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About Quick Book
L4E, is dedicated to guiding students towards success in their examinations. Our
book, titled "NMAT: Quick Book," has been meticulously crafted through the
combined expertise of our distinguished professionals. This comprehensive resource
is designed to align with the latest changes in the syllabus and exam pattern, offering
a carefully curated selection of questions most likely to appear in the NMAT.
With L4E's "NMAT: Quick Book" at your disposal, your odds of success skyrocket by
a factor of 16x, all thanks to our Complete Preparation Package. This package
features well-structured content tailored to your specific needs, facilitating smart
exam preparation by delivering all the essential information. Moreover, it provides
hints and solutions, along with a handy answer sheet for self-assessment. This way,
you can pinpoint your weaknesses and focus your efforts where they are needed
most.
At L4E, we're committed to helping you not only succeed in your examination but
also realize your dreams and ambitions. We have unwavering faith in our aspirants,
envisioning them at the pinnacle of the merit list. The first step toward that goal is to
commence your preparation with us. "NMAT: Quick Book" by L4E offers the following
attributes:
➤ Thoroughly Researched Content
➤ Exceptional Quality
➤ Comprehensive Answers and Analysis
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In essence, L4E fortifies your preparation, making it robust enough to stand tall and
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About the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam
The NMAT by GMAC™ examination provides access to prestigious management
programs in India, South Africa, Nigeria, and the Philippines, with plans to expand to
other nations. This exam is administered by the Graduate Management Admission
Council (GMAC), the same organization that oversees the GMAT® examination. The
NMAT by GMAC™ offers institutions the opportunity to attract top-tier talent while
ensuring that the test accurately assesses the skills necessary for success in their
programs. Since its transition to a computer-based test (CBT) in 2009, the NMAT by
GMAC™ has been a pioneer in high-stakes testing measurement. This exam is
instrumental for gaining admission to leading graduate business programs in India,
South Africa, Nigeria, and the Philippines, with future expansion in mind.
Why take the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam?
The NMAT by GMAC™ examination has consistently symbolized quality, providing
test takers access to graduate management education and the career of their choice,
while also affording schools the opportunity to connect with top-tier talent. It is widely
accepted as an admissions criterion by leading management institutions in India,
South Africa, Nigeria, the Philippines, and has plans to expand to other countries.
The list of institutions recognizing the NMAT by GMAC™ is continually growing,
simplifying your path to realizing your educational and career aspirations.
This examination assesses the skills necessary for success in business school.
When embarking on your business school journey, knowing that you've been
selected using an evaluation that gauges the essential skills for thriving in this
environment in stills the confidence that you can tackle the curriculum and enjoy a
rewarding b-school experience.
Designed to bolster your confidence and optimize your performance, the NMAT by
GMAC™ exam mitigates test-day jitters. Here's how it in stills that confidence:
1. Taking the Test Multiple Times:
You have the flexibility to attempt the NMAT by GMAC™ up to three times
within a single Testing Year (from July 1st to June 30th), providing you with
the assurance of more than one opportunity to showcase your best
performance.
2. Selecting Your Section Order:
With the NMAT by GMAC™, you have the freedom to decide the sequence in
which you tackle each section of the test, allowing you to leverage your
strengths.
3. No Deduction for Incorrect Answers:
In situations where you're uncertain about the correct answer and time is
running out, you can make an educated guess without the apprehension of
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receiving a penalty for an incorrect response. The absence of negative
marking aligns with international testing standards.
Tailored for Your Ease
We understand that your schedule is hectic, and the process of registering, taking
the test, and applying to schools can be time-consuming and stressful. To ease your
burden, we've designed the process to be exceptionally convenient for you:
1. Flexible Scheduling:
A wide testing window enables you to select a test date that suits your
schedule best.
2. Real-Time Self-Scheduling:
You have the freedom to choose your test appointment date, time, and
location in real-time, based on seat availability at each testing center.
3. Mobile Registration:
Our mobile registration feature allows you to register at your convenience,
anytime and from anywhere.
4. Numerous Convenient Locations:
You can opt for any of our conveniently located testing centers to take the
exam, making it accessible and hassle-free for you.
5. Apply to Business Schools or Retake the Test Upon Reviewing Your
Results:
Upon reviewing your test results, you have the flexibility to make an informed
decision. You can either proceed with your application to a business school or,
if you feel the need, opt to retake the test based on your comfort level with the
results you've achieved.
NMAT by GMAC™ Exam Structure
The NMAT by GMAC™ is a computerized adaptive test that tailors each candidate's
examination experience by presenting one question at a time, adjusting the difficulty
based on responses to previous questions. The adaptive format restricts candidates
from reviewing or altering answers to previous questions. The exam comprises three
distinct sections: Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning. Each
section has its own dedicated time limit, and test takers must respond to a total of
108 questions within the allotted 120-minute timeframe. This comprehensive
evaluation across three diverse domains enables schools to assess candidates'
strengths and areas for improvement.
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Language Skills
Language Skills Overview
In this section, we offer an extensive overview of the fundamental language concepts
evaluated in the NMAT by GMAC™ exam. We clarify these concepts using
numerous illustrative examples. We strongly advise that you thoroughly examine
these concepts and engage in practice with the provided examples to enhance your
proficiency. The Language Skills segment of the NMAT by GMAC™ exam will assess
your aptitude in the following key areas:
1. Reading Comprehension
2. Para Forming
3. Error Identification
4. Prepositions
5. Sentence Completion
6. Analogies
The next few sections will explain some of the important strategies to approach each
of these question types and include some practice questions at the end.
Top Language Skills Preparation Tips
1. In the Language Skills section of the NMAT by GMAC™ exam, you'll
encounter 36 questions to be completed within 28 minutes.
2. This section evaluates your proficiency in all aspects of the English language,
including vocabulary, grammar, and comprehension.
3. Efficient time management is key. On average, you should aim for 40 seconds
per question, but allocate more time to Reading Comprehension questions.
Target around 30 seconds for each of the other questions, leaving you
approximately 8-10 minutes for the 7-8 Reading Comprehension questions.
4. Perfect practice makes perfect. Ensure that you practice ample test questions
to fine-tune your timing, particularly for error identification and preposition
questions where knowledge of grammar rules is crucial.
5. Keep an error log for your practice questions and periodically review it to
identify and strengthen your weaker areas.
6. To enhance both your comprehension and vocabulary, incorporate daily
reading of well-written books or reputable newspapers into your routine. Pay
special attention to the Editorial section of newspapers, which is rich in
vocabulary.
7. Maintain a vocabulary journal. Record any new words you encounter during
newspaper reading or practice questions and review it daily.
8. Strive to understand words, not just memorize them. In other words, grasp the
usage of a word, not just its dictionary definition.
9. Quality over quantity is key. Instead of haphazardly memorizing 100 words,
focus on thoroughly understanding the meanings of 20 words. Similarly,
prioritize analyzing a smaller number of questions and uncover why you make
mistakes, working on correction in subsequent practice sessions.
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10. Embrace the strategies outlined in the following sections to make informed
guesses about word meanings and usage. With these strategies, you won't
need to know the meaning of every word in the dictionary.
11. Avoid making assumptions and refrain from relying on real-world knowledge,
especially when tackling Reading Comprehension questions.
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Reading Comprehension
Ques (1-4): Direction: Read the passage and answer the following question.
Mother Teresa is famous in the history of mankind for her charity work toward the
poor, sick, helpless, homeless, and downtrodden people of the society. She was
born on 27th August, 1910 in Yugoslavia, as Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhin, to Albanian
parents.
Agnes Gonxha became a nun of the Order of the Sisters of Our Lady of Loreto in
Ireland at an early age of 18 years. She came to India and commenced her novitiate
(a beginner becoming a nun) in 1928 in Darjeeling, a hill station in the Indian State of
West Bengal. She soon became the principal of the institution. Agnes Gonxha
adopted the name "Teresa" in 1931, in memory of Saint Theéreèse of Lisieux. In
1946 Agnes felt an inner calling to serve the poor, sick, old, and helpless people.
Accordingly, she obtained permission from Pope Pius XII in 1948 to leave the
convent and serve the people living in the slums and in the streets.
In 1948 Agnes Gonxha managed to secure Indian citizenship and started to drape
herself in a sari. In 1950 she started her own order "Missionaries of Charity" to look
after the unloved , abandoned, and unwanted people. She also ran many children's
homes to look after the orphaned, retarded and sick children. Gradually she came to
be known as Mother Teresa. Mother Teresa's Missionaries of Charity founded
"Nirmal Hriday", which is a home for the dying, at an abandoned Kali temple in
Kalighat in West Bengal. In 1953 Mother Teresa founded her first orphanage. She
also started a home for the lepers in the year 1957 in Kolkata. Gradually she
established around 570 homes for the poor in more than 125 countries, both in the
East and in the West.
Mother Teresa was honored with several awards for her contributions to the human
society. These awards include the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1979, Bharat Ratna
(Highest Civilian Award in India) in 1980, Templeton Award (Britain), Magsaysay
Award (The Philippines), Presidential Medal of Freedom from President Ronald
Reagan, etc. However, fame and recognitions mattered very little to her. Mother
Teresa breathed her last on September 5, 1997, in Kolkata, India. She was buried
within the premises of Missionaries of Charity in Kolkata. She has been beatified by
the Catholic Church. This is a step towards becoming a Saint. Now she is referred to
as Blessed Teresa of Calcutta.
Q.1) Mother Teresa is currently referred to as?
(a) Teresa
(b) Saint Teresa
(c) Blessed Teresa of Calcutta
(d) Agnes Gonxha
(e) None of these
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Q.2) Which were some of the awards that Mother Teresa received?
(A). Nobel Prize for Peace in 1979
(B). Bharat Ratna in 1980 (India)
(C). Magsaysay Award (The Philippines)
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these
Q.3) What was the name of the home set up by the Missionaries of Charity for the
dying?
(a) Kalighat
(b) Missionaries of Charity
(c) Nirmal Hriday
(d) Home for the dying
(e) Order of the Sisters of Our Lady of Loreto
Q.4) What does the word 'unloved' mean in the passage?
(a) Uncared for
(b) An intense feeling of deep affection
(c) A great interest and pleasure in something
(d) Love, loyalty, or enthusiasm for a person or activity
(e) Not having or showing the necessary skills to do something successfully
Ques (5-8): Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below. Some words are printed in bold in order to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
The catastrophic monsoon floods in Kerala and parts of Karnataka have revived the
debate on whether political expediency trumped science. Seven years ago, the
Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel issued recommendations for the preservation
of the fragile western peninsular region. Madhav Gadgil, who chaired the Union
Environment Ministry’s WGEEP, has said the recent havoc in Kerala is a
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consequence of shortsighted policymaking, and warned that Goa may also be in the
line of nature’s fury. The State governments that are mainly responsible for the
Western Ghats — Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra — must go
back to the drawing table with the reports of both the Gadgil Committee and the
Kasturirangan Committee, which was set up to examine the WGEEP report. The task
before them is to initiate correctives to environmental policy decisions. This is not
going to be easy, given the need to balance human development pressures with
stronger protection of the Western Ghats ecology. The issue of allowing extractive
industries such as quarrying and mining to operate is arguably the most contentious.
A way out could be to create the regulatory framework that was proposed by the
Gadgil panel, in the form of an apex Western Ghats Ecology Authority and the Statelevel units, under the Environment (Protection) Act, and to adopt the zoning system
that it proposed. This can keep incompatible activities out of the Ecologically
Sensitive Zones (ESZs).
At issue in the Western Ghats — spread over 1,29,037 sq km according to the
WGEEP estimate and 1,64,280 sq km as per the Kasturirangan panel — is the
calculation of what constitutes the sensitive core and what activities can be carried
out there. The entire system is globally acknowledged as a biodiversity hotspot. But
population estimates for the sensitive zones vary greatly, based on interpretations of
the ESZs. In Kerala, for instance, one expert assessment says 39 lakh households
are in the ESZs outlined by the WGEEP, but the figure drops sharply to four lakh
households for a smaller area of zones identified by the Kasturirangan panel. The
goal has to be sustainable development for the Ghats as a whole. The role of big
hydroelectric dams, built during an era of rising power demand and deficits, must
now be considered afresh and proposals for new ones dropped. Other low-impact
forms of green energy led by solar power are available. A moratorium on quarrying
and mining in the identified sensitive zones, in Kerala and also other States, is
necessary to assess their environmental impact. Kerala’s Finance Minister, Thomas
Isaac, has acknowledged the need to review decisions affecting the environment, in
the wake of the floods. Public consultation on the expert reports that includes
people’s representatives will find greater resonance now, and help chart a
sustainable path ahead.
Q.5) Which among the following has been attributed by the experts as a reason of
the recent floods in Kerala and Karnataka?
(a) The states do not have proper system in place of drainage and that is why the
rain water always overflows in these two states.
(b) The states have no idea how to manage any kind of natural calamity and that is
why they cannot tackle any situation however small it may be.
(c) The states should be entrusted with the responsibility of protection of
environment in the areas within their jurisdiction.
(d) The political decision making strategy has always taken the upper hand as
compared to the real interests of the environment.
(e) None of the above
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Q.6) According to the passage, the states affected by the floods should do which
among the following to prevent such incidents in the future?
(a) The states should devote more funds towards the reduction of natural calamities
in the states.
(b) The states should put in place proper warning mechanism so that the
government can get to know the possibility of any natural calamity beforehand.
(c) The states should plan properly so that they can implement the recommendations
of the expert panels regarding the preservation of the Western Ghats Area.
(d) The states should not do anything at present and should only focus on the idea of
going all out in disaster management operations.
(e) None of these
Q.7) Which among the following is the main issue pointed out in the passage in the
implementation of the expert panel reports in various states?
(a) There is no proper framework depicted in the expert panel reports to regulate the
Ecologically Sensitive Zone in the Western Ghat Area.
(b) There is no issue pertaining to the Western Ghat area but the main problem is
that the governments do not have enough funds.
(c) The reservoirs in the vicinity of the area will spell the doom for the area since they
will exhaust the groundwater available in the area.
(d) The area will be flooded since the policy makers are not bothered about the
environment until it affects their vote base.
(e) The balance between development and preservation should be there in order to
develop the area properly.
Q.8) Which among the following should be the objective of all concerned regarding
the development of the Western Ghats Area?
(a) The development plan should be well supported by money and also manpower
by all the states.
(b) The development plan must be drawn up correctly at the first place since it will
help gain an upper hand in the whole process.
(c) The states should take the development of the Western Ghats region seriously so
that the area is actually preserved.
(d) The Western Ghats Area should be preserved properly so that there is
sustainable development of the area.
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(e) The Western Ghats Area should not be taken for granted for development work
by the states because they are not responsible for this.
Ques (9-12): Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below: Employment by a big company is, perhaps, the best job a
young educated aspirant would look forward to. Government jobs are preferred, in
general, to private sector jobs. Large companies are usually considered to be the
best employers. A proxy for growth in headcount would be the growth in what the
companies spend on compensation to employees. Growth in this would reflect a
growth in the headcount and the growth in wages paid. We find that this growth rate
has been falling. CMIE’s Prowess database shows a steady fall in the rate of growth
of compensation paid by companies to employees since 2013-14. The database
includes performance information on a large sample of listed and unlisted companies
of all sizes and industries. Compensation to employees grew by 25 per cent in 201314. The growth rate halved to 12 per cent in 2014-15 and then it fell further to 11 per
cent in 2016-17. In 2017- 18, the growth rate fell to 8.4 per cent. From this, it
wouldn’t be entirely wrong to infer that the corporate sector’s appetite for new hiring
has been declining quite sharply. 2017-18 saw the slowest growth in the past eight
years, or since the year after the Lehman crisis of 2008 when the compensation to
employees grew by only 7.7 per cent. The Prowess database also shows that the
corporate sector registered a fall in growth in fixed assets to 6.9 per cent in 2017-18.
Growth of investments into the job-creating plant and machinery part of fixed assets
was even lower at 5.9 per cent. Both were the lowest since 2004- 05. Evidently, the
two declines in growth rates — plant and machinery and wages go hand-inhand. The lack of investments into fresh capacities is hurting growth in employment.
We see the same fall in investments in another dataset — capex and the same fall in
employment in yet another dataset — the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey.
The evidence of falling growth in investments and employment during the recent past
is therefore overwhelming. Some of the growth in compensation to employees can
be explained as a consequence of inflation and given that inflation has been much
lower in recent years compared to the past, it would be good to correct the growth
numbers for inflation. We do this using the consumer price index for recent years
and the consumer price index for industrial workers for earlier years. Now we see
inflation adjusted compensation to employees grow by only 4.6 per cent in 2017-18.
