r
B. cat /etc/*-release
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C. lsb_release -a
D. dmesg | grep Linux
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. lsb_release -a The command lsb_release -a provides
comprehensive details about the Linux Standard Base (LSB) version along with
specific distribution information, making it ideal for users to verify their entire operating
system version.
Option A is incorrect because uname -r only displays the kernel version, which does
not provide complete OS version information.
Option B is incorrect because cat /etc/*-release might show some version details, but
it’s not as standardized or detailed compared to the lsb_release -a command.
Option D is incorrect because dmesg | grep Linux retrieves boot messages that might
include kernel information but is not reliable for obtaining comprehensive OS version
details.
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51.A remote user is experiencing connectivity issues and the IT support technician
needs to verify the user’s IPv4 address to diagnose network problems.
Which of the following instructions should the technician give to the user to find their
IPv4 address on a Windows 10 machine?
A. Open Command Prompt and type ipconfig
B. Navigate to Control Panel > Network and Internet > Network Connections
C. Go to Settings > Network & Internet > Wi-Fi > Hardware Properties
D. Right-click on the network icon in the taskbar and select "Open Network & Internet
settings"
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Open Command Prompt and type ipconfig
The ipconfig command in Command Prompt provides a detailed list of all network
connections and their statuses, including the IPv4 address, making it the most direct
method for users to find their network details quickly.
Option B is incorrect because while it shows network connections, it requires
additional navigation to view details such as the IPv4 address.
Option C is incorrect because this pathway leads to detailed hardware properties, but
it is less straightforward compared to using the Command Prompt.
Option D is incorrect because it only opens network settings and does not directly
show network connection details like the IPv4 address.
52.During a troubleshooting session, an IT support technician needs to instruct a
macOS user on how to locate their IPv4 address to resolve an application’s network
access issue.
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What step should the technician recommend?
A. Open System Preferences > Network, select the active connection, then click
"Advanced"
B. Click on the Apple menu > About This Mac > System Report
C. Use the Terminal and type netstat -nr | grep default
D. Go to the Apple menu > System Preferences > Sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Open System Preferences > Network, select the active
connection, then click “Advanced” This method directs the user to the Network
settings where they can easily see details of their active network connection, including
the IPv4 address, under the TCP/IP tab after clicking “Advanced.” Option B is
incorrect because “System Report” provides hardware and system software
information, which does not include specific network connection details like an IPv4
address.
Option C is incorrect because netstat -nr | grep default shows routing tables and
gateway information, which is not specific enough for finding an IPv4 address.
Option D is incorrect because the Sharing menu primarily deals with settings for file,
screen, and device sharing, not network connection details.
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53.During a network audit, an IT support technician needs to guide a macOS user to
locate their IPv6 address to ensure compliance with the latest security protocols.
What should the technician instruct the user to do?
A. Open Terminal and type ifconfig
B. Go to Apple Menu > System Preferences > Network > Advanced > TCP/IP
C. Use Spotlight to search for "Network Utility" and select the Info tab
D. Navigate to System Preferences > Network, select the connection, and click
"Details"
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Open Terminal and type ifconfig
The ifconfig command in the Terminal provides a detailed overview of all network
interfaces, including IPv6 addresses. This command is efficient for technical users
who need a comprehensive display of all network configuration details.
Option B is incorrect because while it does show some network information, the
Advanced > TCP/IP section primarily focuses on IPv4 settings unless IPv6 is
specifically configured and displayed.
Option C is incorrect because while Network Utility can show network details, it is not
as straightforward or comprehensive as using Terminal commands.
Option D is incorrect because “Details” under Network preferences typically focuses
on connection-specific issues and configurations, and might not display IPv6 unless
explicitly set up to show it.
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54.A Linux user needs to confirm their device’s IPv4 address to manually configure a
network application.
Which command should the IT support technician advise them to execute?
A. ifconfig
B. hostname -I
C. iwconfig
D. sudo lshw -C network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. ifconfig The ifconfig command is used to configure, or view the
configuration of, network interfaces, which includes displaying the IPv4 address
associated with each network interface. It
provides a clear and comprehensive overview of network settings.
Option B is incorrect because hostname -I displays all network addresses on the host,
which can be confusing if multiple addresses are returned.
Option C is incorrect because iwconfig is used for configuring wireless network
interfaces and does not typically display IPv4 addresses for wired connections.
Option D is incorrect because sudo lshw -C network lists detailed information about
network hardware and does not focus on displaying network configurations like IPv4
addresses.
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55.A user in a corporate environment is required to confirm their device’s IPv6
address for network configuration purposes.
What should the IT support technician advise the user to do on their Windows 10
device?
A. Navigate to Settings > Network & Internet > Status > Properties
B. Open Command Prompt and type ipconfig
C. Go to Control Panel > Network and Sharing Center > Change adapter settings
D. Right-click the network icon in the taskbar and select "Troubleshoot problems"
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Open Command Prompt and type ipconfig The ipconfig command
in Command Prompt quickly provides detailed information on all network adapters,
including the IPv6 address. This method is direct and provides comprehensive
network configuration details, including IPv6, without navigating through multiple
menus.
Option A is incorrect because while it provides some network settings, it does not
typically display all detailed IP configuration data directly.
Option C is incorrect because this path leads to adapter settings, which require further
navigation to view IPv6 addresses specifically.
Option D is incorrect because “Troubleshoot problems” is intended for resolving
network issues and does not directly display network configuration details like IPv6
addresses.
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56.A team of IT support technicians at a large corporation uses various time
management techniques to handle a high volume of support tickets efficiently.
