MS. AMIRA
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
ACT TESTS
2022 – 2023
EDITION
ENGLISH & READING TESTS
2019 l 2020
FREE
Preparing for the ACT Test
®
What’s Inside
• Full-Length Practice ACT Test,
including the Optional Writing Test
• Information about the Multiple-Choice and Writing Tests
• Test-Taking Strategies
• What to Expect on Test Day
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Practice Multiple-Choice Tests
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1874FPRE
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2019 l 2020
Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
mathematics test only.
The questions in Tests 1–4 are numbered, and the
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the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered
to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are
lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the
oval in that row lettered the same as your answer.
Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil
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Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
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11
1
1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
Mystery Paper Sculptor
Between March and November of 2011, an
1. Which choice most effectively emphasizes the complexity of the paper sculptures?
A. NO CHANGE
B. impressively
C. terrifically
D. superbly
anonymous donor left intricately crafted paper sculptures
1
at various cultural institutions in Edinburgh, Scotland.
2. F. NO CHANGE
G. Each sculpture was left secretly and later discovered by delighted staff.
H. Left secretly and later discovered by staff, each
sculpture was delighted.
J. Secretly delighted, each sculpture was discovered
by staff.
Delighted, each sculpture was left secretly and was later
2
discovered by staff. The delicate sculptures—streetscapes,
2
plants, and animals—were carved exclusively from the
pages and bindings of books. The tiny details in the
pieces are awe-inspiring.
The first sculpture discovered—at the Scottish
Poetry Library—was a tiny tree formed from a book
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
of verse. Library staff dubbed it the “poetree.” The
3
tree sits atop a book. Beneath the tree are the halves of
a golden paper egg, each half filled with words clipped
NO CHANGE
specified
adorned
honored
from the poem “A Trace of Wings” by Edwin Morgan.
ACT-1874FPRE
12
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1
At Edinburgh’s Filmhouse Cinema, a three4
dimensional sculpted scene shows patrons
4
sitting in a movie theater as horse leaps out of
5
the screen. At the Scottish Storytelling Centre, a
dragon crafted from the pages of a mystery novel
6
was found nesting in a window. At the National
Museum of Scotland, a paper tail was spotted emerging
1
4. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Cinema, a three-dimensional sculpted, scene
Cinema a three-dimensional sculpted scene,
Cinema a three-dimensional, sculpted, scene
5. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
movie theaters as horse’s leaps
a movie theater as horses leap
movie theater’s as horse leap
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
dragon—crafted from the pages
dragon, crafted from the pages,
dragon crafted from the pages,
from the spine of Sir Arthur Conan Doyle’s book
The Lost World. Inside, a dinosaur charges through
shredded pages of the open book. More creations
7. A. NO CHANGE
B. a number of additional cultural institutions supporting intellectual endeavors dedicated to promoting
C. quite a lot of other cultural institutions characterized by loyalty and dedication to
D. several libraries and museums devoted to
appeared at more than a few additional places where
7
literature and artifacts are related to books and writing.
7
Therefore, a total of ten sculptures were bestowed on
8
special institutions, whose staff are thrilled by their luck.
The creator of these sculptures are not known
9
because no one has claimed responsibility. So far, that
is. The last gift came with a note in which the mystery
NO CHANGE
Eventually,
Of course,
However,
9. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
creators of this sculptures are
creator of these sculptures is
creators of this sculptures is
10. F. NO CHANGE
G. Disregarding the unknown identity of the person
who
H. Without consideration of or concern about whoever
J. Regardless of who
artist reveals her gender. Whatever: whoever created
10
11. A.
B.
C.
D.
the art, your intention is clear. Each gift came with a
11
NO CHANGE
whose
her
our
12. F. NO CHANGE
G. note of gratitude expressing special gratefulness
and thanks
H. thank-you note on each one expressing special
thanks
J. thankful note expressing special thanks
note expressing special gratitude for “libraries, books,
12
words, ideas.” -
ACT-1874FPRE
8. F.
G.
H.
J.
13. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose a statement that:
A. suggests the essay writer knows the identity of the
artist.
B. explains why the artist created the sculptures.
C. proves the artist is a woman.
D. indicates the artist is a librarian.
13
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1
1
Ironically, the creator of these exquisite
sculptures who destroyed books—cutting them
14
up with refashioning them into elaborate works
15
of art—as “a tiny gesture in support of the special
places.” The mystery artist celebrated the magic of
14. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
for whom books were destroyed—
as she destroyed books—
destroyed books—
15. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
and
nor
so
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
began, as Pollack is likely to point out,
began, as Pollack is likely to point out
began as Pollack is likely to point out
those places and, at the same time, made some magic.
PASSAGE II
Building a Cork Boat
[1]
As a young boy, John Pollack dreamed of
building a full-size boat made entirely of bottle
corks. [A] At the age of thirty-four, Pollack sailed
his dream down the Douro River in Portugal. It
all began as Pollack is likely to point out, with
a single cork.
16
[2]
To amass the staggering number of corks needed to
17. A. NO CHANGE
B. boat (165,231) in all, Pollack convinced the staff
of several restaurants,
C. boat—165,231 in all—Pollack convinced the staff
of several restaurants
D. boat, 165,231, in all, Pollack convinced the staff of
several restaurants
construct the boat, 165,231 in all, Pollack convinced the
17
staff, of several restaurants in Washington, DC, to donate
17
discarded corks for his cause. [B] Pollack eventually
received cork donations from a cork-importing company
18
based in Portugal.
[3]
18. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
donations, from a cork-importing company,
donations, from a cork-importing company
donations from a cork-importing company,
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
next
first
also
Constructing the boat introduced a challenge
of another variety. Pollack finally tried gluing the
19
corks together to create stackable logs, but he soon
realized that this strategy was too time-consuming. [C]
ACT-1874FPRE
14
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1
1
He calculated that it would have taken him and one
20. F.
G.
H.
J.
other person more then a year’s worth of eight-hour
20
days to glue all the corks needed for the boat.
[4]
NO CHANGE
than a year’s
than a years’
then a years
21. Which choice most effectively introduces the paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Over the course of many months, Pollack convinced people to help.
C. Pollack was afraid that he would have to put his
cork boat dream on hold.
D. After a series of trials, Pollack devised a workable
strategy.
Piles of corks threatened to take over Pollack’s
21
apartment. He used a foam template to assemble a
21
22. Which choice provides the most specific description of
the assembled groups of corks?
F. NO CHANGE
G. hexagonal
H. certain
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
group of corks into a pretty interesting shape. He
22
then fastened each cluster of corks with multiple
rubber bands and encased each cluster in fishnet.
23. A.
B.
C.
D.
To bind clusters together and shaping them into flexible
23
columns proved to be both efficient and architecturally
NO CHANGE
Binding clusters together and to shape
Binding clusters together and shaping
Binding clusters together and shape
24. Which choice best indicates that constructing the cork
boat was challenging?
F. NO CHANGE
G. authentic
H. rigorous
J. grim
sound. Dozens of friends expedited this proper process
24
by volunteering to help with the construction of the boat.
[5]
The completed cork boat, which resembled a Viking
ship, was more impressive than Pollack had ever imagined.
[D] In his childhood imagination, he had saw himself
25
floating the boat in his neighbor’s swimming pool. But
at a length of twenty-two feet, Pollack’s masterpiece
26
was best suited with a grand voyage. In 2002, the
27
company that had donated thousands of corks to
28
Pollack’s project sponsored the vessel’s launch in
Portugal. There, during the boat’s successful journey
on the Douro River, in the country of Portugal, Pollack’s
dream was fully realized.
ACT-1874FPRE
29
15
25. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
had seen himself
seen himself
saw him
26. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
length, of twenty-two feet,
length of twenty-two feet;
length of twenty-two feet
27. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
most well suited to
better suited for
best suited as
28. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
company, which
company whom
company, who
29. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
River, which is a river in Portugal,
River in Portugal,
River,
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
Question 30 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
30. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the
essay:
“Remember,” he would say as he made his
daily pickups, “every cork counts.”
The sentence would most logically be placed at:
F. Point A in Paragraph 1.
G. Point B in Paragraph 2.
H. Point C in Paragraph 3.
J. Point D in Paragraph 5.
PASSAGE III
Lightning in the Sand
As my friend Anna and I walked the sand dunes
of southeastern New Mexico, she told me that she
hoped we’d find a fulgurite, one as translucent white
31. A. NO CHANGE
B. and nearly transparent to the eye almost as the
white sands of these dunes.
C. as these sands.
D. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.
as the southeastern New Mexico sands around us. A
31
fulgurite—whose name stems from the Latin word
fulgur, which means “thunderbolt”—is a hollow silica
glass tube formed when lightning strikes sand. A fulgurite
is created in one explosive second by fusion and pressure
32. F.
G.
H.
J.
as sand heated by a lightning blast melts, and becomes
32
glass. Commonly called “petrified lightning,” a fulgurite
33. Which choice best builds on the preceding sentence by
emphasizing the dramatic nature of the mark a fulgurite leaves on the earth?
A. NO CHANGE
B. sketches
C. burns
D. sends
places the shape of a miniature lightning bolt into the
33
earth, often branching deep into the ground.
Anna told me that I had possibly seen a small
fragment of a fulgurite before, without realizing I had,
34. F.
G.
H.
J.
on a beach. She explained though that even experts
34
are rarely able to locate a fully intact fulgurite.
ACT-1874FPRE
NO CHANGE
sand heated (by a lightning blast) melts
sand, heated by a lightning blast melts,
sand heated by a lightning blast melts
16
NO CHANGE
explained, though, that even experts
explained though that, even experts,
explained, though that even experts
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
35. Given that all the statements are true, which one provides the most relevant information at this point in the
essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Human-made fulgurites are not any easier to excavate than naturally occurring fulgurites.
C. A fulgurite is not a geode (a crystal-lined stone),
though the two are often confused.
D. Still, pieces of fulgurite can be worked into jewelry.
The thin, brittle glass tubes break easily. Occasionally,
35
after strong, sustained winds have shifted desert sands,
36. F.
G.
H.
J.
while an unbroken, previously buried fulgurite will be
36
revealed, showing as a tube protruding from the ground.
NO CHANGE
however
so
DELETE the underlined portion.
E I scanned the area, hopeful that I’d see a tube newly
37. Which of the following sentences, if added here, best
connects the preceding sentence to the information that
follows in the paragraph?
A. Anna told me that there had been a brief rain
shower in the area the day before.
B. I could see bright pink sand verbenas blooming in
the distance.
C. Swift winds were moving the white sands that day.
D. Dig carefully.
uncovered. Anna made clear that we’d be lucky to come
38. F. NO CHANGE
G. uncovered, I focused my gaze on the sands in the
distance.
H. uncovered, I looked closely.
J. had it been uncovered.
38
upon a small piece of fulgurite, just a few inches long.
Anna had shown me fulgurites she had found
on other trips. Their colors ranged from black to
brown to green, corresponding to the color of the
sand in which she had discovered them. I wasn’t
surprised that I’d never recognized fulgurites on
39. Which choice most effectively concludes this sentence
and leads into the information that follows in the
paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. I focus on looking for seashells, sand dollars, and
smooth rocks when I’m walking the sands.
C. usually, I’m not in the mood for a science project
when I’m on vacation.
D. on their surface, they look like pieces of tree
branches.
any beach: no one had ever told me what to look for.
39
ACT-1874FPRE
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1
1
40. Which choice makes clearest the light, sporadic
arrangement of the bubbles in the glass?
F. NO CHANGE
G. pointed
H. speckled
J. covered
Their interiors, though, are smooth, clear glass stained
40
41. The best placement for the underlined portion would
be:
A. where it is now.
B. after the word bubbles.
C. after the word during.
D. after the word cooling.
with tiny bubbles trapped formed by air and moisture
41
during the rapid cooling of the melted sand after the
lightning strike.
We continued exploring the dunes.
Anna laughed and said we needed only
42. F.
G.
H.
J.
to stop at the local gift shop to unearth
42
NO CHANGE
for having unearthed
that would unearth
unearthing
our treasure. K But given
43. If the writer deleted the preceding sentence, the essay
would primarily lose a:
A. bluntly critical comment that makes clear Anna’s
frustration with trying to find a white fulgurite in
the sand dunes of New Mexico.
B. mildly scolding response by Anna to the narrator’s
impatience with the time and attention it might
take for them to find a white fulgurite.
C. light moment in the form of a good-natured joke
by Anna about how easy it could be to find a white
fulgurite.
D. moment of excitement when Anna remembers that
they could easily find a white fulgurite at the local
gift shop.
our luck finding fulgurites in
44. F.
G.
H.
J.
44
45. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would provide the essay with new information?
A. beaches in Florida, Utah, California, and Nevada,
B. beaches, but so far not this day in the New Mexico
sands,
C. beaches, in other words, sandy locales,
D. beaches, even a green fulgurite,
deserts and on beaches, she wanted to
45
keep searching to find our own piece
of bright, white lightning in the sand.
ACT-1874FPRE
NO CHANGE
her
my
their
18
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1
1
PASSAGE IV
Planet Earth’s Windiest Observatory
[1]
Step outside into blowing snow, freezing fog, 45 mph
winds with hurricane-force gusts, and a –50° Fahrenheit
windchill. Welcome to a typical January day at the Mount
Washington Observatory. [A] Weather conditions at this
facility, which sits atop its namesake’s 6,288-foot peak
46
in New Hampshire, has earned the location the nickname
47
“Home of the World’s Worst Weather.”
[2]
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
their
these
it’s
47. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Hampshire, have earned
Hampshire has earned
Hampshire, earns
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
mountains (Colorado’s Pikes Peak,
mountains, (Colorado’s Pikes Peak
mountains (Colorado’s Pikes Peak
[B] Though somewhat diminutive compared
to other mountains, (Colorado’s Pikes Peak, for
48
example, is more than twice its height), Mount Washington
49. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one best
uses a comparison to emphasize that the weather on
Mount Washington can be extreme?
A. NO CHANGE
B. is much colder at the summit than at the base of
the mountain.
C. has an average midwinter temperature of
5° Fahrenheit.
D. has weather that rivals that of Antarctica.
is the tallest peak in the Presidential Range. The peak
49
stands at the confluence of three major storm tracks,
and its steep slopes force rising winds to accelerate.
50
In fact, scientists in 1934 recorded a surface wind
speed (of 231 mph): one of the fastest ever recorded.
51
ACT-1874FPRE
19
50. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
its steep slopes that force
if its steep slopes force
its steep slopes forcing
51. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
speed of 231 mph—
speed of 231 mph;
speed, of 231 mph,
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
[3]
In one study, researchers used a laser beam and
advanced optical techniques to measure winds. The
observatory also keeps detailed weather records that
scientists have used to track climate trends and weather
patterns. The observatory has also advanced scientists’
52
understanding of clouds, of ice physics, and the
53
atmosphere.
[4]
52. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
In addition, the
Additionally, the
Also, the
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
furthered our knowledge of ice physics,
as well as ice physics,
ice physics,
54. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Observers who work
Observers work
Observers, working
55. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
winter, of course,
winter, however,
winter,
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
vehicle while gripping
vehicle that grips
vehicle and grip
57. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
research and the
research but the
research, the
To conduct all this research, staff are on-site
year-round. Observers, who work several twelve-hour
54
shifts over the course of a week. To change personnel
in winter, though, crews ascend the mountain in a
55
vehicle, gripping the snow using revolving tracks similar
56
to those on a military tank. Observers go outside every
hour to gather data, which they send to the National
Weather Service. [C]
[5]
Though isolated, the Mount Washington Observatory
offers weather enthusiasts many ways to get involved.
The observatory takes volunteers and accepts interns,
who assist with research. The bold can take part in
57
educational trips to the summit in winter. [D] For those
58. Which choice contrasts most directly with the other
ways to get involved at the observatory that are mentioned in the paragraph?
F. NO CHANGE
G. prefer a warm recliner to an icy peak,
H. conduct weather research,
J. love the outdoors,
who are planning to make a trip to Mount Washington,
58
the observatory has a website with live video feeds of
the summit.
ACT-1874FPRE
20
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1
1
Questions 59 and 60 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
59. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the essay:
This information is used to help create
regional weather forecasts.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 4.
D. Point D in Paragraph 5.
60. Suppose the writer’s main purpose had been to
describe how mountain ranges affect weather patterns.
Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
F. Yes, because it discusses how the slopes of Mount
Washington increase wind speeds.
G. Yes, because it describes the weather conditions
on the summit of Mount Washington.
H. No, because it outlines the history of the Mount
Washington Observatory.
J. No, because it provides an overview of the Mount
Washington Observatory and its research.
PASSAGE V
The Real McCoy
[1]
“It’s the real McCoy.” You might have heard this
expression before, but who—or what—is a McCoy, real
or otherwise? The saying has been used for generations
to declare its’ the genuine article, the original and best.
61
[A] While its origin is disputed, many people believe the
expression was inspired by the inventions of a Canadian
American engineer named, Elijah McCoy. McCoy, a
62
railroad worker who, as a teenager, had formally studied
mechanical engineering, revolutionized railroad and
NO CHANGE
its something that’s
that something is
that its
62. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
American engineer named
American, engineer named,
American, engineer named
63. A. NO CHANGE
B. operations, changing both of these industries
fundamentally
C. operations, so that they would never be the same
D. operations
factory operations, affecting both incredibly with his
63
dozens of patented products.
ACT-1874FPRE
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
21
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1
1
[2]
While working for the Michigan Central Railroad in
64. F.
G.
H.
J.
the 1870s, then McCoy was assigned to work on the wheel
64
bearings and axles of trains. a Trains needed to come to
NO CHANGE
with that company
during this time
DELETE the underlined portion.
65. In the preceding sentence, the writer is considering
revising the phrase “assigned to work on” to “responsible for oiling.” Given that the revised phrase is accurate, should the writer make this revision?
A. Yes, because the revision specifically describes the
procedures McCoy had to follow as he maintained
the wheel bearings and axles of trains.
B. Yes, because the revision provides a clearer connection between McCoy’s main task as a railroad
worker and his first patented device.
C. No, because the revision doesn’t indicate whether
McCoy chose to oil the wheel bearings and axles
of trains by hand.
D. No, because the revision doesn’t make clear
whether McCoy had worked on trains for other
railroad companies.
a halt after only a few miles of travel so that the moving
parts could be oiled by hand—a tedious, time-consuming
process. McCoy invented a device that released oil while
a train was in motion, substantially reducing the number
66
of maintenance stops had the effect of making travel more
67
efficient. [B] This automatic lubricating device became the
first of his fifty-seven patents.
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
lessening the frequency of number
subtracting the amount
lowering the amount
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
and making
helping to make
made
68. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
subsequently,
regardless,
however,
69. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
the problem being
in that
DELETE the underlined portion.
70. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
McCoy would recognize
McCoy, a recognition of
McCoy recognized
[3]
McCoy applied the principles of this invention to
other engineering challenges. Factories in the late 1800s,
for example, increasingly relied on steam engines to
68
power factory machines. As with trains, therefore
69
many of the machines’ parts had to be oiled manually.
McCoy, recognizing the similarities between train
70
wheels and factory machines, designed automated
oilers for steam engines. These innovations allowed
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1
1
71. Which choice offers the clearest and most precise
information about how the operation of factory
machines changed as a result of McCoy’s innovations?
A. NO CHANGE
B. rethink operations,
C. run machines continuously,
D. use machines differently,
factories to give machines a certain timelessness,
71
increasing factory productivity and, as a result, profits. h
72. The writer is considering deleting the following phrase
from the preceding sentence (ending the sentence with
a period):
and, as a result, profits.
Should the writer make this deletion?
F. Yes, because the phrase shifts the focus of the
paragraph from the use of McCoy’s inventions in
factories to factory disputes.
G. Yes, because the phrase suggests that factory
owners were more interested in profits than in
which of McCoy’s devices would best meet their
needs.
H. No, because the phrase is relevant to the paragraph’s discussion of the positive effects that the
use of McCoy’s inventions had in factories.
J. No, because the phrase makes clear that the successful use of McCoy’s inventions in factories led
to higher wages for factory workers.
[4]
McCoy’s inventions were an instant success. [C] Not
surprisingly, other inventors inundated the market with
similar—and usually inferior—devices. [D] Supposedly,
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
factory owners who wanted a product proven to do it
73
would ask if their purchase was “the real McCoy.”
McCoy’s inventions would continue to benefit industries
NO CHANGE
lend itself to superiority
give off the best result
work well
74. Which choice best concludes the essay by reiterating
its main idea?
F. NO CHANGE
G. so, not surprisingly, in 2001 McCoy was inducted
into the National Inventors Hall of Fame, located
in Alexandria, Virginia.
H. even having applications in the booming aluminum
manufacturing industry of the 1940s.
J. making this story, for so many reasons, “the genuine article.”
in the United States well into the twentieth century, as his
74
name became synonymous with quality and authenticity.
74
Question 75 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
75. The writer is considering adding the following true
statement to the essay:
The imitators expected that the price of their
products—often significantly lower than the
price of McCoy’s devices—would attract
buyers, but price didn’t seem to matter most.
If the writer were to add this statement, it would most
logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 4.
D. Point D in Paragraph 4.
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
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3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
is as though we slip into a worm-hole in the fabric of
time and space, travel into the past and then back again
to the present in the same instant. That morning, swimming, I remembered a day in late September the year
45 before, the last day my swim team had use of an outdoor pool. All summer long my teammates and I swam
under an open sky. After this day we would spend the
rest of the season in a dank and moldy indoor pool.
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the
essay “Rough Water” by David McGlynn (©2008 by David
McGlynn).
One of my best races could hardly be called a race
at all. I was a senior in high school, gunning to qualify
for the USA Junior Nationals. The previous summer I
had missed the cut by less than a second in the mile,
5 and just the day before, at my high school regional
meet, I had come within three-tenths of a second in the
500-yard freestyle. The qualification time was 4:39.69;
I swam a 4:39.95. The next day, Sunday, I drove with
my mother to the far side of Houston where a time trial
10 was being held—an informal, unadvertised event
thrown together at the last minute. The only races
swum were those the swimmers requested to swim.
Most were short, flapping sprints in which swimmers
attempted to shave off a few one-hundredths of a
15 second. I didn’t have the courage to face the mile, and
since I’d struck out in the 500 the day before, I decided
to swim the 1,000-yard freestyle. Forty lengths of the
pool. It was a race I’d swum fast enough to believe that
given the right confluence of circumstances—cold
20 water, an aggressive heat, an energetic meet—I could
make the cut. I had fifteen seconds to drop to qualify.
The triangular backstroke flags were strung across
50 the lanes and the adjacent diving well. My teammates
liked to run down the long cement deck, jump out over
the diving well, and try to grab hold of the line. Many
of them could jump far enough to make it. I could not,
though I tried every day. I tried that day, and missed.
55 Since I would not have another shot until May, I
decided to try again. I squared up and ran, my feet wet
against the pavement, and just as my foot hit the water’s
edge, one of my teammates called out “Jump!” I bent
my knees and pushed off hard and got my hand around
60 the flag line. I pulled the whole thing into the water.
Autumn was coming and I wondered if there was a
metaphor in what I had just done; a fortune folded
inside a cookie: my greatest effort would come when I
was down to my last opportunity.
Now it was March and I was down to my last
opportunity, thinking about that day and hearing the
word “Jump!” as my eyes followed the finger of the boy
pointing me onward. What I understood—not later, but
right then, in the water—was how little this swim added
70 up to in the world. I had spent more than a year training
for this one swim, and when it was finished the world
would be no different than before it began. If no one
else cared, then the swim was mine alone. It mattered
because it was the task before me now, the thing I
75 wanted now. Swimming, I had long understood, is a
constant choice between the now and the later: exhaustion now for the sake of fitness later, all those Friday
nights spent in the pool in pursuit of an end that seemed
always one step farther on. I was out of laters, this was
80 the end, and I made my choice. I cashed in the energy I
set aside for climbing out of the pool and unfolding my
towel and tying my shoes. I’ve never sprinted harder in
my life, not before and not since. I hit the wall. I knew
by instinct, by the spasm of my tendons and the ache in
85 my bones, before I ever turned toward the clock or
heard my coach scream, that I had made it.
65
By the time I stood up on the blocks, I was not
only the only one in the race, I was practically the only
one in the natatorium. The horn sounded and I dove in.
25 I was angry and disheartened at having missed the cut
the day before and I had little belief that I could go any
faster today.
About six hundred yards in, my coach started to
pace. I stayed steady on, not in a hurry, not about to get
30 my hopes up. In my mind, I had already missed the
time. Then a boy from a rival high school, whom I
hardly knew, unfolded his legs and climbed down from
the bleachers and started to cheer. He squatted low to
the water and pointed his finger toward the end of the
35 pool, as if to say, That’s where you’re going, now hurry
up. I thought, If he’s cheering, maybe I’m close.
Sometimes a moment comes along when the world
slows down, and though everything else moves around
us at the same frenetic speed, we’re afforded the oppor40 tunity to reflect in real-time rather than in retrospect. It
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1. The narrator of the passage can best be described as a
swimmer who primarily:
A. recalls the swim of his life and the factors that
motivated him during that swim.
B. remembers the events that inspired him to participate in a time trial at the Junior Nationals.
C. contrasts the joy of winning competitions early in
the season with his later struggles to succeed.
D. chronicles his swimming career, from childhood
through high school.
6. Based on the passage, the “end” the narrator mentions
in line 80 most likely refers to his:
F. final pursuit of fitness.
G. last chance to qualify for Junior Nationals.
H. memory of his final Friday night practice.
J. ultimate realization that he had defeated the other
competitors in the race.
7. The narrator of the passage characterizes the time trial
in Houston as:
A. one long sprint in which swimmers attempted to
improve their times.
B. a meet advertised as a way to qualify for the Junior
Nationals.
C. a regional meet that featured only the 500-yard
freestyle and 1,000-yard freestyle.
D. an informal swimming event put together at the
last minute.
2. Which of the following events mentioned in the passage happened first chronologically?
F. The narrator stood on the blocks at the Sunday
time trial his senior year.
G. The narrator leapt out over the diving well in late
September.
H. The narrator swam the 500-yard freestyle in the
high school regional meet as a senior.
J. The narrator heard a boy from a rival school
cheering.
3. The narrator describes the natatorium as being nearly
empty of spectators the day of his race in order to:
A. illustrate that the perfect racing conditions the narrator had hoped for weren’t likely to occur.
B. demonstrate that, contrary to the narrator’s expectations, the meet was energetic.
C. explain why the narrator’s coach paced at the
sound of the horn.
D. identify why the narrator felt a rush of energy
before the race.
8. The statement “That’s where you’re going, now hurry
up” (lines 35–36) can most directly be attributed to
the:
F. cheering boy, as he verbally criticizes the narrator’s efforts.
G. cheering boy, as he shouts encouragement to the
narrator.
H. narrator, as he speculates about what the cheering
boy meant when the boy pointed at the pool.
J. narrator, as he angrily contemplates his response
to the cheering boy.
4. The narrator indicates that when he swam the 1,000yard freestyle in the time trials, the world, for a
moment, seemed to:
F. speed up, blurring past and present events.
G. rush past, forcing him to reflect in retrospect.
H. move in slow motion, as did everything around
him.
J. slow down, allowing him to reflect in real time.
9. For the narrator, compared to practicing in the outdoor
pool, practicing in the indoor pool is:
A. more productive.
B. more liberating.
C. less appealing.
D. less competitive.
5. The passage indicates that during the narrator’s swim
at the time trial, he understood for the first time that:
A. his goals would always be one step farther on.
B. he had trained for this swim for over a year.
C. the swim was an event that was important to him
alone.
D. swimming is a choice between the now and the
later.
10. When the narrator heard “Jump!” in his mind while
swimming (line 67), he was most likely remembering:
F. his teammate’s command the day the narrator
caught the flag line.
G. his own shout as he leapt off the outdoor pool’s
deck that fall.
H. the cheers of the boy from the rival school.
J. the abrupt start of his race that Sunday.
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Passage II
50 and diversity for apples. “It is not surprising,” she con-
cedes, “that when Vavilov first came to Kazakhstan to
look at plants he was so amazed. Nowhere else in the
world do apples grow as a forest. That is one reason
why he stated that this is probably where the apple was
55 born, this was its birthing grounds.”
SOCIAL SCIENCE: Passage A is adapted from the book
Apple: A Global History by Erika Janik (©2011 by Erika Janik).
Passage B is adapted from the article “The Fatherland of
Apples” by Gary Nabhan (©2008 by The Orion Society).
Passage A by Erika Janik
Discerning where a crop originated and where the
greatest portion of its genetic diversity remains extant
may seem esoteric to the uninitiated. But knowing
where exactly our food comes from—geographically,
60 culturally, and genetically—is of paramount importance
to the rather small portion of our own species that regularly concerns itself with the issue of food security. The
variety of foods that we keep in our fields, orchards,
and, secondarily, in our seed banks is critically impor65 tant in protecting our food supply from plagues, crop
diseases, catastrophic weather, and political upheavals.
Vavilov himself was personally motivated to become an
agricultural scientist by witnessing several famines
during the czarist era of Russia. He hoped that by com70 bining a more diverse seed portfolio with knowledge
from both traditional farmers and collaborating scientists, the number of Russian families suffering from
hunger might be reduced.
In early September of 1929, Nikolai Vavilov,
famed Russian plant explorer and botanist, arrived in
the central Asian crossroads of Alma-Ata, Kazakhstan.
Climbing up the Zailijskei Alatau slopes of the Tian
5 Shan mountains separating Kazakhstan from China,
Vavilov found thickets of wild apples stretching in
every direction, an extensive forest of fruit coloured
russet red, creamy yellow, and vibrant pink. Nowhere
else in the world do apples grow thickly as a forest or
10 with such incredible diversity. Amazed by what he saw,
Vavilov wrote: ‘I could see with my own eyes that I had
stumbled upon the centre of origin for the apple.’
With extraordinary prescience and few facts,
Vavilov suggested that the wild apples he had seen
15 growing in the Tian Shan were in fact the ancestors of
the modern apple. He tracked the whole process of
domestication to the mountains near Alma-Ata, where
the wild apples looked awfully similar to the apples
found at the local grocery. Unfortunately, Vavilov’s
20 theory would remain mostly unknown for decades.
In a very real sense, the forests of wild foragers
75 and the orchards of traditional farmers in such centers
of crop diversity are the wellsprings of diversity that
plant breeders, pathologists, and entomologists return
to every time our society whittles the resilience in our
fields and orchards down to its breaking point.
Exactly where the apple came from had long been
a matter of contention and discussion among people
who study plant origins. Vavilov, imprisoned by Joseph
Stalin in 1940 for work in plant genetics that chal25 lenged Stalin’s beliefs, died in a Leningrad prison in
1943. Only after the fall of communism in Russia did
Vavilov’s theory, made more than half a century earlier,
become widely recognized.
And whittle away we have done. Here in North
America, according to apple historian Dan Bussey,
some 16,000 apple varieties have been named and nurtured over the last four centuries. By 1904, however, the
identities and sources of only 7,098 of those varieties
85 could be discerned by USDA scientist W. H. Ragan.
Since then, some 6,121 apple varieties—86.2 percent of
Ragan’s 1904 inventory—have been lost from nursery
catalogs, farmers’ markets, and from the American
table.
80
As Vavilov predicted, it’s now believed that all of
30 the apples known today are direct descendents of the
wild apples that evolved in Kazakhstan. Apples do not
comprise all of Kazakhstan’s plant bounty, however. At
least 157 other plant species found in Kazakhstan are
either direct precursors or close wild relatives of
35 domesticated crops, including 90 per cent of all cultivated temperate fruits. The name of Kazakhstan’s
largest city, Alma-Ata, or Almaty as it is known today,
even translates as ‘Father of Apples’ or, according to
some, ‘where the apples are’. So this news about the
40 apple’s origins was probably no surprise to residents,
particularly in towns where apple seedlings are known
to grow up through the cracks in the pavements. The
apple has been evolving in Central Asia for upwards of
4.5 million years.
11. The author’s use of the words and phrases “thickets,”
“stretching in every direction,” and “extensive forest”
(lines 6–7) in Passage A most nearly serves to emphasize which of the following points?
A. The Tian Shan mountains are a challenge to
navigate.
B. The apple varieties of Kazakhstan would be difficult for a botanist to catalog.
C. The diversity of plant species in Kazakhstan is
crucially important.
D. The magnitude of wild apples in Kazakhstan is
stunning.
Passage B by Gary Nabhan
45
Nikolai Vavilov is widely regarded as the world’s
greatest plant explorer, for he made over 250,000 seed,
fruit, and tuber collections on five continents. Kazakh
conservationist Tatiana Salova credits him with first
recognizing that Kazakhstan was the center of origin
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12. The author of Passage A most likely states that the
wild apples growing in the Tian Shan looked like
apples found at the local grocery store to support the
point that:
F. many of the apples stocked in grocery stores are
harvested in the Tian Shan.
G. in the Tian Shan, Vavilov had likely found the wild
ancestors of the domesticated apple.
H. the wild apples growing in the Tian Shan are
among the most popular varieties with consumers.
J. in the Tian Shan, Vavilov had found new apple
varieties to introduce to food producers.
17. In Passage B, it can most reasonably be inferred from
the third paragraph (lines 74–79) that “centers of crop
diversity” become crucially important when:
A. plant breeders would like to learn more about the
plant species of central Asia.
B. problems with a cultivated crop require experts to
research a new variety of the crop.
C. consumers would like more variety in grocery produce departments.
D. disputes among plant breeders, pathologists, and
entomologists lead to a reduction in crop variety.
13. Passage A makes which of the following claims about
plant species that are found in Kazakhstan?
A. Approximately 157 species of cultivated temperate
fruits originated in Kazakhstan.
B. Ninety percent of all domesticated crops are either
direct precursors or close wild relatives of plant
species found in Kazakhstan.
C. Of the plant species found in Kazakhstan, ninety
percent are species of apples.
D. Aside from apples, at least 157 plant species found
in Kazakhstan are either direct precursors or close
wild relatives of domesticated crops.
18. Which of the following statements best describes the
difference in the tone of the two passages?
F. Passage A is defensive, whereas Passage B is
dispassionate.
G. Passage A is solemn, whereas Passage B is
optimistic.
H. Passage A is celebratory, whereas Passage B is
cautionary.
J. Passage A is accusatory, whereas Passage B is
sentimental.
14. Passage B most strongly suggests that Vavilov was
motivated to become an agricultural scientist primarily
because he:
F. wanted to have one of his findings published.
G. aimed to work with a famous botanist.
H. wished to remedy a personal financial crisis.
J. hoped to help feed others.
19. Compared to the author of Passage A, the author of
Passage B provides more information about the:
A. reduction in the number of apple varieties in North
America over the past four centuries.
B. methods Vavilov used to prove to other scientists
that the apples growing in the Tian Shan are the
ancestors of the modern apple.
C. number of apple varieties that are thriving in
Kazakhstan today.
D. techniques used by researchers to determine the
regions with the greatest genetic diversity in
plants.
15. The author of Passage B uses the phrase “whittle
away” (line 80) to refer to the way that apple varieties
have been:
A. gradually lost from nursery catalogs, farmers’
markets, and the American table.
B. modified by plant breeders, entomologists, and
pathologists to meet specialized needs.
C. weeded out by scientists until only the few thousand most resilient varieties remained.
D. pared down in 1904 to the few varieties that nursery catalogs wanted to feature.
20. Passage A quotes Vavilov as saying “‘I could see with
my own eyes that I had stumbled upon the centre of
origin for the apple’” (lines 11–12). In Passage B this
quote is directly:
F. invoked by the passage author as he imagines what
Kazakhstan looked like centuries ago.
G. used to support an argument by USDA scientists.
H. paraphrased by Salova.
J. refuted by Bussey.
16. As it is used in lines 82–83, the phrase named and nurtured most nearly means:
F. nominated and encouraged.
G. identified and cultivated.
H. pointed to and groomed.
J. cited and fed.
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Passage III
The other players, no longer languidly blowing through
their charts, immediately surge up behind him, all
55 fighting-fit. Once Berry finishes his solo, the shenanigans resume.
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article “The
Quiet Sideman” by Colin Fleming (©2008 by The American
Scholar).
After making his way to New York, Berry immediately became a presence and soon was in demand. The
great jazz orchestras of the swing era were fronted by
60 musical directors/arrangers—Duke Ellington was preeminent—who drew the acclaim. The sidemen were
musical traveling salesmen who sold someone else’s
wares in the best style they could manage. It was with
Fletcher Henderson that Berry began to ditch some of
65 the sideman’s subservient trappings. For starters,
Henderson wrote in keys that were rare for the jazz
orchestras of the day, and his somber, indigo-inflected
voicings were ideal for a player of Berry’s introspective
approach to his instrument: Berry sounds as if he’s
70 being swallowed by his sax. “Blues in C Sharp Minor,”
for instance, is odd, haunting, and ultimately relaxing.
A Berry solo in it is slightly off mike, making the listener feel as though he’s been playing for some time
before we finally hear him. The effect is unnerving, as
75 if we weren’t paying close attention.
Near the end of his eight years as a recordingsession musician, tenor saxophonist Leon “Chu” Berry
landed a short-lived spot with Count Basie’s orchestra.
Standing in for one of the Basie band’s two tenor
5 giants, Berry took a lead solo on “Oh, Lady Be Good,”
the 1924 Gershwin song that Basie had played for
years. In the 28 seconds that the solo lasted on
February 4, 1939, we are treated to no less than the
musical personification of mind and body working
10 together in divine tandem. When you hear the recording
for the first time, you’re likely to wonder why you’ve
never heard of Chu Berry before.
Why you’ve never heard of him is pretty simple: a
lot of hard-core jazz buffs don’t know much about him.
15 Berry was a solid session player who turns up on
recordings with Basie, Bessie Smith, Fletcher
Henderson, and Billie Holiday. But he did not cut many
sessions himself as a leader, and when he soloed, he
worked within the recording constraints of the era and
20 the swing genre—fast-moving 78s with solos often lasting for a mere 32 beats.
