MEGA ISLAMIC BOARDING SCHOOL SEMARANG Name Class Subject Biology : ___________________ : XI Grade : Biology Unit 09 Gas Exchange System 1. Goblet cells, squamous epithelial cells and ciliated cells are found in various structures that mae up the human lung. Where are these cells located? 2. Which fact about alveoli and blood capillaries does not lead to an increased efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs? A. The walls of the capillaries and alveoli are coated in surfactant B. The walls of the capillaries and alveoli are very thin C. Capillaries and alveoli have a large total surface area D. The blood flow slow as it passes through pulmonary capillaries 3. Goblet cells and ciliated epithelium are both found in which structures in the breathing system? 4. Label the structures in the human breathing system. What are the correct labels for structure 1, 2, 3 and 4 ? 5. Which is the function of elastic fibers in the lungs? A. They increase in number in the walls of alveoli as a result of the release of the enzyme elastase B. They prevent the walls of the alveoli from collapsing as air is breathed in C. They allow the walls of streched alveoli to recoil to assist in exhalation D. They increase in number in the walls of the alveoli as emphysema develops 6. Which row correctly describes the pulmonary artery? 7. Which row correctly gives the approximate diameters of the alveolus, trachea, bronchus and bronchiole within a human lung? 8. Which function is paired with the incorrect cell or tissue? 9. What are the correct functions of the named tissue of the gas exchange system? 10. The diagram shows a cross-section of a bronchus wall (not to scale). 11. Which row correctly describes a bronchiole? 12. He trachea and alveoli are key structures in the human gas exchange system. Which tissues are present in each? 13. The diagram shows a section of a specialised type of epithelium. Where can this epithelium be found in the respiratory system? 14. A scientist looks at the wall of a bronchus under an electron microscpe. What would they expect to see? 1) Exocytotic vesicles 2) Cartilage cells 3) Ciliated cells A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3 15. Which of the following does not lead to a maximised uptake of oxyen in the lungs? A. Binding of the first oxygen molecule in increases haemoglobin’s affinity for other oxygen molecules B. Up to eight oxygen atoms can be bound to one haemoglobin molecule C. Dissociation of carbon monoxide from carboxyhaemoglobin allows more haemoglobin o be available for oxygen binding D. Oxyhaemoglobin formation increases the capacity of red blood cells to transport oxygen 16. Why do bronchioles have a folded inner lining? A. To trap foreign particles B. To increase the surface area C. To allow for expansion during breathing D. To facilitate gaseous exchange 17. A cross-section of bronchus is shown in the photomicrograph. 18. A bronchus wall is shown in the photomicrograph. What is the function of tissue X? A. Widens the airway after an allergi reaction B. Contracts to constrict the airway C. Provides support to stop the airway from collapsing D. Produces mucus to trap bacteria and dust climbing 19. During an asthma attack, extra mucus is produced and tubes within the gas exchange system narrow. Which of the following responses occur during an asthma attack? 1) Exocytosis in goblet cells increases 2) Activity of ciliated epithelium increases 3) Smooth muscles respire faster A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 20. Which of the following organelles do goblet cells have large quantities of 1) Secretory vesices 2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum 3) Mitochondria 4) Lysososomes A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only 21. The alveoli walls are damaged by a disease. What effect does this have on the surface are and volume of the lungs? 22. Emphysema is a lung disease that results in the alveoli being unable to return to their original shape after inhalation. Stages in the development of emphysema are shown in the diagram below. Unit 10 Infectious Diseases Infectious Disease 23. How are the following diseases transmitted? Goblet cells, squamous epithelial cells and ciliated cells are found in various structures that make up the human lung. 24. Which of the following statements describe why people in Europe can suffer from both malaria and tuberculosis, but only tuberculosis is transmitted there? A. Tuberculosis bacteria cannot survive in subtropical and tropical areas. B. Antibiotics can only be used to cure people with tuberculosis. C. Migrant workers can carry the disease with them. D. Anopheles mosquitos only breed in sub-tropical and tropical areas. 25. The diagram shows different features of disease. Which area refers to common properties of both tuberculosis and cholera? 26. Which row in the table shows the features of the organisms that cause HIV/ AIDS, malaria and TB have in common? 