Which technique would best ensure a balanced workload and effective time utilization
among the team members?
A. Assigning tickets to technicians based solely on their current availability
B. Utilizing a time tracking tool to monitor and adjust ticket handling times
C. Allocating specific time blocks for non-urgent tickets
D. Implementing a policy where technicians choose their tickets based on personal
preference
Answer: B
Explanation:
Utilizing a time tracking tool allows management to analyze how long tickets take to
resolve and adjust workflows accordingly. This ensures that each technician can
manage their time efficiently, balancing their workload and preventing burnout.
Option A is incorrect because it doesn’t consider the complexity or type of tickets,
which can lead to imbalances in workload.
Option C is incorrect because while allocating time blocks can help manage nonurgent tickets, it doesn’t address overall time
management for all ticket types.
Option D is incorrect as personal preference may not align with business needs or the
urgency of tickets, potentially leading to delays in critical support areas.
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57.An IT manager is evaluating the effectiveness of the current help desk operations.
Which KPI should be prioritized to measure the efficiency of the help desk team in
handling incoming support tickets?
A. Number of tickets closed by first contact
B. Number of training sessions attended by support staff
C. Annual customer satisfaction survey results
D. Monthly IT staff satisfaction ratings
Answer: A
Explanation:
The KPI measuring the number of tickets closed by first contact is critical for
assessing help desk efficiency, as it directly reflects the team’s ability to resolve
issues quickly and effectively, minimizing the need for follow-up contacts and
reducing overall ticket volume.
Option B is incorrect because training sessions are more about improving skills rather
than measuring current operational efficiency.
Option C is incorrect as annual surveys do not provide the immediate or detailed
insights needed to assess daily operational efficiency.
Option D is incorrect because staff satisfaction, while important, does not directly
correlate to the efficiency of ticket handling.
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58.When configuring Google Drive for a team that requires high data transfer rates
and frequently accesses large files, what feature should IT support enable to optimize
performance?
A. Enable "Offline Access" for all files in Google Drive
B. Turn on "Stream files" in Google Drive for desktop settings
C. Increase the cache size of the local Google Drive folder
D. Restrict file syncing to non-business hours only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Turn on ‘Stream files’ in Google Drive for desktop settings
Streaming files directly from Google Drive instead of syncing them fully to local
storage allows users to access large files more quickly and reduces local storage
requirements, which can improve performance for teams dealing with large datasets.
Option A is incorrect because offline access involves syncing files locally, which could
use significant disk space and might not improve performance for large files.
Option C is incorrect because while increasing cache size may help with smaller files,
it does not fundamentally address the performance issues associated with accessing
large files frequently.
Option D is incorrect because restricting file syncing to off-hours does not help with
real-time access needs during business operations.
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59.A company wants to ensure that their employees can access shared documents
stored in Dropbox from their Windows workstations as if they were stored on a local
network drive.
What is the most straightforward method to achieve this?
A. Configure each workstation with FTP access to Dropbox
B. Use the Dropbox app to create a synchronized folder on each workstation
C. Directly integrate Dropbox using Windows SMB service
D. Use third-party software to map Dropbox as a network drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Use the Dropbox app to create a synchronized folder on each
workstation The Dropbox application allows for the creation of a synchronized folder
that behaves much like a local directory, automatically syncing files and folders
between Dropbox and the user’s computer, providing an easy and efficient way to
access files stored in Dropbox.
Option A is incorrect because Dropbox does not support direct FTP access for file
synchronization or mapping.
Option C is incorrect because SMB protocol is not used for direct integration with
cloud storage services like Dropbox without specific third-party software or
configurations.
Option D is incorrect because although it is possible, it’s not the most straightforward
method compared to using the native Dropbox application, which provides robust
support and integration.
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60.An IT administrator needs to map Dropbox as a network drive for multiple users in
a corporate environment to streamline their workflow.
What is an essential consideration when setting this up?
A. Ensuring all users have unlimited internet bandwidth
B. Making sure each user has individual Dropbox accounts
C. Setting up continuous data backup for the mapped drive
D. Ensuring the network drive mapping persists across reboots
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct Answer. D. Ensuring the network drive mapping persists across reboots For
network drive mappings, especially in a corporate environment where Dropbox is
used as a network drive, it is crucial that the mapping persists across reboots to
maintain consistent user experience and access continuity.
Option A is incorrect because unlimited bandwidth is beneficial but not essential for
mapping Dropbox as a network drive.
Option B is incorrect because individual accounts may not be necessary if the
organization uses a Dropbox Business account with team folders.
Option C is incorrect because continuous data backup is a good practice but not
directly related to the mapping process.
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61.What is a potential drawback of mapping Dropbox as a network drive in a
corporate environment that IT support should be aware of?
A. Increased local storage usage on each user's computer
B. Reduced security due to cloud-based storage
C. Dependency on internet connectivity for access to files
D. Automatic encryption of all stored files
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Dependency on internet connectivity for access to files Mapping
Dropbox as a network drive means that users will depend on an active internet
connection to access their files. This could be problematic in areas with unstable
internet connectivity or during network outages.
Option A is incorrect because mapping as a network drive does not necessarily use
more local storage unless files are set to be available offline.
Option B is incorrect because Dropbox provides strong security measures, and using
it as a network drive does not inherently reduce security.
Option D is incorrect because while Dropbox does offer encryption, it’s not an
automatic consequence of mapping it as a network drive.
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62.What is the correct protocol for handling a situation where a technician
experiences a mild electrical shock while troubleshooting a laptop?