In June 1940, Cab Calloway granted Berry a showcase piece, “A Ghost of a Chance,” the sole recording
in Berry’s career to feature him from start to finish. It
was his “Body and Soul,” a response to Coleman
80 Hawkins’s famous recording, intended not as a riposte
to a rival, but as the other half of a dialogue. Its rubato
lines are disembodied from the music meant to accompany it, which is spartan to begin with. This may be
Berry’s one and only instance of indulgence on a
85 record, a cathedral of a solo in its flourishes, angles,
ornamentations, reflexivity. If sunlight could pass
through music, “A Ghost of a Chance” would funnel it
out in the broadest spectrum of colors.
The people who loved Berry were, not surprisingly, other tenor players, a situation leading to the
dreaded “musician’s musician” tag. But that’s not
25 nearly praise enough to describe Chu Berry, who, when
given opportunity, displayed a musical dexterity that
would be envied by future generations of horn men.
Berry faced the lot of other horn players: having to
grind it out long and hard until something memorable
30 burst through; the prejudices and expectations of the
listening public; and the accepted wisdom of what is
and isn’t art in a given medium. In this case, swing was
fodder for dance parties, not music worthy of study.
Oddly enough, Berry’s geniality might help
35 explain his failure to court history’s favor: it wasn’t in
his nature to call attention to himself or his playing.
Born in 1908 into the black middle class in Wheeling,
West Virginia, the laid-back, affable Berry attended
West Virginia State in Charleston, where he switched
40 from alto sax to tenor and exhibited the willingness to
fit in that characterized his presence in so many dance
bands. He was the rare artist who refused to put his
interests above those of the band, even if that meant
playing ensemble passages rather than taking a healthy
45 allotment of solo breaks.
21. Based on the passage, how did Berry’s personality
affect his career?
A. His ambitious, competitive personality was offputting to other musicians, who were reluctant to
play with him.
B. His genial personality endeared him to other musicians, but his career suffered when he spent more
time socializing than practicing.
C. His modest and easygoing personality kept him
out of the spotlight and, consequently, he received
less attention as a performer.
D. His shy, introspective personality was misunderstood as snobbish arrogance, so he was offered
few recording-session jobs.
College proved a training ground for Berry the
bandsman, as he teamed up with a number of amateur
outfits. He never played simply to show off. Instead, he
tried to bring out the positive attributes in any given sit50 uation or setting. Later, when Berry is performing with
the Calloway ensemble, we hear some ragged, out-oftune playing until Berry’s first few solo notes emerge.
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22. The author mentions Berry’s solo in “Oh, Lady Be
Good” primarily in order to:
F. illustrate why most people haven’t heard of Berry.
G. provide an example of Berry’s musical excellence.
H. contrast Berry’s later work with Berry’s early
work.
J. establish that Berry’s solo was better than Count
Basie’s.
26. As it is used in line 35, the word court most nearly
means to:
F. seek to attract.
G. romantically pursue.
H. dangerously provoke.
J. pass judgment upon.
27. In the seventh paragraph (lines 57–75), the author
compares sidemen to traveling salesmen in order to:
A. make clear how often musicians had to travel.
B. indicate that musicians often had side jobs.
C. illustrate sidemen’s supportive role in a band.
D. show how hard sidemen worked to get hired.
23. The author points out that many serious jazz enthusiasts know little about Berry primarily in order to:
A. criticize scholarship that has provided an unbalanced history of jazz.
B. demonstrate that the author is more knowledgeable
than most jazz scholars.
C. illustrate the secrecy Berry demanded in order to
preserve his family’s privacy.
D. explain why it’s likely that readers would be unfamiliar with Berry.
28. The author describes Henderson’s “Blues in C Sharp
Minor” as:
F. innovative, indulgent, and colorful.
G. fast-moving, memorable, and eerie.
H. artful, sublime, and unexpectedly upbeat.
J. odd, haunting, and relaxing.
24. According to the author, Berry’s solos as a recordingsession musician were often very short because he:
F. wasn’t a very good saxophone player until late in
his career.
G. drew more attention playing ensemble passages.
H. worked within the recording constraints of the era.
J. preferred playing many short solos to playing a
few long ones.
29. According to the author, what is unique about the June
1940 rendition of the song “A Ghost of a Chance”?
A. It’s the only recorded piece that features Berry
from beginning to end.
B. Berry plays an alto saxophone instead of his usual
tenor saxophone.
C. It was the only public performance Berry gave in
1940.
D. Berry showcases his unrivaled ability to play a
solo that blends into the background.
25. The author indicates that during Berry’s time as a
musician, swing music was primarily regarded as:
A. an opportunity for soloists to show off their skills.
B. a genre to be most appreciated by young people.
C. musician’s music that lacked a popular audience.
D. music for dance parties but not music for study.
30. The author uses the phrase “a cathedral of a solo”
(line 85) most likely to create a sense that Berry’s solo
was:
F. an intricate, awe-inspiring masterpiece.
G. a somber, mournful hymn.
H. a crumbling remnant of Berry’s once-great skill.
J. a testament to Calloway’s band leadership.
ACT-1874FPRE
37
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3
3
Passage IV
55 characteristics, to have warped our galactic home. The
Sagittarius Dwarf seems a much more likely candidate,
simply because it is only a third as far from the center
of the Milky Way as the Magellanic Clouds. But in
astronomy—unlike in real estate—location isn’t every60 thing; to show a direct connection between warp and
dwarf, the orbital motion of the Sagittarius Dwarf must
be linked to the rotation of the Milky Way’s disk.
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
“Warp Factor” by Charles Liu (©2003 by Natural History Magazine, Inc.).
Astronomers sometimes describe the shape of our
home galaxy, the Milky Way, as a thin-crust pizza with
a plum stuck in the middle. The plum is the slightly
oblong central bulge, protruding about 3,000 light5 years above and below the galactic plane, comprised
mostly of older stars; it makes up the core of the Milky
Way, and includes a black hole two and a half million
times the mass of the Sun. The crust of the pizza is the
galactic disk—the source of most of our galaxy’s light.
10 Thin and flat, the disk is 100,000 light-years across,
about 1,000 light-years thick, on average, and includes
more than 80 percent of the galaxy’s hundred billion or
so stars.
Bailin’s study is the first to find such a link. His
analysis of the galactic warp is based on angular
65 momentum—a measure of how much a system is spinning or rotating. Just as objects moving in a straight
line have momentum, objects spinning or orbiting
around an axis have angular momentum; and just as the
momenta of two objects combine when they collide, so
70 too do their angular momenta. Imagine two figure
skaters coming together for a combination spin. When
they make physical contact, their individual spiraling
motions combine to produce a single, unified whirl.
The plum-and-pizza picture works well enough,
15 but like most simple metaphors, it breaks down if you
Starting with the latest measurements of the struc-
push it. For one thing, the galactic disk isn’t a rigid
body, but a loose agglomeration of matter streaming
around a common center of gravity. (The swirling pattern of a hurricane far better resembles our spinning
20 galaxy.) For another thing, our galaxy’s disk isn’t flat;
it’s warped. Picture a disk of pizza dough spun into the
air by a skilled chef: our galaxy goes through the same
kind of floppy, wobbly gyrations, though at a rate best
measured in revolutions per hundreds of millions of
25 years.
75 ture and spin of the Milky Way, Bailin deduced the
angular momentum of the warped portion of the Milky
Way’s disk. He then compared that measure with the
angular momentum of the Sagittarius Dwarf—and
found for the first time, within the margins of measure80 ment error, that the two angular momenta are identical
in both quantity and direction. Such a coupling of the
angular momenta of two bodies almost never happens
by chance; usually, it takes place only when two spinning systems, like the skaters, come into contact. The
85 coupling isn’t enough to prove cause and effect by
itself, but it’s solid circumstantial evidence that the
interaction of the Sagittarius Dwarf with the Milky Way
disk created the warp in our galaxy.
Why does the Milky Way have such an oddlooking warp? No definitive answer has emerged. One
thing we do know: when it comes to warps, our galaxy
is hardly unique. About half of all spiral galaxies are
30 warped to some degree. Theoretical and computational
models have shown that a number of physical processes
can warp a galaxy, so it’s a matter of figuring out which
scenario applies. An innovative analysis of the problem
by Jeremy Bailin, an astronomy graduate student at the
35 University of Arizona in Tucson, has implicated a small
satellite galaxy, currently being ripped to shreds by the
gravity of the Milky Way.
31. Which of the following statements best expresses the
main idea of the passage?
A. Bailin began studying the Sagittarius Dwarf when
he was a graduate student in astronomy.
B. The gravitational tidal forces of the Milky Way are
destroying the Sagittarius Dwarf.
C. Most astronomers have come to an agreement that
evidence about how galaxies have formed is, at
best, circumstantial.
D. Evidence suggests that the warp in the Milky
Way’s disk results from the Milky Way’s interaction with a small satellite galaxy.
The Sagittarius Dwarf Spheroidal Galaxy was discovered in 1994. It appears to be in a roughly polar
40 orbit around the Milky Way—that is, above and below
the galactic disk—about 50,000 light-years from the
galactic center. That orbit brings the dwarf galaxy far
too close to the huge gravitational tidal forces of the
Milky Way for the dwarf to remain intact. As a result,
45 the Sagittarius Dwarf now looks something like strands
of spaghetti spilling from the front of a pasta-making
machine, the galaxy’s matter being drawn out over hundreds of millions of years by intergalactic tides.
32. It can reasonably be inferred that the problem the
author mentions in line 33 refers to:
F. a particular aspect of Bailin’s theory for which
there is little evidence.
G. a mathematical computation that led Bailin to
focus on the Sagittarius Dwarf.
H. the question of which physical processes caused
the warp in the Milky Way.
J. the potential impact of wobbly gyrations on the
Milky Way’s rotation.
Gravitational collisions between small satellite
and big spiral galaxies have long been
regarded as possible culprits in the warping of a larger
galaxy’s disk. The best known satellite galaxies orbiting the Milky Way—the Large and Small Magellanic
Clouds—are too far away, and have the wrong orbital
50 galaxies
ACT-1874FPRE
38
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3
3
33. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the
small satellite galaxy referred to in lines 35–36 is:
A. the Small Magellanic Cloud.
B. the Sagittarius Dwarf.
C. a known but as yet unnamed galaxy.
D. a hypothetical galaxy that is believed to exist but
has not yet been found.
37. The author refers to the swirling pattern of a hurricane
primarily in order to:
A. help explain the shortcomings of the plum-andpizza metaphor.
B. argue that the unpredictability of the rotation of
spiral galaxies requires a new metaphor.
C. emphasize the particular aspects of the Milky Way
that make it unique.
D. describe how the movement of the Milky Way creates gravitational tides.
34. Based on the passage, which of the following statements best describes Bailin’s study as it relates to the
field of astronomy?
F. It led astronomers to the discovery of a warp in the
Milky Way’s disk.
G. It convinced more astronomers to focus their attention on the center of the Milky Way.
H. It revealed problems with the basic assumptions
held by most astronomers.
J. It provided evidence for an idea that scientists had
long considered a possibility but had not yet
proved.
38. The passage directly compares the Milky Way’s disk as
it is affected by its warp to:
F. a pasta maker churning out spaghetti.
G. pizza dough being spun in the air by a chef.
H. a thin-crust pizza balanced on top of a plum.
J. two figure skaters coming together for a combination spin.
39. According to the passage, which of the following statements best describes the movement of the Sagittarius
Dwarf with respect to the Milky Way?
A. It appears to be in a roughly polar orbit around the
Milky Way.
B. It appears to orbit the Milky Way at an angle of
roughly forty-five degrees.
C. It follows the movement of the stars in the Milky
Way’s disk, though at a slightly faster rate.
D. It once followed the movement of the stars in the
Milky Way’s disk, but now seems to move erratically along its own path.
35. According to the passage, Bailin discovered that the
angular momentum of the warped portion of the Milky
Way and the angular momentum of the Sagittarius
Dwarf are:
A. identical in quantity but different in direction.
B. identical in direction but different in quantity.
C. identical in both quantity and direction.
D. different in both quantity and direction.
36. According to the passage, the central bulge of the
Milky Way is comprised of:
F. 80 percent of the galaxy’s stars.
G. older stars and a black hole.
H. a galactic plane and several dwarf planets.
J. a loose agglomeration of unidentified matter.
40. The passage describes angular momentum as the
amount of a system’s:
F. vertical deviation within an orbital path.
G. movement in a straight line through space.
H. gravitational pull.
J. spin or rotation.
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT-1874FPRE
39
Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key
1874FPRE
Reporting Category*
Reporting Category*
PHM
Key
F
G
S
Key
IES MDL
___
___
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
E
G
E
H
C
J
A
K
D
K
A
G
C
F
A
J
B
G
B
J
C
F
A
H
E
H
B
F
A
K
N
A
F
G
S
IES MDL
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
5
C
K
B
J
D
H
D
G
D
G
D
H
B
H
D
K
B
K
B
K
B
F
C
J
A
H
A
H
E
J
A
5
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
N
PHM
Combine the totals of these columns and put in the blank for PHM in the box below.
*Reporting Categories
PHM = Preparing for Higher Math
N = Number & Quantity
A = Algebra
F = Functions
G = Geometry
S = Statistics & Probability
IES = Integrating Essential Skills
MDL = Modeling
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Preparing for Higher Math (PHM)
(N + A + F + G + S)
_______
(35)
Integrating Essential Skills (IES)
_______
(25)
Total Number Correct for Mathematics Test
(PHM + IES)
_______
(60)
Modeling (MDL)
(Not included in total number correct for
mathematics test raw score)
_______
(28)
58
Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key
1874FPRE
Reporting
Category*
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Key KID
CS
A
G
A
J
C
G
D
H
C
F
D
G
D
J
A
G
B
H
A
H
___
Reporting
Category*
IKI
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Key KID
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
C
G
D
H
D
F
C
J
A
F
D
H
B
J
C
G
A
G
A
J
CS
IKI
*Reporting Categories
KID = Key Ideas & Details
CS = Craft & Structure
IKI = Integration of Knowledge & Ideas
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Key Ideas & Details (KID)
_______
(25)
Craft & Structure (CS)
_______
(11)
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI)
_______
(4)
Total Number Correct for Reading Test _______
(KID + CS + IKI)
(40)
Test 4: Science—Scoring Key
1874FPRE
Reporting
Category*
Key IOD
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
C
J
B
J
A
G
C
J
C
J
A
F
A
H
B
J
A
H
A
G
SIN
EMI
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Reporting
Category*
Key IOD
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
C
H
C
H
D
J
C
F
B
F
D
F
D
G
A
J
D
J
B
G
SIN
EMI
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
*Reporting Categories
IOD = Interpretation of Data
SIN = Scientific Investigation
EMI = Evaluation of Models,
Inferences & Experimental Results
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Interpretation of Data (IOD)
Scientific Investigation (SIN)
Evaluation of Models, Inferences &
Experimental Results (EMI)
___
___
___
_______
(18)
_______
(12)
_______
(10)
Total Number Correct for Science Test _______
(IOD + SIN + EMI)
(40)
___
___
59
Form 72E
(December 2015)
201512016
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Release materials,
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1
1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes-75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
You will also find questions about a section of the pas­
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
document. Read each passage through once before you
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
choose "NO CHANGE." In some cases, you will find in
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
·PASSAGE I
The Ants Go Marching
( 1)
Ants' search for food can require traveling as far
as one hundred meters away from their nests (the rough
equivalent of a human walking fifteen miles).
[] Yet no
1. If the writer were to delete the parenthetical informa­
tion in the preceding sentence, the essay would primar­
ily lose:
matter how winding a path ants might have taken to find
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. F.
G.
H.
J.
food. They are able to navigate back to their starting point
2
with remarkable precision.
an approximation of the distance that humans typi­
cally travel on a daily basis to obtain food.
a detail that puts the distance ants travel on a scale
readers might better be �ble to imagine.
.
an estimation of the distance that ants travel m
order to find food.
a correlation that indicates a similarity between
humans and ants.
NOCHANGE
food, they
food; they
food they
(2)
3. Which choice most clearly introduces the research
To test their scientific hypothesis, a team of
question central to the essay?
3
research biologists studied ants in the Tunisian desert. [A]
A.
B.
C.
D.
ACT-72E
2
NOCHANGE
To discover how certain animals navigate their
way over long distances,
.
.
.
To determine how ants accomplish this naviga­
tional task,
To answer this question,
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
•
The scientists will place food a short distance from the
4. F.
NOCHANGE
1
G. have placed
H. placed
J. place
4
ants' home and then tracked the ants' paths to the food.
5. A. NOCHANGE
B.
the paths that were taken by the ants as they went
c. the ants' paths that the ants took
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
[3J
The team's first experiment involving relocating the
6. F.
NOCHANGE
G. involved that they relocated
H. involving them relocating
J. involved relocating
6
ants after they'd found the food. [BJ By moving the ants
to a new location, the scientists changed the direction the
ants would need to walk in order to return to their nest.
When the ants headed away from their nest, walking in the
direction they would have gone if they hadn't been moved,
scientists concluded that ants rely on an internal navigation
system rather than external markers.
[4J
They also tested what they referred to as "the
D.
NOCHANGE
referred, to as
referred to, as
referred to as,
8. F.
NOCHANGE
7. A.
B.
C.
7
pedometer hypothesis." [CJ The scientists tied tiny
stilts made out of pig hair to some ants' legs. With
the extended legs, which were made of pig hair, the ants
G. legs that had been extended by attaching pig hair,
H. extensions made of pig hair attached to their legs,
J. the extended legs,
moved a greater distance with each step. Marching far
9. A.
B.
c.
D.
10. F.
past their nest on the way home, the researchers
NOCHANGE
So when the ants marched
So as they marched
By marching
NOCHANGE
G. passed there
H. passed their
J. past there
10
determined that ants count their steps.
[SJ
Plenty of questions remained. For instance, why
were the ants' paths back to their nests more direct than
the ants' routes to the food? The scientists suspected that
1 1. Which choice reiterates information most relevant to
the essay at this point?
the ants, in addition to having an exoskeleton, were
11
constantly maintaining a sense of their location in relation
A.
B.
to their nest. [DJ Because the routes home were so direct,
C.
D.
the ants must have been making adjustments all along.
ACT·72E
3
NOCHANGE
being social insects of the Formicidae family,
counting their steps,
forming colonies,
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
Were they using the sun's position in the sky as a
12. F.
NOCHANGE
13. A.
NOCHANGE
1
G. sun's position in the sky,
H. suns position in the sky,
J. suns position in the sky
12
marker of time and location. Perhaps? Even with these
B. location? Perhaps.
c. location; perhaps?
D. location. Perhaps.
13
uncertainties, the research team was confident it was on
the path to figuring out how ants are able to navigate
relatively long distances.
Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
14. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the essay:
15. Suppose the writer's primary purpose had been to
briefly summarize some scientific research that investi­
gates one particular skill of an animal or insect. Would
this essay accomplish that purpose?
The desert was the ideal place to study ants:
the homogenous terrain lacked visual land­
marks, and the constant wind destroyed any
tracks or scent cues.
A.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at Point:
B.
A in Paragraph 2.
G. B in Paragraph 3.
H. C in Paragraph 4.
J. D in Paragraph 5.
C.
F.
D.
Yes, because it outlines some experiments con­
ducted by a team researching navigation tech­
niques of ants.
Yes, because it summarizes the navigational meth­
ods of a number of animals that have to travel long
distances.
No, because it instead summarizes the methods
that ants use to locate food in the harsh conditions
of the Tunisian desert.
No, because it acknowledges that the team
researching ants' navigation techniques still had
unanswered questions.
PASSAGE I I
Maria Telkes : The Sun Queen
[l)
16. Assuming that the capitalization and punctuation
would be adjusted as needed, the best placement for
the underlined portion would be:
About fifteen miles west of Boston, a
16
1949 photo captured the image of two women
F.
in overcoats talking as they stood in front of a
where it is now.
G. after the word photo
H. after the word women.
J. after the word Massachusetts.
.
house in Dover, Massachusetts.
G The house,
17. Which of the following true statements, if added here,
would provide the best introduction for the essay?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18. F.
heated from the sun when it was out and shining,
NOCHANGE
G. totally heated just from sunlight and that warmth,
H. using the sun's heat to heat the house,
J. heated only by the sun,
18
was the first of its kind. [A]
ACT-72E
The coats they wore indicated that the weather that
day was not very warm.
The two women, Dr. Maria Telkes and Eleanor
Raymond, had designed it.
It was difficult to tell from the picture what time of
day it was.
One woman had lighter hair than the other woman.
4
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
[2]
Ten years earlier-before the sun first warmed it's
19. A.
NO CHANGE
B. that's
C. that
D. its
19
chilly Dover home-Telkes had been studying how to
use the sun's energy to produce clean drinking water
from salt water. Telkes had been working with the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology before World
War II began, and her reputation as a chemical engineer
20. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one pro­
vides the most relevant information at this point in the
essay?
20
got the US government's attention. The US military hired
20
F. NO CHANGE
G. eventually she would develop other inventions for
Telkes to design a water filtration system that could easily
private use.
H. she hoped to solve global hunger problems
J.
2 1. A.
be used by sailors, stranded at sea. Her solar still, which
through inventions like a solar oven.
she had been interested since high school in how
the sun's energy could be used.
NO CHANGE
B. by, sailors, stranded
c. by sailors stranded,
D. by sailors stranded
21
removed the salt through vaporization instead of boiling,
22. F.
produced countless gallons of drinkable water and saved
NO CHANGE
G. having saved
H. and saving
J. saving
22
many lives.
[3]
After the war, Telkes went back to work at MIT on
a much larger project, a home heating system powered
only by sunlight. [B] Then, in 1948, she began work
with Eleanor Raymond, an architect, who was designing
a home for a sculptor named Amelia Peabody.
23. A.
Together, Telkes and Raymond, blended form
NO CHANGE
B. Together, Telkes, and Raymond
C. Together, Telkes and Raymond
D. Together Telkes and Raymond,
23
with function, and the end result home dazzled
24. F.
NO CHANGE
25. A.
B.
c.
D.
NOCHANGE
above
upon
over
26. F.
NO CHANGE
G. resulting
H. results
J. result
24
architects and scientists alike.
[4]
[C] Its design improved on top of
25
traditional solar-heating systems. By transferring
G. systems and by
H. systems; by
J. systems by
26
heat from the air (instead of from rocks or water).
ACT-72E
5
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
The heat activated a chemical compound trapped
between-an exterior glass wall and a series of
27. A.
B.
C.
27
metal walls, which served as the heating elements.
D.
This system could withstand winter months and,
NO CHANGE
between, an exterior glass wall
between an exterior glass wall,
between an exterior glass wall
28. Which choice most strongly emphasizes the difficult
conditions the heating system could withstand?
28
during hot summers, work in reverse by drawing in
F.
G.
H.
J.
and transferring the heat from inside to outside.
29. A.
B.
C.
29
[5]
D.
[D] The successes of her solar still and solar house
did not mark the end of Telkes's career. She continued to
NOCHANGE
the bitter cold of a Massachusetts winter
some chilly temperatures
the cold season
NOCHANGE
the interior to the exterior, or the inside to the
the interior, or inside, to the exterior, or
the interior inside to the exterior
Question 30 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
find practical, innovative, and cost-effective ways to use
the sun's energy.
30. The writer is considering adding the following sen­
tence to the essay:
The Peabody home became known as the solar
house.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at Point:
F. A in Paragraph 1.
G. B in Paragraph 3.
H. C in Paragraph 4.
J. D in Paragraph 5.
PASSAGE Ill
From Theater to Film
31. A. NOCHANGE
Hindi cinema, which is the Hindi-language film
B.
31
cinema who's
c. cinema is
D. cinema
32. F.
industry based in Mumbai, India. It's unique aesthetic
NOCHANGE
G. Hindi cinema's
H. Their
J. Your
32
derives from Parsi theater troupes in Mumbai in the
late 1800s. An ethnic group possessing a diversity of
skills in business and the arts, the Parsis used this
expertise to produce elaborate theatrical productions.
ACT-72E
6
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1
1
These productions appealed to broad audiences
by drawing upon ancient Indian epic literature and
33. A.
B.
33
drama as well as incorporating dance, spectacle,
C.
D.
and song.
G
NOCHANGE
arriving at the traditions of
throughout
calling out
34. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol­
lowing true statement:
In the 1800s, the city of Mumbai was known
as a center of commerce and industry.
Should the writer make this addition here?
F.
G.
H.
J.
Hoping to emulate the success of the Parsis,
they adopted Parsi theatrical methods. Hindi cinema's
35. A.
B.
35
first feature film, Raja Harishchandra (1913), was
C.
D.
36. F.
based upon an ancient Indian epic poem. Hindi filmmakers
Yes, because it describes why the Parsis chose to
integrate song and dance elements into their the­
atrical productions.
Yes, because it explains how the Parsis appealed to
the diverse population then living in Mumbai.
No, because those facts about Mumbai have no
place in a discussion of how Parsi theater influ­
enced Hindi cinema.
No, because it indicates that Parsi theatrical pro­
ductions were not successful.
NOCHANGE
Parsi theatrical methods were adopted by early
Hindi filmmakers.
early Hindi filmmakers adopted Parsi theatrical
methods.
the methods of Parsi theater were adopted.
NOCHANGE
G. based on an ancient, Indian, epic,
H. based by an ancient Indian epic
J. base on an ancient, Indian epic
36
continued this epic tradition in subsequent films exploring
social and economic conditions in India. The 1957 film
Mother India, for example, portrays a families struggles
37. A.
against poverty through several generations.
Mother India, like many Hindi films since sound rose
38. F.
NOCHANGE
G. sound put an appearance
H. the advent of sound
J. sound gave rise
38
39. Which choice most effectively introduces the subject
of the paragraph and leads into the next sentence of the
essay?
in movies, also did not use synchronous sound39
actors dubbed their lines after filming was complete.
39
A.
B.
C.
D.
ACT·72E
NOCHANGE
B. family's
c. families'
D. family
37
7
NOCHANGE
incorporated the Parsi theater's tradition of elabo­
rate song and dance.
was epic in length, lasting nearly three hours and
included an intermission.
portrayed protagonists faced with difficult social
and economic issues.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
Complex musical numbers are a defining characteristic of
40. F.
NO CHANGE
41. A.
NO CHANGE
These numbers serve
These then serve
Those serve
G. being a defining characteristic of
H. is defining characteristics with
J. is a defining characteristic of
40
most Hindi films. This serves as interludes designed to
B.
41
C.
D.
entertain the audience rather than to advance the plot.
1
B
42. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose:
F.
a description of the musical components that make
up typical song and dance numbers in Hindi films.
G. a definition of the term interlude and its multiple
functions within Hindi films.
H. an analysis of the effectiveness of musical num­
bers in Hindi films.
J. an explanation of the main function of musical
numbers in Hindi films.
Often featuring multiple settings or romanticized
backdrops, musical numbers in Hindi cinema emphasize
spectacle. One number in the 1951 film Awara was shot
on thirteen different sets. Two Jove songs in the 1981
film Silsila, set at large in India, was shot among tulips in
43. A.
B.
43
C.
D.
44. F.
Holland. In regarding the Parsi tradition of using spectacle
NO CHANGE
largely for the part in India, were
for the large part in India, was
largely in India, were
NOCHANGE
G. In the account of
44
to appeal to a broad audience, many Hindi films today
H.
J.
incorporate elements from Indian folk music, classical
During
True to
music, and modern pop, often within a single song.
Hindi cinema is now one of the largest film industries
45. Which choice most effectively emphasizes the prolific
nature of Hindi cinema today?
in the world, enduring criticism by some for its use of
45
outdated technology. Modern Hindi filmmakers continue
A.
B.
C.
45
to apply the conventions of Parsi theater by remaining
D.
faithful to Indian traditions while appealing to a wide
NO CHANGE
world, releasing more than 150 new films per year.
world and has its own, unique traditions.
world and is based out of Mumbai, India.
range of audiences.
ACT-72E
8
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1
•
•
•
1
•
PASSAGE IV
The Construction of a Graphic Novel
[1]
The story begins at my cluttered wooden desk. where
I write in whatever space I can clear among the haphazard
stacks of sketchbooks, photos, and comics. I jot down
notes about characters and plots, collecting recurring
images and themes as I go. Eventually, a story line I can
imagine as a graphic novel emerges. I keep scribbling
until I've written a full first draft. When I was younger,
I preferred stories about superheroes in space.
EJ
46. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sen­
tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
I approach that draft one chapter at a time and carve out
F.
G.
H.
J.
Kept, because it illustrates the kinds of topics the
narrator enjoys writing about.
Kept, because it demonstrates that the narrator has
loved writing and drawing from an early age.
Deleted, because it doesn't identify any of the
superheroes.
Deleted, because it interrupts the paragraph's
focus on the narrator's writing process.
47. Which choice best maintains the carving imagery
introduced earlier in the sentence?
the plot, taking away text until only the barest framework
47
A.
B.
C.
D.
48. F.
G.
had been left.
48
H.
J.
[2]
NOCHANGE
whittling away at
eliminating
removing
NOCHANGE
would have been
was
is
Once the story is solid, I swivel my chair around
49. A.
B.
C.
and face the gleaming. white, surface of my tilted, drawing
49
table. [A] I map out a storyboard, limiting myself to five
D.
NOCHANGE
gleaming, white, surface of my tilted
gleaming white surface of my tilted,
gleaming white surface of my tilted
or six sentences per page. The sentences are accompanied
so. F.
by a series of: thumbnails, small panels that I use to
G.
so
H.
J.
NOCHANGE
of thumbnails­
of: thumbnails­
of thumbnails
51. A. NOCHANGE
experiment with the sequence of images. Because
B.
SI
c.
D.
graphic novels demand such economy of language,
The reason is that because
The reason being that
The reason because
I often deviate from a strictly chronological narrative.
ACT-72E
9
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1
1
[B] Devoting even a single panel to a flashback of an event
in a character's past can reveal a motivation that might
have taken a whole page of words to explain.
52. F.
NOCHANGE
G. have took
H. of taken
J. of took
S2
[3]
0 A circular panel that features a close-up of a
53. Which of the following statements would create the
most effective transition from the preceding paragraph
to this one?
character's shocked face, for example, emphasizes the
A.
B.
C.
D.
54. F.
emotion; it creates an entirely different effect than a
I enjoy drawing and writing equally; for this
reason, the graphic novel is my favorite form of
storytelling.
The thumbnails become my guide as I then divide
blank pages into panels of different shapes and
sizes.
In my art classes, I learned many techniques to
improve my drawing skills.
When I'm ready, I move on to·the next step: map­
ping out a storyboard.
NOCHANGE
G. affect, than
H. effect then
J. affect then
S4
rectangle containing a wide view of a character in a crowd.
[C] I work in pencil at this stage, constantly making
55. A.
adjustments to get each image just right I tilt the angle of
NOCHANGE
B. right, for example,
C. right:
D. right,
SS
one character's torso to suggest her distrust of the woman
56. F.
sitting next to her. I sharpen the lines of a character's
NOCHANGE
G. some characters'
H. the characters'
J. characters'
S6
tightened jaw to give away the anger behind his seemingly
polite reply. [D] Each visual detail is as vital to the
narrative as any word.
[4]
[1] Over weeks and months, that stack becomes
57. A.
heavy, its weight a satisfying affirmation of my progress.
NOCHANGE
B. it's weight is
C. its weight is
D. it's weight
S7
[2] Wh�n I'm ready to fully commit the story to the paper,
I uncap a pen and then ink every penciled line. [3] The
finished pages pile up steadily.
G
58. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes
Paragraph 4 most logical?
F.
G.
H.
J.
ACT-72E
10
NOCHANGE
1, 3, 2
2, 3, 1
3, 2, 1
GO ON TO THE N EXT PAGE.
1
1
Questions 59 and 60 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
60. Suppose the writer's primary purpose had been to ana­
59. The writer is considering adding the following sen­
lyze various artistic styles of graphic novels. Would
this essay accomplish that purpose?
tence to the essay:
I smudge a lamppost to make rain.
F.
Yes, because it explains in detail how the narrator
comes up with new ideas for graphic novels.
G. Yes, because it explores some of the narrator's
artistic influences.
H. No, because it describes instead the narrator's gen­
eral process for creating a graphic novel.
J. No, because it summarizes rather than analyzes
various artistic styles of graphic novels.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at Point:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A in Paragraph 2.
B in Paragraph 2.
C in Paragraph 3.
D in Paragraph 3.
PASSAGE V
That High Lonesome Sound
[1]
Bill Monroe gets most of the credit for
popularizing the hybrid genre of music known as
bluegrass. [A] A high-energy country music that
61. A. NO CH A NGE
B. the bands consisted of
c. bluegrass features
emerged in the 1940s, Monroe wanted to feature
61
D.
Monroe featured
62. F. NO CH ANGE
G. instruments, such as
acoustic stringed instruments, such as: the
62
H.
fiddle, banjo, mandolin, guitar, and upright bass.
J.
instruments: such as,
instruments such as,
63. A.
NO CH ANGE
had gave
c. gives
D. give
High-pitched, harmonized vocals given the music
B.
63
what Monroe called "that high lonesome sound."
While few dispute Monroe's critical role in the
formation of this now-classic American genre of music,
influences, which included music he had heard on the radio
64. Which choice best introduces the essay's main focus
and in church; musicians he had met; and a talented uncle.
F. NO CH ANGE
G. influences: his uncle Pen and a blues musician
64
and sets up a clear organizational pattern for the essay?
64
H.
J.
ACT-72E
11
named Arnold Schultz.
influences for the lasting impression they had
made on Monroe and others.
influences.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
[2]
Monroe was raised in rural Kentucky with a large
family. [B] His uncle Pen taught him and his eight siblings
to play a variety of instruments. [C] The family performed
65. A.
B.
C.
D.
the music of their Scottish and Irish ancestors-folk songs
65
and ballads that settlers had brought to the Appalachian
region during the eighteenth century. Monroe became
skilled at playing mandolin and guitar and being a skilled
NOCH A NGE
ancestors, of which
ancestors whose
ancestors
66. F. NOCH ANGE
G. a skilled mandolin player and guitar player, and he
66
also became skilled at being a
H. skilled at playing mandolin, guitar, and
J.
a skilled mandolin, guitar, and
67. Which choice creates the most logical and specific
fiddle player.Eventually, he was often providing
67
transition to the rest of the sentence?
A.
NOCH A NGE
B. In the later years of his childhood,
C. By the time he was twelve,
D. Someday, however,
accompaniment for Uncle Pen at local dances.
�
68. Which of the following true statements best concludes
this paragraph and prepares the reader for the subject
of the next paragraph?
F.
traveling musician who taught Monroe how to
It was at one of these dances that Monroe encoun­
tered his next musical influence.
G. They were a popular duo, hired regularly to pro­
vide music for local square dances.
H. Most often, Uncle Pen played fiddle, and Monroe
played mandolin or guitar.
J. Their music was fast-paced and lively, perfect for
energetic country dancing.
play the blues. 'Tm a farmer with a mandolin
69. Given that all the quotations are accurate, which one
[3]
Arnold Schultz was an A frican American
69
most directly elaborates on the information in the pre­
ceding sentence?
and a high tenor voice, " Monroe modestly insisted.
69
A.
NOCH A NGE
"Bluegrass has brought more people together ..."
claimed Monroe, "than any music in the world.
You meet people at festivals and renew acquain­
tances year after year."
C. "It's plain music that tells a story, " Monroe said
about bluegrass. "It's played from my heart to your
heart, and it will touch you."
D. Monroe said that when he heard Schultz's music,
"I tried to kee p in my mind a little of it. ... I
wanted some blues in my music."
B.
ACT-72E
12
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1
1
Schultz's bluesy, syncopated style can be heard in
bluegrass music's use of polyrhythms
8. These jazzlike
70. At this point, the writer is considering making the fol­
lowing addition to the sentence:
-the sounding of two or more independent
rhythms at the same time
Should the writer make this addition here?
Yes, because it defines a technical musical term
that is likely to be unfamiliar to many readers.
G. Yes, because it provides an example of a
polyrhythm.
H. No, because the paragraph doesn't explain why
Monroe chose to use polyrhythms in his music.
J. No, because it adds unrelated details that interrupt
the progression of ideas in the paragraph.
F.
polyrhythms are one of Monroe's clearest deviation in
71. A.
B.
C.
D.
style from the old-time folk music he'd grew up playing.
72. F. NO CH ANGE
G. he had grow
71
72
H. he'd grown
The music Monroe had played with his family was
primarily Scottish and Irish folk music.
NO CH A NGE
most clearer deviations
clearest deviations
clear deviation
J.
G
he grown
73. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sen­
tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
[4]
A.
Kept, because it provides a useful detail about the
music Monroe had played with his family.
B. Kept, because it defines the term "old-time folk
music, " used earlier in the paragraph.
C. Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph's focus on
Monroe's uncle.
D. Deleted, because it repeats information given ear­
lier in the essay.
Unfortunately, Schultz never recorded his music,
so he wasn't well known to the public. Monroe, however,
spoke of Schultz's influence frequently with gratitude
and respect. [D] Monroe also later honored his uncle
Pen: in a song, "When the caller hollered do-si-do I You
74. F. NO CHANGE
G. Pen in a song:
74
H.
knew Uncle Pen was ready to go." The influences of both
J.
Pen, in a song,
Pen, in a song
men, Pen and Schultz, live on in bluegrass music.
Question 75 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
75. The writer is considering adding the following sen­
tence to the essay:
Meanwhile, Monroe's mother sang, and his
father danced.
If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay, it
would most logically be placed at Point:
A.
A in Paragraph
1.
B. B in Paragraph 2.
C. C in Paragraph 2.
D. D in Paragraph 4.
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
ACT·72E
13
3
3
REA DING TEST
35 Minutes-40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passag e is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
better novel or a better novella on the subject by
Conrad Ferdinand Meyer or Gottfried Keller or another
45 classic Swiss writer. Grandmother would then get up
and bring me the better book.
PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the novel
Homecoming: A Novel by Bernhard Schlink (©2006 by Bernhard
Schlink).
