MECHANICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW MANUAL By : ENGR. YURI G. MELLIZA 1 PART 1:THERMODYNAMICS DEFINITION OF TERMS Mass: It is the absolute quantity of matter in it. m – mass, kg Conversion 1 kg = 2.205 lbs 1 Metric Ton = 1,000 kg 1 Ton = 2000 Lbs Velocity: It is the distance per unit time. d m t sec Where d – distance, m t – time, sec v Conversion 1 meter = 3.28 ft = 100 cm = 1000 mm 1 ft. = 12 inches Acceleration: Rate of change of velocity with respect to time. dv m a dt sec 2 Gravitational Acceleration: It is the acceleration due to gravity. At standard condition or Sea level condition: g = 9.81 m/sec2 = 32.2 ft/sec2 Force: It is the mass multiplied by the acceleration. F ma N (Newton) F ma KN (Kilo Newton) 1000 Newton: It is the force required to accelerate 1 kg mass at the rate of 1 m/sec per second. Where: m – mass in kg a – acceleration in m/sec2 Weight: It is the forge due to gravity. W mg N mg KN 1000 where W g - gravitatio nal accelerati on, g 9.81 m sec2 m Standard gravitatio nal accelerati on sec2 2 Force of Attraction: From Newton’s Law of Gravitation the force of attraction between two masses m1 and m2 is given by the equation: Fg Gm1m 2 Newton r2 Where: m1 and m2 - masses in kg r - distance apart in meters G - Gravitational constant in N-m2/kg2 G 6.670 x 10-11 N - m2 kg 2 PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS Density () - it is the mass per unit volume. ρ m kg V m3 Where: m - mass, kg V - volume , m3 Conversion: 1 1 lb ft 3 kg 16.0185 3 kg m3 62,427.9606 cm g kg 1 1 3 liter m lb ft 3 Specific volume () - it is the volume per unit mass or the reciprocal of its density. υ V m3 m kg υ 1 m3 ρ kg Specific weight () - it is the weight per unit volume. W KN V m3 mg KN γ 1000V m 3 ρg KN γ 1000 m 3 1000γ kg ρ g m3 γ Specific Gravity Or Relative Density (S): FOR LIQUIDS: Its specific gravity or relative density is equal to the ratio of its density to that of water at standard temperature and pressure. SL ρ γ L ρw γw 3 At standard condition: water = 1000 kg/m3 water = 9.81 KN/m3 FOR GASES: Its specific gravity or relative density is equal to the ratio of its density to that of either air or hydrogen at some specified temperature and pressure PV mRT P kg RT m 3 8.3143 KJ R M kg - K ρ Where: ah - density of either air or hydrogen at some value of P and T. Equation of State for Gases Conversion F 32 1 .8 F 1.8(C) 32 C Where: P – absolute pressure in KPa V – volume in m3 m – mass in kg R – Gas constant in KJ/kg-K T – absolute temperature in K. M – molecular weight of gas, kg/kgmol Temperature: It is the measure of the intensity of heat. FAHRENHEIT SCALE Freezing Point = 32F Boiling Point = 212F CENTIGRADE SCALE Freezing Point = 0C Boiling Point = 100C ABSOLUTE SCALE ρG SG ρ AH R = F + 460 K = C + 273 4 Pressure: - is defined as the normal component of a force per unit area. F KN or KPa (Kilo Pascal) A m2 KN 1 2 1 KPa m P If a force dF acts on infinitesimal area dA the intensity of pressure P is P dF dA PASCAL`S LAW At any point in a homogeneous fluid at rest the pressures are the same in all directions. Atmospheric Pressure (Pa): It is the average pressure exerted by the atmosphere. At sea level (Standard Condition) Pa 1Bar 1MPa = = = = = = = = = = 101.325 0.101325 760 10.33 1.033 14.7 29.921 33.88 100 1000 KPa MPa mm Hg m of H2O Kg/cm2 Lb/in2 in Hg Ft of H2O KPa KPa ABSOLUTE AND GAGE PRESSURE Absolute Pressure - is the pressure measured referred to absolute zero and using absolute zero as the base. Gage Pressure - is the pressure measured referred to atmospheric pressure and using atmospheric pressure as the base. 5 VARIATION OF PRESSURE WITH DEPTH OR ELEVATION Viscosity: It is the property of a fluid that determines the amount of its resistance to shearing stress. 6 Kinematic Viscosity: It is the ratio of the absolute or dynamic viscosity to the mass density. μ m2 ν ρ sec Elasticity: If a pressure is applied to a fluid, it contracts; if the pressure is released, it expands, the elasticity of a fluid is related to the amount of deformation(expansion or contraction) for a given pressure change. Quantitatively, the degree of elasticity is equal to: dP Ev dV V Where negative sign is used because dV/V is negative for a positive dP. Ev dP dV dρ ; because ρ dρ V ρ Where: Ev - bulk modulus of elasticity dV - is the incremental volume change V - is the original volume dP - is the incremental pressure change Surface Tension: Capillarity Surface tension is the tendency of fluid surfaces to shrink into the minimum surface area possible. Surface tension allows insects, usually denser than water, to float and slide on a water surface. Capillarity is the result of surface, or interfacial, forces. The rise of water in a thin tube inserted in water is caused by forces of attraction between the molecules of water and the glass walls and among the molecules of water themselves. h r 2σ cos θ γr h 7 Where: - surface tension, N/m - specific weight of liquid, N/m3 r – radius, m h – capillary rise, m Table 1.Surface Tension of Water C 0 0.0756 10 0.0742 20 0.0728 30 0.0712 40 0.0696 60 0.0662 80 0.0626 100 0.0589 Entropy (S): It is a property of a fluid that determines the amount of its randomness and disorder of a substance. If during a process an amount of heat is taken at certain instant and is divided by the absolute temperature at which it is taken the result is called the “Change of Entropy” T Area Heat 1 dQ TdS T ΔS 2 dS dQ T dQ TdS dS T dQ S MANOMETERS Manometer is an instrument used in measuring gage pressure in length of some liquid column. 1. Open Type Manometer : It has an atmospheric surface and is capable in measuring gage pressure. 2. Differential Type Manometer : It has no atmospheric surface and is capable in measuring differences of pressure. Open Type Differential Type 8 Problem No. 1 (Force of Attraction) How far from the earth must a body be along a line toward the sun so that the gravitational pull of the sun balances that of the earth? Earth to sun distance is 9.3 x 107 mi; mass of sun is 3.24 x105 times mass of earth. (1.63 x 105 mi.) Problem No. 2 (Measuring Temperature) If the F scale is twice the C scale, what will be the corresponding reading in each scale? (160 ; 320) F 32 C 1.8 F 1.8C 32 F 2C 2C 1.8C 32 32 C 160 2 1 .8 F 320 9 Problem No. 3 (Density, Specific gravity) A cylindrical tank 2 m diameter, 3 m high is full of oil. If the specific gravity of oil is 0.9, what is the mass of oil in the tank? (8482.3 kg) Vcylinder S π 2 π D H (2 2 )3 3π m 3 4 4 ρ ρ water ρ 1000 kg ρ 900 3 m m ρ V m 900(3π) 8482.3 kg 0 .9 Problem No. 4 (Variation in Pressure) An open tank contains 5 m of water covered with 2 m of oil ( = 8 KN/m3). Find the pressure at the interface and at the bottom of the tank. Problem No. 5 (Force) 10 liters of an incompressible liquid exert a force of 20 N at the earth’s surface. What force would 2.3 Liters of this liquid exert on the surface of the moon? The gravitational acceleration on the surface of the moon is 1.67 m/sec2. F ma ρ m V 1 m3 kg m ρV ρ(10.0) 1000 L ρ(10.0) 9.81 N 20 1000 kg ρ 203.874 3 m On the surface of the moon 2 .3 F 203.874 (1.67) 0.783 N 1000 10 Problem No. 6 (Manometer) An open manometer is used to measure the pressure in the tank. The tank is half filled with 50,000 kg of a liquid chemical that is not miscible in water. The manometer tube is filled with liquid chemical. What is the pressure in the tank relative to atmospheric pressure? 4 1 2 2 V πr 3 πr 2 (6) πr 3 πr 2 (3) πr 2 r (3) 54.45 m 3 3 2 3 3 m 50,000 kg ρ 918.2 3 V 54.45 m ρg 918.29.81 KN γ 9.008 3 1000 1000 m P 9.008(0.225) 0.350(9.81) 0 P 1.4067 KPa Pa bs 101.325 1.4067 102.73 KPa Problem No. 7 (Temperature) If the temperature inside a furnace is 700 K, what is the corresponding reading in F? (800.6) Solution: t = 700 – 273 = 427C F = (427)(1.8) + 32 F = 800.6F Problem No. 8 (Absolute Pressure) The suction pressure of a pump reads 540 mm Hg vacuum. What is the absolute pressure in KPa? ( 29.33) Solution: P = 760 – 540 = 220 mm Hg absolute P 220 (101.325) 29.33 mm Hg 760 Problem No. 9 (Pressure Variation) A storage tank contains oil with a specific gravity of 0.88 and depth of 20 m. What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the tank in kg/cm2.(1.7) Solution: Using: g = 9.81 m/sec2 0.88(1000)(9.81)(20) P 0 172.656 KPa 1000 P = 1.7 kg/cm2 Problem No. 10 (Variation in Pressure Measuring Altitude of Mountain) A hiker carrying a barometer that measures 101.3 KPa at the base of the mountain. The barometer reads 85 KPa at the top of the mountain. The average air density is 1.21 kg/m3. Determine the height of the mountain. dP γdh P2 P1 γ(h 2 h1 ) h 2 h1 h (P1 P2 )1000 ρg (101.3 85)1000 h 1.21(9.81) h 1373 m h 11 MANOMETER PROBLEMS 1. The closed tank in the figure is filled with water. The pressure gage on the tank reads 50 KPa. Determine a. The height h in mm in the open water column b. The gage pressure acting on the bottom of the tank surface AB c. The absolute pressure of the air in the top of the tank if the local atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa absolute. By applying principles in variati on of pressure 50 9.81(0.60) - 9.81(h) 0 h 5.7 m PBottom 50 9.81(1.2) 61.8 KPa Pabsolute 50 101 151 KPa absolute 2. The mercury manometer in the figure indicates a differential reading of 30 m when the pressure in pipe A is 30 mm Hg vacuum. Determine the pressure in pipe B. 30(101.325) 4 KPa 760 - 4 (9.81)1.5 13.6(9.81)(0.30) - 0.9(9.81)(0.45) PB PA PB 46.8 KPa 3. A closed tank contains compressed air and oil (S = 0.90) as shown in the figure.a U – tube manometer using mercury (S = 13.6) is connected to the tank as shown. For column heights h1 = 90 cm; h2 = 15 cm and h3 = 22 cm, determine the pressure reading of the gage. 12 4. The pressure of gas in a pipeline is measured with a mercury manometer having one limb open to the atmosphere. If the difference in the height of mercury in the limbs is 562 mm, calculate the absolute gas pressure. The barometer reads 761 mm Hg, the acceleration due to gravity is 9.79 m/sec2 and SHg = 13.64. 5. A turbine is supplied with steam at a gauge pressure of 1.4 MPa, after expansion in the turbine the steam flows into a condenser which is maintained at a vacuum of 710 mm Hg. The barometric pressure is 772mm Hg. Express the inlet and exhaust pressure in kg/cm2 . Take the S of mercury is 13.6. 772(101.325) Patm 103 KPa 760 1.033 kg 2 cm 1.05 kg PInlet 1400 103 1503 KPa (absolute) x cm 2 101.325 KPa 1.033 kg 2 710(101.325) cm 0.09 kg PExhaust 103 x (Absolute) cm 2 760 101.325 KPa 6. The pressure of steam flowing in a pipe line is measured with a mercury manometer. Some steam condenses in to water. Estimate the steam pressure in KPa. Take the density of mercury as 13,600 kg/m3, the barometer reading as 76.1 cm Hg and g = 9.806 m/sec2. 0 13.6(9.806)(0.50) 9.806(0.03) PSteam PSteam 66.4 KPag 76.1(101.325) 167.85 KPa (Absolute) 76 LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MASS Mass is indestructible. In applying this law we must except nuclear processes during which mass is converted into energy. b 1 m1 c a d m 2 m2 The verbal Form of the law is: Mass Entering - Mass Leaving = Change of Mass Stored in the system In equation form: m1 m 2 Δm 13 For a Closed System, a system of fixed mass, no equation is necessary. But for a steady-state, steady flow (SSSF) system (OPEN SYSTEM) m = 0. Therefore: m1 m 2 0 ; therefore m1 m 2 For one dimensional flow, the mass flow rate, m in kg/sec is equal to m ρAv Av υ From m1 = m2 = m ρ1A1v1 ρ 2 A 2 v 2 ρAv A1v1 A 2 v 2 Av υ1 υ2 υ Where: m – mass flow rate in kg/sec A - cross sectional area in m2 v - velocity in m/sec - specific volume in m3/kg - density in kg/m3 Problem No. 1 A counter flowing heat exchanger is used to cool air at 540 K, 400 KPa to 360 K by using 0.05 kg/sec supply of water at 20C, 200 KPa. The airflow is 0.5 kg/sec in a 10 cm diameter pipe. Find the inlet velocity and the water exit temperature. Problem No.2 Problem No. 3 FORMS OF ENERGY Work: It is the force multiplied by the displacement in the direction of the force. 2 W F dx 1 By convention: -W - indicates that work is done on the system +W - indicates that work is done by the system. Heat: It is a form of energy that crosses a system's boundary, because of a temperature difference between the system and the surrounding. Q - Heat By convention: +Q - indicates that heat is added to the system -Q - indicates that heat is rejected from the system. 14 Internal Energy: It is the energy acquired due to the overall molecular interaction, or the total energy that a molecule has. U = mu KJ Where U - total internal energy KJ, KW u - specific internal energy KJ/kg U- change of internal energy m - mass kg, kg/sec Flow Eneregy Or Flow Work: It is the energy required in pushing a fluid usually into the system or out from the system. Ef Flow work or Flow energy E f1 F1L1 P1A1L1 P1V1 E f2 F2 L 2 P2 A 2 L 2 P2 V2 ΔEf E f2 E f1 ma 1000 dv a dt F m 2 dv dx 1000 1 dt m 2 dx ΔKE dv 1000 1 dt dx v dt ΔKE ΔEf P2 V2 P1V1 ΔEf ΔPV ΔPV P2 V2 P1V1 KJ; KW ΔPυ P2 υ 2 P1υ1 ΔKE F dx KJ kg Kinetic Energy: It is the energy acquired due to the motion of a body or a system. ΔKE ΔKE ΔKE ΔKE m 2 v dv 1000 1 2 m v 1000 2 2(1000) KJ; KW v v KJ 2 2 m3 V m ; sec 3 2 1 m v 2 v12 2 P KPa 2 1 2(1000) kg m kg; kg / sec m3 υ kg 1 υ ρ 15 Potential Energy: It is the energy required by virtue of its configuration or elevation. m 2 z m 1 Reference Datum ΔPE W dz mg W 1000 mg 2 ΔPE dz 1000 1 mg (z 2 z1 ) ΔPE KJ; KW 1000 g (z 2 z1 ) KJ ΔPE 1000 kg m kg; kg / sec Where: Z - elevation in m, (+) if above datum and (-) if below datum g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 Enthalpy (h): It is the sum of the Internal Energy and the Flow Energy. h U PV KJ Δh ΔU Δ(PV) KJ Δh Δu Δ(Pυ) KJ kg ZEROTH LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS If two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other, and hence their temperatures are equal. SPECIFIC HEAT: It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a 1 kg mass, 1 K or 1 C. C dQ dQ KJ KJ or dt dT kg - C kg - K then dQ = Cdt by integration, where C is constant Q C ( Δt ) C ( ΔT ) Considerin g m (mass) Q mC (Δt ) mC (ΔT ) where : Δt Δ T t - temperatu re in C T - absolute temperatu re in K 16 Sensible Heat: The amount of heat per unit mass that must be transferred (added or remove) when a substance undergoes a change in temperature without a change in phase. Q mC (Δt ) mC (ΔT) Where: m - mass , kg C - heat capacity or specific heat, KJ/kg-C or KJ/kg-K t - temperature in C T - temperature in K HEAT OF TRANSFORMATION (LATENT HEAT): The amount of heat per unit mass that must be transferred when a substance completely undergoes a phase change without a change in temperature. Q mh A. Heat of Vaporization: Amount of heat that must be added to vaporize a liquid or that must be removed to condense a gas. Q mh v Where hv- latent heat of vaporization, KJ/kg B. Heat of Fusion : Amount of heat that must be added to melt a solid or that must be removed to freeze a liquid. Q mh F Where hF – latent heat of fusion, KJ/kg WATER EQUIVALENT: The water equivalent of a substance is the mass of water that would require the same heat transfer as the mass of that substance to cause the same change of temperature. mw ms C ps C pw PROPERTIES OF PURE SUBSTANCE A pure substance is one that is uniform and invariable in chemical composition. A pure substance can exist in more than one phase, but its chemical composition must be the same in each phase. For example, if liquid water and water vapor form a system with two phases, the system can be regarded as a pure substance because each phase has the same composition. A uniform mixture of gases can be regarded as a pure substance provided it remains a gas and does not react chemically. a - sub-cooled liquid b - saturated liquid c - saturated mixture d - saturated vapor e - superheated vapor Considering that the system is heated at constant pressure where P = 101.325 KPa, the 100C is the saturation temperature corresponding to 101.325 KPa, and 101.325 KPa pressure is the saturation pressure at 100C. Saturation Temperature (tsat) - is the highest temperature at a given pressure in which vaporization takes place. Saturation Pressure (Psat) - is the pressure corresponding to the temperature. Sub-cooled Liquid - is one whose temperature is less than the saturation temperature corresponding to the pressure. 17 Compressed Liquid - is one whose pressure is greater than the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature. Saturated Mixture - a mixture of liquid and vapor at the saturation temperature. Superheated Vapor - a vapor whose temperature is greater than the saturation temperature. Temperature - Specific volume Diagram (T- diagram) Region I – Sub-cooled Liquid Compressed Liquid region Region II -Saturated Mixture region Region III - Superheated Vapor region F (critical point)- at the critical point the temperature and pressure is unique. For Steam: At Critical Point, P = 22.09 MPa; t = 374.136C Temperature-Entropy Diagram (T-S Diagram) Entropy (S): Is that property that determines the randomness and disorder of a substance. If during a process, an amount of heat is taken and is divided by the absolute temperature at which it is taken the result is called the “Change of Entropy”. dS dQ T ΔS T dQ 18 Enthalpy-Entropy Diagram (h versus S Diagram or Mollier Chart) The properties h,S,U,and at saturated liquid, saturated vapor, sub-cooled or compressed liquid and superheated vapor condition, can be determined using the Steam Table. For the properties at the saturated mixture condition, its properties is equal to r rf x (rfg ) rfg rg rf where r stands for any property, such as h, S, U,and , where subscript f refers to saturated liquid condition and fg refers to the difference in property between saturated vapor and saturated liquid and x is called the quality. QUALITY x m vapor m vapor mliquid mv m v ml Where: m - mass v - refers to vapor l - refers to liquid Note: For sub-cooled liquid, its properties are approximately equal to the properties at saturated liquid which corresponds to the sub-cooled temperature. THROTTLING CALORIMETER: An apparatus that is used to determine the quality of a de-superheated steam flowing in a steam line. A throttling process is a Steady State, Steady Flow Process in which Q = 0; W = 0; KE = 0; PE = 0 but the Enthalpy (h) remains constant (h = C). From the figure, steam from the main steam line expands in the calorimeter to the calorimeter pressure and temperature at h = constant.. A throttling calorimeter is an instrument used to determine the quality of steam. 19 IDEAL OR PERFECT GAS Ideal Gas: A hypothetical gas that obeys the gas laws perfectly at all temperatures and pressures. 1. CHARACTERISTIC EQUATION PV mRT Pυ RT RT P P ρ RT PV Pυ C or C T T υ Where: P - absolute pressure in KPa V - volume in m3 m -mass in kg R -Gas constant in KJ/kg-K T - absolute temperature in K - specific volume in m3/kg - density in kg/m3 2. GAS CONSTANT R R 8.3143 KJ M M kg - K R = 8.3143 KJ/kgm-K R - universal gas constant, KJ/kgm-K M - molecular weight, kg/kg mol m kg M n kg mol m mass , kg n - no. of moles 3. BOYLE`S LAW (T = C) Robert Boyle (1627-1691) :If the temperature of a certain quantity of gas is held constant, the volume V is inversely proportional to the absolute pressure P, during a quasi-static change of state. 1 1 or V C P P PV C or Vα P1 V1 P2 V2 C 4. CHARLE`S LAW ( P = C and V = C) Jacques Charles (1746-1823) and Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac (1778-1850) At constant pressure (P = C), the volume V of a certain quantity of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature T, during a quasi static change of state. V T or V CT V V V C or 1 2 T T1 T2 At constant volume (V = C), the pressure P of a certain quantity of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature T, during a quasi-static change of state. P T or P = CT P C T or P1 P2 T1 T2 20 5. AVOGADRO`S LAW: Amedeo Avogadro (1776-1856) :All gases at the same temperature and pressure, under the action of a given value of g, have the same number of molecules per unit of volume. From which it follows that the the specific weight is directly proportional to its molecular weight. At the same temperatu re and pressure for all gases n1 n 2 n V1 V2 V or γ1 M 1 R 2 γ 2 M 2 R1 6. SPECIFIC HEATS Specific Heat At Constant Pressure (Cp) Q mC p (ΔT) mΔh considerin g m Δh h 2 h1 From Q m( Δh ) ΔH dQ du Pdυ dQ dT dQ dh Cp (C p - Specific heat at P C) dT dT dQ C p dT dh dQ υdP Q C p (ΔT) C p (Δt) At P C (Constant Pressure) Q Δh mC p (ΔT) mC p (Δt) h u Pυ dh du Pdυ υdP but From C dP 0 dh dQ Q Δh Specific Heat At Constant Volume (Cv) Q mC V ΔT mΔu ΔU m(u 2 u1 ) From dQ du Pdυ at υ C; dυ 0 therefore From dQ dT dQ du Cv (C v specific heat at V C) dT dT dQ C v (dT) C Q C v (ΔT) C v (Δt ) Q ΔU mC v (ΔT) mC v (Δt ) dQ du From Q Δu (u 2 - u1 ) h u Pυ Q ΔU m(u 2 - u1 ) Pυ RT h u RT dh du Rdt C p dT C v dT Rdt dividing the equation by dT Cp Cv R 21 7. RATIO OF SPECIFIC HEATS C p dh ΔH k C V du ΔU C p kCv Cv Cp k Cp Cv R kCv C v R R k 1 Cp Cv R Cv Cp Cp R k Rk R k 1 8. ENTROPY CHANGE (S) Entropy is that property of a substance that determines the amount of randomness and disorder of a substance. If during a process, an amount of heat is taken and is by divided by the absolute temperature at which it is taken, the result is called the “Entropy Change” ENTROPY CHANGE. dQ T dQ T (dS) dS by integratio n ΔS 2 dQ T 1 From : h U Pυ h U RT dQ dU Pdυ RT and dQ TdS υ RT TdS C v dT dυ υ dividing by T P dT dυ R T υ By integratio n dS C v T υ ΔS C vln 2 Rln 2 T1 υ1 From dh dQ υdP dQ dh RT dP P TdS C p dT RT dP P dividing by T dT dP R T P by integratio n dS C p T P ΔS C pln 2 Rln 2 T1 P1 Actual – Gas equation of State In actual gases the molecular collision are inelastic; at high densities in particular there are intermolecular forces that the simplified equation of the state do not account for. There are many gas equations of state that attempt to correct for the non - ideal behavior of gases. The disadvantage of all methods is that the equations are more complex and require the use of experimental coefficients. a. Van der Waals Equation 22 P a υ b RT 2 υ where : a and b a coefficien ts that compensate for the nonideal behavior of the gas. m3 kg mol b. Beattie-Bridgeman Equation υ in 2 υ P A RT 2 ( 1 ε )( υ B) υ where : a A A 0 1 υ b B B0 1 υ c ε 3 υT Compressibility Factor Pυ 1 RT For nonideal behavior of gases Pυ Z RT Where: Z – compressibility factor IDEAL GAS MIXTURE Mixture of gases are common in many applications. Our most common example is air - mainly consisting of nitrogen, oxygen and water vapor - as moist air. A combustion gas with nitrogen, water vapor and carbon dioxide is an other example. Total Mass Of A Mixture m m i MASS FRACTION xi Total Moles Of A Mixture n n i Mole Fraction yi mi m ni n Equation Of State Mass Basis For the Mixture PV mRT Fort the Components Pi Vi mi R i Ti 23 Mole Basis For the Mixture PV n RT Fort the Components Pi Vi n i RTi AMAGAT’S LAW The total volume of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the volume occupied by each component at the mixture pressure P and temperature T. 2 V2 1 V1 3 V3 P, T P = P1 = P2 = P3 T = T1 = T2 = T3 n n1 n 2 n 3 n PV PV RT RT ; n1 PV1 RT PV1 RT PV2 RT ; n2 PV2 RT ; n3 PV3 RT PV3 RT PV PV1 PV2 PV3 RT RT P RT RT RT V V1 V2 V3 V V yi n i Vi n V i DALTON’S LAW The total pressure of a mixture of gases P is equal to the sum of the partial pressure that each gas would exert at the mixture volume V and temperature T. V V1 V2 V3 T T1 T2 T3 n n1 n 2 n 3 n PV RT ; n1 P1V RT ; n2 P2V RT ; n3 P3V RT 24 PV RT P1V RT P2 V RT P3V RT PV P1V P2 V P3V RT RT RT RT RT V P P1 P2 P3 P P i n i Pi n P yi Molecular Weight Of A Mixture (M) M y M M R 8.3143 KJ R R kg - K i i Gas Constant (R) R x R R R 8.3143 KJ M M kg - K i i Specific Heat Of A Mixture At Constant Volume Cv x C i vi At Constant Pressure CP x C i Pi Cp C v R Ratio Of Specific Heat k CP CV Rk k 1 R CV k 1 Gravimetric And Volumetric Analysis Gravimetric analysis gives the mass fractions of the components in the mixture. Volumetric analysis gives the volumetric or molal fractions of the components in the mixture. CP CONVERSION xi yi M i y M i yi i yi M i M xi Mi xi Mi 25 THE FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS (The Law of Conservation of Energy) “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can only be converted from one form to another.” The Verbal form of the Law is: Energy Entering - Energy Leaving = Change of Energy Stored within the system In equation Form: E1 E 2 ΔEs Corollary Laws of the First Law: First Corollary: Is the application of the Law of Conservation of Energy principle to a Closed System. A system of Fixed mass. W U Q For a Closed system (Nonflow system) the KE and PE are negligible and (PV) doesn't exists. Q - W = Es where Es = U Q - W = U 1 Q = U + W 2 By differentiation: dQ = dU + dW 3 Work for a Moving Boundary of a Closed System Piston 2 W P dV 4 1 dW P dV 5 System dQ dU dW Boundary dQ dU dW P dQ dU P dV 6 Area = W 2 W P dV P 1 dV V 26 Second Corollary: Is the application of the Law of Conservation of Energy principle to an Open System (Steady-state, Steady Flow System) a system of Fixed space. For an OPEN SYSTEM (Steady-State, Steady-Flow system) ES = 0, therefore Energy Entering = Energy Leaving, In equation form E1 E 2 0 E1 E 2 U1 P1V1 KE1 PE1 Q U 2 P2 V2 KE2 PE 2 W 1 Q U 2 U1 P2 V2 U1 KE2 KE1 PE 2 PE1 W 2 Q ΔU Δ(PV) ΔKE ΔPE W 3 Enthalpy (h):It is the sum of internal energy and flow energy. h U PV 5 Δh ΔU Δ (PV) 6 Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 7 W Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE 8 By differenti ation dh dU PdV VdP 9 but dU PdV dQ dh dQ VdP dW dQ - dh - dKE - dPE 10 dW dQ - dQ VdP - dKE - dPE dW VdP - dKE - dPE 11 W - VdP - ΔKE - ΔPE 12 - VdP Q - Δh 13 If KE = 0 and PE = 0 or negligible; W VdP 14 W Q Δh 15 27 PROCESSES OF FLUIDS o ISOBARIC PROCESS (P = C): An Isobaric Process is an internally reversible Constant Pressure process. CLOSED SYSTEM For any substance For Ideal Gas Q ΔU W 1 V1 V2 1 T1 T2 W P dV W P(V2 V1 ) mR (T2 T1 ) 5 At P C ΔU mC v (T2 T1 ) 3 W P(V2 - V1 ) 2 Q Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) 6 ΔU m(U 2 - U1 ) 3 ENTROPY CHANGE from For any substance h U PV ΔS dh dU PdV VdP T T S S 7 dQ dh 2 dP 0 at P C For Ideal Gas dU PdV dQ dQ dh mC p dT dQ dh ΔS Q Δh 1 2 dT T T mC T dQ dh p 1 T ΔS mC p ln 2 8 T1 Q m ( h 2 h1 ) 4 OPEN SYSTEM Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 9 W VdP ΔKE ΔPE 10 dP 0 at P C and Q Δh; V dP 0 W -ΔKE - ΔPE 11 If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 W 0 12 28 o ISOMETRIC PROCESS OR ISOCHORIC PROCESS(V = C): An Isometric Process is an internally reversible “Constant Volume” process. CLOSED SYSTEM For any substance Q ΔU W 1 W P dV At V C For Ideal Gas P1 P2 4 T1 T2 Q ΔU mCv (T2 T1 ) 5 dV 0 ENTROPY CHANGE W0 2 ΔS dQ dU PdV dV 0 dQ dU T mC T dQ ΔS mC v ln dT v T2 6 T1 Q ΔU Q m(U 2 - U1 ) 3 OPEN SYSTEM Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 7 W VdP ΔKE ΔPE 8 V dP V(P1 P2 ) 9 W -ΔKE - ΔPE 11 If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 W 0 12 29 o ISOTHERMAL PROCESS (T = C or PV = C): An Isothermal Process is an internally reversible “Constant Temperature” Process CLOSED SYSTEM For any substance ENTROPY CHANGE Q ΔU W 1 For any substance W P dV 2 ΔS S2 - S1 8 ΔU m(U 2 - U1 ) 3 dQ Tds From For Ideal Gas At T C C PV C or P V P1V1 P2 V2 C Q T ΔS Q 9 T For ideal gas ΔS ΔU mC v (T2 T1 ) ΔU 0, therefor e But T1 T2 W Q 10 ΔU 0 4 V W P1V1 ln V2 5 V1 W PdV C W mRT1 ln dV V2 6 V1 V2 P1 V1 P2 W mRT1 ln OPEN SYSTEM P1 7 P2 Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 1 W - VdP - ΔKE - ΔPE 2 Δh m(h 2 h1 ) 3 For ideal gas and applying laws of logarithm mRT ln 6 P P V VdP mRT ln 7 V VdP P1V1 ln P1 P1 1 2 2 2 1 1 Δh mC p (T2 - T1 ) If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 but T1 T2 W VdP P1V1 ln Δh 0 4 P2 8 P1 From PV C or V C P P1V1 P2 V2 C P P VdP P V ln 5 P VdP C dP 1 1 2 1 30 o ISENTROPIC PROCESS (S = C): An Isentropic Process is an internally “reversible adiabatic” process in which the entropy remains constant where S = C (for any substance) or PVk = C (for an ideal or perfect gas) dQ dU PdV dQ 0, for adiabatic dU PdV 1 dh dQ VdP dQ 0 dh VdP 2 dh VdP 3 dU PdV but Cp Cv 2 dP 2 dV 1 1 P k V V P V V ln 2 k ln 2 k ln 1 ln 1 P1 V1 V2 V2 k taking antilog k dh k , hence dU P2 V1 Vk 1 P1 V2 V2 k or P1V1k P2 V2 k 1 By int egration U sin g PV PV k C and C T PV P V P1V1k P2 V2 k and 1 1 2 2 T1 T2 k 1 V T2 P2 k 1 T1 P1 V2 k 1 2 C and V Vk 1 Ck 1 Pk P2 V2 P1V1 2 PdV 1 k 4 k P V P V VdP 5 1 k VdP k PdV 6 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 P1V1 mRT1 7 From PV k C P VdP PdV dP dV k P V by integratio n k From P2 V2 mRT 2 8 3 31 CLOSED SYSTEM For any substance Q ΔU W Q 0 1 W ΔU 2 For Ideal Gas W -ΔU -mC v (T2 - T1 ) 3 W PdV P2 V2 P1V1 mR (T2 T1 ) 4 1 k 1 k k 1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 From k 1 k 1 mR (T2 T1 ) mRT1 P2 k P1V1 P2 k W PdV 1 1 5 1 k 1 k P1 1 k P1 ENTROPY CHANGE ΔS 0 OPEN SYSTEM Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W W VdP ΔKE ΔPE Q 0 1 W Δh ΔKE ΔPE 2 VdP Δh 3 For Ideal Gas Δh mC p (T2 - T1 ) 4 If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 W - VdP -Δh VdP k PdV k 1 k 1 k (P2 V2 P1V1 ) kmR (T2 T1 ) kmRT1 P2 k kP1V1 P2 k VdP 1 1 1 k P 5 1 k 1 k 1 k P1 1 o POLYTROPIC PROCESS (PVn = C): A Polytropic Process is an internally reversible process of an ideal or perfect gas in which PVn = C, where n stands for any constants. U sin g By int egration PV C T PV P V P1V1n P2 V2 n and 1 1 2 2 1 T1 T2 PdV 1 n 4 n P V P V VdP 5 1 n VdP n PdV 6 PV n C and n 1 T2 P2 n V1 T1 P1 V2 n 1 2 C Vn and V 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 P1V1 mRT1 7 P2 V2 mRT 2 8 From PV n C P P2 V2 P1V1 2 1 Cn 1 Pn 3 32 From Q ΔU W 9 W Pdυ P2 υ 2 P1υ1 R (T2 T1 ) 1 n 1 n RdT 10 1 n dQ dU dW dW dQ C v dT k 1 1 n k 1 dQ C v dT1 C v dT 1 n 1 n kn kn dQ C v dT Cv dT 1 n 1 n kn let : C n C v 1 n dQ C n dT RdT 1 n Q C n (T2 T1 ) 10 R Cp Cv Considerin g m Q mC n (T2 - T1 ) 11 C p kC v kn Cn Cv Polytropic specific heat 1 n kC v dT C v dT 1 n k 1 dQ CvdT CvdT 1 n dQ C v dT CLOSED SYSTEM Q ΔU W Q ΔU 12 Q mC n (T2 T1 ) 13 ΔU -mC v (T2 - T1 ) 14 W PdV P2 V2 P1V1 mR (T2 T1 ) 15 1 n 1 n n 1 From T2 P2 n T1 P1 n 1 n 1 mR (T2 T1 ) mRT1 P2 n P1V1 P2 n 1 1 1 n P 16 1 n 1 n P1 1 ENTROPY CHANGE W PdV ΔS T mC T dQ ΔS mC n ln dT n T2 KJ 17 T1 K 33 OPEN SYSTEM Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 18 W VdP ΔKE ΔPE 19 W Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE 20 h U PV Δh ΔU Δ(PV) Δ(PV) Δh ΔU Δh mC p (T2 - T1 ) 21 Q mC n (T2 T1 ) 22 n 1 n 1 n (P2 V2 P1V1 ) nmR (T2 T1 ) nmRT1 P2 n nP1V1 P2 n VdP 1 1 1 n P 1 n 1 n 1 n P1 1 If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 W - VdP o ISOENTHALPIC PROCESS or THROTTLING PROCESS(h = C): An Isoenthalpic Process is a steady state, steady flow, process in which W = 0, KE = 0, PE = 0, and Q = 0, where the enthalpy h remains constant. h1 h 2 or hC IRREVERSIBLE OR PADDLE WORK W U WP Q m Q ΔU W WP Where: WP – irreversible or Paddle Work 34 SAMPLE EXERCISES Processes (Ideal Gas) A steady flow compressor handles 113.3 m3/min of nitrogen ( M = 28; k = 1.399) measured at intake where P1= 97 KPa and T1= 27 C. Discharge is at 311 KPa. The changes in KE and PE are negligible. For each of the following cases, determine the final temperature and the work if the process is: a) PVk= C b) PV = C Given: V1 = 113.3/60 = 1.89 m3sec ; P1 = 97 KPa ; T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K P2 = 311 KPa For Isentropic k 1 P k T2 T1 2 418 K P1 W kP1V1 T2 1 - 253 KW 1 k T1 For Isothermal T1 = T2 = 300K P W P1V1 ln 1 - 213.6 KW P2 Processes (Ideal Gas) Air is contained in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. Initially the cylinder contains 500 L of air at 150 KPa and 20 C. The air is then compressed in a polytropic process ( PVn = C) until the final pressure is 600 KPa, at which point the temperature is 120 C. Determine the work W and the heat transfer Q. (R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K ; k = 1.4) Given: V1 = 0.500 m3 ; P1 = 150 KPa; T1 = 293K P2 = 600 KPa; T2 = 393K T ln 2 n 1 T1 P n ln 2 P1 n 1.27 m P1 V1 0.892 kg RT1 W P1V1 T2 1 95 KJ 1 n T1 ∆U = mCv(T2 – T1) = 64 KJ Q = ∆U + W = 64 – 95 = - 31 KJ Ideal Gas (Open System; Compressor) An air compressor receives 20 m3/min of air at 101.325 KPa and 20C and compresses it to 10 000 KPa in an isentropic process. Calculate the power of the compressor. For isentropic process; ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 k 1 kP1V1 P2 k W 1 1 - k P1 Ideal Gas (Closed System) A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process in which 40 KJ of heat are rejected and the volume changes 0.15 m 3 to 0.60 m3. The pressure is constant at 200 KPa. Determine the change of internal energy U in KJ. Given: Q = -40 KJ; V1 = 0.15 m3 V2 = 0.60 m3; P = 200 KPa Solution: Q = U + W ; W = P(V2 – V1) W = 200(0.60 – 0.15) = 90 KJ U = -40 – 90 = -130 KJ 35 Ideal Gas (Isentropic Process) Air in a piston - cylinder occupies 0.12 m3 at 550 KPa. The air expands isentropically doing work on the piston until the volume is 0.25 m3. Determine the work W in KJ. For Air R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K and k = 1.4. Given: V1 = 0.12 m3; P1 = 550 KPa; V2 = 0.25 m3 k 1 P V V W I 1 1 1 42 KJ (1 k ) V2 Ideal Gas (Paddle Work) A piston cylinder arrangement contains 0.02 m3/min of air at 50 C and 400 KPa. Heat is added in the amount of 50 KJ and work is done by a paddle wheel until the temperature reaches 700 C. If the pressure is held constant, how much paddle wheel work must be added to the air. (R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K ; k = 1.4) m3 min T1 50 273 323 K; T2 993 K V1 0.02 P 400 KPa Q 50 KJ Process : Isobaric PV mRT m 0.086 kg V2 0.06 m 3 W P(V2 V1 ) 16.6 KJ Q ΔU W - WP WP 8.1 KJ Ideal Gas (Polytropic Process) Air at 0.07 m3 and 4000 KPa is expanded in an engine cylinder and the pressure at the end of expansion is 320 KPa. If the expansion is polytropic with PVn = C where n = 1.35, find the final volume. Given: V1 = 0.07 m3 ; P1 = 4000 KPa ; P2 = 320 KPa ; PV1.35 = C P1V1n P2 V2 n 1 P n V2 V1 1 0.455 P2 Ideal Gas Gas at a pressure of 100 KPa, volume 0.20 m3 and temperature 300K, is compressed until the pressure is 320 KPa and the volume is 0.09 cu.m.. Calculate the final temperature in K. Given: P1 = 100 KPa; V1 = 0.20 m3; T1 = 300K; P2 = 320 KPa; V2 = 0.09 m3 P1V1 P2 V2 T1 T2 T 2 432K Ideal Gas Helium gas ( R=2.077 KJ/kg-K; k= 1.667) at 800 KPa and 300K occupies a volume of 0.30 m3. Determine the mass of helium in kg. PV mRT m 0.39kg Ideal Gas (Isometric Process) A rigid container containing 25 kg of nitrogen gas at 298K receives heat and its temperature is increased to 370K. Determine the amount of heat added in KJ. For N2: R = 0.297 KJ/kgK; k = 1.399 Cv = 0.7444KJ/kg-K Q = mCvT = 1334 KJ 36 Ideal Gas Mixture A 3 m3 drum contains a mixture at 101 KPa and 35C of 60% Methane (CH4) and 40% oxygen (O2) on a volumetric basis. Determine the amount of oxygen that must be added at 35C to change the volumetric analysis to 50% of each component. Determine also the new mixture pressure. For CH 4: M = 16; k = 1.321 O2: R = 32 ; k = 1.395 GIVEN : V 3 m 3 ; P 101 KPa ; T 308K ; y CH 4 60% ; y O 2 40% M 0.60(16) 0.40(32) 22.4 8.3143 KJ 0.371 22.4 kg - K PV mRT R 101(3) 0.371(308) m 2.65 kg m yi M i M 0.60(16) x CH 4 0.429 22.4 0.40(32) xO2 0.571 22.4 m CH 4 x CH 4 2.65 m CH 4 1.137 kg xi m O 2 2.65 - 1.137 1.513 kg a) at y CH 4 0.50 ; y O 2 0.50 M 0.50(16) 0.50(32) 24 8.3143 KJ 0.346 24 kg - K 0.50(16) x CH 4 0.33 24 x O 2 0.67 R x CH 4 0.33 1.137 m CH 4 2.65 m CH 4 1.137 m CH 4 2.65 m CH 4 m CH $ - 0.39 kg ; therefore some CH 4 is removed from the mixture because it is negative. m 2.65 - .39 2.26 kg b) y CH 4 0.50 ; y O 2 0.50 M 0.50(16) 0.50(32) 24 8.3143 KJ 0.346 24 kg - K 0.50(16) x CH 4 0.33 24 x O 2 0.67 R 0.67 1.513 m O 2 2.65 m O 2 m O 2 0.796 m 2.65 0.796 3.446 kg c) for condition a; mRT V 2.26(0.346)(308) P 3 P 80.28 KPa P For condition b : 3.446(0.346)(308) 3 P 122.41 KPa P 37 Ideal Gas (Closed System) Air from the discharge of a compressor enters a 1 m3 storage tank. The initial air pressure in the tank is 500 KPa and the temperature is 600K. The tank cools, and the internal energy decreases 213 KJ/kg. Determine a) the work done b) the heat loss c) the change of enthalpy d) the final temperature For Air k = 1.4 R = 0.287 V 1 m3 P 500 KPa T 600 K KJ kg W 0 Cons tan t Volume ΔU -213 PV mRT m 2.9 kg Q mΔU 2.9(-213) 618.5 KJ (Heat is rejected) Δh ΔU Δh 1.4(-618.5) 866 KJ k Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) T2 303 K Pure Substance (Isometric Process) A 2 kg steam-water mixture at 1000 KPa and 90% quality (U = 2401.41 KJ/kg) is contained in a rigid tank. Heat is added until the pressure rises to 3500 KPa and the temperature is 400C (U = 2926.4 KJ/kg). Determine the heat added in KJ. Q = m(U2 – U1) = 1045 KJ Ideal Gas Calculate the pressure of 2 moles of air at 400K, with a total volume of 0.5 m3. PV mRT nMRT n RT P 13.3MPa Ideal Gas A 100 Liters oxygen tank use in a hospital has a pressure of 1 atmosphere and a temperature of 16C. For a molecular weight of 32 kg/kgmol, determine the mass of oxygen in kilograms. PV = mRT T = 289K ; P = 101.325 KPa m = 0.135 kg Ideal Gas An unknown gas has a mass of 1.5 kg and occupies 2.5 m3 while at a temperature of 300K and a pressure of 200 KPa. Determine the gas constant for the gas in KJ/kg-K. PV R mT = 1.111 KJ/kg-K Open System (Polytropic Process) A gas turbine expands 50 kg/sec of helium (M = 4; k = 1.666) polytropically, PV 1.8 = C, from 1000K and 500 KPa to 350K. Determine; a. The final pressure in KPa b. The power produced in KW c. The heat loss in KW d. The entropy change in KW/K 38 Given : m 50 kg/sec R 8.3143 KJ 2.08 M kg - K Pr ocess : PV1.8 C (Polytropi c) System : Gas Turbine (Open) T1 1000 K; P1 500 KPa T2 350 K n 1 T2 P2 n T1 P1 n P2 T2 n 1 P1 T1 P2 627.14 KPa nmR (T2 T1 ) 151,995.80 KW 1 n Q mC n (T2 T1 ) -16,989.85KW W Q Δh kn Cn Cv 0.523 1 n Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) -168,985.65 kw Open System At one point in a pipeline the water speed is 3 m/sec and the gage pressure is 50 KPa. Find the gage pressure at a second point in the line, 11 m lower than the first , if the pipe diameter at the second point is one half the first. Ideal Gas (Open system; Nozzle) Oxygen expands in a reversible adiabatic manner through a nozzle from an initial pressure and initial temperature and with an initial velocity of 50 m/sec. There is a decrease of 38K in temperature across the nozzle. Determine a. the exit velocity b. for inlet conditions of 410 KPa and 320 K, find the exit pressure. 