A. Continue working if the shock was minor to avoid work delays
B. Document the incident, report it according to workplace safety procedures, and
seek medical advice
C. Take a short break and then resume work if there are no visible injuries
D. Apply an anti-static wrist strap and continue working on the laptop
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Document the incident, report it according to workplace safety
procedures, and seek medical advice Following any incident of electrical shock, it is
critical to document the incident, report it according to the established safety
procedures of the workplace, and seek medical advice, even if the shock appears
mild, as some effects might be delayed or internal.
Option A is incorrect because ignoring the potential health impact of an electrical
shock, regardless of its initial perceived severity, is unsafe.
Option C is incorrect because taking a break does not address the potential health
implications of receiving an electrical shock.
Option D is incorrect as applying an anti-static wrist strap after receiving a shock does
not mitigate the health risks associated with the electrical shock already experienced.
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63.Before beginning work on replacing the memory modules in a laptop, what is the
most effective method for an IT technician to minimize the risk of electrostatic
discharge (ESD)?
A. Work on a carpeted surface to avoid direct contact with hard floors
B. Wear a grounded wrist strap before handling the internal components
C. Keep the laptop plugged into a power source to maintain grounding
D. Handle the components by the connectors to reduce direct contact
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Wear a grounded wrist strap before handling the internal
components Using a grounded wrist strap is a fundamental safety measure to prevent
ESD by safely discharging any static electricity that might have built up on the person.
This is critical when handling sensitive electronic
components such as memory modules.
Option A is incorrect because working on a carpeted surface actually increases the
risk of generating static electricity.
Option C is incorrect because keeping the laptop plugged in poses a risk of electrical
shock and does not address ESD effectively.
Option D is incorrect because handling components by the connectors can damage
the connectors and does not prevent ESD.
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64.What should a technician do first to ensure safety from electrostatic discharge
when installing a new hard drive in a desktop computer?
A. Insulate the work area with plastic sheets to prevent static build-up
B. Use tools with insulated handles only
C. Connect oneself to an anti-static mat where the computer will be placed
D. Spray the area with anti-static spray before beginning the installation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Connect oneself to an anti-static mat where the computer will be
placed Connecting to an anti-static mat effectively dissipates static charges, reducing
the risk of ESD when handling and installing electronic components like a hard drive.
This is a recommended practice in environments where electronic components are
handled.
Option A is incorrect because insulating the work area with plastic sheets can actually
increase the risk of static build-up.
Option B is incorrect as using tools with insulated handles protects against electrical
shock but does not necessarily prevent ESD.
Option D is incorrect because while anti-static sprays can help reduce static build-up,
directly grounding oneself with an anti-static mat is a more effective and controlled
measure.
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65.While upgrading the graphics card in a gaming PC, what ESD prevention method
should the technician employ to protect both the new and existing hardware?
A. Only touch the non-conductive parts of the graphics card during installation
B. Ensure that both the technician and the surface are properly grounded
C. Replace the graphics card as quickly as possible to minimize exposure to static
D. Keep the graphics card in its original packaging until the computer is turned on
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Ensure that both the technician and the surface are properly
grounded Proper grounding of both the technician and the work surface is essential to
prevent ESD, which can damage sensitive components like graphics cards. This
method provides the most comprehensive protection against static discharge during
the handling and installation process.
Option A is incorrect because touching only non-conductive parts does not prevent
ESD damage to the sensitive parts of the graphics card.
Option C is incorrect as the speed of installation does not affect the likelihood of ESD
damage.
Option D is incorrect because keeping the card in its packaging does not protect it
from ESD once removed; proper grounding is necessary during the handling process.
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66.During routine maintenance, a technician notices that a server room’s backup
power supply is overheating significantly.
What is the immediate action the technician should take to adhere to basic safety
procedures regarding potential fire hazards?
A. Continue monitoring the temperature to see if it decreases on its own
B. Shut down the backup power supply and disconnect it from the power source
C. Open the server room windows to increase air circulation and cool the unit
D. Spray the unit with a water-based fire extinguisher to cool it down
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Shut down the backup power supply and disconnect it from the
power source The safest immediate action when encountering an overheating power
supply is to shut it down and disconnect it, which prevents further heat accumulation
and reduces the risk of fire.
Option A is incorrect because continuing to monitor without taking action does not
address the immediate risk of fire.
Option C is incorrect because simply increasing air circulation may not sufficiently
cool down an overheating power supply that poses a fire risk.
Option D is incorrect because using water-based fire extinguishers on electrical fires
is dangerous and can lead to electrical shocks or worsen the fire.
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67.A client is concerned about the consistency of service they receive under the
current SLA. They suggest modifications to the agreement.
What type of SLA adjustment would be most beneficial to ensure consistent quality
and client satisfaction?
A. Introduce tiered service levels based on client size and need
B. Incorporate more frequent service reviews into the SLA
C. Reduce the number of services covered under the SLA to focus on quality
D. Include a clause that allows for flexible service terms based on seasonal demands
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing tiered service levels allows the SLA to be more tailored to specific client
requirements and capacities, ensuring that service provision is consistent and meets
varied client needs effectively.
Option B is incorrect because while more frequent reviews can help monitor SLA
compliance, they do not inherently enhance service consistency.
Option C is incorrect as reducing the scope of services could limit client support rather
than ensuring consistent quality across the board.
Option D is incorrect because flexible terms may help adapt to changes in demand
but do not guarantee consistent service quality throughout different periods.
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68.A company wants to ensure that their Google Drive mappings are consistent
across multiple user accounts and that all users have appropriate access based on
their job roles.