When they gave me the extra copies of the bound
galleys to take home as scrap paper, they made a point
of reminding me not to read them. They would not have
50 given them to me at all had paper not been so expensive
at the time and my mother's income so low. Everything
I did not have to hand in to the teacher I wrote on the
back of the bound galleys: Latin, Greek, and English
vocabulary words, first drafts of compositions, plot
55 summaries, descriptions of famous paintings, world
capitals, rivers and mounta ins, important dates, and
notes to classmates a few desks away. I liked the thick
pads of thick paper, and because I was a good boy I
refrained from reading the printed sides of the pages for
60 years.
Once the supper table was cleared, the dishes
washed, and the flowers in the garden watered, my
grandparents would set to work on the Novels for Your
Reading Pleasure and Entertainment series. They
5 worked at the dining table, pulling the ceiling lamp
down and reading and editing the manuscripts, the page
proofs, and the bound galleys. Sometimes they did
some writing as well: they insisted that each volume
conclude with a brief didactic essay, and when none
10 was forthcoming they supplied it themselves. They
wrote about the importance of toothbrushing, the battle
against snoring, the principles of beekeeping, the his­
tory of the postal system. They also rewrote passages in
the novels when they found them awkward, unbeliev15 able, or immodest or when they felt they could make a
better point. The publisher gave them a free hand.
During the first few summers my grandparents
found the life I was leading with them too isolated, and
tried to bring me into contact with children my own
age. They knew their neighbors and by talking to a
65 number of families arranged for me to be invited to
birthday parties, outings, and visits to the local swim­
ming pool. Since it took a lot of doing and they did it
out of love, I did not dare resist, but I was always
happy when the event was over and I could return to
70 them. Friendships might have grown out of these con­
tacts had we seen one another more often, but the Swiss
children's summer holidays began soon after I arrived,
and they would disperse, returning only shortly before
my departure.
When I was old enough to stay up after the black­
bird had finished its song, I was allowed to sit with
them. The light of the lamp just above the table, the
20 dark of the room surrounding it-I loved it. I would
read or learn a poem or write a letter to my mother or
an entry in my summer diary. Whenever I interrupted
my grandparents to ask a question, I got a friendly
answer. I was afraid though to ask too many: I could
25 sense their concentration. The remarks they exchanged
were sparse, and my questions sounded garrulous. So I
read, wrote, and studied in silence. From time to time I
lifted my head cautiously, so as not to be noticed, and
observed them: Grandfather, his dark eyes now riveted
30 on the work before him, now gazing out, lost, into the
distance, and Grandmother, who did everything with a
light touch, reading with a smile and making correc­
tions with a quick and easy hand. Yet the work must
have been much harder on her than on him: wh ile he
35 cared only for history books and had a neutral, objec­
tive relationship to the novels they dealt with, she loved
literature, fiction as well as verse, and had a sure feel­
ing for it; she must have suffered from having to spend
so much time on such banal texts.
40
So I spent my summer holidays without playmates
my own age; I spent them taking the same walks to the
lake and hikes through a ravine, around a pond, and up
a h ill with a view of the lake and the Alps; I spent them
going on the same excursions to the Rapperswil
80 fortress, Ufenau Island, the cathedral, the museums.
These hikes and excursions were as much a part of the
summer as harvesting apples, berries, lettuce, and veg­
etables, hoeing beds, weeding, snipping wilted flowers,
trimming hedges, mowing grass, tending the compost,
85 keeping the watering can filled, and doing the watering.
Just as these operations recurred naturally, so the recur­
rence of the other activities struck me as natural. The
never-changing even ings at the table under the lamp
thus belonged to the natural rhythm of summer.
75
I was not allowed to read them. If I grew curious
when they talked about one or another novel, I was told
in no uncertain terms I was not to read it: there was a
ACT-72E
30
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3
3
6. The narrator's reaction to his grandparents' arrange­
ments for him to spend time with other families can
best be described as:
1. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that the narrator felt that the summers with his grand­
parents were:
A. stiflingly quiet.
B. frustratingly busy.
C. highly energizing.
D. enjoyably routine.
F.
annoyance, because he disliked the neighbors'
children.
G. relief, because he found the time with his grand­
parents to be isolating.
H. happiness, because he struggled with making
friends on his own.
J. acceptance, because he felt he owed his grand­
parents for their efforts.
2. It can most reasonably be inferred that the narrator's
grandparents believed the Novels for Your Reading
Pleasure and Entertainment series consisted of texts
that:
F.
G.
H.
J.
7. As it is used in line 10, the word forthcoming most
nearly means:
A. provided.
B. willing.
C. candid.
D. likeable.
were essential leisure reading for educated people.
were mediocre in quality.
should have been taught in classrooms.
used sophisticated language.
8. Which of the following statements best captures how
the narrator portrays his grandparents' attitudes toward
literature?
F.
His grandfather felt indifferent about literature,
while his grandmother had an emotional connec­
tion to it.
G. His grandfather was passionate about reading liter­
ature, while his grandmother preferred to edit and
write it.
H. Both of his grandparents believed that literature
should be read in school under the guidance of a
teacher.
J. Both of his grandparents wanted to write their own
literature because they considered most novels
flawed.
3. Details in the passage most strongly suggest that
during the school year, the narrator lived with:
A. his grandparents only.
B. his mother but not his grandparents.
C. his grandparents and mother in the same house.
D. other students at a private boarding school.
4. The passage characterizes the narrator's grandparents'
work on the Novels for Your Reading Pleasure and
Entertainment series as:
9. The main point of the third paragraph (lines 40-46) is
that the narrator's grandmother:
F. writing the novels and most of the essays.
G. editing the novels and writing each of the essays.
H. editing the novels and essays in addition to writing
an occasional essay.
J. reading the novels in order to write essays that
analyzed them.
A. limited her own reading to classic books by Swiss
authors.
B. insisted that the narrator read books other than the
ones included in the Novels for Your Reading
Pleasure and Entertainment series.
C. turned toward books by Swiss authors as sources
for her essays.
D. referenced as many Swiss authors as possible in
her work on the Novels for Your Reading Pleasure
and Entertainment series.
5. The narrator speculates that while his grandmother
worked with the Novels for Your Reading Pleasure and
Entertainment series, her feelings about the texts con­
trasted with:
10. The narrator indicates that he read the texts on the
bound galleys:
A. her written comments on the galleys.
B. her passions about working in the garden.
C. the smile that she wore on her face.
D. the comments about the series that she directed to
the narrator's grandfather.
ACT-72E
after his grandparents went to bed at night.
G. whenever his grandparents asked him to help them
edit.
H. once the books were published.
J. when he was years older.
F.
31
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3
3
Passage II
Passage B by the editors of Scientific American
SOCIAL SCIENCE: Passage A is adapted from the article "The
Other Humans: Neanderthals Revealed" by Stephen S. Hall
(©2008 by The National Geographic Society). Passage B is
�dapted from the editorial "Fossils for All" by the editors of the
Journal Scientific American (©2009 by Scientific American '
Inc.).
50
Before this tour, . Lucy had never been on public
.
_ One might expect scholars
_
display outside
of Eth10pia.
of human evol�tio_n to �e delighted by the opportunity
_
to share the disciphne
s crown jewel with so many
_
_
members of the science-rnterested
public. But news
60 reports announcing her New York debut included the
same objections that aired when she first landed in the
U.S. : namely, that the bones could sustain damage and
that the tour takes a key specimen out of scientific cir­
culation for too long. Indeed, some major museums
65 turned the exhibit away in part for those reasons.
55
Passage A by Stephen S. Hall
One of the longest and most heated controversies
in human evolution rages around the genetic relation­
_ be ween Neanderthals and their European succes­
ship
�
sors. � id the modern humans sweeping out of Africa
,
5 begmnmg some 60,000 years ago completely replace
.
_ they mterbreed
the Neanderthals, or did
with them? In
1997 �h� latter hypothesis was dealt a powerful blow by
gene�icist Svante Paabo-then at the University of
Mumch-who used an arm bone from the original
10 Neanderthal man to deliver it. Paabo and his colleagues
were a�le to extrac� a tiny 378-letter snippet of mito­
ch�ndnal p NA (a kmd of short genetic appendix to the
mam text m each cell) from the 40,000-year-old speci­
men. When they read ou � the lette�s of the code, they
_
15 found that the specimen s DNA differed from living
humans to a degree suggesting that the Neanderthal and
modern human lineages had begun to diverge long
before the modern human migration out of Africa. Thus
the two represent separate geographic and evolutionary
20 branches splitting from a common ancestor. If there
was any interbreeding when they encountered each
other later, it was too rare to leave a trace of Nean­
derthal mitochondrial DNA in the cells of living
people.
25
The ?bjections reflect a larger problem of posses.
_
siveness m the field
of human origins. Indeed, fossil
hunters often ?lock other scientists from studying their
treasure�, feanng assessments that could scoop or dis_
70 ag!ee with their own. In so doing, they are taking the
science out of paleoanthropology.
Critics of such secrecy commonly point to the case
of Ardipithecus ramidus, a 4. 4-million-year-old human
anc�stor discovered by Ti� White of the University of
_
75 Cahforma,
Berkeley. Fifteen years after White
announced the first fossils of A. ramidus and touted the
iI?portance of this species for understanding human ori­
gms, access to the specimens remains highly restricted.
Paabo's genetic bombshell seemed to confirm that
Neanderthals were a separate species.
80
this time of the biological tran­
. . H,�wever, "p uring
_ �aus, a paleoanthropologist at
sit10n, says E�ik i:nn
_
Washmgton
Umvers1ty m St. Louis, "the basic behavior
30 [�f the two grouJi>S] is pretty much the same, and any
differences are hkely to have been subtle. " Trinkaus
believes they indeed may have mated occasionally. He
sees evidence of admixture between Neanderthals and
modern humans in certain fossils, such as a 24,50035 year-old skeleton of a child discovered at the Por­
tuguese site of Lagar Velho, and a 32,000-year-old skull
from a cave called Muierii in Romania.
85
The scientists who unearth the remnants of human-
mg them. B_ut there sh�uld be clear limits on this period
of . exclu�_1vity. Otherwise, the self-correcting aspect of
_
_
science is impeded:
outside
researchers can neither
90 reproduce the discovery team's findings nor test new
hypotheses.
Questions 11-1 3 ask about Passage A.
1 1. The main function of the question in lines 4-6 is to:
A. reveal the date when Neanderthals and early
�odern humans became separate species, accord­
mg to Hall.
B. outline a debate that likely has been resolved
through the findings of Trinkaus.
C. suggest the reasons early modern humans eventu­
ally replaced Neanderthals.
D. present what Hall believes is one of the most
heated controversies in the field of human
evolution.
The disagreement between Trinkaus and Harvati is
ha�dly the first time that two respected paleoanthropol­
ogists have looked at the same set of bones and come
�p with mutual! Y contradictory interpretations. Ponder­
mg-and debatmg-the meaning of fossil anatomy will
always play a role in understanding Neanderthals.
ACT-72E
. �.hite, for his part, has said that he published only
an m1tial report and that normal practice is to limit
access until publication of a full assessment. And he
has noted that the condition of a key specimen-a badly
crushed skeleton-has slowed the release of the team's
detailed report.
! ty's past deserve first crack at describing and analyz­
Katerina Harvati, a researcher at the Max Planck
Institute in Leipzig, has used detailed 3-D measure40 ments of Neanderthal and early modern human fossils
to predict exactly what hybrids between the two would
have looked like. None of the fossils examined so far
matches her predictions.
45
In June of 2009 the famed Lucy fossil arrived in
New York City. The 3.2-million-year-old partial skele­
ton of Australopithecus afarensis could attract hundreds
of thousands of visitors over the course of her four­
month engagement-part of a six-year tour.
32
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3
3
12. As it is used in line 25, the term genetic bombshell
most nearly refers to Paabo and his team's:
16. As is it used in lines 87-88, the term period of exclu­
sivity most nearly refers to the:
F.
F.
innovative method of studying the mitochondrial
DNA of Neanderthals.
G. finding that DNA from a Neanderthal specimen
differs significantly from the DNA of living
humans.
H. suggestion that there is only a trace of Neanderthal
mitochondrial DNA in living humans.
J. discovery that given many samples, Neanderthal
DNA sometimes resembles the DNA of living
humans.
week when a scientist has to decide whether to
keep a major fossil find private permanently.
G. first month after a fossil find, after which the dis­
covery team is expected to file a report.
H. length of time a scientist may restrict access to
new fossil specimens.
J. duration of time a scientist is allowed to study
fossil specimens unearthed by other scientists.
17. The main purpose of the fifth paragraph of Passage B
(lines 79-84) is to:
A. describe the condition of the first fossils of
A. ramidus.
B. present what White has offered as justification for
his actions.
C. provide a second example of possessiveness in the
field of human origins.
D. outline paleoanthropologists' typical procedure for
reporting on a major finding.
13. Harvati is described as using 3-D measurements of
Neanderthal and early modern human fossils primarily
to:
A. avoid having to use actual fossil specimens for her
research, since they are often unavailable.
B. predict what a fossil specimen that is a hybrid of
the two beings would look like.
C. determine whether the skeleton found in Lagar
Velho is of a Neanderthal or an early modern
human.
D. create sketches of Neanderthals and early modern
humans for other researchers to use.
Questions 18-20 ask about both passages.
18. Which statement provides the most accurate compari­
son of the tone of each passage?
F.
Hall is sentimental and fanciful, whereas the edi­
tors of Scientific American are cynical.
G. Hall is objective, whereas the editors of Scientific
American are critical and concerned.
H. Hall is disappointed and angry, whereas the editors
of Scientific American are forgiving.
J. Hall is sarcastic, whereas the editors of Scientific
American are reflective and patient.
Questions 14-17 ask about Passage B.
14. Passage B indicates that, in terms of age, the Lucy
fossil is:
19. The authors of both passages would most likely agree
that the discussion of human origins would best be fur­
thered through scientists' willingness to:
F.
the oldest fossil of a human ancestor that has been
found as of 2009.
G. the oldest fossil of a human ancestor that has been
found with the skull intact as of 2009.
H. not as old as the fossils that have been found of
A. ramidus.
J. not as old as fossil remnants of a human ancestor
that have been found in Romania.
A. share fossils of human ancestors and debate their
meanings and significance with other experts.
B. memorize the oldest research on Neanderthals and
early modern humans.
C. explore new technologies for creating 3-D mea­
surements of the bones of A. afarensis.
D. encourage the general public to attend showings of
fossils of human ancestors.
20. Compared to Passage A's discussion of the fossil of the
original Neanderthal man, Passage B's discussion of
the Lucy fossil can best be described as:
15. Based on Passage B, which of the. following is a reason
some major museums declined to be part of the tour of
the Lucy exhibit?
F.
A. Frustration with scientists' possessiveness of the
Lucy fossil in the past
B. Reluctance to share Lucy with the scientific
community
C. Anticipation of large crowds to see Lucy that
would be difficult to manage in museum spaces
D. Conviction that Lucy is more valuable being stud­
ied by scientists than being displayed on tour
ACT-72E
more focused on outlining the details of the struc­
ture and measurements of the fossil.
G. more focused on providing a survey of the work of
scientists who have studied the fossil.
H. less focused on describing the fossil's direct role
in educating the public about paleoanthropology.
J. less focused on explaining the fossil's direct role
in research relating to human origins and genetics.
33
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3
3
Passage Ill
In mid-January, Spalding spent a few days in a
state-of-the-art recording facility in New Jersey, over55 seeing the recording of the string arrangements for her
new album, Chamber Music Society. Present at the ses­
sions was Gil Goldstein, a jazz accordion player and
Grammy-winning arranger and producer. Hired as an
arranger for the project, Goldstein had tweaked
60 Spalding's string parts for the number "Apple Blos­
som." Although the two had worked smoothly through
most of the session, Spalding balked at the changes to
the song.
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article "New
Note: Esperanza Spalding's Music" by John Colapinto (©2010
by Conde Nast).
In 2008, the prodigiously gifted bassist, singer,
and composer Esperanza Spalding released her major­
label debut, Esperanza, which she recorded as a
twenty-three-year-old instructor at the Berklee College
5 of Music, in Boston. While the music was indisputably
jazz, it suggested an almost bewildering array of influ­
ences-fusion, funk, soul, rhythm and blues, Brazilian
samba and Cuban son, pop balladry, chanted vocalese­
with lyrics sung in Spalding's three languages: English,
10 Portuguese, and Spanish. An ebullient mash-up of
sounds, styles, and tongues, the record seemed like
something new-jazz for the iPod age-and it rose
quickly to No. 3 on the Billboard jazz chart, and stayed
on the chart for sixty-two weeks. The freshness and the
15 excitement of her approach have led, inevitably, to her
being called the "new hope for jazz."
65
"Busy?" Goldstein echoed, laughing. "No way!"
"It's so delicate-I don't want it to get too dense."
Spalding insisted on reverting to her earlier, sim­
pler arrangement. Goldstein assented, then went into
70 the soundproofed studio and began conducting the trio
of violin, cello, and viola. But Spalding was not hearing
what she wanted. She took the baton from Goldstein,
who surrendered it without complaint. (He later told me
that he likes it when a musician knows what he or she
75 wants, and that it makes for a better recording.) She put
on headphones and, following the sheet music spread
out in front of her on the conductor's podium, guided
the musicians through the session. At one point, she
demanded a retake when she wanted the violinist to
80 play a certain note with an upward bow motion, rather
than a downstroke. Later, she asked the violinist to play
a series of notes by plucking the strings. She was unsat­
isfied with the sound.
Spalding, born in 1984 in Portland, Oregon, to a
single mother of African American, Asian, Native
American, and Hispanic heritage, belongs to a growing
20 movement of young musicians who have taken a Jess
traditional approach to the music. For years, young jazz
musicians adopted a near slavish devotion to sounding
like players from jazz's golden age (anywhere between
the nineteen-twenties and the arrival of the Beatles in
25 America, in 1964 ), rejecting the pop, rock, and fusion
experimentation that came in the nineteen-seventies
and eighties. The members of the Young Lions move­
ment, with Wynton Marsalis the most visible among
them, fetishized staunchly noncommercial "pure" jazz.
"Maybe make that plucking more like bells-tin g,
Attendance at jazz concerts has been declining for
years; a hit jazz album today might sell forty thousand
copies worldwide. Esperanza has so far sold more than
a hundred thousand. This is, in part, because Spalding
hews closer to dance rhythms than many of her contem35 poraries do. (Jazz has become increasingly compli­
cated, piling on odd meters and abstruse melodies.) It is
also because she sings; for audiences put off by the
cerebral rigors of instrumental improvisation, her pliant
alto voice gives them something to hang on to. But her
40 original songs sacrifice none of the melodic sophistica­
tion and harmonic interest of jazz; and she is as techni­
cally adept, and as serious a student of the music's
history, as the most dutiful of the Young Lions.
30
85 ting, ting," she said.
The violinist mimicked the motion she had mimed
at the podium and brought out a bell-like sound.
"Yes!" Spalding said.
21. In general, the author presents Spalding as:
A. an accomplished, versatile musician who is taking
jazz in an exciting new direction.
B. a young and inspiring musician whose explo­
rations in jazz may one day propel her out of her
current obscurity.
C. an overlooked but potentially influential musician
who is discouraged by the decline of jazz.
D. a creative person who stays within the limits of
one musical genre, achieving spectacular results as
a result of her focused efforts.
Spalding is passionate about bringing fresh influ45 ences, voices, and idioms to the music, to prevent jazz
from becoming merely "a museum piece," as she put it.
In the course of a year, she plays a hundred and fifty
concert dates around the world. In 2009, she played at
the Nobel Peace Prize ceremony, in Oslo, Norway. The
50 schedule sharply limits the time she has for writing new
material and practicing. She moved to Texas last fall in
part because it offers seclusion for working and writing.
ACT-72E
"Your string parts are too busy," Spalding told
him, as they sat on a sofa in the studio's control room.
34
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3
3
22. Lines 53-56 mark a shift in the passage from:
26. The passage states that which of the following
approaches to jazz sets Spalding apart from many of
her contemporaries?
a discussion of the impact Spalding has had on
others to a discussion of the impact others have
had on her.
G. an overview of Spalding's career, philosophy, and
experience to a description of an event that sup­
ports the claims made in the overview.
H. a description of Spalding as a performer to a
description of her as a student.
J. a description of events in Spalding's recent past to
a description of a defining moment early in her
career.
F.
She looks to Marsalis as her mentor at a time when
her jazz contemporaries look to Goldstein.
G. She considers studying jazz history to be a liability.
H. She prefers composing over performing.
J. She incorporates dance rhythms in her work.
F.
27. As it is used in line 37, the expression put off most
nearly means:
A. postponed.
B. repelled.
C. released.
D. misplaced.
23. It is reasonable to infer that the sheet music referred to
in line 76 was composed by:
28. As it is used in line 46, the phrase "a museum piece" is
intended as a form of:
A. one of Spalding's teachers at Berklee.
B. Spalding.
C. Marsalis.
D. one of Spalding's proteges.
praise.
G. encouragement.
H. criticism.
J. inquiry.
F.
24. As presented in lines 68-88, Spalding's manner of
working with musicians can best be described as:
F.
G.
H.
J.
29. According to the passage, how many concert dates
does Spalding perform a year?
repetitive, contradictory, and impatient.
mild mannered, imaginative, and accepting.
humorous, self-effacing, and energetic.
persistent, precise, and ultimately affirming.
A. A handful
Between twenty and fifty
C. Between fifty-one and one hundred
D. One hundred and fifty
B.
30. What was the source of Spalding's irritation during the
recording session described in the passage?
25. According to the passage, how well has Spalding's first
major-label jazz recording fared in the marketplace?
Goldstein had complicated a section of Spalding's
"Apple Blossom" that Spalding wanted to keep
simple.
G. Goldstein had dropped the string section from the
musical score of Chamber Music Society.
H. The musicians had misunderstood which part of
Spalding's score was left open for improvisation.
J; Goldstein had wanted to feature strings in a sec­
tion of "Apple Blossom" that Spalding had written
for bells.
F.
A. Its sales have more than doubled those of a stan­
dard hit jazz album of the time.
B. It has drawn some attention in the United States
but made a huge splash in Europe.
C. Its poor sales have contributed to Spalding's deci­
sion to develop a jazz style that better reflects her
passion.
D. Its sales were slow at first but picked up rapidly
after Goldstein began promoting Spalding.
ACT·72E
35
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3
3
Passage IV
Island biogeography theory says that "species are
predicted to remain on large islands and islands that are
not very isolated from mainland [habitat] ," explains
Beever, who did much of his work while a graduate
60 student under Mary Peacock, at the University of
Nevada-Reno. He and colleagues found pika popula­
tions persisted in mountain ranges with more talus
habitat available-supporting one prediction of island
biogeography theory-but pikas were not more likely
65 to persist at sites closer to the Rocky Mountain or
Sierra Nevada "mainland" ranges.
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
"Silence of the Pikas" by Wendee Holtcamp (©2010 by Wendee
Holtcamp).
Pikas, a diminutive alpine-dwelling rabbit relative,
are unique among alpine mammals in that they gather
up vegetation throughout summer-including flowers,
grasses, leaves, evergreen needles, and even pine
5 cones-and live off the hay pile throughout winter,
rather than hibernating or moving downslope. But
increasingly warm temperatures may drive them to the
brink: the high-energy mammals can overheat and die
at temperatures as mild as 25 degrees Celsius if they
10 can't regulate their body temperature by moving into
the cooler microclimate under the talus. And since they
already live near the tops of mountains, when a particu­
lar talus field's microclimate becomes inhospitable,
they simply have nowhere to go.
"Here isolation doesn' t have anything to do with
whether they're lost or not," Beever says. Not only that,
"the sheer size of a mountain range in this case isn' t
70 very predictive of patterns of loss. [And] if we count
the amount of habitat, that's less important than these
climatic influences." Ultimately, the factors most
strongly associated with pika disappearance were cli­
matic; specifically, warmer and drier sites, which
75 tended to be lower down the mountains. In another
study published in Ecological Applications, Beever,
University of Colorado researcher Chris Ray, and other
colleagues revealed that acute cold stress and chronic
heat stress (in other words, cold snaps and overall
80 hotter summers) affect pika more than individual very
hot days.
Sometimes called cony, mouse hare, rock rabbit,
or whistling hare, the pika has a narrow niche. They
live only in talus fields, and these must lie adjacent to
alpine meadows or other vegetation so they have access
to plants for food and hay farming. The talus rock fields
20 must have boulders of a certain size; scree, a similar
habitat with smaller rocks, won' t do. Rocks provide
safe haven from pikas' main predator, weasels. But per­
haps more important, the interstices between the rocks
provide both a cool, moist microclimate where pikas
25 cool down during hot summer days and also the perfect
sanctuary in which to settle during the long winter's
night. They don' t huddle together like many other
mammals, as far as scientists can tell, but remain
fiercely territorial and solitary throughout the winter,
30 guarding their hay piles with their lives. As a snowpack
settles over the land, it insulates the Earth and main­
tains a certain underground temperature at which pikas
can survive, just below freezing. With warming temper­
atures reducing snowpack in many mountainous areas,
35 in a strange twist of fate, global warming can cause
pikas to freeze.
15
"The problem with global warming is that if
[pikas] lose [their] snowpack, which provides insula­
tion in winter, they freeze to death, and if the ambient
85 air temperature heats up too much in summer, then they
[overheat] . That's the challenge," Peacock says, who
has studied pika population genetics. "They're already
at the top of the mountain. If you heat it up substan­
tially, there's no place for them to go."
31. The primary purpose of the passage is to discuss the:
Biologists have dubbed mountaintop habitat
patches "sky islands" because the valleys in between
are as uninhabitable as the sea for nonmobile alpine
40 species. This creates an ideal scenario to test the pre­
dictions of one of ecology's key theories: island bio­
geography. Individual pikas have a relatively limited
distance they can disperse, around two kilometers, so
they can' t just shift from one mountain to another. At
45 the population level, they're stuck on a particular
mountain range. In the 1990s, biologist Erik Beever and
colleagues surveyed pikas throughout the hydrographic
Great Basin-a heart-shaped 500,000 square kilometer
intermontane plateau dotted with 314 mountain ranges,
50 incorporating parts of California, Nevada, Utah,
Oregon, Idaho and Arizona-and were unable to find
pikas in 6 of 25 mountain ranges that they had occupied
in the late 20th century. Was the cause of pika extirpa­
tions (disappearances) climatic, anthropogenic, or
55 biogeographical?
ACT-72E
A. methods scientists use to track the numbers of
pikas in several regions.
B. role pika social behavior plays in their ability to
adapt to changing conditions.
C. causes of pika disappearances and scientists' pro­
posed solutions to the disappearances.
D. habitat and conditions in which pikas flourish and
the causes of their disappearances.
32. In lines 53-55, the author poses a question about the
cause of pika disappearances that she:
F. answers in the paragraphs that follow.
G. uses to emphasize the extent of pika
disappearances.
H. asks to highlight flaws in Beever's research.
J. poses to establish the three main results of pika
disappearances.
36
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3
3
33. According to the passage, one of Beever's findings
that supports island biogeography theory is:
37. The passage indicates that the perfect sanctuary for a
pika on a long winter night is located:
A. pika populations thrived in most of the mountain
ranges that pikas had occupied in the twentieth
century.
B. pika populations endured in mountain ranges with
more talus habitat available.
C. the size of a mountain range correlated with the
size of a pika population.
D. isolated pika populations were more likely to sur­
vive in varied habitats.
A. on a hay pile near an alpine talus field.
B. in an alpine meadow near a talus field.
C. on the top of a mountain adjacent to a talus field.
D. in the interstices between rocks in an alpine talus
field.
38. In the passage, the behavior of pikas during winter is
characterized in part as:
fiercely territorial.
G. relatively relaxed.
H. predatory.
J. social.
F.
34. According to the passage, the study published in Eco­
logical Applications indicates that a pika population is
most stressed by a summer with:
39. The passage states that biologists dub mountaintop
habitat patches "sky islands" because:
F.
a higher than average amount of rainfall.
G. several individual very hot days.
H. overall hotter temperatures.
J. slightly cooler temperatures.
A. any species that survive on mountaintops are com­
pletely cut off from the rest of the mountain.
B. the mountaintops' altitude makes them a haven for
most species.
C. the valleys between mountaintops are as uninhab­
itable as the sea would be for nonmobile alpine
species.
D. like the sea, mountaintops are only habitable to
mobile species.
35. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that one reason pikas easily overheat is that they:
A. become overwhelmed by a thick snowpack.
are a high-energy mammal.
C. huddle together in interstices.
D. insulate themselves inside hay piles.
B.
40. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that as compared to pika populations on the top of a
mountain, those at lower mountain elevations are more
likely to:
36. The passage indicates that compared to a talus field,
scree habitats have:
disappear.
G. thrive.
H. remain unchanged.
J. migrate to another mountain range.
more food.
G. fewer predators.
H. smaller rocks.
J. better access to interstices.
F.
F.
END OFTEST3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT·72E
37
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The questions in each test are numbered, and the
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For each question, first decide which answer is best.
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abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
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The questions in each test are numbered, and the
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1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
What Elephants Learn
Cynthia Moss has been studying
elephants, since 1972 when she started the
1
now-famous Amboseli Elephant Research Project
2
in Amboseli National Park in Kenya. An author,
lecturer, filmmaker, and a fierce advocate for
1. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
elephants, since 1972,
elephants since 1972,
elephants’ since 1972
2. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
more-then-famous
now famously
famously
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
encroachment—
encroachment:
encroachment,
elephants—which face a daunting array of
threats to their survival, from droughts to human
encroachment Moss is widely considered an
3
expert on the social behavior of these creatures.
4. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
Humans are among the threats to the animal’s
survival.
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it presents a crucial factor in determining Moss’s interest in working with elephants.
G. Yes, because it introduces the idea that becomes
the focus of the rest of the essay.
H. No, because the essay is focused on elephants and
does not otherwise mention a human presence in
their lives.
J. No, because this information is already provided
in the paragraph.
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42
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A key finding from her intensive, field, studies is the
5
extent to which elephant survival depends on learned
behavior.
As Moss has observed, however, a calf must learn
6
how to use its trunk. At first a young elephant will drink
by kneeling down at the water’s edge and it sipped
7
directly with its mouth. The habit of pulling water
into its trunk. Then releasing that water into its mouth
8
develops only after months as if witnessing other
9
elephants doing so.
On occasion, Moss will see a calf stick its trunk
5. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
intensive field studies
intensive field studies,
intensive, field studies
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
for instance,
as always,
by now,
7. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
which it sips
and sipping
that sips
8. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
trunk and then
trunk then by
trunk
9. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
when witnessing
of witnessing
then witness
10. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
in this regard
ones that
which
11. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
a baby male.
an elephant.
the third.
12. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
he also will have grown
he also had grown
also growing
1
Your First Practice Test
1
into the mouth of its mother and pull out a bit of whatever
plant material she is eating. In this way, the calf learns
what kinds of vegetation are safe to eat on the savanna,
where poisonous plants also grow.
[1] Elephants live in family groups, each one headed
by a matriarch. [2] This senior female teaches adolescent
females by modeling proper care of younger elephants.
[3] One of Moss’s most memorable observations
in which this regard involved three elephants.
10
[4] These were a matriarch, Echo, and two offspring:
Enid, a ten-year-old female, and Ely, also named by Moss.
11
[5] Echo showed Enid how to care for Ely by staying
close to him when he was feeding and sleeping and
by running to his aid when he signaled his distress.
[6] Ely not only overcame his early limitations,
but he also grew up to be a confident young bull.
12
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1
[7] Ely was born with deformed feet that initially
prevented him from walking.
Moss has brought compelling stories and information
about elephants is provided to an ever-expanding audience.
14
She hopes others will in turn become advocates for the
animals she admires and understands in ways few
13. For the sake of logic and cohesion, the best placement
for Sentence 7 would be:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 3.
D. after Sentence 4.
14. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
is given by her to
is reaching
to
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
others do.
15. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief
essay focusing on some aspect of animal behavior in
the wild. Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because the essay focuses on Moss’s research
on how elephants on the savanna learn to identify
their various family members.
B. Yes, because the essay focuses on elephants on the
savanna and some of the behaviors they display, as
studied by Moss.
C. No, because the essay focuses instead on how elephants have evolved in Kenya as compared to how
they have evolved in other parts of Africa.
D. No, because the essay focuses on elephants that
Moss studies in zoos around the world.
PASSAGE II
The following paragraphs may or may not be
in the most logical order. Each paragraph is numbered in brackets, and question 29 will ask you to
choose where Paragraph 2 should most logically
be placed.
Ghost Signs
[1]
Seeing remnants of outdoor advertisements from a
16
bygone era, they are called “ghost signs.” I search for them
17
on city streets, in town squares, and along country roads.
Some are weather-beaten billboards; others are faded
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
The sight of remnants
To see remnants
Remnants
17. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
era that is no more,
era of another time,
era of times past,
18. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
remain—
remain,
remain:
murals painted years ago on the sides of old buildings.
Whatever words remain Fruiterer . . . Apothecary . . .
18
Gramophones . . . Pan-Handle Coffee—are often barely
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legible, pale fragments of yesterday’s consumer culture
should strike me as silly or sad. After all, there they are:
19
advertising products and businesses that no longer exist.
20
Yet, they themselves survive without apology, with instead,
21
their simple claims and complex colors. The contrast draws
me in every time.
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
that should
they should
should they
20. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
products and businesses,
products, and businesses
products: businesses
21. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
apology, with, instead,
apology with instead,
apology with instead
Your First Practice Test
1
[2]
I collect ghost signs. Not the signs themselves,
but photos of them. Driving home from school one chilly
22
October evening, my collection got its start. I had made
22
the same drive countless times before, but I had never
noticed the sign.
22. F. NO CHANGE
G. Driving home from school one chilly October
evening was the beginning of my collection.
H. I started my collection one chilly October evening,
driving home from school.
J. The start of my collection came to me driving
home from school one chilly October evening.
[3]
Then there it was, an ad for “Joe’s Café,”
perched atop a metal pole, which was upright under
23
a cape of kudzu vines. Maybe it was the way the
setting sun’s illumination of the yellowing plastic.
24
Maybe it was the small hole, a clue to vandalism
25
or of a hailstorm. Instead, something about the sign
26
touched me. I pulled over. In the twilight, I got out
of the car, snapped a picture with my phone, and sent
23. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one
echoes a central point the writer makes about ghost
signs?
A. NO CHANGE
B. was not what interested me,
C. might have been wood,
D. was disappearing
24. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
illuminating setting sun on
sun illuminated the set on
setting sun illuminated
25. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
evidence of
evidently
DELETE the underlined portion.
26. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
On the other hand, something
Meanwhile, something
Something
it to some friends. I vowed to return with my camera
to better capture the forlorn, luminous beauty of my
discovery. Since that dusky evening, I have been
happily haunted by ghost signs.
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1
[4]
Once in a while, I take a friend with me on my
searches. People who know of my fascination will
point me to where they think they have seen a ghost sign.
Favorite finds include an ad for sliced bread, one for a
“modern” motel, and yet another for fountain pen repair
services. As fun as it is to have company, my best hunts
have been solitude trips. I appreciate the beauty of ghost
27
signs more when I like the signs, am alone.
28
27. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
solitarily
solitaire
solo
28. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
I, like, the signs
I, like the signs,
I like, the signs,
Questions 29 and 30 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
29. For the sake of logic and cohesion, Paragraph 2 should
be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Paragraph 1.
C. after Paragraph 3.
D. after Paragraph 4.
30. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
describe starting and enjoying a new hobby. Would this
essay accomplish that purpose?
F. Yes, because it presents the event that led to the
narrator becoming interested in finding ghost signs
and taking photographs of them.
G. Yes, because it describes the narrator’s experience
of learning from a friend where to find ghost signs
and how much fun the search itself can be.
H. No, because it uses negative terms such as lonely
and forlorn to describe the narrator’s experience of
collecting ghost signs.
J. No, because it instead describes two hobbies—
photography and collecting ghost signs—and does
not indicate which one gave the narrator more
pleasure.
PASSAGE III
Blue Holes of the Bahamas
[1]
The Bahamas, a series of semitropical islands off
the southeast coast of the United States, which are home
31
to some of the most unusual geological formations in the
world: underwater caves known as blue holes. [A] These
31. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
States, are
States are
States,
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vertical caves were formed over thousands of years, and
their cold depths provide abundant clues to the islands’
past.
[2]
calcium carbonate separated from the seawater. These
grains built up, then compacted, forming the limestone
33
that makes up the islands. [B] Over time, rainwater
permeated the porous limestone but was trapped just
above sea level, buoyed by the denser seawater below.
34
Jostled back and forth by tides, the layer of slightly
acidic, brackish water eroded limestone faster than
either rainwater—or seawater—could alone. As the
35
limestone eroded caves formed.
36
[3]
Over time periods in which the weather changed
37
drastically, sea levels rose and fell by hundreds of
37
feet. This allowed the cave-creating process to
be a process that repeated at different depths
38
hundreds of feet apart. The roofs of many caves
38
collapsed, leaving the chambers beneath exposed.
32. Given that all the following statements are true, which
one, if added here, would most effectively introduce
the topic of this paragraph?
F. The Bahamas were formed from calcium carbonate, a component of seawater.
G. Calcium carbonate, a common rock substance, is
also found in seawater.
H. Much of the land making up the Bahamas is still
underwater.
J. Most types of limestone contain calcium carbonate.
33. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
are building
will build
build
34. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
being buoyed because of
it being buoyed by
buoying it was
35. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
rainwater, or seawater,
rainwater, or seawater
rainwater or seawater
36. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
limestone, eroded caves
limestone eroded, caves
limestone eroded caves,
Your First Practice Test
During the formation process, tiny grains of
37. Which choice most specifically illustrates how long
the cave-creating process took?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Between ice ages and the more temperate eras that
followed them,
C. During this extended time,
D. As time passed,
38. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
repeat again and again at various different depths.
repeat at different depths that varied.
repeat at different depths.
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Some of these blue holes open to small contained caves
39
others open to miles-long interconnected tunnels.