This is lower than the already-low average growth of 5.5 per cent seen in the
preceding three years. The average real compensation to employees grew at the
rate of 5.3 per cent per annum in the four years between 2014-15 and 2017-18. The
industry-wise distribution of this growth in inflationadjusted compensation to
employees shows some sharp variations between major sectors. The services sector
has seen a very small growth in compensation to employees in 2017-18. Compared
to the overall growth of 4.6 per cent, the services sector saw a growth of only 2.2 per
cent.
Q.9) Which of the following statements is/are true according to the CMIE Prowess
dataset?
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(a) Rate of growth of compensation paid by companies to employees has registered
deceleration since 2013-14.
(b) Compensation to employees grew by 35 per cent in 2013-14.
(c) Corporate sector’s appetite for new hiring has been enhancing.
(d) Year 2014-15 witnessed the slowest growth rate in compensation to employees
since the Lehman crisis of 2008.
(e) All of the above are true.
Q.10) What does the sentence “the two declines in growth rates — plant and
machinery and wages go hand-in-hand” indicate?
(a) Unless we invest in job creating fixed assets, capacity to absorb work force,
wages will not increase.
(b) Reduced investments in fixed assets reduce overall company fixed costs.
(c) Rate of investments in capital expenditure and compensation paid match
correspondingly.
(d) Real growth rate is achieved by taking inflation into account as per RBI
estimates.
(e) None of the above.
Q.11) If the term 'Inflation adjusted compensation' as used in the passage implies
'compensation adjusted as per inflation', which of the following statements best
refers to the term in the intended context?
(a) Social Security benefits are subject to cost-of-living adjustments based on
inflation.
(b) Inflation causes the purchasing power of workers that make the minimum wage
to decline over time.
(c) Employers must adjust the wages they pay employees upward over time to
ensure that employees are able to enjoy the same standard of living over time.
(d) If the cost of hiring an additional worker exceeds the revenue that the new worker
will produce, the business will lose profit by hiring the new worker.
(e) None of the above
Q.12) Which of the following can be the title of the passage?
(a) Compensation crisis in Indian Markets
(b) Steady slowdown in Indian Job Market
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(c) After effects of Lehman Crisis
(d) Tepid corporate investments and economic growth post Lehman crisis
(e) The causes and effect of unemployment in India
Ques (13-16): Direction: Read the following passage divided into a number of
paragraphs carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
Paragraph 1: After the fall of Lehman Brothers 10 years ago, there was a public
debate about how the leading American banks had grown “too big to fail”. But that
debate overlooked the larger story, about how the global markets where stocks,
bonds, and other financial assets are traded had grown worrisomely large. By the
eve of the 2008 crisis, global financial markets dwarfed the global economy. Those
markets had tripled over the previous three decades to 347 percent of the world’s
gross economic output, driven up by easy money pouring out of central banks. That
is one major reason that the ripple effects of Lehman’s fall were large enough to
cause the worst downturn since the Great Depression. Today the markets are even
larger, having grown to 360 percent of global G.D.P., a record high. And financial
authorities — trained to focus more on how markets respond to economic risk than
on the risks that markets pose to the economy — have been inadvertently fuelling
this new threat.
Paragraph 2: Over the past decade, the world’s largest central banks — in the
United States, Europe, China, and Japan — have expanded their balance sheets
from less than $5 trillion to more than $17 trillion in an effort to promote the recovery.
Much of that newly printed money has found its way into the financial markets, where
it often follows the path of least regulation.
Paragraph 3: The biggest risks outside the United States are in China, which has
printed by far the most money and issued by far the most debt of any country since
2008, and where regulators have had less success reining in borrowers and lenders.
Easy money has fuelled bubbles in everything from stocks and bonds to property in
China, and it’s hard to see how or when these bubbles might set off a major crisis in
an opaque market where most of the borrowers and lenders are backed by the state.
But if and when Beijing reaches the point where it can’t print any more money, the
bottom could fall out of the economy.
Paragraph 4: Many doomsayers worried that the Federal Reserve tightening that
began in 2004 would help prompt a recession — and it eventually did, in 2008.
Though rates are still historically low in the United States, the Federal Reserve
began to raise them more than two years ago and is expected to continue tightening
them into next year. The Fed’s tightening is already rattling emerging markets. When
the American markets start feeling it, the results are likely to be very different from
2008 — corporate meltdowns rather than mortgage defaults, and bond and pension
funds affected before big investment banks. If a downturn follows, it is more likely to
be a normal recession than another 100-year storm, like 2008. Most economists put
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the probability of such a recession hitting before the end of 2020 at less than 20
percent.
Paragraph 5: But economists are more often wrong than right. Professional
forecasters have taken a shot in the dark but missed every recession since such
records were first kept in 1968, and one of the many reasons for this is “recency
bias”: using economic forecasting models that tend to give too much weight to recent
events. They see, for example, that big banks are in much better shape than in 2008,
and households are less encumbered by mortgage debt, and so play down the
likelihood of another recession. But they are, in effect, preparing to fight the last war.
Q.13) Which of the following sentences is the meaning of the phrase ‘a shot in the
dark’?
(a) It means to take a guess whose outcome can’t be seen
(b) It means to be precise even when no information is provided
(c) It means to be excessively confident
(d) It means to be well-versed in a specific discipline
(e) It means to make a successful choice without knowing
Q.14) In the third paragraph, what risk has easy money posed for China?
(a) Easy money has resulted in inflationary trends in the economy
(b) Easy money has provided more purchasing power in the hands of the people in
the economy
(c) Easy money has created bubbles in areas of stock and property which might
result in a major crisis in the future
(d) Easy money has resulted in the increase of tax evasions and thus lowering of
public spending
(e) None of the above
Q.15) Which of the following sentences is the meaning of the phrase ‘ripple effects’?
(a) It means that containing of an effect to a specific area
(b) It means to check the increase of something
(c) It means the spreading of the results of an event
(d) It means to create a mirroring result on another area
(e) It means to experience something repeatedly
Q.16) What prediction, came true about the 2008 recession?
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(a) The tightening of the Federal Reserve will result in an inflationary trend
(b) The rise in outsourcing would result in the lack of jobs for the American
population
(c) That the financial drain due to the past wars would lead to a recessionary trend
(d) That the tightening of the Federal Reserve would lead to a recessionary trend
(e) None of the above
Analogies
Ques (17-22): Direction: In the following question, there is a certain relation between
two given words on one side. Choose the suitable word to be put on the other side
from the given alternatives.
17. Stray: Wander:: Adulterated:?
(a) Combined
(b) Fused
(c) Contaminated
(d) Concentrated
(e) Gruesome
18. Spontaneous: Impulsive:: Desolate:?
(a) Cultivated
(b) Protected
(c) Barren
(d) Inhabited
(e) Prejudiced
19. Prodigal: Wasteful:: Benign:?
(a) Severe
(b) Malignant
(c) Favourable
(d) Harsh
(e) Modest
20. Mutinous: Obedient:: Foes:?
(a) Protagonists
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(d) Soulmates
(e) None of the above
21. Bombastic: Outdated:: Absurd:?
(a) Bizarre
(b) Meaningless
(c) Reasonable
(d) Thoughtful
(e) Verbose
22. Deceased: Alive:: Solace:?
(a) Comfort
(b) Relief
(c) Punishment
(d) Aggravation
(e) Injured
Ques (23-24): Direction: In the following question, select the related letters from the
given alternatives.
23. Bristle: Stubble
(a) Arm: Leg
(b) Stage: Curtain
(c) Recline: Rest
(d) Key: Piano
(e) None of them
24. Mizzle: Drizzle
(a) Swim: Drive
(b) Shamble: Shuffle
(c) Run: Jog
(d) Walk: Run
(e) None of them
Ques (25-28): Direction: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same
way as the second word is related to the first word.
25. Delicacy: Pride:: Decent:?
(a) Gentle
(b) Soft
(c) Noble
(d) Savage
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(e) Alike
26. Warmish: Pleasant:: Reticent:?
(a) Secretive
(b) Shy
(c) Wince
(d) Both (A) and (B)
(e) None of them
27. Contiguity: Distance:: Torment:?
(a) Delight
(b) Domain
(c) Affliction
(d) Adjacency
(e) None of them
28. Trivial: Essential ∷ Outrage:?
(a) Agile
(b) Bereft
(c) Tranquil
(d) Berate
(e) None of them
Ques (29-34): Direction: Choose the correct option which has the same relation as
that in the given words:
29. Propagate: Censorship:: Assiduous:
(a) Anxious
(b) Destitute
(c) Unique
(d) Idle
(e) Disseminate
30. Belittle: Extol:: Beneficial:
(a) Aadvantageous
(b) Favorable
(c) Similar
(d) Disgrace
(e) Disadvantageous
31. Persists: Discontinues:: Former:
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(a) Latter
(b) External
(c) Additional
(d) Featured
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(e) Formulates
32. Cognitive: Analytical:: Onslaught:
(a) Aggression
(b) Resistance
(c) Defensive
(d) Opposition
(e) Sophistic
33. Plentyful: Ample:: Adversity:
(a) Fortune
(b) Prosperity
(c) Welfare
(d) Misfortune
(e) Charming
34. Smudge: Stain:: Sporadic:
(a) Epidemic
(b) Whirling
(c) Occasional
(d) Stagnant
(e) Trash
Para Forming
35. Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E
which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that
represents the most logical order.
A. These were mainly bulwarks against winter, the hoarded dregs of more plentiful
seasons.
B. The first were the earliest mince pies, which saw cooked, shredded meat, dried
fruits, alcohol with its preservative qualities and perhaps a few spices or herbs, all
encased in large pies.
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C. Subsequently, people baked this into a kind of pie, adding bread-crumbs for bulk,
eggs to bind it, and upping the dried fruits and called it 'plum pudding'.
D. The pudding seems to have had two principal forerunners.
E. The second main pudding was a pottage or soup called frumenty, a fast dish
involving cracked wheat, currants and almonds which was ladled out at the start of a
meal. What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) ECDAB
(b) BAECD
(c) DACEB
(d) DBAEC
(e) None of these
36. Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E
which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that
represents the most logical order.
A. A famous Japanese rock garden is at Ryoan-Ji in Northwest Kyoto, Japan.
B. The rocks of various sizes are arranged on small white pebbles in five groups,
each comprising five, two, three, two, & three rocks.
C. The garden is 30 meters long from East to West & 10 meters from north to south.
D. The garden contains 15 rocks arranged on the surface of white pebbles in such a
manner that visitors can see only 14 of them at once from whichever angle the
garden is viewed.
E. There are no trees, just 15 irregularly shaped rocks of varying sizes, some
arranged by gravel/sand that is raked everyday. What is the correct sequence of the
sentences?
(a) ACEBD
(b) CAEDB
(c) DEABC
(d) BADEC
(e) None of these
37. Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E
which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that
represents the most logical order.
A. When they gathered together, the Buddha was completely silent & some
speculated that perhaps the Buddha was tired or ill.
B. It is said that Gautam Buddha gathered his disciples one day for a Dharma talk.
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C. One of the Buddha’s disciples, Mahakasyapa, silently gazed at the flower & broke
into a broad smile.
D. The origin of Zen Buddhism is ascribed to the Flower Sermon, the earliest source
which comes from the 14th century.
E. The Buddha silently held up & twirled a flower and twinkled his eyes, several of
his disciples tried to interpret what this meant though none of them was correct.
What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) EBDAC
(b) DBAEC
(c) BCDEA
(d) CADBE
(e) None of these
38. Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E
which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that
represents the most logical order.
A. The post-election crisis in Kenya remains unresolved.
B. The damage being done to the country's economy is severe: tourism, horticulture,
and other industries that depend on trade beyond the Kenyan border are reeling.
C. Many countries responded, providing essential humanitarian assistance and
logistical support. For this, I and many other Kenyans are very grateful.
D. Thousands of livelihoods, along with investments throughout the region, are
threatened and collapsing.
E. As the situation in Kenya escalated with murders, rapes, burning of property,
looting, and the displacement of thousands of people throughout the country - the
international community was urged to help. What is the correct sequence of the
sentences?
(a) AEDBC
(b) ABCED
(c) ACDEB
(d) ABDEC
(e) None of these
39. Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E
which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that
represents the most logical order.
A. The US market will continue to be the dominant one in the foreseeable future. The
rupee could become even stronger.
B. A greater recourse to hedging as well as striving for multi-currency revenue
streams automatically suggests itself.
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C. Already one company, TCS, by resorting to these methods extensively has turned
in an above - average performance during the first quarter.
D. Most IT companies have been grappling with more mundane problems such as a
high level of attrition amidst rising wage costs and inability to secure the right type
and number of American visas.
E. The BPO industry and many medium-sized software exporters are reportedly
operating on thin margins. What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) BCADE
(b) ABCDE
(c) DCBAE
(d) EDABC
(e) None of these
Ques (40-44): Direction: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D,
and E which when logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option
that represents the most logical order.
40. A. Over the past year, perceptions of relative U.S. economic power have declined
in many of America’s key trading partners and allies.
B. Following the onset of the financial crisis nearly a decade ago, Europeans
increasingly named China, rather than the U.S., as the world’s leading economic
power.
C. This year, however, the pattern has reversed itself again, and in countries such as
Germany, the United Kingdom, and Spain, China is once more seen as occupying
the top spot.
D. But in recent years, as the American economy slowly recovered, the pendulum
began to swing back in the direction of the U.S.
E. The trend can be seen in several European countries, where views about the
economic balance of power have fluctuated in recent years.
(a) BCADE
(b) AEBDC
(c) CDEAB
(d) DEABC
(e) CEABD
41. A. Thus, despite India's huge population, we have not done well in Olympic
Games. B. During the British period also, cricket remained popular in India. C.
Cricket has been an extremely popular game in India for quite some time now. D. It
is time our government and corporate fraternity pay due attention to other
games/sports and we redeem our national pride in Olympic Games. E. However, due
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to this reason, other games/sports did not receive the required attention they
deserve. What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) EACDB
(b) BDACE
(c) CBEAD
(d) DCEAB
(e) DBEAC
42. A. However, engineers and developers have voiced apprehensions about
building the underwater arena as it poses many challenges which, at the moment,
seem impossible to overcome.
B. Polish architect Krysztof Kotala has proposed to build an underwater tennis
complex located offshore, between the Burj al Arab and the Palm Jumeirah islands.
C. After boasting of a tennis court high up in the air built atop the 1,000-foot-tall Burj
al Arab hotel, Dubai has wooed an architect to test the waters for an underwater
tennis court.
D. Designed with a massive curved roof, the undersea complex will spread out to
hold seven courts.
E. The sports arena will also double up as an aquarium with a rooftop coral reef,
which will put on display an abundance of sea life for spectators as well as players.
(a) CADBE
(b) CBDEA
(c) AEDCB
(d) DABCE
(e) EDCBA
43. A. Economists all over the world have expressed anxiety in this regard.
B. As a result, Indian people have been subjected to high cost of living and inflation.
C. Indian economy has not shown desirable growth in recent years.
D. Grim global economic scenario has also contributed to this problem and it seems
a quick fix solution is yet far away.
E. But, one of the primary reasons for such a situation has been Indian government's
inability to take tough decisions.
What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) CDAEB
(b) ACDBE
(c) DEABC
(d) EADCB
(e) BADCE
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44. A. They fled to the higher ground.
B. Soon the floods retired and the villagers were able to return.
C. The river overflowed its banks.
D. The rain fell steadily for several days.
E. The terrified villagers abandoned their homes.
What is the correct sequence of the sentences?
(a) CEBAD
(b) DEBCA
(c) DCEAB
(d) EDABC
(e) DCEBA
Prepositions
Ques (45-49): Directions: The following question has two blanks. In each blank a
preposition has been omitted. Choose the set of prepositions for each blank that best
fits in the context of the sentence.
45. Tuesday’s multi-city police raids leading ________ the arrests of five people
________ alleged Maoist links has once again brought the debate on the concept of
Urban Naxalism.
(a) for, about
(b) to, with
(c) in, in
(d) despite, against
(e) with, in
46. This idea is also the explanation of his government’s policy ________ Jammu
and Kashmir, as reflected _________ his own pronouncements.
(a) for, at
(b) to, with
(c) about, from
(d) on, in
(e) on, about
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47. Pakistan Prime Minister Imran Khan’s bluster _________ Kashmir and the
implied threat of a nuclear war were irresponsible and ________ the top.