Which approach should IT support take to standardize Google Drive access and
mappings across the organization?
A. Configure individual Google Drive mappings manually for each user
B. Use Group Policy in Windows to deploy Google Drive configurations
C. Implement a third-party tool that syncs Google Drive with Active Directory groups
D. Encourage users to share their login information with each other
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Implement a third-party tool that syncs Google Drive with Active
Directory groups To manage Google Drive access efficiently across multiple users
and ensure consistency in permissions and mappings, using a third-party tool that
integrates Google Drive with Active Directory can automate and streamline the
process based on group memberships and roles.
Option A is incorrect because manually configuring mappings for each user is
inefficient and prone to inconsistency, especially in larger organizations.
Option B is incorrect because while Group Policy is powerful for many configurations,
it does not natively support Google Drive mapping configurations.
Option D is incorrect because sharing login information compromises security and
violates basic security policies.
69.During a PC Anywhere session, if a technician needs to access confidential files
on the user’s computer to troubleshoot an issue, what should they do?
A. Proceed to access the files, assuming implicit consent for troubleshooting
B. Notify the user and request explicit permission to access the specific files needed
C. Transfer the files to their system for closer examination
D. Ignore the files and try alternative troubleshooting methods that do not require
access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Notify the user and request explicit permission to access the
specific files needed Gaining explicit permission from the user before accessing
confidential files is key to maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with privacy
standards.
Option A is incorrect because assuming consent can lead to privacy violations and
breaches of trust.
Option C is incorrect because transferring confidential files without strict necessity
and proper security measures can create additional security risks.
Option D is incorrect as it might prevent the technician from addressing the issue
effectively if accessing the files is necessary.
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70.What should a technician do immediately after concluding a troubleshooting
session via PC Anywhere?
A. Keep the software running on the user’s machine for future quick access
B. Properly terminate the session and confirm that all access permissions are revoked
C. Schedule automatic follow-up sessions using the same credentials
D. Leave a copy of the troubleshooting log on the user's desktop for their reference
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Properly terminate the session and confirm that all access
permissions are revoked Ensuring that the session is properly terminated and that all
permissions are revoked protects the user from unauthorized access and ensures
that their system remains secure.
Option A is incorrect because leaving remote access software running can lead to
security breaches.
Option C is incorrect because scheduling follow-up sessions without explicit user
consent can infringe on privacy and may not be secure.
Option D is incorrect as leaving troubleshooting logs on the user’s desktop can
expose sensitive information and should be managed according to specific privacy
policies.
71.An IT support technician receives an email from what appears to be the IT director
asking for immediate password resets for several accounts. The email lacks the usual
formalities and seems rushed.
What is the most appropriate response?
A. Reset the passwords as requested and notify the director via reply
B. Verify the request by contacting the IT director through a known internal
communication channel
C. Ignore the email as it does not follow protocol
D. Forward the email to a colleague for a second opinion
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Verify the request by contacting the IT director through a known
internal communication channel It is crucial to verify unusual or informal requests for
sensitive operations directly through secure, known communication channels to
prevent compliance with potentially fraudulent demands.
Option A is incorrect as it could lead to unauthorized access if the request is
fraudulent Option C is incorrect because ignoring the email may lead to potential
security risks if the request was legitimate Option D is incorrect because forwarding
the email does not address the verification of the request and could compromise the
supposed sensitive nature of the email
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72.During a security review, you notice several incidents where employees complied
with requests from unauthorized callers impersonating company executives.
What preventative measure should be implemented?
A. Provide detailed personal information about executives to employees for
verification purposes
B. Mandate security training that includes recognizing and responding to
impersonation attempts
C. Increase surveillance of executive offices
D. Limit telephone use to internal calls only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Mandate security training that includes recognizing and
responding to impersonation attempts Educating employees on how to recognize and
appropriately respond to impersonation attempts is essential to bolster organizational
defenses against social engineering attacks.
Option A is incorrect because providing personal information broadly can lead to
privacy violations and further security issues Option C is incorrect because while
surveillance may provide some security enhancements, it does not address the direct
issue of impersonation over communication channels Option D is incorrect because
restricting telephone use to only internal calls is impractical and could
hinder normal business operations
73.During startup, a user notices that their computer is running slower than usual and
suspects that unnecessary programs are loading at boot.
What should the technician recommend to manage startup programs effectively?
A. Boot into Safe Mode and disable startup programs
B. Format the hard drive and reinstall Windows
C. Run a full system antivirus scan
D. Increase the computer's RAM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Boot into Safe Mode and disable startup programs Booting into
Safe Mode provides a safe environment to disable unnecessary startup programs
through the System Configuration utility (msconfig), which can help improve boot
times and overall system performance.
Option B is incorrect because formatting and reinstalling Windows is an extreme
measure that should only be considered when all other options have failed Option C
is incorrect as an antivirus scan, while useful for detecting malware, does not directly
assist with managing startup programs Option D is incorrect because adding RAM,
although beneficial for overall performance, does not resolve issues with unnecessary
programs loading at startup
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74.A user cannot access Windows due to a recent software installation that caused
stability issues.
How can the user revert the changes without losing their personal files?
A. Use System Restore from the Advanced Startup Options menu
B. Conduct a hard reset of the system
C. Boot into Safe Mode and uninstall the software
D. Delete the software’s installation folder in Safe Mode
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Boot into Safe Mode and uninstall the software Booting into Safe
Mode restricts software from running, which allows the user to safely uninstall recently
installed programs or drivers that may be causing stability issues.