[4]
The telltale sign of a blue hole is a circular patch
of water striking darker than the water surrounding
41
them. (The darker water indicates greater depth.)
42
[C] Divers have found the remains of turtles and
alligators. Now extinct on the islands, stalactites and
43
stalagmites from a time when the caves were above
sea level, and artifacts of early human inhabitants.
39. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
caves that
caves;
caves,
1
40. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true sentence:
At 663 feet deep, Dean’s Blue Hole in Long
Island, Bahamas, is a popular cave-diving
destination.
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it supports the preceding sentence by
providing an example of a blue hole that is very
deep.
G. Yes, because it allows the reader to visualize a
specific blue hole in the Bahamas.
H. No, because it offers a detail that is unrelated to
the paragraph’s focus on the cave-creating process.
J. No, because it does not provide an adequate
description of Dean’s Blue Hole.
41. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
strikingly darker
strikingly darkly
striking darkly
42. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
these.
one.
it.
43. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
alligators now. Extinct on
alligators now extinct on
alligators now extinct. On
[5]
[D] Hundreds of blue holes can be sighted off the
44
Bahamas. So far, most remain unexplored by divers, owing
in part to the danger of cave diving. Often the only clue to
the mysteries below is the tantalizing sight of dark blue
water leading deep into the sea.
44. Which choice most effectively suggests the shape of
blue holes as described earlier in the essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. dot the waters of
H. darken parts of
J. appear in
Question 45 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
45. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the
essay:
In these depths, fossils and ancient rock formations are incredibly well preserved.
This sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 4.
D. Point D in Paragraph 5.
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PASSAGE IV
The Walls of Rome
[1]
Rome, founded on the banks of the Tiber River,
boasts two ancient walls that, when they were built,
walls intended to defend the city protectively and
46
stood ten meters tall they were erected under different
47
historical circumstances.
[2]
It’s thought that the Servian Wall was constructed
48
in the early fourth century BCE and named after
Servius Tullius, who was the sixth king of Rome. The
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
defensive walls for defending the city
walls to provide defensive protection
defensive walls
47. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
tall. They
tall, they
tall; they
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Among historians, its
Its’
Its
49. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Wall had been
Wall, which,
Wall, was
50. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
much sturdier than
more sturdier then
much sturdier then
Your First Practice Test
surrounded the city. [A] Although both were built as
eleven-kilometer wall encircled Rome’s seven hills and
stood entirely on the east side of the Tiber River. [B]
[3]
The Aurelian Wall, built in the late third
49
century CE by the Roman Emperor Aurelian,
was more sturdier than the older wall. It was nineteen
50
kilometers long greatly expanded and surrounded the
51
city of Rome as well as a small section of the Tiber’s
west bank. Erected almost 600 years after the Servian
Wall, the Aurelian Wall protected Rome while the army
51. Which of the following placements for the underlined
portion makes it most clear that it was Rome that had
expanded?
A. Where it is now
B. After the words surrounded the
C. After the word Rome
D. After the words of the
was away, defending the empire’s far-flung frontiers
from enemy attacks. [C] The massive wall deterred many
enemies who might have been tempted to attack Rome
during those intervals the city was sparsely defended.
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[4]
[D] The Aurelian Wall featured eighteen large
gateways permitting both foot and chariot traffic
in and out of the city. In other words, a series of
52
381 towers and eleven smaller side gates called
posterns were evenly spaced along the rest of the wall.
Both the posterns and the towers served as defensive
53
positions for protecting Rome. Walkable passages lined
54
the inner side of the wall.
[5]
The Romans used bricks to build the Aurelian Wall.
55
However, only small portions of the Servian Wall remains,
some of which can be seen inside a chain restaurant
located beneath Rome’s central train station.
It could, perhaps, be considered ironic that remnants
56
52. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Therefore, a
Instead, a
A
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Both, the posterns and the towers,
Both the posterns, and the towers
Both the posterns and the towers,
54. Which choice provides the most specific information
about how posterns and towers served as defensive
positions?
F. NO CHANGE
G. by providing cover for armed guards during an
enemy attack.
H. in that they were designed to help Rome repel
enemy attacks.
J. by keeping Rome safe from invaders.
55. Given that all the statements are true, which one provides the most effective transition to Paragraph 5?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Today, the Aurelian Wall continues to dominate
the Roman landscape.
C. Emperor Aurelian did not survive long enough to
see the completion of the Aurelian Wall.
D. Before the Servian and Aurelian Walls were built,
ancient Rome was most likely protected by
mounds of earth.
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
were remaining,
has remained,
remain,
57. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
To hasten the construction of the Aurelian Wall,
existing architectural features, such as aqueducts, were incorporated into the structure.
Should the statement be added here?
A. Yes, because it adds information about the Aurelian
Wall that supports the main idea of the paragraph.
B. Yes, because it demonstrates how innovative and
practical the Roman engineers were.
C. No, because it provides a detail that interrupts the
paragraph’s discussion of the Servian Wall in the
present day.
D. No, because it provides a level of detail about the
wall that is inconsistent with the level of detail in
the rest of the essay.
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of a wall that once protected the future capital of one
58
of the ancient world’s most famous empires are now
preserved and recognized as historically significant
59
by archaeologists.
59
58. F.
G.
H.
J.
1
NO CHANGE
what was yet to be appointed to the designation of
what would in reality become the
a would be but not yet
59. Which choice best completes the irony that is set up in
the first part of the sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. as important relics of Rome’s earliest boundaries.
C. within a fast-food restaurant.
D. in such varied locations.
Your First Practice Test
1
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
60. The writer is considering adding the following statement to the essay:
The two walls can be thought of as concentric
circles emanating from the ancient Roman
Forum.
If the writer were to add this statement, it would most
logically be placed at:
F. Point A in Paragraph 1.
G. Point B in Paragraph 2.
H. Point C in Paragraph 3.
J. Point D in Paragraph 4.
PASSAGE V
James Forten, Revolutionary Sailmaker
[1]
“I have been taken prisoner for the liberties of my
country, and never will prove a traitor to her interests.” [A]
Before entering a British-run prison during the American
Revolution prisoner of war, James Forten, said these words
61
as a patriotic rejection of his British captor’s offer to free
him and educate him in England.
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Revolution, prisoner of war James Forten,
Revolution, prisoner of war James Forten
Revolution prisoner of war, James Forten
[2]
62. Which of the following sentences, if added here, would
provide the most logical transition from the preceding
paragraph to this paragraph?
F. Forten was one of many to serve in the American
Revolution.
G. Forten’s rejection was risky.
H. Such an offer must have been unusual.
J. Many would later admire Forten’s skills as an
innovator.
He knew his
chance of surviving imprisonment were slim.
63
63. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
chances to surviving
chances of surviving
chance to survive
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Forten also knew that if released at the war’s end or
as part of an exchange, he, a free black man, might be
64
captured and sold into slavery as he journeyed home
to Philadelphia. Forten not only survived but became
64. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
exchange; he as
exchange—he
exchange. He
one of the most successful businessmen and ardent
abolitionists in the United States.
[3]
Forten’s rise to prosperity began upon his return home
when a sailmaker hired him to design, mend, and sew sails.
Forten’s knowledge of ships, gained from his experiences
as a sailor during the war, paid off. He rose to the position
66
of foreman, and in 1798, Forten bought the sailmaker’s
business. [B]
65. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose:
A. a description of the tactics Forten used to survive
imprisonment and become a successful businessman and abolitionist.
B. a transition from a discussion of the ramifications
of Forten’s decision to a discussion of his success
as a sailmaker and abolitionist.
C. a comparison between Forten’s work as a businessman and his role as an abolitionist.
D. an analysis of how Forten transitioned from a prisoner to a businessman and abolitionist.
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
had arose
had rose
raised
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
workers, whom were
workers:
workers
[4]
Employing thirty-eight workers, white and black,
67
Forten held his employees to a high standard. Viewed
as a professional academy, his business produced skilled
apprentices who constructed sails for dozens of vessels.
The bulk of Forten’s business records was probably lost
after the business was sold.
Soon, many regarded
Forten as the city’s premier sailmaker in Philadelphia.
69
68. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
F. Kept, because it establishes a correlation between
Forten’s business records and the early success of
Forten’s business.
G. Kept, because it provides evidence to support the
claim that Forten employed thirty-eight workers.
H. Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on
the success of Forten’s business.
J. Deleted, because it contradicts the idea that Forten
had high expectations for his business.
69. A. NO CHANGE
B. foremost leading sailmaker in his native
Philadelphia.
C. premier sailmaker in the city of Philadelphia.
D. premier sailmaker.
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1
[5]
A savvy businessman, Forten
70
the War of 1812 closed the port of Philadelphia,
Forten used his profits in real estate and lending to
support his sailmaking enterprise. When the need for
smaller, quicker vessels changed sail design, he adapted.
71
One thing Forten refused to do, however, was fit a slave
ship with sails.
70. Given that all the following choices are accurate,
which one most effectively provides a transition into
the next sentence of the essay?
F. NO CHANGE.
G. had fought for his country in the Revolutionary
War.
H. donated to such places as schools and hospitals.
J. maintained his business during difficult times.
71. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
smaller, and more
smaller, more
smaller
72. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
over more than half of his own
more than over half of his
over half of his
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
veteran, cultivating the sails of freedom,
veteran, nurturing the road to reform,
veteran
Your First Practice Test
supported abolitionist causes. When
[6]
In fact, historians estimate that the sailmaker
invested over greater than half his fortune in work
72
to abolish slavery. [C] One of the wealthiest men in
Philadelphia, Forten helped finance the Liberator, a
powerful abolitionist newspaper. [D] The Revolutionary
War veteran, who served in this war, believed that the
73
United States owed all residents the right to freedom.
Questions 74 and 75 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
74. The writer is considering adding the following true
statement to the essay:
Writing under a pen name, Forten himself submitted numerous articles and letters, calling
for the end of slavery.
If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay, it
would most logically be placed at:
F. Point A in Paragraph 1.
G. Point B in Paragraph 3.
H. Point C in Paragraph 6.
J. Point D in Paragraph 6.
75. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
describe in detail the daily operations of a successful
business in the newly formed United States. Would this
essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because it describes how Forten became a
successful businessman and how his business survived numerous challenges.
B. Yes, because it describes the historical significance of Forten’s business and how the business
evolved.
C. No, because it focuses more on Forten as a patriot,
businessman, and abolitionist than on the daily
workings of his business.
D. No, because it focuses primarily on contrasting
Forten’s work as an abolitionist with his work as a
sailmaker.
END OF TEST 1
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3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the
novel A Map of Home by Randa Jarrar (©2008 by Randa
Jarrar).
I don’t remember how I came to know this story,
and I don’t know how I can possibly still remember it.
On August 2, the day I was born, my baba (father)
stood at the nurses’ station of St. Elizabeth’s Medical
5 Center of Boston with a pen between his fingers and
filled out my birth certificate. He had raced down the
stairs seconds after my birth, as soon as the doctor had
assured him that I was all right. While filling out my
certificate, Baba realized that he didn’t know my sex
10 for sure but that didn’t matter; he’d always known I
was a boy, had spoken to me as a boy while I was in
Mama, and as he approached the box that contained the
question, NAME OF CHILD, he wrote with a quivering
hand and in his best English cursive, Nidal (strife;
15 struggle). It was not my grandfather’s name, and Baba,
whose name is Waheed and who was known during his
childhood as Said, was the only son of the family, so
the onus of renaming a son after my grandfather fell
squarely upon his shoulders. It was an onus he brushed
20 off his then-solid shoulders unceremoniously, like a
piece of lint or a flake of dandruff; these are analogies
my grandfather would the next day angrily pen in a
letter sent from Jenin to Boston.
When he’d filled out the entire form, Baba regally
25 relayed it to the nurse, who he remembers was called
Rhonda. Then Baba, in flip-flops, turned around and
raced up the white-tiled hallway, bypassed the elevator,
ran up the three floors to the maternity ward, and burst
into the birthing room.
30
Rhonda emerged with the birth certificate in hand,
Baba, who is not usually known for laziness,
grabbed a pen and added at the end of my name a
heavy, reflexive, feminizing, possessive, cursive “I.”
45 and
“How is my queen?” said Baba, caressing my
mother’s face.
“She’s lovely,” Mama said, thinking he meant me,
“and eight whole pounds, the buffalo! No wonder my
back was so . . . ” Baba’s brow furrowed, and Mama
35 couldn’t finish her complaint, because, eager to correct
his mistake, Baba was already out the door and running
down the white-tiled hallway, past new mothers and
their red-faced babies, past hideous robes in uncalledfor patterns, bypassing the elevator, and sliding down
40 the banister of the staircase. He raced on, screaming for
Rhonda, where is Rhonda, help me, Rhonda, an outcry
that provided the staff with three weeks’ worth of
laughter.
Moments later, Mama, who had just been informed
of my nom de guerre, got out of bed and walked us to
50 the elevator, the entire time ignoring my baba, who was
screaming, “Nidali is a beautiful name, so unique, come
on Ruz, don’t be so rash, you mustn’t be walking, you
need to rest!”
Mama must not have fought long, or who knows:
55 maybe she went to the nurses’ station and talked to
Rhonda, and maybe Rhonda told her that the birth certificate was already sent out—that Mama would have to
go to the office of the City of Boston clerk and see the
registrar of vital statistics, where they keep the birth
60 and death certificates—and maybe Mama, who is the
most superstitious of all humans (even more than Baba,
and to that she’ll attest) shuddered at the thought of
taking me, a newborn, through the heat and the Boston
traffic to a place where, she must’ve imagined, people
65 went to fill out death certificates, and she must’ve further imagined that going on such a trip, to such a place,
would surely bring about my death—because I still
have my name.
Whenever I imagined Baba running out just after
70 my birth and sliding through the hallways like a movie
star, I knew he must have embellished. Baba liked to do
that: tell stories that were impossible but true all at
once, especially if those stories made him look like a
rock star. This is because he used to be a writer and was
75 now an architect. Our little apartment was filled with
blueprints and plastic models of houses instead of notebooks and poetry: a reality that filled him with great
sadness. So Baba put that sadness into these stories.
Mama liked to expose him when he told such sto-
80 ries; she was his paparazzo, his story-cop. This was
because she was the true rock star: a musician who no
longer played music. Our house was filled with Baba’s
blueprints and plastic models of houses and with my
schoolwork and toys and dolls and a hundred half pairs
85 of socks instead of a piano: a reality that filled her with
great sadness.
I knew from the beginning that home meant
embellishing, and that’s why I loved school. Teachers
were there; they taught us facts based on reality.
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1. The point of view from which the passage is told is
best described as that of:
A. a first person narrator who re-creates a story about
her parents and the birth of their first child, events
which happened before the narrator was born.
B. a first person narrator who offers insight into characters’ thoughts and relates actions mainly from a
time she was too young to remember.
C. an omniscient third person narrator who relates the
thoughts and actions of several characters.
D. a limited third person narrator who relates events
most closely from the perspective of Nidali.
2. The narrator mentions a piece of lint and a flake of
dandruff primarily to:
F. imply that the narrator’s grandfather didn’t value
family traditions.
G. provide examples of movements Baba made while
filling out the birth certificate.
H. emphasize the importance of naming the baby
after the baby’s grandfather.
J. illustrate the casual way in which the narrator’s
father ignored a tradition.
3. Based on the passage, Mama’s reaction to learning the
name Baba gave the baby can best be described as:
A. disapproval followed by resignation.
B. annoyance followed by amusement.
C. embarrassment followed by outrage.
D. shock followed by resentment.
4. The sequence of actions described in the seventh paragraph (lines 54–68) can best be characterized as:
F. Baba’s exaggerated account of Mama’s trip to the
office of the City of Boston clerk.
G. a scenario the narrator imagines could have
happened.
H. the story of how Nidali got her name from Mama’s
point of view.
J. a memory that the narrator shares to reveal more
about her personality.
5. The narrator concludes that Mama didn’t go to the
office of the City of Boston clerk based on the fact
that:
A. Baba believed it would be unlucky to change a
baby’s name at that point.
B. going there would’ve required taking the baby out
in a severe winter storm.
C. Mama had a tendency to change her mind quickly.
D. the narrator still has the name Nidali.
3
6. In line 78, the phrase these stories most nearly refers
to:
F. the conflicting stories about the origins of Nidali’s
name.
G. Baba’s notebooks and poetry.
H. the embellished tales Baba liked to tell.
J. the narrator’s accounts of her family’s time in
Boston.
7. According to the passage, which of the following emotions do Baba and Mama share regarding their professional lives?
A. Pride
B. Anxiety
C. Sadness
D. Contentment
Your First Practice Test
3
8. Of the following characters, which one does the narrator describe as the most superstitious?
F. Mama
G. Baba
H. Nidali
J. Rhonda
9. The narrator most strongly suggests that Mama does
which of the following when Baba tells stories?
A. Yawns and rolls her eyes in mock boredom
B. Goes about her business and ignores him
C. Chimes in with exaggerations and white lies
D. Corrects him about the accuracy of details
10. In the passage, the narrator makes which of the following distinctions?
F. Home is a place of embellished stories, whereas
school is a place of facts and reality.
G. Mama is a true rock star, whereas Baba is an amateur musician.
H. Being an architect made Baba happy, whereas
being a writer made him miserable.
J. Writing requires great imagination, whereas playing music requires great skill.
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Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: Passage A is adapted from the book
Seabiscuit: An American Legend by Laura Hillenbrand (©2001
by Laura Hillenbrand). Passage B is adapted from the article
“The Flop Heard Round the World” by Peter Carlson (©2007 by
The Washington Post).
Passage A by Laura Hillenbrand
The horseless carriage was just arriving in San
Francisco, and its debut was turning into one of those
colorfully unmitigated disasters that bring misery to
everyone but historians. Consumers were staying away
5 from the “devilish contraptions” in droves. In San Francisco in 1903, the horse and buggy was not going the
way of the horse and buggy.
For good reason. The automobile, so sleekly efficient on paper, was in practice a civic menace, belching
10 out exhaust, kicking up storms of dust, becoming hopelessly mired in the most innocuous-looking puddles,
and tying up horse traffic. Incensed local lawmakers
responded with monuments to legislative creativity. The
laws of at least one town required automobile drivers to
15 stop, get out, and fire off Roman candles every time
horse-drawn vehicles came into view. Massachusetts
tried and, fortunately, failed to mandate that cars be
equipped with bells that would ring with each revolution of the wheels. In some towns police were autho20 rized to disable passing cars with ropes, chains, and
wires. San Francisco didn’t escape the legislative wave.
Bitter local officials pushed through an ordinance banning automobiles from all tourist areas, effectively exiling them from the city.
Nor were these the only obstacles. The asking
price for the cheapest automobile amounted to twice the
$500 annual salary of the average citizen—some cost
three times that much—and all that bought you was
four wheels, a body, and an engine. “Accessories” like
30 bumpers, carburetors, and headlights had to be purchased separately. Navigation was a nightmare. The
first of San Francisco’s road signs were only just being
erected, hammered up by an enterprising insurance
underwriter who hoped to win clients by posting direc35 tions into the countryside, where drivers retreated for
automobile “picnic parties” held out of the view of
angry townsfolk.
25
The first automobiles imported to San Francisco
had so little power that they rarely made it up the hills.
40 The grade of Nineteenth Avenue was so daunting for
the engines of the day that watching automobiles straining for the top became a local pastime.
steering wheel, where most cars have a horn. And they
fiddled with the front end: Where other cars had hori50 zontal chrome grilles, the Edsel would have a vertical
chrome oval in its grille. It was new! It was different!
Unfortunately, it didn’t work. It couldn’t suck in
enough air to cool the engine. “They had to keep opening up that oval to get more air in there,” says Jim
55 Arnold, who was a trainee in Edsel’s design shop. “And
it didn’t look as good.”
Edsel didn’t have its own assembly lines, so the
cars were produced in Ford and Mercury plants, which
caused problems. Every once in a while, an Edsel
60 would roll past workers who were used to Mercurys or
other Fords. Confused, they sometimes failed to install
all the parts before the Edsel moved on down the line.
Cars without parts can be a problem, of course, but
other aspects of the Edsel juggernaut worked per65 fectly—the hype, for instance. The Edsel PR team
touted the glories of the cars, but wouldn’t let anybody
see them. When they finally released a photo, it turned
out to be a picture of . . . the Edsel’s hood ornament.
And hundreds of publications actually printed it!
On September 4, 1957, proclaimed by Ford as
E-Day, nearly 3 million Americans flocked to showrooms to see the Edsel. Unfortunately, very few of them
bought the Edsel. “We couldn’t even get people to drive
it,” says C. Gayle Warnock, Edsel’s public relations
75 director. “They just didn’t like the car. They just didn’t
like the front end.”
70
But styling was hardly the worst problem. Oil pans
fell off, trunks stuck, paint peeled, doors failed to close
and the much-hyped “Teletouch” push-button transmis80 sion had a distressing tendency to freeze up. People
joked that Edsel stood for “Every day something else
leaks.”
Another major problem was caused by bad luck:
The Edsel was an upscale car launched a couple months
85 after a stock market plunge caused a recession. Sales of
all premium cars plummeted.
Before E-Day, Edsel’s hypemeisters promised to
sell 200,000 cars the first year. Actually, they sold
63,110. Sales dropped below 45,000 the second year.
90 And only 2,846 of the 1960 models sold before Ford
pulled the plug.
Passage B by Peter Carlson
In the mid-1950s, Ford Motor Company was building not one, not two, but 18 varieties of Edsel, includ45 ing a convertible and a station wagon. The designers
came up with some interesting ideas. They created a
push-button transmission and put it in the middle of the
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Questions 11–13 ask about Passage A.
11. Which of the following statements about automobiles
in San Francisco in 1903 is best supported by
Passage A?
A. They were affordable for the average citizen but
unpopular nevertheless.
B. They were used more by tourists for sightseeing
purposes than by citizens for practical purposes.
C. They failed to capture the public imagination in
spite of huge public relations efforts.
D. They were considered a public nuisance by all but
a small segment of the population.
12. Which of the following terms in Passage A is used
more figuratively than literally?
F. Puddles (line 11)
G. Monuments (line 13)
H. Bells (line 18)
J. Hills (line 39)
13. The purpose of the quotation marks around the word
accessories in line 29 is most likely to:
A. suggest that the features were actually essentials.
B. indicate that the word appeared in legal documents.
C. emphasize that the word was widely misunderstood.
D. clarify that inexpensive automobiles had some
luxury features.
Questions 14–17 ask about Passage B.
14. Which of the following statements best captures how
Passage B characterizes the failure of the Edsel?
F. It happened gradually and went unnoticed at the
time by the public.
G. It happened quickly despite promising initial sales.
H. It was on a huge scale, occurred swiftly, and was a
public event of sorts.
J. It occurred when other automakers were doing
well and therefore embarrassed Ford all the more.
15. The statement in lines 43–45 is typical of Passage B in
the way it:
A. contrasts data about the Edsel with data about
other cars of the 1950s.
B. conveys the obligation that Ford executives felt to
involve consumers in the design of the Edsel.
C. combines an industry perspective on the Edsel
with that of the typical consumer.
D. suggests the entire Edsel enterprise was marked by
extremes.
16. Which of the following events referred to in Passage B
occurred first chronologically?
F. E-Day ended.
G. The stock market plunged.
H. Edsel sales dropped below 45,000.
J. Edsel sales reached 2,846.
17. As it is used in the passage, the term premium cars
(line 86) serves primarily as a:
A. reference to what Edsels have become now that
they are valued antiques.
B. name for a type of car that was ushered in by the
makers of the Edsel.
C. label for a category of cars that the makers of the
Edsel intended it to belong to.
D. derisive term used sarcastically by Edsel owners
who were disappointed in their purchase.
Your First Practice Test
3
Questions 18–20 ask about both passages.
18. A similarity between the two passages is that they
both:
F. examine their topics from a significant distance of
time.
G. reveal the author’s professional background as a
way of lending credibility to the text.
H. assert that automobiles have contributed little that
is worthwhile to society.
J. incorporate information about traffic and road conditions into a discussion of automobile design.
19. An element of Passage A that is not present in Passage B is a reference to what aspect of the automobile
culture?
A. Related legislation
B. Public opinion
C. Economics
D. Quotations from industry experts
20. If publicity experts had been assigned to build enthusiasm for the cars mentioned in Passage A using the
methods described in Passage B, the experts would
most likely have first released photos to the press that
showed:
F. cars going up Nineteenth Avenue in San Francisco.
G. a single detail such as a gleaming headlight or a
polished door handle.
H. the meticulous work done along the assembly line
to ensure the quality of the new car.
J. an attractive young couple smiling as they enjoy a
car ride past horses grazing in pastures.
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Passage III
55 property at Prouts Neck—which included a large, ram-
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article
“Winslow Homer: His Melancholy Truth” by John A. Parks
(©2006 by VNU Business Media).
The images in the paintings of Winslow Homer
epitomize a peculiarly American 19th-century world.
Through Homer’s eyes, it is a world in which people
live in close contact with nature and natural forces, a
5 world where landscape and ocean are viewed not as a
paradise but as powers and presences that can be
enjoyed and whose threats can sometimes be overcome.
And, particularly in his later paintings, it is a world
imbued with a stark and melancholy atmosphere.
In 1867, two of Homer’s canvases were chosen to
hang at the Great Exposition in Paris. The artist spent
10 months in the city, which later proved to have a profound effect on his art. A large display of Japanese
prints was exhibited in the same building as his own
15 paintings, and the process of simplification that it
revealed and the wealth of pictorial invention it provided made a deep impression on the artist. The influence of Japanese art on Homer’s painting was
immediately apparent upon his return to the United
20 States. The weakness of earlier compositions is
replaced by a boldness and lucidity in which simple
shapes are massed into powerful designs.
10
Although Homer’s work of the 1870s gained
strength, the artist continued to paint his genre subjects:
25 tourist scenes, schoolchildren, and farm life. It wasn’t
until 1881, however, that he found the subject matter
that would inspire him most. In that year, for reasons
unknown, Homer went to England, where he elected to
spend the summer at the town of Tynemouth on the
30 coast of the North Sea. It is possible that he was searching for a town filled with the type of tourists and
bathers that made his paintings of the Jersey shore successful back home. But Tynemouth was also a community of fishermen who wrested their livelihood from the
35 dangerous and unpredictable waters of the North Sea.
Moreover, the light and weather in that part of the
world, so much farther north than Atlantic City, is
much gloomier and more dramatic than that of the
Jersey coast. It was there that Homer became enthralled
40 by the dramas of the people who make their living from
the ocean: the fishermen’s wives staring out to sea as
they wait for their men, the launch of the lifeboat to
rescue sailors from a foundering ship, the agonizingly
fragile fishing boats being tossed on angry waves. Here
45 at last was a subject matter that matched the artist’s
deepest feelings. The dynamic and dangerous relationship between human activity and natural forces exposed
in this setting would occupy Homer for many years to
come. On his return to America he elected to leave New
50 York and relocate to the rural town of Prouts Neck,
Maine.
The legend of Winslow Homer is that he left New
York civilization to become a recluse on the coast of
Maine for the last 25 years of his life. In reality, the
bling hotel building—was purchased by his brother
Charles for the whole extended Homer family. The
artist also built a studio with an ocean view just yards
away from the family house so throughout the summers
60 he could enjoy the company of his father, his brothers
and their wives, as well as the year-round guests of the
many local people whose friendship he valued. Homer
continued to travel frequently, spending parts of the
winter in the Caribbean. But the artist always lived
65 alone, and when he was working, which was the large
part of most of his days, he could be extremely shorttempered when interrupted.
The sea outside his window now inspired the artist
to create what came to be known as his greatest paint70 ings. The Maine coast is extremely rocky and prone to
monstrous gales that—at their most powerful—can
whip up the waves to 40 or 50 feet. Screaming winds
can rip across the breakers, creating long horizontal
trails of spray. Homer rendered this sea with all the
75 understanding of a painter who knows to simplify and
synthesize. In paintings such as Eastern Point and
Cannon Rock the construction of the water has been
reorganized into clear graphic shapes and strong directional lines that echo the Japanese printmaking that had
80 such a lasting effect on his work. The rocks in the
paintings are massed into powerful, almost flat, designs
and the brushing has become energetic, as though feeding from the physical strength of the ocean. These
paintings take on an abstract grandeur that has justly
85 made them famous. They remain, however, haunting
evocations of the eternal power of the ocean.
21. The main purpose of the passage is to:
A. describe an artist’s most famous painting and the
experience that inspired it.
B. explore the relationship between the natural world
and the fine arts.
C. provide an overview of an artist’s career and
important influences on that artist’s work.
D. describe the work of artists who epitomized a
peculiarly American nineteenth-century world.
22. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
which of the following scenes would most likely be the
subject of a painting created by Homer late in his life?
F. A family strolling along the boardwalk in Atlantic
City
G. A fishing boat being violently pitched about on a
stormy ocean
H. A farm nestled in the idyllic countryside
J. A tourist sipping coffee at a Parisian café
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23. Based on the passage, the way Homer depicted shapes
in his early work and the way he depicted them in his
later work is best described as shifting from:
A. weak to powerful.
B. sharp to rounded.
C. dark to light.
D. uplifting to melancholy.
24. According to the passage, Homer felt fascination for
the subjects that inspired him at Tynemouth for a:
F. short time; Homer soon abandoned them for the
genre subjects he’d been painting previously.
G. short time; Homer found little commercial success
painting those subjects.
H. long time; Homer regularly returned to Tynemouth
to paint.
J. long time; Homer continued to be inspired by what
he saw there for years.
25. According to the passage, the paintings that Tynemouth
inspired Homer to create mainly featured:
A. scenes of tourists and sunbathers enjoying the
beach.
B. the interplay between the sea and the lives of fishermen and their families.
C. the dynamic struggle between farmers and the
powerful forces of nature.
D. the soothing yet dramatic beauty of the North Sea
and its rocky shoreline.
26. The passage most strongly suggests that the main turning point in the development of Homer as an artist was
his:
F. discovery of subject matter that profoundly
inspired him.
G. sense of accomplishment at having paintings displayed at the Great Exposition.
H. decision to spend winters in the Caribbean, where
he was inspired by the sea.
J. rejection of the belief that the world was stark and
melancholy.
3
27. The author characterizes the immediate effect of experiences in Paris upon Homer’s work as:
A. subtle; Homer continued to paint simple shapes
and powerful designs but used more color.
B. dramatic; Homer’s work became bolder and
clearer.
C. imperceptible; Homer’s work didn’t change until
several years later.
D. significant; Homer abandoned the subjects he’d
been painting before his time in Paris.
Your First Practice Test
3
28. The main idea of the last paragraph is that:
F. Homer’s paintings of the Maine coast exhibit the
culmination of his artistic skills.
G. Homer’s paintings of the sea evoke the grandeur of
the human spirit in the natural world.
H. the most effective way to depict water in a painting is to use graphic shapes and directional lines.
J. viewing two of Homer’s famous paintings of the
sea had a lasting effect on the author.
29. The author speculates that Homer may have chosen to
go to Tynemouth because he:
A. wanted to return to the place that had originally
inspired him to be a painter.
B. expected to be able to work better without the distractions he struggled with in Paris.
C. needed a break from the overcrowded Jersey coast.
D. hoped to find the kinds of subjects he had depicted
in some of his earlier popular paintings.
30. The passage states that in Prouts Neck, Homer could
be irritable when:
F. his paintings weren’t selling well.
G. storms prevented him from painting outdoors.
H. the sea was too rough to go boating.
J. he was interrupted while painting.
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Passage IV
55 astronomers may have to monitor many stars patiently
to capture just a few transits. The French COROT satellite, now in the third and final year of its prime mission,
has discovered seven transiting exoplanets, one of
which is only 70 percent larger than Earth.
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
“Worlds Apart: Seeking New Earths” by Timothy Ferris (©2009
by National Geographic Society).
It took humans thousands of years to explore our
own planet and centuries to comprehend our neighboring planets, but nowadays new worlds are being discovered every week. To date, astronomers have identified
5 more than 370 “exoplanets,” worlds orbiting stars other
than the sun. Many are strange. There’s an Icarus-like
“hot Saturn” 260 light-years from Earth, whirling
around its parent star so rapidly that a year there lasts
less than three days. Circling another star 150 light10 years out is a scorched “hot Jupiter,” whose upper
atmosphere is being blasted off to form a gigantic,
comet-like tail. Three benighted planets have been
found orbiting a pulsar—the remains of a once mighty
star shrunk into a spinning atomic nucleus the size of a
15 city—while untold numbers of worlds have evidently
fallen into their suns or been flung out of their systems
to become “floaters” that wander in eternal darkness.
Amid such exotica, scientists are eager for a hint
of the familiar: planets resembling Earth, orbiting their
20 stars at just the right distance—neither too hot nor too
cold—to support life as we know it. No planets quite
like our own have yet been found, presumably because
they’re inconspicuous. To see a planet as small and dim
as ours amid the glare of its star is like trying to see a
25 firefly in a fireworks display; to detect its gravitational
influence on the star is like listening for a cricket in a
tornado. Yet by pushing technology to the limits,
astronomers are rapidly approaching the day when they
can find another Earth and interrogate it for signs of
30 life.
Only 11 exoplanets, all of them big and bright and
conveniently far away from their stars, have as yet had
their pictures taken. Most of the others have been
detected by using the spectroscopic Doppler technique,
35 in which starlight is analyzed for evidence that the star
is being tugged ever so slightly back and forth by the
gravitational pull of its planets. In recent years
astronomers have refined the Doppler technique so
exquisitely that they can now tell when a star is pulled
40 from its appointed rounds by only one meter a
second—about human walking speed. That’s sufficient
to detect a giant planet in a big orbit, or a small one if
it’s very close to its star, but not an Earth at anything
like our Earth’s 93-million-mile distance from its star.
45 The Earth tugs the sun around at only one-tenth walking speed, or about the rate that an infant can crawl;
astronomers cannot yet prize out so tiny a signal from
the light of a distant star.
Another approach is to watch a star for the slight
50 periodic dip in its brightness that will occur should an
orbiting planet circle in front of it and block a fraction
of its light. At most a tenth of all planetary systems are
likely to be oriented so that these mini-eclipses, called
transits, are visible from Earth, which means that
The United States’ Kepler satellite is COROT’s
more ambitious successor. Launched from Cape
Canaveral in March 2008, Kepler is essentially just a
big digital camera with a .95-meter aperture and a
95-megapixel detector. It makes wide-field pictures
65 every 30 minutes, capturing the light of more than
100,000 stars in a single patch of sky between the
bright stars Deneb and Vega. Computers on Earth monitor the brightness of all those stars over time, alerting
humans when they detect the slight dimming that could
70 signal the transit of a planet.
60
Because that dimming can be mimicked by other
phenomena, such as the pulsations of a variable star or
a large sunspot moving across a star’s surface, the
Kepler scientists won’t announce the presence of a
75 planet until they have seen it transit at least three
times—a wait that may be only a few days or weeks for
a planet rapidly circling close to its star but years for a
terrestrial twin. By combining Kepler results with
Doppler observations, astronomers expect to determine
80 the diameters and masses of transiting planets. If they
manage to discover a rocky planet roughly the size of
Earth orbiting in the habitable zone—not so close to the
star that the planet’s water has been baked away, nor so
far out that it has frozen into ice—they will have found
85 what biologists believe could be a promising abode for
life.
31. Which of the following descriptions best reflects the
way the passage is organized?
A. It raises the question of whether exoplanets exist
and then presents to an equal extent arguments on
both sides.
B. It focuses first on the search for planets, then
sharpens that focus to the search for planets like
our own.
C. It defines planets, first those in Earth’s solar
system and then those familiar mostly to
astronomers.
D. It refers to mythology, then moves to a technical
description of those exoplanets the size of Earth or
smaller.
32. The passage makes use of both technical terms and:
F. rhetorical questions.
G. figurative language.
H. excerpts from the writings of astronauts.
J. excerpts from the writings of ancient astronomers.
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78
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Taking and Scoring Your First ACT Practice Test
33. As it is used in line 18, the term such exotica refers to:
A. the sophisticated equipment used to locate previously unidentified planets.
B. the contents of our solar system, in particular the
planets Jupiter and Saturn.
C. overblown claims about planets far from Earth.
D. planets and solar systems vastly unlike Earth and
its solar system.
34. What is the main idea of the second paragraph (lines
18–30)?
F. Recently discovered exoplanets have disappointed
scientists.
G. Some exoplanets were once thought to be stars at
the center of solar systems.
H. Some recently discovered exoplanets spin on their
axis at the same speed that Earth spins on its axis.
J. Planets that resemble Earth are extremely hard to
detect.
35. The passage’s description of the spectroscopic Doppler
technique indicates that it is a method used to identify
the:
A. intensity of light reaching Earth from a planet outside Earth’s solar system.
B. effect of a planet’s gravitational pull on the sun the
planet is orbiting.
C. speed at which a planet rotates on its axis.
D. distance between an exoplanet and its former sun.
36. According to the passage, in order to confirm a possible planet using the Kepler method, scientists look for:
F. evidence of water both as a solid and a liquid on
the supposed planet.
G. an uninterrupted light originating from the supposed planet.
H. identical results in images of the same location
taken 24 hours apart.
J. three occurrences of a slight dimming in a star that
strongly indicates a planet’s presence.
3
37. According to the passage, at the time the passage was
written, how many exoplanets had had their picture
taken?
A. 370
B. 095
C. 011
D. 000
38. According to the passage, which of the following is a
capability of the Kepler?
F. It can capture the light of more than 100,000 stars
in a single patch of sky.
G. It can determine the distance between an exoplanet
and its star.
H. It can travel up to 150 light-years away from
Earth.
J. It can determine the surface features of planets
well enough to indicate the presence of water.
Your First Practice Test
3
39. In the passage, Deneb and Vega are identified as:
A. stars at the edges of the area examined by the
Kepler.
B. planets that are only 70 percent larger than Earth.
C. scientists pioneering in the field of planet searching.
D. former stars whose traveling light is still visible.
40. According to the passage, what do scientists expect to
determine about any given transiting planet by combining Kepler results with Doppler observations?