27. Which row shows the causative agent and the transmission method of cholera? 28. Which row correctly gives the approximate diameters of the alveolus, trachea, bronchus and bronchiole within a human lung? (EXTENDED) A. Migation of people due to war B. An increase in drug-resistant foms if malaria C. No financially viable vaccine available D. Climate change 29. Why are refugee camps (kamp pengungsian) likely to see outbreak of cholera infections. Which function is paired with the incorrect cell or tissue? E. There is a shortage of food and water F. There is a shortage of antibiotics G. Drinking water is likely to be contaminated with sewage (limbah) H. People live in close contract, increasing the risk of droplet infection 30. Which disease is most likely to be transmitted during pregnancy or birth? A. Cholera B. Obesity C. Tuberculosis D. HIV/ AIDS 31. Which of the diseases, in the list below, is transmitted by an insect vector? A. Cholera B. HIV/ AIDS C. Tuberculosis D. Malaria 32. The following lists some possible methods of transmission of HIV: 1 blood transfusion 2 drinking water 3 vector 4 intravenous needles 5 across the placenta 6 undercooked meat Which statements are correct? A. 1, 4 and 5 B. 1,3 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 4 and 6 33. The table below shows some statements about diseases. Match the 4 names diseases belo to the statements abo’ve. Which row gives the correct name for each disease? 34. Improvements in the supply of clean water, sewage treatment, insect control and a milk pasteurisation programme have all been undertaken in a village. Which of these diseases that are present in the village will not be controlled by these actions? A. Cholera B. HIV/AIDS C. tuberculosis D. Malaria 35. These are all methods of infectious disease transmission. 1 Vector 2 Contact 3 Food 4 Droplet Which row correctly matches the organism with the mode of transmission of each of the disease? 36. The following statements are about people infected with HIV/AIDS. 1 They will have symptoms 2 They can be treated and completely cured 3 They may live for many years after infection Which ones are correct? A. 1only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 3 only 37. After visiting a foreign country, a traveller starts to have fevers at regular intervals. They have blood tests during the fevers, these show a decrease in erythrocytes (anaemia). Which disease does this person have? A. Cholera B. HIV/AIDS C. tuberculosis D. Malaria 38. Which row shows the causative agent, the transmission method and method of control of each disease? 39. Which of the statements below provides an explanation for an increase in the spread of malaria? 1 increasing resistance to antibiotics and other drugs 2 continued migration of people due to war and civil unrest 3 increasing carbon dioxide levels causing global warming A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 40. Which of the following is the best definition for non-infectious disease? A. all diseases of old age B. diseases caused by malnutrition C. all diseases that are not caused by a pathogen D. all diseases that can be transmitted from mother to child 41. Some statements about infectious diseases are given below. 42. The diagram shows some human diseases and the methods of their transmission. What is correct pathogen and method of transmission for choleraa? A. 1 and R B. 1 and S C. 3 and R D. 2 and R 43. The table shows information about malaria, measles, HIV/ AIDS and cholera. Which is the correct row for each disease? 44. Malaria is caused by a parasite that enters the liver cells of the infected individual where it can lay dormant over long periods of time. Which of the following statements is not likely to be true in patients suffering from malaria? A. Dizziness due to poor regulation of blood sugar. B. Muscle aches and pains due to poor oxygen supply. C. A compromised immune system due to reduced T-lymphocyte numbers. D. Anaemia due to loss of red blood cells. 45. After visiting a foreign country, a traveller starts to have fevers at regular intervals. They have blood tests during these fevers, these show a decrease in erythrocytes (anaemia). Which of the following pathogens may have possibly infected the traveller? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Variola C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Morbillivirus 46. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reproduces inside cells in the body. Which of the following explains why HIV patients may develop flu-like symptoms? A. It infects the red blood cells so patients lack the energy required for immune system function. B. It infects the bone marrow so white blood cells cannot be produced. C. It infects the plasma cells so antibodies cannot be produced. D. It infects the T-lymphocytes so the next stage of the immune response cannot occur. 