Option A is incorrect because while System Restore can revert system changes, it’s
more comprehensive and might affect other system settings and installations Option
B is incorrect because a hard reset does not solve underlying issues related to
problematic software Option D is incorrect because manually deleting installation
folders does not properly uninstall software and can leave behind residual system
entries
75.A user complains that their laptop battery drains too quickly while working
throughout the day.
What should the technician recommend adjusting in the Windows Power Options to
help improve battery life?
A. Increase the screen brightness setting
B. Set the display to turn off after a shorter period of inactivity
C. Disable the sleep mode entirely
D. Adjust the processor's minimum state to 100%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Set the display to turn off after a shorter period of inactivity
Adjusting the power settings to turn off the display after a shorter period of inactivity
can significantly conserve battery life, as the display is one of the largest consumers
of battery power on a laptop.
Option A is incorrect because increasing the screen brightness would actually
consume more battery power Option C is incorrect because disabling sleep mode
would lead to higher power consumption when the laptop is not actively used Option
D is incorrect as setting the processor’s minimum state to 100% would increase
power consumption, not decrease it
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76.A company’s IT policy requires computers to automatically enter sleep mode after
15 minutes of inactivity to save energy. A user reports that their computer never
enters sleep mode.
What should be checked first to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Verify if any background applications are preventing sleep mode
B. Configure the computer to hibernate instead of sleep
C. Increase the time before sleep mode activates
D. Check the computer’s BIOS settings for power management controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Verify if any background applications are preventing sleep mode
Certain applications can prevent a computer from entering sleep mode by actively
running tasks in the background. Checking for and addressing such applications can
resolve this issue.
Option B is incorrect because changing to hibernate does not address the issue of the
computer not entering sleep mode Option C is incorrect because increasing the
inactivity period does not resolve the underlying problem that prevents sleep mode
Option D is incorrect because BIOS settings generally do not affect Windows power
management settings to this degree
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77.After updating their system, a user notices that their PC setup no longer goes into
sleep mode when expected.
Which Windows tool should they use to identify what is preventing the system from
sleeping?
A. Device Manager
B. Power troubleshooter
C. Event Viewer
D. Command Prompt using the powercfg -requests command
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct Answer. D. Command Prompt using the powercfg -requests command The
powercfg -requests command displays which applications and drivers are preventing
the system from going into sleep mode. This tool is useful for diagnosing power
management issues following updates.
Option A is incorrect because Device Manager does not provide information on what
prevents sleep mode Option B is incorrect although the Power troubleshooter can
help resolve some power issues, it does not specifically list active power requests
Option C is incorrect because while Event Viewer logs system events, it does not
specifically list which processes prevent sleep mode
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78.When mapping a shared drive on a Windows system using SMB, which of the
following is the correct syntax for the path?
A. \ServerName\Path\
B. smb://ServerName/Path
C. ServerName://Path
D. http://ServerName/Path
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. \ServerName\Path The correct syntax for mapping a shared drive
using SMB in Windows is \ServerName\Path. This format is used to specify the server
and the path to the shared resource on the network.
Option B is incorrect because smb:// is used primarily on Unix/Linux systems and is
not the correct syntax for Windows.
Option C is incorrect as it does not represent a valid network path syntax.
Option D is incorrect because HTTP is a protocol used for accessing websites, not for
accessing network shares.
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79.What protocol should a technician follow after completing a troubleshooting
session using VNC?
A. Immediately start another session to check for additional issues
B. Ensure that all VNC software is properly closed and the user's system is secured
C. Leave the VNC connection open in case the user experiences further issues
D. Advise the user to uninstall VNC to prevent unauthorized access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Ensure that all VNC software is properly closed and the user’s
system is secured After completing a session, it is essential to close all related
software and confirm that the user’s system is secure to prevent unauthorized access
and ensure the user’s privacy is maintained.
Option A is incorrect because starting another session without a new request or
identified issue may not be necessary and could invade the user’s privacy.
Option C is incorrect because leaving an open connection can be a significant
security risk.
Option D is incorrect as uninstalling VNC might not be necessary if the user requires
ongoing support; however, ensuring it is secure after use is critical.
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80.During a security audit, a technician needs to assist a user in finding the MAC
address of their network card on a macOS computer.
What instruction should the technician give to accurately retrieve this information?
A. Open System Preferences > Network, select the network service, then click
"Advanced" and go to the "Hardware" tab
B. Open Terminal and type ifconfig | grep ether
C. Look under Apple Menu > About This Mac > System Report > Network
D. Use Spotlight to search for "Network Utility" and select the "Info" tab to find the
MAC address
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Open System Preferences > Network, select the network service,
then click “Advanced” and go to the “Hardware” tab This method provides a
straightforward graphical user interface approach to finding the MAC address,
allowing the user to navigate through clear and familiar system preferences to obtain
the necessary details.
Option B is incorrect because while ifconfig | grep ether is effective, it may be too
technical for less experienced users, making the GUI method preferable for clarity.
Option C is incorrect because System Report provides detailed hardware information
but navigating to the correct section can be cumbersome and less intuitive for some
users.
Option D is incorrect because although Network Utility can show the MAC address, its
accessibility varies by macOS version, and it might not be as straightforward as using
System Preferences.
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81.A Linux system administrator wants to document the MAC addresses of various
network interfaces on a server.
What is the most efficient command that the IT support technician should recommend
using?
A. ifconfig -a
B. ip link show
C. dmesg | grep MAC
D. cat /sys/class/net/*/address
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. ip link show The ip link show command provides a concise list of
all network interfaces and their properties, including MAC addresses. This command
is part of the modern ip utility, making it preferable for current Linux distributions.