F. The length of its year
G. Its distance from its sun
H. Its diameter and mass
J. Its distance from Earth
END OF TEST 3
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Finally, convert your writing test score to percentile ranks using the procedures described.
Percentile ranks enable you to compare your writing test score to those of others who have taken
the writing test. You can find the most current information on scoring the ACT writing test in
the bonus online content.
Scoring Your Multiple-Choice Practice Tests
To score each of your multiple-choice practice tests, starting with the English test, follow these steps:
STEP 1. Write a “1” in the blank for each question that you answered correctly. An example is
provided in the following box:
Key
Your answer was
1.
A
Incorrect
2.
J
1
Correct
3.
B
1
Correct
4.
G
Incorrect
English ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 1
Key
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102
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The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
B
J
A
G
B
J
C
F
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C
F
B
F
A
H
D
J
A
J
D
J
C
Taking and Scoring Your First ACT Practice Test
STEP 2. Add the numbers you entered in step 1 and write this total in the following shaded box.
This is your raw score.
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
English test (75 questions)
STEP 3. Repeat steps 1 and 2 for the ACT mathematics, reading, and science tests using the
scoring keys on the following pages.
Key
1.
2.
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Your First Practice Test
Mathematics ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 1
Key
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Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Math test (60 questions)
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103
The Official ACT Prep Guide
Reading ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 1
Key
1.
2.
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Key
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Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Reading test (40 questions)
Science ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 1
Key
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Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Science test (40 questions)
104
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
B
J
C
G
B
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D
G
C
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A
F
Taking Additional Practice Tests
Practice Test 2
080659
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I understand that ACT owns the assessment questions and responses and affirm that I will not share any
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3. Sign your name as you would any official document and enter today’s date.
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Form 16MC2
Taking Additional Practice Tests
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Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
mathematics test only.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the
suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the
answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to
match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered
to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval
in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill in
the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your
marks heavy and black. Do not use ink or a mechanical
pencil.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
your mind about an answer, erase your first mark thoroughly
before marking your new answer. For each question, make
certain that you mark in the row of ovals with the same
number as the question.
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time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized for
guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every
question even if you must guess.
You may work on each test only when the testing staff
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reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test.
You may not look back to a test on which time has already
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Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at
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1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
The Kam Wah Chung & Co. Museum
To the casual observer, the Kam Wah Chung
& Co. building, located in the eastern Oregon
community of John Day, that is, simply a small,
1
unassuming structure made of rock and wood. To
those with an interest in history, however, it’s a unique
building that preserves a part of the legacy of the Chinese
2
community in the nineteenth-century American West.
2
Built in the 1860s, the Kam Wah Chung
1. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
is
it’s
DELETE the underlined portion.
2. Given that all the choices are true, which one most
effectively introduces the historical and cultural significance of the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building?
F. NO CHANGE
G. has seven rooms: a front room, an herb shop, two
bedrooms, a stockroom, a general store, and a
kitchen and bunk room.
H. is cooperatively preserved and operated by the
Oregon Parks and Recreation Department and the
City of John Day.
J. has a kitchen that holds antique tables, a large
woodstove, and a variety of Chinese teas and
cooking utensils.
building first served as a trading post for travelers
who attract to the land east of the Cascade
3
Mountains by news of gold strikes there.
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
will be attracted
were attracted
are attracted
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
340
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Taking Additional Practice Tests
1
In 1887, the original owner sold the building
. The
men combined their skills, organized a group of investors,
and remains in business together for more than fifty years.
5
Educated in the Chinese classics and fluent in
English, Lung On was a skilled merchant who built a
1
4. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following accurate information:
to two enterprising young Chinese immigrants, Ing “Doc” Hay and Lung On
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it builds upon a claim made about
Hay and On in the preceding sentence.
G. Yes, because it provides a logical link to the information that follows in the essay.
H. No, because it unnecessarily states information
that’s implied later in the essay.
J. No, because it provides little information about
Hay and On’s partnership.
5. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
has remained
have remain
remained
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
for making
as he made
and made
7. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
who experienced that their previous treatments
being previous treatments which
of whom previous treatments
successful textile and import business. He also sold food
and supplies to local miners. His partner, Doc Hay,
established an herbal medicine clinic. Hay became
when he would make perceptive diagnoses and
6
curing patients whose previous treatments had
7
failed.
Over time, the partners’ building evolved
into a social, medical, and supply center, as well as a
post office, library, and herb shop.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
famous throughout central and eastern Oregon
8. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
F. Kept, because it provides information that suggests why Hay’s work was particularly noteworthy.
G. Kept, because it presents examples of Hay’s most
challenging and successful diagnoses.
H. Deleted, because it doesn’t make clear whether On
was involved with Hay’s herbal medicine clinic.
J. Deleted, because it doesn’t fit logically in this
paragraph about On’s accomplishments.
9. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose a statement that:
A. demonstrates the scope of services eventually provided in the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building.
B. makes clear that the social aspect of Kam Wah
Chung & Co. was most important to visitors.
C. provides a summary of one regular visitor’s experiences at Kam Wah Chung & Co.
D. indicates for how long Hay and On’s businesses
prospered.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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1
[1] Hay and On’s businesses prospered through
the turn of the century, during the Great Depression, and
beginning the 1940s. [2] Because the climate in eastern
10
Oregon is semi-arid, the artifacts left inside—including
gold-mining tools, rare antique furniture, financial
10. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
as it entered
becoming
into
11. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
have become
became
become
12. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
with the appropriation of
in being identified as a
a
13. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
in conclusion,
in time,
DELETE the underlined portion.
documents, and a thousand different herbs—were
preserved. [3] Although On died in 1940, Hay continued
to run Kam Wah Chung & Co. until 1948. [4] After Hay’s
death, his nephew inherited the building and donated it
to the city of John Day. [5] For almost twenty years, it
remained locked. [6] The building was restored by the
state of Oregon in the 1970s and has became the Kam Wah
11
Chung & Co. Museum. [7] Designated as being called a
12
National Historic Landmark in 2005, besides, it
13
encapsulates an era.
14. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, Sentence 2 should be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Sentence 1.
H. after Sentence 3.
J. after Sentence 5.
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
15. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief
essay that outlined the steps the state of Oregon took to
restore the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building. Would
this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because it makes clear that the Kam Wah
Chung & Co. building was renovated in the 1970s.
B. Yes, because it explains why the artifacts that were
inside the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building were
preserved.
C. No, because it instead focuses on describing the
history of the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building and
the building’s uses.
D. No, because it instead focuses on critiquing both
On’s business philosophies and Hay’s medical
diagnoses and treatments.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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Taking Additional Practice Tests
1
1
PASSAGE II
One Fair Season
At first glance a Renaissance fair, looks a lot like
16
a theme park. Crowds of people mill about, moseying
they’re way past costumed characters and colorful
17
booths. Being that roller coasters and Ferris wheels,
18
the fair’s attractions are the sights, sounds, and tastes
inspired by sixteenth-century England. Musicians,
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
glance, a Renaissance fair,
glance, a Renaissance fair
glance a Renaissance fair;
17. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
they’re way passed
their way passed
their way past
18. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Yet instead of
Because of
Given that
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Horses, carrying knights,
Horses carrying knights,
Horses, carrying knights
magicians, and archers demonstrate their talents
19
to a jousting match walk along the streets.
20
Vendors, ranging from king-sized turkey
21
legs to suits of armor, peddle wares.
21
I’ve always enjoyed attending Renaissance fairs,
and I found out just how interesting they are. Those
22
of us working at the fair spent weeks perfecting
our characters’ accents and mannerisms. We also
incorporated sixteenth-century English vocabulary
into our speech. Substituting good morrow for “good
23
morning” and gramercy for “thank you.” In my role
20. Which choice best conveys the horses’ movement in a
way that adds a sensory detail to the description of the
fair?
F. NO CHANGE
G. clip-clop
H. move
J. travel
Taking Additional Practice Tests
to curious fairgoers. Horses carrying knights
21. A. NO CHANGE
B. Peddling wares, ranging from king-sized turkey
legs to suits of armor are vendors.
C. Ranging from king-sized turkey legs to suits of
armor, vendors peddle wares.
D. Vendors peddle wares ranging from king-sized
turkey legs to suits of armor.
22. Which choice best introduces the subject of the paragraph and the rest of the essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. but it wasn’t until I spent a summer working at one
that I understood how much effort went into
re-creating the past.
H. and I knew that getting a job at one would be the
easiest way to experience one and have fun at the
same time.
J. so one summer’s day, some friends and I decided
to attend a nearby fair.
23. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
speech, we substituted
speech, substituting
speech; substituting
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1
as a lady-in-waiting, I often used the sixteenth-century
expressions while I served the queen’s meals or
introduced her to guests.
24
It was exhausting to spend every day in the hot
summer temperatures while pretending to be a person
whom had lived in a different country and century. The
25
physical demands were especially strenuous for the queen
and us ladies-in-waiting because our costumes, they
26
consisted of confining corsets, several scratchy
petticoats, and heavy velvet gowns.
We strove to make the fairgoers’ experience
as authentic as possible. Things that had come into
28
existence more recently after the sixteenth century
28
had to be explained in Renaissance terms. However,
29
when a guest wished to take a photograph, we would
marvel at the camera and ask how such lifelike
24. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
to introduce
introducing
introduce
25. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
who were to live
whom lived
who lived
26. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
of our costumes, they
of our costumes
our costumes
27. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence:
Many theme park characters have to wear
uncomfortable costumes.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it develops the essay’s earlier comparison between Renaissance fairs and theme
parks.
B. Yes, because it elaborates on the preceding sentence’s point about costumes.
C. No, because it adds a comment that’s only loosely
related at this point in the essay.
D. No, because it repeats information stated elsewhere in the essay.
28. F. NO CHANGE
G. Any kind of object or type of item created and
introduced for use
H. Anything invented
J. Stuff from
29. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
For example,
One time,
Instead,
30. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
when the fair closed down.
at the end of the summer.
DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.
paintings were created inside the tiny box.
After three tiring months of rehearsals and
performances, the fair closed for the season, and
I bade fare thee well to my Renaissance character
when the summer months were over. Although it had
30
been a wonderful trip back in time, it was a relief to
return to the comforts of my own century.
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PASSAGE III
Uncovered at Johnson’s Shut-Ins
blast of water caused by a breach of the Taum Sauk
31
reservoir roared down Proffit Mountain into the east fork
of the Black River on December 14, 2005. They ripped a
32
channel through Johnson’s Shut-Ins, one of Missouri’s
most popular state parks. Though flood damage marred
the parks beauty for a time, the scar the raging water left
33
in its wake specifically revealed over a billion years’
34
worth of Earth’s geologic history.
The area known today as Johnson’s Shut-Ins
State Park had began to develop 1.5 billion years
35
ago. When the volcanoes that created the St. Francois
36
Mountains exploded. Slow-moving magma
cooled down its temperature and crystallized
37
to form silica-rich rhyolite rock. Over time
38
sedimentary rock such as limestone and shale,
formed from material deposited by shallow inland
31. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
water caused by,
water caused, by
water, caused by
32. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
That they
Which
It
33. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
park’s beauty for a time,
parks’ beauty for a time,
park’s beauty for a time
34. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
ultimately
instead
thus
35. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
begun developing
began to develop
begun to develop
36. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
ago; when
ago when
ago
37. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
cooled down to a lower temperature
lowered its temperature to cool
cooled
38. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
form silica-rich, rhyolite,
form silica-rich rhyolite,
form, silica-rich rhyolite
Taking Additional Practice Tests
In Reynolds County, Missouri, a one-billion-gallon
seas, buried the rhyolite. After the seas had receded,
gravel-rich rivers and streams eventually chipped
away the soft sedimentary rock in some areas,
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exposing the erosion-resistant rhyolite rock and
creating pockets and pits. In low places, the
Black River was confined (or “shut in”) by the
39
rhyolite and creating the natural waterslides and
40
canyon-like gorges that have become a summer
playground for thousands of visitors.
39. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion. Should the underlined portion be kept or deleted?
A. Kept, because it describes how people feel when
they visit the park.
B. Kept, because it suggests the inspiration for the
park’s name.
C. Deleted, because it makes an informal observation
that is not consistent with the essay’s tone.
D. Deleted, because it interrupts the sentence’s
description of the Black River.
40. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
rhyolite; creating
rhyolite, creating
rhyolite, created
41. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
on their
in their
on its
42. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
have contained
are containing
contains
43. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Those who are nuts about the outdoors
Swimmers, hikers, and campers
All types of outdoorsy people
44. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
by coming back to the park.
to revisit the park.
DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.
Although the flood left the shut-ins unscathed, the
surge of water that tore through the park in 2005 stripped
away all trees, soil, and sedimentary rock in its path. Left
41
behind is a channel that is composed of granite—and
previously unexposed rhyolite rock—and contain rocks
42
from at least three other geological eras. The menacing
floodwaters also revealed a half-billion-year-old beach
made of both sand and gravel.
Five years of work has restored most of the
park surrounding the shut-ins. Some have returned
43
back. Geologists from around the world visit to get
44
a close look at the ancient volcanic rock along what has
been named the “Scour Channel.” The “Scour Channel”
now rivals the park’s other geologic curiosities for most
frequently visited site.
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PASSAGE IV
A Birthplace of Stars
The winter night I attempted to see the famed Orion
Nebula, I didn’t expect to succeed. I was an inexperienced
astronomer peering through light-polluted skies. But I
45
was eager to test my new telescope’s capabilities, and the
nebula being one of the greatest sights in the night sky. So
46
I bundled up, set out my scope to cool down (its mirrors
must adjust to the cold air for optimal viewing), and
45. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
astronomer, peering through,
astronomer: peering through
astronomer peering through,
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
is by them said to be
is said to be
having been
47. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
hunter, who in some mythologies,
hunter who, in some mythologies
hunter who in, some mythologies,
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
were being
are
is
49. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
collapse to form stars.
collapse, stars form.
collapse and form stars.
50. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
nebula is home to thousands of young stars, and
nebula, home to thousands of young stars, and
nebula, home to thousands of young stars,
scanned for the constellation Orion.
I had prepared for this night by studying
as a hunter who, in some mythologies, is fighting Taurus
47
the Bull, another constellation. [A] Even in bright skies,
the telltale three stars marking Orion’s belt has been
48
easy to spot. [B] I knew to follow the belt to Orion’s
sword, a dim line of stars extending south. [C] The
Taking Additional Practice Tests
constellations in my astronomy books. Orion appears
middle of these is actually not a star but a nebula, the
Great Orion Nebula, a birthplace of stars. [D] When
gravity causes the gas and dust to collapse, forming stars.
49
The nebula, is home to thousands of young stars, is often
50
called a galactic “nursery.”
51. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the
preceding paragraph:
Located 1,300 light-years from Earth, the
nebula is a massive cloud of gas and dust.
This sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A.
B. Point B.
C. Point C.
D. Point D.
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I centered my scope where the nebula should be,
inserted my lowest-powered eyepiece, and leaned in
to look. I just made out a dull smudge. I couldn’t get
much improvement even when I adjusted the focuser.
Coincidentally, I switched to a higher-powered eyepiece
52
and tried a trick I’d read about for viewing faint objects:
53
using averted vision.
The principle of averted vision states that the eye can
often see distant objects better by looking to their one side
54
rather than directly at them.
I focused my eye
on an area beside the smudge, and, sure enough,
my peripheral vision yielded far more of a better view
56
of the nebula’s swirling clouds. I even saw the
Trapezium star cluster, illuminated by four bright
57
young stars nestled in the nebula like birds’ eggs
58
52. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Similarly,
Besides,
So,
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
tried a trick I’d have
try a trick I’d
try a trick I
54. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
one side of them
they’re side
one’s side
55. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
A. Kept, because it elaborates on why the narrator is
capable of using averted vision when looking at
the night sky.
B. Kept, because it explains the principle that allowed
the narrator to see the nebula more clearly.
C. Deleted, because it adds a level of technical detail
that is inappropriate for the tone of the essay.
D. Deleted, because it digresses from the main point
of the paragraph.
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
a farther,
a far
a far,
57. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
emanated
emulated
eliminated
58. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
bird’s eggs
birds eggs
bird eggs’
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59. Given that all the following statements are true, which
one, if added here, would best conclude the paragraph
and the essay by referring back to the opening
paragraph?
A. Observing these features made my winter trek outdoors worthwhile, teaching me that a change in
focus is sometimes helpful to see more clearly.
B. In addition to averted vision, it is also important to
eliminate stray light and use the correct magnification when observing the night sky.
C. Although my initial goal was to observe Orion’s
belt and sword, the constellation is also very
useful as an aid to locating other constellations
such as Taurus and Gemini.
D. The Trapezium star cluster was originally discovered in 1617 by Galileo, whom I’d read about
extensively in my astronomy books.
in a nest.
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
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60. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write an essay
about a personal experience with astronomy. Would
this essay accomplish that goal?
F. Yes, because the narrator recounts several past
adventures and challenges of using the telescope
to view the night sky.
G. Yes, because the narrator describes a stargazing
session from start to finish, from setting up the
telescope to observing an actual constellation.
H. No, because it primarily focuses on the Orion
Nebula and its process of star formation.
J. No, because it describes a universally used technique for viewing distant objects in the night sky.
PASSAGE V
Chords of Color
Some viewers see the paintings of abstract
artist James Little as impersonal, discordant rainbows.
Others see them as minimalistic distillations of
emotion, in other words, they are metaphors for Little’s
61
feelings about social issues and historical events. He
paints large-scale patterns of shapes—mostly triangles
62
and narrow rectangles in vibrant contrasting hues.
62
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
emotion, they see the paintings as
emotion the works offer
emotion,
62. Which choice is correctly punctuated and makes clear
that all the shapes that Little paints are painted in
vibrant and contrasting hues?
F. NO CHANGE
G. shapes—mostly triangles and narrow rectangles—
in vibrant,
H. shapes—mostly triangles—and narrow rectangles
in vibrant,
J. shapes, mostly triangles and narrow rectangles in
vibrant
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His paintings explore the ambiguity of space, the
energy of movement, and the coming together of
63. A.
B.
C.
D.
unlikely elements. But his subject he says is
63
color.
In 2011, working out of his studio in Brooklyn,
New York, Little is painting on canvas using his own
blends of beeswax and oil paint. He applies at least fifteen
layers of these paints that he blended himself to achieve a
65
thick, smooth, color-soaked, luminescent surface. Most of
his paintings are voluminous, about six feet by eight feet.
66
To create sharp visual breaks and clean edges of color in
these expansive works, he paints slashing diagonal lines
NO CHANGE
But his subject, he says,
But, his subject, he says
But his subject, he says
64. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
Little also says that Syracuse University,
where he earned his MFA in 1976, was a
“beacon for abstract painting.”
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it provides a smooth transition to the
biographical focus of the paragraph that follows.
G. Yes, because it indicates where Little first became
focused on working with color.
H. No, because it adds information that is tangentially
related to the essay but blurs the focus of the first
paragraph.
J. No, because it causes unnecessary confusion concerning the essay’s assertion that Little works with
geometric figures.
65. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
paint, which is of his own making, and does so
his own blends that he made
these blends
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
immeasurable,
mountainous,
large,
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
for example,
in contrast,
thereafter,
and rays.
In his 2005 painting Bittersweet Victory, by all means,
67
the canvas is bisected by a vertical, beige line. On the left
68
half, three orange triangles in a row, each one
which stretched from the bottom to the top of the
69
canvas’s left half, angle slightly to the right on a purple
70
68. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. vertically bisected by a beige
G. bisected by a vertically beige
H. bisected vertically by a beige
J. bisected by a beige, vertical
69. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
which by stretching
stretching
stretches
70. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
canvas, on the left half,
left half of the canvas,
canvas,
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background. On the right half, three vertical bands of dark
green, one edge of each band slanting to create a point that
touches the top of the canvas, cuts through a lime-green
71
background. Little explains that the internal spaces in
his paintings (created by lines and blocks of color)
71. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
cuts crossed
cut through
cut crossed
72. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
on the entirety of the
into the whole
with the entire
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
reminiscent of something that echoes
much like that of
being like
need to play off of each other in a way that lends
72
much like something that would remind you of
73
a perfect jazz collaboration.
One of Little’s favorite assessments of his work
came from a woman who told him that his paintings
are optimistic. Little believes the bold, positive energy
infusing his work comes from what he observes around
him. His paintings reflect what he considers the essence
of our experiences as human beings. The malleable nature
of space, the surprising shifts, but, in the end, a balance.
74. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose a description of
Little’s work that:
F. builds on the subtle musical reference in the paragraph to create a comparison between Little’s
paintings and jazz.
G. indicates the popularity of Little’s paintings by
drawing a comparison between his work and jazz
collaborations.
H. provides a transition to the following paragraph’s
focus on several assessments of Little’s work by
art critics.
J. emphasizes the idea that Little’s methods allowed
him to reach the goals he uniquely set for his piece
Bittersweet Victory.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
rhythm and unity to the whole work. The effect is
Question 75 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
75. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
describe how an artist uses simple elements to convey
large ideas. Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because it focuses primarily on one viewer’s
conclusion that the lines of color in Little’s Bittersweet Victory communicate the idea of optimism.
B. Yes, because it conveys that Little uses shapes and
color to capture what he sees as the movement and
rhythm of the human experience.
C. No, because it focuses too heavily on describing
the metaphor that Little hoped to create with
Bittersweet Victory but does not explain what that
painting looked like.
D. No, because it indicates that Little focuses on
color in his work but does not suggest the effect
that his work achieves.
END OF TEST 1
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READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
40 sitting on a low cabinet, within reach. Money measured
success; counting measured money.
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the
novel Homeland by John Jakes (©1993 by John Jakes).
Joseph Emanuel Crown, owner of the Crown
Brewery of Chicago, was a worried man. Worried on
several counts, the most immediate being a civic
responsibility he was scheduled to discuss at an emer5 gency meeting this Friday, the fourteenth of October; a
meeting he had requested.
Joe Crown seldom revealed inner anxieties, and
that was the case as he worked in his office this morning. He was a picture of steadiness, rectitude, prosper10 ity. He wore a fine suit of medium gray enlivened by a
dark red four-in-hand tied under a high collar. Since the
day was not yet too warm, he kept his coat on.
Joe’s hair was more silver than white. He washed
it daily, kept it shining. His eyes behind spectacles with
15 silver wire frames were dark brown, rather large, and
alert. His mustache and imperial showed careful attention; he had an appointment at twelve for the weekly
trim. His hands were small but strong. He wasn’t handsome, but he was commanding.
20
Three principles ruled Joe Crown’s business and
personal life, of which the most important was order. In
German, Ordnung. Without order, organization, some
rational plan, you had chaos.
The second principle was accuracy. Accuracy was
25 mandatory in brewing, where timing and temperatures
were critical. But accuracy was also the keystone of any
business that made money instead of losing it. The primary tool for achieving accuracy was mathematics. Joe
Crown had a towering belief in the potency of correct
30 information, and the absolute authority of numbers
which provided it.
In Germany, he’d learned his numbers before he
learned to read. Though a mediocre student in most
school subjects, at ciphering he was a prodigy. He
35 could add a column of figures, or do calculations in his
head, with astonishing speed. In Cincinnati, his first
stop in America, he’d begged the owner of a Chinese
laundry to teach him to use an abacus. One of these
ancient counting devices could be found in his office,
Questions he asked of his employees often
involved numbers. “What is the exact temperature?”
“How large is the population in that market?” “How
45 many barrels did we ship last week?” “What’s the cost,
per square foot, of this expansion?”
As for his third principle, modernity, he believed
that, too, was crucial in business. Men who said the old
ways were the best ways were fools, doomed to fall
50 behind and fail. Joe was always searching for the
newest methods to improve the brewery’s product,
output, efficiency, cleanliness. He hadn’t hesitated to
install expensive pasteurization equipment when he
opened his first small brewery in Chicago. He’d been
55 among the first to invest heavily in refrigerated freight
cars. He insisted that modern machines be used in the
office. From his desk he could hear the pleasing ratchet
noise of a mechanical adding machine. This blended
with the clicking keys and pinging bell on the black
60 iron typewriter used for correspondence by his chief
clerk, Stefan Zwick.
Originally Stefan had resisted Joe’s suggestion
that he learn to operate a typewriter. “Sir, I respectfully
decline, a quill pen suits me perfectly.”
“But Stefan,” Joe said to him in a friendly but firm
way, “I’m afraid it doesn’t suit me, because it makes
Crown’s look old-fashioned. However, I’ll respect your
feelings. Please place a help wanted advertisement.
We’ll hire one of those young women who specialize
70 in using the machines. I believe they too are called
typewriters.”
65
Zwick blanched. “A woman? In my office?”
“I’m sorry, Stefan, but you leave me no choice if
you won’t learn to typewrite.”
75
Stefan Zwick learned to typewrite.
Every solid house or building was supported by a
strong foundation; and so there was a foundation on
which Joe Crown’s three principles rested. It was not
unusual, or peculiar to him. It was the cheerful accep80 tance, not to say worship, of hard work. Among other
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artifacts, advertising sheets, flags and fading brown
photographs of annual brewery picnics decorating his
office there was a small framed motto which his wife
had done colorfully in cross-stitch and put into a frame
85 of gilded wood. Ohne Fleiss, kein Preis, it said. In
rough translation, this reminded you that without industry there was no reward. From his desk Joe Crown
couldn’t see the gold-framed motto; it hung on the wall
behind him, slightly to his right. But he didn’t need to
90 see it. Its truth was in him deeper than the marrow of
his bones. He was a German.
1. If a stereotype of Germans is that they are tidy, meticulous, and industrious, does the characterization of
Crown in this passage reinforce or weaken this
stereotype?
A. It firmly reinforces the stereotype.
B. It initially reinforces and subsequently weakens
the stereotype.
C. It reinforces the meticulous aspect of the stereotype but weakens the industrious aspect.
D. It weakens the stereotype in that Crown likes his
surroundings tidy but expects others to do the tidying up.
2. It can reasonably be inferred that in relation to the
appointment referred to in the third paragraph (lines
13–19), the meeting referred to in the first paragraph
occurs:
F. on the same day.
G. several days earlier.
H. several days later.
J. several years later.
3. The passage’s description of Zwick reveals that compared to Crown, he is:
A. equally fastidious about meeting a deadline.
B. less inclined to embrace new technology.
C. less afraid to state his preferences to his superiors.
D. more concerned with the company’s public image.
4. The dialogue in line 72 reveals Zwick’s:
F. indignation over Crown’s proposed solution to the
problem the two men are discussing.
G. panic over having a surprise visitor to his office.
H. excitement over meeting a new employee of
Crown Brewery.
J. insensitivity to his recently hired female coworker.
3
5. At the time described in the passage’s opening, what is
Crown’s most immediate preoccupation?
A. Whether he will be on time for his weekly trim
B. Whether to install expensive pasteurization equipment at his brewery
C. Zwick’s impertinent behavior
D. A civic responsibility
6. The passage states that Crown was what kind of
student?
F. Exceptionally gifted, especially in ciphering
G. Mediocre, except in ciphering
H. Successful when he applied himself, otherwise
poor
J. Increasingly successful as he gained the use of
counting aids
7. Based on the passage, which of the following questions would be most characteristic of the kind Crown
typically asked his employees?
A. “Was your weekend a most pleasant one?”
B. “Have you had a chance to repair that old
typewriter?”
C. “By what figure will our sales increase if we
advertise in that publication?”
D. “Who among you has a better idea for how we can
work well as a team?”
8. At the time in which the passage is set, which of the
following devices are still apparently being used in
offices in the United States even as those same devices
are, in Crown’s view, becoming increasingly obsolete?
F. Typewriters
G. Mechanical adding machines
H. Quill pens
J. Abacuses
Taking Additional Practice Tests
3
9. The metaphor the author uses to help describe Crown’s
three principles primarily draws upon imagery from
what discipline?
A. Architecture
B. Business
C. Astronomy
D. Education
10. Which of the following is a detail from the passage
that indicates the length of time Crown has been in the
brewery business?
F. Some outdated refrigerators from when he first
opened his business
G. A newly hung cross-stitched phrase framed and
placed on his office wall
H. Photographs of annual company picnics decorating
his office
J. A bell, the ringing of which has marked the start
of his workday for the last twenty years
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Passage II
SOCIAL ST UDIES : This passage is adapted from the book
The Age of Wonder by Richard Holmes (©2008 by Richard
Holmes).
In the summer of 1785 astronomer William
Herschel embarked on his revolutionary new project to
observe and resolve the heavens with a telescope more
powerful than ever previously attempted.
What he intended to build was a telescope ‘of the
Newtonian form, with an octagon tube 40 foot long and
five feet in diameter; the specula [mirrors] of which it
would be necessary to have at least two, or perhaps
three’. The telescope would have to be mounted in an
10 enormous wooden gantry, capable of being turned
safely on its axis by just two workmen, but also susceptible to the finest fingertip adjustments by the observing astronomer.
5
The forty-foot would be higher than a house. The
15 astronomer (William) would be required to climb a
series of ladders to a special viewing platform perched
at the mouth of the telescope. The assistant (William’s
sister, Caroline) would have to be shut in a special
booth below to avoid light pollution, where she would
20 have her desk and lamp, celestial clocks, and observation journals. Astronomer and assistant would be invisible to each other for hours on end, shouting commands
and replies, although eventually connected by a metal
speaking-tube.
William had decided that his grand project
required a new house with larger grounds for constructing and erecting the telescope. On 3 April 1786 they
moved to ‘The Grove’, a quite small and rather dilapidated country house on the edge of the tiny village of
30 Slough, England.
this combination of low power with a large viewing
field allowed the observer to see faint stellar objects
55 very brightly, while placing them within a comparatively wide context of surrounding stars. The telescope
was perfectly designed to spot any strange or unknown
object moving through the familiar field of ‘fixed
stars’. In other words, to catch new planets or new
60 comets.
On 1 August 1786, only two nights after starting
her new sweeps, Caroline thought she had spotted an
unknown stellar object moving through Ursa Major (the
Great Bear constellation). It appeared to be descending,
65 but barely perceptibly, towards a triangulation of stars
in the beautifully named constellation Coma Berenices.
To find something so quickly, and in such a familiar
place (the Great Bear or Big Dipper being the first stop
of every amateur stargazer wanting to locate the Pole
70 Star), seemed wildly unlikely. Caroline’s Observation
Book conveys meticulous caution, but also remarkable
certainty.
Unable to calculate the mathematical coordinates
of the object, she accompanied her observations with a
75 series of three neat drawings or ‘figures’, over an
eighty-minute time lapse. These showed the circular
viewing field of her telescope, with an asterisk shape
very slightly changing position relative to three known
fixed stars. The account written into her ‘Book of Work
80 Done’ catches something of her growing excitement.
25
The house itself was not large, but it had sheds and
stables which were gradually converted into workshops
and laboratories. Above the stables were a series of
haylofts which could be converted into a separate apart35 ment. Caroline claimed these for her own. A small outside staircase led up to a flat roof from which she
hoped to carry out her comet ‘sweeps’ in security and
independently. She would check over the calculations
of William’s nebulae by day, and make her own sweeps
40 up on the roof by night.
William had built Caroline a special two-foot
Newtonian reflector. Because of its large aperture, its
tube appeared much fatter, heavier and stubbier than
normal reflectors of this type. Suspended from a pivot
45 at the top of the box-frame, the telescope could be precisely raised or lowered by a system of pulleys operated
by a winding handle. These adjustments were easy to
make, and extremely fine.
This beautiful instrument was designed specifi-
50 cally for its huge light-gathering power and its wide
angle of vision. The magnification was comparatively
low at twenty-four times. As with modern binoculars,
85
August 1st. I have calculated 100 nebulae
today, and this evening I saw an object which I
believe will prove tomorrow night to be a
Comet. August 2nd. 1 o’clock. the object of
last night IS A COMET. August 3rd. I did not
go to rest till I had written to Dr Blagden [at
the Royal Society] and Mr Aubert to announce
the Comet.
The verification of Caroline’s comet was achieved
90 much more rapidly than William’s discovery of the
planet Uranus had been. Its movement through Coma
Berenices was relatively easy to ascertain, and its fine
hazy tail or coma was unmistakable.
11. Which of the following statements best describes how
the passage characterizes William’s response to
Caroline’s discovery of a comet?
A. The passage makes it clear that although William
applauded Caroline’s discovery, he was disappointed that Caroline wasn’t looking for nebulae.
B. The passage claims that William supported
Caroline’s discovery by verifying the comet
himself.
C. The passage suggests that William resented the
fact that Caroline’s comet was recognized so
quickly.
D. The passage does not give a clear indication of
how William felt about Caroline’s discovery.
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12. In the passage, the author emphasizes the large size of
William’s powerful telescope’s octagon tube by comparing the tube’s height to that of a:
F. series of ladders.
G. wooden gantry.
H. hayloft.
J. house.
13. The primary function of the fifth paragraph (lines
31–40) is to:
A. explain the methods Caroline used to perform her
comet sweeps.
B. shift the passage’s focus from William’s project to
Caroline’s own astronomical work.
C. describe the renovations Caroline made to the stables in order to accommodate William’s telescope.
D. introduce the passage’s discussion of how
Caroline’s observation techniques compared to
William’s.
14. In the context of the passage, the excerpt from
Caroline’s “Book of Work Done” primarily serves to:
F. outline the process by which Caroline determined
her finding was a comet.
G. provide an example of the types of observation
notes Caroline made for William.
H. illustrate Caroline’s growing sense of excitement
about her discovery.
J. explain Dr. Blagden’s and Mr. Aubert’s role in verifying Caroline’s discovery.
15. As it is used in line 12, the word finest most nearly
means:
A. slightest.
B. fairest.
C. thinnest.
D. greatest.
16. The passage most strongly suggests that while William
operated his telescope, Caroline would have to work
below in a special booth because:
F. she would be relaying William’s instructions to the
workmen who turned the telescope.
G. she preferred seclusion when working on
calculations.
H. the telescope’s viewing platform would not be
large enough to hold both William and Caroline.
J. the light from her lamp would interfere with
William’s view of the night sky.
3
17. Which of the following questions is most directly
answered by the passage?
A. What inspired William to embark on his project to
observe and resolve the heavens?
B. Why did Caroline and William move to “The
Grove”?
C. Why couldn’t Caroline calculate the coordinates of
the comet she discovered?
D. How long did it take the Royal Society to confirm
Caroline’s discovery was a new comet?
18. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that compared to normal telescopes of its type, the
two-foot Newtonian reflector William built had:
F. a larger aperture.
G. a smaller box-frame.
H. more magnifying power.
J. less light-gathering power.
19. According to the passage, when Caroline first saw her
comet, it appeared to be moving through:
A. Coma Berenices and descending toward the Pole
Star.
B. Coma Berenices and descending toward stars in
the Big Dipper.
C. Ursa Major and descending toward stars in Coma
Berenices.
D. a triangulation of stars, which included the Pole
Star, and descending toward Coma Berenices.
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3
20. The passage indicates that Caroline’s discovery of a
new comet was unlikely because Caroline:
F. found the comet quickly in a part of the sky that
was familiar to astronomers and stargazers.
G. knew more about nebulae than she knew about
comets.
H. had already discovered a planet while performing
observations with William.
J. had little experience calculating the mathematical
coordinates of stellar objects.
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3
Passage III
Passage B by Jacqueline Tavernier-Courbin
HUMANITIES: Passage A is adapted from the essay “Truth in
Personal Narrative” by Vivian Gornick (©2008 by University of
Iowa Press). Passage B is adapted from the article “Fact and
Fiction in A Moveable Feast ” by Jacqueline Tavernier-Courbin
(©1984 by Hemingway Review).
Passage A by Vivian Gornick
Once, in Texas, I gave a reading from my memoir
Fierce Attachments. No sooner had I finished speaking
than a woman in the audience asked a question: “If I
come to New York, can I take a walk with your mama?”
5 I told her that, actually, she wouldn’t want to take a
walk with my mother, it was the woman in the book she
wanted to walk with. They were not exactly the same.
Shortly afterwards, I attended a party in New York
where, an hour into the evening, one of the guests
10 blurted out in a voice filled with disappointment, “Why,
you’re nothing like the woman who wrote Fierce
Attachments!” At the end of the evening she cocked her
head at me and said, “Well, you’re something like her.”
I understood perfectly. She had come expecting to have
15 dinner with the narrator of the book, not with me;
again, not exactly the same.
On both occasions, what was desired was the presence of two people who existed only between the pages
of a book. In our actual persons, neither Mama nor I
20 could give satisfaction. We ourselves were just a rough
draft of the written characters. Moreover, these characters could not live independent of the story which had
called them into life, as they existed for the sole purpose of serving that story. In the flesh, neither Mama
25 nor I were serving anything but the unaesthetic spill of
everyday thought and feeling that routinely floods us
all, only a select part of which, in this case, invoked the
principals in a tale of psychological embroilment that
had as its protagonist neither me nor my mother but
30 rather our “fierce attachment.”
At the heart of my memoir lay a revelation: I could
not leave my mother because I had become my mother.
This complicated insight was my bit of wisdom, the
history I wanted badly to trace out. The context in
35 which the book is set—our life in the Bronx in the
1950s, alternating with walks taken in Manhattan in the
1980s—was the situation; the story was the insight.
What mattered most to me was not the literalness of the
situation, but the emotional truth of the story. What
40 actually happened is only raw material; what matters is
what the memoirist makes of what happened.
Memoirs belong to the category of literature, not
of journalism. It is a misunderstanding to read a
memoir as though the writer owes the reader the same
45 record of literal accuracy that is owed in newspaper
reporting or historical narrative. What is owed the
reader is the ability to persuade that the narrator is
trying, as honestly as possible, to get to the bottom of
the tale at hand.
3
The dividing line between fiction and autobiography is often a very fine and shaky one, and Ernest
Hemingway’s autobiography of the artist as a young
man is a case in point. As nearly all readers know,
Hemingway’s fiction contains numerous autobiographi55 cal elements, and his protagonists are often conscious
projections and explorations of the self. At the same
time, Hemingway’s openly autobiographical writings,
Green Hills of Africa and A Moveable Feast, are barely
more autobiographical than his fiction, and, in many
60 ways, just as fictional.