47. Which of the following are the most effective control measures for malaria in developing countries? A. Spraying all breeding sites with biological control measures such as Bacillus thuringiensis. B. Using nets soaked in insecticide to sleep under. C. Using vaccines for all communities. D. Using oil on the surface of standing water to make it impossible for mosquito larvae pupae to breathe. 48. Tuberculosis (TB) has an annual incidence of 8.6 million people with a mortality rate of 1.3 million worldwide. What is the main issue that faces the World Health Organisation (WHO) when trying to control the transmission of TB? A. TB is easily transferred from cattle to humans. B. TB is developing resistance to multiple drugs. C. The TB vaccine, BCG protects 70-80% of people who receive it D. Diagnosis can take up to two weeks. 49. One of the pathogens listed below is transmitted by an insect vector. Which disease has an insect vector? A. Variola B. Plasmodium vivax C. Morbillivirus D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Antibiotics 50. An antibiotic sensitivity test was performed on bacteria isolated from a patient's throat. The diagram shows the results of the four antibiotics tested. Which one should be used to treat the disease? 51. The data in the graph shows the effect of an antibiotic on the population of bacteria in the blood. What can be concluded from the data in the graph? A. Antibiotics take 10 days to kill all bacteria. B. Antibiotics cause a reduction in division of bacteria. C. Antibiotics are effective against viral and bacterial infections. D. Before the start of the antibiotic treatment the bacterial population was increasing. 52. Which of the following practices have contributed to the fall in antibiotic effectiveness in the late 20th and early 21st centuries? 1. Large-scale use of preventative antibiotics in farm livestock 2. Failing to complete the full course of antibiotics prescribed by a doctor 3. Treatment of known bacterial infections with antibiotics 4. Treatment of viral infections with antibiotics A. All of them B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 4 53. The diagram below shows how the effect of growing bacteria in the presence of an antibiotic can be investigated. Five different types of bacteria were grown on their own petri dish, one example is shown below: The table below shows the results from testing the antibiotic on the growth of these five types of bacteria. Zones of inhibition less than 13 mm show the presence of resistant bacteria. Which statement is supported by the data? A. Bacteria type 5 can never become resistant to the antibiotic. B. The antibiotic can be used to treat all five types of bacteria. C. Only types 2, 3 and 4 of the bacteria showed resistance to the antibiotic. D. Bacteria become more resistant over time. 54. The diagram shows the effect of growing Escherichia coli in the presence of streptomycin and penicilin. 55. Two species of bacteria A and B were grown on an agar plate. Each plate had three filter paper discs with the following: 1 no antibiotic (control) 2 penicillin V, a natural penicillin 3 carboxypenicillin, a synthetic penicillin The diagram below shows the results: Which statement is a correct conclusion for this experiment? A. Penicillin V is more effective than carboxypenicillin B. Penicillin V is equally effective against A and B bacteria C. Penicillin V and carboxypenicillin are both effective against bacteria A D. Penicillin V is effective against bacteria B 56. Lefamulin™ is a newly-developed antibiotic that binds to the 50S bacterial ribosomal subunit. It was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in August 2019 for the treatment of pneumonia. Which is the mode of action of Lefamulin™™? A. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis B. Perforates the bacterial cell membrane C. Prevents the bacterial cell wall forming D. Inhibits replication of bacterial DNA 57. Which is a reason why fungi such as Penicillium have evolved to produce antibiotics? A. To destroy bacteria that could otherwise feed on Penicillium B. To destroy bacteria that could otherwise harm the fungus's host organisms C. To destroy saprophytic bacteria as a way of Penicillium out-competing bacterial competitors for food D. To kill viruses that may otherwise be pathogenic to the fungus Unit 11 Immunity 58. Which of the following statements describes the function of a macrophage? A. They circulate in the blood and produce antigens in response to infection. B. They are found in tissues and secrete cytokines in response to infection. C. They can leave the blood and secrete cytotoxins when exposed to damaged cells. D. They can leave the blood and accumulate at sites of inflammation. 59. In the immune response, which cells become memory cells? 