Option A is incorrect because ifconfig -a is considered deprecated in many modern
Linux distributions, and while it still works, it’s being replaced by the ip command
suite.
Option C is incorrect because dmesg | grep MAC can show initial system messages
related to network interfaces but is less reliable for documenting as it depends on the
buffer’s current state.
Option D is incorrect because although reading directly from the system’s filesystem
provides the MAC address, it’s less practical for users who need to check multiple
interfaces efficiently.
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82.When working on a powered device, an IT technician suspects a risk of electrical
shock due to exposed wiring.
What is the safest action to take first?
A. Continue working but avoid touching the exposed wires
B. Immediately turn off the power to the device before proceeding further
C. Cover the exposed wires with electrical tape and continue working
D. Test the exposed wires with a multimeter to confirm if they are live
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Immediately turn off the power to the device before proceeding
further Turning off the power immediately is the safest approach when dealing with
exposed wiring, as it eliminates the risk of electrical shock, allowing for safe
subsequent handling of the wiring issue.
Option A is incorrect because continuing to work near exposed wires without
addressing the risk is unsafe.
Option C is incorrect as covering the wires with electrical tape does not address the
potential hazard of the device being powered on.
Option D is incorrect because testing exposed wires while the device is powered
could lead to electrical shock if the wires are live.
83.A technician needs to replace a faulty power supply unit (PSU) inside a desktop
computer.
What safety procedure should be followed to minimize the risk of electrical shock?
A. Disconnect the PSU from the motherboard but leave the computer plugged in for
grounding
B. Ensure the computer is unplugged and press the power button to discharge any
residual power
C. Wear rubber gloves and proceed to replace the PSU without unplugging the
computer
D. Spray the interior with compressed air while the computer is plugged in to remove
dust before
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proceeding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Ensure the computer is unplugged and press the power button to
discharge any residual power Unplugging the computer and pressing the power
button to discharge any stored energy in capacitors minimizes the risk of electrical
shock when replacing the power supply unit. This procedure ensures that no residual
power is present that could cause an electrical shock.
Option A is incorrect because leaving the computer plugged in poses a risk of
electrical shock.
Option C is incorrect as wearing rubber gloves does not eliminate the hazard of
working on a powered device.
Option D is incorrect because using compressed air on a plugged-in computer does
not adhere to safety standards and increases the risk of electrical discharge.
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84.An IT support team frequently misses deadlines for resolving IT issues, affecting
overall company productivity.
What strategy would best help the team manage their time more effectively to meet
resolution targets?
A. Implementing stricter penalties for missed deadlines
B. Scheduling regular review meetings to discuss open tickets
C. Using a software tool that provides real-time analytics on ticket status and time to
resolution
D. Assigning more tickets per technician to increase pressure and potentially speed
up resolution
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a software tool with real-time analytics helps technicians understand their
current performance against targets, identify bottlenecks, and adjust their approach or
escalate issues as necessary to meet deadlines.
Option A is incorrect because penalties may demoralize staff without addressing the
root causes of delays.
Option B is incorrect although regular meetings can help, they do not provide the
continuous feedback needed for immediate improvements in time management.
Option D is incorrect as increasing the number of tickets per technician without
additional support can lead to lower quality work and higher stress levels.
85.An IT support department is evaluating their ticketing system to enhance their
service delivery.
Which feature of a ticketing system is most critical for improving the efficiency of
resolving customer issues?
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A. The ability to post public replies to frequently asked questions
B. Automatic ticket routing based on issue type
C. Customizable color themes for the user interface
D. Integration with social media platforms
Answer: B
Explanation:
Automatic ticket routing ensures that tickets are immediately directed to the
appropriate technician or department based on the issue type. This not only speeds
up the resolution process but also improves accuracy in issue handling by involving
the most qualified personnel right from the start.
Option A is incorrect because while FAQs can reduce ticket volume, they do not
directly enhance the efficiency of issue resolution.
Option C is incorrect as customizable UI themes improve user experience but do not
impact the efficiency of resolving issues.
Option D is incorrect because social media integration mainly affects how tickets are
received and does not impact the resolution process directly.
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86.Which functionality of a modern ticketing system most directly contributes to
improving customer satisfaction with IT support services?
A. Gamification features that reward users for quick resolutions
B. Real-time analytics and reporting capabilities
C. Automatic escalation of unresolved tickets after a set period
D. Availability of a mobile app interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Automatic escalation helps ensure that tickets do not stagnate and are escalated to
higher support levels if not resolved within a predetermined timeframe. This
responsiveness directly impacts customer satisfaction by demonstrating that their
issues are being progressively addressed.
Option A is incorrect because gamification may motivate technicians but does not
inherently improve customer satisfaction.
Option B is incorrect as analytics improve internal processes but do not directly
enhance the customer’s experience.
Option D is incorrect because while a mobile app may improve accessibility, it does
not necessarily improve the resolution process or customer satisfaction.
87.When integrating a new ticketing system, what is a primary consideration to
ensure it supports the help desk team’s operational needs?
A. Support for high-resolution graphics and videos
B. Compatibility with legacy systems
C. Availability of virtual reality (VR) troubleshooting tools
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D. Ability to play background music while using the system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Compatibility with legacy systems
Explanation:
Compatibility with legacy systems ensures that the new ticketing system can
seamlessly integrate with existing IT infrastructure, which is critical for maintaining
continuity of operations and data integrity. This facilitates a smoother transition and
reduces the risk of disruptions in service delivery.