50
A Moveable Feast is particularly complex because
Hemingway was clearly conscious that it would be his
literary testament. Thus, in writing it, he dealt with
issues which had been important to him and he settled
65 old scores. Among the reasons which motivated his portrayal of self and others were the need to justify himself, for he felt that he had been unfairly portrayed by
some of his contemporaries, the desire to present his
own version of personal relationships as well as the
70 desire to get back at people against whom he held a
grudge, the need to relive his youth in an idealized
fashion, and the wish to leave to the world a flattering
self-portrait. Thus, A Moveable Feast could hardly be
an objective portrayal of its author and his contempo75 raries, and the accuracy of the anecdotes becomes an
issue that can never be entirely resolved.
While it is impossible to verify everything
Hemingway wrote in A Moveable Feast, one might conclude that he invented and lied relatively seldom about
80 pure facts. When he did so, it was usually in order to
reinforce the pattern he had created—i.e., a negative
portrayal of literary competitors and an idealized selfportrayal. He clearly overlooked a great deal of material, distorted some, and generally selected the episodes
85 so that they would show him as innocent, honest, dedicated, and thoroughly enjoying life. A Moveable Feast,
in fact, appears as a fascinating composite of relative
factual accuracy and clear dishonesty of intent.
Questions 21–24 ask about Passage A.
21. The main purpose of the first two paragraphs of
Passage A (lines 1–16) is to:
A. establish the popularity of Gornick’s book by indicating that people wanted to meet her after reading
the book.
B. introduce the idea that the characters in Gornick’s
memoir are not exactly like their real-life
counterparts.
C. illustrate Gornick’s frustration with some of her
readers.
D. suggest that Gornick’s memoir should be classified
as fiction, not as nonfiction.
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374
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22. Which of the following quotations from Passage A
most directly relates to the party guest’s disappointment upon meeting the author of Fierce Attachments ?
F. “We ourselves were just a rough draft of the written characters” (lines 20–21).
G. “I had become my mother” (line 32).
H. “This complicated insight was my bit of wisdom”
(line 33).
J. “The story was the insight” (line 37).
23. According to Passage A, Gornick believes the heart of
her memoir to be:
A. the walks she took with her mother in Manhattan.
B. the revelation that she had become her mother.
C. her childhood experiences in the Bronx.
D. her shared history with her mother.
24. According to Passage A, Gornick believes that memoirs belong to the category of:
F. journalism.
G. personal diaries.
H. historical narratives.
J. literature.
Questions 25–27 ask about Passage B.
25. According to Passage B, the protagonists in
Hemingway’s fiction are often:
A. composites of Hemingway’s friends.
B. based on Hemingway’s family members.
C. projections of Hemingway himself.
D. completely made-up characters.
26. Based on Passage B, the question of accuracy in A
Moveable Feast is particularly difficult because:
F. Hemingway used the book to create a particular
portrait of himself and his contemporaries.
G. Hemingway’s contemporaries were writing conflicting memoirs during the same time period.
H. Hemingway could not produce any documents to
support his stories.
J. Hemingway said his memory was excellent, but
others doubt this.
3
27. Which of the following statements best expresses the
opinion the author of Passage B seems to have about A
Moveable Feast ?
A. It stands alongside Hemingway’s fiction as one of
his best works.
B. It is a complex example of a book that combines
fact and fiction.
C. It provides an accurate look at a specific time in
Hemingway’s life.
D. It should be read with other books from the same
time period.
Questions 28–30 ask about both passages.
28. Based on the passages, Gornick’s and Hemingway’s
approaches to writing their memoirs are similar in that
both writers:
F. put real characters into wholly fictional situations.
G. wanted to portray themselves in a flattering way.
H. were motivated to settle old scores and present
their own versions of personal relationships.
J. used only material from their lives that served the
story they each wanted to tell.
29. Based on the passages, it can most reasonably be
inferred that Gornick and Hemingway would agree that
when it comes to a writer’s responsibility to be truthful
in a memoir:
A. the degree of truthfulness should be the same as
that for fiction.
B. if a writer can’t remember the exact details of a
certain event, that event should be left out of the
memoir.
C. it is more important to create an artistic whole than
to relate only facts.
D. the writer should only include incidents that have
documented evidence to support them.
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3
30. Another author wrote the following about the role of
truth in memoir:
A memoir is a story, not a history, and real life
doesn’t play out as a story.
Which passage most closely echoes the view presented
in this quotation?
F. Passage A, because it offers a story about what
happens when you meet someone who doesn’t live
up to your expectations.
G. Passage A, because it stresses that what happens in
life is only raw material for a memoirist.
H. Passage B, because it states that Hemingway
viewed A Moveable Feast as his literary testament.
J. Passage B, because it states that Hemingway
seldom lied about pure facts.
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3
3
Passage IV
go, yet somehow they have managed to overpower the
big, tough native ants.
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
“The Next Wave: What Makes an Invasive Species Stick?” by
Robert R. Dunn (©2010 by Natural History Magazine, Inc.).
Like many biologists, Andrew V. Suarez struggled
for years with the question of which colonizing organisms fail and which succeed. He studied it the hard
way—with fieldwork and lab experiments—until 1999,
5 when he found some brown jars. He had gone to the
Smithsonian Institution National Museum of Natural
History’s National Insect Collection to look for early
samples of Argentine ants collected in the United States
or at its borders. He hoped to find out how vintage
10 specimens of Argentine ants were related to the existing
populations.
At the museum, among many thousands of jars of
insects labeled with taxonomic notes, locations, and
dates, Suarez ultimately found relatively few samples
15 of Argentine ants. But what he found besides them was,
to his mind, far more interesting: some of the ethanolfilled jars were jammed with vials of ants collected at
ports of entry in the eastern U.S. from 1927 to 1985.
They were ants that border agents had picked from
20 plants being shipped into the U.S. Could those ants be
identified as members of species that had failed or succeeded as colonists, and if so, could the specimens be
used to compare the two groups?
In the jars and vials were 394 separate samples of
25 ants. Suarez solicited the help of two friends, ant ecolo-
gist David A. Holway of the University of California,
San Diego, and Philip S. Ward, guru of ant gurus, at the
University of California, Davis. Altogether they identified 232 distinct species.
Suarez considered the traits possessed by each of
the ant species in an attempt to see what might have
predisposed some of them to survival. He measured
whether they were big or small. He examined whether
each lived in the canopy or on the ground, and whether
35 they were from one subfamily or another. He also
looked at a simpler possibility: that “survivor species”
tended to be those introduced more than once. The evidence in the jars showed, for example, that Argentine
ants had arrived at least twice. Were successes just a
40 consequence of the number of tries?
30
When a pioneering group sets up camp and starts
living in a new place, possible futures diverge. One
species might be wiped out within a generation or two.
A second might survive, but never become common.
45 Yet another species might thrive, eventually spreading
across states, continents, and even the world! Even if
surviving in a new environment is sometimes a matter
of being introduced again and again, thriving is a different story. Relatively few invasive species truly prevail.
50
One curious thing about Argentine ants is that they
are, despite their apparent meekness, ecologically dominant. They are squishy, small, stingless wimps, as ants
There’s another strange thing about Argentine
ants. If you take an Argentine ant from what looks like
one colony and put it together with one from a distant
colony, they accept each other. In fact, you can perform
that trick over much of California and very few of the
60 ants will fight. It is as though all of the Argentine ants
in California are part of a few huge colonies—“supercolonies,” they’ve come to be called.
55
Biologist Ted Case joined forces with Holway and
Suarez for an experiment to test whether the lack of
65 aggression among those ant colonies somehow helped
them to compete with other species. Might it simply be
that by not fighting with their neighbors, the Argentine
ants wasted less energy on war and could spend more
time on the good stuff? It turned out that, yes, aggres70 sive ants wasted energy fighting (and dying), and so
gathered less food and fared poorly, in general. Peace
pays (at least peace with one’s kin), and so Argentine
ants have made bank everyplace they have moved.
In fact, it isn’t just for the Argentine ant that peace
75 seems to pay. Supercolonies and the unicolonial popu-
lations they create look to be common among invasive
ants.
Ants flash chemical badges identifying their home
nest. Without such markers, no one knows who is friend
80 or foe. When the clarity of “us versus them” breaks
down, peace breaks out among colonies of an ant
species. Different nests swap workers and queens, and
the term “colony” becomes fuzzy. Experiments seemed
to show that one conglomeration of Argentine ants
85 stretched the length of California, another from Italy to
Portugal . . . until, in 2009, workers from those two
“colonies” (along with a third from Japan) were put
together, and they didn’t fight. Thus, across the entire
globe, a few peaceful supercolonies could exist and
90 expand.
31. The main purpose of this passage is to:
A. describe events that led to the discovery of Argentine ants in the United States.
B. examine the physical differences between Argentine ants and other insects.
C. highlight the technology that scientists used to
determine the size of supercolonies.
D. discuss factors that contribute to a colonizing
organism’s success as an invasive species.
32. The author makes repeated use of which of the following in order to help establish the passage’s somewhat
casual tone?
F. Personal anecdotes
G. Idiomatic expressions
H. Humorous quotations
J. Self-critical asides
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3
33. Which of the following events mentioned in the passage occurred first chronologically?
A. Case joined Holway and Suarez to assist them with
an experiment.
B. Workers from three Argentine ant supercolonies in
different parts of the world were brought together.
C. Suarez found samples of Argentine ants in the
Smithsonian insect collection.
D. Holway and Ward were recruited by Suarez to
assist with his research.
37. The passage makes clear which of the following about
the ant samples Suarez found in the Smithsonian insect
collection?
A. Most of the samples were of Argentine ants.
B. Ward and Holway had collected the samples as
part of a larger study of US insect populations.
C. Suarez discovered that most of the samples were
of previously undiscovered species of ants.
D. Suarez was most interested in the samples that had
been collected at eastern US ports of entry.
34. The main purpose of the fifth paragraph (lines 41–49)
is to:
F. explain how Argentine ants are able to survive in
new areas and discuss their spread throughout the
world.
G. describe possible outcomes for a pioneering
species and stress the improbability that the
species will thrive.
H. define the concept of invasive species as it relates
to ants.
J. compare the behaviors of Argentine ants to those
of other, more successful pioneering species.
38. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of Argentine ants?
F. They are stingless.
G. They are physically dominant.
H. They were first discovered in the United States by
Suarez.
J. They have failed to thrive in Japan.
35. The author’s claim that the Argentine ant behavior
described in lines 56–58 is unusual is based upon
which of the following assumptions?
A. Supercolonies are common among several species
of ants.
B. Argentine ants in California are less aggressive
than Argentine ants elsewhere.
C. California’s ecosystem is especially suited for
Argentine ants.
D. Ants from different colonies typically fight one
another.
36. According to the passage, the question of which colonizing organisms fail and which succeed is one that has
been studied by:
F. many biologists for a number of years.
G. many biologists beginning in 1999.
H. the Smithsonian exclusively.
J. Suarez exclusively.
39. The passage indicates that compared to peaceful ants,
aggressive ants:
A. live in larger colonies.
B. spend less time gathering food.
C. are less likely to live in a colony.
D. are more likely to be a “survivor species.”
40. The passage most clearly establishes which of the following facts about ants?
F. In order for ant colonies to combine to form supercolonies, the colonies must have identical chemical badges.
G. Ants identify their home nests by flashing chemical badges.
H. Ant colonies from different species commonly
swap workers and queens.
J. The largest supercolony of ants in the world
stretches from Italy to Portugal.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
3
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
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Scoring the Additional Practice Tests
Scoring Practice Test 2
Scoring the Multiple-Choice Tests
To score each of your multiple-choice practice tests, starting with the English test, follow these
six steps:
STEP 1. Write a “1” in the blank for each question that you answered correctly. An example is
provided in the following box:
Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
Your answer was
A
J
B
G
–
1
1
–
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
English ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 2
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F
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F
B
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Taking Additional Practice Tests
Key
625
The Official ACT Prep Guide
STEP 2. Add the numbers you entered in Step 1 and write this total in the following shaded box.
This is your raw score.
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
English test (75 questions)
STEP 3. Repeat Steps 1 and 2 for the ACT mathematics, reading, and science tests using the
scoring keys on the following pages.
Mathematics ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 2
Key
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Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Mathematics test (60 questions)
626
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Scoring the Additional Practice Tests
Reading ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 2
Key
1.
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22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
A
J
B
F
C
F
B
F
B
J
C
F
B
J
Key
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
C
G
D
G
C
G
D
F
D
F
B
G
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Reading test (40 questions)
Science ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 2
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Key
B
G
D
H
D
J
A
G
A
H
B
G
D
H
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
A
F
D
F
C
J
B
F
D
H
B
J
C
J
Key
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
Key
A
J
C
H
B
G
C
G
D
F
A
F
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Science test (40 questions)
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627
Taking Additional Practice Tests
Practice Test 3
080660
EXAMINEE STATEMENT, CERTIFICATION, AND SIGNATURE
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Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
mathematics test only.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the
suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the
answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to
match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered
to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval
in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill in
the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your
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pencil.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
your mind about an answer, erase your first mark thoroughly
before marking your new answer. For each question, make
certain that you mark in the row of ovals with the same
number as the question.
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time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized for
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You may work on each test only when the testing staff
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1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
Miami Time
My family is part of the Miami
tribe a Native American people, with strong
1
ties to territory in present-day Ohio, Indiana,
and Illinois. Growing up in the Midwest, I often
1. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
tribe, a Native American, people
tribe, a Native American people
tribe; a Native American people
heard my grandmother talk about “Miami time.”
When she was doing something she loved, whether
it was making freezer jam or researching tribal history,
2
she refused to be rushed in a hurry. “I’m on Miami time
3
today,” she would say. Conversely, if we were running
late for an appointment. She would chide us by saying,
4
“Get a move on. We’re not running on Miami time today,
you know.”
2. At this point, the writer would like to provide a
glimpse into the grandmother’s interests. Given that all
the choices are true, which one best accomplishes this
purpose?
F. NO CHANGE
G. being actively involved in her pursuits,
H. things I really hope she’ll teach me one day,
J. historical research as well as domestic projects,
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
hurried or rushed.
made to go faster or rushed.
rushed.
4. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
appointment; she
appointment and she
appointment, she
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It was a difficult concept for me to grasp. My
5
grandmother tried to explain that “Miami time” referred to
those moments, when time seemed to slow down or stand
6
still. Recently, the meaning of her words started to sink in.
7
One morning, my son and I will inadvertently slip out of
8
the world measured in seconds, minutes, and hours, and
into one measured by curiosity and sensation.
1
5. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides
the best opening to this paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. I remember being late for a doctor’s appointment
one day.
C. My grandmother lived with us, and as a result she
and I became close over the years.
D. My son asks me about my grandmother, whom he
never met.
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
moments when
moments, as if
moments, because
7. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
spoken statements to my ears
expressed opinions on the matter
verbal remarks in conversation
8. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
inadvertently slip
are inadvertently slipping
inadvertently slipped
9. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
were having thoughts
thinking
DELETE the underlined portion.
10. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
does, and three fawns
does and three fawns,
does and, three fawns
Jeremy in his stroller and were thinking of the day ahead
9
and the tasks I had to complete. [2] Suddenly, he squealed
with pure delight and pointed toward a clearing. [3] There,
two does and three fawns stood watching us. [4] Five pairs
10
of ears flicked like antennae seeking a signal. [5] After a
few moments, the deer lowered their heads and began to
Taking Additional Practice Tests
[1] On a familiar trail near our house, I was pushing
eat, as if they had decided we were harmless. [6] By then,
my son’s face was full of wonder.
We spent the rest of the morning veering from the
trail to investigate small snatches of life. Lizards lazing
in the sun and quail rustled through grasses surprised us.
12
Wild blackberries melted on our tongues. For example, the
13
aroma of crushed eucalyptus leaves tingled in our noses.
11. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, Sentence 3 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 1.
D. after Sentence 4.
12. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
rustling
were rustling
DELETE the underlined portion.
13. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
On the other hand, the
Just in case, the
The
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1
By the time we found our way back to the car, the sun
was high in the sky. We had taken three hours to complete
a hike we usually finished in forty-five minutes. Yet the
hike felt shorter then ever. As we drove off, I remembered
14
something else my grandmother used to say: “Miami time
passes all too quickly.”
14. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
more shorter then
the shortest than
shorter than
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
15. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief
essay conveying a personal experience with “Miami
time.” Would this essay successfully fulfill that goal?
A. Yes, because it presents the narrator’s firsthand
experience of a morning spent in Miami time.
B. Yes, because it reveals that after a conversation
with the grandmother, the narrator decided to live
in Miami time.
C. No, because it shares the views of more than one
person with regard to the meaning of Miami time.
D. No, because the term “Miami time” belonged to
the grandmother, not to the narrator.
PASSAGE II
Faith Ringgold’s Quilting Bee
The artist Faith Ringgold has made a name for herself
with her “story quilts,” lively combinations of painting,
quilting, and storytelling. Each artwork consists of a
painting framed by quilted squares of fabric and story
panels. One of these artworks, The Sunflowers Quilting
Bee at Arles, depicts a scene of women at work on a quilt
in a field of towering yellow flowers that eight African
16
American women sit around the quilt that covers their laps.
Who are these people stitching among the flowers? What
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
flowers and eight
flowers. Eight
flowers, eight
brings them so close that their shoulders touch?
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Thus, the answers to these questions can
17
be found in the artwork itself. Ringgold has told
the story of this gathering on two horizontal panels of text.
18
One panel is sewn into the piece’s top border,
the other into it’s bottom border. These eight
19
women the story explains, strove
20
18. F. NO CHANGE
G. of this gathering the story on two horizontal panels
of text.
H. on two horizontal panels the story of this gathering
of text.
J. the story on two horizontal panels of text of this
gathering.
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
its’
its
their
20. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
women, the story explains—
women the story explains—
women, the story explains,
the cause of justice in the world.
In reality, these women never met to piece together
22
a quilt. The scene comes out of the artists imagination as
23
a statement of the unity of purpose that she perceives in
their lives. Sojourner Truth and Harriet Tubman fought
to abolish slavery and, later, was active in the crusade
24
for suffrage. Newspaper journalist Ida B. Wells
courageously spoke out for social and racial justice
in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
22. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
summary,
addition,
contrast,
23. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
artist’s imagination
artists’ imagination
artists imagination,
24. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
was actively engaged
was engaged
were active
Taking Additional Practice Tests
21
25
NO CHANGE
Instead, the
Furthermore, the
The
21. The underlined phrase could be placed in all the following locations EXCEPT:
A. where it is now.
B. after the word support.
C. after the word cause.
D. after the word world (ending the sentence with a
period).
in their various ways to support
25
17. A.
B.
C.
D.
1
25. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides
the most relevant information at this point in the
essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. married Ferdinand Barnett, editor of the first Black
newspaper in Chicago, the Chicago Conservator.
C. wrote for newspapers in Memphis, New York City,
and finally, Chicago.
D. was born in Holly Springs, Mississippi, in 1862,
the eldest of eight children.
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Establishing her own hair products business, herself
in the first decade of the twentieth century,
26
millions of dollars were later bequeathed by Madam
27
C. J. Walker to charities and educational institutions.
27
Among the schools that benefited from this
generosity, were those that Mary McLeod Bethune
28
opened and ran in order to provide a better education
for Black students. And Fannie Lou Hamer, Ella Baker,
26. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
business belonging to her
business, herself,
business
1
27. A. NO CHANGE
B. Madam C. J. Walker later bequeathed millions of
dollars to charities and educational institutions.
C. charities and educational institutions later received
millions of dollars from Madam C. J. Walker.
D. millions of dollars were later bequeathed to charities and educational institutions by Madam C. J.
Walker.
28. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
generosity; were
generosity were
generosity were:
29. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
movement, it took place in
movement, that happened in
movement of
and Rosa Parks showed leadership and strength during the
civil rights movement, it happened in the 1950s and 1960s.
29
In the artwork, Ringgold has surrounded these women
with bright sunflowers. The flowers seem to celebrate the
women’s accomplishments and the beauty of their shared
30. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
essay would primarily lose:
F. an interpretation of the artwork that serves to summarize the essay.
G. a reflection on the women depicted in the artwork
that compares them to Ringgold.
H. a description of a brushwork technique that refers
back to the essay’s opening.
J. an evaluation of Ringgold’s artistic talent that
places her in a historical context.
vision.
PASSAGE III
1902: A Space Odyssey
Our technologically advanced times has allowed
31
filmmakers to create spectacular science fiction films to
intrigue us with worlds beyond our experience. Imagine
the excitement in 1902 when audiences first saw Le Voyage
32
dans la lune (A Trip to the Moon), a groundbreaking movie
produced by Georges Méliès.
31. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
have allowed
allows
was allowing
32. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
1902, and when
1902, which
1902, where
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1
[1] Undaunted, Méliès honed his photographic
skills to tell fantasy stories instead. [2] Méliès, a French
magician, was fascinated by the workings of the new
motion picture camera. [3] Specializing in stage illusions,
he thought the camera offered potential to expand
33
was working with the new invention. [5] He found
out, however, that the public preferred live magic
34
acts to filmed versions.
Méliès’s magician’s eye led him to discover the basics
of special effects.
He experimented with effects such
as speeding up and slowing down the action, reversing it
for backward movement, and superimposing images of
fantastic creatures over real people. Using overhead
pulleys and trapdoors, he was able to do interesting things.
37
Aware of the popularity of Jules Verne’s science
fiction novels, Méliès saw exciting possibilities in filming
a space odyssey. The interplanetary travel film that he
created, A Trip to the Moon, had production costs of
$4,000, highly excessively for its time. In this film, a space
38
capsule that is fired and thereby launched and projected
39
from a cannon lands in the eye of the Man in the Moon.
33. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
their
his
it’s
34. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
out, however;
out, however
out however,
35. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, Sentence 1 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. after Sentence 2.
C. after Sentence 3.
D. after Sentence 5.
36. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence from the essay. The sentence should NOT be
deleted because it:
F. describes Méliès’s ability as a magician, which is
important to understanding the essay.
G. begins to explain the techniques of trick photography that Méliès eventually learned.
H. creates a transition that provides a further connection between Méliès the magician and Méliès the
filmmaker.
J. indicates that Méliès’s interest in learning about
trick photography existed before his interest in
magic.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
its spectacular magic productions. [4] By 1895, he
37. Given that all the choices are true, which one would
best conclude this sentence so that it illustrates
Méliès’s skill and inventiveness?
A. NO CHANGE
B. he used effects commonly seen in his stage
productions.
C. his actors could enter and leave the scene.
D. he perfected eerie film entrances and exits.
38. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
exceeding highly
high excessively
exceedingly high
39. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
fired
fired from and consequently projected
fired and thereby propelled
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In a strange terrain filled with hostile creatures, the
40
space travelers experience many adventures. They
escape back to Earth in the capsule by falling off the
edge of the moon, landing in the ocean, they bob
41
around until a passing ship finally rescues them.
Producing the film long before
interplanetary explorations had began,
42
Méliès could arouse his audience’s
43
curiosity with unconstrained fantasy.
People are still going to theaters to see
44
science fiction films.
44
40. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
creatures, who they now realize live there,
creatures, whom they are encountering,
creatures who are found there,
41. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
moon after landing
moon. Landing
moon, after landing
42. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
would of begun,
have began,
had begun,
1
43. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
word would be LEAST acceptable?
A. whet
B. stimulate
C. awaken
D. disturb
44. Given that all the choices are true, which one would
most effectively express the writer’s viewpoint about
Méliès’s role in science fiction filmmaking?
F. NO CHANGE
G. This first space odyssey provided the genesis for a
film genre that still packs theaters.
H. Méliès made an important contribution to filmmaking many years ago.
J. In Méliès’s production even the film crew knew a
lot about space.
Question 45 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
45. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief
essay highlighting the contributions a single artist can
make to a particular art form. Would this essay fulfill
that goal?
A. Yes, because the essay asserts that Méliès’s work
as a magician never would have succeeded without
the contributions of the artists in the film industry.
B. Yes, because the essay presents Méliès as a magician who used his talents and curiosity to explore
and excel in the film world.
C. No, because the essay focuses on the process of
making science fiction films, not on a single
artist’s work.
D. No, because the essay suggests that it took many
artists working together to create the success that
Méliès enjoyed.
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1
PASSAGE IV
Nancy Drew in the Twenty-First Century
I thought the Nancy Drew mystery series had
46
today would have more up-to-date role models and my
generation’s favorite sleuth would of been retired to the
47
library’s dusty, back rooms. I was wrong.
48
Nancy Drew, the teenaged heroine of heaps of young
49
adult mystery novels, is alive and well and still on the job.
50
I know because my niece, Liana, and her friends were
reading that all summer long. By the time Liana went back
51
to school and had followed Nancy Drew on a safari to
52
solve The Spider Sapphire Mystery and had explored Incan
53
ruins for clues to The Secret of the Crossword Cipher.
With Nancy’s help, Liana had read about different
54
places and various cultures all over the world.
54
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
gone out of
went from
gone from
47. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
would have been
would of
DELETE the underlined portion.
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
libraries dusty,
libraries dusty
library’s dusty
49. Which choice provides the most specific information?
A. NO CHANGE
B. a high number
C. hundreds
D. plenty
50. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
novels, is alive,
novels is alive,
novels is alive
51. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
the mysteries
up on that
it over
52. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
school, she had
school, having
school, she
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
solve:
solve;
solve,
Taking Additional Practice Tests
went out of style. I was sure that girls growing up
54. Given that all the choices are true, which one best
illustrates the variety of settings for the Nancy Drew
mysteries and also expresses Liana’s interest in these
books?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Along with Nancy, Liana had many breathtaking
adventures involving all sorts of colorful characters.
H. With Nancy in the lead, Liana had chased suspects
from Arizona to Argentina, from Nairobi to New
York.
J. Through her exposure to Nancy, Liana learned
about many new places around the world.
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1
When I was a girl in the 1960s,
my friends and I loved Nancy Drew.
We loved her loyal companions, her bravado, and
there was a love for her freedom to do what she wanted.
56
We also loved how smart she was and how pretty, how
57
confident and successful. We were surprised and delighted
that eighteen-year-old Nancy was so accomplished at so
many things. She was able to solve crimes, win golf
58
tournaments, kick bad guys in the shins, and impress her
father’s distinguished clients. She did it all—and without
55. At this point, the writer is thinking about adding the
following true statement:
One of a number of series that have featured
the young female detective, the Nancy Drew
Mystery Story series was begun in 1930 and
now totals 173 books.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it supports statements about the
longevity and popularity of this series.
B. Yes, because it helps to explain why the narrator
“loved Nancy Drew.”
C. No, because it distracts the reader from the main
focus of this paragraph.
D. No, because it fails to include relevant information
about the author of the series.
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
a love for her freedom to do what she wanted.
her freedom to do what she wanted.
the freedom to do as one wants.
57. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would be LEAST acceptable?
A. furthermore
B. therefore
C. likewise
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
58. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
was capable of solving crimes,
was good at crime solving,
solved crimes,
scuffing her shoes or losing her supportive boyfriend, Ned.
Liana and her friends don’t seem to care that Nancy is
pretty or popular. They laugh, mockingly I think, at
Nancy’s friend Bess, who squeals at spiders. They prefer
her other girlfriend George, the judo expert and computer
whiz. They skip over the long descriptions of outfits and
fashion accessories. According to Liana, they just want to
get on with the story.
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Perhaps I am overly optimistic, but I’d like to believe
that Liana’s generation doesn’t love Nancy Drew because
she’s a successful girl detective. They don’t need to be
reminded that girls can be successful they know that.
59
What these girls need and love are the stories themselves:
those exciting adventure tales spiced with mystery.
60
59. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
successful they already know
successful; they know
successful, knowing
60. Which choice most effectively supports the point being
made in the first part of this sentence?
F. NO CHANGE
G. the answers to the mysteries of their lives.
H. a strong role model for their generation.
J. the ability to overcome obstacles.
PASSAGE V
Visiting Mars on a Budget
With its distinctive red tint and its polar ice caps,
the planet Mars has fascinated humans for thousands
61
who associated Mars with their war god Negral, to
twentieth-century science fiction writers
whose works become best-sellers, this planet
62
has often been a symbol of ill will and danger.
The United States has competed with other countries
63
to explore space. By 2003, the National Aeronautics and
63
Space Administration (NASA) would of sent thirty
64
spacecraft to the red planet, speculation has been prompted
65
that a human voyage may no longer be the stuff of fiction.
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
When
From
Those
Taking Additional Practice Tests
of years. There were ancient Babylonian astronomers
62. Given that all the choices are true, which one is most
relevant to the statement that follows in this sentence?
F. NO CHANGE
G. with their wild imaginations about outer space,
H. who penned spine-tingling stories of “little green
men from Mars,”
J. who created images of Mars in literature,
63. Given that all the choices are true, which one best
leads from the preceding paragraph to the subject of
this paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Today, such negative associations seem to be
dissipating.
C. In 1958, the United States founded an agency to
run its space program.
D. Earth and Mars are both planets in the inner solar
system.
64. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
had sent
send
have sent
65. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
to which speculation has prompted
prompting speculation
which is speculation
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1
Few would deny that the idea of a human mission to Mars
66
is exciting, who is ready to pay for such an expedition?
Recent reports suggest that the cost of a human
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Maybe a few
Although few
Few, if any,
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
yet
yet:
yet—
1
voyage to Mars could run as high as 100 billion dollars.
This is a startling number, especially in light of the fact
that the International Space Station, the most ambitious
NASA project yet, carried a projected price tag of “only”
67
17 billion dollars. In the end, NASA overspent on the
International Space Station.
One can only imagine
if the final price of a human voyage to Mars would be.
69
In contrast, the two Mars Rovers—
robotic spacecraft launched in 2003—carried
70
a combined price tag of less than one billion
dollars. These Rovers are sophisticated pieces of
technology, with the capacity and ability to examine soil
71
and rocks. Their equipment may answer questions that
have long been posed about the presence of water and life
68. The writer is considering adding the following true
information to the end of the preceding sentence (placing a comma after the word Station):
with a final construction cost of almost 30 billion dollars.
Should the writer make this addition?
F. Yes, because it strengthens the assertion made in
this sentence by adding explicit detail.
G. Yes, because it proves space flight will be more
affordable in the future.
H. No, because it weakens the point made in the paragraph about the cost of human flight to Mars.
J. No, because it detracts from the essay’s focus on
the human experience in travel to Mars.
69. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
what
how
DELETE the underlined portion.
70. Given that all the choices are true, which one most
effectively describes what the Mars Rovers are?
F. NO CHANGE
G. which captured the imagination of the general
public—
H. the products described at length in the media—
J. familiar to many who watched the news coverage
at the time—
71. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
genuine capacity
potential capacity
capacity
on Mars.
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1
1
Sending machines unaccompanied by humans to
Mars does drain some of the romance out of aging or older
72
visions of space travel. In other words, we need to keep in
73
mind that the right equipment can accomplish as much as
any crew of scientists, if not more—such as a fraction of
74
the cost. Before any astronaut boards a spacecraft for that
distant planet, the staggering expense of such a mission
NO CHANGE
old age
aging old
age-old
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
For that reason alone,
In that time frame,
Even so,
74. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
at
but only
DELETE the underlined portion.
75. The writer is considering ending the essay with the following statement:
With the passage of time, humans will continue to gaze in awe toward the heavenly skies
as a source of inspiration and mystery.
Should the writer add this sentence here?
A. Yes, because it captures the emotion that is the
basis for the space exploration described in the
essay.
B. Yes, because it invites the reader to reflect on the
insignificance of money in relation to the mystery
of space.
C. No, because it does not logically follow the
essay’s chronological history of people who traveled in space.
D. No, because it strays too far from the essay’s focus
on Mars and the cost of sending humans there.
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should be carefully considered.
72. F.
G.
H.
J.
END OF TEST 1
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3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the novel The
Fisher King by Paule Marshall (©2000 by Paule Marshall).
It was nearing the end of the second set, the jazz
show winding down when Hattie heard Abe Kaiser at
the microphone call Everett Payne’s name. Heard his
name and, to her surprise, saw him slowly stand up in
5 the bullpen up front. She hadn’t seen him join the other
local musicians, including Shades Bowen with his tenor
sax, in what was called the bullpen, which was simply a
dozen or so chairs grouped near the bandstand. The
young locals gathered there each Sunday evening,
10 hoping for a chance to perform. Because toward the end
of the final set, the custom was to invite one or two of
them to sit in with the band. They sometimes even got
to choose the tune they wanted to play.
This Sunday, Everett Payne, not long out of the
15 army, was the one being invited to sit in.
Breath held, Hattie watched him separate himself
from the hopefuls and approach the stand, taking his
time, moving with what almost seemed a deliberate
pause between each step. The crowd waiting.
That was his way, Hattie knew. His body moving
absentmindedly through space, his head, his thoughts
on something other than his surroundings, and his eyes
like a curtain he occasionally drew aside a fraction of
an inch to peer out at the world. A world far less inter25 esting than the music inside his head.
20
She watched now as he slowly mounted the bandstand and conferred with the bassist and drummer,
those two were all he would need. Then, without
announcing the name of the tune he intended playing,
30 without in any way acknowledging the audience, he sat
down at the piano and brought his hands—large hands,
the fingers long and splayed and slightly arched—down
on the opening bars of “Sonny Boy Blue.”
“Sonny Boy Blue!” That hokey-doke tune!
35
Around her, the purists looked askance at each
other from behind their regulation shades and slouched
deeper in their chairs in open disgust.
At first, hokey though it was, he played the song
straight through as written, the rather long introduction,
40 verse, and chorus. And he did so with great care,
although at a slower tempo than was called for and with
a formality that lent the Tin Pan Alley tune a depth and
thoughtfulness no one else would have accorded it.
Quickly taking their cue from him, the bassist
45 reached for his bow, the drummer for his brushes, the
two of them also treating the original as if it were a
serious piece of music.
Everett Payne took his time paying his respects to
the tune as written, and once that was done, he hunched
50 closer to the piano, angled his head sharply to the left,
completely closed the curtain of his gaze, and with his
hands commanding the length and breadth of the keyboard he unleashed a dazzling pyrotechnic of chords
(you could almost see their colors), polyrhythms, seem55 ingly unrelated harmonies, and ideas—fresh, brash,
outrageous ideas. It was an outpouring of ideas and
feelings informed by his own brand of lyricism and lit
from time to time by flashes of the recognizable
melody. He continued to acknowledge the little simple60 minded tune, while at the same time furiously recasting
and reinventing it in an image all his own.
A collective in-suck of breath throughout the club.
Where, Hattie wondered, did he come by the dazzling array of ideas and wealth of feeling? What was
65 the source? It had to do, she speculated, listening
intently, with the way he held his head, angled to the
left like that, tilted toward both heaven and earth. His
right side, his right ear directed skyward, hearing up
there, in the Upper Room among the stars Mahalia sang
70 about, a new kind of music: splintered, atonal, profane,
and possessing a wonderful dissonance that spoke to
him, to his soul-case. For him, this was the true music
of the spheres, of the maelstrom up there. When at the
piano, he kept his right ear tuned to it at all times, let75 ting it guide him, inspire him. His other ear? It
remained earthbound, trained on the bedrock that for
him was Bach and the blues.
Again and again he took them on a joyous, terrifying roller coaster of a ride it seemed to Hattie, and
80 when he finally deposited them on terra firma after
close to twenty minutes, everyone in Putnam Royal
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could only sit there as if they were in church and
weren’t supposed to clap. Overcome. Until finally
Alvin Edwards, who lived on Decatur Street and played
85 trumpet in the school band, leaped to his feet and
renamed him.
Alvin brought everyone up with him. Including the
purists who normally refused to applaud even genius.
They too stood up in languid praise of him.
1. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
Shades Bowen:
A. did not accompany Everett Payne as he played
“Sonny Boy Blue.”
B. had been in the army with Everett Payne.
C. was the oldest musician in the bullpen.
D. did not usually allow the local musicians to play
with the band.
2. The main purpose of the statement in line 62 is to:
F. illustrate the high expectations the audience initially had for Everett Payne’s performance.
G. inform the reader of the audience’s reaction to
Everett Payne’s performance.
H. counteract the narrator’s description of Everett
Payne’s performance.
J. provide proof that Everett Payne was well known
to the audience.
3. The passage most strongly suggests that the second set
of the jazz shows at the club is:
A. the final set.
B. much longer than the first set.
C. followed by a third set on Sunday nights.
D. performed solely by the musicians in the bullpen.
4. Which of the following details is used in the passage to
indicate how the purists in the audience initially
reacted to Everett Payne’s choice of music?
F. The overall silence of the audience, including the
purists
G. The description of the audience’s collective insuck of breath
H. The posture the purists assumed in their seats
J. The fact that the purists stood up
3
5. According to the narrator, what did Hattie see Everett
Payne do prior to playing “Sonny Boy Blue”?
A. Move quickly from his seat to the bandstand
B. Study the audience around him
C. Confer with the bassist and the drummer
D. Announce the name of the tune he was going to
play
6. The passage initially portrays the purists most nearly
as:
F. knowledgeable and open minded.
G. snobbish and intolerant.
H. rational and well educated.
J. inexperienced and uninhibited.
7. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
Hattie believed Bach and the blues were the:
A. musical influences that Everett Payne tried to
avoid representing when he played piano.
B. foundation of Everett Payne’s inventive piano
playing.
C. true music of the heavens that inspired Everett
Payne’s creativity as a piano player.
D. reason why Everett Payne’s piano-playing abilities
limited him to Tin Pan Alley tunes.