39 Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W Q 0; W 0; ΔPE 0 ΔKE Δh C p (T2 T1 ) v 2 2 v12 C p (T1 T2 ) 2(1000) v 2 2(1000)C p (T1 T2 ) v12 Rk KJ 8.3143 KJ 0.918 ;R 0.26 ; k 1.395 k 1 kg - K 32 kg - K m v 2 268.8 sec Cp k 1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 k k T k 1 P2 T2 k 1 ; P2 P1 2 P1 T1 T1 (T1 T2 ) 38 (320 T2 ) 38 T2 282 K P2 262.14 Ideal Gas A pressure in the cylinder in the figure varies in the following manner with volume, P = C/V2. If the initial pressure is 500 KPa, initial volume is 0.05 m3 and the final pressure is 200 KPa, find the work done by the system. P1 500 KPa; V1 0.05 m3 ; P2 200 KPa PV 2 C P1V12 P2 V2 2 C 1 P 2 V2 1 V1 0.08 m3 P2 Hydrostatic Pressure A storage tank contains oil with a specific gravity of 0.88 and depth of 20 m. What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the tank in kg/cm2. 1.033 kg 2 cm 1.76 kg PBottom 0 0.88(9.81)20 172.656 KPa x cm2 101.325 KPa Variation of Pressure A hiker carrying a barometer that measures 101.3 KPa at the base of the mountain. The barometer reads 85 KPa at the top of the mountain. The average air density is 1.21 kg/m3. Determine the height of the mountain. ΔP γΔh γ ρg 1000 P2 P1 ρg h 2 h1 1000 h h 2 h1 h 1000P1 P2 1373.2 m ρg 40 Closed System During the execution of a non-flow process by a system, the work per degree temperature increase is dW/dT = 170.9 J/K and the internal energy may be expressed as U = 27 + 0.68T Joules, a function of the temperature T in Kelvin. Determine the heat in KJ if the temperature changes from 10C to 38C. dW 170.9dT U 27 0.68T dU 0.68dT dQ dU dW dQ 0.68dT 170.9dT dQ 171.58dT 1 Q 171.58 dT 1 Q 171.58(T 2 T1) 171.58(38 10) 4804.24 Joules 48.0424 KJ Pure Substance (Nozzle) A nozzle receives 10 kg/sec of steam at 4 MPa and 260C (h = 2836.3 KJ/kg ; = 51.74 x10-3 m3/kg) and discharges it at 1.4 MPa (h =2634.07 KJ/kg; = 129.72 x 10-3 m3/kg). If the velocity at inlet is negligible, find the diameter at exit in cm. Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W Q 0; W 0; ΔPE 0 ΔKE Δh v 2 2 v12 Δh 2(1000) v 2 2(1000)( Δh ) v12 v1 0 v 2 2(1000)( Δh ) Δh 2634.07 2836.3 -202.23 v 2 636 m sec m A2v2 kg 10 υ2 sec m πd 2 v 2 ρ 2 πd 2 v 2 4υ2 4 d 4m x 100 cm 5.10 cm πρ 2 v 2 Properties of fluids A 3 m diameter by 4.5 m height vertical tank is receiving water ( = 978 kg/m3) at the rate of 1.13 m3/min and is discharging through a 150 mm with a constant velocity of 1.5 m/sec. At a given instant, the tank is half full. Find the water level and the mass change in the tank 15 minutes later. m1 1.13(978)15 16,577.1 kg entering π (0.150) 2 (1.5)(60)(15)(978) 23331.63 kg leaving 4 π(3) 2 (4.5)(978) mi 15,554.42 kg initial mass of water 4( 2) Δm m1 m i m 2 8,799.9 kg m2 Volume of water in the tank Height of water 8,799.9 9 .0 m 3 978 9 .0 1.27 m π 2 (3) 4 41 Zeroth Law An engineering student wants to cool 0.25 kg of Omni Cola (mostly water) initially at 20C by adding ice that is initially at -20C. How much ice should be added so that the final temperature will be 0C with all the ice melted, if the heat capacity of the container neglected. QCola Qice 0.25(4.187)( 20 0) mice 2.0935(0 20) 334.9 mice 0.06 kg Zeroth Law 2.5 kg of brass of specific heat 0.39 KJ/kg-C at a temperature of 176C is dropped into a 1.2 liters of water at 14C. Find the resulting temperature of the mixture. (At 14C density of water is 999 kg/m3) Q Brass Q water 2.5(0.39)(176 t ) 1.2 999(4.187)t 14 1000 t 40.35C Open system (Turbine) Steam enters a turbine with a velocity of 1.5 m/sec and an enthalpy of 2093 KJ/kg and leaves with an enthalpy of 1977 KJ/kg and a velocity of 91.5 m/sec. Heat losses are 8 KCal/min and the steam flow rate is 27 kg/min. The inlet of the turbine is 3.5 m higher than its outlet. What is the work output of the turbine if the mechanical losses is 15%. (1 KCal = 4.187 KJ) Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W 8(4.187) Q 0.56 KW Rejected 60 27 1977 2093 -52.2 KW Δh 60 27 (91.5)2 - (1.5)2 ΔKE 1.9 KW 60 2(1000) 27(9.81) 3.5 0 15.45 KW ΔPE 60 W 0.56 52.2 - 1.9 15.45 65.2 KW Woutput (65.2)(1 - .15) 55.41 KW (work done by the system) Open System (Compressor) An air compressor handles 8.5 m3/min of air with a density of 1.26 kg/m3 and a pressure of 101 KPaa and discharges at 546 KPaa with a density of 4.86 kg/m3. The changes in specific internal energy across the compressor is 82 KJ/kg and the heat loss by cooling is 24 KJ/kg. Neglecting changes in kinetic and potential energies, find the work in KW. System : Compressor (0pen system) 8.5 1.26 0.18 kg m 60 sec Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W Δh Δ(Pυ) ΔU KJ ΔU 82 kg ΔPE 0 P 546 101 KJ Δ(Pυ) Δ 32.19 kg ρ 4.86 1.26 KJ Δh 32.19 82 114.19 kg KJ Q 24 (heat loss) kg KJ W Q - Δh ΔKE ΔPE -138.2 kg 42 Closed system (Piston in cylinder) Four kilograms of a certain gas is contained within a piston–cylinder assembly. The gas undergoes a process for which the pressure - volume relationship is PV1.5 = C. The initial pressure is 300 KPa, the initial volume is 0.10 m 3, and the final volume is 0.2 m3. The change in specific internal energy of the gas in the process is U = - 4.6 kJ/kg. There are no significant changes in kinetic or potential energy. Determine the net heat transfer for the process, in kJ. System : Piston - Cylinder (Closed) KJ P1 300 KPa; V1 0.10 m 3 ; V2 0.20 m3 ; ΔU 4.6 kg Q ΔU W P V -PV W PdV 2 2 1 1 1 n P2 V2 P1V1n n P2 106.07 KPa W 17.57 KJ ΔU 4.6(4) 18.4 KJ Q 35.97 KJ Entropy Change Calculate the change of entropy per kg of air (R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K; k = 1.4) when heated from 300K to 600K while the pressure drops from 400 KPa to 300 KPa. Rk KJ 1.0045 k 1 kg - K KJ ΔS 0.78 kg - K CP Law of Conservation of Mass Steam at 1 MPa, 300°C flows through a 30 cm diameter pipe with an average velocity of 10 m/s. Determine mass flow rate of this steam. (Density at 1 MPa and 300C = 3.875 kg/m3) m ρAv kg π m 3.875 0.302 10 2.74 sec 4 Closed System (Piston in Cylinder) Air is compressed in a piston-cylinder device. Using constant specific heats and treating the process as internally reversible, determine the amount of work required to compress this air from 100 KPa, 27°C to 2000 KPa, 706°C. Ideal Gas A certain perfect gas of mass 0.1 kg occupies a volume of 0.03 m 3 at a pressure of 700 KPa and a temperature of 131C. The gas is allowed to expand until the pressure is 100 KPa and the final volume is 0.02 m3. Calculate; a) the molecular weight of the gas b) the final temperature PV mRT 700(0.03) 0.1R (131 273) KJ R 0.52 kg - K 8.3143 kg M 16 0.52 kg mol 100(0.02) 0.1(0.52)T T 38.5 K 43 System : Piston - Cylinder (closed) Process : PV n C Q ΔU W W PdV P2 V2 - P1V1 R (T2 T1 ) 1 n 1 n P1V1n P2 V2 n n V2 P 1 V P 2 1 n 1 T2 P2 n T1 P1 U sin g Laws of logarithm P1 P2 n V ln 2 V1 ln n 1 n ln T2 T1 P ln 2 P1 n 1.652 KJ W 266.8 kg Open System (Nozzle) Air enters the after burner nozzle of a jet fighter at 427°C with a velocity of 100 m/s. It leaves this adiabatic nozzle at 377°C. Assuming that the air specific heats do not change with temperature, determine the velocity at the nozzle exit. Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W Q 0; W 0; ΔPE 0 ΔKE Δh C p (T2 T1 ) v 2 2 v12 C p (T1 T2 ) 2(1000) v 2 2(1000)C p (T1 T2 ) v12 C p 1.0045 T1 427C T2 377C v1 100 m sec v 2 332.3 m sec Gas Mixture One mole of a gaseous mixture has the following gravimetric analysis: O2 = 16% ; CO2 = 44% ; N2 = 40%. Find a) the molecular weight of the mixture b) the mass of each constituents c) the moles of each constituent in the mixture 44 Formulas xi Mi xi Σ Mi xi mi m M ΣyiMi M m n yi 8.3143 M ni yi n R Open System (Nozzle) Air enter the nozzle as shown at a pressure of 2700 KPa at a velocity of 30 m/sec and with an enthalpy of 923 KJ/kg, and leaves with a pressure of 700 KPa and enthalpy of 660 KJ/kg. If the heat loss is 0.96 KJ/kg, find the exit velocity in m/sec if the mass flow rate is 0.2 kg/sec. System : Nozzle (Open) Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W KJ Q -0.96 kg W 0; ΔPE 0 ΔKE Q - Δh v 2 2 v12 Q - Δh 2000 v 2 2000Q - Δh v12 Δh (660 - 923) -263 v1 30 KJ kg m sec v 2 724.6 m sec Force 10 liters of an incompressible liquid exert a force of 20 N at the earth’s surface. What force would 2.3 Liters of this liquid exert on the surface of the moon? The gravitational acceleration on the surface of the moon is 1.67 m/sec 2. V 0.01 m 3 m ρ ; m Vρ V m 0.01ρ F ma 20 0.01ρ(9.81) kg ρ 203.9 3 m FMoon 0.0023(203.9)1.67 0.80 N 45 Manometers A closed tank contains compressed air and oil (S = 0.90) as shown in the figure.a U – tube manometer using mercury (S = 13.6) is connected to the tank as shown. For column heights h1 = 90 cm; h2 = 15 cm and h3 = 22 cm, determine the pressure reading of the gage. ΔP γΔh 0 13 .6(9.81)(0.22 ) 0.90 (9.81)(0.15 ) 0.90 (9.81)(0.90 ) Pgage Pgage 20.08 KPa Manometer In the figure pipe A contains carbon tetrachloride (S = 1.60) and the closed storage tank B contains a salt brine (S =1.15). Determine the air pressure in tank B in KPa if the gage pressure in pipe A is 1.75 kg/cm 2. (101.325) 171.65 KPa 1.033 3 ft 0.914 m PA 1.75 171.65 - (0.914)(1.6)(9.81) (0.914)(1.15)(9.81) - 1.2(1.15)(9.81) PB PB 154.08 KPa gage Ideal Gas (Isothermal Process) Air which is initially at 120 KPa and 320K occupies 0.11 m3. It is compressed isothermally until the volume is halved and then compressed it at constant pressure until the volume decreases to ¼ of the initial volume. Sketch the process on the PV and TS diagrams. Then determine the pressure, the volume and temperature in each state. 46 Pr ocess Isothermal : P1V1 P2 V2 Fluid : Air (R 0.287 KJ/kg - K) k 1.4 P1 120 KPa; T1 320 K; V1 0.11 m 3 PV mRT 120(0.11) 0.144 kg 0.287(320) At 1 to 2 (Isorherma l) m 0.11 0.055 m 3 2 PV P2 1 1 240 KPa;T2 320 K V2 V2 At 2 to 3 (Isobaric) P 2 P3 240 KPa 0.11 0.0275 m 3 4 T3 V3 T2 V2 V3 T3 160 K Gas Mixture One mole of a gaseous mixture has the following gravimetric analysis; O2 = 16% ; CO2 = 44%; N2 = 40%.Find a) the molecular weight of the mixture b) the mass of each constituent c) the moles of each constituent in the mixture d) the gas constant R e) the partial pressure for P = 207 KPa 47 PRACTICE PROBLEMS 1. Determine the molecular weight of a gas if its specific heats at constant pressure and volume are Cp = 2.286 kJ/kg K and Cv = 1.768 kJ/kg K. Cp Cv R R Cp Cv 8.3143 R M 8.3143 Cp Cv M 8.3143 kg M 16.05 Cp Cv kgm 2. A perfect gas at pressure of 750 kPa and 600 K is expanded to 2 bar pressure. Determine final temperature of gas if initial and final volume of gas are 0.2 m3 and 0.5 m3 respectively. P1 750 KPa T1 600 K V1 0.2 m 3 P2 2 Bar 200 KPa V2 0.5 m 3 T2 P1V1 P2 V2 T1 T2 T2 400 K 3. A vessel of 5 m3 capacity contains air at 100 kPa and temperature of 300K. Some air is removed from vessel so as to reduce pressure and temperature to 50 kPa and 7ºC respectively. Find the amount of air removed and volume of this mass of air at initial states of air. Take R = 287 J/kg.K for air.(Answer: 2.696 kg; 2.32 m3) 4. A cylindrical vessel of 1 m diameter and 4 m length has hydrogen gas at pressure of 100 kPa and 27ºC. Determine the amount of heat to be supplied so as to increase gas pressure to 125 kPa. For hydrogen take Cp = 14.307 kJ/kg.K, Cv = 10.183 kJ/kg K. (Answer: Q = 194 KJ) 5. A spherical balloon of 5 m diameter is filled with Hydrogen at 27ºC and atmospheric pressure of 1.013 bar. It is supposed to lift some load if the surrounding air is at 17ºC. Estimate the maximum load that can be lifted. (Answer: m = 74.344 kg) 6. A pump draws air from large air vessel of 20 m 3 at the rate of 0.25 m3 /min. If air is initially at atmospheric pressure and temperature inside receiver remains constant then determine time required to reduce the receiver pressure to 1/4 of its original value. (t = 110.9 minutes) 48 in this case T is constant and V is constant, and mass and pressure changes with time t PV mRT dP dm V RT dt dt dm is the mass change wrt time t dt dm Pν (- sign is used because mass decreases with time dt RT dP Pν V RT dt RT dP V Pν dt dt ( ν ) dP V P V dP dt ν P by integratio n t- V P2 ln ν P1 P1 4 P2 1 P1 4 P2 t 20 1 ln 110.9 minutes 0.25 4 7. A vessel of volume 0.2 m3 contains nitrogen at 101.3 KPa and 15ºC. If 0.2 kg of nitrogen is now pumped into the vessel, calculate the new pressure when the vessel has returned to its initial temperature. For nitrogen: M = 28 and k = 1.399. (187 KPa) 8. A certain perfect gas of mass 0.01 kg occupies a volume of 0.003 m3 at a pressure of 700 KPa and a temperature of 131ºC. The gas is allowed to expand until the pressure is 100 KPa and the final volume is 0.02 m3. Calculate: a) the molecular weight of the gas (16) b) the final temperature (111.5ºC) 9. A perfect gas has a molecular weight of 26 kg/kgmol and a value of k = 1.26. Calculate the heat rejected a) when 1 kg of the gas in contained in a rigid vessel at 300 KPa and 315ºC, and is then cooled until the pressure falls to 150 KPa. (-361 KJ) b) when 1 kg/sec mass flow rate of the gas enter a pipeline at 280ºC and flows steadily to the end of the pipe where the temperature is 20ºC. Neglect changes in kinetic and otential energies.(-403 KW) 10. Calculate the internal energy and enthalpy of 1 kg of air occupying 0.05 m3 2000 KPa. If the internal 120 KJ as the air is compressed to 5000 KPa, calculate the new volume occupied by 1 kg of the air. For air: R = 0.287 KJ/kg-ºK and k = 1.4.( 250.1 KJ/kg; 350.1 KJ/kg; 0.0296 m 3) energy is increased by 11. When a certain perfect gas is heated at constant pressure from 15ºC to 95ºC, the heat required is 1136 KJ/kg. When the same gas is heated at constant volume between the same temperatures the heat required is 808 KJ/kg. Calculate Cp, Cv, k, and M of the gas. (14.2 KJ/kg; 10.1 KJ/kg; 1.405; 4.1 and 2.208) 12. A quantity of a certain perfect gas is compressed from an initial state of 0.085 m3, 100 KPa to a final state of 0.034 m3, 390 KPa. the Cv = 0.724 KJ/kg-ºC and Cp = 1.020 KJ/kg-ºC. The observed temperature rise is 146ºK. Calculate R, the mass present, and U of the gas.(0.296 KJ/kg-K; 0.11 kg; 11.63 KJ) 13. A mass of 0.05 kg of air is heated at constant pressure of 200 KPa until the volume occupied is 0.0658 m3. Calculate the heat supplied, the work and the change in entropy for the process if the initial temperature is 130ºC. (Q = 25.83 KJ; W = 7.38 KJ) 14. A 1 kg of nitrogen is compressed reversibly and isothermally from 101 KPa, 20ºC to 420 KPa. Calculate and the heat flow during the process assuming nitrogen to be a perfect gas. ( Q = W = 124 kJ/KG) the nonflow work 49 15. Air at 102 KPa, 22ºC, initially occupying a cylinder volume of 0.015 m3 is compressed isentropically by a piston to a pressure of 680 KPa. Calculate the final temperature, the final volume, the work done on the mass of air in the cylinder. (234.3 ºC; .00387 m3; 2.76 KJ) 16. 1 kg of air is compressed from 110 KPa, 27 ºC in a polytropic process where n = 1.3 until the final pressure is 660 KPa. Calculate: a) ∫PdV b) - ∫VdP c) S 17. There are 1.36 kg of air at 138 KPa stirred with internal paddles in an insulated rigid container, whose volume is 0.142 m3 until the pressure becomes 689.5 KPa. Determine the work input and PV. ( 196.2 KJ; 78.3 KJ) 18. During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the temperature increases from 4.44ºC to 115.6 ºC. for a nonflow process and for a steady flow process (KE = 0 and PE = 0) Find: a) U in KW b) H in KW c) W in KW d) S in KW/ºK e) Q in KW 19. A certain perfect gas is compressed reversibly from 100 KPa, 17 ºC to a pressure of 500 KPa in a perfectly thermally insulated cylinder, the final temperature being 77 ºC. The work done on the gas during the compression is 45 KJ/kg. Calculate, k , Cv, R and M of the gas.( 1.132; 0.75 KJ/kg-ºK; 0.099 KJ/kg-ºK; 84) 20. 1 kg of air at 102 KPa, 20 ºC is compressed reversibly according to a law PV1.3 = C to a pressure of 550 KPa. Calculate the work done on the air and the heat supplied during the compression. (133.46 KJ/kg; -33.3 KJ/kg) 21. Oxygen (M = 32) is compressed polytropically in a cylinder from 105 KPa, 15ºC to 420 KPa in such a way that one third of the work input is rejected as heat to the cylinder walls. Calculate the final temperature of the oxygen. Assume oxygen to be perfect gas and take Cv = 0.649 KJ/kg-K. (113 ºC) 22. Air at 690 KPa, 260ºC is throttled to 550 KPa before expanding through the nozzle to a pressure of 110 KPa. Assuming that the air flows reversibly in steady flow through the nozzle and that no heat is rejected, calculate the velocity of the air at exit from the nozzle when the inlet velocity is 100 m/sec. ( 636 m/sec) 23. Air at 40ºC enters a mixing chamber at a rate of 225 kg/sec where it mixes with air at 15ºC entering at a rate of 540 kg/sec. Calculate The temperature of the air leaving the chamber, assuming steady flow conditions. Assume that the heat loss is negligible. (22.4ºC) 24. A gaseous mixture composed of 25 kg of N2, 3.6 kg of H2, and 60 kg of CO2 is at 200 KPa, 50C. Find the respective partial pressures and compute the volume of each component at its own partial pressure and 50C. Given: mN2 = 25 kg ; mH2 = 3.6 kg ; mCO2 = 60 kg m = 25 + 3.6 + 60 = 88.6 kg P = 200 KPa ; T = 323 K 25. Assume 2 kg of O2 are mixed with 3 kg of an unknown gas. The resulting mixture occupies a volume of 1.2 m3 at 276 KPa and 65C. Determine a) R and M of the unknown gas constituent b) the volumetric analysis c) the partial pressures Given; mO2 = 2 kg; mx = 3 kg V = 1.2 m3 ; P = 276 KPa; T = 338 K a) m = 5 kg xO2 = 0.40 ; xx = 0.60 PV mRT R = 0.1361 KJ/kg-K R = .40(0.26) + 0.60(Rx) Rx = 0.535 KJ/kg-K Mx = 15.54 kg/kgm x .40 .60 i 0.0511 b) Mi 32 15.54 yO2 = 0.245 ; yx = 0.755 c) PO2 = .245(276) = 67.62 KPa ; 50 Px = 0.755(276) = 208.38 KPa 26. Assume 28 m3 of a gaseous mixture whose gravimetric analysis is 20% CO2, 15% O2, 65% N2, are at 103.4 KPa and 150C. Find a) the volumetric analysis b) the respective partial pressures c) R and M d) the moles of mixture and of each constituent e) the heat transferred with no change in pressure to reduce the temperature to 75C f) the volume the mixture occupies after the cooling 27. Consider 2 kg of CO and 1 kg of CH4 at 32C that are in a 0.6 m3 rigid drum. Find: a) the mixture pressure P in KPa the volumetric analysis c) the partial pressures in KPa d) the heat to cause a temperature rise of 50C. 28. A gaseous mixture has the following volumetric analysisO2, 30%; CO2, 40% N2, 30%. Determine a) the analysis on a mass basis b) the partial pressure of each component if the total pressure is 100 KPa and the temperature is 32C c) the molecular weight and gas constant of the mixture 29. A gaseous mixture has the following analysis on a mass basis, CO2, 30%; SO2, 30%; He, 20% and N2, 20%. For a total pressure and temperature of 101 KPa and 300 K, Determine a) the volumetric or molal analysis b) the component partial pressure c) the mixture gas constant d) the mixture specific heats 30. A cubical tank 1 m on a side, contains a mixture of 1.8 kg of nitrogen and 2.8 kg of an unknown gas. The mixture pressure and temperature are 290 KPa and 340 K. Determine a) Molecular weight and gas constant of the unknown gas b) the volumetric analysis 31. A mixture of ideal gases at 30C and 200 KPa is composed of 0.20 kg CO2, 0.75 kg N2, and 0.05 kg He. Determine the mixture volume.10. An ideal gas with R = 2.077 KJ/kg-K and a constant k= 1.659 undergoes a constant pressure process during which 527.5 KJ are added to 2.27 kg of the gas. The initial temperature is 38C. Find the S in KJ/K. a) 2.687 b) 1.586 c) 8.64 d) 3.861 32.Calculate the volume occupied by 13.6 kg of chlorine at a pressure of 73 mm Hg and a temperature of 21C. molecular weight of chlorine may be taken as 71. (4.7 m 3) 33.A 3.8 m3 tank filled with acetylene at 103.4 KPa is supercharged with 1.95 kg of the gas. What would be the final pressure, assuming no change in temperature (16C) that takes place during the charging period. (155 KPa) 34. A volume of gas having initial entropy of 5317.2 KJ/K is heated at constant temperature of 540C until the entropy is 8165.7 KJ/K. How much heat is added and how much work is done during the process. 35. An ideal gas with R = 2.077 KJ/kg-K and a constant k= 1.659 undergoes a constant pressure process during which 527.5 KJ are added to 2.27 kg of the gas. The initial temperature is 38C. Find the S in KJ/K. a) 2.687 b) 1.586 c) 8.64 d) 3.861 36. Calculate the volume occupied by 13.6 kg of chlorine at a pressure of 73 mm Hg and a temperature of 21C. molecular weight of chlorine may be taken as 71. (4.7 m 3) 37. A volume of gas having initial entropy of 5317.2 KJ/K is heated at constant temperature of 540C until the entropy is 8165.7 KJ/K. How much heat is added and how much work is done during the process. 51 SAMPLE PROBLEMS Problem No. 1 Consider the design of a nozzle in which nitrogen gas flowing in a pipe at 500 KPa, 200C, and a velocity of 10 m/sec, is to be expand to produce a velocity of 300 m/sec. Determine the exit pressure and cross-sectional area of the nozzle if the mass flow rate is 0.15 kg/sec, and the expansion is reversible and adiabatic. For N2: R = 0.2968 KJ/kg-K ; k = 1.399; Cp = 1.04 KJ/kg-K Given P1 500 KPa T1 200 273 473 K m sec m v 2 300 sec kg m 0.15 sec v1 10 Pr ocess : PV k C R 0.2968 KJ kg - K k 1.399 Problem No. 2 A counterflowing heat exchanger is used to cool air at 540 K, 400 KPa to 360 K by using 0.05 kg/sec supply of water at 20C, 200 KPa. The airflow is 0.5 kg/sec in a 10 cm diameter pipe. Find the inlet velocity and the water exit temperature. Given Ta 540 K Pa 400 KPa kg ma o.5 sec kg mw 0.05 sec tw 20C Pw 200 KPa d 0.10 m (pipe diameter) Problem No. 3 Consider that 1 kg of air has a decrease in internal energy of 22 KJ while its centigrade temperature is reduced to one-third of the initial temperature during a reversible nonflow constant pressure process. Determine a) the initial temperature inC b) the final temperature inC c) the heat in KJ d) the work in KJ e) the entropy change in KJ/K For air: R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K; k = 1.4 m 1kg ΔU 22 KJ t t2 1 3 t 2 t1 Q ΔU 22 1(0.7175) 1 t1 0.7175 3 3 3(22) t1 46C 2(0.7175) T1 319 K t 2 15.33C T2 288.33 K Q 22KJ ΔS mC v ln T2 KJ -0.0726 T1 K 52 Problem No. 4 Nitrogen gas enters a turbine operating at steady state through a 5 cm duct with a velocity of 60 m/sec, a pressure of 345 KPa and a temperature of 550 K. At the exit, the velocity is 0.6 m/sec, the pressure is 138 KPa and the temperature is 389 K. Heat transfer from the surface is 37.2 KJ/kg of nitrogen flowing. Neglecting PE effects and using the ideal gas model, determine the power developed by the turbine in KW. (For N2, M = 28 kg/kg mol ; k = 1.399) Problem No. 5 Air (R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K; k =1.4) is contained in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. Initially the cylinder contains 500 liters of air at 150 KPa and 20C. The air is then compressed in a polytropic process until the final pressure is 600 KPa and the temperature is 120C. Calculate a. The polytropic exponent n b. The final volume V 2 in li c. The work W d. The heat transfer Q Problem No. 6 Consider 2 kg of CO and 1 kg of CH4 at 32C that are in a 0.6 m3 rigid drum. Find: a. the mixture pressure P in KPa b. the volumetric analysis c. the partial pressures in KPa d. the heat to cause a temperature rise of 50C. Given : m CO 2 kg m CH4 1 kg T 32 273 305 K V 0.6 m3 53 Problem No. 7 A gaseous mixture has the following volumetric analysisO2, 30%; CO2, 40% N2, 30%. Determine a. the analysis on a mass basis b. the partial pressure of each component if the total pressure is 100 KPa and the temperature is 32C c. the molecular weight and gas constant of the mixture Given Volumetric Analysis y O2 30% y CO2 40% y N2 30% Problem No. 8 A gaseous mixture has the following analysis on a mass basis, CO2, 30%; SO2, 30%; He, 20% and N2, 20%. For a total pressure and temperature of 101 KPa and 300 K, Determine a. the volumetric or molal analysis b. the component partial pressure c. the mixture gas constant d. the mixture specific heats Given Gravimetri c Analysis y CO2 30% ySO2 30% yHe 20% yN2 20% P 101 KPa T 300 K Problem No. 9 A cubical tank 1 m on a side, contains a mixture of 1.8 kg of nitrogen and 2.8 kg of an unknown gas. The mixture pressure and temperature are 290 KPa and 340 K. Determine a. Molecular weight and gas constant of the unknown gas b. the volumetric analysis Problem No. 10 A mixture of ideal gases at 30C and 200 KPa is composed of 0.20 kg CO2, 0.75 kg N2, and 0.05 kg He. Determine the mixture volume. Given T 30 273 303 K m CO2 20 kg m N2 0.75 kg m He 0.05 kg Problem No. 11 A gaseous mixture composed of 25 kg of N2, 3.6 kg of H2, and 60 kg of CO2 is at 200 KPa, 50C. Find the respective partial pressures and compute the volume of each component at its own partial pressure and 50C. Given: mN2 = 25 kg ; mH2 = 3.6 kg ; mCO2 = 60 kg m = 25 + 3.6 + 60 = 88.6 kg xN2 = 0.282 ; xH2 = 0.041 ; xCO2 = 0.678 P = 200 KPa ; T = 323 K xi Mi Pi yi xi yi P Mi xi 0.282 .041 .678 0.046 Mi 28 2 44 y N 2 0.219 y H 2 0.446 y CO 2 0.335 Pi Vi mi R i Ti 25(0.297(323) 54.76 m3 43.8 3.6(4.16)(323) VH 2 54.23 m3 89.2 60(0.189)(323) VCO 2 54.67 m3 67 VN 2 54 PN2 = .219(200) = 43.8 KPa PH2 = .446(200) = 89.2 KPa PCO2 = 0.335(200) = 67 KPa Problem 12 Assume 2 kg of O2 are mixed with 3 kg of an unknown gas. The resulting mixture occupies a volume of 1.2 m3 at 276 KPa and 65C. Determine a) R and M of the unknown gas constituent b) the volumetric analysis c) the partial pressures Given; mO2 = 2 kg; mx = 3 kg V = 1.2 m3 ; P = 276 KPa; T = 338 K a) m = 5 kg xO2 = 0.40 ; xx = 0.60 PV mRT R = 0.1361 KJ/kg-K R = .40(0.26) + 0.60(Rx) Rx = 0.535 KJ/kg-K Mx = 15.54 kg/kgm x .40 .60 i 0.0511 b) M i 32 15.54 yO2 = 0.245 ; yx = 0.755 c) PO2 = .245(276) = 67.62 KPa ; Px = 0.755(276) = 208.38 KPa Problem 13 A piston cylinder contains air at 600 KPa, 290 K and a volume of 0.01 m 3. A constant pressure process gives 54 KJ of work out. Determine the heat transfer of the process. Given: W P(V2 V1 ) mR (T2 T1 ) P1 = P2 = 600 KPa P T1 = 290 K 1V1 mRT1 3 PV V1 = 0.01 m m 1 1 0.07 kg RT1 W = 54 KJ (work out) W T1 478.4 K mR Q mC p (T2 - T1 ) T2 Rk KJ 1.0045 k -1 kg - K Q 13.24 KJ Cp Problem 14 A piston cylinder device, whose piston is resting on a set stops, initially contains 3 kg of air at 200 KPa and 27C. The mass of the piston is such that a pressure of 400 KPa is required to move it. Heat is now transferred to the air until its volume doubles. Determine the work done by the air and the total heat transferred to the air during this process. Also show the process on a P-V diagram. Given: m = 3 kg P P1 = 200 KPa T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K 3 P = 400 KPa V2 = 2V1 2 1 Q V 55 At V C V1 V2 P2 T2 P1 T1 T2 600 K Q v 3(0.7175)(600 - 300) 645.75 KJ At P C V3 T3 V2 T2 V3 2V1 2.6 m 3 T 2.6 3 1.3 600 T3 1200 K Q p mC p (T3 - T2 ) 3(1.0045)(1200 - 600) Q p 1808.1 KJ W P(V3 - V2 ) 400(2.6 - 1.3) W 520 KJ Q T 645.75 1808.1 2453.85 KJ Problem No. 15 During some actual expansion and compression processes in piston cylinder devices, the gases have been observed to satisfy the relationship PVn = C, where n and C are constants. Calculate the work done when a gas expands from a state of 150 KPa and 0.03 m3 to a final volume of 0.2 m3 for the case of n = 1.3. Also show the process on the PV diagram. Given: P1 = 150 KPa ; V1= 0.03 m3 V2 = 0.2 m3 PV n C P1V1n P2 V2 n C For a Closed system W P dV P C Vn By integratio n 2 W PdV 1 P2 V2 P1V1 1 n n V 0.03 P1 1 150 V V2 0.2 2 P2 12.74 KPa P2 P1V1n 1.3 n P2 V2 P1V1 12.74(0.2) 150(0.03) 1 n 1 1.3 W 6.533 KJ 2 W PdV 1 Problem No. 16 1. A. How many kilograms of nitrogen must be mixed with 3.6 kg of CO2 in order to produce a gaseous mixture that is 50% by volume of each constituent? B. For the resulting mixture, determine M and R, and the partial pressure of the N2 if that of the CO2 is 138 KPa. mCO2 = 3.6 kg ; yCO2 = 0.50 ; yN2 = 0.50 56 y CO 2 M CO y N2M N 2 2 ; x ;M yi M i N2 M M M 0.5(44) 0.50(28) 22 14 36M 0.5(44) 0.50(28) 22 14 36 x CO 2 22 14 0.61; x N2 0.39 36 36 m CO 2 x CO 2 m CO 2 m N 2 x CO 2 0.61 3.6 3 .6 m N 2 m N2 3.6 2.196 2.3 kg 0.61 M 36 8.3143 0.231 KJ/kg - K 36 Pi yi P 138 y CO 2 0.50 P P 276 KPa R PN2 0.50(276) 138 KPa Problem No. 17 Assume 2 kg of O2 are mixed with 3 kg of an unknown gas. The resulting mixture occupies a volume of 1.2 m3 at 276 KPa and 65C. Determine a) R and M of the unknown gas constituent b) the volumetric analysis c) the partial pressures Given; mO2 = 2 kg; mx = 3 kg V = 1.2 m3 ; P = 276 KPa; T = 338 K a) m = 5 kg xO2 = 0.40 ; xx = 0.60 PV mRT R = 0.1361 KJ/kg-K R = .40(0.26) + 0.60(Rx) Rx = 0.535 KJ/kg-K Mx = 15.54 kg/kgm b) xi .40 .60 0.0511 M i 32 15.54 yO2 = 0.245 ; yx = 0.755 c) PO2 = .245(276) = 67.62 KPa ; Px = 0.755(276) = 208.38 KPa Problem No. 18 One mole of a gaseous mixture has the following gravimetric analysis: O2 = 16%, CO2 = 44%, N2 = 40%. Find : a) the molecular weight of the mixture b) the mass of each constituent, c) the moles of each constituent in the mixture, d) R and e) Partial pressure for P = 207 KPa. Given: xO2 = 0.16 ; xCO2 = .44 ; xN2 = 0.40 57 xi Mi yi xi Mi xi 0.16 .44 .40 0.0293 Mi 32 44 28 y O 2 0.171 y CO 2 0.341 y N 2 0.488 M = .171(32) + .341(44) + .488(28) = 34.14 kg/kgm n ni ni n nO2 = .171 moles; nCO2 = .341; nN2 = .488 yi M m n mO2 = .171(32) = 5.472 kg mCO2 =.341(44) = 15.004 kg mN2 = .488(28) = 13.664 kg m = 5.472 + 15.004 + 13.664 = 34.14 kg 8.3143 M = 0.244 KJ/kg-K Pi yi P R PO2= .171(207) = 35.4 KPa PCO2 = .341(207) = 70.6 KPa PN2 = .488(207) = 101.016 KPa Problem No. 19 A gaseous mixture composed of 25 kg of N2, 3.6 kg of H2, and 60 kg of CO2 is at 200 KPa, 50C. Find the respective partial pressures and compute the volume of each component at its own partial pressure and 50C. Given: mN2 = 25 kg ; mH2 = 3.6 kg ; mCO2 = 60 kg m = 25 + 3.6 + 60 = 88.6 kg xN2 = 0.282 ; xH2 = 0.041 ; xCO2 = 0.678 P = 200 KPa ; T = 323 K xi yi Mi xi Mi xi 0.282 .041 .678 0.046 Mi 28 2 44 y N 2 0.219 y H 2 0.446 y CO 2 0.335 yi Pi P PN2 = .219(200) = 43.8 KPa PH2 = .446(200) = 89.2 KPa PCO2 = 0.335(200) = 67 KPa 58 Pi Vi m i R i Ti 25(0.297 (323) 54.76 m 3 43.8 3.6(4.16)(323) VH 2 54.23 m 3 89.2 60(0.189 )(323) VCO 2 54.67 m 3 67 VN 2 Problem No. 20 A 0.23 m3 drum contains a gaseous mixture of CO2 and CH4 each 50% by mass at P = 689 KPa, 38C; 1 kg of O2 are added to the drum with the mixture temperature remaining at 38C. For the final mixture, find; a) the gravimetric analysis b) the volumetric analysis c) the Cp (For CO2: k = 1.288; CH4: k = 1.321; O2: k = 1.395) d) the total pressure P Problem No. 21 Assume 28 m3 of a gaseous mixture whose gravimetric analysis is 20% CO2, 15% O2, 65% N2, are at 103.4 KPa and 150C. Find a) the volumetric analysis b) the respective partial pressures c) R and M d) the moles of mixture and of each constituent e) the heat transferred with no change in pressure to reduce the temperature to 75C f) the volume the mixture occupies after the cooling Problem 22 Consider 2 kg of CO and 1 kg of CH4 at 32C that are in a 0.6 m3 rigid drum. Find: a) the mixture pressure P in KPa b) the volumetric analysis c) the partial pressures in KPa d) the heat to cause a temperature rise of 50C. Problem 23 A gaseous mixture has the following volumetric analysisO2, 30%; CO2, 40% N2, 30%. Determine a) the analysis on a mass basis b) the partial pressure of each component if the total pressure is 100 KPa and the temperature is 32C c) the molecular weight and gas constant of the mixture Problem 24 A gaseous mixture has the following analysis on a mass basis, CO2, 30%; SO2, 30%; He, 20% and N2, 20%. For a total pressure and temperature of 101 KPa and 300 K, Determine a) the volumetric or molal analysis b) the component partial pressure c) the mixture gas constant d) the mixture specific heats Problem 25 A cubical tank 1 m on a side, contains a mixture of 1.8 kg of nitrogen and 2.8 kg of an unknown gas. The mixture pressure and temperature are 290 KPa and 340 K. Determine a) Molecular weight and gas constant of the unknown gas b) the volumetric analysis Problem 26 A mixture of ideal gases at 30C and 200 KPa is composed of 0.20 kg CO2, 0.75 kg N2, and 0.05 kg He. Determine the mixture volume. 