Option A is incorrect because high-resolution media support is not typically crucial for
ticketing system functionality.
Option C is incorrect as VR tools are not a standard requirement for ticketing systems
and offer limited added value to basic ticket handling.
Option D is incorrect because playing background music is unrelated to operational
efficiency or support capability.
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88.A company’s IT support team is revising its Service Level Agreement (SLA) to
better meet client expectations and improve ticket resolution times.
Which of the following SLA modifications would most effectively ensure a higher
standard of service?
A. Specifying more detailed penalties for SLA non-compliance
B. Shortening the response time for high-priority tickets
C. Extending the support hours available to clients
D. Offering discounts for service extensions
Answer: B
Explanation:
By shortening the response time for high-priority tickets, the SLA directly targets
improvements in service urgency and effectiveness, which is crucial for client
satisfaction and operational efficiency.
Option A is incorrect because while penalties may enforce SLA compliance, they do
not directly improve service delivery.
Option C is incorrect as extending support hours may improve availability but not
necessarily the efficiency or speed of responses.
Option D is incorrect because offering discounts does not directly enhance the quality
or timeliness of IT support.
89.During an annual review, a client notes that the resolution times for critical issues
often exceed the times outlined in the SLA.
Which action should the IT support team take first to address this issue and align with
the SLA terms?
A. Review and adjust resource allocation for critical issues
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B. Request the client to lower their expectations regarding resolution times
C. Increase the frequency of performance reviews for IT support staff
D. Simplify the reporting process for users to submit tickets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing and adjusting resource allocation ensures that sufficient resources are
directed toward resolving critical issues swiftly, thereby meeting or exceeding SLA
commitments.
Option B is incorrect because requesting clients to lower their expectations is
counterproductive and does not solve the underlying service delivery issues.
Option C is incorrect as increasing performance review frequency may help monitor
staff performance but doesn’t directly address resource allocation challenges.
Option D is incorrect because while simplifying the ticket submission process can
improve user experience, it does not address the actual issue of meeting resolution
times as per the SLA.
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90.A user working from a remote office needs to provide the MAC address of their
Windows 10 laptop to register it on the corporate network.
Which of the following methods should the IT support technician suggest to the user
for retrieving this information?
A. Go to Control Panel > Network and Internet > Network Connections, right-click the
adapter, and select "Status"
B. Open Command Prompt and type getmac
C. Navigate to Settings > Network & Internet > Ethernet
D. Use the Network and Sharing Center to find the MAC address under "Wireless
Properties"
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Open Command Prompt and type getmac The getmac command
is a simple and direct method for retrieving the MAC address of all network interfaces
on a Windows machine, making it ideal for quickly providing the necessary
information for network registration.
Option A is incorrect because it involves multiple steps and provides additional
unnecessary information, making it less efficient than the getmac command.
Option C is incorrect because it only displays settings related to Ethernet and does
not directly show the MAC address.
Option D is incorrect because while you can access MAC address information via
Network and Sharing Center, it is more convoluted compared to directly using a
command line tool.
91.What is an essential security measure for a technician to take before initiating a
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remote support session using PC Anywhere?
A. Set up an unattended remote access session for convenience
B. Confirm that both the technician's and the user's software are updated to the latest
version
C. Always use the quickest connection method regardless of the security protocols
D. Disable the user's antivirus software to avoid connection interruptions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Confirm that both the technician’s and the user’s software are
updated to the latest version Ensuring that both the technician and the user are using
the latest version of PC Anywhere is crucial to protect against vulnerabilities, as
updates often contain important security patches.
Option A is incorrect as setting up unattended access can pose significant security
risks if not managed carefully.
Option C is incorrect as using the fastest connection method may bypass necessary
security checks, exposing both parties to potential risks.
Option D is incorrect because disabling antivirus software compromises the user’s
security, especially during a remote session.
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92.Which characteristic of an email should raise suspicion and suggest it might be a
phishing attempt?
A. A formal greeting
B. High-quality branding similar to the legitimate source
C. Poor grammar and spelling errors
D. An offer that includes a standard discount on products
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct Answer. C. Poor grammar and spelling errors Phishing emails often contain
poor grammar and spelling errors because they may be hastily put together by
attackers who do not speak the language fluently or who overlook details in their rush
to send out mass emails.
Option A is incorrect because a formal greeting can be a normal part of legitimate
emails.
Option B is incorrect because high-quality branding can also be replicated by
sophisticated phishers to appear legitimate.
Option D is incorrect because while offers can be used in phishing, a standard
discount by itself is not a typical phishing indicator without other suspicious elements.
93.What should an employee do if they receive an urgent call from someone claiming
to be a senior executive who requests sensitive company information immediately?
A. Provide the information as requested to comply with executive orders
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B. Verify the identity of the caller by calling them back through the official contact
number
C. Send the information via email to have a record of the interaction
D. Ask the caller to verify their identity by providing personal information
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Verify the identity of the caller by calling them back through the
official contact number Verifying the identity of the caller using an official and trusted
contact method is essential to prevent falling victim to an impersonation attempt.
Option A is incorrect because providing sensitive information without verification
exposes the company to risks Option C is incorrect because sending sensitive
information via email does not verify the identity of the caller and could lead to data
breaches Option D is incorrect because asking the caller for personal information may
not be secure, and attackers could be prepared with convincing answers
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94.A user reports that an application has become unresponsive and is preventing
them from completing their work.
What is the first step the technician should recommend to resolve this issue quickly?