(a) among, from
(b) on, over
(c) at, above
(d) on, among
(e) to, from
48. The global financial institution has advocated _________ reforms that favour
agribusiness and ignore peasants and indigenous peoples whose livelihoods depend
_________ traditional land use.
(a) for, about
(b) to, with
(c) for, on
(d) despite, against
(e) with, in
49. The company hopes that its initiative will provide a major source of revenue,
________ fears over the impact of placing thousands of satellites _________ orbit.
(a) despite, in
(b) about, at
(c) over, of
(d) inspite of, for
(e) with, within
Ques (50): Direction: Pick out the most effective word from the choices below to fill in
the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Choose the correct
sequence.
50. It is not easy to distinguish a loyal friend ______ a flatterer.
After a long discussion, I prevailed _______ him to accept the proposal.
a) from b) among c) between d) and e) upon
(a) a, c
(b) c, b
(c) a, e
(d) e, a
(e) b, c
Ques (51-52): Direction: Choose the correct Preposition in given sentence:
51. She's genius _____ telling the wrong thing ____ the wrong time.
(a) on, at
(b) for, on
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(d) at, on
(e) None of these
52. Children _____ sixteen years ______ age are not admitted _____ their parents.
(a) over, with, without
(b) at, of, with
(c) under, of, without
(d) of, at, with
(e) None of these
Fill in the Blanks
53. In each of the following sentences, two words/ phrases are left blank. Beneath
each sentence, five different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. You
have to choose the best alternative from among the five options. Klaus Kristiansen of
Denmark apparently couldn't get ____________ his head, the tale his own
grandfather had told him - that an aircraft had crashed behind their Birkelse farm in
1944 - and so when his son had a history assignment, he jokingly told the boy to go
out and find the plane that was ____________ to have crashed.
(a) Out of, supposed
(b) Away from, believe
(c) Off, heard
(d) Into, understood
(e) On, assumed
54. Each question below has two or more blanks. There are five options below each
sentence. Choose the combination of words which can be filled up in the blanks in
the sentence in the same order so as to complete the sentence meaningfully. The
task is ____________ within India's capacity, but policy makers will have to
____________ an agenda ___________ job creation, growth-oriented investment,
farm-sector productivity, and innovative social programs that help the people who
actually need them.
(a) Certainly, promote, emphasizing
(b) Just, subjugate, correlating
(c) Almost, create, devising
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(d) Definitely, generalise, promoting
(e) Barely, revolutionise, sustaining
55. Direction: Fill in the blanks using the options given below:
If you wish to survive here, you must prove your ______. You ought _______ to
touch the fire unless you want to get burned.
(a) medal, knot
(b) mettle, not
(c) meddle, nought
(d) metal, note
(e) None of these
56. Direction: The question has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.
The moment the staff opened the office, unidentified __________, and ___________
weapons entered and asked the cashier to hand over the keys to the vault.
(a) persons, had
(b) people, associating
(c) miscreants, brandishing
(d) object, carrying
(e) None of these
Ques (57-59): Direction: In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it
missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the
given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
57. Bogotaá, the sprawling mountaintop capital of Colombia, is also __________
traffic so bad that officials occasionally ban cars for entire days.
(a) certainly categorized by
(b) normally free from
(c) usually choking with
(d) dazzling with
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(e) None of these
58. As a way to help control the spread of the coronavirus, universities across the
country have made the difficult, but correct, decision to send students home,
________________ in order to fulfil their educational mission.
(a) hampered distance learning
(b) transitioning to distance learning
(c) positions distance learning
(d) controlled distance learning
(e) None of these
59. Harrowing visuals of migrant workers suddenly out of a job and trying to get
home- attempting to walk impossible distances of up to hundreds of kilometreshave
___________.
(a) making us sub-conscious
(b) shaken our collective conscience
(c) cause repeated obstruction
(d) collecting people
(e) None of these
Error Identification
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 60-64): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the name of the part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e).
60. She asked me Where I was going to and what I had done the previous day.
(a) asked me
(b) was going to
(c) I had done
(d) the previous day
(e) No error
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61. Yesterday in the night he came by bus and was disturbed.
(a) Yesterday in the night
(b) he came
(c) by bus
(d) was disturbed
(e) No error
62. Within two hours we will approach near Agra by car.
(a) within two
(b) will approach
(c) near Agra
(d) by car
(e) No error
63. Throughout the whole year there was not a single day without any incidence of
violence.
(a) the whole year
(b) there was
(c) a single day
(d) any incidence of
(e) No error
64. The P.M. said that it was his decision and that nobody could get it changed.
(a) P.M. said
(b) was his decision
(c) that nobody
(d) get it changed
(e) No error
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65 to 69): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter
of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any)
65. “The Patient is comparatively better today and I hope that he will recover soon”
said the doctor.
(a) is comparatively better
(b) and I hope
(c) he will recover
(d) said the doctor
(e) No error
66. All the members of the committee are kindly requested to appear in the next
morning.
(a) All the members
(b) the committee are
(c) Kindly requested
(d) in the next
(e) No error
67. This is the new book “One Night @ the call centre” authored by Chetan Bhagat
which my father bought it for you.
(a) This is the new
(b) One night @ the call centre
(c) bought it
(d) for you
(e) No error
68. The passing marks in Economics is thirty three but he has secured just twentynine.
(a) Passing marks
(b) Economics is thirty three
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(c) he has secured
(d) jut twenty-nine
(e) No error
69. As my neighbourers are very co-operative I do not feel any difficultly in living in
this locality
(a) my neighbourers
(b) are very co-operative
(c) I do no
(d) any difficultly in living in this
(e) No error
DIRECTIONS (Qs.70-73): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the
number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark (e). (Ignore errors of
punctuation. if any)
70. In the first two months of this fiscal, tractor sales has seen a drop of about five
percent however, the industry is waiting for the monsoon to really arrive at a firm
conclusion about growth prospects for the current year.
(a) tractor sales has seen
(b) a drop of about five
(c) the industry is waiting for
(d) at a firm conclusion about growth prospects
(e) No error
71. Dolphins are truly out of the ordinary because of their intelligence and. among
the many creatures that share the earth form they come closest to humankind in
terms of familial traits, emotions and learning.
(a) out of the ordinary because of their
(b) that share the earth form
(c) come closest to humankind in
(d) familial traits, emotions and learining
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(e) No error
72. It is notable and welcome that the ministry of environmental and forests is to
issue approvals online in a time bound manner, with clear timelines in place for the
various sub-steps along the way.
(a) welcome that the ministry
(b) environmental and forests is
(c) a time bound manner
(d) place for the various sub-steps along
(e) No error
73. To portray what a fairness cream does without any sort of comparison or visual
references are very difficult.
(a) To portray
(b) fairness cream does without
(c) of comparison or visual
(d) references are very difficult
(e) No error
Logical reasoning
Logical Reasoning Review
The term 'logic' finds its origin in the Greek word 'logos,' which signifies a word
conveying a thought or information. In alignment with this, this section evaluates your
capacity to grasp and synthesize information presented in the questions, without
concern for the veracity or accuracy of that information. Tasks in this section involve
drawing conclusions from statements, discerning between strong and weak
arguments, uncovering implicit assumptions within seemingly innocuous statements,
and making decisions based on provided information. Additionally, you'll need to
employ your lateral thinking skills to tackle questions that entail decoding patterns,
both numerical and visual, comprehending relationships, and deciphering directions.
When addressing Logical Reasoning questions, it's imperative to concentrate solely
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on the provided information and prevent your personal knowledge, experiences, or
assumptions from influencing your judgment.
The first section ‘Critical Reasoning’, includes the following topics:
1. Conclusion based questions
2. Inference based questions
3. Assumption based questions
4. Questions on strengthening/ weakening
The second section ‘Deductions’, includes the following topics:
1. Statement-Conclusion
2. Statement-Assumption
3. Statement-Course of Action
4. Fact analysis
5. Statement-Argument
The third section ‘Analytical Puzzles’, includes the following topics:
1. Analytical Puzzles
2. Input-Output
The fourth section ‘Other Reasoning’, includes the following topics:
1. Missing value in figures
2. Set Theory
3. Decision Making
4. Ranking Test
5. Venn Diagrams
6. Syllogism
Key Tips for Logical Reasoning Preparation
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1. In the Logical Reasoning section of the NMAT by GMAC™, you'll encounter
36 questions to be answered within 40 minutes, providing approximately 1
minute per question.
2. This section assesses two domains of reasoning—Verbal Reasoning and
Analytical Reasoning.
3. Thoroughly examine every component of the question. Likewise, ensure
you've reviewed all answer choices before making your final selection. Even if
one option initially appeals to you, be certain to consider all remaining choices
before marking your answer.
4. Avoid Assumptions and Extraneous Information: NEVER make assumptions
or use information not provided in the question. This section is focused on
evaluating your ability to work with the information explicitly given and does
not assess general knowledge.
5. Scrutinize Qualifying Words: Pay special attention to terms like 'all,' 'some,' or
'none' when interpreting the factual information presented in each question.
Other qualifiers such as 'other than,' 'only,' or 'unless' hold significance as they
precisely define the facts required for reasoning.
6. Utilize Visual Representation: Consider representing the provided information
visually, particularly in arrangement questions or as a Venn diagram in
syllogism questions.
7. Dedication to Skill Development: Enhancing your Logical Reasoning skills is a
gradual process, so allocate ample time before the test to practice Logical
Reasoning questions and analyze your mistakes.
Critical reasoning
1. A major issue being faced by residents of Kochi is the inadequate number of
pavements. It has ended up being quite harmful to the pedestrians as well as the
residents. Several cases of accidents, as well as deaths, have been reported. The
municipal corporation has been asked to take effective measures and build
pavements, flyovers and special walkways enhancing the safety of the pedestrians.
Which of the following, if true, strengthen the above proposition?
(a) Proper walkways are essential for the safety of pedestrians.
(b) Pavements are wastage of space.
(c) Congestion of vehicles would happen.
(d) It would take away the greenery.
(e) None of the above.
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2. We, at Comfort Stationers, have always been striving to provide stationery items
that would make your work more enjoyable and less strenuous. Our latest
innovations are a smooth-flow pen and gradual friction paper. A combination of these
two reduces strain on your fingers and allows faster writing the causes lesser fatigue.
Therefore, replacement of your pen and paper with our innovative products reduces
cost of clerical jobs.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion drawn in the above
argument?
(a) Those who are already using the above new products report greater difficulty in
transition from new products to regular ones than from the regular ones to the new
ones.
(b) The cost of manufacturing these new products is not more than the cost of
manufacturing the regular ones and the new products last longer than the regular
ones.
(c) The number of offices using new products is increasing month by month.
(d) These products need to be purchased in huge lots and need to be stored in
special conditions as the cost of procurement and strong is quite high. (e) It is found
that children get adapted to new products faster than grown-ups.
3. These days lots of youngsters on two-wheelers drive at high speed. At the traffic
signal, they are often found stopping after crossing the yellow line. This casual
driving attitude is notwithstanding the government order for levy of heavy fines on
offenders. Reluctantly, one has to draw the conclusion that the law has no effect.
Which one of the following, if true, would refute the arrangement in the above
passage?
(a) Many people find slow driving extremely boring.
(b) Many people who don’t follow traffic rules think that they can get away by bribing
the policeman on duty.
(c) When police personnel is sighted near the traffic signal, you find people following
the rules.
(d) Many people, especially those who are underaged get on roads.
(e) None of the above.
Ques (4-8): Direction: In the following question contains a small paragraph followed
by a question on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given
below it.
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4. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent
and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their
efforts to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these
personal goals. The passage best supports the statement that motivation:
(a) Encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational
goals.
(b) Is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.
(c) Is the product of an individual’s physical and mental energy.
(d) Is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.
(e) None of the above
5. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has
been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great
impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits. The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) Smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.
(e) None of the above
6. Exports and imports, a swelling favourable balance of trade, investments and
bank-balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national prosperity. Till the
beginning of the Second World War, English exports were noticeably greater than
what they are today. And yet England has greater national prosperity today than it
ever had. Because the income of average Englishmen, working as field and factory
labourers, clerks, policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop assistants, domestic
workers and other low-paid workers, has gone up. The passage best supports the
statement that:
(a) A country’s balance of trade is the main criteria of determining its economic
prosperity.
(b) A country’s economic standard can be best adjudged by per capita income.
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(c) A nation’s economy strengthens with the increase in exports.
(d) English trade has continually increased since the Second World War.
(e) None of the above
7. Till recently only cricket was emphasized in India. But now several other sports got
attention and are widely spread. Globally, sports is one of the largest industries. In
India, it is in the path to become one. As India has more number of young people,
there is more potential to utilize sports talent in youth and to become one of the
sports superpowers. Future of sports in India faces a lot of challenges which are
listed below. Select the one which doesn't talk about the challenges faced by sports
in the country.
(a) Lack of infrastructures.
(b) Lack of Sports schools, especially in rural areas.
(c) Low salaries of Sport Coaches and staff in sports filed.
(d) Indian government gives cash prizes and awards to the winners of national sports
events.
(e) None of the above
8. Globalization consists of the social, political and economic changes that we all
adapt to. The strong currency rates, constructions, trading are all consequences of
globalization. There are both positive and negative impacts of this globalization on
the economy and it leads to the interconnection between the countries of different
cultures, caste and heritage. Globalization leads to the usage of new innovative
ideas of new technology that people tend to start using. Given below are the impacts
of Globalization, select the negative impact among them:
(a) It introduces new technologies.
(b) It has brought an impact on political and cultural domain.
(c) Because of too much exchange of trade, money etc independent domestic
policies are lost.
(d) Globalization has introduced many different ideologies among people.
(e) None of the above
9. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the
choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to
consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts.
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Statements: The amount of loss of property and life incurred in similar natural
disasters has reduced significantly since the central government changed a few
years ago.
Which of the following does not comply with the given fact?
(a) The new government is more efficient in handling disasters.
(b) The disaster mitigation programme has improved and proven to be efficient.
(c) The policies of the new government towards disaster response are better than
the previous government.
(d) The loss incurred from disasters, to some extent, depends upon the response
and mitigation policy of the government.
(e) None of these
10. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the
choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement- The unusually severe fires in the Amazon have not only attracted
widespread international attention, but also illuminated the effects of mounting
deforestation in the region, from evaporating rains to rising carbon dioxide
emissions. Yet one effect of forest loss in the Amazon has largely been ignored: how
it influences the river system and the fishes living in it. There are few places in the
world where aquatic and arboreal lives are brought together as closely as they are in
the Amazon. While the rainforest is home to the world’s largest river (by volume of
water) and 1,700 tributaries, about one-sixth of the basin is made up of largely
forest-covered wetlands that flood for long periods each year and support the
commercially important fishes in the region.=\
Which of these statement(s) is/are supported by the above paragraph?
(a) Flooded forests are crucial for the survival and reproduction of hundreds of fish
species in the Amazon.
(b) Flooded forests are crucial for the survival and reproduction of hundreds of fish
species in the Amazon.
(c) Although, the Amazon floodplain is relatively poorly studied, the connection
between forest and fish has long been established.
(d) Both (A) & (B)
(e) None of the above
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11. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the
choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statements: Indian Defense Ministry purchased 36 new Rafale fighter Aircrafts from
the French company Dassault Aviation. The Fighter jets will be modified by France to
cater Indian Air Force needs and Rafale is expected to be the most capable fighter
aircraft India has ever had. The India-France ties have always been strategic but
amicable.
Which of the following assertions can definitely be drawn from the above
statements?
(a) India and France are walking into an air force war.
(b) Indian Defense Ministry is relying on France for Aviation equipments.
(c) Dassault Aviation has an amicable relationship with Indian Defense Ministry.
(d) India never had an Aircraft as capable as Rafael.
(e) France sold the jets to India because they needed modification.
12. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the
choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to
consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts.
Statements: Use of Wind Energy is recently being questioned due to the economic
liability it causes. The amount invested in wind farms is much more than the returns
i.e. the electricity generated from them. Also, transport and distribution costs are
more since wind farm locations are at times far away from demand zones. Although,
some countries have harnessed wind power to a great extent, its true potentials are
barely touched due to feasibility reasons. Which of the following can be a definite
assertion from the above statements?
(a) Wind energy is cost efficient but transportation is not feasible.
(b) Wind power generation affects the economy of the nation.
(c) Countries using Wind Power are richer than others.
(d) Wind power is less feasible as compared to its potential.
(e) None of these
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13. Direction: Select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the
chosen answer is the right fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Statements: The unusually severe fires in the Amazon have not only attracted
widespread international attention, but also illuminated the effects of mounting
deforestation in the region, from evaporating rains to rising carbon dioxide
emissions. Yet one effect of forest loss in the Amazon has largely been ignored: how
it influences the river system and the fishes living in it. There are few places in the
world where aquatic and arboreal lives are brought together as closely as they are in
the Amazon. While the rainforest is home to the world’s largest river (by volume of
water) and 1,700 tributaries, about one-sixth of the basin is made up of largely
forest-covered wetlands that flood for long periods each year and support the
commercially important fishes in the region.