59 FUELS AND COMBUSTION Fuel - a substance composed of chemical elements, which in rapid chemical union with oxygen produced combustion. Combustion - is that rapid chemical union with oxygen of an element, whose exothermic heat of reaction is sufficiently great and whose rate of reaction is sufficiently fast, whereby useful quantities of heat are liberated at elevated temperatures. It is the burning or oxidation of the combustible elements. TYPES OF FUEL 1) Solid Fuels Example: a. coal b. charcoal c. coke d. woods 2) Liquid Fuels (obtained by the distillation of petroleum) Example: a. Gasoline b. kerosene c. diesoline d. Fuel oil e. alcohol (these are not true hydrocarbons, since it contains oxygen in the molecule) 3) Gaseous Fuels (a mixture of various constituents hydrocarbons, its combustion products do not have sulfur components) Example: a. Natural Gas (example: methane, ethane, propane) b. Coke oven gas -obtained as a byproduct of making coke c. Blast furnace gas - a byproduct of melting iron ore d. LPG e. Producer Gas - fuel used for gas engines 4) Nuclear Fuels Example: a. Uranium b. Plutonium COMBUSTIBLE ELEMENTS 1. Carbon (C) 2. Hydrogen (H2) 3. Sulfur (S) TYPES OF HYDROCARBONS 1) Paraffin - all ends in "ane" Formula: CnH2n+2 Structure: Chain (saturated) Example: GAS a. Methane(CH4) b. Ethane (C2H6) LPG a. Propane (C3H8) b. Butane (C4H10) c. Pentane ( C5H12) GASOLINE a. n-Heptane (C7H16) b. Triptane (C7H16) c. Iso- octane (C8H18) FUEL OIL a. Decane (C10H22) b. Dodecane (C12H26) c. Hexadecane (C16H34) d. Octadecane (C18H38) 60 2) Olefins - ends in "ylene" or "ene" Formula: CnH2n Structure: Chain (unsaturated) Example: a. Propene (C3H6) b. Butene (C4H8) c. Hexene ( C6H12) d. Octene ( C8H16) 3) DIOLEFIN - ends in "diene" Formula: CnH2n-2 Structure: Chain (unsaturated) Example: a. Butadiene (C4H6) b. Hexadiene (C6H10) 4) NAPHTHENE - named by adding the prefix "cyclo" Formula: CnH2n Structure: Ring (saturated) Example: a. Cyclopentane (C5H10) b. Cyclohexane (C6H12) 5) AROMATICS - this hydrocarbon includes the; A. Benzene Series (CnH2n-6) B. Naphthalene Series (CnH2n-12) Structure: Ring (unsaturated) Example: a. Benzene (C6H6) b. Toluene (C7H8) c. Xylene (C8H10) 6) ALCOHOLS - These are not true hydrocarbon, but sometimes used as fuel in an internal combustion engine. The characteristic feature is that one of the hydrogen atom is replaced by an OH radical. Example: a. Methanol (CH4O or CH3OH) b. Ethanol (C2H6O or C2H5OH) Saturated Hydrocarbon - all the carbon atoms are joined by a single bond. Unsaturated Hydrocarbon - it has two or more carbon atoms joined by a double or triple bond. Isomers - two hydrocarbons with the same number of carbon and hydrogen atoms, but at different structure. 61 STRUCTURE OF CnHm Chain Structure (saturated) Chain Structure (unsaturated) c. Ring Structure (saturated) 62 THE COMBUSTION CHEMISTRY A. Oxidation of Carbon C + O2 CO2 Mole Basis: 1 + 11 Mass Basis: 1(12) + 1(32) 1(12 + 32) 12 + 32 44 3 + 8 11 B. Oxidation of Hydrogen H2 + ½O2 H2O Mole Basis: 1 + ½ 1 Mass Basis: 1(2) + ½(32) 1(2 + 16) 2 + 16 18 1 + 8 9 C. Oxidation of Sulfur S + O2 SO2 Mole Basis: 1 + 11 Mass Basis: 1(32) + 1(32) 1(32+32) 32 + 32 64 1 + 12 Complete Combustion: Occurs when all the combustible elements has been fully oxidized. Example: C + O2 CO2 Incomplete Combustion: Occurs when some of the combustible elements have not been fully oxidized and it may result from; a. Insufficient oxygen b. Poor mixing of fuel and oxygen c. the temperature is too low to support combustion. Result: Soot or black smoke that sometimes pours out from chimney or smokestack. Example: C + ½O2 CO Composition of Air a) Volumetric or Molal analysis O2 = 21% N2 = 79% b) Gravimetric Analysis O2 = 23.3% N2 = 76.7% moles of N2 79 3.76 mole of O2 21 63 COMBUSTION WITH AIR A) Combustion of Carbon with air C + O2 + (3.76)N2 CO2 + (3.76)N2 Mole Basis 1 + 1 + 3.76 1 + 3.76 Mass Basis 1(12) + 1(32) + (3.76)(28) 1(44) + (3.76)(28) 12 + 32 + 3.76(28) 44 + 3.76(28) 3 + 8 + 3.76(7) 11 + 3.76(7) B) Combustion of Hydrogen with Air H2 + ½O2 +½3.76)N2 H2O + ½(3.76)N2 Mole Basis: 1 + ½ + ½(3.76) 1 + ½(3.76) Mass Basis: 1(2) + ½(32) + ½(3.76)(28) 1(18) + ½(3.76)(28) 2 + 16 + 3.76(14) 18 + 3.76(14) C) Combustion of Sulfur with air S + O2 + 3.76N2 SO2 + 3.76N2 Mole Basis: 1 + 1 + 3.76 1 + 3.76 Mass Basis: 1(32) + 1(32) + (3.76)(28) 1(64) + (3.76)(28) 8 + 8 + (3.76)(7) 16 + 3.76(7) THEORETICAL AIR It is the minimum amount of air required to oxidized the reactants. With theoretical air no O2 is found in the products. EXCESS AIR It is an amount of air in excess of the theoretical air required to influence complete combustion. With excess air, O2 is present in the products. Excess air is usually expressed as a percentage of the theoretical air. But in actual combustion, although there is an amount of excess air, the presence of CO and other hydrocarbon in the products cannot be avoided. Example: 25% excess air is the same as 125% theoretical air. 64 COMBUSTION OF HYDROCARBON FUEL (CnHm) Combustion of CnHm with 100% theoretical air CnHm + aO2+ a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + a(3.76)N2 kg of air A a (32) a (3.76)(28) F 12 n m kg of CnHm t In theoret ical combustion , for the combustion of CnHm, a n 0.25m bn c 0.5m Combustion with excess air CnHm + (1+e)aO2 + (1+e)a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O +dO2 +(1+e)a(3.76)N2 A A (1 e) F a F t a (32) a (3.76)(28) kg of air A (1 e) F 12 n m kg of CnHm a d e(n 0.25m) where: e - excess air in decimal (A/F)t - theoretical air-fuel ratio (A/F)a - actual air-fuel ratio H 100 4.76 11.28 CO2 C e H 4.76 14.28 C CO2 H 11.44(1 e) 1 3 C kg o air A H F kg of Fuel a 1 C where: H and C are in % (by mass) CO2 is in % by volume from the exhaust gas analysis Actual or Real world Combustion Process Combustion with CO in the products due to incomplete combustion (100% theoretical air) CnHm aO2 a (3.76 ) N 2 bCO 2 cH2O dCO a (3.76 ) N 2 Combustion with CO in the products due to incomplete combustion (with excess air) CnHm (1 e)aO2 (1 e)a (3.76 ) N 2 bCO 2 cH 2O dCO fO 2 (1 e)a (3.76 ) N 2 65 Typical Real-World Engine Combustion Process: Fuel (CnHm) Air (O 2 and N 2 ) CO2 H 2O O 2 N 2 CH(VOC's) CO NOx CH(VOC's) - Volatile Organic Compounds CO - Carbon Monoxide NOx - Nitrogen Oxides Note: Values of a, b, c, and d in terms of n and m in theoretical combustion, cannot be applied in actual in an actual combustion process. EQUIVALENCE RATIO ER (F A) actual (F A)Stoichiometric Stoichiometric (or chemically correct) mixture of air and fuel, is one that contains just sufficient oxygen for complete combustion of the fuel A “Weak Mixture”, is one which has an excess of air A “Rich Mixture”, is one which has a deficiency of air Percentage Excess Air A F F A A F Actual T heoretical T heoretical Common Combustion Gases Gases Molecular Weight C 12 H 1 H2 2 O 16 O2 32 N 14 N2 28 S 32 COMBUSTION OF SOLID FUELS Components of Solid Fuels: C, H2, O2, N2, S, and Moisture A) Combustion with 100% theoretical air aC + bH2 + cO2 + dN2 + eS + fH2O + gO2 + g(3.76)N2 hCO2 + iH2O + jSO2 + kN2 B) Combustion with excess air x Where: x - excess air in decimal aC + bH2 + cO2 + dN2 + eS +fH2O + (1+x)gO2 + (1+x)g(3.76)N2 hCO2 + iH2O + jSO2 + lO2 + mN2 The theoretical and actual air-fuel ratio of solid fuels can be computed based on their balance combustion equation above. 32g 3.76(28)g A F t 12a 2b 32c 28d 32e 18f A A (1 x ) F a F t 66 DEW POINT TEMPERATURE The Dew Point Temperature (tdp) is the saturation temperature corresponding the partial pressure of the water vapor in the mixture (products of combustion). ULTIMATE ANALYSIS Ultimate Analysis gives the amount of C, H2, O2, N2, S and moisture in percentages by mass, sometimes the percentage amount of Ash is given. 100% = %C + %H2 + %O2 + %N2 + %S + %H2O + %Ash O kg of air A 11 .44 C 34 .32 H 2 4.29S 8 kg of Fuel F t where: C, H, O and S are in decimals obtained from the Ultimate Analysis PROXIMATE ANALYSIS Proximate Analysis gives the percentage amount of Fixed Carbon, Volatiles, Ash and Moisture. 100% = % Fixed Carbon + % Volatiles + % Ash + % Moisture ORSAT ANALYSIS Orsat Analysis gives the volumetric or molal analysis of the products of combustion or exhaust gases on a Dry Basis. ORSAT ANALYSIS Orsat Analysis gives the volumetric or molal analysis of the products of combustion or exhaust gases on a Dry Basis. 100% = % CO2 + % CO + % O2 + % SO2 + % N2 + % CH + % NO + NOx H 100 4.76 11.28 CO2 C e H 4.76 14.28 C CO2 A F a H 11.44(1 e) 1 3 C kg o air kg of Fuel H 1 C where: H and C are in % (by mass) CO2 is in % by volume from the exhaust gas analysis MASS FLOW RATE OF FLUE GAS a) Without considering Ash loss: A m g m F F 1 b) Considering Ash loss A m g m F F 1- Ash loss where ash loss in decimal 67 Properties of Fuels and Lubricants a) Viscosity - a measure of the resistance to flow that a lubricant offers when it is subjected to shear stress. b) Absolute Viscosity - viscosity which is determined by direct measurement of shear resistance. c) Kinematics Viscosity - the ratio of the absolute viscosity to the density d) Viscosity Index - the rate at which viscosity changes with temperature. e) Flash Point - the temperature at which the vapor above a volatile liquid forms a combustible mixture with air. f) Fire Point - The temperature at which oil gives off vapor that burns continuously when ignited. g) Pour Point - the temperature at which oil will no longer pour freely. h) Dropping Point - the temperature at which grease melts. i) Condradson Number(carbon residue) - the percentage amount by mass of the carbonaceous residue remaining after destructive distillation. j) Octane Number - a number that provides a measure of the ability of a fuel to resist knocking when it is burnt in a gasoline engine. It is the percentage by volume of iso-octane in a blend with normal heptane that matches the knocking behavior of the fuel. k) Cetane Number - a number that provides a measure of the ignition characteristics of a diesel fuel when it is burnt in a standard diesel engine. It is the percentage of cetane in the standard fuel. PROPERTIES OF COMMON GASES GAS M R k Cp Cv k O2 32 0.260 1.395 0.918 0.658 1.395 CO2 44 0.189 1.288 0.845 0.656 1.288 N2 28 0.297 1.399 1.041 0.744 1.399 C2H2 26 0.320 1.232 1.698 1.378 1.232 AIR 28.97 0.287 1.4 1.004 0.717 1.4 ARGON 39.95 0.208 1.666 0.521 0.312 1.666 CO 28 0.297 1.399 1.041 0.744 1.399 Cl2 70.914 0.117 1.324 0.479 0.362 1.324 C2H6 30 0.277 1.187 1.759 1.482 1.187 C2H4 28 0.297 1.24 1.534 1.237 1.24 He 4 2.079 1.666 5.200 3.121 1.666 H2 2 4.157 1.4 14.550 10.393 1.4 N2H4 32 0.260 1.195 1.592 1.332 1.195 CH4 16 0.520 1.321 2.138 1.619 1.321 Ne 20.183 0.412 1.666 1.030 0.619 1.666 C3H8 44 0.189 1.127 1.677 1.488 1.127 SO2 64 0.130 1.263 0.624 0.494 1.263 H2O 18 0.462 1.329 1.866 1.404 1.329 Xe 131.3 0.063 1.666 0.158 0.095 1.666 Problem No. 1 An automotive internal combustion engine burns liquid Octane (C3 H8 ) at the rate of 0.005 kg/sec, and uses 20% excess air. The air and fuel enters the engine at 25C and the combustion products leaves the engine at 900 K. It may be assumed that 90% of the carbon in the fuel burns to form CO2 and the remaining 10% burns to form CO. Determine a. The actual air – fuel ratio b. The kg/s of actual air c. The M and R of the products Combustion with 100% theoretical air Combustion Equation w ith 20% excess air and 10% of C burns to CO C3H8 5.82O 2 21.88N 2 2.7CO2 4H 2O 0.97O 2 0.3CO 21.88N 2 68 Problem No. 2 A hydrocarbon fuel represented by C12H26 is used as fuel in an IC engine and requires 25 % excess air for complete combustion. Determine a. The combustion equation b. The theoretical air – fuel ratio c. The actual air – fuel ratio d. The volumetric and gravimetric analysis of the products e. The molecular weight M and gas constant R of the products f. The kg of CO2 formed per kg of fuel g. % C and %H in the fuel Solution Fuel: C12H26 Combustion with 100% theoretical air C12H 26 aO 2 a (3.76) N 2 bCO2 cH 2 O a(3.76)N 2 Carbon balance 12 b Hydrogen balance 26 2c c 13 Oxygen balance 2a 2b c a b c 18.5 2 Combustion with excess air e = 0.25 C12 H 26 (1.25)aO 2 (1.25)a (3.76) N 2 bCO2 cH 2 O dO 2 (1.25)a(3.76)N 2 By oxygen balance 1.25(2)a 2b c 2d 1.25(2)a - 2b - c d 4.625 2 C12 H 26 23.125O 2 86.95N 2 12CO2 13H 2 O 4.625O2 86.95N 2 Gases Mi ni yi mi xi yiMi yi(%) xi(%) CO2 44 12 0.103 528 0.158 4.529 10.3 15.8 H2O 18 13 0.112 234 0.070 2.007 11.2 7.0 O2 32 4.625 0.040 148 0.044 1.270 4.0 4.4 N2 total 28 86.95 0.746 2434.6 0.728 20.884 74.6 72.8 116.575 1.00 3344.6 1.00 28.691 100.0 100.0 The combustion equation C12H 26 23 .125 O 2 86 .95 N 2 12CO 2 13H 2 O 4.625O 2 86 .95 N 2 The theoretical A/F ratio a (32 ) a (3.76 )(28) kg of air A 14 .94 12 (12 ) 26 kg of C12H 26 F t The actual A/F ratio kg of air A A (1 e) 14 .94 (1.25) 18 .674 kg of C12H 26 F a F t 69 The Volumetric and gravimetric Analysis Gases yi(%) xi(%) CO2 10.3 15.8 H2O 11.2 7.0 O2 4.0 4.4 N2 total 74.6 72.8 100.0 100.0 Molecular weight and Gas constant kg M ΣyiMi 28.691 kg m R ΣxiRi M 8.3143 KJ R 0.2898 28.691 kg - K R Kg of CO2 per kg of fuel kg of CO2 528 3.106 kg of C12H 26 12(12) 26 % C and % H in the fuel 12n x 100% 12n m 12(12) %C x 100 84.7% 12(12) 26 m %H x 100% 12n m 26 %H x 100 15.3% 12(12) 26 %C Problem No. 3 A fuel represented by C7H16 is oxidized with 20% excess air and the mass of fuel required for combustion is 50 kg/hr. Determine the mass flow rate of the products in kg/hr. A 137.28(1.20)(7 4) kg of air 20.592 F (84 4) kg fuel m p m F (20.592) m F m p 50(21.592) 1079.6 kg/hr The mass analysis of hydrocarbon fuel A is 88.5% Carbon and 11.5% Hydrogen. Another hydrocarbon fuel B requires 6% more air than fuel A for complete combustion. Calculate the mass analysis of Fuel B. a) C = 84.8%; H = 15.2% c) C = 74.8%; H = 25.2% b) C = 15.2% ; H = 84.8% d) C = 25.2% ; H = 74.8% Solution: Fuel A: C = 0.885 ; H = 0.115 Fuel B: C = ; H = (A/F)B = 1.06(A/F)A (A/F)A = 11.44(0.885) + 34.32(0.115) = 14.0712 kg/kg (A/F)B = 1.06(14.0712)= 14.9155 kg/kg For fuel B: H + C = 1 H = (1 – C) 14.9155 = 11.44C + 34.32(1-C) 34.32 14.9155 C 0.8481 34.32 11.44 H 0.1519 70 C = 84.8% H = 15.2% The analysis of the natural gas showed the following percentages by volume: C2H6 = 9%; CH4 = 90%; CO2 = 0.2 % and N2 = 0.8 %. Find the volume of air required per cu,m. of gas if the gas and air are at temperature of 16C and a pressure of 101.6 KPa. a) 10.07 b) 14.9 c) 17.1 d) 19.08 solution: basis 100 moles of fuel) 9C2H6 + 90CH4 + 0.2CO2 + 0.8N2 + aO2 + a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + dN2 By Carbon balance: 2(9) + 90 + 0.20 = b b = 108.20 By Hydrogen Balance: 6(9) + 4(90) = 2c c = 207 By O2 balance: 0.2 + a = 108.20 + (207/2) a = 211.5 na = a(1 + 3.76) nF = 100 na/nF = 10.07 A diesel engine uses a hydrocarbon fuel represented by C12H26 and is burned with 30% excess air. The air and fuel is supplied at 1 atm and 25C. Determine a. the actual air-fuel Ratio b. the m3 of CO2 formed per kg of fuel if the product temp. is 400C and a pressure of 1 atm. c. The M and R of the Products d. The M and R of the dry flue gas Combustion with 100% theoretical air (basis 1 mole of fuel) C12H26 + aO2 + a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + a(3.76)N2 a = n + 0.25m = 18.5 b = n = 12 c = 0.5m = 13 Combustion with 30% excess air C12H26 + 1.30aO2 + 1.30a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + dO2 + 1.30a(3.76)N2 d = ea = 5.55 137 .28 (1 e)(n 0.25 m) kg of air A 19 .42 a F 12 n m kg of fuel VCO 2 n RT 12(8.3143)( 400 273) 662.7 m3 of CO2 P 101.325 m3 of CO2 662.7 3.9 kg of Fuel 12(12) 26 nP = b + c + d + 1.3(18.5)(3.76) = 120.978 1 1 12(44) 13(18) 5.55(32) 90.428(28) M niM n 120.978 M 28.7 R 0.2897 n d n p c 107.978 1 1 12(44) 5.55(32) 90.428(28) niM n 107.978 M 29.983 M R 0.2773 71 A fuel consisting 80% C12H26 and 20% C14H30 is burned with 30% excess air. The flue gas is at atmospheric pressure. Find the minimum exhaust temperature to avoid condensation. (Answer: 50.5C; 47.45C) Assuming that the given fuel analysis is percentages by mass, converting it to molal analysis; Solution: Assuming that the given fuel analysis is percentages by mass, converting it to molal analysis; .8 170 C12H 26 .823 .8 0 . 2 170 198 .2 198 C14H 30 0.177 .8 0 . 2 170 198 Combustion with 100% theoretical air (basis; 100 moles of fuel) 82.3C12H26 + 17.7C14H30 + aO2 + a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + a(3.76)N2 b = 1235.4 ; c = 1335.4; a = 1903.1 Combustion with 30% excess air 82.3C12H26 + 17.7C14H30 + (1.3)aO2 + (1.3)a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + dO2 + (1.30)a(3.76)N2 By O2 balance d = 570.93 nP = b + c + d + 1.30a(3.76) = 12,444.0828 yH2O = c/nP = 0.107 PH2O = 0.107(101.325) = 10.9 KPa From steam table tsat at 10.9 KPa = 47.45C Assuming that the given analysis is molal analysis 80C12H26 + 20C14H30 + aO2 + a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + a(3.76)N2 b = 1240; c = 1340; a = 1910 with excess air: 80C12H26 + 20C14H30 + (1.3)aO2 + (1.3)a(3.76)N2 bCO2 + cH2O + dO2 + (1.30)a(3.76)N2 d = 573 nP = 12489.08 yH2O = c/nP = .1073 PH2O = 10.9 KPa ; tsat = 47.45C A fuel has the following volumetric analysis: CH4 = 68% C2H6 = 32%. Assume complete combustion with 15% excess air at 101.325 KPa, 21C wet bulb and 27C dry bulb. What is the partial pressure of the water vapor in KPa? 72 Problem Natural Gas A natural gas fuel showed the following percentages by volume: C2H6 = 9%; CH4 = 90%; CO2 = 0.2 % and N2 = 0.8 %. If this gas is used as fuel and is burned with 20% excess air for complete combustion, Determine The Combustion Equation The theoretical and actual air fuel ratio The molecular weight and gas constant of the products The volume of air required per m3 of natural gas if the gas and air are at temperature of 16C and a pressure of 101.6 KPa. Combustion with 100% theoretic al air 9C 2 H 6 90CH4 0.2CO2 0.8N 2 aO 2 a(3.76)N 2 bCO2 cH 2 O dN 2 Carbon Balance 2(9) 90 0.2 b b 108.2 Hydrogen Balance 9(6) 90(4) 2c c 207 Oxygen Balance 2(0.2) 2a 2b c 2(108.2) 207 - 2(0.2) 2 a 211.5 a Nitrogen Balance 2(0.8) 2(a)(3.76) 2d 2(0.8) 2(211.5)(3.76) 2 d 796.04 d Combustion with excess air 9C2 H 6 90CH4 0.2CO2 0.8N2 (1.20)aO2 (1.20)a(3.76)N2 bCO2 cH 2O eO2 fN 2 By oxygen balance 2(0.2) 2(1.20)(211.5) 2(108.2) 207 2e 2(0.2) 2(1.20)(211.5) 2(108.2) 207 2 e 42.3 e By Nitrogen balance 2(0.8) 2(1.20)(211.5)(3.76) 2f 2(0.8) 2(1.20)(211.5)(3.76) f 2 f 955.088 Combustion Equation 9C2 H 6 90CH4 0.2CO2 0.8N2 253.8O2 954.288N2 108.2CO2 207H 2O 42.3O2 955.088N2 Mass of Fuel 9(30) 90(16) 0.2(44) 0.8(28) 1741.2 kg Mass of air 253.8(32) 954.288(28) 34841.664 kg 34841.664 kg of air A 20.01 F 1741.2 kg of fuel actual A A (1 e) F actual F theoretical 20.01 kg of air A 16.68 kg of fuel F theoretical 1.20 73 Moles of Products 108.2 207 42.3 955.088 1312.588 yiMi M M 27.9 R 108.2(44) 207(18) 42.3(32) 955.088(28) 1312.588 kg kg mol 8.3143 KJ 0.298 27.9 kg - K PVa n a RT Va (253.8 954.288)(8.3143)(16 273) 28571.2 m 3 101.6 PVF n F RT (9 90 .2 0.8)(8.143)(16 273) 2365 m 3 101.6 Va 28571.2 12.08 VF 2365 VF Sample Problem (Known Orsat analysis and Fuel type) A fuel oil C12H26 is used in an internal combustion engine and the Orsat analysis are as follows: CO 2 = 12.8% ; O2 = 3.5%; CO = 0.2% and N2 = 83.5%. Determine the actual air-fuel ratio and the percent excess air. Solution: (Basis 100 moles of dry flue gas) aC12H26 + bO2 + b(3.76)N2 12.8CO2 + cH2O + 0.2CO + 3.5O2 + 83.5N2 By C balance 12a = 12.8 + 0.2 a = 1.0833 By N2 Balance b(3.76) = 83.5 b = 22.207 By H balance 26a = 2c c = 26(1.0833)/2 c = 14.083 Dividing the equation by a C12H26 + 20.5O2 + 77.08N2 11.816CO2 + 13H2O + 0.185CO + 3.23O2 + 77.08N2 20 .5(32 ) 77 .08(28) kg of air A 16 .56 F 12 ( 12 ) 26 kg of fuel a Combustion of C12H26 with 100% theoretical air C12H 26 aO 2 a (3.76) N 2 bCO2 cH 2 O a (3.76) N 2 12 b 26 2c c 13 2a 2b c a 18.5 kg of air A 18.5(32) (18.5)(3.76)( 28 14.94 12(12) 26 kg of C12H 26 F t 74 A A (1 e) F a F t A F a 1 e A F t A F a e 1 0.108 10.8% A F t Sample Problem (Unknown Fuel – Known Orsat analysis) An unknown hydrocarbon is used as fuel in a diesel engine, and after an emission test the orsat analysis shows, CO2 = 12.5% ; CO = 0.3% ; O2 = 3.1% ; N2 = 84.1%.Determine a. the actual air-fuel ratio b. the percent excess air c. the fuel analysis by mass CnHm + aO2 + a(3.76)N2 12.5CO2 + bH2O + 0.3CO + 3.1O2 + 84.1N2 By Carbon balance n = 12.5 + 0.3 n = 12.8 By Hydrogen balance m = 2b eq. 1 By Oxygen balance 2a = 2(12.5) + b + 0.3 + 2(3.1) eq. 2 By Nitrogen balance a(3.76) = 84.1 a = 22.367 substituting a to eq. 2 b = 13.234 substituting b to eq. 1 m = 26.47 C12.8 H 26.47 22.367O 2 84.1N 2 12.5CO2 13.234H 2 O 0.3CO 3.1O2 84.1N 2 22.367(32) 84.1(28) kg of air A 17.05 12(12.8) 26.47 kg of fuel F a Combustion with 100% theoretical air n = 12.8 ; m = 26.47 C12.8 H 26.47 aO 2 a (3.76) N 2 bCO2 cH 2 O a (3.76) N 2 12.8 b 26.47 2c c 13.235 2a 2 b c a 19.4175 kg of air A 19.4175(32) 19.4175(3.76)( 28 14.8 12(12.8) 26.47 kg of C12H 26 F t 75 A A (1 e) F a F t e 0.152 15.2 % 12n 12(12.8) 85.3% 12n m 12(12.8) 26.47 m 26.47 %H 14.7% 12n m 12(12.8) 26.47 %C Problem (Combustion of Coal Fuel) A coal fired steam power plant uses that has the following Ultimate Analysis; C = 74% ; H2 = 5% ; O2 = 6%; S = 1%; N2 = 1.2%; H2O = 3.8% and Ash = 9%. If this coal is burned with 30% excess air, determine a. The combustion equation b. The actual air – fuel ratio c. The M and R of the products d. The Orsat analysis of the products e. The HHV of coal in KJ/kg 76 ENTHALPY OF FORMATION The “Enthalpy of Formation of a compound is the enthalpy at the Arbitrary Reference State (t = 25C and P = 1 Atm). 1 mole C 25C, 1 atm Combustion Chamber 1 mole CO2 25C, 1 atm 1 mole O2 25C, 1 atm Q Let; HR – total enthalpy of Reactants HP – total enthalpy of products From 1st Law Q HR HP or Q Σ ni hi Σ ni hi R P but the enthalpy of all the reactants (at the reference state) is Zero (for they are all elements) Q H P -393,757 KJ therefore (h f ) CO 2 393,757 M Carbon 12 KJ Enthalpy of formation of CO 2 kg mol kg kg m (h f ) CO 2 32,813 KJ kg C Note : Negative sign is due to the reaction' s being " Exothermic " For Hydrogen (Vapor) (h f ) H 2O 241,971 KJ kg mol (h f ) H 2O 120,985.5 KJ kg H 2 For Hydrogen (Liquid) (h f ) H 2O 286,010 KJ kg mol (h f ) H 2O 143,005 KJ kg H 2 For Sulfur (h f ) S 296,840 KJ kg mol (h f ) S 9,276.25 KJ kg Sulfur 77 ENTHALPY OF COMBUSTION OR HEATING VALUE It is the difference between the enthalpies of the products and the reactants at the same temperature T and Pressure P. h RP H P H R KJ kg mol kgKJ h RP Σ n j h f (h h298) Σn i h f (h h 298) i P R mol (H H R ) KJ h RP P M kg where M - molecular weight Example: Determine the heating value of C12H26 (liquid) when burned with 25% excess air. Air and fuel enters at 25C and products leaves at 900 K. Assume P =101 KPa. Combustion Equation C12H 26 23.13O 2 86.95N 2 12CO2 13H 2 O 4.63O 2 86.95N 2 LOWER HEATING VALUE (H 2 O in the products is VAPOR H R 1(394,199) KJ kg mol H P 12(393,757 28,041) 13(241,971 21,924) 4.63(0 19,246) 86.95(0 18,221) H P -5,575,874.30 KJ kg mol LHV -5,181,675.30 LHV KJ kg mol - 5,181,675.30 KJ 30,480.44 ) 170 kg C12 H 26 HIGHER HEATING VALUE (H 2 O in the products is LIQUID) H R 1(394,199) KJ kg mol H P 12(393,757 28,041) 13(-286,010.0 21,924) 4.63(0 19,246) 86.95(0 18,221) H P -6,148,381.30 KJ kg mol HHV -5,754,182.30 HHV KJ kg mol - 5,754,182.30 KJ 33,848.13 170 kg C12 H 26 78 FROM BUREAU OF STANDARD HEATING VALUE Heating Value - is the energy released by fuel when it is completely burned and the products of combustion are cooled to the original fuel temperature. Higher Heating Value (HHV) - is the heating value obtained when the water in the products is liquid. Lower Heating Value (LHV) - is the heating value obtained when the water in the products is vapor. For Solid Fuels O KJ HHV 33,820C 144,212 H 2 2 9,304S 8 kg where: C, H2, O2, and S are in decimals from the ultimate analysis For Coal and Oils with the absence of Ultimate Analysis A HHV kg of air/kg of fuel F t 3,041 HHV = 31,405C + 141 647H KJ/kg For Liquid Fuels HHV = 43,385 + 93(Be - 10) KJ/kg Be - degrees Baume For Gasoline HHV = 41,160 + 93 (API) KJ/kg LHV = 38,639 + 93 (API) KJ/kg For Kerosene HHV = 41,943 + 93 (API) KJ/kg LHV = 39,035 + 93 (API) KJKkg For Fuel Oils HHV = 41,130 + 139.6(API) KJ/kg LHV = 38,105 + 139.6(API) KJ/kg API - American Petroleum Institute For Fuel Oils (From Bureau of Standard Formula) HHV = 51,716 - 8793.8 (S)2 KJ/kg LHV = HHV - QL KJ/kg QL = 2,442.7(9H2) KJ/kg H2 = 0.26 - 0.15(S) kg of H2/ kg of fuel 141.5 131.5 API 140 S 130 Be S Where: S @ t = S - 0.0007(t-15.56) S - specific gravity of fuel oil at 15.56 C H2 - hydrogen content of fuel oil, Kg H/Kg fuel 79 QL - heat required to evaporate and superheat the water vapor formed by the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel,KJ/kg S @ t - specific gravity of fuel oil at any temperature t Oxygen Bomb Calorimeter - instrument used in measuring heating value of solid and liquid fuels. Gas Calorimeter - instrument used for measuring heating value of gaseous fuels. SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS Whenever energy is transferred, the level of energy cannot be conserved and some energy must be permanently reduced to a lower level. When this is combined with the first law of thermodynamics, the law of energy conservation, the statement becomes: Whenever energy is transferred, energy must be conserved, but the level of energy cannot be conserved and some energy must be permanently reduced to a lower level. Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law: No cyclic process is possible whose sole result is the flow of heat from a single heat reservoir and the performance of an equivalent amount of work. For a system undergoing a cycle: The net heat is equal to the network. dW dQ or W = Q W - net work Q - net heat CARNOT CYCLE Nicolas Léonard Sadi Carnot (1796-1832), French physicist and military engineer, son of Lazare Nicolas Marguerite Carnot, born in Paris, and educated at the École Polytechnique. In 1824 he described his conception of the perfect engine, the so-called Carnot engine, in which all available energy is utilized. He discovered that heat cannot pass from a colder to a warmer body, and that the efficiency of an engine depends upon the amount of heat it is able to utilize. These discoveries led to the development of the Carnot Cycle, which later became the basis for the second law of thermodynamics. A. Carnot Engine Cycle Processes: 1 to 2 - Heat Addition (T = C) 2 to 3 - Expansion (S = C) 3 to 4 - Heat Rejection (T = C) 4 to 1 - Compression (S = C) P T 1 QA T=C S=C 1 2 4 3 2 4 S=C T=C 3 QR V S Heat Added (T = C) Q A = TH ( ΔS) 1 Heat Rejected (T = C) Q R = TL ( ΔS) 2 ΔS = S2 - S1 = S4 - S3 3 Net Work W = ΣQ = Q A - Q R 4 W = (TH - TL )( ΔS) 5 80 Thermal Efficiency e W x 100% 6 QA e QA QR x 100% 7 QA Q e 1 R x 100% 8 QA Eq. 5 to and Eq. 1 to Eq. 6 e TH TL x 100% 9 TH B. Carnot Refrigeration Cycle (Reversed Carnot Cycle) Processes: 1 to 2 - Compression (S =C) 2 to 3 - Heat Rejection (T = C) 3 to 4 - Expansion (S = C) 4 to 1 - Heat Addition (T = C) T 3 2 QR 4 1 QA S COEFFICIENT OF PERFORMANCE QA 6 W QA COP 7 QR - QA COP COP TL 8 TH - TL 81 Carnot Heat Pump: A heat pump uses the same components as the refrigerator but its purpose is to reject heat at high energy level. Performance Factor PF = PF = PF = QR W 11 QR QR - Q A TH TH - TL 12 13 PF = COP + 1 14 TON OF REFRIGERATION It is the heat equivalent to the melting of 1 ton (2000 lb) of water ice at 0C into liquid at 0C in 24 hours. 2000(144) BTU TR 12,000 24 hr KJ TR 211 min where 144 BTU/lb is the latent heat of fusion Problem No. 1 A Carnot engine operates between temperature levels of 397C and 7C and rejects 20 KJ/min to the environment. The total network output of the engine is used to drive heat pump which is supplied with heat from the environment at 7C and rejects heat to a home at 40C. Determine: a) the network delivered by the engine in KJ/min b) the heat supplied to the heat pump in KJ/min c) the overall COP for the combined devices which is defined as the energy rejected to the home divided by the initial energy supplied to the engine. Problem No. 2 A reversed Carnot cycle is used for refrigeration and rejects 1000 KW of heat at 340 K while receiving heat at 250 K. Determine: a) the COP b) the power required in KW c) the refrigerating capacity in Tons 82 SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A Carnot engine operating between 775 K and 305K produces 54 KJ of work. Determine the change of entropy during heat addition. (S12= -0.12 KJ/K) 2. A Carnot engine operates between temperature reservoirs of 817C and 25C and rejects 25 KW to the low temperature reservoir. The Carnot engine drives the compressor of an ideal vapor compression refrigerator, which operates within pressure limits of 190 KPa and 1200 Kpa. The refrigerant is ammonia. Determine the COP and the refrigerant flow rate.(4; 14.64 kg/min) 3. A Carnot engine operates between temperatures of 1000 K and 300K The engine operates at 200 RPM and develops 200 KW. The total engine displacement is such that the mean effective pressure is 300 Kpa. Determine: a) the thermal efficiency (71%) b) the heat added ( 286 KW) c) the total engine displacement in m3/cycle ( 0.02 m3/cycle) 4. A Carnot engine operating between 775 K and 305K produces 54 KJ of work. Determine the change of entropy during heat addition. (S12= -0.12 KJ/K) 5. A Carnot engine produces 25 KW while operating between temperature limits of 1000 K and 300 K. Determine (a) the heat supplied in KW (b) the heat rejected in KW 6. A Carnot heat engine rejects 230 KJ of heat at 25C. The net cycle work is 375 KJ. Determine the cycle thermal efficiency and the cycle high temperature. 