PMP Flashcards
Exam Tricks and General Concepts
1. Q: What is a common trick involving answer choices on the PMP exam? A: "Bait
and switch" – the correct answer is often hidden behind distractors that seem
relevant but don’t answer the question’s core intent.
2. Q: Which question section should you pay extra attention to understand what the
examiners are truly asking? A: The "call of the question," usually the last
sentence, which tells what is specifically required.
3. Q: Which two methodologies are represented in a hybrid approach? A:
Predictive (Waterfall) and Agile.
4. Q: In Agile, what is a "burn-down chart"? A: A chart showing work remaining
versus time in a sprint.
5. Q: Define “progressive elaboration.” A: Developing details incrementally as more
information becomes available.
People Domain
6. Q: What is a RACI matrix used for in project management? A: To define roles
and responsibilities for tasks – Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed.
7. Q: Name two key techniques for building a high-performing team. A: Team
chartering and conflict resolution.
8. Q: What is Tuckman's Ladder? A: The five stages of team development:
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
9. Q: In stakeholder management, who is the "sponsor"? A: The person or group
who provides resources and support for the project and is accountable for its
success.
10. Q: Define “stakeholder engagement.” A: Actively managing and involving
stakeholders in the project’s decision-making and progress.
11. Q: What is a project charter? A: A document that formally authorizes a project,
defining high-level objectives, stakeholders, and the project manager's authority.
12. Q: What is active listening? A: A communication technique involving listening
attentively and confirming understanding of the speaker’s message.
13. Q: Which two conflict resolution techniques are win-win? A: Collaboration and
problem-solving.
14. Q: Describe the 5 Whys method. A: Asking "why" repeatedly until the root cause
of an issue is identified.
15. Q: What is a stakeholder register? A: A document listing each stakeholder’s
interests, influence, and expectations.
Process Domain
16. Q: Name the five project management process groups. A: Initiating, Planning,
Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing.
17. Q: What is the critical path method (CPM)? A: A schedule analysis technique
identifying the longest path through a project, determining minimum duration.
18. Q: What is the difference between project and product scope? A: Project scope
is the work required to complete a project; product scope includes the features
and functions of the product.
19. Q: Define “scope creep.” A: Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without
adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
20. Q: What does WBS stand for? A: Work Breakdown Structure – a hierarchical
decomposition of total project work.
21. Q: Name three risk response strategies for threats. A: Avoid, mitigate, and
transfer.
22. Q: Define "cost baseline." A: The approved version of the project budget,
excluding management reserves, used for performance measurement.
23. Q: What is earned value (EV)? A: The value of work performed expressed in
terms of the approved budget.
24. Q: What is a Gantt chart? A: A bar chart that represents a project schedule with
activities and their durations.
25. Q: Explain “bottom-up estimating.” A: Estimating project duration or cost by
aggregating estimates of individual components.
Business Environment
26. Q: What is the benefits management plan? A: A document that defines how
project benefits will be created, maximized, and sustained.
27. Q: What are enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)? A: External conditions that
impact project success, like organizational culture, industry standards, and
political climate.
28. Q: Define “organizational process assets” (OPAs). A: Policies, procedures, and
historical information that support project management.
29. Q: What is a change control board (CCB)? A: A group that reviews, evaluates,
and approves or rejects project changes.
30. Q: What is a risk register? A: A document containing identified risks, their
assessment, and response plans.
ITTOs and Key Terms
31. Q: What are the primary inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? A:
Project statement of work, business case, agreements, and enterprise
environmental factors.
32. Q: Name two outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. A:
Deliverables and work performance data.
33. Q: What is the main output of the Control Quality process? A: Verified
deliverables.
34. Q: Which tool is commonly used in stakeholder analysis? A: Power/interest grid.
35. Q: Define “parametric estimating.” A: Using statistical relationships between
historical data and other variables to estimate costs or duration.
Agile and Hybrid Methodologies
36. Q: What is a product backlog? A: A prioritized list of work for the team derived
from project and product requirements in Agile.
37. Q: What is a sprint retrospective? A: A review meeting at the end of each sprint
to discuss what went well and identify improvements.
38. Q: Describe the role of a Scrum Master. A: Facilitates team collaboration,
removes impediments, and ensures Agile practices are followed.
39. Q: What is the Agile Manifesto? A: A set of values and principles that guide Agile
project management approaches.
40. Q: Define "minimum viable product" (MVP). A: The smallest version of a product
with just enough features to satisfy early customers.
Key Formulas
41. Q: How is Schedule Performance Index (SPI) calculated? A: SPI = EV / PV
(Earned Value / Planned Value).
42. Q: What does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) greater than 1 indicate? A: The
project is under budget.
43. Q: Define EAC in Earned Value Management. A: Estimate at Completion – the
expected total cost of completing all work.
44. Q: How do you calculate Estimate to Complete (ETC)? A: ETC = EAC - AC
(Estimate at Completion - Actual Cost).
45. Q: What is the formula for Variance at Completion (VAC)? A: VAC = BAC - EAC
(Budget at Completion - Estimate at Completion).
Additional Key Concepts and Terms
46. Q: What does Kaizen mean in project management? A: Continuous
improvement.
47. Q: Define “Pareto Chart.” A: A bar chart showing causes of problems ordered by
frequency, following the 80/20 rule.
48. Q: What is “Crashing”? A: Adding resources to activities to reduce project
duration, typically increasing cost.
49. Q: What is “Fast Tracking”? A: Overlapping project phases or activities to save
time but may increase risk.
50. Q: What is a PERT chart used for? A: To visualize the sequence of activities and
estimate time for each in a project.
More Advanced and Domain-Specific Terms
51. Q: Define "lead time" in scheduling. A: Time that an activity can start before its
predecessor is finished.
52. Q: What is a fishbone diagram used for? A: To identify root causes of a problem
in quality management.
53. Q: Define "velocity" in Agile. A: The amount of work a team can complete in a
sprint.
54. Q: What is stakeholder analysis? A: Process of identifying stakeholders and
analyzing their needs and expectations.
55. Q: What does “timeboxing” mean in Agile? A: Setting a fixed limit of time for an
activity or task.
Situational Practice Questions
56. Q: You’re identifying risks. Which risk response strategy would you use to reduce
a risk's impact? A: Mitigate.
57. Q: A stakeholder demands a new feature. What document should the project
manager consult? A: Change log or change request form.
58. Q: You need quick feedback on a project component. Which Agile ceremony is
most suitable? A: Sprint review.
59. Q: If a sponsor requests more frequent updates, which plan should be modified?
A: Communications management plan.
60. Q: Your project is running behind. Should you fast-track or crash to catch up? A:
It depends on the cost and risk trade-offs; crashing may increase costs, while
fast-tracking could increase risk.
Glossary Drill (More Key Terms)
61. Q: What is "resource leveling"? A: Adjusting the start and finish dates based on
resource availability.
62. Q: Define "scope baseline." A: The approved version of a scope statement,
WBS, and WBS dictionary.
63. Q: What is a “use case”? A: A detailed scenario that describes interactions
between a user and the system.
64. Q: Define “acceptance criteria.” A: Conditions that must be met for deliverables
to be approved.
65. Q: What is a “sprint backlog”? A: The set of product backlog items selected for
the sprint, plus a plan for delivering them.