Which of these statement(s) is/are supported by the above paragraph?
(a) Flooded forests are crucial for the survival and reproduction of hundreds of fish
species in the Amazon.
(b) Further degradation of the flooded forests could fundamentally alter the Amazon’s
aquatic ecosystem and affect the survival of fishes.
(c) Although, the Amazon floodplain is relatively poorly studied, the connection
between forest and fish has long been established.
(d) Both (A) & (B)
(e) None of these
14. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the
choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: The air pollution index of the city, caused mainly due to vehicles, has
reached a dangerously high level. People are suffering from severe bronchial
disorders and the city municipal corporation is being condemned for the
inconvenience.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the blame on the municipal
corporation?
(a) The people have not been following the traffic rules and regulations.
(b) People have been using private vehicles albeit the availability of proper public
transport, ergo going out of business.
(c) The pollution control policies for vehicles are revised and reformed.
(d) The municipal corporation has been organizing free check-up camps for all
respiratory disorders.
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(e) None of the above
15. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. Select the best answer of the choices given and
explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: A savings account is a deposit account held at a retail bank that pays
interest but cannot be used directly as money in the narrow sense of a medium of
exchange. These accounts let customers set aside a portion of their liquid assets
while earning a monetary return. Which of the following statements is/are not a
suitable reason for opening a savings account?
(a) Savings accounts are easy to open and you can withdraw and deposit money
anytime.
(b) Most savings accounts have minimum balance requirements or monthly
maintenance fees.
(c) You’re not locked in for any period of time, which means you can switch savings
accounts as often as you like.
(d) Both (A) and (C)
(e) None of these
16. Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of
arguments, or a plan of action. Select the best answer of the choices given and
explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. During an ongoing conversation
between Linda and Sana, Lina asked, " Can you predict which couples will and
which won’t be together and happy five years later from now by just studying their
arguments?" To this Sana replied, "Yes! their emotional reactivity and their
responsiveness in their arguments help me to predict their future. The level of mutual
compromise and acceptance is all I need to study." According to the viewpoint of
Sana, what kind of behaviour was she expecting from a couple which is built to last?
(a) They discuss the topic, taking care to be sensitive about the partner’s viewpoint.
(b) They typically have a dominant spouse who takes control and thus they never
argue.
(c) They avoid the topic altogether and the ‘elephant in the room’ is always ignored.
(d) They discuss the topic but stay firm on their point, which shows their beliefs in
honest communication.
(e) They will agree with each other keeping their own viewpoints aside.
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17. Direction: Statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to
consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the
given statement. Statements: Holi celebrates the arrival of spring, the end of winter,
the blossoming of love, and for many it’s a festive day to meet other, play and laugh,
forget and forgive, and repair broken relationships. Holi is an ancient Hindu religious
festival, which has become popular among non-Hindus as well in many parts of
South-Asia, as well as people of other communities outside Asia. Holi is celebrated
by many in different parts of worlds.
Which of the given inferences follows from the given statements?
(a) Holi is celebrated in March
(b) Holi is festival of lights and crackers
(c) Holi is celebrated by Hindus only
(d) Each and every Hindu loves Holi
(e) No inference is true
18. After GST and demonetization, rising interest rates are set to hurt SMEs. Interest
rates for loans against property (LAP) extended to small and medium sized
enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in the coming months of 2018 ‘Rising interest
rates, in addition to the muted operating environment for small businesses in India,
will lead to an increase in delinquencies on LAP extended to SMEs’. The introduction
of the goods and services tax (GST) in July 2017 and the government's
demonetization policy have placed stress on the SME sector, which rising interest
rates will exacerbate. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the
statement above?
(a) In addition to rising delinquencies over the last few years would force lenders to
be more cautious while underwriting loans. This would limit refinancing options,
adversely affecting existing borrowers.
(b) But losses will be limited because these loans are secured and have relatively
low loan-tovalue ratios.
(c) Rising interest rates will limit refinancing options and increase repayment
amounts, increasing risks for asset backed securities (ABS) backed by LAP to
SMEs.
(d) The ABS (asset backed securities) backed by LAP extended to SMEs have nonamortizing cash reserves, substantial excess spread and the possibility to extend the
life of the loans and hence the life of the transactions.
(e) None can be inferred
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19. Directions: Hooghly River is the main source of water for the Kolkata
Metropolitan Region. Siltation and reduction in flow pose a problem for Kolkata Port
and civic life in the metropolitan area. Groundwater is also not a dependable source
due to deterioration in quality and quantity. Rainy season in India, causes flooding in
a flat topography, where sporadic and unplanned urbanization has taken place. A
well planned, organized and efficient management of water resource and waste
disposal is needed for environmental and ecological stability.
Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the
above paragraph?
(a) Kolkata needs a proper efficient water resource management system if it wants to
be sustainable in the near future.
(b) The Kolkata Metropolitan area’s main source of water is the Hooghly river and
other sources of ground water.
(c) Efficient water management coupled with proper waste disposal is needed for the
sustainable development of any major urban area.
(d) Kolkata Port faces a lot of problems due to heavy siltation in the Hooghly river.
(e) Urbanization usually takes place on flat topography with a good supply of easily
available water resources.
Deductions
20. Direction: In the following question consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument
and which is a weak Argument.
Statement: Should all refugees, who make unauthorized entry into a country, be
forced to go back to their homeland? Arguments:
I. Yes. They make their colonies and occupy a lot of land.
II. No. They leave their homes because of hunger or some terror and on human
grounds, should not be forced to go back.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong
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(e) Both I and II are strong.
21. Direction: The following question consists of a statement followed by two
arguments I and II. Choose the best answer from the given options.
Statement: Should India promote the usage of solar energy instead of other nonrenewable energies?
Arguments:
I. Yes, as we can reuse solar power again and again.
II. No, because harnessing solar energy is costly.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Neither I nor II is strong
(d) Both I and II are strong
(e) None of these
22. Direction: Given below is a statement followed by some conclusions. You have to
take the given statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with the
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the given statement.
Statement: The Government of India has recently announced several concessions
and offered attractive package tours for foreign visitors.
Conclusion:
I. Now, more foreign tourists might visit the country.
II. The Government of India seems to be serious about attracting tourists.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Only I follows
(d) Neither I or II follows.
(e) Can't determine
23. Direction: In the following questions a statement is given, followed by two
conclusions.
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Statement: Lack of stimulation in the first four or five years of life can have adverse
consequences.
Assumptions:
I. A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest
years of life.
II. 50 percent of the measurable intelligence at age of 17 is already predictable by
the age of four.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Can't determine
24. Direction: The question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I
and II. You have to decide which of the argument is a strong argument and which is
a weak argument.
Statement: Should the government impose a ban on luxury resorts?
Arguments:
I. No, affluent tourists would have no place to stay as they will not stay in lesser
resorts.
II. Yes, they facilitate operation of international criminals.
(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Both I or II is strong
(e) Neither I nor II is strong
25. Direction: Two statements are followed by two Conclusions 1 and 2. You have to
consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the following conclusions can
definitely be drawn from the given statements and indicate your answer accordingly.
Statements:
I: The fishing industry is any activity that involves catching, processing, and selling
fish and seafood for either recreational or commercial purposes.
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II: Around the world, more than 500 million people depend on the fishing industry for
survival.
Conclusions:
1: Sustainable, productive fisheries and aquaculture can increase income and
improve the livelihoods of many people.
2: The fishing industry will experience a boom in its profits in the future.
(a) Either Conclusion 1 or 2 follows
(b) Only Conclusion 1 follows
(c) Neither Conclusion 1 nor Conclusion 2 follows
(d) Only Conclusion 2 follows
(e) Both Conclusion 1 and Conclusion 2 follow
26. Direction: Given below are four statements. Among them, two are related in such
a way that they can both be true but they cannot both be false. Select the code that
indicates those two statements:
Statements:
(a) Honest people never suffer.
(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.
(c) Honest people hardly suffer.
(d) Each and every honest person suffers.
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (a) and (c)
(c) (a) and (d)
(d) (b) and (c)
(e) None of these
27. Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by assumptions
numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given
assumptions is implicit.
Statement: Quite independent of the global economic meltdown, India's neglect of its
physical infrastructure has been a malaise demanding radical treatment.
Assumptions:
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I. Radical treatment would reduce the adverse effects of global economic meltdown
and India's neglect of its physical infrastructure.
II. Physical infrastructure is the base of high growth trajectory.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If either I or II is implicit
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit
(e) If both I and II implicit
28. Direction: Read the following statements and answer which of the following
arguments is stronger?
Statement:
Nowadays many states are embroiled in interstate water sharing disputes. Many of
these disputes have remained unresolved over the years. Should the Indian
government nationalize all water bodies?
Arguments:
1. Yes. This will lead to optimum utilization of water and agriculture which is
dependent on rainfall will increase rapidly.
2. Yes. It is the only solution to many inter-state problems.
(a) Only argument 1 is strong
(b) Only argument 2 is strong
(c) 1 and 2 are strong
(d) Either 1 or 2 is strong
(e) Neither 1 nor 2 is strong
29. Directions: A question is given, followed by three arguments numbered I, II and
III. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the question.
Question
Should government officers be transferred after one or two years?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They get friendly with local people and are manipulated by them.
II. No. By the time their policies and schemes start taking shape, they have to learn.
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III. No. This will create a lot of administrative hassles and cause a lot of
inconvenience
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only arguments II and III are strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong
(e) All are strong
Ques (30-31): Directions: In the question below a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II has been given. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You are required to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
30. Statement:
In today’s economic crisis only the ideals of limited family and hard labor in the field
of education can lead India towards prosperity.
Assumptions:
I. Ideals of limited family and hard labor in the field of education are correlated with
India’s prosperity.
II. A large family faces difficulty in bearing the expenses on education.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
(d) Neither assumption I nor assumptions are implicit
(e) Both the assumptions are implicit
31. Statement:
Young boys will think many times before asking for admission in colleges if
employment is kept apart from Degree.
Assumptions:
I. Girls do not try to seek employment.
II. Degree is not fundamentally correlated with employment.
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(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
(d) Neither assumption I nor assumptions are implicit
(e) Both the assumptions are implicit
32. Directions: A statement is followed by two inferences I and II. You have to
consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any,
follow from the statement.
Statement:
India imports 82% of its oil needs and aims to bring that down to 67% by 2022 by
replacing it with local exploration, renewable energy, and indigenous ethanol fuel.
Inference:
I. India is still dependent on other countries for oil.
II. Renewable energy can be a source of alternative fuel.
(a) Only inference I follows
(b) Only inference II follows
(c) Either inference I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows.
(e) Both I and II follows
33. Directions: Statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to
consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any,
follow from the given statement?
Statement: Currently, India has has managed to treat approximately 37% of its
wastewater, or 22,963 million litres per day (MLD), against a daily sewage
generation of approximately 61,754 MLD which pollutes the ponds, lakes and rivers.
Inferences:
I: 63 percent of sewage finds its way to ponds, lakes, and rivers without treatment.
II: India is trying to reduce untreated sewage.
(a) Only inference I follows
(b) Only inference II follows
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(c) Either inference I or II follows
(d) Neither inference I nor II follows
(e) Both inferences follow
INPUT OUTPUT
Ques (34-37): Direction: Study the following information carefully, answer the
following question. A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input,
rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input
and the steps of arrangement.
Input: 12 35 92 13 39 17
Step I: 420 3220 1196 507 663
Step II: 2040 2023 9611 0750 6360
Step III: 60 43 107 57 123
Step IV: 171 154 218 168 234
Step V: 154 168 171 218 234
Step V is the last step of the given input.
Answer the question for the below input.
Input: 23 92 38 22 82 89 19
34. Which of the following numbers is common in Step III and Step IV?
(a) 125
(b) 236
(c) 139
(d) 250
(e) None of these
35. Which of the following numbers is not there in Step II?
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(a) 9161
(b) 3680
(c) 9827
(d) 1612
(e) 9634
36. What is the sum of the numbers at the extreme ends of Step V?
(a) 369
(b) 639
(c) 402
(d) 636
(e) None of these
37. Which of the following steps of the given input is shown below?
139 252 227 133 236 263
(a) Step II
(b) Step III
(c) Step IV
(d) Step V
(e) There is no such step
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38-41): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question. A word number and symbol arrangement device when given an input
line of words, number and symbols rearrange them following a particular pattern on
each step. The following of input and rearrangement.
INPUT: OTHER BUILD HOME WITH STRONG MUSIC
STEP I: QVJGT DWKNF JQOG YKVJ UVTQPI OWUKE
STEP II: DWKNF JQOG OWUKE QVJGT UVTQPJ YKVJ
STEP III: GZNQI MTRJ RZXNH TYMJW XYWTSL BNYM
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STEP IV: GZIQN MTRJ RZHNX TYMJW XYWLST BNYM
STEP V: ATCKH GNLD LTBHR NSGDQ RSQFMN VHSG
And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is
obtained.
As per the logic followed on the above steps. Find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
INPUT: NONE LINK USED SENT MORE TABLE
38. What word is to the 4th right of the word which is 6th from right in step IV?
(a) RTWJ
(b) QPSN
(c) YFJQG
(d) XJSY
(e) SJST
39. What word is to the immediate left of the word which is 5th from the left end of
step III?
(a) STSJ
(b) XJSY
(c) ZXJI
(d) RTWJ
(e) QNSP
40. In which step RSMD is 4th form left end for the given input?
(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step VII0
(d) Step IV
(e) Step VIII
41. What will be the next step for the below input, if the below input is the step IV for
certain input?
GCIOD YILIR GSNIG RUEMN HESIN
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(a) BXDJ TDGDM BNP3V MPZHI CZNDI
(b) AWXIC SCFCL AMUAH LOHGY BYHCM
(c) GCDOI YILIR GSGIN RUEMN HENIS
(d) AWCIX SCFCL AMHCA LOYGH BYMCH
(e) None of the above
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 42-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions
Input: 734269 825497 758646 219354 842579 321658
Step I: 962437 794528 576864 123945 975248 236185
Step II: 123945 236185 576864 794528 962437 975248
Step III: 135924 135268 574668 579248 379246 579248
Step IV: 3458 31048 352448 351832 211824 351832
Step V: 20 16 26 22 18 22
Input: 856347 856873 329584 623489 954265 574624
42. If 20 is related to 22 in some way in step V and 235948 is related to 562459 in
step II. In the same way, in step IV, 151832 is related to____?
(a) 378658
(b) 743658
(c) 251824
(d) 743658
(e) 28
43. What is the difference between the 3rd element from the right end in step III and
the 1st element from the left end in step II?
(a) 127643
(b) 143658
(c) 118243
(d) 121520
(e) None of these
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44. Which element is 3rd to the left of the 2nd element from the left end in step V?
(a) 22
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) None of these
45. If IV step of an input is "15268 52431 35218 76921 46125". Which step will be
the last step?
(a) 22 15 19 25 18
(b) 25 18 19 15 22
(c) 18 25 19 15 22
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46-50): Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions– A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line
of words and number rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement–
Input: ’44 rate 34 60 over 47 tin 32 fix 63 profit use expenses 37’.
Step-I: ‘use 44 rate 34 60 over 47 tin 32 fix profit expenses 37 63’.
Step-II: ‘tin use 44 rate 34 over 47 32 fix profit expenses 37 63 60’.
Step-III: ‘rate tin use 44 34 over 32 fix profit expenses 37 63 60 47’.
Step-IV: ‘profit rate tin use 34 over 32 fix expenses 37 63 60 47’44.
Step-V: ‘over profit rate tin use 34 32 fix expenses 63 60 47 44 37’.
Step-VI: ‘fix over profit rate tin use 32 expenses 63 60 47 44 37 34’.
Step-VII: ‘expenses fix over profit rate tin use 63 60 47 44 37 34 32’.
Step-VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the intended
rearrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, indicate the answer in each of the
following questions with respect to the appropriate step for the given input. Input for
the questions is,
Input: 40 of must attend 30 60 80 regular school 70 students 20 class 50’
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(All the numbers are two digits numbers)
46. Which step number will be the following output? ‘of regular school students 40
must attend 30 20 class 80 70 60 50’
(a) Step-V
(b) Step-III
(c) Step-IV
(d) Step-VI
(e) There is no such step
47. In Step-V, if ‘Regular’ is related to ‘60’ and ‘students’ is related to ‘80’ in a certain
way, which of the following would ‘attend’ be related to in the same pattern?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) class
(e) 50
48. How many terms are there between term ‘school’ and ‘60’ in Step-V?
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
(e) None of these
49. Which word/number would be at 4th to the left of ‘20’ in Step-IV’?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) must
(d) Students
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(e) School
Sitting Arrangement
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 50-53): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow– Six captains A, B, C, D, E and F of 6 different teams P, Q, R,
S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing to the center. The difference
between each of one is same. They all are have of different ages 41, 42, 43, 44, 45,
and 46.