83 7. A Carnot refrigerator operates between temperature limits of -5C and 30C. The power consumed is 4 KW and the heat absorbed is 30 KJ/kg. Determine; (a) the COP (b) the refrigerant flow rate 8. A non polluting power plant can be constructed using the temperature difference in the ocean. At the surface of the ocean in tropical climates, the average water temperature year round is 30C. At a depth of 305 m, the temperature is 4.5C. Determine the maximum thermal efficiency of such a power plant. (8.4%) 9. A heat is used to heat a house in the winter months. When the average outside temperature is 0C and the indoor temperature is 23C, the heat loss from the house is 20 KW. Determine the minimum power required to heat the heat pump. 10. A Carnot heat pump is being considered for home heating in a location where the outside temperature may as low as -35C. The expected COP for the heat pump is 1.50. To what temperature could this unit provide? INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE CYCLE Air Standard Cycle Otto Cycle Diesel Cycle Dual Cycle AIR STANDARD OTTO CYCLE Otto, Nikolaus August Born:June 10, 1832, Holzhausen, Nassau Died: Jan. 26, 1891, Cologne German engineer who developed the four-stroke internal-combustion engine, which offered the first practical alternative to the steam engine as a power source. Otto built his first gasoline-powered engine in 1861. Three years later he formed a partnership with the German industrialist Eugen Langen, and together they developed an improved engine that won a gold medal at the Paris Exposition of 1867. In 1876 Otto built an internal-combustion engine utilizing the four-stroke cycle (four strokes of the piston for each ignition). The four-stroke cycle was patented in 1862 by the French engineer Alphonse Beau de Rochas, but since Otto was the first to build an engine based upon this principle, it is commonly known as the Otto cycle. Because of its reliability, its efficiency, and its relative quietness, Otto's engine was an immediate success. More than 30,000 of them were built during the next 10 years, but in 1886 Otto's patent was revoked when Beau de Rochas' earlier patent was brought to light. Processes 1 to 2 – Isentropic Compression (S = C) 2 to 3 – Constant Volume Heat Addition (V = C) 3 to 4 – Isentropic Expansion (S = C) 4 to 1 – Constant volume Heat Rejection (V = C) 84 Compression Ratio (r) V1 V4 1 V2 V3 r V1 = V4 and V2 = V3 V1 - volume at bottom dead center (BDC) V2 – volume at top dead center (TDC)(clearance volume) Displacement Volume (VD) VD =V1 – V2 Eq. 2 Percent Clearance (C) C r= V2 VD Eq. 3 1C Eq. 3’ C Heat Added (QA) At V = C ; Q = mCv(T) QA = mCv(T3 – T2) Eq. 4 Heat Rejected (QR) Eq. 5 QR = mCv(T4 – T1) Net Work (W) W = Q W = QA – QR Eq. 6 P,V and T Relations At point 1 to 2 (S = C) k 1 T2 V1 T1 V2 k 1 r k 1 P k 2 P1 T2 T1 (r)k1 Eq. 7 85 At point 2 to 3 (V = C) T3 P3 T2 P2 Eq. 8 At point 3 to 4 (S = C) k 1 k 1 T3 V4 T4 V3 P k 3 (r)k1 P4 k 1 T3 T4 (r) Eq.9 At point 4 to 1 (V = C) T4 P4 Eq. 10 T1 P1 Entropy Change a) S during Heat Addition S3 – S2 = mCvln T3 T2 Eq. 11 b) S during Heat Rejection T1 T4 Eq. 12 S1 - S4 = -( S3 – S2) Eq. 13 S1 - S4 = mCvln Thermal Efficiency e W x 100% Eq. 14 QA e Q A QR x 100% Eq. 15 QA Q e 1 R x 100% Eq. 16 QA (T T ) e 1 4 1 x 100% Eq.17 (T3 T2 ) 1 e 1 k1 x 100% Eq. 18 (r) Mean Effective Pressure Pm W KPa VD Eq. 19 where: Pm – mean effective pressure, KPa W – Net Work KJ, KJ/kg, KW VD – Displacement Volume m3, m3/kg, m3/sec 86 Displacement Volume VD = V1 – V2 m3 Eq. 20 VD = 1 - 2 m3/kg Eq.21 Note: For Cold Air Standar: k = 1.4 For Hot Air Standard: k = 1.3 AIR STANDARD DIESEL CYCLE Diesel, Rudolf (Christian Karl) Born: March 18, 1858, Paris, France Died: September 29, 1913, at sea in the English Channel German thermal engineer who invented the internal-combustion engine that bears his name. He was also a distinguished connoisseur of the arts, a linguist, and a social theorist. Diesel, the son of German-born parents, grew up in Paris until the family was deported to England in 1870 following the outbreak of the Franco-German War. From London Diesel was sent to Augsburg, his father's native town, to continue his schooling. There and later at the Technische Hochschule (Technical High School) in Munich he established a brilliant scholastic record in fields of engineering. At Munich he was a protégé of the refrigeration engineer Carl von Linde, whose Paris firm he joined in 1880. Diesel devoted much of his time to the self-imposed task of developing an internal combustion engine that would approach the theoretical efficiency of the Carnot cycle. For a time he experimented with an expansion engine using ammonia. About 1890, in which year he moved to a new post with the Linde firm in Berlin, he conceived the idea for the diesel engine . He obtained a German development patent in 1892 and the following year published a description of his engine under the title Theorie und Konstruktion eines rationellen Wäremotors (Theory and Construction of a Rational Heat Motor). With support from the Maschinenfabrik Augsburg and the Krupp firms, he produced a series of increasingly successful models, culminating in his demonstration in 1897 of a 25-horsepower, four-stroke, single vertical cylinder compression engine. The high efficiency of Diesel's engine, together with its comparative simplicity of design, made it an immediate commercial success, and royalty fees brought great wealth to its inventor. Diesel disappeared from the deck of the mail steamer Dresden en route to London and was assumed to have drowned. Processes: 1 to 2 – Isentropic Compression (S = C) 2 to 3 – Constant Pressure Heat Addition (P = C) 3 to 4 – Isentropic Expansion (S = C) 4 to 1 – Constant Volume Heat Rejection (V = C) T P 2 3 QA S=C P=C 4 S=C 2 QR W CVD VD 4 V=C 1 Pm 3 1 V S 87 Compression Ratio r V1 V4 V2 V2 1 V1 V4 V2 V3 Cut-Off Ratio(rc) rc V3 V2 2 Percent Clearance V2 VD 3 1C r C 4 C Displacement Volume (VD) VD =V1 – V2 Heat Added (QA) Eq. 5 At P = C ; Q = mCp(T) QA = mCp(T3 – T2) Eq. 6 QA = mkCv(T3 – T2) Eq. 7 Heat Rejected (QR) QR = mCv(T4 – T1) Eq. 8 Net Work (W) W = Q W = QA – QR Eq. 9 W = mkCv(T3 – T2) - mCv(T4 – T1) W = mCv[k (T3 – T2) - (T4 – T1)] Eq. 10 P,V and T Relations At point 1 to 2 (S = C) k 1 T2 V1 T1 V2 P r k1 2 P1 T2 T1 (r)k1 Eq. 11 k 1 k At point 2 to 3 (P = C) T3 V3 rc Eq. 12 T2 V2 T3 T1 (r)k 1 (rc ) Eq. 13 At point 3 to 4 (S = C) 88 k 1 T4 V3 T3 V4 k 1 P k 4 P3 k 1 V T4 T1 (r) (rc ) 3 V4 V k1 V V k1 T4 T1 1k1 3 3k1 V2 V2 V4 k 1 T4 T1 (rc )k Eq.14 At point 4 to 1 (V = C) T4 P4 Eq. 15 T1 P1 Entropy Change a) S during Heat Addition T3 T2 S3 – S2 = mCpln Eq. 16 b) S during Heat Rejection T1 T4 Eq. 17 S1 - S4 = -( S3 – S2) Eq. 18 S1 - S4 = mCvln Thermal Efficiency e= W x 100% QA e= Q A QR x 100% Eq. 20 QA Eq. 19 Q e 1 R x 100% QA Eq. 21 (T4 T1 ) e 1 x 100% k (T3 T2 ) Eq.22 Substituting Eq. 11, Eq. 13 and Eq. 14 to Eq. 22 1 r k 1 e 1 k 1 c x 100% Eq. 23 (r ) k (rc 1) Mean Effective Pressure Pm W KPa VD Eq. 24 where: Pm – mean effective pressure, KPa W – Net Work KJ, KJ/kg, KW VD – Displacement Volume m3, m3/kg, m3/sec Displacement Volume VD = V1 – V2 m3 Eq. 25 VD = 1 - 2 m3/kg Eq.26 89 AIR STANDARD DUAL CYCLE Processes: 1 to 2 – Isentropic Compression (S = C) 2 to 3 – Constant Volume Heat Addition Q23 ( V = C) 3 to 4 – Constant Pressure Heat Addition Q34 (P = C) 4 to 5 – Isentropic Expansion (S = C) 5 to 1 - Constant Volume Heat Rejection (V = C) P T 3 QA34 4 QA23 4 P=C 3 2 S=C 2 V=C 5 S=C 5 V=C 1 1 CVD QR V VD S Compression Ratio V r 1 V2 Eq. 1 V1 = V5 and V2 = V3 Cut-Off Ratio rc V4 V3 Eq. 2 Pressure Ratio P rp 3 P2 Eq. 3 P3 = P4 Percent Clearance V2 VD Eq. 4 1C r Eq. 5 C C Displacement Volume VD = V1 – V2 m3 Eq. 6 VD = 1 - 2 Eq. 7 P, V, and T Relations At point 1 to 2 (S = C) T2 V1 T1 V2 k 1 k 1 r k 1 P k 2 P1 T2 T1 (r ) k 1 Eq. 8 90 At point 2 to 3 (V = C) T3 P3 rP Eq. 9 T2 P2 T3 T1 ( r ) k 1 ( rP ) Eq. 10 At point 3 to 4 (P = C) T4 V4 rc T3 V3 T4 T1 (r ) k 1 (rP )( rc ) Eq. 11 At point 4 to 5 (S = C) T5 V4 T4 V5 T5 T1 k 1 V1k 1 V2 V2 V1 k 1 r V4 V4k 1 k 1 P Eq. 12 T5 T1 (rc ) k (rP ) Eq. 13 At 5 to 1 (V = C) T5 P5 Eq. 14 T1 P1 Entropy change a) At 2 to 3 (V = C) S3 – S2 = mCvln T3 T2 Eq. 15 b) At 3 to 4 (P = C) S4 – S3 = mCPln T4 Eq. 16 T3 S4 – S2 = (S3 – S2) + (S4 – S3) Eq. 17 c) At 5 to 1 (V = C) S1 – S5 = mCvln T1 Eq. 18 T5 Heat Added QA = QA23 + QA34 Eq. 19 QA23 = mCv(T3 - T2) Eq. 20 QA34 = mCp(T4 - T3) = mkCv(T4 - T3) Eq. 21 QA = mCv[(T3 - T2)+ k(T4 - T3) Eq. 22 Heat Rejected QR = mCv(T5 - T1) Eq. 23 Net Work W = (QA - QR) Eq. 24 W = mCv[(T3 - T2) + k(T4 - T3) - (T5 - T1)] Eq. 25 Thermal Efficiency e= W x 100% QA Eq. 26 91 e= Q A QR x 100% Eq. 27 QA Q e 1 R x 100% Eq. 28 QA (T5 T1 ) e 1 x 100% Eq.29 (T3 T2 ) k(T4 T3 ) Substituting Eq. 8, Eq. 10 and Eq. 11and Eq. 13 to Eq. 29 1 rPrck 1 x 100% Eq. 30 e 1 k1 (r) (rP 1) krP (rc 1) BRAYTON CYCLE Basic Components Air Compressor Heater Gas Turbine Cooler Processes 1 to 2 – Isentropic Compression 2 to 3 – Isobaric Heat Addition 3 to 4 – Isentropic Expansion 4 to 1 – Isobaric Heat Rejection Figure 1: Closed Gas Turbine Cycle 92 Pr essure Ratio rp P2 P3 Eq.1 P1 P4 Compressor Work Wc mC p (T2 - T1 ) Eq. 2 k Eq.3 k 1 T3 T4 rp k Eq.4 k 1 T2 T3 rp k T T T2 T1 rp 1 k 1 4 Heater Q A mC p (T3 T2 ) Eq.5 Turbine Wt mC p (T3 - T4 ) Eq. 6 Cooler Q R mC p (T4 T1 ) Eq.7 Net Work W Q A Q R Eq.8 Thermal Efficiency e W x100% Eq.9 QA e QA QR x100% Eq.10 QA Q e 1 R x100% Eq.11 QA (T T1 ) e 1 4 x100% Eq.12 (T3 T2 ) Substituti ng Eq. 3 and Eq.4 to Eq. 12 1 e 1 x100% Eq.13 k 1 rp k Work Ratio WR Net Work Turbine Work 93 Figure 2: Open Gas Turbine Cycle W WT urbine WCompressor ACTUAL BRAYTON CYCLE Turbine Efficiency Actual Turbine Work x100% Ideal Turbine Work Wt ' mC p (T3 - T4' ) Actual Work ηT urbine Wt mC p (T3 - T4 ) Ideal Work ηT urbine (T3 - T4' ) x100% (T3 T4 ) Compressor Efficiency Ideal Compressor Work x100% Actual Compressor Work Wc mC p (T2 - T1 ) Actual Work ηCompressor Wc ' mC p (T2' - T1 ) Ideal Work ηCompressor (T2 - T1 ) x100% (T2' - T1 ) Actual Thermal efficiency e t' Net Work x100% Heat added 94 Problem mum temperature is 2750K; the maximum pressure is 6894 KPa. Determine: a. the work in KJ/kg b. the heat added in KJ/kg c. the thermal efficiency d. the mean effective pressure in KPa e. the entropy change during the heat addition processes f. the percent clearance c Solution: Problem No. 1 In the air standard diesel cycle, the air is compressed isentropically from 26C and 105 KPa to 3700 KPa. The entropy change during heat rejection is -0.6939 KJ/kg-K. Determine a) the heat added per kg b) the thermal efficiency c) the maximum temperature d) the temperature at the start of heat rejection P T 2 3 QA 3 P=C S=C 2 S=C 4 V=C 4 1 1 QR S V Given: T1 = 26 + 273 = 299 K P1 = 105 KPa P2 = P3 = 3700 KPa S1 – S4 = -0.6939 KJ/kg-K S3 – S2 = 0.6939 KJ/kg-K Q R C V T4 T1 Q R 349.76 KJ/kg W Q A - Q R 477.34 KJ/kg e W x 100% 57.71 % QA 95 k -1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 T 2 827.3 K S3 S 2 ΔS mC p ln 0.6939 1.0045 ln T3 T2 T3 827.3 0.6939 T3 827.3 T3 1650.71 K e 1.0045 Q A C p T3 - T2 827.1 KJ/kg S4 - S1 C v ln 0.6939 e 0.7175 T4 T1 T4 299 T4 786.47 K 96 Problem No. 2 For an ideal Otto engine with 17% clearance and an initial pressure of 93 Kpa, determine the pressure at the end of compression. If the pressure at the end of constant volume heating is 3448 KPa, what is the mean effective pressure. P T QA 3 3 V=C S=C 2 4 2 V=C S=C 4 1 1 QR V S Given: c= 0.17 P1 = 93 KPa P3 = 3448 KPa e W QA W eQ A eq.9 1 c 1.17 r c .17 r 6.88 Q A C v (T3 T2 ) V V r 1 4 V2 V3 Q A 2.315T1 eq.10 P2 rk P1 Q A 0.71755.39T1 2.163T1 Q A 0.7175T15.39 2.163 W 0.542.315T1 W 1.25T1 eq.11 W 1.25T1 VD 0.0026T1 P2 936.881.4 1383.91 KPa Pm 1 e 1 k 1 0.54 54% r Pm 480.9 KPa T2 T1 r k 1 2.163T1 eq.1 P T3 T2 3 5.39T1 eq.2 P2 T T4 k31 T3 r 1 k 2.49T1 eq.3 r VD υ1 υ 2 eq.4 r υ1 υ2 υ1 rυ 2 eq.5 VD rυ 2 υ 2 VD υ 2 r 1 eq.6 υ2 RT2 0.2872.163T1 0.00045T1 eq.7 P2 1383.91 VD 0.00045T1 6.88 1 VD 0.0026T1 eq.8 97 Problem No. 3 Air at 300 K and 100 kPa enters into the compressor of a gas turbine engine that operates on a Brayton cycle. The air mass fl ow rate is 5 kg/s and the maximum air temperature in the engine is 1200 K. If the pressure ratio of the cycle is rp = 4, a. Find the efficiency of the engine, assuming ideal compression and expansion. b. Find the net power c. What are the exit temperatures from the turbine and the compressor if Compressor = Turbine = 60.95% given T1 300 K P1 100 KPa T3 1200 K rp 4 rp P2 P3 P1 P 4 Problem No. 4 An air standard diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 18 and the heat transferred is 1800 KJ/kg. At the beginning of the compression process the pressure is 100 KPa and the temperature is 15C. For 1kg of air, determine The entropy change during isobaric heat addition The temperature at the start of heat rejection For Air The work in KJ k = 1.4 The thermal efficiency R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K The mean effective pressure in KPa k 1 T2 T1 r 915 K P2 P1 r 100 18 5719 .8 KPa k 1 .4 Q A mC p (T3 - T2 ) QA T2 2707 .1 K mC p T3 S 3 S 2 mC p ln T3 KJ 1.0894 T2 K S1 S 4 ( S 3 S 2 ) mCv ln T1 T4 T4 1314 .61 K QR mCv (T4 T1 ) 736 .6 KJ e QA - QR 59.1% QA W Q A - Q R 1063 .4 KJ Pm W VD VD V 1V2 V1 mRT1 mRT2 ; V2 P1 P2 VD 0.781 m 3 Pm 1362 .2 KPa 98 Problem No. 5 An ideal dual combustion cycle operates on 0.454 kg of air. At the beginning of compression air is at 97 KPa, 316K. Let rp = 1.5, rc= 1.6 and r = 11. Determine the percent clearance (C = 10%) the heat added, heat rejected and the net cycle work the thermal efficiency 1 C r C a) 1 C 10 % r 1 b) QA = QA1 + QA2 QA1 = mCv(T3 – T2) T2 T1 (r ) k 1 825 K P2 P1 (r ) k 2,784 KPa T3 T2 (rp ) 1238 K QA1 = 0.454(0.7175)(1238 – 825) = 135 KJ QA2 = mCp(T4 – T3) T rc 4 1.6 T3 T4 1.6T3 T4 1981K QA2 = 0.454(1.0045(1981 – 1238) = 339 KJ Q = QA1 + QA2 = 474 KJ 1 rP rc k 1 x 100% e 1 k 1 (r ) (rP 1) krP (rc 1) e = 58.7 % Problem No. 6 An air standard Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8 and has air conditions at the beginning of compression of 100 KPa and 25C. The heat added is 1400 KJ/kg. Determine: the thermal efficiency (56.5%) the mean effective pressure (1057 KPa) the percent clearance c (14.3%) Given: r = 8; P1 = 100 KPa ; T1 = 298K; QA = 1400 KJ/kg Solution: 1 e 1 k 1 x 100% a) (r ) e = 56.5% b )W = eQA = 0.565(1400) = 791 KJ/kg Pm = W VD VD = 1 - 2 1 VD = 1 1 r RT1 1 VD = 1 = 0.748 m3/kg P1 r Pm = 1057 KPa c) 1 C C 1 C= r 1 r= C = 14.3% 99 Problem No. 7 An engine operates on the air standard Otto cycle. The cycle work is 900 KJ/kg, the maximum cycle temperature is 3000C and the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 600C. Determine the engine's compression ratio and the thermal efficiency.(r = 6.35; e = 52.26%) Given: W = 900 KJ/kg; T3 = 3273K; T2 = 873K QA = Cv(T3 – T2) = 0.7175(3273 – 873) = 1722 KJ/kg e = W/QA e = 52.26% 1 1 k 1 r 1 e r = 6.36 Problem No. 8 An air standard diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 20 and a cut-off ratio of 3. Inlet pressure and temperature are 100 KPa and 27C. Determine: the heat added in KJ/kg (1998 KJ/kg) the net work in KJ/kg (1178 KJ/kg) the thermal efficiency (61%) Given: r = 20; rc = 3 ; P1 = 100 KPa ; T1 = 300C Solution: r V1 V2 rk P2 P1 P2 100(20)1.4 6229 KPa P2 P3 6229 KPa T2 (r ) k 1 T1 T2 300(20)1.4 1 994.3 K T3 V3 rc T2 V2 T3 994.3(3) 2983 K υ3 RT3 0.287(2983) 0.14 m 3 P3 6229 υ1 υ 4 RT1 0.287(300) 0.861 m 3 P1 100 T4 V3 T3 V4 k 1 1.4 1 0.14 T4 2983 1442.45 K 0.861 QA = Cp(T3 – T2) = 1.0045(2983 – 994.3) QA = 1997.65 KJ/kg QR = Cv(T4 – T1) = 0.7175(1442.45 – 300) QR = 820 KJ/kg W = QA - QR = (1997.65 – 820) W = 1177.65 KJ/kg e W x 100% QA 1177.65 x 100% 1997.65 e 59 % 1 r k 1 e 1 k 1 c (r ) k (rc 1) e 100 (3)1.4 1 1 x 100% e 1 1.4 1 1 . 4 ( 3 1 ) (20) e = 60.6 % VAPOR POWER CYCLE Rankine Cycle Processes: 1 to 2 - Constant entropy (Isentropic) expansion (Turbine) 2 to 3 - Constant pressure (Isobaric) heat rejection (Condenser) 3 to 4 - Constant entropy (Isentropic) compression (Pump) 4 to 1 - Constant pressure (Isobaric) heat addition (Boiler) Q A Q E Q Ev Q s Q E - heat required by the Economizer Q Ev - heat required by the Evaporator Q s - heat required by the Superheate r Q R - heat rejected by steam in the condenser 101 Ideal Cycle Actual Cycle A. System: Turbine Ideal Cycle Wt = (h1 - h2)KJ/kg Wt = ms(h1 - h2) KW Actual Cycle Wt' = (h1 - h2')KJ/kg Wt' = ms(h1 - h2') KW where: ms is the steam flow rate in kg/sec Wt - ideal turbine work Wt' - actual turbine work Turbine Efficiency e Turbine Wt ' x 100% Wt B. System: Condenser mw - cooling water flow rate that enters and leaves the condenser in kg/sec Ideal Cycle QR = (h2 - h3) KJ/kg QR = ms(h2 - h3) KW QR = mw Cpw (twB-twA)KW Actual Cycle 102 QR = (h2'-h3) KJ/kg QR = ms(h2'-h3) KW QR = mw Cpw (twB-twA)KW where:QR - heat rejected in the condenser mw - cooling water flow rate in kg/sec Cpw - specific heat of cooling water KJ/kg-C or KJ/kg-K Cpw = 4.187 KJ/kg-C or KJ/kg-K (average value) twA - inlet cooling water temperature,C twB - outlet cooling water temperature,C C. System: Pump Ideal Cycle WP = (h4-h3) KJ/kg WP = ms(h4-h3) KW Actual Cycle WP' = (h4'-h3) KJ/kg WP' = ms(h4'-h3) KW Pump Efficiency epump Wp Wp' x 100% D. System: Boiler or Steam Generator Ideal Cycle QA =(h1-h4) KJ/kg QA =ms(h1-h4) KW Actual Cycle QA =(h1-h4') KJ/kg QA = ms(h1-h4') KW Boiler or Steam Generator Efficiency eBoiler QA x 100% Qs QA = Heat absorbed by boiler or steam generator, KW QS = Heat supplied to boiler or steam generator, KW QA = ms(h1-h4) KW (for the ideal cycle) QA = ms(h1-h4') KW (for the actual cycle) If the heat supplied to boiler came from the burning of fuel or products of combustion, the heat supplied Q S is: QS = mf(HV) KW where: mf - is the fuel consumption in kg/sec HV - heating value of fuel in KJ/kg Heating Value (HV) - is the energy released by fuel when it is completely burned and the products of combustion are cooled to the original fuel temperature. STEAM RATE SR Steam Flow Rate kg Power (KW) Produced KW - hr HR Heat Supplied KJ Power (KW) Produced KW - hr HEAT RATE 103 Reheat Cycle For a steam power plant operating on a reheat cycle, after partial expansion of the steam in the turbine, the steam flows back to a heat exchanger called the "re-heater" to heat the steam almost the same to its initial temperature. 104 Regenerative Cycle For a regenerative cycle steam power plant some of the steam were taken from the turbine before it reached the condenser and used to heat the feed-water with no extra energy input and the latent heat of vaporization would not be lost from the system in the condenser. Ideally the water leaving the feed-water heater is saturated liquid at the heater pressure and the heater is a direct-contact type. If the system uses a shell-and-tube heat exchanger the extracted steam doesn't mixed with the feed-water and the drains is send back to the previous heat exchanger, also a separate drain pump may be employed. m - fraction of steam bleed for feed-water heating, kg of bled steam/kg of throttled steam ms - steam flow rate, kg/sec Reheat-regenerative Cycle For a reheat-regenerative cycle, further increase in thermal efficiency will occur because this cycle uses the combined effect of reheating the steam after partial expansion and extracting some part of the circulating steam for feed-water heating, which result to an increase in turbine work and reduces heat required by the boiler. 105 Steam Generator (boiler) – an integrated assembly of several components which converts water into steam at a pre-determined pressure and temperature. Steam turbine – is a device used to convert the kinetic energy of the substance into mechanical energy/work. A.C. Generator – an electrical device used to convert the mechanical energy into electrical energy. Condenser – a heat exchanger used to condense the exhaust steam from the turbine for recycling. Pump – a mechanical device used to raise the condensate pressure to that of steam generator pressure. Heat exchangers – are auxiliary equipment used to assist in steam plant operation. Super heater (closed) – use to superheat the saturated steam from steam drum. De-superheater (closed or open) –to de-superheat the superheated steam.to final state. Reheater (closed) - used to reheat the steam from turbine after expansion. Condenser (closed or open) – used to condemns the exhaust stream. Feedwater heater (closed or open) – used to preheat the condensate/feedwater. Economizer (closed) – used to convert the sub-cooled liquid to saturated liquid. Air pre-heater (closed) - used to preheat the air for combustion. 106 Example no. 1 A 15,000 KW turbine has a guaranteed steam rate of 5.4 kg/KW-hr at rated load. Steam enters the turbine at 4.15 MPa and 400C, with exhaust at 25.4 mm Hg absolute. Condensate is sub-cooled 3C, radiation and frictional losses in the turbine is estimated to be 3% of the turbine output. Calculate: a) the enthalpy of exhaust steam b) the total heat removed by the condenser in KJ/hr c) the thermal efficiency d) m3/min of condenser cooling water based on 6C temperature rise P1 = 4150 KPa P2 = P3 = 25.4 mm Hg absolute P2 = P3 = 3.39 KPa (tsat at 3.39 KPa = 26.16C) At P1 = 4150 KPa and t1 = 400C h1= 3211.5 KJ/kg ; S1 = 6.7526 Kj/kg-K h3 = h at 3.39 KPa and t3 = (26.16 – 3) = 23.16C h3 = 97.016C ; S3 = 0.3408 KJ/kg-K h4 = h at 4150 KPa and S4 = 0.3408 KJ/kg-K h4 = 101.18 KJ/kg T 1 4 26.16 C 23.16 C P1 = P4 = 4150 KPa P2 = P3 = 3.39 KPa 2 2’ 3 S Steam flow rate KW produced m s 5.4(15,000) 81,000 kg/hr SR m s 22.5 kg/sec Wt' 15,000(1- .03) 14,550 KW Wt' m s h1 - h 2' h 2' h1 WT ' 2564.83 KJ/kg ms Q R m s (h 2' - h 3 ) 22.5(2564.83 - 97.016) 55,525.82 KW Q R m w (C pw )(t wB - t wA ) 55,525.82 m w (4.187)(6) m w 2,210.3 kg/sec Q w - volume flow rate of water in m 3 /min m3 m3 (60) 132.6 Q w 2210.3 kg/sec min 1000 kg WP m s (h 4 h 3 ) 93.7 KW Q A m s (h1 h 4 ) 69,982.2 KW e WT ' - Wp QA x 100% e 20.7% 107 ExampleNo. 2 A 2500 KW steam turbo generator set has a combined steam rate of 7 kg/KW-hr with a throttle steam at 3.4 MPa (tsat = 240.87C) and 400C and a condenser pressure 8.5 KPa absolute(tsat = 42.69C). Feedwater enters the boiler at 138C. The steam generator supplying the steam is coal fired, with a coal heating value of 24,000 KJ/kg. Overall steam generator efficiency is 74%. Assuming no losses, Determine: a) the Rankine cycle efficiency b) the brake thermal efficiency if generator efficiency is 94% c) the combined thermal efficiency d) the fuel consumption in kg/hr e) the enthalpy of exhaust steam if brake power is equal to actual turbine work T 1 400C 240.87C 138C 4’ P1 = P4 = 3400 KPa 4 42.69C 3 P2 = P3 = 8.5 KPa 2 2’ S At 3400 KPa and 400C h1 = 3224.6 KJ/kg S1 = 6.8620 KJ/kg-K At 8.5 KPa and S2 = S1 = 6.8620 KJ/kg-K h2 = 2153.4 KJ/kg ; x2 = 82.302% At 8.5 KPa; saturated liquid, h3 = 178.63 KJ/kg ; S3 = 0.6078 KJ/kg-K At S3 = S4 to 3400 KPa h4 = 182.04 KJ/kg At 3400 KPa and 138C h4’ = 582.22 KJ/kg 2,659.6 x100% 17,496.84 e B 15.2% eB 2,500 x100% 14.3% 17,496.84 Q 17,496.84 kg mF S (3600) 2624.526 HV 24,000 hr Wt ' WB ms (h1 h 2' ) e combined h 2' 3224.6 2,659.6 KJ 2681.824 4. 9 kg 108 kg kg 4. 9 hr sec (h1 h 2) (h 4 h 3) e x100% (h1 h 4) e 35.07% m s 7(2500) 17,500 eg Wo x 100% WB 0.94 2500 WB 2500 2,659.6 KW 0.94 W e B B x100% QS WB Q s m F (HV ) e Boiler QA x100% QS Q A m s (h1 h 4' ) 4.9(3224.6 582.22) Q A 12,947.662 KW QS 12,947.662 17,496.84 KW 0.74 Example No. 3 An ideal steam power plant operating on single stage reheat cycle has steam conditions at throttle of 7.6 MPa and 500C and expands to the turbine to 2 MPa after which the steam is withdrawn and is reheated in the reheater to 450C and re-expands again in the turbine to the condenser at a pressure of 7 KPa. For a steam flow rate of 10 kg/sec. determine The ideal turbine work in KW The ideal pump work in KW The net cycle work in KW The ideal thermal efficiency The ideal steam rate in kg/KW-hr The heat rate in KJ/KW-hr T 1 3 P1 = P6 6 P2 = P3 2 P4 = P5 5 4 S Steam Properties At P1 = 7600 KPa and t1 = 500C h1 = 3402.7 KJ/kg ; S1 = 6.7482 KJ/kg-K At S1 = S2 to P2 = 2000 KPa h2 = 3012.7 KJ/kg At P3 = 2000 KPa and t3 = 450C h3 = 3357.9 KJ/kg ; S3 = 7.2900 KJ/kg-K At S3 = S4 to P4 = 7 KPa h4 = 2264.0 KJ/kg ; x4 = 87.2311% At P5 = P4 saturated liquid h5 = 163.33 KJ/kg; S5 = 0.5590 KJ/kg-K At S5 = S6 to P6 = P1 a. Wt m s (h 1 - h 2 ) (h 3 - h 4 ) KW b. Wp m s (h 6 - h 5 ) KW c. W Wt - Wp KW d. e W x 100% QA Q A m s (h 1 - h 6 ) KW 3600ms kg W KW - HR 3600QA KJ f . HR W KW - hr e. SR 109 h6 = 170.97 KJ/kg mS = 10 kg/sec T Additional work S Example No. 4 A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat– regenerative Rankine cycle and has a net power output of 80 MW. Steam enters the high-pressure turbine at 10 MPa and 550°C and leaves at 0.8 MPa. Some steam is extracted at this pressure to heat the feedwater in an open feed-water heater. The rest of the steam is reheated to 500°C and is expanded in the low-pressure turbine to the condenser pressure of 10 KPa. Show the cycle on a T-s diagram with respect to saturation lines, and determine (a) the mass flow rate of steam through the boiler and (b) the thermal efficiency of the cycle. Example No. 5 A steam power plant is operating on a reheat – regenerative cycle with 2 – stages of regenerative heating and 1 – extraction for reheating. The turbine receives steam at 7000 KPa and 550C, the steam expands to 2000 KPa isentropically where a fraction is extracted for feedwater heating and the remainder is reheated at constant pressure until the temperature is 540C. The steam expands isentropically to 400 KPa where a fraction is withdrawn for LP feedwater heating on a closed type heater as shown on figure; the remainder expands isentropically in the turbine to 7.5 KPa, at which point it enters the condenser. For a mass flow rate of 10 kg/secDetermine a) The mass fractions of extracted steam b) The turbine work in KW c) The pump work in KW d) The net cycle work in KWThe heat added in KJ/hr f) The heat rejected from the condenser in KJ/hr 110 Wt ms (h1 h 2 ) (1 m1 )(h 3 h 4 ) (1 m1 m 2 )(h 4 h 5 KW Wp1 ms ( h12 h11) Wp 2 m s (1 m1 )( h 8 h 6 ) ΣWp Wp1 Wp 2 W Wt ΣWp QA ms (h1 h10 ) (1 m1 )( h 3 h 2 ) kw e W W x 100%e x 100% QA QA QR ms (1 - m1 - m 2 )(h 5 - h 6 ) KW SAMPLE PROBLEMS Rerheat Cycle Steam power plant that operates on a reheat Rakine cycle with 80 MW of net output. Steam enters the high pressure turbine at 10 MPa and 500 °C, and is reheated to and enters the low pressure turbine at 1 MPa and 500 °C. Steam leaves the condenser as a saturated liquid at 10 kPa. Isentropic efficiencies of the turbine and compressor are 80 percent and 95 percent, respectively. Find: a) quality or temperature of steam at turbine exit b) thermal efficiency of the cycle c) mass flow rate of the steam d) condenser cooling watert flow rate allowing a water temperature rise of 15C e) cycle steam rate kg/KW-hr f} cycle heat rate KJ/KW - hr 111 Reheat – Regenerative Cycle Ideal reheat-regenerative Rankine cycle with one open feedwater heater. The boiler pressure is 10 MPa, condenser pressure is 15 kPa, reheater pressure is 1 MPa, and feedwater pressure is 0.6 MPa. Steam enters the high and low pressure turbines at 500 °C. Find: a) fraction of steam extracted for regeneration b) thermal efficiency of the cycle. Example 3 Calculate the power plant efficiency and the net work for a steam power plant that has turbine inlet conditions of 6 MPa and 500C, bleed steam to the heater occurring at 800 KPa and exhausted to the condenser at 15 KPa. The turbine and pump have an internal efficiencies of 90%. The flow rate is 63 kg/sec. (e = 35.6% ; W = 60,511 KW) A steam power plant operates using the reheat Rankine cycle. Steam enters the high pressure turbine at 12.5 MPa and 550ºC at a rate of 7.7 kg/s and leaves at 2 MPa. Steam is then reheated at a constant pressure to 450ºC before it expands in the low pressure turbine. The isentropic efficiencies of the turbine and the pump are 85% and 90%, respectively. Steam leaves the condenser as a saturated liquid at 150 KPa. Determine (a) the net power output, and (b) the thermal efficiency. 1 T (ms-m) 3 8' 8 ms (ms-m) 2' 7 m 2 6' 6 (ms-m) (ms-m) 5 4' 4 S P = 12.5 Mpa ; t = 550 C h1 s1 3473.7 6.6250 P = 2000 Kpa ; S = 6.6250 h2 t2 tsat 2936.9 263.9 212.36 P = 2000 Kpa ; t = 450 C h3 s3 3357 7.2900 P = 96 Kpa ; S = 7.2900 h4 tsat 2631 96.712 P =96 Kpa ; Sat. Liquid h5 s5 412.52 1.2896 P = 2000 Kpa ; s = 1.2896 112 h6 t6 414.51 98.629 P = 2000 Kpa ; Saturatted liq. h7 s7 908.02 2.4465 P = 12500 Kpa ; s = 2.4465 h8 tsat 920.35 214.14 0.85 0.9 h2' 3017.42 h4' 2739.9 h6' 414.7311 h8' 921.72 A coal fired steam power plant produces 150 MW of electric power with a thermal efficiency of 35%. If the energetic efficiency of the boiler is 75%, heating value of coal is 30 MJ/kg, and the temperature rise of the cooling water in the condenser is 10oC, determine (a) the fuel consumption rate in kg/h, and (b) mass flow rate of cooling water. A steam power plant operates on an ideal Rankine cycle. Superheated steam flows into the turbine at 2 MPa and 500oC with a flow rate of 100 kg/s and exits the condenser at 50oC as saturated water. Determine (a) the net power output, (b) the thermal efficiency, and (c) the quality of steam at the turbine exit. (d) What would the efficiency be if the condenser temperature can be lowered to 30oC. A power plant operates on a simple Rankine cycle producing a net power of 100 MW. The turbine inlet conditions are 15 MPa and 600oC and the condenser pressure is 10 kPa. If the turbine and pump each has an isentropic efficiency of 85% and there is a 5% pressure drop in the boiler, determine (a) the thermal efficiency, (b) the mass flow rate of steam in kg/h, and (c) the back work ratio. How sensitive is the thermal efficiency on (d) boiler pressure drop, (e) pump efficiency, and (f) turbine efficiency? A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat-regenerative Rankine cycle with two feedwater heaters, one open and one closed. Steam enters the first turbine at 15 MPa and 500oC, expands to 1 MPa, and is reheated to 450oC before it enters the second turbine where it expands to 10 kPa. Steam is extracted from the first turbine at 3 MPa and sent to the closed FWH, where the feedwater leaves at 5oC below the temperature at which the saturated condensate leaves. The condensate is fed through the trap to the open FWH, which operates at 0.5 MPa. Steam is extracted at 0.5 MPa from the second turbine and is fed to the open FWH. The flow out of the open FWH is saturated liquid at 0.3 MPa. If the power output of the cycle is 150 MW, determine (a) the thermal efficiency, (b) the mass flow rate through the boiler, (c) the bleeding rate from the first turbine, and (d) the bleeding rate from the second turbine. What would the thermal efficiency be if (e) the closed FWH were eliminated, (f) both the FWH's were eliminated? (a) 44.8%, (b) 116.13 kg/s, (c) ,(d) , (e) 43.8%, (f) 41.4% The cogeneration plant has a peak capacity of 25 MW for process heating. Steam leaves the boiler at 8 MPa and 600oC. The process heater and the condenser operate at a pressure of 400 kPa and 8 kPa respectively. Assuming ideal behavior of each component, determine (a) the mass flow rate of steam through the boiler and (b) the maximum turbine output. To meet a certain load condition, 10% of the steam is diverted to the expansion valve, and half the steam flowing through the turbine is extracted. Determine (c) the process heat load, and (d) the utilization factor. ANSWER: (a) 8.23 kg/s, (b) 11.9 MW, (c) 10.61 MW, (d) 71.8%, 113 A combined gas turbine-steam power plant has a net power output of 500 MW. Air enters the compressor of the gas turbine at 100 kPa, 300 K, and has a compression ratio of 12 and an isentropic efficiency of 85%. The turbine has an isentropic efficiency of 90%, inlet conditions of 1200 kPa and 1400 K, and an exit pressure of 100 kPa. The air from the turbine exhaust passes through a heat exchanger and exits at 400 K. On the steam turbine side, steam at 8 MPa, 400oC enters the turbine, which has an isentropic efficiency of 85%, and expands to the condenser pressure of 8 kPa. Saturated water at 8 kPa is circulated back to the heat exchanger by a pump with an isentropic efficiency of 80%. Determine (a) the ratio of mass flow rates in the two cycles, (b) the mass flow rate of air, and (c) the thermal efficiency. (d) What would the thermal efficiency be if the turbine inlet temperature increased to 1600 K? ANSWER: (a) 6.673, (b) 1107 kg/s, (c) 53.1%, (d) 54.8% YURI G. MELLIZA 114 PRACTICE EXERCISES Problem 1 Consider a steam power plant that operates on a simple ideal Rankine cycle and has a net power output of 45MW. Steam enters the turbine at 7 MPa and 500°C and is cooled in the condenser at a pressure of 10 kPa by running cooling water from a lake through the tubes of the condenser at a rate of 2000 kg/s. Show the cycle on a T-s diagram with respect to saturation lines, and determine (a) the thermal efficiency of the cycle, (b) the mass flow rate of the steam, and (c) the temperature rise of the cooling water. State 1 2 3 4 P (KPa) 7000 10 10 7000 T(°C) 500 45.83 45.999 S 6.7940 6.7940 0.6492 0.6492 h 3409.90 2151.30 191.76 198.81 x (Quality) 81.924 Problem 2 In a regenerative steam cycle as shown below employing two closed feedwater heaters, the steam is supplied to the turbine at 4000 KPa and 500C and is exhausted to the condenser at 3.5 KPa. The intermediate bleed pressures are obtained such that the saturation pressure intervals are approximately equal, giving pressures of 1000 KPa and 110 KPa, respectively. If the plant to produces a net power output of 10 MW, Calculate the following The hourly amount of bleed steam at each stage (m s1 and ms2) The cycle thermal efficiency Note: Draw the matching TS Diagram & assume all liquids leaving bleed steam heaters is saturated liquid at the heater pressure. Schematic Diagram Answer ms1 4,653.06 Kg/hr ms2 4,041.48 Kg/hr e 42.5 % 115 Problem 3 A steam power plant operates using the reheat Rankine cycle. Steam enters the high pressure turbine at 12.5 MPa and 550ºC at a rate of 7.7 kg/s and leaves at 2 MPa. Steam is then reheated at a constant pressure to 450ºC before it expands in the low pressure turbine. The isentropic efficiencies of the turbine and the pump are 85% and 90%, respectively. Steam leaves the condenser as a saturated liquid. If the moisture content of the steam at the exit of the turbine is not to exceed 5% determine (a) the condenser pressure, (b) the net power output, and (c) the thermal efficiency. Problem 4 A steam power plant operates on an ideal Rankine cycle. Superheated steam flows into the turbine at 2 MPa and 500 oC with a flow rate of 100 kg/s and exits the condenser at 50oC as saturated water. Determine the net power output, the thermal efficiency, and the quality of steam at the turbine exit. What would the efficiency be if the condenser temperature can be lowered to 30 oC? Problem 5 A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat-regenerative Rankine cycle with two feedwater heaters, one open and one closed. Steam enters the first turbine at 15 MPa and 500oC, expands to 1 MPa, and is reheated to 450oC before it enters the second turbine where it expands to 10 kPa. Steam is extracted from the first turbine at 3 MPa and sent to the closed FWH, where the feedwater leaves at 5oC below the temperature at which the saturated condensate leaves. The condensate is fed through the trap to the open FWH, which operates at 0.5 MPa. Steam is extracted at 0.5 MPa from the second turbine and is fed to the open FWH. The flow out of the open FWH is saturated liquid at 0.3 MPa. If the power output of the cycle is 150 MW, determine the thermal efficiency, the mass flow rate through the boiler, the bleeding rate from the first turbine, and the bleeding rate from the second turbine. Problem 6 Consider a regenerative vapor power cycle with one open feedwater heater. Steam enters the turbine at 8.0 MPa, 480?C and expands to 0.7 MPa, where some of the steam is extracted and diverted to the open feedwater heater operating at 0.7 MPa. The remaining steam expands through the second-stage turbine to the condenser pressure of 0.008 MPa. Saturated liquid exits the open feedwater heater at 0.7 MPa. The isentropic efficiency of each turbine stage is 85% and each pump operates isentropically. If the net power output of the cycle is 100 MW, determine the thermal efficiency and the mass flow rate of steam entering the first turbine stage, in kg/h. Problem no. 7 A coal fired steam power plant produces 150 MW of electric power with a thermal efficiency of 35%. If the energetic efficiency of the boiler is 75%, heating value of coal is 30 MJ/kg, and the temperature rise of the cooling water in the condenser is 10oC, determine (a) the fuel consumption rate in kg/h, and (b) mass flow rate of cooling water. (a) 68.57 kg/h , (b) 23,969 kg/h 116 Multiple Choice Problems In a Rankine cycle, saturated liquid water at 1 bar is compressed isentropically to 150 bar. First by reheating in a boiler and then by superheating at constant pressure of 150 bar, the water substance is brought to 750K. After adiabatic reversible expansion in a turbine to 1 bar, it is then cooled in a condenser to a saturated liquid. How much work is generated in the turbine? (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @ 150 bar&750 K, h = 3240.5, s1 = 6.2549; @ 1 bar, hf=417.46, hfg=2258, sf=1.3026, sfg=6.0568) 769.9 b. 796.9 c .967.9 d.976.9 A reheat steam has 13850 kPa throttle pressure at the turbine inlet and 2800 kPa reheat pressure. The throttle and reheat temperature of the steam is 540oC, condenser pressure is 3.4 kPa, engine efficiency of high pressure and low pressure is 75%. Find the cycle thermal efficiency. 34.46% b. 35.56 c. 36.66 d. 37.76 In a Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at 2.5 MPa and condenser of 50 kPa. What is the thermal efficiency of the cycle in percent? 