A. Restart the computer
B. End the application's process via Task Manager
C. Uninstall and reinstall the application
D. Run a virus scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. End the application’s process via Task Manager Using Task
Manager to end the process of the unresponsive application is the quickest way to
regain control without affecting other running applications or the need for a system
restart.
Option A is incorrect because restarting the computer, while effective, is more
disruptive and time-consuming compared to ending a specific process Option C is
incorrect because uninstalling the application is an unnecessary step for an
application that is simply unresponsive Option D is incorrect because running a virus
scan is not a direct action to resolve an application freeze and can be time-consuming
95.During a video conference call, a user notices that their system is lagging
significantly. The technician suspects high CPU usage by another application.
How should the technician instruct the user to verify and address this issue?
A. Open Task Manager and increase the priority of the video conference application
B. Open Task Manager, identify any high CPU usage applications, and end those
processes
C. Delete unused applications from the system
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D. Upgrade the computer's RAM
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Open Task Manager, identify any high CPU usage applications,
and end those processes Task Manager allows users to view and manage running
applications and processes, including those consuming high CPU resources, which
can be terminated to free up system resources.
Option A is incorrect because changing the priority might not sufficiently mitigate the
issue if other applications are using excessive resources Option C is incorrect as
deleting applications does not address the immediate cause of system lag during a
call Option D is incorrect because while adding RAM can help overall performance, it
does not address immediate CPU usage issues by specific
applications
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96.A user’s PC is running slowly and they suspect a background process is
consuming too many resources.
What should the user do first to identify and stop the problematic process?
A. Disable all startup applications
B. Open Task Manager and sort processes by memory usage to identify and end the
high consumption process
C. Defragment the hard drive
D. Install additional anti-virus software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Open Task Manager and sort processes by memory usage to
identify and end the high consumption process Sorting processes by memory or CPU
usage in Task Manager helps identify resource-intensive processes, which can then
be terminated to improve system performance.
Option A is incorrect because disabling startup applications affects only applications
that start with Windows and won’t necessarily solve an immediate resource usage
issue Option C is incorrect because defragmenting the hard drive is generally helpful
for overall performance but not effective for immediate process-related slowdowns
Option D is incorrect as adding more anti-virus software could actually exacerbate the
problem by using more system resources
97.A user needs to backup important documents from their Windows laptop to ensure
they are protected in case of a system failure.
Which of the following is the best step to achieve this using OneDrive?
A. Manually copy and paste the documents into the OneDrive folder on their laptop
B. Configure Windows Backup to include the OneDrive folder
C. Use the OneDrive website to upload files manually every day
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D. Set up file history to backup directly to OneDrive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Manually copy and paste the documents into the OneDrive folder
on their laptop By copying documents into the OneDrive folder, they are automatically
synced to the cloud, providing a seamless backup solution that also allows for access
from any device where the user is signed into their OneDrive account.
Option B is incorrect because Windows Backup does not directly integrate with
OneDrive for backup purposes Option C is incorrect because while feasible, manual
uploads do not utilize the integrated syncing capabilities of the OneDrive desktop app,
which is more efficient Option D is incorrect because File History does not support
backing up directly to OneDrive and is typically used with an external drive
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98.A user is working from multiple devices and wants to ensure that all their work
documents are always available and backed up.
What should the user do to automatically synchronize and backup files across all
devices using OneDrive?
A. Enable OneDrive's Folder Protection feature on each device
B. Install third-party synchronization software
C. Periodically email documents to themselves
D. Use external USB drives to transfer documents between devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct Answer. A. Enable OneDrive’s Folder Protection feature on each device
OneDrive’s Folder Protection automatically syncs desktop, documents, and pictures
folders across all devices where this feature is enabled, ensuring that files are
consistently backed up and accessible from any connected device.
Option B is incorrect because third-party software is unnecessary when OneDrive
offers built-in synchronization capabilities Option C is incorrect because emailing
documents is inefficient for continuous synchronization and does not provide the
same security and version control as OneDrive Option D is incorrect because using
USB drives for manual transfers is less reliable and more cumbersome than cloud
synchronization
99.A user has accidentally deleted a folder containing critical business presentations
from their computer.
How can they restore these files using OneDrive?
A. Retrieve the files from the Windows Recycle Bin
B. Restore the files from the OneDrive Recycle Bin
C. Perform a system restore on their computer
D. Reinstall the OneDrive application
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Restore the files from the OneDrive Recycle Bin OneDrive stores
deleted files in its own Recycle Bin for a limited time, where users can easily restore
them if accidentally deleted from their device.
Option A is incorrect because files deleted from the OneDrive folder may not be in the
Windows Recycle Bin if they were removed from another device or online Option C is
incorrect because a system restore affects system files and settings, not user
documents or presentations Option D is incorrect because reinstalling OneDrive does
not affect deleted files and will not recover them
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100.A user’s Windows 10 PC is experiencing frequent system crashes and blue
screen errors. The user needs to perform diagnostic tests to identify the issue.
What should the technician instruct the user to do first?
A. Reinstall the operating system
B. Boot the PC into Safe Mode
C. Replace the PC’s hard drive
D. Update the PC’s BIOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct Answer. B. Boot the PC into Safe Mode Booting into Safe Mode is an
effective first step for troubleshooting frequent crashes and errors as it loads Windows
with a minimal set of drivers and software, allowing the user to determine if the issue
is software-related.
Option A is incorrect because reinstalling the operating system is too drastic for an
initial troubleshooting step Option C is incorrect because replacing hardware
components should only be considered after software causes have been ruled out
Option D is incorrect because a BIOS update, while important, should not be
performed as a first step in troubleshooting system stability issues
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