I. C is seated second to the right of the captain of team S. The one whose age is not
46 is C.
II. The captain whose age is 43 is seated second to the left of the captain of team U,
who is not A or C.
III. B is seated opposite to the captain of team T, whose age is 42.
IV. There is only one captain between the captain of team U and T but he is not P. T
sits to the right of U.
V. The captain whose age is 44 is seated second to the right of A.
VI. The captain whose age is 45 is not seated near to one whose age is 42.
VII. F is seated immediate left of the captain of team R but not near to A.
VIII. The captain of team P is not seated near to the captain of team Q but immediate
right of D.
50. Who is sitting opposite to the captain of team Q?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) D
(d) Captain of team P
(e) Whose age is 45
51. What is the position of the captain whose age is 41 with respect to one whose
age is 43?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediate right
(c) Second to the left
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(d) Immediate left
(e) Opposite
52. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) E is the captain of team U
(b) B is 45 years old and near to D
(c) Captain of team R is opposite to that of team S
(d) C is second to the right of B but not near to F
(e) More than one of the above
53. Which of the following combination is correct?
(a) D-46-U
(b) B-41-S
(c) A-43-P
(d) F-45-T
(e) E-44-Q
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 54-57): Study the following information to answer the given
questions below: Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric
circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples
have children. Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those
sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. U, V, W, X, Y, Z six persons are
sitting around the inner circular table. F, G, H, I, J, K six persons are sitting around
the outer circular table.
Note: Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The
persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly in line with the persons sitting
around the inner circular table. V's son is sitting immediate right of I's husband. U is
a youngest male member of the family but not the son of J. Only one person sits
between X and U (either from left or from the right). X is not an immediate neighbour
of V. I's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of I. I's
son sits second to the right of I. Only two persons sit between I and G (either from
the left or from the right). F is an immediate neighbour of K. F does not sits opposite
to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces I, U does not face J. Y is not I's
father. I's husband is sitting third to the right of I's father. J is son of W. I's mother and
I are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. V is not an immediate
neighbour of I's father. J's daughter is sitting second to the right of J. W's daughter in
law is sitting second to the left of I. K is Y's spouse. W is sitting immediate left of Y. Y
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is sitting second to the right of I's brother who is sitting in inner circle. I is an
immediate neighbour of the one who faces Y.
54. Who face W?
(a) K
(b) J
(c) I
(d) H
(e) G
55. Who is sitting exactly between I's son and I's mother when counted from right of
I's son?
(a) K
(b) I
(c) No one
(d) H
(e) G
56. What is the relation of W with respect to Y? (a) Son (b) Father (c) Grandfather (d)
Uncle (e) None of these
57. If G and I interchange their positions then who faces V?
(a) G
(b) I
(c) F
(d) K
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-61): Study the following information Carefully to answer the
given questions P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line, facing North.
Three of them are not males. Two females sit adjacent to each other. Q is fourth to
the left of V, who is second to the right of R, who is not the immediate neighbour of P.
· U is fourth to the right of R and is second to the left of X. S is not an immediate
neighbour of either X or Q.
· S is not male. One of the persons sitting on the extreme ends is a female. T is not
an immediate neighbour of either V or U.
· No female is an immediate neighbour of U. W does not sit second to the left of P.
The immediate neighbour of S are male
58. Which of the following is a group of females?
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(a) QTS
(b) TXP
(c) SVR
(d) UWX
(e) None of these
59. Who is sitting to the immediate left of S?
(a) V
(b) Q
(c) W
(d) R
(e) None of these
60. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first
and the second person?
(a) PWU
(b) QTR
(c) RST
(d) WUP
(e) None of these
61. If Q and R, V and U interchange their position then how many persons are sitting
between R and V?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Two
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 62-65): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below: Eight persons - H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O - are standing in a
straight line at equidistant. Some of them are facing north while others are facing
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south. M is standing third to the right to H. M is standing at one of the extreme ends.
L is standing third to the left to H. The immediate neighbours of J face north. N is not
an immediate neighbour of H. The persons standing at the extreme ends face the
same direction (Both are facing either north or South). The immediate neighbours of
H face just opposite direction as that of M. The immediate neighbours of O face
opposite directions with respect to each other. One of the immediate neighbours of L
is K who is facing north. I is standing between J and M. Not more than four persons
are facing north.
62. Who among the following is third to the left of N?
(a) K
(b) J
(c) H
(d) I
(e) O
63. The immediate neighbours of L are:
(a) M and N
(b) N and O
(c) K and N
(d) N and H
(e) J and H
64. How many persons are standing exactly between I and O?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) None
65. Who among the following is to the immediate left of H?
(a) O
(b) J
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(c) I
(d) L
(e) K
Other Reasoning
Ques (66-68): DIRECTIONS: Find the missing character in each of the following
questions.
66.
(a) 28
(b) 36
(c) 48
(d) 42
(e) 44
67.
(a) 320
(b) 274
(c) 262
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(d) 132
(e) 232
68.
(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 4
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Quantitative Skills Overview
This section offers an extensive review of the fundamental mathematical concepts
evaluated in the NMAT by GMAC™ exam. These concepts are explained with the
aid of multiple examples, and it is highly recommended that you review these
concepts and engage in practice with the provided examples to enhance your
proficiency.
The first section, 'Number Properties,' encompasses the following topics:
1. Fundamentals of Numbers, Fractions, and Decimals
2. Divisibility of Numbers and Determining the Unit Digit
3. Factors, Multiples, Least Common Multiples (LCM), and Highest Common
Factors (HCF)
4. Logarithm
The second section, 'Arithmetic,' encompasses the following topics:
1. Percentages
2. Simple and Compound Interest
3. Profit, Loss, and Discounts
4. Ratios, Proportions, and Averages
5. Time and Work, as well as Partnership
The third section, 'Algebra and Probability,' encompasses the following topics:
1. Equations and Inequalities
2. Sequences and Series
3. Permutations and Combinations
4. Probability
The fourth section covers 'DI-Caselets and Tables.'
The fifth section includes 'DI-Graphs and Charts.'
The sixth section, 'Data Sufficiency,' encompasses the following topics:
1. Number Properties-Based
2. Arithmetic-Based
3. Algebra and Probability-Based
Top Tips for Quantitative Skills Preparation
1. In the Quantitative Skills section of the NMAT by GMAC™ exam, you will
encounter 36 questions to be completed within 52 minutes, providing roughly
1.5 minutes per question.
2. This section assesses your competence in four fundamental areas of
mathematics: Number Properties, Arithmetic, Algebra, and Probability.
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3. Prioritize Time Management: Ensure you assess all questions within the
allotted section time. Evaluate each question based on anticipated solving
time and difficulty level, tackling the easier ones first since each question
carries the same marks.
4. Value Time as a Resource: Time is a precious resource on the NMAT by
GMAC™ exam. There's no option to skip a question in the actual exam, so it's
advisable to invest a little time in comprehending the question before deciding
whether you feel confident in attempting it.
5. Embrace Efficient Problem Solving: Don't assume that questions must always
be solved using lengthy school methods. Many NMAT by GMAC™
quantitative questions can be approached more efficiently through shortcuts
and tricks, some of which you'll learn in this guide.
6. Start with the Fundamentals: Begin with a solid grasp of basic number
properties, formulas, and number operations concepts like odds and evens,
prime numbers, LCM, and HCF before delving into more advanced concepts.
7. Sharpen Mental Math: Given the time constraints, strong mental math skills
are vital for quick answers. Ensure you're well-versed in multiplication tables
and squares of numbers up to 20. Familiarize yourself with common fractions
and their percentage equivalents.
8. Focus on Data Sufficiency: For Data Sufficiency questions, concentrate on
assessing sufficiency rather than calculating the actual answer.
9. Meticulous Question Reading: Read each question carefully to ensure proper
comprehension. Avoid making assumptions, as even a slight misinterpretation
of the question can lead to incorrect answers.
10. Explore Answer Choices: Before attempting to solve a question, quickly
review the answer choices. In some cases, it may be more efficient to employ
back-solving from the answer choices.
Quant Practice Exercise
1. What is the remainder when we divide 390 + 590 by 34
(a) 0
(b) 17
(c) 33
(d) 1
(e) 10 Ques
2. Consider the following pairs:
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a. 5 and 105
b. 15 and 105
c. 15 and 35
Which of the above pairs have H.C.F. as 5 and L.C.M. as 105?
(a) Only a
(b) Only b
(c) Only c
(d) Both a and b
(e) Both a and c
3. If the 6-digit numbers x35624 and 1257y4 are divisible by 11 and 72 respectively,
then what is the value of (5x-2y)?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 13
(e) 16
4. If we divide the unknown two-digit number by the number consisting of the same
digits written in the reverse order, we get 4 as quotient and 3 as remainder. If we
divide the required number by sum of its digits, we get 8 as a quotient and 7 as a
remainder. Find the number.
(a) 81
(b) 91
(c) 71
(d) 72
(e) 75
5. A certain amount of money is lent out at compound interest at a rate of 24% per
annum for 2 years. It would give Rs. 48400 more if the amount is compounded halfyearly, then find the principal?
(a) 400
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(b) 505
(c) 416
(d) 420
(e) 516
6. Rs. 12,500 lent at compound Interest for two years at 10% per annum fetches
Rs._______more, if the interest was payable half yearly than if it was payable
annually:
(a) Rs. 12.48
(b) Rs. 10.48
(c) Rs. 38.50
(d) Rs. 68.82
(e) Rs. 70.82
7. By selling an article for Rs. 138, a shopkeeper losses 8%. At what price should the
article be sold to get a gain of 4%?
(a) Rs. 90
(b) Rs. 210
(c) Rs. 144
(d) Rs. 156
(e) Rs. 58
8. The marked price of a radio is 20% more than its cost price. If a discount of 10% is
given on the marked price, the gain per cent is:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8
(e) 6
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9. A shopkeeper has two types of mixture of tea. In 48 kg of first mixture ratio of tea
to impurity is 5: 3 and in 42 kg of second mixture ratio of tea to impurity is 3: 1. If the
shopkeeper mixes these two mixtures with 56 kg of pure tea in a large container,
then find the ratio of tea to impurity in the container?
(a) 235: 57
(b) 235: 56
(c) 232: 47
(d) 223: 29
(e) 253: 37
10. The total number of employees in three departments – Operations, Marketing
and Sales are 333. The number of employees in Operations and Marketing are in the
ratio 3: 5 and those in marketing and sales are in the ratio 7: 11. Find the number of
employees in the department that had highest number of employees.
(a) 63
(b) 165
(c) 180
(d) 105
(e) 135
11. A trader sells two articles for Rs. 9520 each, one at a profit of 12% and the other
at a loss of 15%. His overall percentage loss (correct to one decimal place) is:
(a) 3.8
(b) 3.1
(c) 4.4
(d) 3.4
(e) 3.5
12. Rahil marks up all Shirts in his shop 20% higher. He gave a 25% discount on
2/5th of the total Shirts and a 12% discount on 2/5th of the total Shirts. If Rahil gets
an overall profit of 2.3%, then what percentage of discount should be given by Rahil
to customers on the remaining Shirts?
(a) 20%
(b) 5%
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(c) 10%
(d) 15%
(e) None of these
13. Consider 3 consecutive prime integers. Twice the first integer is 5 more than the
third integer and second is 4 less than the third integer. Sum of the integers is 41.
Find the smallest integer among the three.
(a) 11
(b) 13
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) None of these
14. If 3rd term of an A.P. is 6 and 5th term of that A.P. is 12. Then find the 21st term of
that A.P.
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 60
(d) 63
(e) 61
15. If in an A.P., first term is 20 and 12th term is 120. Find the sum up to 12th term.
(a) 420
(b) 840
(c) 140
(d) 1680
(e) 820
16. In a class of seven boys and three girls, four children are to be selected. In total
how many ways can they be selected such a minimum of one boy should be there?
(a) 159
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(b) 194
(c) 198
(d) 205
(e) 210
17. A woman invests Rs. 4000 at the start of each year at 5% compound interest per
annum. How much will her investment be at the end of the 2nd year?
(a) Rs. 8601
(b) Rs. 8615
(c) Rs. 8600
(d) Rs. 8610
(e) Rs. 8310
18. What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 8000 at the rate of 10% per
annum for 1.5 years when interest is compounded half yearly?
(a) Rs. 1282
(b) Rs. 1241
(c) Rs. 1243
(d) Rs. 1261
(e) Rs. 1271
19. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 22 and the last term is −11. If the
sum is 66, the number of terms in the sequence are:
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 8
(e) 11
20. The 2nd and 8 th term of an arithmetic progression are 17 and −1 respectively.
What is the 14th term?
(a) −22
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(b) −25
(c) −19
(d) −28
(e) −27
21. A box contains 20 electric bulbs, out of which 4 are defective. Two bulbs are
chosen at random from this box. The probability that at least one of these is
defective is:
(a) 7/19
(b) 6/19
(c) 5/19
(d) 4/19
(e) 3/19
22. A person invested a certain sum of money at 20% per annum simple interest for
2 years. Had he invested the same sum of money at 20% per annum compound
interest for the same time, he would have earned Rs. 64 more. Find the sum.
(a) Rs. 1500
(b) Rs. 1200
(c) Rs. 2000
(d) Rs. 1600
(e) Rs. 1550
23. The fifth term of the H.P., 2, 2(1/2,) 3(1/3), will be:
(a) 5(1/5)
(b) 3(1/5)
(c) 1/10
(d) 10
(e) 15
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24. A person is to count 4500 notes. Let an denote the number of notes he counts in
the nth minute. If a1 = a2 = a3 = … = a10 = 150, and a10, a11, a12,…are in AP with the
common difference −2, then the time taken by him to count all the notes is
(a) 24 minutes
(b) 34 minutes
(c) 125 minutes
(d) 135 minutes
(e) 43 minutes
25. In a trunk there are 3 types of ice cream of flavors vanilla, chocolate and
blueberry. The probability of selecting one vanilla ice-cream is 1/2 and probability of
selecting one blueberry ice-cream is 2/7. The total number of chocolate ice-cream is
6. Find the number of ice creams in the trunk.
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 28
(d) 32
(e) 35
26. There are 14 people in a picnic. 3 people are wearing pink t-shirt, 7 of them
wearing blue t-shirt and 4 of them wearing yellow t-shirt. 2 people are chosen at
random. The probability that they are of the same colour is:
(a) 21/91
(b) 13/91
(c) 30/91
(d) 17/91
(e) 91/30
27. If a denotes the number of permutations of x + 2 things taken all at a time, b the
number of permutations of x things being taken 11 at a time and c the number of
permutations of x − 11 things taken all at a time such that a = 182bc, then the value
of x is:
(a) 15
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(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 12
(e) 18
28. The number of ways in which 8 different marbles can be put in two boxes of
different sizes so that no box remains empty is:
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 36
(d) 60
(e) None of these
29. By selling an article for Rs. 96, double profit is obtained than the profit that would
have been obtained by selling it for Rs. 84. What is the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs. 72.00
(b) Rs. 75.00
(c) Rs. 70.00
(d) Rs. 68.00
(e) Rs. 73.00
30. Raghavan purchase a scooter at 13/15 of its selling price and sold it at 12%
more than its selling price. His gain is:
(a) 20%
(b) 29(3/13)%
(c) 30%
(d) 38(1/13)%
(e) 25%
Ques (31-34): Directions: A train covers total distance of 600 km going from station P
to station U via stations Q, R, S and T. The pie chart below shows the percentage of
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total distance between two adjacent stations. The bar graph shows the time taken by
the train for covering the distance between two adjacent stations (in hours). Study
the data carefully and answer the questions.
31. Find the average speed of the train between station R and U.
(a) 25 km/hr
(b) 26.4 km/hr
(c) 27.6 km/hr
(d) 24.8 km/hr
(e) None of these
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32. By how much percentage does the speed of the train decreased between
stations Q and R than the speed between stations P and Q?
(a) 37.5%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 27.5%
33. After covering 480 km, the speed of the train got decreased by 20% due to some
technical problem. Then by how many minutes the train will be late when it reaches
the station U?
(a) 80 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 120 minutes
(d) 72 minutes
(e) 84 minutes
34. Find the ratio of speed of the train between stations R and S and the speed of
the train between stations S and T.