25.55 b. 28.87 c. 30.12 d. 31.79 A supercritical steam Rankine cycle has turbine inlet conditions of 17.5 MPa and 530oC expands in a turbine to 7 kPa. The turbine and pump polytropic efficiencies are 0.9 and 0.7, respectively. Pressure losses between pump and turbine inlet are 1.5 MPa. What should be the pump work in kJ/kg. 27.13 b. 29.87 c. 32.47 d. 33.25 Steam enters the superheater of a boiler at a pressure of 2.5 MPa and dryness of 0.98 and leaves at the same pressure at a temperature of 370oC. Calculate the heat energy supplied per kg of steam supplied in the superheater. 405.51 b. 504.15 c. 154.15 d. 245.25. A back pressure steam turbine of 100 MW capacity serves as a prime mover in a cogeneration system. The boiler admits the return water at a temperature of 66oC and produces the steam at 6.5 MPa and 455oC. Steam then enters a back pressure turbine and expands to the pressure of the process, which is 0.52 MPa. Assuming a boiler efficiency of 80% and neglecting the effect of pumping and the pressure drops at various location, what is the incremental heat rate for electric? The following enthalpies have been found: at turbine entrance = 3306.8 kJ/kg, exit = 2700.8 kJ/kg; boiler entrance = 276.23 kJ/kg, exit = 3306.8 kJ/kg) 22,504.23 kJ/kW-hr b. 52,244.32 kJ/kW-hr c. 12,435.72kJ/kW-hr d. 32,234.82 kJ/kW-hr In an open feedwater for a steam power plant, saturated steam at 7 bar is mixed with sub-cooled liquid at 7 bar and 25oC. Just enough steam is supplied to ensure that the mixed steam leaving the heater will be saturated liquid at 7 bar when heater efficiency is 90%. Calculate the mass flow rate of sub cooled liquid if steam flow rate is 0.865 kg/s. (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, @ 7 bar, h g = 2763.5, hf = 697.22; @ 7 bar & 25oC, hf= 105.5) 2.725 b. 2.286 c. 3.356 d. 3.948 A steam plant operates with an initial pressure of 1.7 MPa and 370oC temperature and exhaust to a heating system at 0.17 MPa. The condensate from the heating system is returned to the boiler at 65.5oC and the heating system utilizes from its intended purpose 90% of the energy transferred from the steam it receives. The turbine efficiency is 70%. If the boiler efficiency is 80%, what is the cogeneration efficiency of the system in percent? Neglect pump work. (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @ 1.7 MPa & 370oC; h = 3787.1, s = 7.1081; @ 1.7 MPa, h f= 483.20, hfg= 2216.0, sf= 1.4752, sfg= 5.7062; @ 65oC, h f=274.14) 69 b. 78 c. 91.24 d. 102.10 In a cogeneration plant, steam enters the turbine at 4 MPa and 400oC. One fourth of the steam is extracted from the turbine at 600kPa pressure for process heating. The remaining steam continues to expand to 10 kPa. The extracted steam is then condensed and mixed with feedwater at constant pressure and the mixture is pumped to the boiler pressure of 4 MPa. The mass flow rate of the steam through the boiler is 30 kg/s. Disregarding any pressure drops and heat losses in the piping, and assuming the turbine and pump to be isentropic, how much process heat is required in kW? (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @ 4 MPa & 400oC, h = 3213.6 s = 6.7690; @ 600 kPa, h f= 670.56, hfg= 2086.3, sf= 1.9312, sfg= 4.8288) 1,026.90 b. 2,468.2 c. 3,578.5 d. 15,646.8 A 23.5 kg/s at 5 MPa and 400oC is produced by a steam generator. The feedwater enters economizer at 145 oC and leaves at 205oC. The steam leaves the boiler drum with a quality of 98%. The unit consumes 2.75 kg of coal per second as received having an heating value of 25,102 kJ/kg. What would be the overall efficiency of the unit in percent? (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @ 5 MPa & 400oC, h=3195.7; @ 0 MPa, h f= 1154.23, h fg= 1640.1; @ 205oC , hf= 610.63) 65 b. 78 c. 88 d. 95 A coal-fired power plant has a turbine-generator rated at 1000 MW gross. The plant required about 9% of this power for its internal operations. It uses 9800 tons of coal per day. The coal has a heating value of 6,388.9 kCal/kg, and the steam generator efficiency is 86%. What is the net station efficiency of the plant in percent? 117 30.12 b. 33.07 c. 36.74 d. 40.01 Steam enters the turbine of a cogeneration plant at 7 MPa and 500C. Steam at a flow rate of 7.6 kg/s is extracted from the turbine at 600 kPa pressure for process heating. The remaining steam continues to expand to 10 kPa. The recovered condensates are pumped back to the boiler. The mass flow rate of steam that enters the turbine is 30 kg/s. Calculate the cogeneration efficiency in percent. (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @ 7 MPa & 500C, h = 3410.3 s = 6.7975; @ 600 kPa, h f= 670.56, hfg= 2086.3, sf= 1.9312, sfg= 4.8228; @ 10 kPa, h f= 191.83, h fg= 2392.8, sf= 0.6493, sfg= 7.5009) 50 b. 55 c. 60 d. 65 A 60 MW turbine generator running at 3600 rpm receives steam at 4.0 MPa and 450oC with back pressure of 10 kPa. Engine efficiency is 78% and the combined mechanical and electrical efficiency is 95%. What would be the exhaust enthalpy of the steam in kJ/kg. 2,400.12 kJ/kg b. 20,432.10 kJ/kg c. 28,124.20 kJ/kg d. 30,101.15 kJ/kg Steam enters a throttling calorimeter at a pressure of 1.03 MPa. The calorimeter downstream pressure and temperature are respectively 0.100 MPa and 125oC. What is the percentage moisture of the supply steam? (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kg-K: @1.03 MPa, hfg = 2010.7, hg = 2779.25; @ 0.1 MPa & 125oC, h=2726.6) 1.98 b. 2.62 c.3.15 d. 5.21 Steam expands adiabatically in a turbine from 2 MPa, 400oC to 400 kPa, 250oC. What is the effectiveness of the process in percent assuming an atmospheric temperature of 15oC. Neglect changes in kinetic and potential energy. (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, s, kJ/kgK: @ 2.0 MPa and 400oC; h = 3247.6 s = 7.1271; @ 400 kPa & 250oC, h= 2964.2, s= 7.3789) 79.62 b. 84.52 c. 82.45 d. 74.57 A drum containing steam with 2.5 m in diameter is 7.5 m long. Of the total volume, 1/3 contains saturated steam at 800 kPa and the other 2/3 contains saturated water. If this tank should explode, how much water would evaporate? Consider the process to be of constant enthalpy. (Steam properties h, kJ/kg, v, m3/kg @0.8 MPa, hf = 721.11, hg = 2769.1, vf= 0.0011148, vg=0.2404; @ 0.101325 MPa & 100oC, hf=419.04, hg=2676.1, vf=0.0010435, vg=2769.1) a. 2,123.76 kg b. 2,424.62 kg c. 2,651.24 kg d. 2,948.11 kg A Batangas base industrial company operates a steam power plant with reheat and regeneration. The steam enters a turbine at 300 bar and 900 K and expands to 1 bar. Steam leaves the first stage at 30 bar and part of it entering a closed heater while the rest reheated to 800K. Both section of the turbine have adiabatic efficiency of 93%. A condensate pump exists between the main condenser and the heater. Another pump lies between the heater and condensate outlet line from the heater (condensed extracted steam). Compute for the extracted fraction of the total mass flow to the heater. a. 0.234 b. 0.543 c. 0.765 d. 0.485 BOILER OR STEAM GENERATOR A steam generator is a complex combination of economizer, evaporator(Boiler), superheater, reheater and air pre-heater. In addition it has various auxiliaries, such as stokers, pulverizers, burners, fans, emission control equipment, stack and ash handling equipment. A boiler is that portion in the steam generator where saturated liquid is converted to saturated steam, although it may be difficult to separate it, physically, from the economizer. The term “Boiler” is often used to mean the whole steam generator in the literature, however. Steam generators are classified in different ways. They may, for example, be classified as either (1) Utility or (2) Industrial steam generators. Utility Steam Generators are those used by utilities for electric – power generating plants. Modern utility steam generators essentially are of two basic kinds: (1) the subcritical water-tube drum type and (2) the supercritical once-through type. The supercritical units operate at about 24 Mpa and higher, above the steam critical pressure of 22.11 Mpa. The subcritical drum group usually operate at either 13 Mpa gage or 18 Mpag. The steam capacities of modern utility steam generators are high ranging from 125 to 1250 kg/sec. They power electric power plants with an output ranging from 125 to 1300 Megawatts. Industrial Steam Generators, on the other hand are those used by industrial and institutional concerns and are of many types. These include the water-tube pulverized-coal units similar to those used by utilities. Some are heat recovery types that use the waste heat from other industrial processes. They may be of the fire-tube variety . Industrial steam generators usually do not produced superheated steam. Rather, they usually produced saturated steam, or even only hot water (in which case they should not be called as steam generators). They operate at pressures ranging from a few Mpa to as much as 10.5 Mpag and steam or hot water capacities ranging from a few kg/sec to 125 kg/sec. Fossil-fueled steam generators are more broadly classified [12,13] as those having the following components or characteristics. Fire-tube boilers Water-tube boilers Natural-circulation boilers Controlled-circulation boilers 118 Once-through flow Subcritical pressure Supercritical pressure FIRE-TUBE BOILER Fire tube boilers have been used in various early forms to produce steam for industrial purposes at the upper limits of 1.8 Mpag pressure and 6.3 kg/sec capacity. Although their size has increased, their general design has not change appreciably in the past 25 years. Fire-tube boiler is a special form of the shell-type boiler. A shell-type boiler is a closed, usually cylindrical, vessel or shell that contains water. A portion of the shell such as its underside is simply exposed to heat, such as gases from an externally fired flame. The shell boiler evolve into more modern forms such as the electric boiler, in which heat is supplied by electrodes embedded in the water, or the accumulator, in which heat is supplied by steam from an outside source passing through tubes within the shell. In both cases the shell itself is no longer exposed to heat. The shell boiler evolves into the fire-tube boiler. Hot gases, instead of steam, were now made to pass through the tubes. Because of improved heat transfer the fire-tube boiler is more efficient than the original shell boiler and can reach efficiencies of about 70 percent. The fire tubes were placed in horizontal, vertical or inclined positions. The most common was the horizontal-tube boiler, in which the furnace and grates are located underneath the front end of the shell. The gases pass horizontally along its underside to the rear, reverse direction, and pass through the horizontal tubes to the stack at the front. There are two types of fire-tube boilers: (1) the fir-box and (2) the scotch marine. In the fire-box boiler, the furnace or the fire box, is located within the shell, together with the fire tubes. In the scotch marine boiler, combustion takes place within one or more cylindrical chambers that are usually situated inside and near the bottom of the main shell. The gases leave these chambers at the rear, reverse direction, and return through the fire tubes to the front and out through the stack. Scotch marine boilers are usually specified with liquid or gas fuels. Because boiling occurs in the same compartment where water is, fire-tube boilers are limited to saturated-steam production. They are presently confined to relatively small capacities and low steam pressures, such as supplying steam for space heating and in decreasing numbers, for railroad locomotive service. The largest scotch marine offered in the United States today is rated at 2000 Boiler HP, containing two combustion chambers within a 13-ft diameter, 30-ft long shell. WATER TUBE BOILER Demands for increased capacity and pressure over that economically obtained from the fire-tube unit led to the development of the water-tube boiler. Although available for smaller capacities, the field of the water-tube boiler begins at about 2 kg/sec of steam. The water tube boiler puts the pressure instead in tubes and relatively small diameter drums that are capable of withstanding the extreme pressures of the modern steam generators. In general appearance, the early water-tube boiler looks much like the fire tube-boiler except that the higher pressure water were inside the tubes and the combustion gases were on the outside. The water-tube boiler went through several stages of development. 119 Straight-Tube Boiler: The 1st water-tube boiler was the straight-tube boiler, in which straight tubes, 3 to 4 in OD, inclined at about 15 and staggered with 7 to 8 in spacing, connected two vertical headers. One header was a downcomer, or downtake, which is supplied nearly saturated water to the tubes. The water partially boiled in the tubes. The other header was a riser, or uptake, which received the water-steam mixture. The water density in the downcomer was larger than the two-phase density in the riser, which caused natural circulation in a clockwise direction. As capacity increased, more than one header each and more than one tube “deck” were used. The two-phase mixture went into the upper drum that was arranged either parallel to the tubes (the longitudinal drum) or perpendicular to them (the cross drum). These drums received the feedwater from the last feedwater heater and supplied saturated steam to the super-heater through a steam separator within the drum which separated steam from the bubbling water. The lower end of the downcomer was connected to the mud drum, which collected sediments from the circulating water. A single longitudinal drum, usually 1.2 m in diameter, can allow only a limited number of tubes and hence a limited heating surface. Longitudinal-drum boilers were built with one more or more than one parallel drums, depending upon capacity. They were built with heating surfaces of 93 to 930 m2 and were limited to low pressures of 1.2 Mpa to 2.3 Mpa and steam capacities from 0.63 to 10 kg/sec. Cross-drum boilers, because of geometry, could accommodate many more tubes than longitudinal-drum boilers and were built with heating surfaces of 93 to 2300 m2, pressures of 1.2 Mpa to 10 Mpa, and steam capacities of 0.63 to 63 kg/sec. Baffles were installed across the tubes in both kinds to allow for up to three gas passes to ensure maximum exposure of the tubes to the hot combustion gases and minimal gas dead spots. The Bent-Tube Boiler: There were many versions of the bent-tube boiler. In general, a bent-tube boiler used bent, rather than straight tubes between several drums or drum and headers. The tubes were bent so that they entered and left the drums radially. The number of drums usually varied from two to four. Gas baffles were installed to allow for one or more gas passages. Water-Tube Boilers: Recent Developments The advent of the water-cooled furnace walls, called water walls, eventually led to the integration of furnace, economizer, boiler, superheater, reheater, and air preheater into the modern steam generator. Water-cooling is also used for superheater and economizer compartment walls and various other components, such as screens, dividing walls, etc. The use of a large number of feedwater heaters (up to seven or eight) means a smaller economizer, and the high pressure means a smaller boiler surface because of the latent heat of vaporization decreases rapidly with pressure. Thus, a modern high-pressure steam generator requires more superheating and reheating surface and less boiler surface than older units. Beyond about 10 Mpa, the water tubes represent the entire boiler surface and no other tubes. Water at 230C to 260C from the plant high-pressure feedwater heater enters the economizer and leaves saturated or as a twophase mixture of low quality. It then enters the steam drum at midpoint. Water from the steam drum flows through insulated downcomers, which are situated outside the furnace, to a header. The header connects to the water tubes that line the furnace walls and act as risers. Thw water in the tubes receives heat from the combustion gases and boils further. The density differential between the water inn the downncomer and that in the water tubes helps circulation. Steam is separated from the bubbling water in the drum and goes to the superheater and the high pressure section of the turbine. The exhaust from the turbine returns to the reheater, after which it goes to the low-pressure section of the turbine. Atmospheric air from a FD fan is preheated by the flue gases just before they exhausted to the atmosphere. From there it flows into the furnace, where it mixes with the fuel and burn to some 1650C. The combustion gases impart portion of some of their energy to the water tubes and then the superheater, reheater, and economizer, and leave latter at about 320C. From there they reheat the incoming atmospheric air in the air preheater, leaving it about 150C. An ID fan draws the flue gases from the system and sends them up the stack. The temperature of about 150C of the exiting flue gases represents an availability loss to the plant. This, however, is deem acceptable because (1) the gas temperature should be kept well above the dew point of the water vapor in the gases to prevent condensation which should form acids that will corrode metal components in its path and (2) the flue gases must have enough buoyancy to rise in a high plume above the stack for proper atmospheric dispersion. 120 Boiler Walls The water tubes that cool the water walls are closely spaced for maximum heat absorption. Tube construction has varied over the years from bare tubes (a) tangent to or (2) embedded in the refractory, to (c) studded tubes, to the now-common membrane design (d). The membrane design consists of tubes spaced on centers slightly wider than their diameter, connected by bars or membranes welded to the tubes at their centerlines. The membranes acts as fins to increase the heat transfer as well as to afford a continuous rigid and pressure-tight construction for the furnace. No additional inner casing is required to contain the combustion gases. Insulation and metal lagging to protect it are provided on the outer side of the wall. One manufacturer has standardized its design on 3-in diameter tubes on 3.75 in between centers, another on 3 in on 4 1n, and yet a third on 2.75 in on 3.75 in. Radiant Boiler Heat is transferred from the combustion gas to the water walls by both radiation and convection. A radiant boiler, as the name implies, receives most of its heat by radiation. The combustion gases have characteristics that depend upon the fuel used, the combustion process and the air-fuel ratio. They may be luminous, i.e., emit all wavelengths and hence strong visible radiation if there are particulates such as soot particles during the combustion process. This is the case with coal and oil. They may be nonluminous, in which case they burn cleanly without particulates, as in the case of gaseous fuels. No combustion gases are truly nonluminous because the heavier gases in the combustion products, in particular the triatomic CO2 nd H2O, but also SO2, ammonia and sulfur dioxide, are selective radiators that emit (and absorbs) radiation in certain wavelengths, mostly outside the visible range. The portion of radiation within the visible range is small but gives the combustion gases a green-blue appearance. Lighter gases such as monatomic or diatomic gases are poor radiators. The radiant energy emitted by the combustion gases depends upon the gas temperature (to the fourth power), the partial pressure of the individual constituents radiating gases, the shape and size of the gases, their proximity to the absorbing body, and the temperature of that body (to the fourth power). The convective portion of the heat transfer follows the usual Nusselt-Reynolds turbulent forced-convection relationship. It is smaller than the radiant portion because a thick body of gas causes radiation, whereas convection is localized near the tube surface. Heat received by the water walls is conducted through the membranes and tube walls and is then convected to the two-phase mixture inside the tubes by forced convection nucleate-boiling heat transfer. The heat transfer resistance of the latter is much smaller than the others so that it may be neglected in design calculations with little error. Radiant boilers are designed for electric-generating stations to use coal or lignite for pulverized or cyclone furnace applications, oil or natural gas. They are built to supply a wide range of steam pressures and temperatures, but usually around 540C and steam capacities up to 1260 kg/sec. They are limited to subcritical pressures, usually 12.5 Mpag to 17 Mpag. Boiler Auxiliaries and Accessories Superheater – a heat exchanger that is used to increase the temperature of the water vapor greater than the saturation temperature corresponding the boiler pressure. Evaporator – a heat exchanger that changes saturated liquid to saturated vapor. Economizers – is the heat exchanger that raises the temperature of the water leaving the highest pressure feedwater heater to the saturation temperature corresponding to the boiler pressure. Air Preheater – is a heat exchanger use to preheat air that utilizes some of the energy left in the flue gases before exhausting them to the atmosphere. Fans – a mechanical machine that assist to push the air in, pull the gas out or both. Stoker – combustion equipment for firing solid fuels (used in water tube boilers) Burners – combustion equipment for firing liquid and gaseous fuels. Feedwater pump – a pump that delivers water into the boiler. Pressure Gauge – indicates the pressure of steam in the boiler. Safety Valve – A safety device which automatically releases the steam in case of over pressure. Temperature Gauge – indicates the temperature of steam in the boiler. Fusible Plug – a metal plug with a definite melting point through which the steam is released in case of excessive temperature which is usually caused by low water level. Water Walls – water tubes installed in the furnace to protect the furnace against high temperature and also serve as extension of heat transfer area for the feed-water. Gage Glass (Water column) – indicates the water level existing in the boiler. Baffles – direct the flow of the hot gases to effect efficient heat transfer between the hot gases and the heated water. Furnace – encloses the combustion equipment so that the heat generated will be utilized effectively. Soot blower – device which uses steam or compressed air to remove the soot that has accumulated in the boiler tubes and drums. Blowdown Valve – valve through which the impurities that settle in the mud drum are remove. Sometimes called blow 0ff valve. Breeching – the duct that connects the boiler and the chimney. Chimney or Smokestack – a structure usually built of steel or concrete that is used to dispose the exhaust gases at suitable height to avoid pollution in the vicinity of the plant. 121 BOILER PERFORMANCE 1.Heat Generated by Fuel Q S m f ( HHV ) KJ HR Where: mf – fuel consumption, kg/hr HHV – higher heating value of fuel KJ/kg 2. Rated Boiler Horsepower(R.BHp) For Water Tube Type R.BHp HS 0.91 For Fire Tube Type HS R.BHp 1.1 Where: HS – required heating surface, m2 3. Developed Boiler Horsepower (D.BHp) m (h h f ) D.BHp s s 15.65(2257) m (h h f ) D.BHp s s 35,322 One Boiler Horsepower is equivalent to the generation of 15.65 kg/hr of steam from water at 100C to saturated steam at 100C. The latent heat of vaporization of water at 100C was taken at 2257 KJ/kg. 4. Percentage Rating %R D.BHp x 100% R.BHp 5. ASME Evaporation Units ASME Evap. Units ms (h s h f ) 6.Factor of Evaporation (FE) (h h f ) FE s 2257 7. Boiler Efficiency m (h h f ) ηBoiler s s x 100% mF (HHV ) 8. Net Boiler Efficiency m (h h f ) Auxiliarie s ηNet s s x 100% mF (HHV ) 9. Actual Specific Evaporation m kg of steam Actual Sp. Evap. s m F kg of fuel 10. Equivalent Evaporation Equiv . Evap. m s (FE) 11. Equivalent Specific Evaporation Equiv . Sp. Evap. ms (FE) mF 122 Economizer, Evaporator, Superheater, Reheater and Air Pre–Heater of a thermal Power Plant T d b ts c a QS QE QEv S a - subcooledliquid b - saturated liquid c - saturated vapor d - superheated vapor QE - heat required by the economizer QEv - heat required by the evaporator Qs - heat required by the superheater For Shell and Tube type Heat Exchanger Q F(UA)(LMTD ) LMTD θ 2 - θ1 θ ln 2 θ1 where Q - Total heat Transfer, KW F - Correction Factor for complex design U - Overall Coefficien t of heat trans fer, KW m2 - K or KW m 2 - C A - total heat trans fer surface area, m 2 (LMTD) - Log Mean Temperatur e Difference , C or K θ - Terminal Temperatur e Difference A πDL(N t ) For U based on Outside surface A πdL (N t ) For U based on inside surface N t - number of tubes per Pass L - length of tubes for single pass For multiple tube passes L Number of passes Total Number of tubes is N t ( Number of passes) Tube length is Actual tube length L' Tube Length 2t where t tube sheet thic kness Volume Flow rate of Tube Fluid π 2 d (Velocity )( N t ) 4 Mass flow rate of tube fluid in kg/sec m 3 QV sec Density of tube fluid in kg/m 3 QV 123 Economizer Q E mg (Cpg )( t g1 t g 2 ) ms (h c h b ) F( UA )( LMTD ) mg mass flow rate of flue gas, kg/sec ms - mass flow rate of feed water or steam produced, kg/sec Cpg specific heat of flue gas, KJ KJ or kg - C kg - K θ 2 ( t g1 t a ) θ1 ( t g2 t b ) θ 2 ( t g1 t b) θ1 ( t g 2 t a ) LMTD θ 2 θ1 θ ln 2 θ1 Evaporator (Boiler) QEv mg (Cpg )( t g 2 t g 3 ) ms (h b h a ) F( UA )( LMTD ) mg mass flow rate of flue gas, kg/sec ms - mass flow rate of feed water or steam produced, kg/sec Cpg specific heat of flue gas, KJ KJ or kg - C kg - K θ 2 ( t g 2 t sat ) θ1 ( t g 3 t sat ) 124 Superheater QS m g (C pg )( t g 3 t g 4 ) m s (h d h c ) F( UA )(LMTD ) QS m s (C psteam)( t d t sat ) m g mass flow rate of flue gas, kg/sec m s - mass flow rate of feed water or steam produced, kg/sec C pg specific heat of flue gas, C psteam 1.86 KJ KJ or kg - C kg - K KJ KJ or kg - C kg - K θ 2 (t g3 t c ) θ1 ( t g 4 t d ) θ 2 (t g3 t d ) θ1 ( t g 4 t c ) LMTD θ 2 θ1 θ ln 2 θ1 Re - Heater Hot Fluid – Flue Gas Cold fluid – Reheated Steam 125 Air Preheater Hot Fluid – Flue Gas Cold fluid – Combustion Air 126 127 BOILER HEAT BALANCE Energy supplied to the boiler by 1 kg of fuel is distributed among the following items in the ASME short-form heat balance, all expressed in units of KJ/kg of fuel. 128 129 GEOTHERMAL POWER PLANT Geothermal energy is the power obtained by using heat from the Earth's interior. Most geothermal resources are in regions of active volcanism. Hot springs, geysers, pools of boiling mud, and fumaroles (vents of volcanic gases and heated groundwater) are the most easily exploited sources of such energy The most useful geothermal resources are hot water and steam trapped in subsurface formations or reservoirs and having temperatures ranging from 176° to 662° F (80° to 350° C). Water and steam hotter than 356° F (180° C) are the most easily exploited for electric-power generation and are utilized by most existing geothermal power plants. In these plants hot underground water is drilled from wells and passes through a separator-collector where the hot water is flashed to steam, which is then used to drive a steam turbine whose mechanical energy is then converted to electricity by a generator. 130 IDEAL TURBINE WORK Wt = ms(h1 – h2) KW ACTUAL TURBINE WORK Wt’ = Tms(h1 – h2) KW GENERATOR POWER OUTPUT W0 = GTms(h1 – h2) KW 131 where ms – steam flow rate in kg/sec T - turbine efficiency G – generator efficiency o– underground water H – well head condition 1 – saturated vapor condition leaving flasher – separator B – saturated liquid condition leaving flasher – separator 2 – turbine exhaust 3 – saturated liquid leaving condenser DRY STEAM POWER PLANT (Vapour Dominated System) 132 FLASH STEAM GEOTHERMAL POWER PLANT (Liquid Domain System) 133 134 Example A geothermal power plant has an output of 16,000 KW and mechanical - electrical efficiency of 80%. The pressurized groundwater at 17.0 MPa, 280C leaves the well to enter the flash chamber maintained at 1.4 MPa. the flash vapor passes through the separator - collector to enter the turbine as saturated vapor at 1.4 MPa. the turbine exhaust at 0.1 MPa. The unflashed water runs to waste. If one well discharges 195,000 kg/hr of hot water, how many wells are required. ( 4 wells) From Steam Table At 17,000 KPa and 280C ho = 1231.7 KJ/kg At 1400 KPa Saturated Vapor h1 = 2786.4 KJ/kg ; S1 = 6.4642 KJ/kg-K At S1 = S2 to 100 KPa h2 = 2341.1 KJ/kg At 1400 KPa saturated Liquid hB = 829.6 KJ/kg W0 0.80m s (h1 h 2 ) 16000 m s (0.80)(2786.4 2341.1) m s 45 kg/sec By mass and energy balance on the flasher - collector mo ms m B m B m o m s eq. 1 m o h o m s h1 (m o - m s )h B mo m s (h1 h B ) 219 kg/sec 788,400 kg/hr ho hB) N wells 788,400 4 wells 195,000 HYDRO ELECTRIC POWER PLANT A. IMPULSE TYPE (Pelton type) headwater Dam or Reservoir Penstock Y - Gross head Turbine tailwater 135 B. REACTION TYPE (Francis Type) h Y HL PA VA2 ZA γ 2g Q V A π A D2 4 h D - penstock diameter, m Y - Gross head, m VB - velocity at inlet, m/sec A - area of penstock, m2 HL - head loss, m ZA - turbine setting above tail - water level, m PUMP STORAGE HYDRO-ELECTRIC PLANT 136 How turbines work The rotor is the rotating part of a turbine. In a simple turbine, it consists of a disc or wheel mounted on an axle. The axle sits either horizontally or vertically. The wheel has curved blades or buckets around the edges. Nozzles or movable gates called guide vanes aim the fluid at the blades or buckets and adjust its speed. In many turbines, a casing encloses the rotor. The casing holds the fluid against the rotor so that none of the fluid's energy is lost. As a fluid passes through a turbine, it hits or pushes against the blades or buckets and causes the wheel to turn. When the wheel rotates, the axle turns with it. The axle is connected directly or through a series of gears to an electric generator, air compressor, or other machine. Thus, the circular motion of the spinning rotor drives a machine. The rotors of some turbines have only one wheel. However, the rotors of others have as many as 50 or more. Multiple wheels increase the efficiency of turbines, because each wheel extracts additional energy from the moving fluid. In a turbine with more than one wheel, the wheels are mounted on a common axle, one behind the other. A stationary ring of curved blades is attached to the inside of the casing in front of each wheel. These stationary blades direct the flow of the fluid toward the wheels. A wheel and a set of stationary blades is called a stage. Multistage turbines are those that have many stages. Kinds of turbines Turbines are sometimes classified according to their principle of operation. All turbines operate by impulse or reaction, or by a combination of these principles. In an impulse turbine, the force of a fast-moving fluid striking the blades makes the rotor spin. In a reaction turbine, the rotor turns primarily as a result of the weight or pressure of a fluid on the blades. Turbines are more commonly classified by the type of fluid that turns them. According to this method, there are four main kinds of turbines: (1) water turbines, (2) steam turbines, (3) gas turbines, and (4) wind turbines. Water turbines are also called hydraulic turbines. Most water turbines are driven by water from waterfalls or by water that is stored behind dams. The turbines are used primarily to power electric generators at hydroelectric power plants. There are three main kinds of water turbines: (1) the Pelton wheel, (2) the Francis turbine, and (3) the Kaplan turbine. The type of water turbine used at a plant depends on the head available. A head is the distance the water falls before it strikes the turbine. Heads range from about 2.5 meters to more than 300 meters. The Pelton wheel is an impulse turbine. It is used with heads of more than 300 meters. A Pelton's rotor consists of a single wheel mounted on a horizontal axle. The wheel has cup-shaped buckets around its perimeter. Water from a lake or reservoir drops toward the turbine through a long pipe called a penstock. One to six nozzles at the end of the penstock increase the water's velocity and aim the water toward the buckets. The force of these high-speed jets of water against the buckets turns the wheel. The Francis turbine is used when the head is between about 30 meters and 300 meters. A Francis turbine's rotor is enclosed in a casing. Its wheel has as many as 24 curved blades. Its axle is vertical. The wheel of a Francis turbine operates underwater. It is encircled by a ring of guide vanes, which can be opened or closed to control the amount of water flowing past the wheel. The spaces between the vanes act as nozzles to direct the water toward the center of the wheel. The rotor is turned chiefly by the weight or pressure of the flowing water. The Kaplan turbine is used for heads of less than 30 meters. The Kaplan rotor resembles a ship's propeller. It has from three to eight blades on a vertical axle. It works in a manner similar to that of a Francis turbine. Both the Kaplan turbine and the Francis turbine are reaction turbines. FUNDAMENTAL EQUATIONS 1. Total dynamic head or Net effective head a. For an Impulse type h = Y - HL Y - Gross head at plant Gross head - difference in elevation between head water level and tail water level. b. For a Reaction type h Y HL PA VA2 ZA γ 2g Q V A π A D2 4 h where: PB - pressure at turbine inlet in KPa VB - velocity of water at penstock, m/sec 2. Discharge or Rate of Flow (Q) Q = AV m3/sec A π 2 D 4 where: D - diameter of penstock 137 3. Water Power (WP) WP = Qh 4. Brake Power (BP) BP KW 2πTN KW 60,000 where: T - brake torque N-m N - no. of RPM 5. Head loss HL fLV 2 meters 2gD f - Moody friction factor L - length of penstock 6. Turbine Efficiency (e) e = ehemev e = BP x 100% WP where: eh - hydraulic efficiency em - mechanical efficiency ev - volumetric efficiency 7. Generator Efficiency (g) g = GP x 100% BP where: GP - electrical output of the generator, KW 8. Rotative Speed (N) N 120f RPM n where: n - number of generator poles (usually divisible by 4) 9. Turbine Specific Speed Ns N BP RPM 5 3.813h 4 10. Wheel Diameter D 60φ 2gh meters πN where φ peripheral velocity factor TERMS AND DEFINITION Reservoir - stores the water coming from the upper river or waterfalls. Headwater - the water in the reservoir or upper pool. Spillway - a weir in the reservoir which discharges excess water so that the head of the plant will be maintained. Dam - the concrete structure that encloses the reservoir to impound water. Silt Sluice - a chamber which collects the mud and through which the mud is discharged. Trash Rack - a screen which prevents the leaves, branches and other water contaminants to enter into the penstock. Valve - opens or closes the entrance of the water into the penstock. Surge Chamber - a standpipe connected to the atmosphere and attached to the penstock so that the water will be at atmospheric pressure. Penstock - a channel or a large pipe that conducts the water from the reservoir to the turbine. Turbine - a device or a machine that converts the energy of the water to mechanical energy. 