1 phagocytes 2 T-lymphocytes 3 B-lymphocytes A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 D. 1 only 60. When a B-lymphocyte is activated by an antigen what action is taken? A. It engulfs the infected body cell which displays a complementary antigen. B. It secretes cytokines which stimulate T- lymphocytes to produce plasma cells. C. It divides repeatedly to form clones of genetically identical plasma cells. D. It attaches to the infected cell displaying the antigen and destroys it. 61. What type of white blood cell is involved in the cell- mediated response? A. B-lymphocytes B. phagocytes C. T-lymphocytes D. pathogens 62. Which of the following happens when people are injected with dead bacteria? A. B-lymphocytes produce antigens B. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies C. T-lymphocytes produce antigens D. T-lymphocytes produce antibodies 63. Which of the following statements would be a correct definition of an antigen? A. Non-self macromolecules that trigger an immune response. B. Non-self macromolecules found only on bacteria that trigger the formation of antibodies. C. Proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains. D. Self macromolecules embedded in B- lymphocytes cell membranes. 64. Which type of molecules are most important to identify a cell as non-self? A. proteins B. phospholipids C. carbohydrates D. nucleic acids 65. When in a dusty environment a person inhales tiny minute particles. What will be the correct effect on both B-lymphocytes and goblet cells? 66. Monocytes are formed when stem cells divide and specialise in the bone marrow. Where in the body do these cells form macrophages? A. lymph nodes B. blood plasma C. bone marrow D. tissue fluid 67. T-killer cells can target and destroy body cells. What process do they use to do this? A. phagocytosis B. by secreting antibodies C. by releasing anti toxins D. through punching a hole in the target cell membrane 68. When a phagocyte responds to the presence of a pathogen the following events happen: 1 enzymatic digestion 2 exocytosis 3 phagocytosis 4 vacuole formation 5 endocytosis Which of the following would be the correct order of events? 69. Two different molecules, when chemically bonded together, can form one type of antigen. Except for oxygen, which of the following elements would be found in this antigen? A. carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus B. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulfur C. hydrogen and nitrogen only D. carbon and hydrogen only 70. Which of these statements about phagocytes is not correct? A. They have many mitochondria to produce ATP for endocytosis. B. They have many lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes. C. They provide specific defence against disease-causing organisms. D. They are white blood cells with a lobed nucleus. 71. Which of these statements is correct about both B-lymphocytes and T- lymphocytes? A. When active can divide to produce memory cells to respond to a specific antigen when exposed in the future. B. They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor. C. They divide to form plasma cells. D. They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate the release of antibodies. 72. The following events happen during a primary immune response. 1 Specific antibodies are produced. 2 Some B-lymphocytes form plasma cells. 3 B-lymphocytes with the specific cell surface receptors divide repeatedly by mitosis. 4 Helper T cell identifies a specific antigen presented. 5 Helper T cells secrete cytokines. Which is the correct order of events? 73. Which of the following would be a correct difference between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes, both of which are involved in an immune response? 74. Which of the following statements describes the function of a macrophage? A. They circulate in the blood and produce antigens in response to infection. B. They are found in tissues and secrete cytokines in response to infection. C. They can leave the blood and secrete cytotoxins when exposed to damaged cells. D. They can leave the blood and accumulate at sites of inflammation. 75. In the immune response, which cells become memory cells? 1 phagocytes 2 T-lymphocytes 3 B-lymphocytes A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 D. 1 only 76. When a B-lymphocyte is activated by an antigen what action is taken? A. It engulfs the infected body cell which displays a complementary antigen. B. It secretes cytokines which stimulate T- lymphocytes to produce plasma cells. C. It divides repeatedly to form clones of genetically identical plasma cells. D. It attaches to the infected cell displaying the antigen and destroys it. 77. What type of white blood cell is involved in the cell- mediated response? A. B-lymphocytes B. phagocytes C. T-lymphocytes D. pathogens 78. Which of the following happens when people are injected with dead bacteria? A. B-lymphocytes produce antigens B. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies C. T-lymphocytes produce antigens D. T-lymphocytes produce antibodies 79. Which of the following statements would be a correct definition of an antigen? A. Non-self macromolecules that trigger an immune response. B. Non-self macromolecules found only on bacteria that trigger the formation of antibodies. C. Proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains. D. Self macromolecules embedded in B- lymphocytes cell membranes. 