(a) 3: 4
(b) 2: 3
(c) 4: 3
(d) 5: 4
(e) 3: 2
Ques (35-38): Direction: Go through the passage, table and bar graph given below
and answer the question based on it. There are five boxes each box contains Red,
Blue, Green and White balls. The bar graph shown below shows the number of Red,
Blue and Green balls in the five different boxes each box and the table shows the
probability of getting white ball.
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35. The balls of box Q and S are mixed and two balls are drawn randomly then find
the probability of getting at least one Blue ball?
(a) 36/95
(b) 72/85
(c) 12/95
(d) 24/95
(e) None of these
36. Number of White balls in box P, S and T together is approximate what percent
less/more than the number of white balls in Q and R together?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 33.33%
(e) None of these
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37. All Green and White balls from all the boxes are taken and put in the new box A
and then two balls are drawn randomly then find the probability of getting different
color balls?
(a) 1624/3665
(b) 1624/3655
(c) 1624/3565
(d) 1642/3655
(e) None of these \
38. If one third of Red ball is taken from box Q and mixed in box T and three balls
are taken randomly from box T, then find the probability that the balls are not Green?
(a) 287/602
(b) 589/602
(c) 286/602
(d) 569/602
(e) 47 /602
Ques (39-42): Direction: Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the
questions given below.
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39. If the population of the village B increased by 20% from 2016 to 2017, then by
how much percentage did the literate population of the village B increased from 2016
to \(2017?
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
(e) 50%
40. If the ratio of the literate population of the three villages in the year 2016 is 2: 3:
5, then find the ratio of the total population of the three villages in the year 2016.
(a) 3: 5: 6
(b) 4: 6: 9
(c) 5: 8: 10
(d) 6: 10: 15
(e) 4: 10: 20
41. In the year 2016, the difference between the total population of villages C and A
is 70000. If the sum of their literate population in 2016 is 272000, then find the total
population of village A in 2016.
(a) 180000
(b) 200000
(c) 250000
(d) None of these
(e) 350000
42. In the year 2015, the total number of literates in the three villages is 285000. If
the population of village A and B in the year 2015 is 125000 and 150000
respectively, then what is the population of the village C in the year 2015?
(a) 180000
(b) 200000
(c) 250000
(d) 300000
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(e) 350000
Ques (43-46): Direction: Following pie chart shows the percentage break up of
students who participated in the CAT entrance test for MBA from different states.
Total Number of students is 8800.
43. 50% students passed the test from MP, 25% passed the test from UP and 75%
passed from Noida. Every student who clear the test awarded with Rs. 500. What is
the total amount distributed to the students of these three states?
(a) 1298000
(b) 1300000
(c) 1250000
(d) 1200000
(e) 1290000
44. In MP, the ratio of students who clear the CAT entrance test for MBA and those
who did not clear the test is 1 ∶ 3. Find the number of students who clear the test.
(a) 308
(b) 301
(c) 403
(d) 440
(e) 331
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45. Find the ratio of students from UP to Students from MP.
(a) 1 ∶ 8
(b) 9 ∶ 14
(c) 10 ∶ 14
(d) 2 ∶ 5
(e) 1 ∶ 9
46. If the number of students passed from Bihar and UP are the same. If 50% of
students passed from Bihar, then what% of students did not clear the test from UP?
(a) 77.7%
(b) 22.3%
(c) 70%
(d) 30%
(e) 100%
Ques (47-51): Direction: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I, and II is given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the
statements and give answers.
47. Virat’s income is how much more than Rohit’s income?
Statement I: Virat’s income is 30 less than his wife, whose provident fund deduction
is Rs. 975 per month which is 5 of her monthly income.
Statement II: Rohit spends 30 of his income on house rent, 15 of which is accessory
bill and Virat’s expenditure on house rent is Rs. 4500 more than that of Rohit’s.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
(e) None of the above
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48. Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have
to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the
question. Find the ratio of speed of train.
Statement I: Length of two trains are 120 meters each. Both are moving in opposite
directions.
Statements II: Both trains cross each other in 12 seconds.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in both the statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both the statement I and II together is necessary to answer.
49. Find the amount of money invested by Jamnalal in the scheme?
Statement I: An increase in simple interest from 44 3% to 58 3% per annum
increases his yearly income by 2800.
Statement II: The sum invested gets doubled when invested at 20% per annum for 5
years.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
(e) None of the above
50. Pipe A and B can fill a tank at the rate of 12 and 10 litre per minute respectively.
There is a leakage also in the same tank. What is the capacity of the tank?
Statement I: If A and B are opened simultaneously, the tank is filled in 5 hours 45
minutes and a leakage hole drains the pipe at the rate of 6 liters/minute.
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Statement II: Due to the leak the filled tank drains in 15 hours 20 minutes. If A and B
are opened simultaneously, the tank is filled in 5 hours 45 minutes.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
(e) None of the above
51. The following question is accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have
to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the
questions. What is the rate of simple interest?
I. The amount was invested for 8 years.
II. The simple interest is half the investment.
(a) The statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II
alone is not sufficient.
(b) The statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement I
alone is not sufficient.
(c) Both the statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
(d) Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
Ques (52-55): Direction: Read the following statements and find out whether they are
sufficient or not to answer the given question.
52. The population of a city in the year 2019 was 4, 39, 230 then what was the
population of the city 4 years back?
Statement I. The population of the city in the year 2019 is exactly 2.9282 times of
that in the year 2015.
Statement II. The population of the city increased by 20% each year.
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(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
53. Is Andy Murray older than Rafael Nadal if one of them is at least 1 year old.
Statement I. Three times Andy Murray’s age is 3 years less than twice Rafael
Nadal’s age.
Statement II. Five times Andy Murray’s age is one more than 4 times Rafael Nadal’s
age.
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
54. Find the rate of interest.
Statement I. A sum of money becomes double of itself at a simple interest in 6.25
years.
Statement II. 5000 becomes 6728 in 2 years at compound interest.
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
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(d) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
55. Find the average number of both males and females in the Edugorilla if 60% of
the total male and 40% of the total female participated in an event.
Statement I: The number of female participated in the event is 120. There is more
than 300 male in the Edugorilla
Statement II: The number of females in the Edugorilla is 25% more than the number
of males who participated in the event.
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
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Explanations
Sol: 1
(C). Mother Teresa is currently referred to as Blessed Teresa of Calcutta. Important
point: The following is stated in the passage: "Now she is referred to as Blessed
Teresa of Calcutta." Her major work was in Kolkata (also known as Calcutta). She
spent most of her life serving the less privileged people of West Bengal.
Sol: 2
(D). Mother Teresa received Nobel Prize for Peace in 1979, Bharat Ratna in 1980
(India), Magsaysay Award (The Philippines). Important point: The following is stated
in the passage: "Mother Teresa was honored with several awards for her
contributions to human society. These awards include the Nobel Prize for Peace in
1979, Bharat Ratna (Highest Civilian Award in India) in 1980, Templeton Award
(Britain), Magsaysay Award (The Philippines), Presidential Medal of Freedom from
President Ronald Reagan, etc".
Sol: 3
(C). Nirmal Hriday was the name of the home set up by the Missionaries of Charity
for the dying. Important point: The following is stated in the passage: "Mother
Teresa's Missionaries of Charity founded the "Nirmal Hriday", which is a home for the
dying, at an abandoned Kali temple in Kalighat in West Bengal".
Sol: 4
(A). 'Unloved' means uncared for. Important point: The sentence in the passage
containing the above word is: "In 1950 she started her own order "Missionaries of
Charity" to look after the unloved, abandoned, and unwanted people". In this context,
it refers to those who didn't receive any love or care and were left to fend for
themselves. Mother Teresa set up the organization to look after these people.
Example: "The most terrible thing is the feeling of being unloved".
Sol: 5
(D). “Madhav Gadgil, who chaired the Union Environment Ministry’s WGEEP, has
said the recent havoc in Kerala is a consequence of short-sighted policymaking, and
warned that Goa may also be in the line of nature’s fury. It is clear from the above
that the experts are of the view that policy making has been the major reason of
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such floods in the country as it has not taken into account the environmental
considerations of the area.
Sol: 6
(C). The State governments that are mainly responsible for the Western Ghats —
Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra — must go back to the
drawing table with the reports of both the Gadgil Committee and the Kasturirangan
Committee, which was set up to examine the WGEEP report. The task before them
is to initiate correctives to environmental policy decisions.” It implies from the above
lines that the states should ponder over the steps to be taken in order to preserve
the ecology of the Western Ghats Area and they should think about implementation
of the expert panel report on this issue.
Sol: 7
(E). “This is not going to be easy, given the need to balance human development
pressures with stronger protection of the Western Ghats ecology.” It is very much
clear from the above lines that the objective of sustainable development is very
difficult to meet with the political considerations in mind and that is why it becomes
very difficult to strike a balance between the political objectives and the
environmental requirements of the Western Ghats Area.
Statement A is incorrect since the expert panel has recommended formation of
committee and authority to oversee the development in the Western Ghats Area.
Statements B, C and D are not in sync with the given context though they may sound
logical otherwise.
Sol: 8
(D). “The goal has to be sustainable development for the Ghats as a whole.” It is
very clear that the main objective of all the activities surrounding the Western Ghats
Area should be overall development of the region and also for all the parties
concerned. There should be sustainable development of all the regions in the area.
Except statement D, all the other options are not related to the given context and that
is why they are eliminated. Option D implies the same as referred to in the above
reference.
Sol: 9
(A). Refer to: CMIE’s Prowess database shows a steady fall in the rate of growth of
compensation paid by companies to employees since 2013-14.
The sentence above echos what's been stated in the statement given as option A.
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Now, we need not check the other statements as we have already got the correct
option. However, if you go through the 1st paragraph of the passage, you can infer
that whatever has been said in the statement given in option B, C or D, is distorted
and not true.
Option B. Compensation to employees grew by 35 per cent in 2017-18.
The correct percentage is 25 per cent.
Option C. Corporate sector’s appetite for new hiring has been enhancing. Exactly
opposite has been said here.
Option D. Year 2014-15 witnessed the slowest growth rate in compensation to
employees since the Lehman crisis of 2008.
It was actually 2017-18 that witnessed the slowest growth.
Sol:10
33(A). Refer to: The lack of investments into fresh capacities is hurting growth in
employment. This part shows the crux how lower investments in fixed assets and
plant and machinery chokes fresh employment opportunities. So rates of plant and
machinery investments and wages growth rates coincide. Options B, C & D are not
the correct answers.
Sol: 11
(C). Inflation-adjusted compensation: Inflation-adjusted compensation refers to the
compensation of an individual or group after taking into consideration the effects of
inflation on purchasing power. For example, if prices in the economy double over the
course of five years, wages must also double or employees will not be able to buy as
many goods and services with their wages. We can observe that only the statement
given as option C refers to the term in the intended context.
Sol: 12
(B). As we can observe, the write in the passage discusses Indian job market and
instances of its going down for past few years. Among the choices available, only the
option B seems an appropriate title to the passage as it encapsulates the whole
passage in just six words.
Sol: 13
29(A). The phrase ‘a shot in the dark’ means to speculate or take a guess. Out of the
given options, the closest meaning is to take a guess whose outcome can’t be seen.
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Sol: 14
(C). The third paragraph highlights the economy of China and how an increase of
printing money has resulted in easy money. Easy money has fuelled bubbles in
everything from stocks to property in China, and these bubbles might set off a major
crisis in the economy.
Sol: 15
(C). The phrase ‘ripple effect’ means a situation in which one event produces effects
that spread and produce further effects. Out of the given options, the closest
meaning is the spreading of the results of an event.
Sol: 16
(C). Many doomsayers, who predicted bad outcomes, were worried that the Federal
Reserve tightening that began in 2004 would help prompt a recession and it
eventually did, in 2008.
Analogies
17(C). Stray is the synonym of Wander. So Contaminated is the synonym of the
given word Adulterated. Adulterated - weakened or lessened in purity by the addition
of a foreign or inferior substance or element. Contaminated - made unfit for use by
the introduction of unwholesome or undesirable elements.
18(C). Spontaneous is the synonym of Impulsive. So Barren is the synonym of the
given word Desolate. The word 'Desolate' means causing or marked by an
atmosphere lacking in cheer. Example: He is living in a desolate house abandoned
many years ago. The word 'barren' means lacking in cheer. Example: The site of the
town is a barren, rocky mountain valley.
19(C). Prodigal is the synonym of Wasteful. So Favourable is the synonym of the
given word Benign. The word 'Benign' means not harsh or stern, especially in nature
or effect. Example: They are normally a more benign audience. The word
'favourable' means promoting or contributing to personal or social well-being.
Example: My first impression of him was favourable.
20(C). Mutinous is the antonym of Obedient. So Friends is the antonym of the given
word Foes. Foes refer to people who are enemies. Friends refer to people that have
mutual affection. Protagonists refer to the positive characters or the hero/heroine of a
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story. Opponents refer to people that are against each other, rivals. Soulmates refer
to people that are connected by their souls.
21(C). Bombastic is the antonym of Outdated. So Reasonable is the antonym of the
given word Absurd. Absurd: wildly unreasonable, illogical, or inappropriate
Reasonable: (of a person) having sound judgment; fair and sensible
22(D). Deceased is the antonym of Alive. So Aggravation is the antonym of the given
word Solace. Solace: comfort or consolation in a time of distress or sadness
Aggravation: an intensification of a negative quality or aspect
23(C). As Bristle is the synonym of Stubble Similarly, As Recline is the synonym of
Rest.
24(B). As Mizzle is the synonym of Drizzle Similarly, As Shamble is the synonym of
Shuffle.
25(D). Delicacy is the antonym of Pride. Similarly; Decent is the antonym of Savage.
26(B). Warmish is the synonym of Pleasant. Similarly, Reticent is the synonym of
Shy.
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Therefore, “Shy” is the correct answer.
27(A). Contiguity is the antonym of Distance. Similarly, Torment is the antonym of
Delight.
Therefore, “Delight” is the correct answer.
28(C). Trivial and Essential are exactly opposite in meaning. Trivial means 'of little
value or importance', whereas Essential means 'important'. Similarly, Outrage and
Tranquil are opposite to each other in meaning. Outrage means 'an extremely strong
reaction of anger, shock', whereas Tranquil is the opposite of outrage meaning 'in a
peaceful state'.
29(D). Propagate means 'spread and promote an idea, theory, etc. widely
Censorship' means 'the suppression or prohibition of any parts of books, films, news,
etc. that are considered obscene, politically unacceptable, or a threat to security.
Since censorship is the antonym of propagate. Similarly, Assiduous means working
very hard and taking great care that everything is done as well as it can be. Idle
means not wanting to work hard; lazy.
30(E). Belittle means 'to make somebody or the things he/ she does, seem
unimportant or not very good. Extol means 'praise enthusiastically. Since extol is the
antonym of belittle. Similarly, Beneficial (adjective) means having a good or useful
effect. Disadvantageous means causing somebody to be in a worse situation
compared to other people.
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31(A). Persist means to continue to exist or occur without interruption. Discontinue
means to stop something or stop producing something. Since discontinue is the
antonym of persist. Similarly, Former means having previously been a particular
thing. Latter means denoting the second or second mentioned of two people or
things.
32(A). Cognitive means 'connected with the processes of understanding. Analytical
means 'using careful examination in order to understand or explain something. Since
analytical is the synonym of cognitive. Similarly, Onslaught means 'a violent or strong
attack. Aggression means 'angry feelings or behaviour that make someone wants to
attack other people.
33(D). Plentyful means available in large amounts or numbers. Ample means
enough or more than enough. Since ample is the synonym of plentiful. Similarly,
Adversity means is difficulties or problems. Misfortune means bad luck or disaster.
34(C). Smudge is a noun which means a blurred or smeared mark on the surface of
something. Stain means a colored patch or dirty mark that is difficult to remove.
Since stain is the synonym of smudge. Similarly, Sporadic means not done or
happening regularly. Occasional means done or happening from time to time but not
very often.
Para Forming
35(D). The passage talks about puddings which is introduced in sentence
D.Sentence D talks about two types of puddings. Sentence B talks about the first
type of pudding .It is dependent on sentence D .The keyword is ' FIRST' In A 'these'
is referring to the ingredients like shredded meat, fruits and alcohal etc and also
preservatives which save the food from getting spoiled (bulwarks mean defense) E
follows A because it is referring to the second main pudding. Keyword is SECOND C
is dependent sentence which follows E because it talks about the same pudding.