8. According to the passage, when Everett Payne first
played “Sonny Boy Blue” straight through, he did so:
F. more slowly than was intended by the composer.
G. after it had been suggested by Abe Kaiser.
H. against the wishes of the bassist and drummer.
J. without following the original tune.
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3
9. According to the passage, Hattie speculated that the
source of Everett Payne’s musical ideas and feelings
during “Sonny Boy Blue” was in:
A. the way he tilted his head.
B. the simplemindedness of the song.
C. his ability to play with great formality.
D. his connection with the silent audience.
10. The narrator states that to Hattie, Everett Payne’s performance was:
F. overly slow and formal.
G. deliberate yet absentminded.
H. like a song played in a church.
J. a roller coaster of a ride.
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3
Passage II
50 fringe into the countryside—is driven largely by the
American dream of a detached home in the middle of a
grassy lawn. Developers frequently claim they can
build more “affordable” housing on the edge of town—
but “affordable” for whom?
SOCIAL S TUDIES : This passage is adapted from Richard
Moe’s article “Mindless Madness Called Sprawl,” based on a
speech he gave on November 30, 1996, in Fresno, California
(©1996 by Richard Moe).
At the time he gave the speech, Moe was president of the
National Trust for Historic Preservation.
Drive down any highway leading into any town in
the country, and what do you see? Fast-food outlets,
office parks and shopping malls rising out of vast
barren plains of asphalt. Residential subdivisions
5 spreading like inkblots obliterating forests and farms in
their relentless march across the landscape. Cars
moving sluggishly down the broad ribbons of pavement
or halting in frustrated clumps at choked intersections.
You see communities drowning in a destructive, soul10 less, ugly mess called sprawl.
Many of us have developed a frightening form of
selective blindness that allows us to pass by the
appalling mess without really seeing it. We’ve allowed
our communities to be destroyed bit by bit, and most of
15 us have shrugged off this destruction as “the price of
progress.”
Development that destroys communities isn’t
progress. It’s chaos. And it isn’t inevitable, it’s merely
easy. Too many developers follow standard formulas,
20 and too many government entities have adopted laws
and policies that constitute powerful incentives for
sprawl.
Why is an organization like the National Trust for
Historic Preservation so concerned about sprawl?
25 We’re concerned because sprawl devastates older communities, leaving historic buildings and neighborhoods
underused, poorly maintained or abandoned. We’ve
learned that we can’t hope to revitalize these communities without doing something to control the sprawl that
30 keeps pushing further and further out from the center.
But our concern goes beyond that, because preservation today is about more than bricks and mortar.
There’s a growing body of grim evidence to support our
belief that the destruction of traditional downtowns and
35 older neighborhoods—places that people care about—is
corroding the very sense of community that helps bind
us together as a people and as a nation.
One form of sprawl—retail development that
transforms roads into strip malls—is frequently spurred
40 on by discount retailers, many of whom are now concentrating on the construction of superstores with more
than 200,000 square feet of space. In many small
towns, a single new superstore may have more retail
space than the entire downtown business district. When
45 a store like that opens, the retail center of gravity shifts
away from Main Street. Downtown becomes a ghost
town.
Sprawl’s other most familiar form—spread-out
residential subdivisions that “leapfrog” from the urban
The developer’s own expenses may be less, and
the home buyer may find the prices attractive—but who
picks up the extra costs of fire and police protection,
new roads and new utility infrastructure in these outlying areas? We all do, in the form of higher taxes for
60 needless duplication of services and infrastructure that
already exist in older parts of our cities and towns.
55
People who say that sprawl is merely the natural
product of marketplace forces at work fail to recognize
that the game isn’t being played on a level field. Gov65 ernment at every level is riddled with policies that mandate or encourage sprawl.
By prohibiting mixed uses and mandating inordinate amounts of parking and unreasonable setback
requirements, most current zoning laws make it impos70 sible—even illegal—to create the sort of compact
walkable environment that attracts us to older neighborhoods and historic communities all over the world.
These codes are a major reason why 82 percent of all
trips in the United States are taken by car. The average
75 American household now allocates more than 18 percent of its budget to transportation expenses, most of
which are auto-related. That’s more than it spends for
food and three times more than it spends for health
care.
Our communities should be shaped by choice, not
by chance. One of the most effective ways to reach this
goal is to insist on sensible land-use planning. The way
we zone and design our communities either opens up or
forecloses alternatives to the automobile. Municipali85 ties should promote downtown housing and mixed-use
zoning that reduce the distances people must travel
between home and work. The goal should be an integrated system of planning decisions and regulations
that knit communities together instead of tearing them
90 apart. We should demand land-use planning that
exhibits a strong bias in favor of existing communities.
80
11. The principal aim of the passage can best be classified
as:
A. persuasive.
B. explanatory.
C. descriptive.
D. narrative.
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12. Among the following quotations from the passage, the
one that best summarizes what the author would like to
see happen is:
F. “laws and policies that constitute powerful incentives for sprawl” (lines 20–22).
G. “the destruction of traditional downtowns”
(line 34).
H. “‘affordable’ housing on the edge of town”
(line 53).
J. “an integrated system of planning decisions and
regulations” (lines 87–88).
13. The last paragraph differs from the first paragraph in
that in the last paragraph the author:
A. asks a question and then answers it.
B. uses more statistics to support his arguments.
C. incorporates more emotional language.
D. offers solutions rather than stating a problem.
14. In the passage, the author answers all of the following
questions EXCEPT:
F. How long has sprawl been happening in US
cities?
G. Is development synonymous with progress?
H. What is one major reason that people in the United
States use automobiles so much?
J. What should communities do to combat sprawl?
15. The author states that one superstore may do all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. have more retail space than an entire downtown.
B. lead to serious downtown renovations.
C. make the downtown area into a ghost town.
D. shift the center of gravity away from downtown.
3
16. The statistics cited by the author in the tenth paragraph
(lines 67–79) are used to illustrate the concept that:
F. allowing mixed uses of land leads to environmental destruction.
G. current zoning laws help create a compact, walkable environment.
H. land-use regulations now in effect increase the
overall costs of transportation.
J. Americans spend too much of their budgets on
food and health care.
17. One form of sprawl the author describes is retail development that:
A. adjoins existing downtown areas.
B. utilizes historic buildings.
C. turns roads into strip malls.
D. promotes a sense of community around a superstore.
18. As it is used in line 51, the word detached most nearly
means:
F. objective.
G. set apart.
H. broken apart.
J. taken away.
19. The author uses the statement “The game isn’t being
played on a level field” (line 64) most nearly to mean
that:
A. cities needlessly duplicate essential services.
B. higher taxes for some people make their lives
more difficult.
C. marketplace forces are at work.
D. governmental decisions influence marketplace
forces.
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20. The phrase mixed uses (line 67) most likely refers to:
F. having large parking lots around even larger
stores.
G. preserving and restoring historic neighborhoods.
H. ensuring that automobiles cannot be driven to the
various local businesses.
J. allowing one area to contain various types of
development.
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3
Passage III
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the essay “My
Life with a Field Guide” by Diana Kappel-Smith (©2002 by Phi
Beta Kappa Society).
I was seventeen when it started. My family was on
vacation, and one day we went on a nature walk led by
a young man a few years older than I. Probably I
wanted to get his attention—I’m sure I did—so I
5 pointed to a flower and asked, “What’s that?”
“Hmmm? Oh, just an aster,” he said.
Was there a hint of a sniff as he turned away?
There was! It was just an aster and I was just a total
ignoramus!
10
And I remember the aster. Its rays were a brilliant
purple, its core a dense coin of yellow velvet. It focused
light as a crystal will. It faced the sun; it was the sun’s
echo.
Later that day, a book with a green cover lay on
15 the arm of a chair under an apple tree. It was the same
volume that our guide had carried as he marched us
through the woods. The book had been left there, by
itself. It was a thing of power. In the thin summer
shadow of the tree, quivering, like a veil, the book was
20 revealed, and I reached for it. A FIELD GUIDE TO
WILD FLOWERS—PETERSON & McKENNY, its
cover said. Its backside was ruled like a measuring
tape, its inside was full of drawings of flowers. By the
end of that week I had my own copy. I have it still.
Why I persisted in carrying it around and consulting its crowded pages at every opportunity, I have no
idea. The book was stubborn; well, I was stubborn, too;
55 that was part of it. And I had no choice, really, not if I
wanted to get in. A landscape may be handsome in the
aggregate, but this book led to the particulars, and
that’s what I wanted. A less complete guide would have
been easier to start with, but more frustrating in the
60 end. A more complete book would have been impossible for me to use. So I persisted in wrestling with the
Peterson’s, and thus by slow degrees the crowd of plant
stuff in the world became composed of individuals.
As it did, the book changed: its cover was stained by
65 water and snack food, the spine grew invitingly lax, and
some of the margins sprouted cryptic annotations.
By the time the next summer came, I had fully discovered the joy of the hunt, and every new species had
its trophy of data—name and place and date—to be
70 jotted down. If I’d found a flower before, I was happy
to see it again. I often addressed it with enthusiasm: Hi
there, Solidago hispida! I discovered early on that a
plant’s Latin name is a name of power by which the
plant can be uniquely identified among different spoken
75 tongues, across continents, and through time. The
genus name lashes it firmly to its closest kin, while its
species name describes a personal attribute—rubrum
meaning red, officinale meaning medicinal, odoratus
meaning smelly, and so on. It all makes such delightful
80 sense!
30
My friend Julie and I identified individual plants
in our rambles, but from the particulars we began to
know wholes. Bogs held one community, montane
forests held another, and the plants they held in
85 common were clues to intricate dramas of climate
change and continental drift. So from plant communities it followed that the grand schemes of things, when
they came our way, arrived rooted in real place and personal experience: quaternary geology, biogeography,
90 evolutionary biology all lay on the road that we had
begun to travel.
I had already figured out the business of the
book’s colored tabs. I turned in an authoritative way to
40 the Yellow part and began to flip through. By the time
the last of my friends had disappeared up the trail, I’d
arrived at a page where things looked right. Five
petals? Yes. Pinnate leaves? Whatever. Buttercup?
There are, amazingly, eleven buttercups. Who would
45 have thought? However hard I tried to make it so, my
item was not one of them. Next page. Aha! this looked
more like it. Bushy cinquefoil? Nope, leaves not quiiite
right, are they? As the gnats descended, I noticed that
there were six more pages ahead, each packed with
50 five-petaled yellow flowers—St. Johnsworts, loosestrifes, puccoons.
21. The passage is best described as being told from the
point of view of someone who is:
A. tracing her developing interest in identifying flowers and in the natural world.
B. reexamining the event that led her to a lifelong
fascination with asters.
C. reviewing her relationships with people who have
shared her interest in flowers.
D. describing how her hobby of identifying flowers
became a profitable career.
25
Over the next several years this field guide would
become my closest companion, a slice of worldview, as
indispensable as eyes or hands. I didn’t arrive at this
intimacy right away, however. This wasn’t going to be
an easy affair for either of us.
I’ll give you an example of how it went. After I’d
owned the Peterson’s for about a week, I went on a hike
with some friends up a little mountain, taking the book
along. Halfway up the mountain, there by the trailside
was a yellow flower, a nice opportunity to take my new
35 guide for a test drive. “Go on ahead!” I said to my
hiking companions, “I’ll be a minute . . .” Famous last
words.
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22. As portrayed by the author, the young man responded
to her question about the flower with what is best
described as:
F. acceptance.
G. surprise.
H. condescension.
J. anger.
23. What name, if any, does the author report assigning to
the yellow flower she came across during a mountain
hike?
A. St. Johnswort
B. Loosestrife
C. Puccoon
D. The passage doesn’t name the flower.
24. Looking back at her early experiences with the
Peterson’s, the author most strongly implies that the
guide was:
F. daunting at first, but in retrospect preferable to
either a more or a less complete guide.
G. easy to use in the beginning, but more frustrating
in the end than a more complete guide would have
been.
H. impossible for her to follow until she started pairing it with a different guide written for beginners.
J. appealing initially until she realized how poorly
illustrated its crowded pages were.
25. As it is used in line 56, the phrase get in most nearly
means:
A. arrive at a physical location.
B. be chosen for group membership.
C. truly understand the subject.
D. be friendly with someone.
26. The passage best supports which of the following conclusions about Julie?
F. She has more experience than the author has in
identifying flowers.
G. She owns a house that’s close to either a bog or a
montane forest.
H. She sees value in understanding the various communities of plants.
J. She stopped using the Peterson’s as her primary
source of flower information.
3
27. The author states that the Peterson’s became her closest companion over a period of several:
A. days.
B. weeks.
C. months.
D. years.
28. In the context of the passage, the author’s statement in
lines 56–58 most nearly means that she:
F. learned to understand landscapes by looking at
their overall patterns rather than their details.
G. found that landscapes lost their appeal the more
she tried to understand them logically.
H. hoped to paint attractive portraits of landscapes by
paying careful attention to details.
J. sought a deeper knowledge of landscapes through
learning about their individual parts.
29. The details in lines 64–66 primarily serve to suggest
the:
A. poor craftsmanship the publishing company used
in producing the Peterson’s.
B. transformation the author’s copy of the Peterson’s
underwent as a result of heavy use.
C. strange writing the author often encountered in
reading the Peterson’s.
D. carelessness with which the author used the
Peterson’s, much to her later regret.
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3
30. The author refers to Solidago hispida as an example of
a flower that she:
F. had great trouble identifying the first time she
stumbled upon it.
G. hopes to finally come across on one of her nature
walks.
H. was pleased to encounter again after she had
learned to identify it.
J. feels has an inappropriate name given the plant’s
characteristics.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
515
The Official ACT Prep Guide
3
3
Passage IV
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
“When Research Is a Snow Job” by Sarah Boyle (©2002 by
National Wildlife).
The figure is beyond comprehension: Every year,
1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 (1 septillion)
snowflakes fall worldwide. As the crystals fall, they
encounter different atmospheric conditions that produce
5 flakes with unique attributes. The more complex those
conditions are, the more elaborate the crystals.
Kenneth Libbrecht is a physicist at the California
Institute of Technology. Along with the work of scientists at the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Agricul10 tural Research Service (ARS), his research is
uncovering new information about the magical world of
snow crystals—information that has practical applications in such diverse areas as agriculture and the production of electricity.
Snow crystals are individual crystals—usually in a
hexagonal form—while snowflakes are collections of
two or more snow crystals. Beginning as condensed
water vapor, a crystal typically grows around a nucleus
of dust. Its shape depends on how the six side facets—
20 or faces—grow in relation to the top and bottom facets.
If they grow relatively tall, the crystal appears columnlike; if the side facets are short compared to the length
of the bottom and top facets, the crystal looks platelike.
15
Currently Libbrecht is trying to crack the problem
25 of why the crystal facets’ growth varies with tempera-
ture. He believes this may have something to do with
the ice surface’s “quasi-liquid” layer, which affects how
water molecules stick to the surface.
By manipulating the temperature and humidity
30 within an incubation chamber (and by adding an elec-
tric current or various gases at times), Libbrecht creates
“designer” snowflakes in his lab. Such experiments are
helping him determine how crystals form.
William Wergin, a retired ARS research biologist,
had any applications for his research. Rango now uses
Wergin’s electron microscopy data, along with
microwave satellite data, in the Snowmelt Runoff
55 Model to predict the amount of water available in a
winter snowpack. For western states such as Colorado,
Montana, Utah and Wyoming, about 75 percent of the
annual water supply comes from snowmelt. Snowmelt
water is critical to crop irrigation and hydroelectric
60 power, as well as recreation and domestic water supplies, fisheries management and flood control.
Before employing the scanning electron microscopy results, the forecasted amounts of snowpack water
were inaccurate whenever the size and shape of the
65 snow crystals varied much from the norm. “The more
we know about crystals,” notes Rango, “the easier it
will be to use microwave satellite data for predictions
of the snow water equivalent.”
Currently, forecasts using the model are about
percent accurate. A 1980 study estimated that
improving the prediction by 1 percent would save
$38 million in irrigation and hydropower in the western
United States.
70 90
Rango is also looking ahead at climate change pre-
75 dictions. “Following the estimates that have been made
about what will happen by 2100, things are definitely
warming up,” he says. Temperature increases will
likely result in a reduction in stream flow as overall
snow accumulation decreases, winter precipitation runs
80 off as rain, and water evaporates at a quicker rate. The
gap between water supply and demand will magnify
even more, greatly increasing water’s economic value,
anticipates Rango.
Not only does the crystal research help gauge
85 snowmelt, it is also useful in predicting avalanches,
designing artificial snow, and, perhaps in the near
future, examining air pollution. “You can put snow in a
scanning electron microscope and tell which elements
are present, such as sulfur and nitrogen,” says Wergin.
90 “You can then see what kind of pollution is in the area
and possibly track the source.”
35 and a colleague, Eric Erbe, were using scanning elec-
tron microscopy to look at biological problems relating
to agriculture. To avoid the laborious procedure that
using such equipment usually entails, the two scientists
decided to freeze the tissue they were working with and
40 look at it in the frozen state.
“One day it happened to be snowing,” says
Wergin, “and we were looking for a specimen. We
imaged some snowflakes and were very surprised to see
what we did.” It was the first time anyone had
45 attempted to image snow crystals with scanning electron microscopy, which provides precise detail about
the crystals’ shape, structural features and metamorphosed conditions (crystals often change once on the
ground depending on the surrounding environment).
50
Wergin called another ARS colleague, hydrologist
Albert Rango, to see if the snow crystal magnifications
31. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the
information about the scientific study of snow is presented primarily to:
A. emphasize the importance of communication
among scientists.
B. explain how snow crystal facets influence the
snowpack in some western states.
C. showcase the varied uses of the scanning electron
microscope.
D. demonstrate some of the practical applications of
the study of snow crystals.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
516
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
Taking Additional Practice Tests
32. According to the passage, the use of scanning electron
microscopy can save money by:
F. encouraging scientists to make estimates of water
requirements far into the future.
G. allowing forecasters to predict more accurately the
quantity of water in the snowpack.
H. helping agricultural researchers to identify biological problems.
J. increasing the water supply for Colorado, Montana, Utah, and Wyoming by 75 percent.
33. It can reasonably be inferred that the phrase metamorphosed conditions (lines 47–48) refers to the:
A. temperature and humidity at which crystals form.
B. process by which snow crystals develop from a
speck of dust and water vapor.
C. state of snow crystals after they reach the ground.
D. major changes in environmental conditions.
34. According to the passage, the addition of electron
microscopy data to the Snowmelt Runoff Model allows
scientists using the model to include in their predictions detailed information about:
F. microwave satellite data.
G. structural variations of snow crystals.
H. locations having the most snowfall.
J. biological problems related to agriculture.
35. According to Rango, one reason that water’s economic
value is likely to increase by the year 2100 is that:
A. more water will be polluted by then.
B. less water will be wasted due to more accurate predictions of the water supply.
C. the sulfur and nitrogen content in snow is likely to
increase.
D. predicted climate changes will reduce overall
snow accumulation.
3
36. According to the passage, snowflakes have infinite
variety because:
F. enormous numbers of snow crystals fall worldwide.
G. falling snow crystals meet with varied atmospheric
conditions.
H. snow crystals fall at various rates, creating unique
snowflakes.
J. complexities in the atmosphere slow snow crystal
development.
37. The passage states that snowflakes differ from snow
crystals in that snowflakes:
A. grow around a nucleus of dust.
B. combine to form snow crystals.
C. grow in relation to top and bottom facets.
D. are composed of more than one crystal.
38. The term “designer” snowflakes (line 32) refers
directly to the fact that:
F. no two snowflakes are alike.
G. Libbrecht produces the snowflakes in his lab.
H. snowflakes are part of the grand design of nature.
J. Libbrecht’s snowflakes exhibit special beauty.
39. As it is used in line 59, the word critical most nearly
means:
A. evaluative.
B. faultfinding.
C. vital.
D. acute.
40. The passage states that research about snow crystals
has helped scientists do all of the following EXCEPT:
F. extract pollutants from snow.
G. gauge snowmelt.
H. design artificial snow.
J. predict avalanches.
Taking Additional Practice Tests
3
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
517
The Official ACT Prep Guide
Scoring Practice Test 3
Scoring the Multiple-Choice Tests
To score each of your multiple-choice practice tests, starting with the English test, follow these six steps:
STEP 1. Write a “1” in the blank for each question that you answered correctly. An example is
provided in the following box:
Key
1.
Your answer was
A
–
Incorrect
2.
J
1
Correct
3.
B
1
Correct
4.
G
–
Incorrect
English ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 3
Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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634
C
F
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A
G
A
J
C
F
A
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D
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A
H
D
F
C
J
C
F
B
J
A
Key
26.
27.
28.
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J
B
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D
F
B
F
C
F
D
H
D
J
B
F
C
J
D
G
B
G
B
J
C
F
Key
51.
52.
53.
54.
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65.
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74.
75.
B
G
A
H
C
H
B
F
C
F
C
H
B
G
C
H
A
F
B
F
D
J
D
G
D
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
Scoring the Additional Practice Tests
STEP 2. Add the numbers you entered in step 1 and write this total in the following shaded box.
This is your raw score.
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
English test (75 questions)
STEP 3. Repeat steps 1 and 2 for the ACT mathematics, reading, and science tests using the
scoring keys on the following pages.
Mathematics ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
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Key
E
K
A
K
E
G
B
J
E
J
C
J
E
G
A
J
E
K
A
J
21.
22.
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27.
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29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
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39.
40.
E
G
C
H
B
H
C
J
A
G
B
F
D
J
B
H
E
G
E
H
Key
41.
42.
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B
F
C
F
E
G
E
H
D
F
E
H
B
G
B
H
E
K
B
K
Taking Additional Practice Tests
Key
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Mathematics test (60 questions)
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
635
The Official ACT Prep Guide
Reading ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 3
Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Key
A
G
A
H
C
G
B
F
A
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J
D
F
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B
H
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C
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D
J
Key
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
B
H
D
G
C
G
D
G
D
G
C
F
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Reading test (40 questions)
Science ■ Scoring Key ■ Practice Test 3
Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
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Key
B
F
A
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B
G
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C
F
A
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B
H
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G
D
F
C
H
Key
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
D
J
A
J
D
J
C
G
A
J
D
J
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Science test (40 questions)
636
The ONLY Official Prep Guide from the Makers of the ACT
72CPRE
A.C.T. ANSWER KEY
April 2019 (EXT)
Section 1
Section 2
ENGLISH
MATH
1. D
2. G
3. A
4. G
5. D
6. J
7. B
8. G
9. C
10. H
11. C
12. G
13. D
14. F
15. C
16. G
17. A
18. F
19. D
20. H
21. B
22. H
23. D
24. F
25. B
26. J
27. A
28. H
29. A
30. H
31. B
32. H
33. B
34. J
35. D
36. J
37. A
38. J
39. C
40. H
41. D
42. G
43. A
44. J
45. C
46. G
47. C
48. F
49. D
50. F
51. A
52. H
53. A
54. J
55. D
56. G
57. A
58. G
59. D
60. H
61. D
62. J
63. D
64. H
65. A
66. G
67. A
68. H
69. B
70. G
71. C
72. F
73. C
74. J
75. A
1. A
2. J
3. B
4. H
5. C
6. G
7. A
8. G
9. A
10. F
11. B
12. F
13. A
14. H
15. A
16. J
17. E
18. F
19. E
20. H
21. E
22. K
23. D
24. K
25. C
26. F
27. B
28. H
29. D
30. J
31. E
32. H
33. E
34. G
35. C
36. F
37. D
38. G
39. E
40. J
Section 3
41. E
42. G
43. C
44. F
45. A
46. K
47. D
48. J
49. D
50. G
51. B
52. H
53. C
54. K
55. A
56. K
57. D
58. G
59. C
60. G
Section 4
READING SCIENCE
1. C
2. H
3. D
4. F
5. C
6. J
7. D
8. G
9. C
10. J
11. A
12. G
13. D
14. H
15. B
16. F
17. B
18. F
19. B
20. H
21. B
22. G
23. C
24. H
25. C
26. G
27. B
28. F
29. D
30. F
31. B
32. G
33. D
34. J
35. C
36. F
37. B
38. H
39. A
40. F
1. D
2. H
3. A
4. G
5. A
6. H
7. B
8. G
9. D
10. J
11. A
12. H
13. A
14. G
15. C
16. F
17. D
18. H
19. B
20. J
21. A
22. H
23. D
24. J
25. D
26. H
27. A
28. J
29. B
30. H
31. C
32. J
33. A
34. F
35. B
36. F
37. C
38. F
39. D
40. G
Form D03
(December 2020)
2020 l 2021
In response to your request for Test Information
Release materials, this booklet contains the test
questions, scoring keys, and conversion tables used
in determining your ACT scores. Enclosed with this
booklet is a report that lists each of your answers,
shows whether your answer was correct, and, if your
answer was not correct, gives the correct answer.
© 2020 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied,
reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission
of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
1
1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the ve passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will nd alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will nd in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also nd questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identi ed by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and ll in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
Changing the Face of Journalism
“The nation and its news media are going in
opposite directions, and the public is paying the
price,” in 2013, Dori Maynard wrote this. She was
1. A. NO CHANGE
B. in 2013, that statement was written by Dori
Maynard.
C. this is something Dori Maynard wrote in 2013.
D. Dori Maynard wrote in 2013.
1
following up on her point that although people of
color make up nearly 40 percent of the US population,
2
while only about 12 percent of full-time daily news
3
journalists are people of color. Her who’s an award4
winning African American journalist, Maynard
became a Nieman fellow at Harvard University in 1993.
NO CHANGE
does make
is making
makes
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
and
but
DELETE the underlined portion.
4. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Herself
Hers
Her
5. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most
clearly introduces the focus of the essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. advocated diversity within newsrooms for the sake
of fairer representation of all communities.
C. reported news across the United States, from
California to Michigan to Massachusetts.
D. was a member of the Society of Professional
Journalists.
5
For much of her journalism career, she was involved
with the Maynard Institute, a journalism-education
institute in Oakland, California. (The institute was
founded in 1977 by her father, Robert C. Maynard,
ACT-D03
2. F.
G.
H.
J.
2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
former editor of the Oakland Tribune.) Conversely,
6
the organization is dedicated to recruiting and training
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Among other objectives,
Besides that objective,
In comparison,
7. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
as soon as
whereas
until
8. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
their
its
it’s
9. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
with a level of nuance,
a nuanced feel,
having nuance,
10. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
in terms of news coverage.
in particular.
DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.
11. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
works as a reporter
is reporting
report
12. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
newspapers, for example:
newspapers for example:
newspapers: such as
people of color to become journalists. By the time
Dori Maynard became president of the institute in 2001,
she was already passionately committed to this mission.
Diversity among journalists in the United States
must increase, Maynard believed, if the industry is
7
going to meet its’ ethical obligation to provide a wide
8
audience credible and accurate news. She argued that
a reporter’s cultural background inevitably influences
his or her perspective on current events. More diversity
in newsrooms will naturally lead to more complete,
nuanced, and sensitive news coverage of all communities,
9
specifically communities of color expressly. This, in turn,
10
will better our society as a whole; we’ll gain a richer
understanding of each other’s lives, she explained.
Under Dori Maynard’s leadership, the Maynard
Institute trained hundreds of minority reporters. The
institute also has helped them get hired and heard.
Many former trainees now reports for influential
11
newspapers such as the New York Times and the
12
Washington Post. Dori Maynard helped show the
13. A. NO CHANGE
B. Appointed president of the Maynard Institute in
2001, Dori Maynard
C. Having been leader of the Maynard Institute, Dori
Maynard
D. Dori Maynard, an award-winning journalist,
13
journalism industry that presenting the culturally
ACT-D03
3
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
diverse voices of the United States through inclusive
news stories written by people of color is possible.
14. The writer wants to conclude the essay with a strong,
emphatic statement that asserts the far-reaching significance of Dori Maynard’s work with the Maynard
Institute. Which choice best accomplishes that goal?
F. NO CHANGE
G. is vital for social justice.
H. will likely be noticed.
J. makes sense.
14
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
15. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to present highlights of Dori Maynard’s work as a journalist
reporting daily news. Would this essay accomplish that
purpose?
A. Yes, because it suggests that fair representation of
diversity was always one of Maynard’s priorities
as a journalist.
B. Yes, because it provides details about Maynard’s
most influential daily news stories.
C. No, because it concentrates instead on Maynard’s
efforts to bring diversity to the journalism
industry.
D. No, because it focuses instead on why journalism
is important to the Maynard family.
PASSAGE II
To Sew on Savile Row
Bespoke tailors create men’s suits exactly to a
customer’s specifications, aiming for refined elegance and
technical flawlessness. Regardless, a focus on bespoke
16
tailoring has made Savile Row a small, street in London,
17
the world’s most distinguished location for menswear for
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Similarly, a
Besides, a
A
17. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Row, a small street in London,
Row, a small street in London
Row a small street in London
over two hundred years. In 2008, Savile Row Academy,
located within the bespoke suit shop called Maurice
Sedwell, at 19 Savile Row, was established to celebrate
18. Which choice provides the clearest foundation for the
suggestion made later in the essay that the tradition of
bespoke tailoring on Savile Row has diminished?
F. NO CHANGE
G. show off
H. preserve
J. embody
18
this time-honored craft.
ACT-D03
4
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
1
Customers are fitted on the main floor of the shop.
In the well-lit basement, students of various ages and
backgrounds master the dozens of skills needed to make
19
a classic three-piece bespoke suit. Traditionally, a
bespoke suit is created beginning from start to completion
20
by one tailor, who rarely uses a sewing machine. The
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
skills, needed to make
skills needed, to make
skills needed to make,
20. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
by a single artisan from the first to the final steps
by a trained individual from beginning to end
from start to finish
students’ primary tools, therefore, are tailor’s chalk,
shears, needles, and a thimble. During the two-year
professional training program, students learn to take
measurements, draft patterns; cut cloth; hand sew coats,
21. A. NO CHANGE
B. measurements; draft patterns; cut cloth; hand sew
coats,
C. measurements; draft patterns; cut cloth; hand sew
coats;
D. measurements draft patterns; cut cloth; hand sew
coats,
21
vests, and trousers; create pockets; and stitch finishing
details. Creating one suit requires well over a hundred
hours of concentrated work, even for an expert. 6
22. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
essay would primarily lose a:
F. statement suggesting that expert tailors require
even more time to create a bespoke suit than do
novice tailors.
G. detail that emphasizes the time and attention
required for a tailor to create a bespoke suit.
H. description that illustrates exactly why a bespoke
suit must be created slowly.
J. comment implying that most tailors aim to create a
bespoke suit in under a hundred hours.
[1] From the size of the buttons on the coat to the
angle of the pleats on the trousers and nearly every feature
23
of a traditional bespoke suit is chosen by the customer.
24
[2] Still, Andrew Ramroop, owner of the Sedwell shop
and founder of the Academy, encourages his students,
25
to develop their own style within those constraints.
ACT-D03
5
23. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
trousers, in that
trousers,
trousers;
24. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
have been
were
are
25. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Academy, encourages his students
Academy encourages his students,
Academy encourages his students
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1
1
[3] Ramroop is known for his inventive use of color,
especially contrast stitching in pockets. [4] Adhering
to the traditions of the craft is a must, he explains, but
your signature style is what will bring your customers
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. approach to tailoring (such as a fondness for contrast stitching in pockets, as I have previously
mentioned)
H. expression, your individual approach that customers will visit you again to experience,
J. manner that is unique to you alone
26
back. ;
27. For the sake of the logic and cohesion of this paragraph, Sentence 2 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 3.
D. after Sentence 4.
While mass-manufactured suits have become standard
in many suit shops on Savile Row; however, several
28. F.
G.
H.
J.
28
Academy graduates have found jobs pleasantly working
NO CHANGE
Row, several
Row. Several
Row; several
29. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most
strongly reiterates a defining characteristic of the craft
of bespoke tailoring as the craft is presented in the
essay as a whole?
A. NO CHANGE
B. hand stitching
C. producing clothes
D. sewing
29
in the shops on the street that remain committed to classic
design and unmatchable craftsmanship. Many others have
taken their shears and needles to fine tailoring houses
around the world.
30. F. NO CHANGE
G. that aren’t on Savile Row but rather are on other
streets, elsewhere.
H. located all over the globe, but not on Savile Row.
J. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.
30
PASSAGE III
Uncovering the World’s Largest Cave
[1]
Deep below the mountains of central Vietnam
lies what could be described as: another world.
31. A.
B.
C.
D.
31
ACT-D03
6
NO CHANGE
as—
as
as,
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1
1
Located in Phong Nha-Ke Bang National Park, the
enormous Hang Son Doong (“Mountain River Cave”)
32. F.
G.
H.
J.
32
is believed to be the largest cave in the world. A Son
NO CHANGE
decidedly prodigiously proportioned
massive and immense
gigantically huge
33. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following accurate sentence to the essay:
Phong Nha-Ke Bang National Park was named
a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003.
Should the writer add this sentence here?
A. Yes, because the paragraph focuses mainly on the
history of discoveries in Phong Nha-Ke Bang
National Park.
B. Yes, because the essay emphasizes the need for
worldwide recognition of national parks.
C. No, because it does not explain how a park is designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
D. No, because it would interrupt the description of
Hang Son Doong’s size and location.
Doong is part of a system of 150 caves that snake beneath
the ground throughout the region. At roughly five miles
34. F.
G.
H.
J.
34
long, 300 feet wide, and 660 feet tall, Son Doong is
NO CHANGE
This marvel is
The cave is
It’s
35. Which choice best maintains the stylistic pattern established in the sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. a height of 660 feet,
C. 660 feet in height,
D. tall at 660 feet,
35
large enough to hold an entire city block of forty-story
buildings.
[2]
Even more impressive than the cave’s size,
perhaps, such as what grows within it. [A] Portions
36
of Son Doong contain what many envision when
they think of caves, which dark chambers ornamented
37
with gigantic calcite formations and populated by
colorless creatures that are very unique looking.
NO CHANGE
it’s
is
DELETE the underlined portion.
37. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
caves:
caves;
caves
38. Which choice adds the most specific information to the
sentence’s description of the organisms inside Son
Doong?
F. NO CHANGE
G. animals that can be found in various sections of
the cave.
H. things often found in sunless environments.
J. fish, millipedes, and wood lice.
38
Other parts of the cave, however, are dramatically
different, verdant ferns, palm trees, bamboo, liana
39. A.
B.
C.
D.
39
vines, and stinging nettles flourish here as well.
ACT-D03
36. F.
G.
H.
J.
7
NO CHANGE
different, for instance,
different;
different and
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1
1
In fact, researchers have found that the dense subterranean
jungle of Son Doong essentially have mirrored the variety
40
of plants and animals in the forest directly aboveground.
40. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
tend to mirror
mirrors
mirror
41. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Whether the
Though the
The
[3]
While the abundance of vegetation in
41
Son Doong is possible because of the way the
cave formed. Between two and five million years ago,
the Rao Thuong River chiseled through the limestone
under the range now known as the Annamite Mountains,
42. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion
(adjusting the punctuation as needed), the essay would
primarily lose a detail that:
F. explains the differences between national parks in
Vietnam and in Laos.
G. suggests that Son Doong extends beyond the
border of Vietnam and into Laos.
H. provides additional information about Son
Doong’s location within Vietnam.
J. gives a visual description of the Annamite
Mountains.
42
near Vietnam’s border with Laos. At the top of the cave,
colossal “skylights,” measuring up to 300 feet across,
that formed when weak portions of the cave’s ceiling
43
collapsed. [B] The gaps allow sunlight to pass through
43. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
those that
which
DELETE the underlined portion.
44. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
is likely to make
tends to make
makes
and nourish the life below. [C]
[4]
Exploring Son Doong is a once-in-a-lifetime
experience, but it isn’t easy. Simply hiking there from
the nearest village takes more than a day. [D] Inside the
cave, formidable obstacles, such as a 200-foot-high wall
covered in mud, make traversing it a major challenge.
44
Still, year after year, Son Doong draws people from
around the globe who want to experience what was
Question 45 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
once a hidden underground world.
45. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the essay:
Aboveground, thick stands of bamboo and
other vegetation make approaching the cave’s
entrance extremely difficult.
If the writer were to add the sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 2.
B. Point B in Paragraph 3.
C. Point C in Paragraph 3.
D. Point D in Paragraph 4.
ACT-D03
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1
1
PASSAGE IV
The Best Map of the World in the World
[A] More fictional than factual, most maps made
in medieval Europe combined a smattering of accurate
information with a slew of inaccurate information, guesses,
and outright inventions. [B] In 1139, however, when King
Roger II of Sicily wanted a new map of the known world,
since he desired accuracy foremost. [C] To that end, he
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
46
engaged Moroccan-born scholar Muhammad al-Idrisi.
NO CHANGE
in which he desired
he desired
desiring
[D] Al-Idrisi adopted a systematic approach to the project,
combining comparative analysis, eyewitness accounts,
and scientific measurements. O
47. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to this paragraph:
Generally, people accepted such maps as accurate, not realizing how flawed they were.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
A. Point A.
B. Point B.
C. Point C.
D. Point D.
Al-Idrisi had been educated in Córdoba, Spain.
48. Given that all the choices are true, which one most
effectively introduces this paragraph?
F. NO CHANGE
G. was just one of many illustrious and cosmopolitan
scholars in King Roger’s court.
H. started work on the map when he was forty years
old.
J. studied as many existing maps as he could.
48
He also scrutinized accounts written by long-distance
travelers. By comparing sources, al-Idrisi could judge
their accuracy. If multiple sources agreed on things—the
49
route of a river, for instance—it was likely true.
If sources disagreed, likewise, al-Idrisi sought the
50
truth, he dispatched a research expedition to the area
51
in question.
ACT-D03
9
49. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
something—
those—
them—
50. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
on the other hand,
regardless,
otherwise,
51. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
truth and he dispatched
truth by dispatching
truth, dispatched
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1
1
Al-Idrisi brought a similarly logical approach
for the positioning to locations on his map. Most
52
mapmakers at the time arranged cities, mountains,
53
and other features, on their maps quite haphazardly.
54
But al-Idrisi, informed by the work of the best Arab
and Greek scientists, lay out the sites on his map using
55
astronomical coordinates.