138 Generator - a device or a machine that converts mechanical energy of the turbine into electrical energy. Draft Tube - a pipe that conducts the water from the turbine to the tailrace so that the turbine can be set above the tail water level. Tailrace - is the canal that is used to carry the water away from the plant. Undershot wheel - water enters at the bottom of the wheel tangential to its periphery and impinges on the buckets or vanes. Breast shot wheel - a wheel used for heads up to 16 ft, where water enters between the bottom and top of the wheel at an angle and is prevented from leaving the wheel by a breast wall on the side of the wheel. Over shot wheel - a wheel used for high heads, where water enters the wheel at the top by being discharged from a flume. Gross head - is the difference between the headwater and tail water elevation. Spiral case - it conducts the water around a reaction type turbine. SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A pelton type turbine was installed 30 m below the head gate of the penstock. The head loss due to friction is 15% of the given elevation. The length of the penstock is 80 m and the coefficient of friction is 0.00093. Determine a) the diameter of the penstock in mm. (421.6 mm) b) the power output in KW (781.234 KW) 2. What power in KW can be developed by the impulse turbine shown if the turbine efficiency is 85%. Assume that the resistance coefficient f of the penstock is 0.015 and the head loss in the nozzle itself is negligible. What will be the speed of the wheel , assuming ideal conditions where VJET = 2VBUCKET and what torque will be exerted on the turbine shaft. 3. A hydroelectric plant has a 20 MW generator with an efficiency of 96%. The generator is directly coupled to a vertical Francis type hydraulic turbine having an efficiency of 80%.The total gross head of the turbine is 150 m while the loss of head due to friction at the penstock up to the turbine inlet flange is 4% of gross head. the runaway speed is not to exceed 750 RPM, determine: a) Brake horsepower rating of the turbine (27 927 hp) b) the flow of water through the turbine in cfs (650.53 cfs) c) check if the specific speed falls under that of Francis type turbine. (Ns = 29) d) the rated speed of the turbine (N = 400 RPM) 4. A Francis turbine is installed with a vertical draft tube. The pressure gauge located at the penstock leading to the turbine casing reads 372.6 KPa and velocity of water at inlet is 6 m/sec. The discharge is 2.5 m 3/sec. The hydraulic efficiency is 85%, and the overall efficiency is 82%. The top of the draft tube is 1.5 m below the centerline of the spiral casing, while the tailrace level is 2.5 m from the top of the draft tube. There is no velocity of whirl at the top or bottom of the draft tube and leakage losses are negligible. Calculate, a) the net effective head in meters (43.817 m) b) the brake power in kw. (881.2 kw) c) the plant output for a generator efficiency of 92%. (810.7 kw) d) the mechanical efficiency (96.550) 5. A hydroelectric power plant using a Francis type turbine has the following data: Headwater elevation - 190 m Tailwater elevation - 50 m Head loss due to friction - 3.5% of gross head Turbine discharge at full gate opening - 6 m3/sec Turbine – Generator Speed – 600 RPM Turbine efficiency at rated capacity - 90% Turbine is to be direct connected to a 60 hertz a-c generator Determine: a) the brake power in kw (7156.8 kw) b) the number of generator poles (12 poles) c) the electrical power output of the generator if the efficiency is 94% (6727.4 kw) d) the torque developed in N-m (102 925.31 N-m) e) the approximate length of the penstock, if the diameter is 1.5 m and friction factor f is 0.018. (693 m) 6. The flow of a river is 21.25 m3/sec and the head on the site is 30.5 m. It is proposed to developed the maximum capacity at the site with the installation of two turbines, one of which is twice the capacity of the other. The efficiency of both units is assumed to be 85%. Determine: a) Rotative speed of each unit in rpm if the specific of both is 70 rpm. b) Brake power of each unit in kw. c) Number of poles of the generator for 60 cycle current 139 7. The flow of a river is 21 m3/sec and the head at the power site is 24.4 m (80 ft). It is proposed to developed this site with an installation of 3-turbines, 2 similar units and another of half their size, all having the same efficiency of 85%. Find the rotative speed of all these units. (348 rpm; 492 rpm) Ns at 80 ft head = 70 rpm 8. A hydroelectric power plant discharging water at the rate of 0.75 m3/sec and entering the turbine at 0.35 m/sec with a pressure of 275 KPag has a runner of 55 cm internal diameter. Speed is 514 rpm at 260 BHP. The casing is 2 m above the tailwater level. Calculate: a) the net effective head in m (30.039 m) b) the peripheral coefficient (0.61) c) the efficiency (87.8%) 9. A Mindanao province where a mini-hydroelectric plant is to be constructed has an average annual rainfall of 139 cm. The catchment's area is 206 km2 with an available head of 23 m.Only 82% of the rainfall can be collected and 75% of the impounded water is available for power. Hydraulic friction loss is 6%, turbine efficiency is 78% and generator efficiency is 93%. Determine the average kw power that could be generated for continuous operation. POWER = 1.39(206)(1000)2(0.82)(0.75)(9.81)(23)(1-.06)(0.78)(0.93) 8760(3600) = 859 kw 10. A Mindanao province where a hydroelectric power station is to be constructed has an average annual rainfall of 1.93 m. The catchment's area 260 km 2 with an available head of 32 m. Only 82% of the rainfall can be collected and 5/8 of the impounded water is available for power.The load factor of the station is 80%, the penstock efficiency is 94%, turbine efficiency 78% and the generator efficiency is 88%. a) Calculate the average power that could be generated b) Calculate the installed capacity of the station c) Assuming no standby unit, give the possible number and size of the units Average power = load factor(peak power) 11. The difference in elevation between the surfaces of water in the storage reservoir and the intake to a turbine was 40.4 m. During a test the pressure head at the later point was 38.6 m and the discharge was1.25 m/sec. The inside diameter of the penstock is762 mm. a) What is the efficiency of the pipeline b) What was the power delivered to the turbine in KW 12. The difference in elevation between the source of the water supply and the centerline at the base of the nozzle of a pelton wheel is 373 m. During a test the pressure at the end of the nozzle was 3,520 KPa when the flow was 1.3 m3/sec. Inside diameter of the penstock is 762 mm. Compute: a) What power at the base of the nozzle. b) Shaft power developed by the pelton wheel if efficiency is 80%. 13. In a hydroelectric power plant, the head water surface on the dam is at elevation 75.4 m while the water surface just at the outlet of the head gate is at elevation 70.4 m. The head gate has 5 gates of 1 m x 1 m leading to the penstock and are fully opened. Turbine is 122 m below the entrance of the penstock with an efficiency of 90%. Assuming 60% as coefficient of discharge, and Generator efficiency of 87% ,determine the Megawatt output of electrical power produced by the plant. 140 14. A hydro - storage plant has a 20,000 KW rated capacity, with a utilization factor of 76%. For a 1 1/2 hour peak, determine the hydraulic impoundment in cubic meters of water required with friction factor loss of 6%. Dam elevation at 40 m and hydraulic turbine elevation of 14 m and tailrace at elevation of 7 m. Generator efficiency is 92% and turbine efficiency of 85%, evaporation factor of 20%. If the water is pumped from the lower reservoir with friction factor of 8%, pump efficiency of 76% and motor efficiency of 85%. a) How many KW-hr of power is required to pump the water required to carry the peak b) What is the overall thermal efficiency of the hydro plant. 15. A remote community in the mountain province plans to put up a small hydroelectric plant to service six closely located barangays estimated to consume 52,650,000 KW-hrs per annum. Expected flow of water is 28 m3/sec. The most favorable location for the plant fixes the tail water level at 480 m. The manufacturer of the turbine generator set have indicated the following performance data: Turbine efficiency - 87& Generator Efficiency - 92% Loss in headwork will not exceed 3.8% of the available head In order to pinpoint the most suitable area for the dam, determine a. Headwater elevation b. Type of turbine to be used c. Synchronous speed of generator if number of poles is 6, and frequency is 60 hertz. 16. A proposed hydro electric power plant has the following data: Elevation of normal headwater surface - 194 m Elevation of normal tailwater surface - 60 m Loss of head due to friction - 6.5 m Turbine discharge at full gate opening - 5 m3/sec Turbine efficiency at rated capacity - 90% Turbine is direct connected to a 60 cycle AC generator Required: a. What type of hydraulic turbine would you specify? (Francis) b. Find the Brake Power of the turbine in KW (5628.5 KW) c. Find the number of poles of the generator if Ns = 33 RPM (10 poles) d. Find the KW output of the direct-connected generator if the efficiency is 94% (5,291 KW) 17. The flow of a river of 22 m3/sec produces a total brake power of 5400 KW. It is proposed to install two turbines one of which is twice the capacity of the other. The efficiency and specific speed of both units are assumed to be 85% and 70 RPM, respectively. Determine a. Head in meters (30.5 m) b. Rotative speed of each unit (450 RPM; 320 RPM) c. Number of poles of generator if f = 60 Hz. (16 Poles ; 24 Poles) 18. At a proposed hydro-electric power plant site, the average elevation of the headwater is 600 m, the tailwater elevation is 480 m. Average annual water flow is determined to be equal to that volume flowing through a rectangular channel 4 m wide and0.5 m deep and average velocity of 5.5 m/sec. Assuming that the plant will operate 350 days per year, find the annual energy in KW-HR that the power site can develop if the hydraulic turbine that will be used has an efficiency 80% and generator efficiency of 92%. Consider a headwork loss of 4% of the available head. (76,854,851 KW-hr) I A Francis turbine is installed with a vertical draft tube. The pressure gauge located at the penstock leading to the turbine casing reads 372.6 KPa and velocity of water at inlet is 6 m/sec. The discharge is 2.5 m 3/sec. The hydraulic efficiency is 85%, and the overall efficiency is 82%. The top of the draft tube is 1.5 m below the centerline of the spiral casing, while the tailrace level is 2.5 m from the top of the draft tube. There is no velocity of whirl at the top or bottom of the draft tube and leakage losses are negligible. Calculate, a) the net effective head in meters b) the brake power in KW c) the plant output for a generator efficiency of 92%. d) the mechanical efficiency II The discharge gauge of a centrifugal pump handling potable water for a class A subdivision reads 175 KPa, while the suction gauge indicates a vacuum of 305 mm Hg. The discharge pressure gauge is 10 m above the pump centerline and the point of attachment of the suction gauge is 3 m below the centerline. The diameters of the suction and discharge pipes are 76 mm and 63.5 mm, respectively. Assuming a head loss of 6 m, and a pump-motor efficiency of 75, Calculate the power required if the flow is 12.5 L/sec of water. ( = 9.81 KN/m3) 141 DIESEL POWER PLANT Diesel engine is a type of internal combustion engine that uses low grade fuel oil and which burns this fuel inside the cylinder by heat of compression. It is used chiefly for heavy-duty work. Diesel engines drive huge freight trucks, large buses, tractors, and heavy road-building equipment. They are also used to power submarines and ships, and the generators of electric-power stations in small cities. Some motor cars are powered by diesel engines. Gasoline engine - is a type of internal combustion engine, which uses high grade of oil. It uses electricity and spark plugs to ignite the fuel in the engine's cylinders. Kinds of diesel engines. There are two main types of diesel engines. They differ according to the number of piston strokes required to complete a cycle of air compression, exhaust, and intake of fresh air. A stroke is an up or down movement of a piston. These engines are (1) the four-stroke cycle engine and (2) the two-stroke cycle engine. Four Stroke Cycle Engine 1. Intake Compression Power Exhaust Intake 2. Compression 3. Power 4. Exhaust In a four-stroke engine, each piston moves down, up, down, and up to complete a cycle. The first down stroke draws air into the cylinder. The first upstroke compresses the air. The second down stroke is the power stroke. The second upstroke exhausts the gases produced by combustion. A four-stroke engine requires exhaust and air-intake valves. It completes one cycle in two revolutions of the crankshaft. Two Stroke Cycle Engine Intake-compression Power-Exhaust 1. Intake-Compression stroke 2. Power-exhaust stroke Intake port Exhaust port In a two-stroke engine, the exhaust and intake of fresh air occur through openings in the cylinder near the end of the down stroke, or power stroke. The one upstroke is the compression stroke. A two-stroke engine does not need valves. These engines have twice as many power strokes per cycle as four-stroke engines, and are used where high power is needed in a small engine. It completes one cycle in one revolution of the crankshaft. 142 INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE POWER PLANT Two stroke cycle engine: An engine that completes one cycle in one revolution of the crankshaft. Four stroke cycle engine: An engine that completes one cycle in two revolution of the crankshaft. ENGINE PERFORMANCE HEAT SUPPLIED BY FUEL KJ Qs m F (HV ) hr where: mf - fuel consumption in kg/hr HV - heating value of fuel in KJ/kg INDICATED POWER IP PmiπLD 2 Nn' KW 4(60) where: Pmi - indicated mean effective pressure in KPa L - length of stroke in m D - diameter of bore in m n' - no. of cylinders IP - indicated power in KW N (RPM ) (For 2 Stroke - Single acting) N 2(RPM) (For 2 Stroke - Double acting) (RPM) (For 4 Stroke - Single acting) 2 N (RPM ) (For 4 Stroke - Double acting) N BRAKE POWER IP PmbπLD 2 Nn' KW 4(60) where: Pmb - brake mean effective pressure in KPa N (RPM ) (For 2 Stroke - Single acting) N 2(RPM) (For 2 Stroke - Double acting) (RPM) (For 4 Stroke - Single acting) 2 N (RPM ) (For 4 Stroke - Double acting) N 143 BP 2πTN KW 60,000 where: T - brake torque in N-m N = RPM 4. FRICTION POWER FP IP BP 5. INDICATED MEAN EFFECTIVE PRESSURE AS' Pmi KPa L' where: A - area of indicator card, m2 S - spring scale, KPa/m L' - length of indicator card, m 6. BRAKE TORQUE T (P Tare )R N - m where: P - Gross load on scales, N Tare - tare weight, N R - length of brake arm, m 7. PISTON SPEED m min 8. DISPLACEMENT VOLUME πLD 2 Nn' VD KPa 4(60) IP VD KPa Pmi PS 2LN VD BP KPa Pmb Where N (RPM ) (For 2 Stroke - Single acting) N 2(RPM) (For 2 Stroke - Double acting) (RPM) (For 4 Stroke - Single acting) 2 N (RPM ) (For 4 Stroke - Double acting) N 9. SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION a. Indicated specific fuel consumption m kg mfi f IP KW - hr b. Brake specific fuel consumption m kg mfb f BP KW - hr c. Combined specific fuel consumption m kg mfc f GP KW - hr where: GP - Generator output 144 10. HEAT RATE (HR): Heat supplied divided by the KW produced. a. Indicated heat rate Q KJ HRi s IP KW - hr b. Brake heat rate Q KJ HRb s BP KW - hr c. Combined heat rate Q KJ HRc s GP KW - hr 11. GENERATOR SPEED 120f RPM N n WHERE: n - number of generator poles (usually divisible by 4) 12. MECHANICAL EFFICIENCY BP ηm x 100% IP 13. GENERATOR EFFICIENCY GP ηg x 100% BP 14. Indicated Thermal Efficiency 3600(IP) ei x 100% Qs 15. Brake Thermal Efficiency 3600(BP) eb x 100% Qs 16. Combined Thermal efficiency 3600(GP) ec x 100% Qs 17. Indicated Engine Efficiency e ηi i x 100% e 18. Brake Engine Efficiency e ηb b x 100% e where: e - cycle thermal efficiency 19. Volumetric Efficiency ηv m3 sec x 100% 3 Actual volume of air entering, Displacement Volume, m sec 20. Correction Factor for Nonstandard condition a. Considering temperature and pressure effect B T Ph Ps S h Bh Ts b. Considering temperature effect alone T Ph Ps h T s c. Considering pressure effect alone 145 B Ph Ps S Bh Note: From US Standard atmosphere: 83.312h Bh Bs mm Hg 1000 6.5h Th Ts K 1000 where: B - barometric pressure, mm Hg T - absolute temperature, K h - at elevation h condition s - at sea level condition 21. ENGINE HEAT BALANCE: The total heat supplied to th engine was broken down into four heat items. Q2 Q1 QS engine Q3 Q4 QS = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 Q1 - heat converted to useful work Q2 - heat lost to cooling water Q3 - heat lost to exhaust gases Q4 - heat lost due to friction, radiation and unaccounted for Q1 = 3600(BP) KJ/hr Q2 = mwCpw(two - twi) KJ/hr Q3 = Qa + Qb KJ/hr Qa = mgCpg(t g - ta) KJ/hr Qb = mf(9H2)(2442.7) KJ/hr Q4 = QS - (Q1 + Q2 + Q3) KJ/hr H2 = 0.26 - 0.15S kgH/kgfuel 141.5 S 131.5 API 140 S 130 BeI where: Qa - sensible heat of products of combustion Qb - heat required to evaporate and superheat moisture formed from the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel tg - temperature of flue gas, C ta - temperature of air, C H2 - amount of hydrogen in the fuel kg H/kg fuel 146 TERMS AND DEFINITIONS Diesel engine is a type of internal combustion engine that uses low grade fuel oil and which burns this fuel inside the cylinder by heat of compression. It is used chiefly for heavy-duty work. Diesel engines drive huge freight trucks, large buses, tractors, and heavy road-building equipment. They are also used to power submarines and ships, and the generators of electric-power stations in small cities. Some motor cars are powered by diesel engines. Gasoline engine - is a type of internal combustion engine, which uses high grade of oil. It uses electricity and spark plugs to ignite the fuel in the engine's cylinders. Kinds of diesel engines. There are two main types of diesel engines. They differ according to the number of piston strokes required to complete a cycle of air compression, exhaust, and intake of fresh air. A stroke is an up or down movement of a piston.These engines are (1) the four-stroke cycle engine and (2) the two-stroke cycle engine. Four Stroke Cycle Engine 1. Intake 2. Compression 3. Power 4. Exhaust In a four-stroke engine, each piston moves down, up, down, and up to complete a cycle. The first down stroke draws air into the cylinder. The first upstroke compresses the air. The second down stroke is the power stroke. The second upstroke exhausts the gases produced by combustion. A four-stroke engine requires exhaust and air-intake valves. It completes one cycle in two revolutions of the crankshaft. Two Stroke Cycle Engine 1. Intake-Compression stroke 2. Power-exhaust stroke In a two-stroke engine, the exhaust and intake of fresh air occur through openings in the cylinder near the end of the down stroke, or power stroke. The one upstroke is the compression stroke. A two-stroke engine does not need valves. These engines have twice as many power strokes per cycle as four-stroke engines, and are used where high power is needed in a small engine. It completes one cycle in one revolution of the crankshaft. Governor - is a device used to govern or control the speed of an engine under varying load conditions. Purifier - a device used to purify fuel oil and lube oil. Generator - a device used to convert mechanical energy. Crank scavenging - is one that the crankcase is used as compressor. Thermocouple - is made of rods of different metal that are welded together at one end. Centrifuge - is the purification of oil for separation of water. Unloader - is a device for automatically keeping pressure constant by controlling the suction valve. Planimeter - is a measuring device that traces the area of actual P-V diagram. Tachometer - measures the speed of the engine. Engine indicator - traces the actual P-V diagram. Dynamometer - measures the torque of the engine. Supercharging - admittance into the cylinder of an air charge with density higher than that of the surrounding air. Bridge Gauge - is an instrument used to find the radial position of crankshaft motor shaft. Piston - is made of cast iron or aluminum alloy having a cylinder form. Atomizer - is used to atomize the fuel into tiny spray which completely fill the furnace in the form of hollow cone. Scavenging - is the process of cleaning the engine cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing through it a pressure of m fresh air. Flare back - is due the explosion of a maximum fuel oil vapor and air in the furnace. Single acting engine - is one in which work is done on one side of the piston. Double acting engine - is an engine in which work is done on both sides of the piston. Triple-expansion engine - is a three-cylinder engine in which there are three stages of expansion. The working pressure in power cylinder is from 50 psi to 500 psi. The working temperature in the cylinder is from 800F to 1000F. Air pressure used in air injection fuel system is from 600 psi to 1000 psi. Effect of over lubricating a diesel engine is: Carbonization of oil on valve seats and possible explosive mixture is produced. The average compression ratio of diesel engine is from 14:1 to 16:1. Three types of piston: 1. barrel type 2. trunk type 3. closed head type Three types of cam follower: 1. flat type 2. pivot type 3. roller type 147 Methods of mechanically operated starting valve: 1. the poppet 2. the disc type Three classes of fuel pump: 1. continuous pressure 2. constant stroke c. variable stroke Type of pump used in transferring oil from the storage to the service tanks: 1. rotary pump 2. plunger pump 3. piston pump 4. centrifugal pump Valve that is found in the cylinder head of a 4-stroke cycle engine: 1. fuel valve 2. air starting valve 3. relief valve 4. test valve 5. intake valve 6. exhaust valve Four common type of governors used on a diesel engine: 1. constant speed governor 2. variable speed governor 3. speed limiting governor 4. load limiting governor Kinds of piston rings used in an internal combustion engines: 1. compression ring 2. oil ring 3. firing ring 4. oil scraper ring Reasons of smoky engine: 1. overload 2. injection not working 3. choked exhaust pipe 4. fuel or water and leaky things Methods of reversing diesel engines: 1. sliding camshaft 2. shifting roller c. rotating camshaft 148 Arrangements of cylinders: 1. in-line 2. radial 3. opposed cylinder 4. V 5. opposed piston Position of cylinders: 1. vertical 2. horizontal 3. inclined Methods of starting: 1. manual, crank, rope, and kick 2. electric (battery) 3. compressed air 4. using another engine Applications: 1. automotive 2. marine 3. industrial 4. stationary power 5. locomotive 6. aircraft Types of internal combustion engine: 1. Gasoline engine 2. Diesel engine 3. Kerosene engine 4. Gas engine 5. Oil-diesel engine Methods of ignition: 1. Spark 2. Heat of compression Reasons for supercharging: 1. to reduce the weight to power ratio 2. to compensate the power loss due to high altitude Types of superchargers: 1. engine-driven compressor 2. exhaust-driven compressor 3. separately-driven compressor Auxiliary systems of a diesel engine: 1. Fuel system a. fuel storage tank b. fuel filter c. transfer pump d. day tank e. fuel pump 2. Cooling system a. cooling water pump b. heat exchanger c. surge tank d. cooling tower e. raw water pump 3. Lubricating system: a. lub oil tank b. lub oil pump c. oil filter d. oil cooler e. lubricators 149 4. Intake and exhaust system a. air filter b. intake pipe c. exhaust pipe d. silencer 5. Starting system a. air compressor b. air storage tank Advantages of diesel engine over other internal combustion engines: 1. low fuel cost 2. high efficiency 3. needs no large water supply 4. no long warm-up period 5. simple plant layout Types of scavenging: 1. direct scavenging 2. loop scavenging 3. uniflow scavenging Color of the smoke: 1. efficient combustion - light brown baze 2. insufficient air - black smoke 3. excess air - white smoke Causes of black smoke: 1. fuel valve open too long 2. too low compression pressure 3. carbon in exhaust pipe 4. overload on engine Causes of white smoke: 1. one or more cylinders not getting enough fuel 2. too low compression pressure 3. water inside the cylinder ENGINE FOUNDATION Functions of a Foundation: Support the weight of the engine. Maintain proper alignment with the machinery and Absorb the vibration produced by unbalanced forces created by reciprocating revolving masses. Materials: Mixture: 1 : 2 : 4 1 part Cement 2 parts sand 4 parts broken stone or Gravel For good firm soil, reinforced concrete foundations for large engines may use a leaner mixture down to 1:3:6 Soil Bearing Pressure: The safe loads vary from about 4,890 kg/m2 for alluvial soil or wet clay, to 19,560 kg/m 2 for gravel, coarse sand and dry clay. (12,225 kg/m2 is assumed to be safe load average). In computation 2,406 kg/m2 may be used as weight of concrete. Depth: The foundation depth maybe taken as a good practical rule, to be 3.2 to 4.2 times the engine stroke; the lower factor for wellbalanced multi-cylinder engines and increased factor for engines with fewer cylinders or on less firm soil. Weight: The minimum weight required to absorb vibration could be expressed as a function of the reciprocating masses and the speed of the engine. However, for practical purposes it is simpler to use the empirical formula. 150 Volume: If the weight and speed of the engine is not known, the volume of concrete for the foundation may be estimated from the data in the table. Anchor Bolts: To prevent pulling out of the bolts when the nuts are tightened, the length embedded in concrete should be equal to at least thirty (30) times the bolt diameter. The upper ends are surrounded by a 50 mm or 75 mm sheet metal pipe, 460 mm to 610 mm long to permit them to be bent slightly to fit the holes of the bedplate. FORMULA: WF = e (WE) N Where: WF – weight of foundation in kgs WE – weight of engine in kgs e – empirical coefficient N – engine speed in RPM Values of e Type of Engine Single Acting Single Acting Single Acting Single Acting Single Acting Single Acting Single Acting Double acting Double acting Cylinder Arrangement Vertical Vertical Vertical Vertical Horizontal Horizontal Duplex Horizontal Twin Duplex Horizontal Horizontal Twin Tandem No. of Cylinders 1 2 3 4, 6, 8 1 2 4 1, 2 4 Volume of Concrete Foundation (Cubic Feet per HP) No. of Cylinders 1 2 3 High speed engine 4.0 2.5 2.0 Medium speed engine 5.0 3.1 2.5 Low speed engine 6.0 4.0 3.0 Note: 1 cubic meter (m3) = 35.315 ft3 1 Horsepower = 0.746 KW 4 1.7 2.1 2.6 e 0.15 0.14 0.12 0.11 0.25 0.24 0.23 0.32 0.20 5-8 1.5 1.9 2.3 General Requirements 1. All heavy machinery shall be supported on solid foundation of sufficient mass and base area to prevent or minimize the transmission of objectionable vibration to the building and occupied space and to maintain the supported machine at its proper elevation and alignment. 2. Foundation mass should be from 3 to 5 times the weight of the machinery it is supposed to support. If the unbalanced inertial forces produced by the machine can be calculated, a mass of weight equal to 10 to 20 times the forces should be used to dampen vibration. For stability, the total combined engine, driven equipment and foundation center of gravity must be kept below the foundation’s top. 3. the weight of the machine plus the weight of the foundation should be distributed over a sufficient soil area which is large enough to cause a bearing stress within the safe bearing capacity of the soil with a factor of safety of 5. 4. Foundation should be isolated from floor slabs and building footings by at least 25 mm around its perimeter to eliminate transmission of vibration. Fill opening with water tight-mastic. When installing machinery above grade level of a building, additional stiffness must be provided on its structural members of the building to dampen machine vibration. 5. Foundations are preferably built of concrete in the proportions of one (1) measure of Portland Cement to two (2) measures of sand and four (4) measures of screened crushed stones. The machine should not be placed on thefoundation until ten (10) days have elapsed or operated until another ten (10) days have passed. 151 6. Concrete foundation should have steel bar reinforcements placed both vertically and horizontally, to avoid thermal cracking. Weight of reinforcing steel should be from ½ % to 1 % of the weight of the foundation. 7. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at least three (3) times the diameter of the anchor bolt and a length of at least eighteen (18) times the diameter of the bolt. No foundation bolts shall be less than 12 mm diameter. 8. Machine should be leveled by driving wedges between the machine’s base and concrete foundation and with The aid of a spirit level. Grout all spaces under the machine bed with a thin mixture of one (1) part cement and one part sand. The level wedges should be removed after grout has thoroughly set and fill wedges holes with grout. 152 SAMPLE PROBLEMS No. 1 A 2 - stroke, 4 - cylinders, 38 cm x 53 cm diesel engine is guaranteed to deliver 522 KW at 300 rpm.The fuel rate is 0.26 kg/KW-hr. If the heating value of the fuel is 44,320 KJ/kg Calculate: a) the brake thermal efficiency (32%) b) the brake mean effective pressure (422 KPa) c) suction displacement in m3/min-KW of shaft power (0.15) d) heat supplied to cylinder per Liter of displacement Given: 2-stroke, n’ = 4; D = 0.38 m; L = 0.53 m; BP = 522 KW; N = 300 RPM mFB = 0.26 kg/KW-hr; HV = 44,320 KJ/kg 3600BP 3600BP 3600 a. eb 31.2% . Qs mF (HV) mFB (HV) PmBπLD 2 Nn' 4(60) N RPM (for 2 - stroke, single acting) b. BP PmB 240(BP) 434 KPa πLD 2 Nn' . c. BP PmB (VD ) VD 1(60) m3 0.14 BP PmB min - KW d. QS m (HV ) KJ m FB (BP )( HV )PmB m FB (HV )PmB F KJ/L 1.4 KJ/L VD BP (3600 ) m3 BP (3600 ) (3600 )(1000 ) PmB No. 2 Find the volume in Liters needed for a two weeks supply of 26API fuel oil to operate a 750 KW engine 70 % of the time at full load, 10 % at 3/4 load and idle 20% of the time. Fuel rate is 0.25 kg/KW-hr at full load and 0.24 kg/KW-hr at 3/4 load. Temperature of oil is 21C. T 2weeks(7 days)(24 hours) 336 hrs m F 336(0.70)0.25(750) 0.10(336)(0.75)(750)(0.24) 48,636 kg 141.5 0.898 131.5 26 S @ t 0.898 0.0007(21 15.56) 0.895 S kg kg 0.895 L m3 48,636 VF 54,342 Liters 0.895 ρ 895 No. 3 A diesel power plant is to have 3- supercharged, 7 cylinders, 590 KW, 720 RPM, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine. The full load brake specific fuel consumption is 0.24 kg/KW-hr. Determine the most economical size and dimensions of a day tank you would install to contain enough fuel for the three units to operate for 24 hours. Assume D = 0.75H and fuel oil is at 26API. MF = 3(0.24)(590)(24) = 10,195.2 kg (total mass of fuel consumed) S of fuel at 26API = 0.898; = 898 kg/m3 10,195.2 11.4 m3 (volume of fuel) VF = 898 π 2 V D H 4 D 0.75H H 3 m ; D 2.25 M No.4 It is claimed that 1 KW is developed for each 9200 KJ supplied per hour based on a lower heating value, bya supercharged Dorman diesel engine when operated at a brake mean effective pressure of 900 KPa. The lower heating value of the fuel is 41,900 KJ/kg and the engine is a 4 - stroke cycle with 16 cylinders, 39 cm x 56 cm. If the engine requires 20 kg of combustion air per kg of fuel, Determine: a) the brake specific fuel consumption in kg/KW-hr b) the brake power in KW at N = 360 RPM c) the volumetric efficiency assuming combustion air is at P =101 KPa and T = 298K. a. 153 QS m (HV ) F 9200 9200 9200 m FB 0.22 kg/KW - hr 41,900 BP b. PmBπLD 2 Nn' BP 4(60) RPM N for 4 - stroke single acting 2 BP 2,890 KW c. mF = 0.22(2,890) = 635.8 kg/hr = 0.177 kg/sec ma = 0.177(20) = 3.54 kg/sec mRT V P Va = 3 m3/sec BP VD PmB VD = 3.211 m3/sec Va ev x100% VD ev = 93.5 % No. 5 A single acting, 4-cycle diesel engine uses 11 kg/hr of 24API fuel when running at 420 RPM. Engine specifications: 23 cm x 36 cm. The prony brake used to determine the brake power has 1 m arm and registers on the scale 130 kg gross. If the tare mass is 12 kg, calculate the brake thermal efficiency based on the lower heating value of fuel. T = (P – tare)R = (130 – 12)1 = 118 kg-m (9.81 N/kg) = 1,157.58 N-m 2πTN BP 60,000 BP = 51 KW LHV = 38,105 + 139.6(API) = 41,455.4 KJ/kg 3600BP eB x 100% mF (LHV) eB = 40.3 % SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A 2 - stroke, 4 - cylinders, 38 cm x 53 cm diesel engine is guaranteed to deliver 522 KW at 300 rpm. The fuel rate is 0.26 kg/KW-hr. If the heating value of the fuel is 44,320 KJ/kg Calculate: a) the brake thermal efficiency (32%) b) the brake mean effective pressure (422 KPa) c) suction displacement in m3/min-KW of shaft power (0.15) d) heat supplied to cylinder per Liter of displacement 2. Find the volume in Liters needed for a two weeks supply of 26API fuel oil to operate a 750 KW engine 70 % of the time at full load, 10 % at 3/4 load and idle 20% of the time. Fuel rate is 0.25 kg/KW-hr at full load and 0.24 kg/KW-hr at 3/4 load. Temperature of oil is 21C. 3. A diesel power plant is to have 3- supercharged, 7 cylinders, 590 KW, 720 RPM, 4stroke cycle diesel engine. The full load brake specific fuel consumption is 0.24 kg/KW-hr. Determine the most economical size and dimensions of a day tank you would install to contain enough fuel for the three units to operate for 24 hours. Assume D = 0.75H. 4. It is claimed that 1 KW is developed for each 9200 KJ supplied per hour based on a lower heating value, by a supercharged Dorman diesel engine when operated at a brake mean effective pressure of 900 KPa. The lower heating value of the fuel is 41,900 KJ/kg and the engine is a 4 - stroke cycle with 16 cylinders, 39 cm x 56 cm. If the engine requires 20 kg of combustion air per kg of fuel, Determine: a) the brake specific fuel consumption in kg/KW-hr b) the brake power in KW c) the volumetric efficiency 5. A single acting, 4-cycle diesel engine uses 11 kg/hr of 24API fuel when running at 420 RPM. Engine specifications: 23 cm x 36 cm. The prony brake used to determine the brake power has 1 m arm and registers on the scale 130 kg gross. If the tare mass is 12 kg, calculate the brake thermal efficiency based on the lower 154 heating value of fuel. 6. A 4 cylinders, 4 stroke cycle diesel engine, 30.5 cm x 46 cm, 260 RPM, single acting diesel engine is rated at 200 KW. The fuel rate at rated load is 0.26 kg/KW-hr, and the fuel used has a heating value of 44,000 KJ/kg. Determine a) the brake mean effective pressure b) displacement in m3/min-KW of shaft power c) the brake thermal efficiency 7. A torque of 28 kg-m is developed by a diesel engine when running at 1200 RPM and using 10 kg of fuel per hour. the heating value of the fuel is 44,200 KJ/kg. The engine is 4-stroke cycle and has 4 cylinders and the bore is equal the stroke. The engine takes in 25 kg of air per kg of fuel and the volumetric efficiency is 80%. Calculate the brake thermal efficiency and the bore in cm. 8. Performance values of a 3000 KW Diesel power plant unit are as follows: Fuel rate: 1.5 barrels for 900 KW-hr of 25API fuel Generator Efficiency: 92% Mechanical efficiency: 82% Determine: a) Engine fuel rate in kg/KW-hr b) Engine-Generator fuel rate in kg/KW-hr c) Indicated thermal efficiency d) Brake thermal efficiency e) Overall thermal efficiency 9. A twin tandem, 4-stroke cycle, double acting Blast furnace gas engine is to developed 2700 KW of brake power at 90 RPM. Expected operating data are: PmB = 450 KPa m = 83% b = 65% HHV = 31,700 KJ/m3 L/D = 1.35 r = 7.1 k = 1.32 155 Determine: a) the cylinder dimensions in cm b) fuel consumption in L/hr if the specific gravity of fuel is 0.88. 