80. Which type of molecules are most important to identify a cell as non-self? A. proteins B. phospholipids C. carbohydrates D. nucleic acids 81. When in a dusty environment a person inhales tiny minute particles. What will be the correct effect on both B-lymphocytes and goblet cells? 82. Monocytes are formed when stem cells divide and specialise in the bone marrow. Where in the body do these cells form macrophages? A. lymph nodes B. blood plasma C. bone marrow D. tissue fluid 83. T-killer cells can target and destroy body cells. What process do they use to do this? A. phagocytosis B. by secreting antibodies C. by releasing anti toxins D. through punching a hole in the target cell membrane 84. When a phagocyte responds to the presence of a pathogen the following events happen: 1 enzymatic digestion 2 exocytosis 3 phagocytosis 4 vacuole formation 5 endocytosis Which of the following would be the correct order of events? 85. Two different molecules, when chemically bonded together, can form one type of antigen. Except for oxygen, which of the following elements would be found in this antigen? A. carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus B. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulfur C. hydrogen and nitrogen only D. carbon and hydrogen only 86. Which of these statements about phagocytes is not correct? A. They have many mitochondria to produce ATP for endocytosis. B. They have many lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes. C. They provide specific defence against disease-causing organisms. D. They are white blood cells with a lobed nucleus. 87. Which of these statements is correct about both B-lymphocytes and T- lymphocytes? A. When active can divide to produce memory cells to respond to a specific antigen when exposed in the future. B. They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor. C. They divide to form plasma cells. D. They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate the release of antibodies. 88. The following events happen during a primary immune response. 1 Specific antibodies are produced. 2 Some B-lymphocytes form plasma cells. 3 B-lymphocytes with the specific cell surface receptors divide repeatedly by mitosis. 4 Helper T cell identifies a specific antigen presented. 5 Helper T cells secrete cytokines. Which is the correct order of events? 89. Which of the following would be a correct difference between B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes, both of which are involved in an immune response? 90. In an immune response, which of the following is a function of T-lymphocytes? 1 secrete antibodies 2 differentiate into memory cells 3 destroy infected body cells A. 3 onlys B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only 91. Which of the following rows correctly represents a description of B-lymphocytes? 92. Macrophages have a cellular structure that enables them to destroy bacteria. Some bacteria can stop macrophages from working. Which of the following would be a structure affected by bacteria? A. Vesicle B. Ribosome C. Golgi body D. Lysosome 93. Which of the following statements about the body's defence against infectious disease is not correct? A. A specific immune response involves activation of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes following recognition of, and binding to, a specific antigen. B. Following invasion by microorganisms, natural active immunity can be gained by initiating an immune response. C. Lysosomes fuse with vacuoles that have been formed by phagocytes and which contain invading microorganisms. D. Antibodies against specific antigens are produced by plasma cells in passive immunity, but the protection is short-lived as no memory cells are produced. 94. Which of the pathways below shows the correct activity of a helper T cell? 95. Monocytes move from the blood to the connective tissue. Which phagocytic cell do they differentiate into? A. Macrophage B. Neutrophil C. T-lymphocyte D. B-lymphocyte 96. Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary humoral response? A. It happens only in the spleen. B. It happens much more rapidly than a primary response. C. It results in antibody secretion. D. It results in less memory cell circulation. 97. Which cell is essential for an adaptive immune response? A. plasma cells B. Antibodies C. T-lymphocytes D. B-lymphocytes 98. What is a phagosome? A. A vesicle containing lysozymes. B. A white blood cell produces antibodies. C. A white blood cell that ingests bacteria. D. A vesicle containing an engulfed bacterium. 99. Which type of cell will destroy virally-infected cells? A. phagocytic macrophages B. activated B-lymphocytes C. plasma cells D. cytotoxic T-lymphocytes 11. IMMUNITY FROM PAST PAPER CAMBRIDGE 100. Which processes characterise the mode of action of phagocytes? 