After fifteen years of the daily grind, al-Idrisi
56
completed his project. The final products included: a
57
two-meter-wide silver disk engraved with a world map,
52. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
by the positioning on
to the positioning of
in the positioning at
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
collected
devised
posed
54. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
(other features on their maps)
other features on their maps,
other features on their maps
55. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
lay out the sights
laid out the sites
laid out the cites
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
ongoing expenditure of mental effort,
plugging away,
labor,
57. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
products, which included
products, including
products included
an atlas containing seventy detailed regional maps, and a
lengthy descriptive text. The maps were of a quality and
accuracy unparalleled at the time. They noted the source
of the Nile River—in Africa’s equatorial highlands—and
58. The writer wants to emphasize that the inclusion of the
source of the Nile River on al-Idrisi’s maps represented
a notable achievement. Which choice most effectively
accomplishes this goal?
F. NO CHANGE
G. regarded as the longest river in the world—
H. near what’s now known as Lake Victoria—
J. a first for a Europe-centered map—
58
used a sophisticated method of depicting the earth’s round
59. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. method for the depiction of
B. method in order to depict
C. method, it depicted
D. method to depict
59
shape on a flat map. Unfortunately, the maps never
circulated widely. Moreover, the text wasn’t translated
from Arabic for hundreds of years. It would be the
twentieth century before al-Idrisi’s work received the
appreciation it deserved.
ACT-D03
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1
1
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
60. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
explore the degree of influence al-Idrisi’s maps and
methods had on other mapmakers. Would this essay
accomplish that purpose?
F. Yes, because the essay explains that the accuracy
of al-Idrisi’s maps established a foundation for
other mapmakers to build upon.
G. Yes, because the essay pinpoints which aspects of
al-Idrisi’s work were most frequently imitated by
other mapmakers.
H. No, because the essay instead focuses on how
al-Idrisi created his maps and why they were superior to other maps.
J. No, because the essay instead mainly shows how
al-Idrisi’s education and travels helped him create
his maps.
PASSAGE V
More than a Silver Lining
[1]
Iridescent clouds—in which patches, bands, or
waves of color appears—are arresting phenomena.
61
Aptly nicknamed “rainbow clouds,” flaunting displays
62
that range from pastel suffusions to vivid, fiery streaks.
63
But the conditions that iridescence requires are far
more allusive than those that produce rainbows,
64
making iridescent clouds comparatively rare.
ACT-D03
11
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
appear—are
appears—is
appear—is
62. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
clouds” and flaunting
clouds,” they flaunt
clouds” with
63. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
differ
rank
trek
64. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
allusive then
elusive then
elusive than
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1
1
[2]
[A] Think of every cloud as a vast collection
of wet or icy particles. For iridescence to occur,
many of these particles must be roughly uniform
in size and shape. [B] They must also be minute:
smaller than most cloud particles. Finally, a portion
65. Which choice most specifically indicates how minute
the particles are?
A. NO CHANGE
B. they are tinier than you can even imagine.
C. about 1/100th the width of a human hair.
D. unbelievably minute, in fact.
65
of the cloud (typically along the edges) must be nearly
66
transparent. Together, these traits cause sunlight
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
cloud (typically, along the edges),
cloud, (typically along the edges)
cloud (typically along the edges),
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
It’s this
It is its’
Its this
68. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
light and each with
light; each with
light, each has
69. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
wavelengths, which are traveling
wavelengths, which travel
wavelengths that travel
passing through the cloud to diffract consistently.
[3]
Its consistency that allows people to see
67
individual colors. [C] Visible sunlight is actually
multiple wavelengths of light, each with its own color.
68
Sunlight usually appears as “white” light because all
the wavelengths are traveling at the same angle, and
69
the eye can’t discern them individually. But when
sunlight collides with a cloud particle, the component
wavelengths are deflected at different angles, an event
70. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. angles, which is an event
G. angles—an event
H. angles, which is
J. angles, this is
70
known as diffraction. [D] When the diffraction is consistent
(when all the red light waves deflect at one angle, the blues
71. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion
(adjusting the punctuation as needed), the essay would
primarily lose:
A. an explanation for why red and blue light waves
deflect at different angles.
B. an example that helps clarify what happens when
diffraction is consistent.
C. an indication that only blue and red light waves are
visible in iridescent clouds.
D. details that specify why iridescent clouds are rare.
71
at another, and so on), the eye can detect individual colors.
71
ACT-D03
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1
1
[4]
Diffraction happens in all clouds, but most cloud
particles are too large and irregular to diffract sunlight
consistently. One particle might deflect red waves at
the same angle an adjacent particle deflects green. Or,
in really close-knit clouds, each light wave is likely to
72. Which choice most closely maintains the tone established in the essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. more crammed
H. jam-packed
J. denser
72
collide with a series of particles, deflecting at a different
angle every time. In both cases, the different light waves
cross paths, and the cloud appears white.
[5]
In iridescent clouds, for example, deflection angles
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
73
don’t conflict. As sunlight passes through the cloud,
patches, bands, or waves of color become visible.
NO CHANGE
consequently,
furthermore,
however,
74. Given that all of the choices are accurate, which one
best concludes the essay by reiterating both the reason
for iridescence in clouds and its visual effect?
F. NO CHANGE
G. every particle deflects distinct light waves at consistent angles, and breathtaking colors emerge.
H. iridescence will be nearly impossible unless light
waves can avoid colliding with multiple particles.
J. this rare phenomenon can be enjoyed.
74
Question 75 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
75. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the essay:
Iridescence happens only in clouds that have
three specific traits.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 2.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 3.
D. Point D in Paragraph 3.
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
ACT-D03
13
3
3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and ll in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
the Jordanian kids around us. The salt water is satiny,
40 so soft and dense it seems to bend beneath our arms.
My father, who is generally afraid of the water, comes
out and shows us how you can sit in the sea. He lazes
back in it, and my sister tows him around by his hair
while he makes boat sounds.
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is from the essay “InBetweens” by Diana Abu-Jaber.
The narrator moves to Jordan with her Jordanian father, American mother, and two younger sisters.
One of the restaurants on the lip of the water has a
string of red lights that drop their reflections in the
moonlit water; they make me think of the lonely red
scooter. After a while, I straggle out of the water, yanking up my soggy underpants with their sprung elastic
50 waistband. Mom is stretched out on a canvas chaise
longue, holding a drink with a little parasol on the side.
She wraps me shivering into a beach towel and makes
room for me beside her on the lounge.
45
One night after my sisters and I are in bed and the
baby cats have ceased their crying, my parents come to
our room, whispering and nudging each other, their
smiles sly, as if they shared a private joke. They shake
5 us out of sleep and say, “C’mon, we’re going to do
something!”
We yawn, slide out of the warm caves of our beds;
our parents are gesturing us out the front door, their
laughter lowered and mesmerizing. Then we are run10 ning across the stone courtyard—my sisters and I barefooted in cotton pajamas, the stones waxy beneath our
feet. The neighbors and the street are all asleep, the
buildings shut up, rose-tinted under a brassy, round
moon. In one corner of the courtyard, tilted under the
15 staircase to the upper floors, is the scooter, its red
gleam muted now, private and soft. For a moment I
think of my grandmother back in New Jersey, who
wears a lipstick in the same fluid tones: red shot
through with an undercurrent of blue. I look back at it
20 as my parents open the car.
I blink out of my towel cave at this new place
55 around us, then touch my mother’s ribs through her
cotton shirt. “Mom, how long do you have to be best
friends with someone if you’re best friends?”
She flitters at my bangs; they’re drying stiff with
salt. “Well, honey, I don’t think there’s any rules about
60 that. I guess you can be best friends with someone your
whole life if you’re lucky.”
“Are you and Dad best friends?”
It’s hard to make out her expression under the
cherry lights. She seems to be thinking about it, staring
65 out to where Dad is still drifting around, piping and
tooting like a tugboat.
We drive through parts of the city that I’ve never
seen before, where the lights glow like melted butter
and the girls on the sidewalks are wearing brimmed
hats and high heels. Men smile and turn to watch our
25 car passing: I watch back, hands pressed to the window.
Then we race beyond the glowing streets—they dwindle to a star—and the road ahead of us is long and dusty
blue and smells like a warm, blue must, like the heat of
a sheep’s back.
“You have to do whatever your best friend says,
right?”
Now I can see her face—amused and wary. “Why
70 do you say that?”
When we finally get out of the car, there’s a gravel
lot, an expanse of folding chairs, patios, sparkly restaurants wedged in a long crescent along a flat blackness
like gleaming enamel. Dad holds his hand out toward
the gleam. “And what did I promise you kids?” he asks,
35 though I recall no promises related to anything like this.
“It’s the Dead Sea!”
30
“Dad said to come to Jordan, right?”
There is even less sound now than before, if that is
possible, just a slip of waves on the shore, a sighing
wash like the sound of someone saying hush, hush, or
75 the rustle of the palm fronds arching over the sand.
“Your father . . . needed us to come here, he needed to
see—what it felt like.”
We’ve come, as usual, with no preparation, so my
parents let us run into the water in our underpants—like
ACT-D03
30
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3
3
“What does it feel like?” I ask quietly, not quite
knowing what I’m asking, just following the path of the
80 questions.
4. The narrator’s question “Mom, how long do you have
to be best friends with someone if you’re best friends?”
(lines 56–57) leads the two into a discussion about the:
F. dynamics of the relationship between the narrator’s mother and father.
G. narrator’s new best friend and how long their
friendship might last.
H. characteristics of the narrator’s relationship with
one of her sisters, who is her best friend.
J. narrator’s belief that a person should have several
close friends, not just one best friend.
“I don’t think—” she starts, then stops. My father
is climbing out of the dark wash of the sea. “I don’t
think it feels the way he remembers it.”
I put my hands on her waist—something that feels
85 a little like a spark of alarm bounces through me. “Does
he know that? That it doesn’t feel the same?”
She looks over her shoulder, my father’s shadow
falling toward us in a long, cool slip as he walks
beneath the neon lights. “He’s still finding out.”
5. The narrator’s parents’ mood during the action portrayed in lines 1–9 can best be described as:
A. boastful and aggravated.
B. solemn and mystified.
C. mischievous and enthusiastic.
D. confused and stern.
The medicinal waters of the Dead Sea roll behind
us, and the wild, heavy scent of honey, rocks, and
thyme tempers the air. People come to dip themselves
in these waters, to be cured of everything from skin ailments to spiritual wasting. I breathe it in deeply and
95 sense a sort of dawning sweetness—of loss and
nostalgia.
90
6. The main function of the third paragraph (lines 21–29)
is to:
F. present the narrator’s thoughts about the dusty
streets she has traveled on several times before.
G. describe the narrator’s fascination with the street
lights that glow hazily and brightly.
H. illustrate the narrator’s visual impression of the
family’s journey through the city and out of it.
J. make clear the narrator’s admiration for the clothing the girls on the sidewalks wear.
Reprinted by permission of The Joy Harris Literary Agency, Inc.
7. In the passage, the phrase “a flat blackness like gleaming enamel” (lines 32–33) is used to describe which of
the following places or areas?
A. A long, crescent-shaped stretch of developed land
near the Dead Sea
B. The polished walkway along the Dead Sea
C. A gravel lot near the Dead Sea
D. The Dead Sea itself
1. The point of view from which the passage is told is
best described as that of a first person narrator who:
A. relates the actions of several characters but reveals
only her own inner thoughts.
B. focuses on interpreting the behavior of one of her
sisters.
C. both relates the actions of and shares the inner
thoughts of her mother, father, and sisters.
D. retells a story that has been told to her by someone
else.
8. The narrator feels something like “a spark of alarm”
(line 85) when she puts her hands on her mother’s
waist primarily because the narrator has just:
F. sensed her mother’s concern that the narrator’s sisters are unable to talk openly about the family’s
move.
G. realized her father might be in a situation that’s
difficult for him and troubling to her mother.
H. begun to understand that her mother never had a
best friend as a child.
J. learned that her mother isn’t pleased with her
questions.
2. Which of the following statements best captures a
main theme of the passage?
F. It isn’t hard to understand what makes someone a
best friend.
G. A dramatic life change can be both exciting and
difficult.
H. Trips that are taken spontaneously are the most
enjoyable trips.
J. Older siblings can help younger siblings understand a new situation.
9. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that, with regard to the narrator’s father’s feelings
about having returned to Jordan, the narrator’s mother
believes she is:
A. more aware of his feelings than he himself is yet.
B. more surprised by his feelings than the girls are.
C. less worried about his feelings than the girls are.
D. less aware of his feelings than he himself is yet.
3. It can most reasonably be inferred that which of the
following objects referred to in the passage has a special but unexplained significance to the narrator?
A. The canvas chaise longue
B. The cotton pajamas
C. The brassy, round moon
D. The red scooter
ACT-D03
31
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3
3
10. According to the passage, it’s uncommon for the narrator’s family to be:
F. away from the narrator’s father’s parents.
G. traveling by car instead of by train.
H. taking a long vacation together.
J. prepared for an outing.
45 that more than 500 horticulturalists from 30 states had
gathered at the orchard to discuss the “freak bud” that
produced “the marvel apple of the age.” Their meeting
marked the beginning of an era of fruit improvement,
as growers began to seek out and cultivate similar
50 mutations.
By the 1940s, the Red Delicious had become the
country’s most popular apple, with the broad shoulders
and lipstick shine of a Golden Age Hollywood star. The
cosmetic changes were a boon for industrial agricultur55 alists: Apples that turned rosy before they were fully
ripe could be picked earlier and stored longer, and skins
with more red pigment tended to be thicker, which
extended shelf life and hid bruises. But as genes for
beauty were favored over those for taste, the skins grew
60 tough and bitter around mushy, sugar-soaked flesh.
Still, by the 1980s, the Red Delicious made up 75 percent of the crop produced in Washington. By the time
selective breeding had taken its toll, according to apple
expert Tom Burford, a few big nurseries controlled the
65 market, planting decisions were made from the remove
of boardrooms, and consumers didn’t have many varieties to choose from. The Red Delicious became “the
largest compost-maker in the country,” he said, as shoppers routinely bought the apples and threw them away.
Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is from the article “The Awful
Reign of the Red Delicious” by Sarah Yager.
In the 1870s, Jesse Hiatt, an Iowa farmer, discovered a mutant seedling in his orchard of Yellow Bellflower apple trees. He chopped it down, but the next
season, it sprang back through the dirt. He chopped it
5 down again. It sprang back again. “If thee must grow,”
he told the intrepid sprout, “thee may.”
A decade later, Hiatt’s tree bore its first fruit. The
apples were elongated globes with red-and-gold striped
skin, crisp flesh, and a five-pointed calyx. In 1893,
10 when Stark Brothers’ Nursery of Louisiana, Missouri,
held a contest to find a replacement for the Ben
Davis—then the most widely planted apple in the country, strapping and good-looking but bland—Hiatt submitted his new variety, which he called the Hawkeye.
15 “My, that’s delicious,” Clarence Stark, the company’s
president, reportedly said after his first bite.
Then in the 1990s, new varieties that American
growers had originally developed for overseas markets
began to edge into the domestic market. Shoppers had
been “eating with their eyes and not their mouths,”
Burford said. And now their taste buds had been awak75 ened. A sudden shift in consumer preferences, paired
with growing competition from orchards in China, took
the industry by surprise. Between 1997 and 2000, U.S.
apple growers lost nearly $800 million in surplus crop.
They had “made the apples redder and redder, and pret80 tier and prettier, and they just about bred themselves
out of existence,” a marketing director for one Northwestern fruit company told The New York Times.
70
But not for the first time in apple lore, one sweet
taste precipitated a fall. Stark Brothers’ soon secured
the rights to the Hawkeye, changed its name to the
20 Stark Delicious (only after the branding of the Golden
Delicious, in 1914, did it become the Red Delicious),
and began an ambitious marketing campaign. Over the
next two decades, the nursery spent $750,000 to promote the new apple, dispatching traveling salesmen to
25 farms across the country and exhibiting the Delicious at
the 1904 World’s Fair. After the completion of the
Great Northern Railway, Clarence Stark sent trainloads
of seedlings to newly established orchards in the
Columbia River Valley, their leaves trembling as the
30 engines rumbled West.
Since then, Red Delicious production has declined
by 40 percent. While the apple is still by far the most
85 common in the U.S.—growers produced 54 million
bushels of Red Delicious in 2011, compared to just
33 million bushels of its closest competitor, the Gala—
the industry is adjusting to a changing market.
© 2014 The Atlantic Media Co., as first published in The Atlantic Magazine. All rights reserved. Distributed by Tribune Content Agency, LLC.
With its hardy rootstocks and juicy, curvaceous
fruit, the Red Delicious quickly became a favorite of
growers and consumers from coast to coast—and as its
commercial success grew, so did its distance from
35 Hiatt’s Hawkeye. In 1923, a New Jersey orchardist
wrote to the Starks to report that one limb of a tree he
had purchased from the nursery was producing crimson
apples while those on the other limbs remained green.
A chance genetic mutation that made the apples redden
40 earlier had also given them a deeper, more uniform
color, and customers were lining up for a taste. Paul
Stark, one of Clarence’s sons, travelled up from Missouri and laid down $6,000 for the limb. News of the
deal spread, and soon The Gettysburg Times reported
ACT-D03
11. The main purpose of the passage is to:
A. explore the apple varieties that were the ancestors
of the Red Delicious.
B. relate the history of the Red Delicious.
C. consider contemporary opinions of the Red
Delicious.
D. explain how experts improved the Red Delicious.
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3
3
12. Which of the following statements best represents the
passage’s central claim about the Red Delicious?
F. Though genetic changes helped the Red Delicious
achieve popularity, they eventually contributed to
its decreasing popularity.
G. Due to the ease of fostering genetic changes in the
Red Delicious, it became the apple of choice for
growers.
H. Despite intense competition, the superior taste of
the Red Delicious led to its domination of the
market.
J. Because the Red Delicious increased the size of
the apple market, the development of new apple
varieties intensified.
16. In the first paragraph, the seedling in Hiatt’s orchard is
portrayed as:
F. persistent.
G. scruffy.
H. hostile.
J. ordinary.
17. As it is used in line 18, the word secured most nearly
means:
A. fastened.
B. acquired.
C. guaranteed.
D. fortified.
13. Which of the following events referred to in the passage occurred first chronologically?
A. Stark Brothers’ Nursery paid $6,000 for one limb
in a New Jersey orchard.
B. Stark Brothers’ Nursery held a contest to find a
new apple variety.
C. The Red Delicious accounted for 75 percent of
Washington’s apple crop.
D. The Red Delicious was featured at the World’s
Fair.
18. According to the passage, which of the following
methods did the Stark Brothers’ Nursery use to bring
the Stark Delicious to the attention of apple growers?
F. Tasting contests
G. Competitive pricing
H. Newspaper advertising
J. Traveling salesmen
14. Based on the passage, the phrase “selective breeding
had taken its toll” (line 63) most specifically refers to:
F. the financial cost of the genetic development of
the Red Delicious.
G. Burford’s opinion that the Red Delicious was hurting overall sales of apples.
H. the market share lost by the Red Delicious to new
apple varieties.
J. the deterioration of the taste and texture of the Red
Delicious.
19. The passage claims that which of the following features helps extend the shelf life of apples?
A. Thick skin
B. Shiny skin
C. Firm flesh
D. Sweet flesh
15. Which of the following statements best summarizes the
sixth paragraph (lines 70–82)?
A. In the 1990s, consumer preference for Red Delicious continued to increase, leading to an $800
million surplus for US apple growers.
B. In the 1990s, consumer preference for fruit other
than apples caused US and Chinese apple growers
to lose money.
C. In the 1990s, consumer preference for new apple
varieties and increased competition from overseas
led to financial losses for US apple growers.
D. In the 1990s, consumer preference for redder
apples and the planting of too many Red Delicious
trees led to financial losses for US apple growers.
ACT-D03
20. In the context of the passage, the information between
the dashes in lines 85–87 mainly serves to:
F. show that Red Delicious production stabilized in
2011.
G. contrast the decline in Red Delicious production
with the increase in Gala production.
H. specify the size of the US apple harvest.
J. illustrate the continued domination of the market
by the Red Delicious.
33
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3
3
Passage III
the cinema. Each medium mimics some of the characteristics of the two others. Vedachellam’s painting style
is photorealistic; he copies a photograph that is, itself, a
60 composite of film stills. And these film stills reflect the
influence of the melodramatic look of nineteenthcentury European tableaux painting on the sets, costumes, and lighting of the first full-length feature films
produced both in Hollywood and in India.
HUMANITIES: This passage is from the article “Photography
Changes the Movies We Choose to See” by Preminda Jacob.
For nearly five decades, huge photo-realistic billboards of film stars towered over the streets of Chennai,
a major hub of the vibrant and prolific Indian film
industry. Expertly hand-painted on canvas banners and
5 plywood cutouts, these eye-catching advertisements
extracted dreamlike images of wealth, beauty, and
revenge from films screened in darkened and airconditioned theaters and displayed them in the sunlit
glare of urban thoroughfares.
The hybridization of these media dates back to the
work of India’s earliest photographers. From the 1850s
to the present, local entrepreneurs operating photo studios have employed painters to enhance portrait photographs of their clients with drama and desirable
70 accoutrements that were absent in the original photographs. The theatricality of Indian studio photo graphs, and the fantasies they fulfill, has in turn
influenced the idealized ways celebrities are represented in the hand-painted cinema advertisements. Like
75 their counterparts in the world of studio photography,
banner artists also painted directly onto a photograph in
the process of creating studies for their spectacular
enlargements. Using black-and-white poster paints,
they first painstakingly outlined every detail in the pho80 tograph. Next, a photographic negative of the outlined
image was projected onto the canvas or plywood surface and a tracing was made. At every stage in the
process artists grasped a film still in one hand while
wielding a paintbrush with the other hand.
65
The selection of these photographic stills, plucked
from films and enlarged to architectural proportions
(one hundred feet in length for banners and forty feet in
height for cutouts) was calculated to excite the public
and nourish a “spectatorial consciousness,” what
15 Roland Barthes, a French cultural critic who often
wrote about photography, described as the experiential
quality of still photographic images. Barthes recalled
being transfixed by still images from movies, but then
losing all memory of them while viewing the film they
20 came from. Our perception of a moving cinematic
image, he explained, is always determined by the
frames that both precede and follow it. In contrast, a
single and isolated film still that stands alone can be
viewed indefinitely and more carefully.
10
85
While the artists who crafted Chennai’s cinematic
billboards were probably unaware of Barthes’ theories,
interviews I conducted with them reminded me how
aware they were of distinctions between still and
moving images. I recall one anecdote in particular.
30 Mr. Vedachellam—a billboard artist and entrepreneur—
explained to me that his film-industry clientele routinely attempted to circumvent censorship by protesting
to the authorities that the provocative still photographs
featured on billboards were simply taken from film
35 footage already cleared by the censors. The police commissioner’s canny rejoinder to the publicity agents’
appeals, Mr. Vedachellam recalled, was to remind them
that these questionable stills appeared on the cinema
screen for only a few seconds so viewers would soon
40 forget them, or may not even have quite “seen” them at
all. Freezing and enlarging such images, he argued, was
a different matter altogether. And displaying them
prominently on major thoroughfares would likely result
in costly traffic jams and additional accidents. The
45 police routinely censored these images by pasting
pieces of white paper over offending portions of the
billboards.
25
From the article “Photography Changes the Movies We Choose to See”
by Preminda Jacob (©2012 by Preminda Jacob). Used with permission.
21. The main purpose of the passage is to:
A. argue that the Indian film industry relies heavily
on billboard advertising to increase ticket sales.
B. compare the histories of the Indian and Hollywood
film industries as seen through billboard
advertisements.
C. demonstrate the effect that Chennai’s cinematic
billboards have had on movie theaters and the
local economy.
D. explore the way Chennai’s cinematic billboards
represent the melding of film, photography, and
painting.
In his work, Barthes made another, different point
about distinctions between photographic and painted
50 images. A photograph, he claimed, is indexical—it has
a direct and detailed correspondence to the subject,
whereas in a drawn or painted image, each mark or
brushstroke potentially takes on more symbolic value.
So, what happens when the conventions of three media
55 coalesce? A photograph of Mr. Vedachellam at work
records a complex nexus of photography, painting, and
ACT-D03
This method of transferring photographic stills
onto canvas encouraged artists to further manipulate
and idealize images of their celebrity subjects.
22. In the passage, Chennai’s cinematic billboards are
most nearly characterized as:
F. imposing and provocative.
G. solemn and forbidding.
H. minimalist yet cheerful.
J. subtle yet informative.
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3
3
23. The main point of the second paragraph (lines 10–24)
is that Barthes theorized that:
A. a film still expanded to architectural proportions is
more effective than a small still.
B. careful viewing of film stills is essential to understanding full-length films.
C. the experience of viewing a moving image is different from the experience of viewing a film still.
D. a film still is easier to remember when viewed in
the context of the entire movie.
27. As it is used in line 13, the word calculated most
nearly means:
A. intended.
B. estimated.
C. counted.
D. judged.
28. As he is presented in the passage, Barthes claimed that
compared to a photograph, a drawn or painted image is
potentially more:
F. difficult for many viewers to appreciate.
G. useful for conveying the artist’s feelings.
H. likely to be considered an art object.
J. likely to have symbolic value.
24. According to the passage, in India, the act of enhancing photographic images with paint was first practiced
by:
F. portrait painters working in the 1880s.
G. poster artists working in the 1950s.
H. assistants working for photojournalists in the
1960s.
J. painters working for studio photographers in the
1850s.
29. In the context of discussing the artistic elements at
work in Chennai’s billboards, the passage author most
likely uses the term “complex nexus” (line 56) to
suggest:
A. a complicated history.
B. an enduring mystery.
C. a sophisticated connection.
D. a challenging problem.
25. According to the passage, before a billboard artist
traced a photographic image onto a canvas, he or she
would first:
A. make multiple copies of the photograph as backups.
B. convert any black-and-white photographs to color.
C. cut away unneeded portions of the photograph.
D. outline every detail in the photograph with poster
paints.
26. In the passage, lines 4–9 primarily serve to:
F. show that advertisers take different approaches to
daytime and nighttime advertising.
G. establish the appearance, function, and appeal of
Chennai’s cinematic billboards.
H. argue that the glare of sunlight is detrimental to
the appreciation of advertising images.
J. explain why Chennai’s cinematic billboards tended
to emphasize certain images.
ACT-D03
30. Based on details in the fifth paragraph (lines 65–84), it
can reasonably be inferred that one reason billboard
artists enhanced or manipulated images from films was
to:
F. justify the cost of theater tickets.
G. fulfill viewers’ fantasies.
H. protest film censorship.
J. support the local art scene.
35
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3
3
Passage IV
pomorphism a word that raised a red flag. But as lesser
50 intellects followed the Nobel Prize–winning pioneers,
anthropomorphism became a pirate flag. If the word
was hoisted, an attack was imminent. You wouldn’t get
your work published. And in the academic realm of
publish or perish, jobs were at stake. Even the most
55 informed, insightful, logical inferences about other animals’ motivations, emotions, and awareness could
wreck your professional prospects.
NATURAL SCIENCE: Passage A is from the book Animal
Wise: The Thoughts and Emotions of Our Fellow Creatures by
Virginia Morell. Passage B is from the essay “Big Love: The
Emotional Lives of Elephants” by Carl Safina.
Passage A by Virginia Morell
One of the more striking discoveries in neuroscience in recent years is the finding that elephants,
whales, great apes, and humans all possess a peculiar
kind of brain cell. These neurons were first discovered
5 in human brains in the nineteenth century and were
named von Economo cells after the Romanian
anatomist Constantin von Economo, who identified
them. At first, these spindle-shaped neurons were
touted as the cells that “make us human,” because
10 they’re connected to our feelings of empathy, love,
emotional suffering, and sociality. Then, in 1999, two
other researchers, Patrick Hof and John Allman, spotted
von Economo cells in the brains of all the great apes;
others recently found them in monkeys. Allman has
15 searched without luck for the cells in more than a hundred other species, from sloths to platypuses. So it was
big news when, in 2007, he discovered spindle cells in
the brains of whales, dolphins, and elephants. But it
was a puzzling discovery, too. Why should such a dis20 parate group of animals have these specialized cells?
But what is a “human” emotion? When someone
says you can’t attribute human emotions to animals,
60 they forget the key leveling detail: humans are animals.
Human sensations are animal sensations. Inherited sensations, using inherited nervous systems.
All of the emotions we know of just happen to be
emotions that humans feel. So, simply deciding that
65 other animals can’t have any emotions that humans feel
is a cheap way to get a monopoly on all of the world’s
feelings and motivation. People who’ve systematically
watched or known animals realize the absurdity of this.
But many others still don’t. “The dilemma remains,”
70 wrote author Caitrin Nicol recently, “how to get an
accurate understanding of the animals’ nature and (if
appropriate) emotions, without imposing on them
assumptions born of a distinctly human understanding
of the world.”
But tell me, what “distinctly human understanding” hampers our understanding of other animals’ emotions? Is it our sense of pleasure, pain, hunger,
frustration, self-preservation, defense, parental protection? We never seem to doubt that an animal acting
80 hungry feels hungry. What reason is there to disbelieve
that an elephant who seems happy is happy? We can’t
really claim scientific objectivity when we recognize
hunger and thirst when animals are eating and drinking,
exhaustion when they tire, but deny them joy and hap85 piness as they’re playing with their children and their
families. Yet the science of animal behavior has long
operated with that bias—and that’s unscientific. In science, the simplest interpretation of evidence is often
the best.
75
From an evolutionary point of view, it’s not surprising that primates and humans have von Economo
cells, since we are in the same lineage. But primates
and humans haven’t shared an ancestor with whales or
25 elephants since about the beginning of the mammalian
lineage, some sixty million years ago. It seems that
cetaceans and elephants evolved their spindle cells
independently. What factors would produce such emotionally specialized brain cells?
Allman thinks part of the answer lies in the size of
the animals’ brains—most species that have spindle
cells also have notably large brains—and in the location
of the cells. Von Economo cells are always found in two
regions of the cortex associated with emotionally
35 charged, visceral judgments, such as deciding whether
a fellow animal is suffering. And part of the answer lies
in the size of the spindle cells. They are unusually
large, enabling them to act like high-speed circuits,
fast-tracking information to and from other parts of the
40 brain, while bypassing unnecessary connections. These
are the kind of cells, Allman argues, that would be
especially useful to an animal living in a complex society—a society in which making accurate, intuitive decisions about another’s actions (or facial or vocal
45 expressions) is crucial for your family’s and your
survival.
30
Passage A: Excerpt(s) from ANIMAL WISE: THE THOUGHTS AND
EMOTIONS OF OUR FELLOW CREATURES by Virginia Morell, copyright © 2013 by Virginia Morell. Used by permission of Crown Books, an
imprint of the Crown Publishing Group, a division of Penguin Random
House LLC. All rights reserved.
Passage B: ©2015 by Carl Safina. Used by permission of Carl Safina in
care of the Jean V. Naggar Literary Agency, Inc. (permissions@jvnla.com)
Questions 31–34 ask about Passage A.
31. Passage A most strongly suggests that in the nineteenth century, anatomists generally believed:
A. our feelings of empathy, love, and sociality
weren’t part of what makes us human.
B. von Economo cells existed only in the human
brain.
C. the spindle-shaped neurons that von Economo
identified shouldn’t be named for him.
D. it was crucial to search for von Economo cells in a
variety of animals.
Passage B by Carl Safina
Anthropomorphism is the attribution of human motivation, characteristics, or behavior to animals, inanimate objects, or natural phenomena.
In establishing the study of animal behavior as a
science, it had originally been helpful to make anthroACT-D03
36
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3
3
32. It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage A that
Allman’s search for von Economo cells in which of the
following animals occurred last chronologically?
F. Sloths
G. Dolphins
H. Platypuses
J. Great apes
37. The author of Passage B criticizes the conclusion that
if humans feel a particular emotion, then animals:
A. won’t be able to recognize that emotion in
humans.
B. will want to learn how to have that emotion.
C. can’t have that emotion.
D. must have that emotion.
33. The main point of the second paragraph of Passage A
(lines 21–29) is that:
A. at the beginning of the mammalian lineage, primates and humans shared ancestors with whales
and elephants.
B. primates and humans are in the same lineage.
C. some animals seem to have been able to develop
von Economo cells independently from primates
and humans.
D. von Economo cells can be described as “emotionally specialized brain cells.”
Questions 38–40 ask about both passages.
38. Which of the following statements best captures a key
difference in the way the passages explore the link
between human and animal emotions?
F. Passage A focuses on neuroscience, whereas Passage B focuses on the observation of behavior.
G. Passage A focuses on nineteenth-century research,
whereas Passage B focuses on current research.
H. Passage A focuses on survival drives, whereas Passage B focuses on familial bonds.
J. Passage A focuses on anecdotal evidence, whereas
Passage B focuses on one extensive study.
34. According to Passage A, Allman believes a clear correlation exists between a species having spindle cells and
that species having:
F. a close genetic link to whales.
G. several types of neurons.
H. a very large brain.
J. a cortex.
39. Which of the following statements best captures one
difference in the purposes of Passage A and
Passage B?
A. Passage A aims to bluntly correct readers’ assumptions, while Passage B aims to confirm readers’
assumptions.
B. Passage A aims to urge readers to action, while
Passage B aims to encourage readers to stop acting
carelessly.
C. Passage A aims to present two opposing viewpoints for readers to evaluate, while Passage B
aims to entertain readers.
D. Passage A aims to inform readers about a recent
finding, while Passage B aims to challenge readers
with a bold argument.
Questions 35–37 ask about Passage B.
35. Based on Passage B, how does the passage author feel
about the trend in the academic study of animal behavior that is described in lines 49–57?
A. He strongly disapproves.
B. He is ambivalent.
C. He reluctantly approves.
D. He enthusiastically approves.
36. Based on the last paragraph of Passage B, which of the
following statements would be the clearest example of
“the simplest interpretation of evidence” (line 88)?
F. Parental protection is the most advanced and
humanlike emotion that animals can feel.
G. When animals seem frustrated in a frustrating context, the animals are feeling frustration.
H. An animal that seems hungry might not necessarily be hungry.
J. Humans’ own emotions interfere with the ability
to assess emotion in animals.
40. The passages provide the clearest evidence that which
of the following people performs work that is
grounded in hands-on scientific research?
F. The author of Passage A
G. The author of Passage B
H. Allman, as he is presented in Passage A
J. Nicol, as she is presented in Passage B
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT-D03
37
Scoring Keys for Form D03
Use the scoring key for each test to score your answer document for the multiple-choice tests. Mark a “1” in the
blank for each question you answered correctly. Add up the numbers in each reporting category and enter the total
number correct for each reporting category in the blanks provided. Also enter the total number correct for each test
in the blanks provided. The total number correct for each test is the sum of the number correct in each reporting
category.
Test 1: English—Scoring Key
Reporting
Category*
Reporting
Category*
Key POW KLA CSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
D
F
D
G
B
G
A
H
A
J
D
F
A
G
C
J
B
H
A
J
B
G
C
F
B
F
A
G
B
F
C
F
D
F
A
H
B
J
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
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___
___
___
Key POW KLA CSE
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
C
H
D
H
D
F
D
H
B
J
B
G
C
H
A
J
C
J
D
J
C
H
B
H
A
J
C
F
B
F
A
J
B
J
D
G
A
*Reporting Categories
POW = Production of Writing
KLA = Knowledge of Language
CSE = Conventions of Standard English
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Production of Writing (POW)
_______
(23)
Knowledge of Language (KLA)
_______
(12)
Conventions of Standard English (CSE) _______
(40)
___
___
___
Total Number Correct for English Test _______
(POW + KLA + CSE)
(75)
___
50
Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key
Reporting Category*
Reporting Category*
PHM
E
K
D
J
A
J
B
J
E
K
A
H
C
H
C
J
D
K
B
F
E
G
C
F
A
J
C
J
A
J
A
F
G
S
Key
IES MDL
___
___
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
5
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
N
C
G
A
K
C
H
B
K
E
G
D
G
D
G
E
F
C
K
A
F
E
G
E
K
A
J
E
K
C
F
N
A
F
G
S
IES MDL
___
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___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
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___
___
___
___
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___
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___
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___
___
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___
5
Key
PHM
Combine the totals of these columns and put in the blank for PHM in the box below.
*Reporting Categories
PHM = Preparing for Higher Math
N = Number & Quantity
A = Algebra
F = Functions
G = Geometry
S = Statistics & Probability
IES = Integrating Essential Skills
MDL = Modeling
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Preparing for Higher Math (PHM)
(N + A + F + G + S)
_______
(35)
Integrating Essential Skills (IES)
_______
(25)
Total Number Correct for Mathematics Test
(PHM + IES)
_______
(60)
Modeling (MDL)
(Not included in total number correct for
mathematics test raw score)
_______
(23)
51
Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key
Reporting
Category*
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Key KID
CS
A
G
D
F
C
H
D
G
A
J
B
F
B
J
C
F
B
J
A
J
___
Reporting
Category*
IKI
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Key KID
CS
D
F
C
J
D
G
A
J
C
G
B
G
C
H
A
G
C
F
D
H
___
IKI
*Reporting Categories
KID = Key Ideas & Details
CS = Craft & Structure
IKI = Integration of Knowledge & Ideas
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Key Ideas & Details (KID)
_______
(23)
Craft & Structure (CS)
_______
(11)
___
___
___
___
___
___
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI) _______
(6)
Total Number Correct for Reading Test _______
(KID + CS + IKI)
(40)
Test 4: Science—Scoring Key
Reporting
Category*
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Key IOD
SIN
B
G
C
J
A
J
B
G
A
H
C
J
A
H
B
J
A
J
C
F
___
___
EMI
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Reporting
Category*
Key IOD
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
B
F
D
H
A
J
B
G
C
J
A
H
D
J
C
J
A
F
D
F
SIN
EMI
*Reporting Categories
IOD = Interpretation of Data
SIN = Scientific Investigation
EMI = Evaluation of Models,
Inferences & Experimental Results
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
52
Interpretation of Data (IOD)
Scientific Investigation (SIN)
Evaluation of Models, Inferences &
Experimental Results (EMI)
_______
(18)
_______
(11)
_______
(11)
Total Number Correct for Science Test _______
(IOD + SIN + EMI)
(40)
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