The correct sequence of the sentences is: DBAEC
36(A). A introduces the topic ‘Japanese rock garden’ C further defines the structure
of the garden. So AC E and B both define the structure of rocks…these are pairs but
E will come first D is a concluding sentence here, it will follow. The correct sequence
of the sentence is: ACEBD
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37(B). D introduces the topic i.e., 'Origin of Zen Buddhism’ ascribes to the flower
sermon. B logically tells about the first event in the story. In A, ‘they’ refers to the
disciples mentioned in B. After this E as the question was asked by the Gautam
Buddha. Finally C will come as one of his disciples was able to figure out the answer.
The correct sequence of the sentences is: DBAEC
38(D). E mentions the international community was ready to help. C follows
elaborating on the help. The EC link is only present in the option D. The correct
sequence of the sentences is: ABDEC
39(D). E is the most independent sentence among all these sentences, so it will
mark the opening of the paragraph.The problems are listed in E, D and A. B which
gives a course of action should follow them. BC will form a pair. The correct
sequence of the sentences is: EDABC
40(B). Let's analyze the logical flow of the passage to ascertain the correct order of
the sentences:
• A. Over the past year, perceptions of relative U.S. economic power have declined in
many of America’s key trading partners and allies: Since this statement talks about
the 'past year',
• E. The trend can be seen in several European countries, where views about the
economic balance of power have fluctuated in recent years: Since this statement
talks about the 'trend' mentioned in statement A and also talks about how the
perception has 'fluctuated' in European countries,
• B. Following the onset of the financial crisis nearly a decade ago, Europeans
increasingly named China, rather than the U.S., as the world’s leading economic
power: Since this statement talks about what happened a decade (ten years) ago.
• D. But in recent years, as the American economy slowly recovered, the pendulum
began to swing back in the direction of the U.S.: This statement not only talks about
the 'recent years' but also starts with 'But', thus indicating a contrasting comparison.
• C. This year, however, the pattern has reversed itself again, and in countries such
as Germany, the United Kingdom, and Spain, China is once more seen as occupying
the top spot: Since this statement talks about the most recent time period, that is,
'this year', this should be the concluding sentence.
Thus the correct order of sentences is: Over the past year, perceptions of relative US
economic power have declined in many of America's key trading partners and allies.
The trend can be seen in several European countries, where views about the
economic balance of power have fluctuated in recent years. following the onset of
the financial crisis nearly a decade ago, Europeans increasingly named China, rather
than the US, as the world's leading economic power. But in recent years, as the
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American economy slowly recovered, the pendulum began to swing back in the
direction of the US. This year, however, the pattern has reversed itself again, and in
countries such as Germany, the United Kingdom, and Spain, China is once more
seen as occupying the top spot. The correct sequence of the sentences is: AEBDC
41(C). The opener will be sentence C as it highlights the stratus of cricket in India
and is the topic of the discussion. After this B will come as it further tells about the
popularity of cricket during British time. After this E will come as it tells the reason
that why other games have not been given attention and it clear with the phrase ‘due
to this reason’. Because of this reason, we are not able to do well in Olympic games.
So it is high time to our government and sports fraternity to take care of all the
games. The correct sequence of the sentences is: CBEAD
42(B). The first sentence is C as it introduces the topic, which is Dubai’s proposed
underwater tennis court. The next sentence is B which provides more detail on the
topic introduced, such as the architect who proposed the idea, and the location of the
court. The next sentence is D which provides more information on the tennis court,
information which is not as important and directly follows from the previous sentence.
The D will be followed by E. The last sentence A provides an argument against the
above proposition, by questioning the feasibility of the idea. Therefore, the correct
order is CBDEA. The complete paragraph is: After boasting of a tennis court high up
in the air built atop the 1,000-foot-tall Burj al Arab hotel, Dubai has wooed an
architect to test the waters for an underwater tennis court. Polish architect Krysztof
Kotala has proposed to build an underwater tennis complex located offshore,
between the Burj al Arab and the Palm Jumeirah islands. Designed with a massive
curved roof, the undersea complex will spread out to hold seven courts. The sports
arena will also double up as an aquarium with a rooftop coral reef, which will put on
display an abundance of sea life for spectators as well as players. However,
engineers and developers have voiced apprehensions about building the underwater
arena as it poses many challenges which, at the moment, seem impossible to
overcome.
43(A). A will not start the arrangement as it uses “this regard" which means there has
to be something before this sentence. D says “this problem”, this cannot start the
arrangement as well. E says “such situation “this too cannot start the arrangement.
So, the opener will be C as it introduces the topic of the discussion, which is Indian
economy not showing the desirable growth in recent years. ‘After this D will come as
it citing another reason for Indian economy not showing desirable growth.
Economists all the world are worried about this trend. After this E will come as it is
telling the real reason, which is Indian government’s inability to take the tough
decisions. Finally B will conclude as it tells the outcome of slowdown in the economy
i.e. people are subjected to high cost of living etc. The correct sequence of the
sentences is: CDAEB
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44(C). D is the best opening sentence as the event mentioned in this s sentence is
starting the whole story. Because it rained continuously for several days the river
overflowed. Thus D-C form a logical pair. Overflowing of the river terrified the
villagers. ‘THEY’, villagers fled to higher ground. The concluding sentence is B as it
talks about the situation returning to normal. The correct sequence of the sentences
is: DCEAB
Prepositions
45(B). Correct Sentence: Tuesday’s multi-city police raids leading to the arrests of
five people with alleged Maoist links has once again brought the debate on the
concept of Urban Naxalism. We know that the verb 'lead' is followed by the
preposition 'to'. Therefore, the preposition 'to' should be filled in the blank 1. Lead
(Verb): To culminate or result in (a particular event or consequence). Now, if we
observe we can find that there is no other option in which 'to' is given as a choice for
the blank 1. Thus, all other options can get eliminated.
46(D). This idea is also the explanation of his government’s policy ________ Jammu
and Kashmir, as reflected _________ his own pronouncements. The noun 'policy' in
general is followed by the preposition 'on'. Ex. The government is to introduce new
liquor policy on October 1 in Vijayawada. This confirms 'on' as the preposition for
blank 1. For blank 2 the only choice that seems most appropriate among all is 'in'
47(B). Pakistan Prime Minister Imran Khan’s bluster _________ Kashmir and the
implied threat of a nuclear war were irresponsible and ________ the top. 'Bluster'
means 'loudly boastful or threatening speech' and the only preposition that should
follow it is 'on'. This eliminates options A, C and E. For the blank 2, the preposition
'over' is the most appropriate choice as the phrase 'over the top' must have been
used here in the given context of the sentence. Over the top (Adverbial phrase): to
an excessive or exaggerated degree.
48(C). The global financial institution has advocated ________ reforms that favour
agribusiness and ignore peasants and indigenous peoples whose livelihoods depend
_________ traditional land use. In the context of the sentence, the preposition
following the verb 'advocated' must be 'for'. Advocate (Verb): to speak in support of
an idea or course of action. Ex. The organization advocates for human rights. Now,
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as we know that the verb 'depend' is followed by the preposition 'on', 'on' is the
perfect choice for blank 2.
49(A). Correct Sentence: The company hopes that its initiative will provide a major
source of revenue, despite fears over the impact of placing thousands of satellites in
orbit. If we read the sentence carefully, we can infer that the company is positive
about its initiative though there are fears over the impact of an action. Evidently, the
preposition that best suits for the blank 1 is 'despite' or 'inspite of'. This eliminates
options B, C and E. For the blank 2, the most appropriate preposition is 'in' as
satellites are placed 'in' orbit.
50 C
(A). It is not easy to distinguish a loyal friend from a flatterer. Let us explore the given
options:
• The preposition 'from' is used for indicating a distinction.
• The preposition 'among' is used for indicating a division, choice, or differentiation
involving three or more participants.
• The preposition 'between' is used for indicating a connection or relationship
involving two or more parties.
• The conjunction 'and' is used for connecting two identical comparatives, to
emphasize a progressive change.
• It is distinguish one thing from another or distinguish between two things.
(e). The complete sentence is -After a long discussion, I prevailed upon him to
accept the proposal. 'Prevail upon (someone)' is a phrasal verb which means 'to ask
or persuade (someone) to do something'. Eg: They prevailed upon me to accept the
offer. The other options will be grammatically incorrect here.
51(C). The correct sentence is ‘She's genius at telling the wrong thing at the wrong
time’. We can determine the correct answer with the help of logic and by eliminating
the incorrect answer. The first blank of the sentence indicates her activity. 'For' and
'on' does not fit correctly in the sentence as these prepositions do no indicate one's
activity. We can thus eliminate options (A) and (B) as incorrect answers. At is used to
indicate a point of time or place, state, direction. age or occupation, degree and
one's activity. Here the preposition 'at' fulfills the meaning of both the blanks.
52(C). The correct sentence is ‘Children under sixteen years of age are not admitted
without their parents'. The given sentence is an instruction. The second part of the
sentence indicates age. The preposition which is used to indicate age is 'of'. Thus
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the second blank must be 'of'. So, we can eliminate options (A) and (D) as incorrect.
Without indicates the absence of something. The given sentence is a negative one.
So, the third blank must be 'without'. So, option (B) is also incorrect. Under is used to
show something that is below or lower than something else. It fulfills the first blank.
Fill in the Blanks
53(A). Here, either 1 or 3 can be the only possible fillers when 1st blank is taken into
consideration. But then, "heard" doesn't make any sense in the context and as such
1 will be the correct answer. get away from -- to stop having a particular idea get into
-- to start doing something get on -- make progress In the second fill-up, 'supposed',
'understood' and 'assumed' are correct. Hence (a).
54(A). 'Subjugate' which means crush or defeat and 'generalise' will not maintain the
flow of the sentence, as crushing an agenda or generalising an agenda doesn't really
make any sense. The sentence is of a positive mindset and using 'barely' from the
last option will change that hence the option can be negated. Next, out of options A &
C, 'the task is certainly within India's capacity' seems to be making more sense than
'the task is almost within India's capacity' and hence we'll consider the former to be
the answer that we need here.
55(B). Complete sentence: If you wish to survive here, you must prove your mettle.
You ought not to touch the fire unless you want to get burned. Mettle: a person's
ability to cope well with difficulties; spirit and resilience. For the second blank, we
need an adverb not because of the presence of the verb ought.
56(C). Let us explore the given options: From the first option, 'persons' means (in
legal or formal contexts) a group of unspecified individuals, and 'had' means
possess, own, or hold. From the second option, 'people' means human beings in
general or considered collectively, and 'associating' means joining as a partner,
friend, or companion. From the third option, 'miscreants' means persons who have
done something wrong or unlawful, and 'brandishing' means waving or flourishing
(something, especially a weapon) as a threat or in anger or excitement. From the
fourth option, 'object' means a material thing that can be seen and touched, and
'carrying' means supporting and moving (someone or something) from one place to
another. From the context of the sentence, the third option best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole. So, the correct answer is "miscreants, brandishing" The
correct sentence: The moment the staff opened the office, unidentified miscreants,
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and brandishing weapons entered and asked the cashier to hand over the keys to
the vault.
57(C). Bogotaá, the sprawling mountaintop capital of Colombia, is also usually
choking with traffic so bad that officials occasionally ban cars for entire days. The
given sentence is about the effect of traffic on a certain place. Option (C) is the best
fit. The word choking means suffocating and a place can be choked by traffic. Option
(A) cannot be chosen. The word categorized means to classify and it is not making
the sentence meaningful. Option (B) cannot be chosen. It changes the meaning of
the sentence completely and cannot be the correct choice. Option (D) cannot be
chosen. The word dazzling means gleaming /extremely bright, and it is not relevant
here.
58(B). As a way to help control the spread of the coronavirus, universities across the
country have made the difficult, but correct, decision to send students home,
transitioning to distance learning in order to fulfil their educational mission. The given
sentence talks about the measures taken by the universities to help control the
spread of coronavirus. Option (B) fits correctly as it means changing/adapting to
distance learning. No other option is appropriate. Hampered means hindered or
obstructed the movement or progress of. Position(verb) means to place; put.
59(B). Harrowing visuals of migrant workers suddenly out of a job and trying to get
home- attempting to walk impossible distances of up to hundreds of kilometres- have
shaken our collective conscience. The given sentence describes the effect of the
visuals of migrant workers on other people. Option (B) fits correctly as it means
caused fear and affected morale. The collective conscience is usually a term or idea
or belief or moral attitudes in society. The sentence is in the present perfect tense.
So, the required verb must be in past participle form which is only present in option
(B).
Error identification
60. (b) Delete ‘to’. It is superfluous.
61. (a) Replace ‘Yesterday in the night’ by last night.
62. (c) Replace ‘will approach’ with ‘will be approaching’.
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63. (a) Use of whole is superfluous.
64. (c) Use of that is superfluous.
65. (a) Either you have to remove “comparatively” or convert “better” to “good” in the
sentence. The meaning of “comparatively” is - to evaluate anything using
comparison estimate by comparison, etc. hence you should use either “better” or
“comparatively good” in order to make the sentence correct.
66. (c) “Kindly” will not be used here; because “kindly” and “requested” are never
used simultaneously “kindly” and “please” are used in Active Voice to denote
“request”; while denote “kindly” and “please” in Passive Voice, “Requested” is
generally used.
67. (c) The use of “it” is superfluous here, as the usage of the Object of “bought”- the
book: is correct in the sentence.
68. (a) Instead of “passing marks” you should use “pass marks”, because “passing
marks” is not correct
69. (a) You should use “neighbours” instead of “neighbourers” because, there is no
word in English like “neighbourers”. The meaning of “neighbours” is people who live
or are situated nearby.
70. (a) Here subject (tractor sales) is plural. Hence, ..... tractor sales have seen .......
should be used.
71. (b) It is preposition related error. Hence, .......... that share the earth with us
should be used.
72. (b) Here, Noun i.e., environment and forests is ....... should be used.
73. (d) Here, Infinitive i.e., To portray is subject. Hence, singular verb i.e. references
is very difficult should be used.
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Critical Reasoning
1. (A). The correct answer is Option (A), i.e. Proper walkways are essential for the
safety of pedestrians. We first need to read the passage carefully. The next step is to
introspect the options, analyze them and see if they seem relevant with respect to
the information/data provided to us. .The passage illustrates the issues the
pedestrians face due to the lack of pavements and walkways, in a major city like
Kochi. This has called out the attention of the authorities to take the necessary
action. The question asks for the option which strengthens the need for such
developments.
2. (D). The correct answer is Option (D), i.e. These products need to be purchased in
huge lots and need to be stored in special conditions as the cost of procurement and
strong is quite high. The passage talks about the advantages of writing by using the
new kind of pen and paper and arrives at a conclusion about the cost of a clerical
job. We have to show that the new products do not lead to a decrease in the cost of
a clerical job. None of the option (A), (C) and (E) has anything about the cost.
Hence, none of them weakens the conclusion. Option (B) states that the new
products can be manufactured and they also last longer. This information
strengthens the conclusion. According to option (D), procurement and storage costs
are very high. This casts doubt on the conclusion that the cost of the clerical job can
be decreased by using these new products.
3. (C). The correct answer is Option (C), i.e. When police personnel is sighted near
the traffic signal, you find people following the rules. We first need to read the
passage carefully. The next step is to introspect the options, analyze them and see if
they seem relevant with respect to the information/data provided to us. The passage
is about people’s attitude of not following traffic rule and doing rash driving. The fines
which have been fixed by the police through government orders have got no change
in the driver’s attitude. The question is regarding the statement which doesn’t stand
along with the arguments put in the passage. As the central point of the argument is
that youngsters don’t obey traffic rules, option (C) goes against the premises and the
conclusion.
4. (B). The passage best supports the statement that motivation is crucial for the
survival of an individual and organisation. According to the passage, The attainment
of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a
common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational members are
motivated to satisfy their personal goals.
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5. (D). The passage supports the statement that even after seizures and raids by
enforcement authorities, smugding is fast increasing in our coantry owing to its quick
profit. Due to this high amount of profit, smugglers do not hesitate to go against the
law and fear of persecution.
6. (B). The passarge given best supports the statement that prosperity cannot he
adjudged alone by halance of trade, investments, GDP or exports of a country. The
prosperity can be really adjudged ly the quality of life or frecdom a citizen enjoys. So,
a country's econonic standard can be best adjudged by its per capita income.
7. (D). Option (D) would be the correct answer as it is the only option which does not
talk about the challenges faced by sports in the country. It talks about how the
government of the country felicitates the winners of different sports by giving them
cash prizes and awards.
8 (C). Option (C) is the correct answer as it is the only option which shows the
negative impact of globalization. Due to excess exchange of trade and money, it has
effected the independent domestic policies. Other options talk about only the positive
impacts that are caused because of globalization such as the introduction of new
technologies, better trades and got positive changes on the political and cultural
domains.