1 antibody production 2 receptor binding 3 endocytosis 4 exocytosis 5 hydrolysis A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, 4 and 5 D 3 and 5 only 9700/12/F/M/2023-40 101. Which of the statements could describe both B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes? 1 They contain specific protein receptors in their cell surface membranes. 2 They differentiate into plasma cells. 3 They divide by mitosis. A 1 and 3 B 1 only M 2017/P12/Q39 C 2 and 3 D 2 only 102. The photomicrograph shows human blood, with three types of white cell labelled. Which row correctly identifies these white cells? 9700/13/M/J/2017-39 103. The flow diagram shows the events following activation of a T-lymphocyte by binding to antigens on an infected cell. Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z? O/N 17/P13/Q39 104. Which blood cell type does not recognise, engulf and digest non-self particles? A macrophages B neutrophils C phagocytes D T-killer cells 9700/11/M/J/2023-39 105. A student used a diagram to show four types of cells involved in the primary immune response. Which row is correct? 9700/12/M/J/2022-40 106. What is the first response by the immune system to a pathogen? A ingestion of the pathogen by phagocytes B production of antibodies C production of antigens D stimulation of B memory cells 9700/12/M/J/2017-40 107. Which sequence of events occurs during an immune response? 1 development of plasma cells 2 mitosis of B-lymphocytes 3 recognition of non-self antigens 4 secretion of antibodies A2→3→4→1 B2→4→3→1 C3→1→2→4 D3→2→1→4 O/N 17/P12/Q39 108. Some of the events during the primary immune response are listed. 1 phagocytosis of a foreign microbe by a macrophage and antigen presentation 2 some T-lymphocytes will become T-killer cells which kill infected body cells 3 the T-helper cell divides by mitosis to produce T-lymphocyte clones 4 a T-helper cell with the complementary receptor binds to the antigens being presented What is the correct sequence of events during the primary immune response? A4132 B1432 C3142 D3412 9700/13/M/J/2022-40 109. Which types of cell are stimulated to divide by the cytokines produced by T-helper cells? A macrophages B B-lymphocytes only C T-killer cells only D B-lymphocytes and T-killer cells 9700/11/M/J/2022-40 110. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are often unable to respond to the antigens on pathogens that are intracellular parasites. What is the reason for this? A The antigens are constantly mutating. B The antigens can destroy the lymphocytes. C The lymphocytes do not encounter the antigens. D The lymphocytes do not recognise the antigens. M/J 17/P11/Q40 111. Some responses made by cells of the immune system to a pathogen are listed. 1 mitosis 2 recognises a pathogen 3 produces memory cells 4 secretes enzymes Which responses are correct for phagocytes? A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only 9700/13/O/N/2023-39 112. Some responses made by cells of the immune system to a pathogen are listed. 1. Mitosis 2. bind to specific antigens 3. produce memory cells 4. secrete antibodies Which responses are correct for B-lymphocytes? A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 4 only C 1 and 3 only D 2, 3 and 4 only 9700/11/O/N/2023-38 113. Which statement about B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes is correct? A They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor. B They divide to form clones when meeting an antitoxin in a cell. C They produce memory cells to respond to an antigen when exposed in the future. D They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate release of antibodies. 9700/13/O/N/2022-40 114. Which statements explain the differences between a primary and a secondary response to exposure to the same antigen? 1 The primary response is slow, because there are only a few B-lymphocytes that are specific to the antigen. 2 The secondary response is faster, because there are many memory cells specific to the antigen. 3 More antibodies are produced during the secondary response, because many of the memory cells differentiate into plasma cells specific to the antigen. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only 9700/13/O/N/2022-39 ANTIBODY AND VACCINATION 115. A 116. D 117. B C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. Which of the following statements about the body's defence against infectious disease is not correct? A. A specific immune response involves activation of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes following recognition of, and binding to, a specific antigen. B. Following invasion by microorganisms, natural active immunity can be gained by initiating an immune response. C. Lysosomes fuse with vacuoles that have been formed by phagocytes and which contain invading microorganisms. D. Antibodies against specific antigens are produced by plasma cells in passive immunity, but the protection is short-lived as no memory cells are produced. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131.