9 (E). The statement identifies the difference between the disaster management
policies of the previous and the current government, and since the loss is reduced in
the new government’s reign the new government is indeed more efficient and its
policies are better than the previous ones. So option (A) and (C) are true. It also
implies that the new government’s disaster mitigation is improved and efficient, so
option (B) is also true. Since loss incurred in ‘similar’ disasters is less, it implies that
the loss does depend on the response and mitigation policy of the government as
well. So option (D) is also true.
10 E). Both options (A) and (b) are described and can be proven with the help of the
passage, while option (C) ‘the Amazon floodplain is relatively poorly studied’ couldn’t
be supported with the help of the passage.
11 (D). Option (A) and (E) clearly oppose the facts of the statement, therefore they
can be eliminated. The statements imply that India is purchasing 36 aircrafts from
France and hence we cannot infer that Indian Defense ministry is depending on
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French Aviation equipments. So, option (B) is incorrect. The last statement suggests
that India and France have amicable relations but the relationship of Indian Defense
ministry and Dassault Aviation is not specified. So, option (C) is also incorrect. The
second statement mentions Rafael as the most capable aircraft that India has ever
had, which implies that India never had a better one before.
12 (D). The first and second statements clearly say that wind energy is not cost
efficient, therefore option (A) is eliminated. However, they do not mention anything
about the efficiency and usability of the electricity generated, so option (B) is
incorrect. It can be inferred that use of wind energy requires more money but that
does not imply that the nations using it are rich, so option (C) is also eliminated. As
mentioned earlier, based on given statements, use of wind power cannot be related
to the economy of a nation, so option (E) is incorrect. As given in the last statement,
wind energy has potentials that haven’t been visible because it is not very feasible. -
13 (D). Both options (A) and (B) are described and can be proven with the help of
the passage, while option (C) ‘the Amazon floodplain is relatively poorly studied’
couldn’t be supported with the help of the passage.
14 (B). If the people are blaming the municipal corporation for the rise in air pollution
caused by vehicles, the people themselves must follow certain responsibility. If
people are not using public transport, it is one of the main reasons the number of
vehicles increases, leading to a rise in pollution. So, option (B) most weakens the
blame on the municipal corporation. Option (A) is larger in context, so it cannot be
directly linked to the blame on Municipal Corporation. Option (C) and (D) are rather
courses of action than arguments weakening the blame.
15 (B). The passage above talks about saving accounts in banks. We need to find
such a statement which is not a suitable reason for opening a savings account. That
means we need to search for certain disadvantages of savings account from the
given statement. The first statement mentions one of the advantages of opening a
savings account, therefore it is a suitable reason and not an apt answer for the
above question. The second statement comes up with a disadvantage as it mentions
the minimum balance criteria in such accounts. So, it can be a possible reason for
not opening a savings account. The third statement again brings forward an
advantage of opening a savings account in terms of flexibility. So, it does not fit into
the criteria of non-suitable reasons for opening a savings account.
16 (A). Statement (A) is correct because the spouses need to be sensitive to each
other’s viewpoints to have a successful relationship. The key phrase to establish this
answer option is 'their emotional reactivity and their responsiveness, level of mutual
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compromise and acceptance'. These factors point to option (A). Statement (B) is
incorrect because a dominant subservient relationship would mean only one partner
would be compromising. Statement (C) is ruled out because ignoring the topic is
contradictory to the concept of emotional reactivity mentioned in Sana's reply.
Statement (D) is wrong because it also contradicts Sana's view of compromise.
Statement (E) is wrong as completely compromising and keeping their own viewpoint
aside leaves little room for healthy discussions.
17 (E). Option (A) cannot be inferred as there is nothing mentioned about the month
of Holi in the passage. Option (B) cannot be inferred as Holi is festival of colours,
which is mentioned in the passage. Option (C) cannot be inferred as mentioned in
the passage that non-Hindus also celebrate Holi. Option (D) cannot be inferred as
Hindus love Holi but is not mentioned that each one of them does. So, no inference
is true.
18 (A). Option (A) is the most appropriate inference that that be made based on the
information provided. It captures all the important points like ‘rising delinquencies’,
‘effect of limit on the refinancing options thereby, affecting the customers’ are evident
both from the given statement and the option choice. Rest of the arguments can be
rejected. Option (B) is very unpredictable and it cannot be said with surety about the
loss limitation. Both options (C) and (D) can also be rejected as no idea of ABS
(asset backed securities) is evident from the information provided in the given
statement. Thus, the most appropriate answer is option (A).
19 (A). The given passage talks about the sources of water on which the Kolkata
metropolitan region is dependent and the problems arising as a result of this
dependence. Options 2, 3 and 4 are facts as stated in the passage. Option 5 is an
assumption as observed from the passage. Option 1 is the correct inference as it
correctly tells about the need for sustainable water management for the Kolkata
Metropolitan Area future betterment.
Deduction
20 (B). Clearly, refugees are people forced out of their homeland by some misery
and need shelter desperately. So, argument II holds. Argument I against the
statement is vague.
21 (A). Option (A) would be the correct answer as solar energy is an inexhaustible
resource it can be reused and provides many advantages. Whereas harnessing
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solar energy is cheaper compared to the capital needed to generate other forms of
energies.
22 (D). The Logic here is as follows: I. Now, more foreign tourists might visit the
country: True. (We clearly see that the Government of India is taking steps to attract
more tourism. So, it is possible) II. The Government of India seems to be serious
about attracting tourists: True. (Again, we clearly see that the Government of India is
taking steps to attract more tourism) So, The correct answer is "Both I and II follows".
Hence, the correct option is (C).
23 (A). The lacking in first four or five years can be adverse because it is the main
period of development. So, I is implicit. Since nothing is mentioned about the
predictability of intelligence, II is not implicit.
24 (B). Argument I is weak because here, we do not have any evidence to show that
international criminals operate in luxury resorts. Also, even if they do, a ban cannot
be imposed on all resorts. Argument II is strong because the other argument is
strong because affluent tourists stay in luxury resorts and do not stay in lesser
resorts. The government cannot, without any reason, ban the affluent from doing
what they want and thereby curtail the rights of one section of the society.
25 (B). The statement says that 500 million people earn their living from the fishing
industry. An increase in productivity can help increase income. Thus, sustainable
productivity can increase the income and improve the livelihoods of these 500 million
people. So, conclusion 1 follows. However, the information given is not sufficient to
predict the future of the fishing industry. Therefore, conclusion 2 does not follow. So,
only conclusion 1 follows.
26 (B). “Both be true but they cannot both be false”. 1) (a) and (b) (a) Honest people
never suffer. (b) Almost all honest people do suffer. If ‘a’ is true then ‘b’ is false and
vice-versa. So, this code is not the correct combination. 2) (a) and (c) (a) Honest
people never suffer. (c) Honest people hardly suffer. Both the statements are true
when taken together. So, this code is the correct combination. 3) (a) and (d) (a)
Honest people never suffer. (d) Each and every honest person suffers. If ‘a’ is true
then ‘d’ is false and vice-versa. So, this code is not the correct combination. 4) (b)
and (c) (b) Almost all honest people do suffer. (c) Honest people hardly suffer. If ‘b’ is
true then ‘c’ is false and vice-versa. So, this code is not the correct combination.
27 (D). The author assumes that the Indian Government should have taken care of
its physical infrastructure. Radical change is for physical infrastructure but not global
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economy. So, I is not an assumption. In the statement nothing is stated about the
growth rate. So, II is irrelevant.
28 (A). The logic followed is: 1. Yes. This will lead to optimum utilization of water and
agriculture which is dependent on rainfall will increase rapidly. Argument 1 is strong.
As many states are embroiled in interstate water sharing disputes, some states don't
get optimum water because of which agriculture is affected which results to low
agricultural productivity. Nationalizing all water bodies will solve the main problem of
irrigation faced by states dependent on rainfall. 2. Yes. It is the only solution to many
inter-state problems. Argument 2 is not strong. As the argument does not gives a
strong reason with strong purpose or motive, it is futile to consider the argument for
nationalization of rivers.
29 (B). I. The argument is not strong. Government Officials are appointed after being
tested for their rational thinking and their responsible attitude. It would be wrong to
assume that a person with rational thinking would get manipulated by locals. II. The
argument is strong. It is strong as policies and schemes takes time to give results
and if they are transferred they won’t get enough time to implement policies and
schemes efficiently. III. The argument is strong. It is correct that a lot of
administrative hassles and cause a lot of inconvenience will take place as it takes
time to settle. Therefore, only arguments II and III are strong.
30 (A). Here, if the sentence talks about prosperity of the nation then the assumption
is that only the two factors mentioned can lead to prosperity. Hence, assumption I is
implicit. But nothing is mentioned about why larger families will be deterrent to
prosperity. While it is common sense that a large family faces difficulty in bearing the
expenses on education, it is not implicit in the statement given.
31 (B). Here, the statement only mentions boys and what girls think is not mentioned
so nothing is to be assumed about them. Hence assumption I is not implicit. Since
the statement suggests that employment and degree are being kept apart, it can be
assumed that it is possible to do so. Thus we can assume that there is no
fundamental correlation between degree and employment. So assumption II is
implicit.
32 (E). The statement claims that India imports 82% of its oil needs. Thus, India is
still dependent on other countries for its oil needs. Therefore, Inference I follows. The
statement also claims that India wants to bring down its oil imports to 67% by 2022
by replacing them with local exploration and renewable energy. Thus, it is true that
Renewable energy can be a source of alternative fuel. Therefore, Inference II also
follows.
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33 (E). The logic follows here is: From the information provided in the statement, we
can easily infer that the remaining percentage of sewage finds its way to the water
bodies without treatment. Therefore, inference I follows. Similarly, the statement
above helps us to infer that India is trying to reduce untreated sewage. As per its
present capacity, it is able to treat 37% of the sewage and is planning to improve the
statistics. Therefore, inference II also follows.
INPUT OUTPUT
34 (C). Step I: Product of the number and the number following it
Ex: 12 × 35 = 420
Step II: Numbers change their respective position –
last two digits become first two digits and first two digits becomes last two digits.
Ex: 0420 = 2040
Step III: Sum of numbers → 2040 = 20 + 40 = 60
Step IV: Add 111 to every single number
Step V: Arrange the numbers in ascending order
Input: 23 92 38 22 82 89 19
Step I: 2116 3496 836 1804 7298 1691
Step II: 1612 9643 3680 0481 9827 9161
Step III: 28 139 116 85 125 152
Step IV: 139 250 227 196 236 263
Step V: 139 196 227 236 250 263
So, ‘139’ is the common number in Step III and Step IV.
35 (E). Step I: Product of the number and the number following it
Ex: 12 × 35 = 420
Step II: Numbers change their respective position –
last two digits become first two digits and first two digits becomes last two digits.
Ex: 0420 = 2040
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Step III: Sum of numbers → 2040 = 20 + 40 = 60
Step IV: Add 111 to every single number
Step V: Arrange the numbers in ascending order
Input: 23 92 38 22 82 89 19
Step I: 2116 3496 836 1804 7298 1691
Step II: 1612 9643 3680 0481 9827 9161
Step III: 28 139 116 85 125 152
Step IV: 139 250 227 196 236 263
Step V: 139 196 227 236 250 263
So, ‘9634’ is not there in Step II.
36 (C). Step I: Product of the number and the number following it
Ex: 12 × 35 = 420
Step II: Numbers change their respective position –
last two digits become first two digits and first two digits becomes last two digits.
Ex: 0420 = 2040
Step III: Sum of numbers → 2040 = 20 + 40 = 60
Step IV: Add 111 to every single number
Step V: Arrange the numbers in ascending order
Input: 23 92 38 22 82 89 19
Step I: 2116 3496 836 1804 7298 1691
Step II: 1612 9643 3680 0481 9827 9161
Step III: 28 139 116 85 125 152
Step IV: 139 250 227 196 236 263
Step V: 139 196 227 236 250 263
Sum = 139 + 263 = 402 So, ‘402’ is the sum of the numbers at the extreme ends of
Step V.
37 (E). Step I: Product of the number and the number following it
Ex: 12 × 35 = 420
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Step II: Numbers change their respective position –
last two digits become first two digits and first two digits becomes last two digits.
Ex: 0420 = 2040
Step III: Sum of numbers → 2040 = 20 + 40 = 60
Step IV: Add 111 to every single number
Step V: Arrange the numbers in ascending order
Input: 23 92 38 22 82 89 19
Step I: 2116 3496 836 1804 7298 1691
Step II: 1612 9643 3680 0481 9827 9161
Step III: 28 139 116 85 125 152
Step IV: 139 250 227 196 236 263
Step V: 139 196 227 236 250 263
139 252 227 133 236 263 – There is no such step.
Solution: 38-41
The given arrangement is :Step I: Every letter is changed to the 2nd next letter according to alphabetic order.
Step II: All words are arranged in ascending order according to the English alphabet
from left to right considering the first letter of the word. If two words consist of the
same first letter the second letter would be considered for arrangement and so on.
Step III: Every letter is changed to the 3rd next letter according to alphabetic order.
Step IV: In every alternate word positions of last and 3rd last letters are
interchanged.
Step V: Every letter is changed to the 6th previous letter according to alphabetic
order.
Similarly,
INPUT :RENU LIKE AGRA CITY MOST TIME
Step I: TGPW NKMG CITC EKVX OQUV VKOG
Step II: CITY EKVX NKMG OQUV TGPW VKOG
Step III :FLWB HNYA QNPJ RTXY WJSZ YNRJ
Step IV :FBWL HNYA QJPN RTXY WZSJ YNRJ
Step V: ZVQF BHSU KDJH LNRS QTMD SHLD
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38. (d) WZSJ
39. (b) RTXY
40. (e) In step II.
41. (c) Step IV: BPCRX MYFHP ZAPOR EMNQJ
Step V: VJWLR GSZBJ TUJIL YGHKD
Solution:42-45
Step I: If the given number is odd number then the number itself written in reverse
order from left to right. If the given number is Even number then the first and second
number is interchanged, similarly Third and Fourth number is interchanged and also
Fifth and Sixth numbers interchange their position.
Step II: The numbers obtained in step 1 is arranged in ascending order from left end
to right end.
Step III: Odd digit within the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left to
right then even digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right.
Step IV: From the left end of the number, first and second digit is multiplied, then
third and fourth digit is multiplied then fifth and Sixth digit is multiplied and written
from left to right.
Step 5: All the digits within the numbers are added.
Input: 856347 856873 329584 623489 954265 574624
Step I: 743658 378658 235948 984326 562459 756442
Step II: 235948 378658 562459 743658 756442 984326
Step III: 359248 357688 559246 357468 572446 392468
Step IV: 151832 154264 251824 152848 35824 27848
Step V: 20 22 22 28 22 29
42. (c) 151832 is related to 251824
43. (d) Difference between the elements is 357468-235948 = 121520
44. (b) 20 element is 3rd to the left of the 2nd element from the left end.
45. (a) The last step will be 22 15 19 25 18
Solution (46 - 50):
Input: 40 of must attend 30 60 80 regular school 70 students 20 class 50
Step I: students 40 of must attend 30 60 regular school 70 20 class 50 80
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Step II: school students 40 of must attend 30 60 regular 20 class 50 80 70
Step III: regular school students 40 of must attend 30 20 class 50 80 70 60
Step IV: of Regular school students 40 must attend 30 20 class 80 70 60 50
Step V: must of regular school students attend 30 20 class 80 70 60 50 40
Step VI: class must of regular school students attend 20 80 70 60 50 40 30
Step VII: attend class must of regular school students 80 70 60 50 40 30 20
46. (c)
47. (d)
48. (c)
49. (a)
Sitting Arrangement
Solution: 50-53
50. (d)
51. (e)
52. (a)
53. (c)
Solution: 54-57
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54. (b) 'J' faces W.
55. (c) No one is sitting exactly between I's son and I's mother when counted from
right of I's son.
56. (d) "W" is uncle of Y.
57. (b) When G and I interchange their positions then, I faces V.
Solution: 58-61
58. (a)
59. (d)
60. (a)
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61. (b)
Solution: 62-65
62. (b) N is facing south. Therefore, J is third to the left of N.
63. (c) The immediate neighbours of L are K and N.
64. (d) Two persons - H and J are standing between I and O.
65. (a) O is to the immediate left of H.
66 (d)
67(c)
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68(c)
Quant
1.
390 + 590 can be written as (32)45 + (52)45 = (9)45 + (25)45
Any number of the form a n + b n is a multiple of (a + b) whenever n is odd.
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So, the remainder when we divide (32)45 + (52)45 by 34 to 0.
2.
3.
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4.
5.
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6.
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7.
8.
9.
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10.
11.
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13.
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14.
15.
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16.
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20.
21.
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23.
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25.
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