10. An 8 cylinders,2-stroke cycle, single acting diesel engine rated at 940 KW at standard condition (P = 760 mm Hg; t = 15.56C) is directly coupled to a 24 poles alternator; 3-phase; 60 Hertz. Assuming brake mean effective pressure of 520 KPa; m = 85% & g = 94% a) Find the diameter of the cylinder and the length of stroke of the piston if the average piston speed is 310 m/min. b) What will be the actual thermal efficiency for a combined fuel rate of 0.20 kg of diesel fuel per KW hour with a HV = 46,530 KJ/kg c) What will be the KW output if the above diesel engine is operated in Baguio City whose elevation is 1525 m above sea level and the actual sea level temperature is 29C. 11. A diesel engine under test gave the following performance data; Brake Power - 3360 KW Jacket loss - 23% Mechanical Efficiency - 83% Indicated thermal efficiency - 34% A waste heat recovery boiler recovers 35% of the exhaust loss. If cooling water leaving the engine is at 66C and is used as feedwater to boiler, determine the quantity of 0.14 MPa steam that can be produced in kg/hr. 12. When the pressure is 101.3 KPa and the temperature is 27C, a diesel engine has the full throttle characteristics listed: Brake power - 275 KW Brake specific fuel consumption - 0.25 kg/KW-hr Air - Fuel ratio - 22 Mechanical efficiency - 88% If the engine is operated at a pressure of 84.5 KPa and temperature of 16C, Find: a) Brake power in KW b) Mechanical efficiency c) Brake specific fuel consumption d) air-Fuel ratio 13. A 40 KW blast furnace engine shows by test a gas consumption of 4.2 m 3/KW-hr. Heating value of gas is 33,500 KJ/m3. Mechanical efficiency of the gas engine is 86%, Calculate: a) The brake thermal efficiency b) Indicated thermal efficiency c) Heat rate in KJ/KW-hr d) If the heat rejected to cooling water is 28% of the heat generated in engine cylinder, determine the quantity of cooling water in L/hr to be circulated if the allowable rise in temperature of the cooling water is 10C 14. On the test bed, a 16 cylinders, V type, 4-stroke cycle, turbo charge diesel engine developed 7350 KW at 514 RPM. Heat rejection to lubricating oil was 460 KJ/KW-hr. Specific gravity of lubricating oil was 0.90 and its specific heat was 1.9 KJ/kg-C. Direct connected generator is rated at 9,150 KVA at 80% power factor and efficiency of 95%, Calculate a) Liters of lubricating oil per hour to be circulated through engine if lubricating oil temperature entering engine is 54C and the allowable rise in temperature of oil is 6C. b) Liters of make up new lubricating oil per 24 hours operated at rated load to maintain the level of oil in the sump tank constant if manufacturers guarantees a lubricating oil consumption of 1.36 gram/KW-hr. 15. A diesel generating set has the following specifications: Mitsubishi, 16 cylinders, Model V-280, 4 stroke cycle, supercharge Bore and stroke - 280 mm x 290 mm Brake power and RPM - 225 kw per cylinder at 900 RPM Fuel type and heating value - Bunker C, 10 000 KCal/kg Brake specific fuel consumption - 0.2064 kg/kw-hr If the engine is operating at full load with an ambient room temperature of 32C db and 24 C wb and 760 mm Hg barometric pressure, determine a) the fuel consumption in L/hr (743.04 kg/hr) b) the brake thermal efficiency (42%;39%) c) the amount of cooling water in L/min, if the cooling loss is 30% and the temperature rise of the cooling water is 22 C. (1689 L/min) d) the cubic meter per minute of air entering the engine at ambient conditions if the air-fuel ratio is 22:1 (241 m3/min) at 32 C db and 24 C wb v = 0.885 m3/kg 16. The following data were obtained during a full load test on a 2 cylinder, single acting, 4 stroke cycle diesel engine, 280 mm bore by 381 mm stroke; average RPM, 385; length of prony brake arm, 92 cm; net weight on scales (due to torque), 227 kg; total; fuel used in 15 min. run, 5.2 kg; heating value of fuel oil, 45 400 KJ/kg; Mean effective pressure from indicator cards (average of each cylinder), 620 KPa; Find a) Brake power (82.6 KW b) Brake specific fuel consumption (0.252 kg/KW-hr) c) Brake thermal efficiency (32%) d) Indicated power (93.33 KW) e) Friction Power (10.7 KW) f)Mechanical efficiency (89%) 17. A diesel engine under test gave the following performance data: Brake power - 3357 KW Jacket loss - 23% Mechanical efficiency - 83% Indicated thermal efficiency - 34% A waste heat recovery boiler recovers 35% of the exhaust loss. If cooling water leaving the engine is 66C and used as feed water to boiler, determine the quantity of 34.5 KPa steam that can be produced in kg/hr. m = BP x 100% IP IP = 4044.6 KW ei = 3600(IP)_ x 100% mf(HV) Qs = mf(HV) = 42 825 176 KJ/hr BP = 3600(3357) = 12 085 200 KJ/hr FP = 3600(IP - BP) = 2 475 360 KJ/hr Qc = cooling loss = 0.23Qs = 9 849 791 KJ/hr QG = exhaust gas loss = Qs - (BP + Qc + FP) = 18 414 825 KJ/hr QB = heat absorbed by waste heat recovery boiler QB = 0.35QG = 6 445 189 KJ/hr QB = ms (hs - hf) hs = 2689 KJ/kg hf = 276.23 KJ/kg ms = 2672 kg/hr 18. A spark ignition engine produces 224 KW while using 0.0169 kg/sec of fuel. The fuel has a higher heating value of 44 186 KJ/kg and the engine has a compression ratio of 8:1. The friction power is found to be 22.4 KW. Determine the indicated engine efficiency. (58%) 19. A six cylinder automotive engine with a 9 cm x 9 cm has a fuel consumption of 0.306 kg/KW-hr at 300 RPM. The brake power developed is 86 KW and the indicated power is 105 KW. The thermal efficiency of the ideal cycle is 47%, and the fuel has a heating value of 44 186 KJ/kg. Compute the brake and indicated engine efficiency. (56.6%;69.2%) 20. A 6 cylinder, 4 stroke cycle, single acting, spark ignition engine with a compression ratio of 9.5 is required to develop 67.14 KW with a torque of 194 N-m. Under the conditions the m = 78% and the Pmb = 552 KPa. For the ideal cycle, P1 = 101.35 KPa, t1 = 35C and the hot air standard k = 1.32. If D/L =1.1 and the mfi = 0.353 kg/KW-hr and HV = 43 967 KJ/kg, Determine a) the bore and stroke in cm (10.1 cm; 9.2 cm) b) the indicated thermal efficiency (23.3%) c) the brake engine efficiency ( 34.4%) d) the percentage clearance (11.8%) 21. A 6 cylinder, 700 mm x 900 mm, single acting, 2 stroke cycle diesel engine develops 22.35 KW at 128 RPM. compression ratio is 13, cut off ratio is 2.45 and overall k = 1.33. Suction pressure is 97 KPa, suction temperature 54C. the average Pmi = 620 KPa. The fuel consumed during a 30 minutes test was 286 kg with a LHV = 42 563 KJ/kg. Determine a) the brake thermal efficiency b) the mechanical efficiency c) the indicated power d) the brake engine efficiency 22. A single cylinder,4 stroke, compression ignition oil engine gives 15 KW at 60 RPM and uses fuel having the composition by mass of 84% carbon and 16% hydrogen. The air supply is 100% in excess of that required for perfect combustion. The fuel has a calorific value of 45 000KJ/kg and the brake thermal efficiency is 30%. Find: a) the mass of fuel used per cycle ( 0.0022) b) the actual mass of air taken in per cycle c) the volume of air taken in per cycle at 100 KPa and 15C.Take R = 0.29 KJ/kg-C 1. A 6 cylinder, 4 stroke cycle, single acting, spark ignition engine with a compression ratio of 9.5 is required to develop 67.14 KW with a torque of 194 N-m. Under the conditions the m = 78% and the Pmb = 552 KPa. For the ideal cycle, P1 = 101.35 KPa, t1 = 35C and the hot air standard k = 1.32. If D/L =1.1 and the mfi = 0.353 kg/KW-hr and HV = 43 967 KJ/kg, Determine a) the bore and stroke in cm b) the indicated thermal efficiency c) the brake engine efficiency d) the percentage clearance 2. A spark ignition engine produces 224 KW while using 0.0169 kg/sec of fuel. The fuel has a higher heating value of 44 186 KJ/kg and the engine has a compression ratio of 8:1. The friction power is found to be 22.4 KW. Determine the indicated engine efficiency. (58%) 3. Performance values of a 3000 KW Diesel power plant unit are as follows: Fuel rate: 1.5 barrels for 900 KW-hr of 25API fuel Generator Efficiency: 92% Mechanical efficiency: 82% Determine: a) Engine fuel rate in kg/KW-hr b) Engine-Generator fuel rate in kg/KW-hr c) Indicated thermal efficiency d) Brake thermal efficiency e) Overall thermal efficiency 1. A 40 KW blast furnace engine shows by test a gas consumption of 4.2 m3/KW-hr. Heating value of gas is 33,500 KJ/m3. Mechanical efficiency of the gas engine is 86%, Calculate: a) The brake thermal efficiency b) Indicated thermal efficiency c) Heat rate in KJ/KW-hr 2. An 8 cylinders,2-stroke cycle, single acting diesel engine rated at 940 KW at standard condition (P = 760 mm Hg; t = 15.56C) is directly coupled to a 24 poles alternator; 3-phase; 60 Hertz. Assuming brake mean effective pressure of 520 KPa; m = 85% & g = 94% a) Find the diameter of the cylinder and the length of stroke of the piston if the average piston speed is 310 m/min. b) What will be the actual thermal efficiency for a combined fuel rate of 0.20 kg of diesel fuel per KW hour with a HV = 46,530 KJ/kg 3. A single cylinder,4 stroke, compression ignition oil engine gives 15 KW at 60 RPM and uses fuel having the composition by mass of 84% carbon and 16% hydrogen. The air supply is 100% in excess of that required for perfect combustion. The fuel has a calorific value of 45 000 KJ/kg and the brake thermal efficiency is 30%. Find a) the mass of fuel used per cycle b) the actual mass of air taken in per cycle c) the volume of air taken in per cycle at 100 KPa and 15C. Take R = 0.29 KJ/kg-C PUMPS AND PIPING BERNOULLI’S ENERGY EQUATION From 1st Law (OPEN SYSTEM) (U P KE PE)2 Q W (U P KE PE)1 GENERAL ENERGY EQUATION (P P1 ) v 2 v 1 0 2 ( z 2 z1 ) g 2g 1000 but 2 Q U (P) KE PE W Considering Q 0; U 0 and W 0 0 (P) KE PE g v2 v g( z 2 z1 ) 2(1000) 1000 For one dimensional flow 2 2 1 0 P2 2 P11 2 2 2 2 P1 v 1 P v z1 2 2 z 2 2g 2g 1 2 1 0 (P2 P1 ) v 2 v 1 g( z 2 z1 ) 2(1000) 1000 2 Multiplyin g both sides of the equation by 1000(P2 P1 ) v 2 v 1 ( z 2 z1 ) g 2g 2 0 1000 (P P1 ) v 2 v 1 0 2 ( z 2 z1 ) 2g 1 2 2 2 2 1000 g Bernoulli’s Energy Equation P Pr essure head , meters v2 Velocity head, meters 2g z - Elevation head, meters P - Pressure,KPa v - velocity, m/sec - specific weight, KN/m 3 z elevation, m g - gravitatio nal acceleration, m sec 2 Note z is positive if meassured above datum z is negative if measured below datum Considering Head Loss and W = 0 U Q HL in meters With Energy Head added to the fluid (Work done on the system; let –W = ht in meters) With Energy Head given up by the fluid (Work done on the system; let W = h in meters) APPLICATION OF BERNOULLI’S ENERGY THEOREM Nozzle JET POWER 2 v PJet Q 2 2g If a nozzle makes an angle with the horizontal, v velocity of water at tip of nozzle at 1 to 0 vo 2 v12 - 2gd 0 v12 - 2gd (vsin θ) 2 1 2g v0 v1 gt d v sin θ 2 g at 0 to 2 t d v1t 1 2 gt 2 d 0 1 2 gt 2 d 1 2 gt 2 3 (vsin θ) 2 1 2 2 gt 2g (vsin θ) 2 g2 (vsin θ) t 4 g R v cos θ(2 t ) t2 2(vsin θ)( v cos θ) v 2 (2sin θ cos θ) g g (2sin θ cos θ) sin( 2θ) R R v 2 (sin2 θ) 5 g Venturi Meter Orifice By applying Bernoulli's Energy theorem: 2 2 P1 v 1 P v Z1 2 2 Z2 2g 2g But P1 = P2 = Pa and v1 is negligible, then 2 v2 Z1 Z2 2g and from figure: Z1 - Z2 = h, therefore 2 v2 h 2g v 2 2gh let v2 = vt v t 2gh where: vt - theoretical velocity, m/sec h - head producing the flow, meters g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 COEFFICIENT OF VELOCITY (Cv) actual velocity theoretica l velocity v' Cv vt Cv COEFFICIENT OF CONTRACTION area of jet @ vena contracta area of the orifice a Cc A Cc where: a - area of jet at vena contracta, m2 A - area of the orifice, m2 COEFFICIENT OF DISCHARGE actual flow theoretica l flow Q' Cd Q Cd C v Cc Cd where: v' - actual velocity vt - theoretical velocity a - area of jet at vena contracta A - area of orifice Q' - actual flow Q - theoretical flow Cv - coefficient of velocity Cc - coefficient of contraction Cd - coefficient of discharge Sample Problem no. 1 2 2 P1 v 1 P v z1 2 2 z 2 2g 2g 400 0 0 0 0 z2 400 z2 40.8 m 9.81 Sample Problem no. 2 Sample Problem No. 3 PUMPS By Engr. Yuri G. Melliza Pump is a device that moves or compresses liquids and gases. Pumps are used in a variety of machines and other devices, including home heating systems, refrigerators, oil wells and water wells, and turbojet and car engines. The fluids (gases or liquids) moved by pumps range from air for inflating bicycle tires to liquid sodium and liquid potassium for cooling nuclear reactors. Most pumps are made of steel, but some are made of glass or plastic. Gas pumps are also called compressors, fans, or blowers. Types of Pumps Dynamic Pump: Dynamic pumps maintain a steady flow of fluid. Positive Displacement Pump: Positive displacement pumps, on the other hand, trap individual portions of fluid that are in an enclosed area before moving them along. Dynamic pumps Centrifugal pumps consist of a motor-driven propeller like device, called an impeller, which is contained within a circular housing. The impeller is a wheel of curved blades that rotates on an axis. Before most centrifugal pumps can start pumping liquid, they must be primed (filled with liquid). As the impeller rotates, it creates suction that draws a continuous flow of fluid through an inlet pipe. Fluid enters the pump at the center of the impeller and travels out along the blades due to centrifugal (outward) force. The curved ends of the blades sweep the fluid to an outlet port. Centrifugal pumps are inexpensive and can handle large amounts of fluid. They are widely used in chemical processing plants and oil refineries. Axial-flow pumps have a motor-driven rotor that directs fluid along a path parallel to its axis. The fluid thus travels in a relatively straight path from the inlet pipe through the pump to the outlet pipe. Axial-flow pumps are most often used as compressors in turbojet engines. Centrifugal pumps are also used for this purpose, but axial-flow pumps are more efficient. Axial-flow compressors consist of alternating rows of rotors and stationary blades. The blades and rotors produce a pressure rise in the air as it moves through the axial-flow compressor. Air then leaves the compressor under high pressure. Jet pumps get their name from the way they move fluid. They operate on the principle that a high-velocity fluid will carry along any other fluid it passes through. Most jet pumps send a jet of steam or water through the fluid that needs to be moved. The jet carries the fluid with it directly into the outlet pipe and, at the same time, creates a vacuum that draws more fluid into the pump. The amount of fluid carried out of most jet pumps is several times the amount in the jet itself. Jet pumps can be used to raise water from wells deeper than 60 meters. In such cases, a centrifugal pump at ground level supplies water for a jet at the bottom of the well. The jet carries well water with it back up to ground level. Jet pumps are also used in high vacuum diffusion pumps to create a vacuum in an enclosed area. In high vacuum diffusion pumps, a high-velocity jet of mercury or oil vapor is sent into the enclosed area. The vapor molecules collide with the molecules of air and force them out the outlet port. Electromagnetic pumps are used chiefly to move liquid sodium and liquid potassium, which serve as coolants in nuclear reactors. These pumps consist of electrical conductors and magnetized pipes. The conductors send current through the fluid, which thereby becomes an electromagnet. The fluid is then moved by the magnetic attraction and repulsion (pushing away) between the fluid's magnetic field and that of the pipes. The fluid is therefore moved in an electromagnetic pump in much the same way as an armature is moved in an electric motor. Positive displacement pumps Rotary pumps are the most widely used positive displacement pumps. They are often used to pump such viscous (sticky) liquids as motor oil, syrup, and paint. There are three main types of rotary pumps. These types are: (1) gear pumps, (2) lobe pumps, and (3) sliding vane pumps. Gear pumps consist of two gears that rotate against the walls of a circular housing. The inlet and outlet ports are at opposite sides of the housing, on line with the point where the teeth of the gears are fitted together. Fluid that enters the pump is trapped by the rotating gear teeth, which sweep the fluid along the pump wall to the outlet port. Lobe pumps operate in a manner similar to gear pumps. However, instead of gears, lobe pumps are equipped with impellers that have lobes (rounded projections) fitted together. Lobe pumps can discharge large amounts of fluid at low pressure. Sliding vane pumps consist of a slotted impeller mounted off-center in a circular housing. Sliding vanes (blades) move in and out of the slots. As the vanes rotate by the inlet port, they sweep up fluid and trap it against the pump wall. The distance between the impeller and the pump wall narrows near the outlet port. As the fluid is carried around to this port, the vanes are pushed in and the fluid is compressed. The pressurized fluid then rushes out the outlet port. Reciprocating pumps consist of a piston that moves back and forth within a cylinder. One end of the cylinder has an opening through which the connecting rod of the piston passes. The other end of the cylinder, called the closed end, has an inlet valve or an outlet valve, or both, depending on the type of pump. In some reciprocating pumps, the inlet valve or the outlet valve is on the piston. Common reciprocating pumps include lift pumps, force pumps, and bicycle tire pumps. Lift pumps draw water from wells. In a lift pump, the inlet valve is at the closed end of the cylinder and the outlet valve is on the piston. As the piston is raised, water is drawn up through the inlet valve. As the piston moves down, the inlet valve closes, forcing water through the outlet valve and up above the piston. As the piston is raised again, the outlet valve closes and the water is lifted to an opening, where it leaves the pump. At the same time, more water is drawn through the inlet valve. It is theoretically possible for a lift pump to raise water in a well almost 10 meters. However, because of leakage and resistance, a lift pump cannot raise water that is deeper than about 7.5 meters. Force pumps are similar to lift pumps. However, in force pumps, both the inlet valve and the outlet valve are at the closed end of the cylinder. As the piston moves away from the closed end, fluid enters the cylinder. When the piston moves toward the closed end, the fluid is forced out the outlet valve. Bicycle tire pumps differ in the number and location of the valves they have and in the way air enters the cylinder. Some simple bicycle tire pumps have the inlet valve on the piston and the outlet valve at the closed end of the cylinder. Air enters the pump near the point where the connecting rod passes through the cylinder. As the rod is pulled out, air passes through the piston and fills the areas between the piston and the outlet valve. As the rod is pushed in, the inlet valve closes and the piston forces air through the outlet valve. History Pumping devices have been an important means of moving fluids for thousands of years. The ancient Egyptians used water wheels with buckets mounted on them to move water for irrigation. The buckets scooped water from wells and streams and deposited it in ditches that carried it to fields. In the 200's B.C., Ctesibius, a Greek inventor, made a reciprocating pump for pumping water. About the same time, Archimedes, a Greek mathematician, invented a screw pump that was made up of a screw rotating in a cylinder. This type of pump was used to drain and to irrigate the Nile Valley. True centrifugal pumps were not developed until the late 1600's, when Denis Papin, a French-born inventor, made one with straight vanes. The British inventor John Appold introduced a curved-vane centrifugal pump in 1851. Axial-flow compressors were first used on turbojet engines in the 1940's. CLASSIFICATION OF PUMPS Centrifugal: It consist essentially of an impeller arranged to rotate within a casing so that the liquid will enter at the center or eye of the impeller and be thrown outward by centrifugal force to the outer periphery of the impeller and discharge into the outer case. It operates at high discharge pressure, low head, high speed and they are not self priming. a. Centrifugal b. Mixed Flow 1. single stage 2. multi stage 3. Propeller or axial flow 4. Peripheral Rotary: It is a positive displacement pump consisting of a fixed casing containing gears, cams, screws, vanes, plungers or similar element actuated by the rotation of the drive shaft. A rotary pump traps a quantity of liquid and moves it along toward the discharge point. For a gear type rotary pump the unmeshed gears at the pump provides a space for the liquid to fill as the gears rotate. The liquid trapped between the teeth and the pump casing is eventually released at the discharge line. It operates at low heads, low discharge and is used for pumping viscous liquids like oil. a. cam c. gear b. screw d. vane Reciprocating: It is a positive displacement unit wherein the pumping action is accomplished by the forward and backward movement of a piston or a plunger inside a cylinder usually provided with valves. a. Piston b. Direct Acting 1. single 2. duplex c. Crank and Flywheel d. Plunger e. Power Driven 1. simplex 2. duplex 3. triplex Deepwell pumps: It is used when pumping water from deep wells. The pump is lowered into the well and operated close to water level. They are usually motor driven with the motor being at the ground level and connected to the pump by a long vertical line shaft. a. Turbine b. Ejector or centrifugal c. reciprocating d. Airlift For a final choice of a pump for a particular operation the following data is needed. Number of units required Nature of liquid Capacity Suction conditions Discharge conditions Intermittent or continuous service Total dynamic head Position of pump, vertical or horizontal Location, geographical, indoor, outdoor, elevation Type of power drive Closed Tank Open Tank PUMP FUNDAMENTAL EQUATIONS TOTAL DYNAMIC HEAD 2 2 P P1 v 2 v 1 Ht 2 Z 2 Z 1 HL γ 2g FLUID POWER or WATER POWER meters WP = QHt KW DISCHARGE or CAPACITY Q = Asvs = Advd s – refers to suction d – refers to discharge BRAKE or SHAFT POWER BP 2 πTN KW 60,000 PUMP EFFICIENCY ηP WP x 100% BP MOTOR EFFICIENCY ηm BP x 100% MP COMBINED PUMP-MOTOR EFFICIENCY WP x 100% MP MOTOR POWER ηC ηP ηm ηC For Single Phase Motor MP EI(cosθ) KW 1000 For 3 Phase Motor MP 3 EI(cosθ) KW 1000 where: P - pressure in KPa v - velocity, m/sec T - brake torque, N-m N - no. of RPM - specific weight of liquid, KN/m3 FP - fluid power, KW Z - elevation, meters WP or BP - brake power, KW g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 MP - power input to motor HL - total head loss, meters E - energy, Volts s – suction I - current, amperes d - discharge (cos) - power factor 1 & 2 – Reference Points (@ suction and discharge) Sample Problem no. 1 A pump handles brine having a temperature of 0C and S = 1.2 when the discharge pressure is 173 KPag and the suction gauge indicates a vacuum of 305 mm Hg. The discharge gauge is 61 cm above the pump centerline and the point of attachment of the suction gauge is 25 cm below the pump centerline. Suction and discharge pipes inside diameters are 100 mm and 80 mm respectively. Find the total head of the pump in meters of the fluid handled. If the efficiency of the motor-driven pump is 88%, find the brake power load of the motor when the pump handles 32 L/sec of brine. (8.5 KW) 0.61 m 2 0.25 m Datum line (PCL) PUMP 1 γ 1.2(9.81) 11.772 KN m 3 z1 0.25 m z 2 0.61 m Reference Datum : Pump Centerline 101.325 P1 -305 40.7 KPa 760 P2 173 KPa Q m3 ; Q 0.032 A sec π 2 As (0.100) 0.00785 m 2 4 π Ad (0.08) 2 0.005 m 2 4 m v1 4.08 sec m v 2 6.4 sec v P P v 2 v12 h 2 1 2 z 2 z1 H L L 2g γ 2 2 172 40.7 6.4 4.08 h 0.61 0.25 0 11.772 2(9.81) h 18.07 0.85 0.86 19.78 m Power 0.032(11.772)(19.78) 8.5 KW 0.88 HEAD LOSSES HL = Major loss + Minor losses Major Loss: Head loss due to friction and turbulence in pipes Minor Losses: Minor losses include, losses due to valves and fittings, enlargement, contraction, pipe entrance and pipe exit. Minor losses are most easily obtained in terms of equivalent length of pipe "Le". The advantage of this approach is that both pipe and fittings are expressed in terms of "Equivalent Length" of pipe of the same relative roughness. Considering Major loss only Using the Darcy-Weisbach Equation (Henry Darcy, a French Engineer and Julius Weisbach, a German engineer) hf fLv 2 meters 2gD v2 hf K 2g fL K D Considering Major and Minor losses hf f(L ΣL e )v 2 2gD meters Where; f - friction factor from Moody's Chart L - length of pipe, m Le - equivalent length in straight pipe of valves and fittings, m v - velocity, m/sec D - pipe inside diameter, m g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 REYNOLD'S NUMBER: Reynold's Number is a non dimensional one which combines the physical quantities which describes the flow either Laminar or Turbulent flow. The friction loss in a pipeline is also dependent upon this dimensionless factor. NR where; ρvD vD μ ν μ m2 ν ρ sec - absolute or dynamic viscosity, Pa-sec - kinematic viscosity, m2/sec For a Reynold's Number of less 2100 flow is said to Laminar For a Reynold's Number of greater than 3000 the flow is Turbulent FRICTION FACTOR (Resistance Coefficient) For Laminar Flow f 64 NR For Turbulent Flow Prandtl Equation for smooth pipes for NR > 3000 1 2 log N R f 0.8 f Cyril F. Colebrook Equation (1910 – 1997) 2.51 - 2 log D 3.7 N f f R 0.25 f 2 5 . 74 log D 3.7 N R 0.9 1 5 Q 2.22D 2 gh f m3 1.78ν D log L 3 3.7 sec gh 2 f D L Zigrang-Sylvester Equation (From Fluid Mechanics by F.M. White) 5.02 D 13 4.0 log D log 3.7 N 3.7 N R f R 1 f 5.02 D 13 4.0 log D log 3.7 N R 3.7 N R S. E. Haaland Equation (1983) 1 1.11 6.9 D 1.8 log N R 3.7 f 1 In 1944, Lewis Ferry Moody plotted the Darcy–Weisbach friction factor against Reynolds number NR for various values of relative roughness This chart became commonly known as the Moody Chart or Moody Diagram. D Moody's Chart - absolute roughness D - inside diameter /D - relative roughness Absolute Pipe Roughness () is a measure of pipe wall irregularities of commercial pipes. Other than pipes, absolute roughness is also used for representing the irregularities of other equipment walls, for example, walls of heat exchanger shell. The absolute roughness has dimensions of length and is usually expressed in millimeter (mm). Relative Roughness' or 'Roughness factor of a pipe wall can be defined as the ratio of absolute roughness to the pipe nominal diameter. Relative roughness factor is often used for pressure drop calculations for pipes and other equipment. The relative roughness factor is an important parameter for determining friction factor based on Reynold's number for flow in a pipe. Relative roughness = /D Absolute Roughness is usually defined for a material and can be measured experimentally. Following table gives typical roughness values in millimeters for commonly used piping materials. ABSOLUTE ROUGHNESS () OF PIPE MATERIAL (mm) MATERIAL Aluminum Aluminum, Lead Drawn Brass, Drawn Copper 0.0015 0.001 - 0.002 0.0015 Drawn Tubing, Glass, Plastic 0.0015-0.01 Drawn Brass, Copper, Stainless Steel (New) 0.0015-0.01 Flexible Rubber Tubing - Smooth Flexible Rubber Tubing - Wire Reinforced 0.006-0.07 0.3-4 Wrought Iron (New) 0.045 Carbon Steel (New) 0.02-0.05 Carbon Steel (Slightly Corroded) 0.05-0.15 Carbon Steel (Moderately Corroded) 0.15-1 Carbon Steel (Badly Corroded) 1-3 Carbon Steel (Cement-lined) 1.5 Asphalted Cast Iron 0.1-1 Cast Iron (new) New cast iron 0.25 Cast Iron (old, sandblasted) Fiberglass 1 Worn cast iron 0.8 - 1.5 Corroding cast iron 1.5 - 2.5 Asphalted cast iron 0.012 Sheet Metal Ducts (with smooth joints) 0.02-0.1 Galvanized Iron Galvanized steel 0.025-0.15 Wood Stave 0.18-0.91 Wood Stave, used 0.25-1 Smooth Cement 0.5 Concrete – Very Smooth 0.025-0.2 Concrete – Fine (Floated, Brushed) 0.2-0.8 Concrete – Rough, Form Marks PVC, Plastic Pipes 0.8-3 Galvanized iron 0.015 Riveted Steel Rusted steel 0.91-9.1 Stainless steel 0.015 – 0.03 Steel commercial pipe 0.045 - 0.09 Stretched steel 0.015 Water Mains with Tuberculations Weld steel 1.2 Brickwork, Mature Foul Sewers 3 0.25 - 0.8 0.005 0.15 0.0015 0.15 - 4 0.045 Smoothed cement 0.3 Ordinary concrete 0.3 - 3 Well planed wood 0.18 - 0.9 Ordinary wood 5 PVC 0.0015 PIPE, TUBING AND FITTINGS Nominal Pipe Diameter: Pipe sizes are based on the approximate diameter and are reported as nominal pipe sizes. Regardless of wall thickness, pipes of the same nominal diameter have the same outside diameter. This permits interchange of fittings. Pipe may be manufactured with different and various wall thickness, so some standardization is necessary. A method of identifying pipe sizes has been established by ANSI (American National Standard Institute). By convention, pipe size and fittings are characterized in terms of Nominal Diameter and wall thickness. For steel pipes, nominal diameter is approximately the same as the inside diameter for 12" and smaller. For sizes of 14" and larger, the nominal diameter is exactly the outside diameter. SCHEDULE NUMBER: The wall thickness of pipe is indicated by a schedule number, which is a function of internal pressure and allowable stress. Schedule Number 1000P/S where P - internal working pressure, KPa S - allowable stress, KPa Schedule number in use: 10,20,30, 40,60, 80, 100, 120, 140, and 160. Schedule 40 "Standard Pipe" Schedule 80 " Extra Strong Pipe" TUBINGS: Tubing specifications are based on the actual outside diameter with a designated wall thickness. Conventional systems such as the Birmingham Wire Gauge "BWG" are used to indicate the wall thickness. FITTING: The term fitting refers to a piece of pipe that can: 1. Join two pieces of pipe ex. couplings and unions 2. Change pipeline directions ex. elbows and tees 3. Change pipeline diameters ex. reducers 4. Terminate a pipeline ex. plugs and valves 5. Join two streams to form a third ex. tees, wyes, and crosses 6. Control the flow ex. valves VALVES: A valve is also a fitting, but it has more important uses than simply to connect pipe. Valves are used either to control the flow rate or to shut off the flow of fluid. DESIGN OF A PIPING SYSTEM The engineer should consider the following items when he is developing the design of a piping system. 1. Choice of material and sizes 2. Effects of temperature level and temperature changes. a. insulation b. thermal expansion c. freezing 3. Flexibility of the system for physical and thermal shocks. 4. Adequate support and anchorage 5. Alteration in the system and the service. 6. Maintenance and inspection. 7. Ease of installation 8. Auxiliary and standby pumps and lines 9. Safety a. Design factors b. Relief valves and flare systems TABLE FOR DN and NPS Nominal Pipe Size NPS, Nominal Bore NB, Outside Diameter OD What is a relation between NPS, NB & OD of a pipe? What is NPT & what are its applications? What is a relation between NPS, NB & OD of a pipe? Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) is a North American set of standard sizes for pipes used for high or low pressures and temperatures. Pipe size is specified with two non-dimensional numbers: a nominal pipe size (NPS) for diameter based on inches, and a schedule (Sched. or Sch.) for wall thickness. NPS is often incorrectly called National Pipe Size, due to confusion with national pipe thread (NPT) NB (nominal bore) is the European designation equivalent to NPS is DN (diamètre nominal/nominal diameter/Durchmesser nach Norm), in which sizes are measured in millimeters. NB (nominal bore) is also frequently used interchangeably with NPS. OD is the outside diameter of the pipe and is fixed for a given size. The NPS is very loosely related to the inside diameter in inches, but only for NPS 1/8 to NPS 12. For NPS 14 and larger, the NPS is equal to the outside diameter (OD) in inches. For a given NPS, the OD stays constant and the wall thickness increases with larger SCH. For a given SCH, the OD increases with increasing NPS while the wall thickness increases or stays constant. Pipe sizes are documented by a number of standards, including API 5L, ANSI/ASME B36.10M in the US, BS 1600 and BS EN 10255 in the United Kingdom and Europe, and ISO 65 internationally. For NPS of 5 and larger, the DN is equal to the NPS multiplied by 25 (not 25.4). Table below shows the relation between Nominal pipe size, Nominal diameter & outside diameter for pipes: Nominal NPS [inches] Pipe size Nominal DN [mm] Diameter Outside OD [mm] 1/2 15 21.3 3/4 20 26.7 1 25 33.4 1 1/4 32 42.16 1 1/2 40 48.26 2 50 60.3 2 1/2 65 73.03 3 80 88.9 4 100 114.3 5 125 141.3 6 150 168.28 Diameter 8 200 219.08 10 250 273.05 12 300 323.85 14 350 355.6 16 400 406.4 18 450 457.2 20 500 508 24 600 609.6 28 700 711.2 32 800 812.8 36 900 914.4 40 1000 1016 42 1050 1066.8 44 1100 1117.6 48 1200 1219.2 52 1300 1320.8 56 1400 1422.4 60 1500 1524 64 1600 1625.6 68 1700 1727.2 72 1800 1828.8 76 1900 1930.4 80 2000 2032 88 2200 2235.2 96 2400 2438.4 104 2600 2641.6 112 2800 2844.8 120 3000 3048 128 3200 3251.2 Definition and Details of Nominal Pipe Size NOMINAL PIPE SIZE Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) is a North American set of standard sizes for pipes used for high or low pressures and temperatures. The name NPS is based on the earlier "Iron Pipe Size" (IPS) system. That IPS system was established to designate the pipe size. The size represented the approximate inside diameter of the pipe in inches. An IPS 6" pipe is one whose inside diameter is approximately 6 inches. Users started to call the pipe as 2inch, 4inch, 6inch pipe and so on. To begin, each pipe size was produced to have one thickness, which later was termed as standard (STD) or standard weight (STD.WT.). The outside diameter of the pipe was standardized. As the industrial requirements handling higher pressure fluids, pipes were manufactured with thicker walls, which has become known as an extra strong (XS) or extra heavy (XH). The higher pressure requirements increased further, with thicker wall pipes. Accordingly, pipes were made with double extra strong (XXS) or double extra heavy (XXH) walls, while the standardized outside diameters are unchanged. Note that on this website only terms XS and XXS are used. PIPE SCHEDULE So, at the IPS time only three wall thickness were in use. In March 1927, the American Standards Association surveyed industry and created a system that designated wall thicknesses based on smaller steps between sizes. The designation known as nominal pipe size replaced iron pipe size, and the term schedule (SCH) was invented to specify the nominal wall thickness of pipe. By adding schedule numbers to the IPS standards, today we know a range of wall thicknesses, namely: SCH 5, 5S, 10, 10S, 20, 30, 40, 40S, 60, 80, 80S, 100, 120, 140, 160, STD, XS AND XXS. Nominal pipe size (NPS) is a dimensionless designator of pipe size. It indicates standard pipe size when followed by the specific size designation number without an inch symbol. For example, NPS 6 indicates a pipe whose outside diameter is 168.3 mm. The NPS is very loosely related to the inside diameter in inches, and NPS 12 and smaller pipe has outside diameter greater than the size designator. For NPS 14 and larger, the NPS is equal to 14inch. For a given NPS, the outside diameter stays constant and the wall thickness increases with larger schedule number. The inside diameter will depend upon the pipe wall thickness specified by the schedule number. SUMMARY: Pipe size is specified with two non-dimensional numbers, nominal pipe size (NPS) schedule number (SCH) and the relationship between these numbers determine the inside diameter of a pipe. Stainless Steel Pipe dimensions determined by ASME B36.19 covering the outside diameter and the Schedule wall thickness. Note that stainless wall thicknesses to ASME B36.19 all have an "S" suffix. Sizes without an "S" suffix are to ASME B36.10 which is intended for carbon steel pipes. The International Standards Organization (ISO) also employs a system with a dimensionless designator. Diameter nominal (DN) is used in the metric unit system. It indicates standard pipe size when followed by the specific size designation number without a millimeter symbol. For example, DN 80 is the equivalent designation of NPS 3. Below a table with equivalents for NPS and DN pipe sizes. NPS 1/2 3/4 1 1¼ 1½ 2 2½ 3 3½ 4 DN 15 20 25 32 40 50 65 80 90 100 Note: For NPS ≥ 4, the related DN = 25 multiplied by the NPS number. Do you now what is "ein zweihunderter Rohr"?. Germans means with that a pipe NPS 8 or DN 200. In this case, the Dutch talking about a "8 duimer". I'm really curious how people in other countries indicates a pipe. EXAMPLES OF ACTUAL O.D. AND I.D. ACTUAL OUTSIDE DIAMETERS NPS 1 actual O.D. = 1.5/16" (33.4 mm) NPS 2 actual O.D. = 2.3/8" (60.3 mm) NPS 3 actual O.D. = 3½" (88.9 mm) NPS 4 actual O.D. = 4½" (114.3 mm) NPS 12 actual O.D. = 12.3/4" (323.9 mm) NPS 14 ACTUAL O.D. = 14"(355.6 MM) ACTUAL INSIDE DIAMETERS OF A 1 INCH PIPE. NPS 1-SCH 40 = O.D.33,4 mm - WT. 3,38 mm - I.D. 26,64 mm NPS 1-SCH 80 = O.D.33,4 mm - WT. 4,55 mm - I.D. 24,30 mm NPS 1-SCH 160 = O.D.33,4 mm - WT. 6,35 mm - I.D. 20,70 mm Such as above defined, no inside diameter corresponds to the truth 1" (25,4 mm). The inside diameter is determined by the wall thickness (WT). ANSI Standard Steel Pipe Chart ASME B36.10 ASME B36.19 Gauge Sizes | Sheet Metal Gauge Sizes | Pipe Sizes | Pipe Specification | Pipe Schdule | ANSI Pipe Chart | NPS According to ASME B36.10 and ASME B 36.19. NPS 1/8 1/4 3/8 1/2 3/4 1 1 1/4 1 1/2 OD Schedule Designations Wall Thickness Inside Diameter Weight (Inches) (ANSI/ASME) (Inches) (Inches) (lbs./ft.) 10/10S 0.049 0.307 0.1863 Std./40/40S 0.068 0.269 0.2447 XS/80/80S 0.095 0.215 0.3145 10/10S 0.065 0.41 0.3297 Std./40/40S 0.088 0.364 0.4248 XS/80/80S 0.119 0.302 0.5351 10/10S 0.065 0.545 0.4235 Std./40/40S 0.091 0.493 0.5676 XS/80/80S 0.126 0.423 0.7388 5/5S 0.065 0.71 0.5383 10/10S 0.083 0.674 0.671 Std./40/40S 0.119 0.622 0.851 XS/80/80S 0.147 0.546 1.088 160 0.188 0.466 1.309 XX 0.294 0.252 1.714 5/5S 0.065 0.92 0.6838 10/10S 0.083 0.884 0.8572 Std./40/40S 0.113 0.824 1.131 XS/80/80S 0.154 0.742 1.474 160 0.219 0.618 1.944 XX 0.308 0.434 2.441 5/5S 0.065 1.185 0.8678 10/10S 0.109 1.097 1.404 Std./40/40S 0.133 1.049 1.679 XS/80/80S 0.179 0.957 2.172 160 0.25 0.815 2.844 XX 0.358 0.599 3.659 5/5S 0.065 1.53 1.107 10/10S 0.109 1.442 1.806 Std./40/40S 0.14 1.38 2.273 XS/80/80S 0.191 1.278 2.997 160 0.25 1.16 3.765 XX 0.382 0.896 5.214 5/5S 0.065 1.77 1.274 0.405 0.54 0.675 0.84 1.05 1.315 1.66 1.9 2 2 1/2 3 3 1/2 4 4 1/2 5 2.375 2.875 3.5 4 4.5 5 5.563 10/10S 0.109 1.682 2.085 Std./40/40S 0.145 1.61 2.718 XS/80/80S 0.2 1.5 3.631 160 0.281 1.338 4.859 XX 0.4 1.1 6.408 5/5S 0.065 2.245 1.604 10/10S 0.109 2.157 2.638 Std./40/40S 0.154 2.067 3.653 XS/80/80S 0.218 1.939 5.022 160 0.344 1.689 7.462 XX 0.436 1.503 9.029 5/5S 0.083 2.709 2.475 10/10S 0.12 2.635 3.531 Std./40/40S 0.203 2.469 5.793 XS/80/80S 0.276 2.323 7.661 160 0.375 2.125 10.01 XX 0.552 1.771 13.69 5/5S 0.083 3.334 3.029 10/10S 0.12 3.26 4.332 Std./40/40S 0.216 3.068 7.576 XS/80/80S 0.3 2.9 10.25 160 0.438 2.624 14.32 XX 0.6 2.3 18.58 5/5S 0.083 3.834 3.472 10/10S 0.12 3.76 4.973 Std./40/40S 0.226 3.548 9.109 XS/80/80S 0.318 3.364 12.5 XX 0.636 2.728 22.85 5/5S 0.083 4.334 3.915 10/10S 0.12 4.26 5.613 Std./40/40S 0.237 4.026 10.79 XS/80/80S 0.337 3.826 14.98 120 0.438 3.624 19 160 0.531 3.438 22.51 XX 0.674 3.152 27.54 Std./40/40S 0.247 4.506 12.53 XS/80/80S 0.355 4.29 17.61 XX 0.71 3.58 32.43 5/5S 0.109 5.345 6.349 10/10S 0.134 5.295 7.77 6 7 8 9 10 6.625 7.625 8.625 9.625 10.75 Std./40/40S 0.258 5.047 14.62 XS/80/80S 0.375 4.813 20.78 120 0.5 4.563 27.04 160 0.625 4.313 32.96 XX 0.75 4.063 38.55 5/5S 0.109 6.407 7.585 10/10S 0.134 6.357 9.289 Std./40/40S 0.28 6.065 18.97 XS/80/80S 0.432 5.761 28.57 120 0.562 5.491 36.39 160 0.719 5.189 45.35 XX 0.864 4.897 53.16 Std./40/40S 0.301 7.023 23.57 XS/80/80S 0.5 6.625 38.05 XX 0.875 5.875 63.08 5S 0.109 8.407 9.914 10/10S 0.148 8.329 13.4 20 0.25 8.125 22.36 30 0.277 8.071 24.7 Std./40/40S 0.322 7.981 28.55 60 0.406 7.813 35.64 XS/80/80S 0.5 7.625 43.39 100 0.594 7.439 50.95 120 0.719 7.189 60.71 140 0.812 7.001 67.76 XX 0.875 6.875 72.42 160 0.906 6.813 74.69 Std./40/40S 0.342 8.941 33.9 XS/80/80S 0.5 8.625 48.72 XX 0.875 7.875 81.77 5S 0.134 10.482 15.19 10S 0.165 10.42 18.7 20 0.25 10.25 28.04 30 0.307 10.136 34.24 Std./40/40S 0.365 10.02 40.48 XS/60/80S 0.5 9.75 54.74 80 0.594 9.564 64.43 100 0.719 9.314 77.03 120 0.844 9.064 89.29 140 1 8.75 104.13 11 12 12 14 16 11.75 12.75 12.75 14 16 160 1.125 8.5 115.64 Std./40/40S 0.375 11 45.55 XS/80/80S 0.5 10.75 60.07 XX 0.875 10 101.63 5S 0.165 12.42 22.18 10S 0.18 12.39 24.2 20 0.25 12.25 33.38 30 0.33 12.09 43.77 Std./40S 0.375 12 49.56 40 0.406 11.938 53.53 XS/80S 0.5 11.75 65.42 60 0.562 11.626 73.15 80 0.688 11.376 88.63 100 0.844 11.064 107.32 120 1 10.75 125.49 140 1.125 10.5 139.67 160 1.312 10.126 160.27 10S 0.188 13.624 27.73 10 0.25 13.5 36.71 20 0.312 13.376 45.61 Std./30/40S 0.375 13.25 54.57 40 0.438 13.124 63.44 XS/80S 0.5 13 72.09 60 0.594 12.814 85.05 80 0.75 12.15 106.13 100 0.938 12.126 130.85 120 1.094 11.814 150.9 140 1.25 11.5 170.21 160 1.406 11.188 189.1 10S 0.188 15.624 31.75 10 0.25 15.5 42.05 20 0.312 15.376 52.27 Std./30/40S 0.375 15.25 62.58 XS/40/80S 0.5 15 82.77 60 0.656 14.688 107.5 80 0.844 14.314 136.61 100 1.031 13.938 164.82 120 1.219 13.564 192.43 140 1.438 13.124 223.64 160 1.594 12.814 245.25 18 20 NPS 22 24 10S 0.188 17.624 35.76 10 0.25 17.5 47.39 20 0.312 17.376 58.94 Std./40S 0.375 17.25 70.59 30 0.438 17.124 82.15 XS/80S 0.5 17 93.45 40 0.562 16.876 104.67 60 0.75 16.5 138.17 80 0.938 16.126 170.92 100 1.156 15.688 207.96 120 1.375 15.25 244.14 140 1.562 14.876 274.22 160 1.781 14.438 308.5 10 0.25 19.5 52.73 20 0.375 19.25 78.6 30 0.5 19 104.13 40 5.94 18.814 123.11 60 8.12 18.376 166.4 80 1.031 17.938 208.87 100 1.281 17.438 256.1 120 1.5 17 296.37 140 1.75 16.5 341.09 160 1.969 16.064 379.17 OD Schedule Designations Wall Thickness Inside Diameter Weight (Inches) (ANSI/ASME) (Inches) (Inches) (lbs./ft.) 10/10S 0.25 21.5 58.07 Std./20/40S 0.375 21.25 86.61 XS/30/80S 0.5 21 114.81 60 0.875 20.25 197.41 80 1.125 19.75 250.81 100 1.375 19.25 302.88 120 1.625 18.75 353.61 140 1.875 18.25 403 160 2.125 17.75 451.06 10/10S 0.25 23.5 63.41 Std./20/40S 0.375 23.25 94.62 XS/80S 0.5 23 125.49 30 0.562 22.876 140.68 40 0.688 22.626 171.29 60 0.969 22.064 238.35 18 20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 42 48 26 28 30 32 34 36 42 48 Related References: 80 1.219 21.564 296.58 100 1.531 20.938 367.39 120 1.812 20.376 429.39 140 2.062 19.876 483.1 160 2.344 19.314 542.13 10 0.312 25.376 85.6 Std./40S 0.375 25.25 102.63 XS/80S 0.5 25 136.17 10 0.312 27.376 92.26 Std./40S 0.375 27.25 110.64 20/80S 0.5 27 146.25 30 0.625 26.75 182.73 10 0.312 29.376 98.93 Std./40S 0.375 29.25 118.65 XS/20/80S 0.5 29 157.53 30 0.625 28.75 196.08 10 0.312 31.376 105.59 Std. 0.375 31.25 126.66 20 0.5 31 168.21 30 0.625 30.75 109.43 40 0.688 30.624 230.08 10 0.312 33.376 112.25 Std. 0.375 33.25 134.67 20 0.5 33 178.89 30 0.625 32.75 222.78 40 0.688 32.624 244.77 10 0.312 35.375 118.92 Std./40S 0.375 35.25 142.68 XS/80S 0.5 35 189.57 Std./40S 0.375 41.25 166.71 XS/80S 0.5 41 221.61 30 0.625 40.75 276.18 40 0.75 40.5 330.41 Std./40S 0.375 47.25 XS/80S 0.5 47 190.74 PVC Pipe Reference Select Mechanical or Inflatable Pipe Plugs based on the below pipe ID and along with the pressure to be blocked PVC and CPVC Pipes - Schedule 40 Nominal Pipe Size Outside (inches) (inches) Diameter Minimum Thickness (inches) Wall Inside (inches) Diameter *) Weight (lb/ft) PVC CPVC 1/2 0.840 0.109 0.622 0.16 0.17 3/4 1.050 0.113 0.824 0.21 0.23 1 1.315 0.133 1.049 0.32 0.34 1 1/4 1.660 0.140 1.380 0.43 0.46 1 1/2 1.900 0.145 1.610 0.51 0.55 2 2.375 0.154 2.067 0.68 0.74 2 1/2 2.875 0.203 2.469 1.07 1.18 3 3.500 0.216 3.068 1.41 1.54 4 4.500 0.237 4.026 2.01 2.20 5 5.563 0.258 5.047 2.73 6 6.625 0.280 6.065 3.53 3.86 8 8.625 0.322 7.981 5.39 5.81 10 10.750 0.365 10.020 7.55 8.24 12 12.750 0.406 11.938 10.01 10.89 14 14.000 0.438 13.124 11.80 16 16.000 0.500 15.000 15.43 PVC and CPVC Pipes - Schedule 80 1/2 0.840 0.147 0.546 0.20 0.22 3/4 1.050 0.154 0.742 0.27 0.30 1 1.315 0.179 0.957 0.41 0.44 1 1/4 1.660 0.191 1.278 0.52 0.61 1 1/2 1.900 0.200 1.500 0.67 0.74 2 2.375 0.218 1.939 0.95 1.02 2 1/2 2.875 0.276 2.323 1.45 1.56 3 3.500 0.300 2.900 1.94 2.09 4 4.500 0.337 3.826 2.75 3.05 5 5.563 0.375 4.813 3.87 6 6.625 0.432 5.761 5.42 5.82 8 8.625 0.500 7.625 8.05 8.83 10 10.750 0.593 9.564 12.00 13.09 PVC and CPVC Pipes - Schedule 40 Nominal Pipe Size Outside (inches) (inches) Diameter Minimum Thickness (inches) Wall Inside (inches) Diameter *) Weight (lb/ft) PVC CPVC 18.0 12 12.750 0.687 11.376 16.50 14 14.000 0.750 12.500 19.30 16 16.000 0.843 14.314 25.44 Inside Diameter = Outside Diameter - 2 x Minimum Wall Thickness PVC - Polyvinyl Chloride strong and rigid resistant to a variety of acids and bases may be damaged by some solvents and chlorinated hydrocarbons maximum usable temperature 140oF (60oC) usable for water, gas and drainage systems not useable in hot water systems Operating Temp (°F) Operating Temp (°C) De-Rating Factor 73 22.8 1.00 80 26.7 0.88 90 32.2 0.75 100 37.8 0.62 110 43.3 0.51 120 48.9 0.40 130 54.4 0.31 140 60 0.22 CPVC - Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride similar to PVC - but designed for water up to approx. 180oF (82oC) Operating Temp (°F) Operating Temp (°C) De-Rating Factor 73 - 80 22.8 - 26.7 1.00 90 32.2 0.91 100 37.8 0.82 110 43.3 0.72 120 48.9 0.65 130 54.4 0.57 140 60 0.50 150 65.6 0.42 160 71.1 0.40 170 76.7 0.29 180 82.2 0.25 200 93.3 0.20 SAMPLE PROBLEMS Water at 15C is flowing in a 5 cm diameter horizontal pipe made of stainless steel at a rate of 0.0057 m 3/sec. Determine the pressure drop, the head loss over a 60 m long section of the pipe. For water at 15C kg ρ 999.14 3 m μ 0.001140 Pa - sec m2 sec for stainless steel ν 1.141 x 10-6 0.015 mm 0.015 0.0003 D 50 u sin g Colebrook Eq. f 0.015 5m 60 m fLv 2 hL 2gD Example: Water at 20C the rate of 30 L/sec is flowing in a 70 m long pipeline, (ND = 100 mm; OD = 114.23 mm; ID = 102.29 mm) containing 1-Open Gate valve; 1 – Check valve and 15 90-Elbows. Determine the pipe material with minimal head losses if pipe material available are Stainless Steel, Cast Iron and Galvanized Iron. Pipe Material Stainless Steel Cast Iron Galvanized Iron Absolute Roughness () 0.015 0.25 0.025 At 20C Water Density Absolute Viscosity Kinematic Viscosity Properties 998.29 0.001003 1.005 x 10-6 Fitting Gate Valve Check Valve 90Elbow Total Qty. 1 1 15 L/D 8 135 30 Le 0.8 13.5 45 59.3 Unit Kg/m3 Pa-sec m2/sec Unit m m m m Formulas Q A π A D2 4 f ( L ΣLe) v 2 hf 2gD f v NR vD ν For Stainless Steel HEAD LOSS CALCULATION Q (Capacity) 30 L/sec Nominal Diameter 100 mm Outside Diameter (OD) 114.33 mm Inside Diameter (ID) 102.29 mm Wall Thickness (t) 6.02 mm Area (A) 0.0082 m^2 Velocity (v) 3.65 m/sec Velocity Head (V^2/2g) 0.679 m 998.29 kg/m^3 Absolute Viscocity (m) 0.001003 Pa-sec Kinematic Viscosity (n) 1.005E-06 m^2/sec Reynold's Number(NR) 69,161.354 x L (Length of Pipeline) 70 m 59.3 m m Pipe Roughness 0.015 mm Relative Roughness 0.00015 x Friction Factor (f) 0.0200 Head Loss (hf) m For Cast Iron Steel HEAD LOSS CALCULATION Q (Capacity) 30 L/sec Nominal Diameter 100 mm Outside Diameter (OD) 114.33 mm Inside Diameter (ID) 102.29 mm Wall Thickness (t) 6.02 mm 0.25 log D 5.74 3.7 N R 0.9 2 Area (A) 0.0082 m^2 Velocity (v) 3.65 m/sec Velocity Head (V^2/2g) 0.679 m (Density) r 998.29 kg/m^3 Absolute Viscocity (m) 0.001003 Pa-sec Kinematic Viscosity (n) 1.005E-06 m^2/sec Reynold's Number(NR) 69,161.354 x L (Length of Pipeline) 70 m 59.3 m m Pipe Roughness (Î) 0.25 mm Relative Roughness 0.00244 x Friction Factor (f) 0.0271 Head Loss (hf) m For Galvanized Iron HEAD LOSS CALCULATION Q (Capacity) 30 L/sec Nominal Diameter 100 mm Outside Diameter (OD) 114.33 mm Inside Diameter (ID) 102.29 mm Wall Thickness (t) 6.02 mm Area (A) 0.0082 m^2 Velocity (v) 3.65 m/sec Velocity Head (V^2/2g) 0.679 m (Density) r 998.29 kg/m^3 Absolute Viscocity (m) 0.001003 Pa-sec Kinematic Viscosity (n) 1.005E-06 m^2/sec Reynold's Number(NR) 69,161.354 x L (Length of Pipeline) 70 m 59.3 m m 0.025 mm Relative Roughness 0.00024 Friction Factor (f) 0.0205 Head Loss (hf) x m FUNDAMENTAL EQUATIONS OF CENTRIFUGAL PUMPS 1. Total Head HT = nH n - number of stages H - head per stage 2. Specific Speed: Is the speed in RPM at which a theoretical pump geometrically similar to the actual pump would run at its best efficiency if proportion to deliver 1 m3/sec against a total head of 1 m. It serves as a convenient index of the actual pump type. NS N Q 3 0.0194H 4 where: Q - flow for a single suction pump in m3/sec and H is the head per stage 3. Suction Specific Speed (S)01 S N Q 3 0.0194NPSH 4 3 N S NPSH 4 S H NPSH - net positive suction head, meters 4. Net Positive Suction Head: The amount of pressure in excess of the vapor pressure of the liquid to prevent cavitation. NPSH = Hp Hz - Hvp - hfs , meters where: Hp - absolute pressure head at liquid surface at suction, m Hz - elevation of liquid surface at suction, above or below the pump centerline, m (+) if above PCL (-) if below PCL Hvp - vapor pressure head corresponding the temperature of the liquid, m hfs - friction head loss from liquid surface at suction to PCL. 5. Cavitation: The formation of cavities of water vapor in the suction side of the pump due to low suction pressure. CAUSES OF CAVITATION Sharp bends. High temperature High velocity Rough surface Low atmospheric pressure EFFECTS OF CAVITATION Noise Vibration Corrosion Decreased capacity 6. Cavitation Parameter: 4 NPSH NS 3 δ H S D 60 2gH meter πN 7. Impeller Diameter; where: - peripheral velocity factor whose value ranges from 0.95 to1.09 8. Affinity Laws or Similarity Laws for Centrifugal Machines a. For Geometrically similar pumps Q ND3 Power N3D5 2 2 HN D T N2D5 b. For pumps with Variable Speed and Constant impeller diameter QN Power N3 2 HN c. For pumps at Constant Speed with Variable impeller diameter QD Power D3 2 HD FUNDAMENTAL EQUATIONS FOR RECIPROCATING PUMPS Specification: Ds x Dw x L where: Ds - diameter of steam cylinder Dw - diameter of water cylinder L - length of stroke 1. Volumetric Efficiency ηV Q x 100% VD where: Q - capacity, m3/sec VD - displacement volume, m3/sec Fw e m Fs (Dw) 2 (Pd Psu ) KPa 4 Ds (Pd Psu ) Dw e m (Ps Pe ) Fw 2. Displacement Volume a. For Single acting VD L(D W )2 Nn' m3 4(60) sec b. For Double acting without considering piston rod c. For Double acting considering piston rod VD LNn' m3 2DW 2 - d2 4(60) sec VD L(D W )2 Nn' m3 4(60) sec where: N - no. of strokes per minute L - length of stroke, m D - diameter of bore, . d - diameter of piston rod, m n' - no. of cylinders n' = 1 (For Simplex) n' = 2 (For Duplex) n' = 3 (For Triplex) 3. Percent Slip %Slip = 100 - v 4. Slip Slip = VD - Q 5. Thermal Efficiency 3600(WP) x 100% ms (hs he ) where: hs - enthalpy of supply steam, KJ/kg he - enthalpy of exhaust steam, KJ/kg ms - steam flow rate, kg/hr FP - fluid power, KW e DS 2 (Ps Pe ) KPa 4 6. Force produced and acting on the piston rod where: Ps - supply steam pressure, KPa Pe - exhaust steam pressure, KPa Ds - diameter of steam cylinder, m (Ps - Pe) - mean effective pressure 7. Force transmitted to the liquid piston where: em - mechanical efficiency Fw e mFs Fs w F (Dw) 2 (Pd Psu ) KPa 4 Ds Dw (Pd Psu ) e m (Ps Pe ) Psu - suction pressure of water cylinder, KPa Pd - discharge pressure of water cylinder, KPa 8. Pump Duty: Work done on the water cylinder expressed in Newton-meter per Million Joules Pump Duty 9.81mw (Hd Hsu ) x 106 1000ms (hs - he ) where: mw - water flow rate, kg/hr Hd - discharge head of pump, m Hsu - suction head of pump, m 9. Pump Speed V = 43.64(L)1/2(ft), m/min (D W ) 2 Vn' m 3 VD 4(60) sec N-m Million Joules where: ft - temperature correction factor L - length of stroke, m 10. Temperature Correction Factor ft = 1 For cold water = 0.85 for 32.2C water = 0.71 for 65.5C water = 0.55 for 204.4C water 11. For Indirect Acting pumps N 907f t L EXAMPLE A mechanical engineer of an industrial plant wishes to install a pump to lift 15 L/sec of water at 20C from a sump to a tank on a tower. The water is to be delivered into a tank 200 KPag. The water level in the tank is 20 m above the pump centerline and the pump is 4 m above the water level in the sump. The suction pipe is 100 mm in diameter, 7.0 m long and will contain 2 - standard elbows and 1 - Foot valve. The discharge pipe to the tank is 75 mm in diameter and is 120 m long and contains 5 - 90elbows, 1 check valve, and 1 - gate valve. Pipe material is Cast iron. Assuming a motor-pump efficiency of 75%, calculate the KW power required and the current drawn by the 3 – Phase motor drive if E = 220 Volts and 0.90 Power Factor. From table At 20C = 998 kg/m3 = 9.79 KN/m3 = 0.25 mm = 1.002 x 10-3 Pa-sec = 1.004 x 10-6 m2/sec DISCHARGE LINE L =120 m dd = 75 mm 5 – Elbows 1 – Check valve 1 – Gate Valve 120 m Q = 15 L/sec P2 = 200 Kpag P1 = 0 gage 20 m 4m SUCTION LINE L=7m ds = 100 mm 2 – Elbows 1 – foot valve 1 Suction Line L ID /D NR vd fd 7m 0.100 m 0.25 mm 0.0025 190,224 1.91 m/sec 0.026 0.25 0.0025 D 100 A (0.100)2 0.00785 m2 4 0.015 m vs 1.91 0.00785 sec 1.91(0.100) NR 190,224 1.004x106 From Moody diagram f 0.026 0.0267 13.51.91 0.99 m 2(9.81)(0.100) 2 hL Suction Fitting L/D 30 90Standard Elbow Foot Valve 75 Total (Le) Discharge Line L 120 m ID 0.075 m 0.25 mm 0.0033 /D NR 253,631 vd 3.40 m/sec fd 0.028 Quantity 2 D 0.100 Le 6 1 0.100 7.5 13.5 0.25 0.0033 D 75 A d (0.075) 2 0.00442 m 2 4 0.015 m vd 3 .4 0.00442 sec 3.4(0.100) NR 253,631 1.004x10 6 From Moody diagram fd 0.028 0.028120 25.033.40 32 m 2(9.81)(0.075) 2 hL Discharge For Pipe Exit K 1 fL D L K 1 35.7 D f 0.028 K Fitting 90Standard Elbow Check Valve Gate Valve Pipe Exit Total (Le) L/D 30 135 13 35.7 Quantity 5 1 1 1 D 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 Le 11.25 10.125 0.975 2.68 25.03 HL hLs hLd HL 32 0.99 32.99 m P2 - P1 v 2 v 1 ( z 2 z1 ) HL 2g 2 ht 2 v1 0 v2 0 P1 0 gage z1 20 m z 2 -4 m 200 0 (20 4) 32.99 77.42 m 9.79 Water Power Qh t ht Water Power x100% Motor Power 0.015(9.79)(77.42) MP 15.2 KW 0.75 Efficiency 3 EI(Power Factor) 1000 1000(15.2) I 44.3 Amperes 220(0.90) 3 MP EXAMPLE NO. 1 The diameters of the suction and discharge pipes of a pump are 152 mm and 102 mm, respectively. The discharge pressure is read by a gauge at a point 1.5 m above the pump centerline and the suction pressure is read by a gauge 61 cm below the pump centerline. If the discharge pressure gauge reads 137.9 KPa and the suction gauge reads a vacuum of 254 mm Hg, when gasoline with s = 0.75 is pumped at the rate of 34 L/sec, find the power delivered to the fluid. If the pump is 75% efficient and is driven by a 3-phase, 440 V, 0.9 power factor and 92% efficiency induction motor, determine the cost of power for 24 hours operation, if power costs P 0.30/KW-hr, and the line current drawn by the motor. (FP = 6.54 KW; C = P51/day; I = 10.37 amp; ht = 26.16 m) EXAMPLE NO. 2 A boiler feed pump delivers water at 100C ( = 958.31 kg/m3; = 9.40 KN/m3) which it draws from an open hot-well with a friction loss of 610 mm in the intake pipe between it and the hot-well. The barometric pressure is 737 m Hg and the value of the cavitation parameter for the pump is 0.10. What must be the elevation of the water surface in the hot-well relative to that of the pump intake? The total pumping head is 73 m. (Hz = 8.24 m) EXAMPLE 3 A centrifugal pump design for a 1800 RPM operation and a head of 61 m has a capacity of 190 L/sec with a power input of 132 KW. What effect will a speed reduction to 1200 RPM have on the head, capacity and power input of the pump? What will be the change in H, Q and BP if the impeller diameter is reduced from 305 mm to 254 mm while the speed is held constant at 180 RPM. Neglect effects of fluid viscosity. EXAMPLE 4 A plant has installed a single suction centrifugal pump with a discharge of 68 m3/hr under a 60 m head and running at 1200 RPM. It is proposed to install another pump with double suction but of the same type to operate at 30 m head and deliver 90 m 3/hr. a) Determine the speed of the proposed pump (877 RPM) b) What must be the impeller diameter of the proposed pump if the diameter of the existing pump is 150 mm. (145 mm) Design Problem No. 1 Water (@ t = 20C) from an open reservoir A at 8 m elevation is drawn by a motor driven centrifugal pump to an open reservoir B at 70 m elevation. The suction line is GI pipe; ND = 200 mm (NPS = 8”); L = 25 m containing 1 –check valve; 1 – Gate valve; 5 standard 90 elbows. Discharge line is GI pipe; ND = 150 mm (NPS = 6”); L = 120 m containing 1-Gate valve, 1-Check valve, and 8 standard 90 elbows. Assume shard edge for pipe entrance and pipe exit. Pump elevation is at 4 m. Overall efficiency of the system is 78%. For a discharge rate of 10 L/sec and power cost of P 7.00 per KW-hr. Determine The total dynamic head The water power The power required by the motor The power cost for 10 hrs pumping time The line current drawn by the motor for E = 220 Volts and power factor PF = 0.92 The pressure gauge reading installed just at the inlet and outlet of the pump Note: Draw the sketch of the problem B Open Tank Disch arg e Line (GI Pipe) ND 150 mm L 120 m 120 m 1 - Check valve 1 - Gate valve 8 - 90Elbows Suction Line (GI Pipe) A ND 200 mm Open Tank L 25 m 1 - Check valve 1 - Gate valve 5 - 90 Elbows CV GV GV Centrifugal Pump Datum Line CV 4m 8. 0 m 1 HYDRAULIC MACHINERY: Activity 2 (Pump Design) Determine the Motor power required of the pumping system shown below. P2 = 500 KPag Avialable Material 1. Stainless steel 2. Galvanized Iron (new) 3. Cast Iron (new) t 20C Powered Valve Storage Tank KN m3 kg 998.2 3 m 1.002 x 10-3 Pa - sec 9.789 Discharge Line 100 mm (DN)line : Sch. 40 5 - 90 Elbow ID 102.29 mm 1- GateValve L 15 m Pipe: Sch.40 2 m sec 60 m 1.003 x 10-6 SuctionLine L 20m DN 100mm ID 102.29mm L sec OverallEfficioency 72% Q 10 3 - 90 Elbow 1 - Gate Valve 1 - Check Valve 75 mm (DN) Line; Sch. 40 ID 77.95 mm L 85 m 8 - 90 Elbow 1 - Check Valve 1 - Reducer Gate Valve Pressure Gauge Pressure Gauge 3m Pump 1 200 Kpag Water Main Gate Valve Check Valve Reducer Pump Cenbterline To Sprinkler System HYDRAULIC MACHINERY(QUIZ NO. 2) Gasoline at 38C being drawn from a closed tank having a pressure of 69 KPag in a plant located 900 m above sea level. The level of gasoline in the tank is 2.5 m above the pump centerline. The suction line friction and turbulence head losses amounts to 0.6 m. The vapor pressure of the gasoline is 48 KPa absolute and the relative density is 0.72. a) What is the NPSH of the system b) If the cavitation parameter is 0.10 and the discharge is 400 L/sec, what is the size of the drive motor required? Combined pump-motor efficiency is 55%. At its optimum point of operation a given centrifugal pump with an impeller diameter of 50 cm delivers 3.2 m 3/sec of water against a head of 25 m when operating at 1450 RPM. a. If the efficiency is 82%, what is the brake power of the driving shaft. b. If a homologous pump with an impeller diameter of 80 cm is rotating at 1200 RPM, what would be the Q, H, and BP. c. Compute the specific speed of both pumps. A submersible, multistage centrifugal deep-well pump 984 L/min capacity is installed in a well 8 m below the static water level. Draw-down when pumping at rated capacity is 3 m. The pump delivers the water into a 95 Liters capacity overhead storage tank. Total discharge head developed including friction in piping is 74 m. Calculate: a) Brake power required to drive the pump if pump efficiency is 70% b) Determine the number of stages in the pump if each impeller develops a head of 12 m at 3450 RPM c) Determine the diameter of the impeller of this pump in mm. HYDRAULIC MACHINERY ACTIVITY NO. 2 (May 06, 2017) NAME _______________________________________ No. 1 A 4 m3/hr pump delivers water to a pressure tank. At the start, the gauge reads 138 KPa until it reads 276 KPa and then the pump was shut off. The volume of the tank is 160 Liters. At 276 KPa, the water occupied 2/3 of the tank volume. a) Determine the volume of water that can be taken out until the gauge reads 138 KPa b) If 1 m3/hr of water is constantly used, in how many minutes from 138 KPa will the pump run until the gauge reads 276 KPa At P 276 KPa Pair 276 101.325 377.325 KPa Vair 13 (0.160) 0.0533 m 3 at P 138 KPa Pair 138 101.325 239.325 KPa assumng isothermal conditions for air in the tank 377.325(0.0533) 0.084 m 3 , and the volume of water remaining in the tank is 239.325 Vw ater at 138 KPa 0.160 0.084 0.076 m 3 Vair at 138 KPa Volume of water taken out 2 3 (0.160) 0.076 0.0307 m 3 t pumping time if 1 m 3 /hr is constantly used 4t - 1t 0.0307 t 0.0307 hrs 0.01022 hrs 0.6133 min 36.8 sec 3 No. 2 Water from a reservoir is pumped over a hill through a pipe 900 mm diameter and a pressure 1 kg/cm 2 is maintained at the pipe discharge where the pipe is 85 m from the pump centerline. the pump has a positive suction head of 5 m. Pumping rate of the pump at 1000 RPM is 1.5 m3/sec. Friction loss is equivalent to 3 m of head loss. a) What amount of energy must be furnished by the pump in KW b) If the speed of the pump is 1200 RPM, what are the new values of Q, h, and power 2. A double suction single stage centrifugal pump is delivering 900 m3/hr of sea water (S = 1.03) from a source where the water level varies 2 m from a high tide to low tide level. The pump centerline is located 2.6 m above the surface of the water at high tide level. The pump discharges into a surface condenser 3 m above the pump centerline. Loss of head due to friction in suction pipe is 0.8 m and that in the discharge side is 3 m. Pump is directly connected to a 1750 RPM,460 Volts, 3-phase, 60 Hertz motor. a) Make a sketch of the installation in accordance with good practice. b) Calculate the total suction head in m c) Calculate the total discharge head in m d) Calculate the specific speed of the pump in RPM e) Calculate the BP of the pump if efficiency is 82% f) Calculate the impeller diameter in mm. SAMPLE PROBLEMS (INDUSTRIAL PLANT) 1. A centrifugal pump with a 30.5 cm. diameter impeller requires a power input of 45 KW when the flowrate is 200 L/sec against a 18 m head. The impeller is changed to one with a 25.5 cm. diameter. Determine the expected flowrate, head, and input power if the pump speed remains the same. QαD H α D2 Power α D 3 Q1 H1 P1 D1 200 18 45 30.5 Q2 H2 P1 D2 167.21 12.6 26.30 25.5 2. A small centrifugal pump, when tested at 2875 rpm with water, delivered a flow rate of 16 L/sec and a head of 42 m at its best efficiency point (efficiency is 76%). Determine the specific speed of the pump at this test condition. Compute the required power input to the pump. N Q NS 3 Ns 0.0194H 4 Ns N Q H 2875 0.016 1136.21 2875 0.016 42 3 0.0194 42 4 3. A plant has installed a single suction centrifugal pump with a discharge of 68 m 3/hr under a 60 m head and running at 1200 RPM. It is proposed to install another pump with double suction but of the same type to operate at 30 m head and deliver 90 m3/hr. a) Determine the speed of the proposed pump (877 RPM) b) What must be the impeller diameter of the proposed pump if the diameter of the existing pump is 150 mm. (145 mm) Given: Q1 = 68 m3/hr = 0.0189 m3/sec H1 = 60 m N Q N1 = 1200 RPM NS 3 For the proposed pump 0.0194 H 4 H2 = 30 m Q2 = 90 m3/hr Q2 = 45 m3/hr = 0.0125 m3/sec→ For single suction NS1 N Q H 394.45 1200 0.0189 60 N Ns Q H 877 394.5 0.0125 30 For Geometrically similar pumps Q ND3 Power N3D5 2 2 HN D T N2D5 Q1 H1 D1 N1 0.0189 60 0.15 1200 D2 Q2 H2 N2 0.145 0.0125 30 877 Q2 N D 2 2 Q1 N1 D1 2 3 H2 N 2 D 2 H1 N1 D1 2 By: Yuri G. Melliza COURSE DESCRIPTION This class provides students with an introduction to principal concepts and methods of fluid mechanics. Topics covered in the course include pressure, hydrostatics, and buoyancy; open systems and control volume analysis; mass conservation and momentum conservation for moving the models necessary to study, analyze, and design fluid systems through the application of these concepts, and to develop the problem-solving skills essential to good engineering practice of fluid mechanics in practical applications. Students will have the opportunity to demonstrate a familiarity and ability to work on fluid mechanics. These outcomes will be demonstrated through an assessment of quizzes, assignments and major examinations. GENERAL OBJECTIVES By the end of this course, you should expect to be able to calculate: fundamental fluid properties for different fluids and flows forces on objects submerged in both static and flowing fluids pressures in both static and flowing fluids, and the velocities associated with different flows forces in complicated momentum balance problems energy loss and the flow rates associated with different flow networks in channels and pipes dimensionless numbers important for design of experiments and practical engineering work numerical solutions for simple fluid flow problems properties of a boundary layer, both turbulent and laminar problems with the application of Bernoulli’s Principle Fluid Mechanics - it is a science that deals with the mechanics of fluids (liquid or gas) and is based on the same fundamental principles employed in the mechanics of solids. STUDENT COURSE OUTCOMES This is an introductory course on fluid motion, the forces that fluids exert, and the forces that are exerted on them. The study of fluid mechanics has numerous engineering applications. Fluids interact with structures such as high-rise buildings, dams, and bridges and the static and dynamic loads imposed by the fluids must be considered in the design and construction of these structures. Cars, aircraft, and ships all move through fluids, and frictional (fluid drag) forces represent a major energy sink. Water is an important resource to California and fluid mechanical problems abound in the complex system of dams, aqueducts, treatment plants, pipes, and valves used to deliver water to urban and agricultural consumers. Finally, the motions of contaminants in water and air are governed by the mechanics of fluid flow. After this course, the students are expected to: Branches of Fluid Mechanics 1. Fluid Static - deals with the forces exerted by or upon the fluid at rest. 2. Kinematics - deals with velocities and accelerations without considering forces and energy. 3. Hydrodynamics - deals with the relation of velocities and accelerations and the forces exerted by or upon the fluid in motion. Fluid - is a substance capable of flowing and having particles which easily moved and changed their relative position without the separation of mass. Distinction between Liquid and Gas Liquid 1. It has a free surface 2. A given quantity of liquid occupies a given volume of a container 3. It is incompressible Gas 1. It has no free surface 2. A given quantity of gas occupies all portions of the container regardless of its shape and size. 3. It is compressible Free Surface - a surface in which all pressures can be removed except its own vapor pressure. Vapor - is a gas in which its pressure and temperature are such that very near to its liquid state. PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 1. Density (): It is the mass on a unit volume. ρ m kg3 V m 2. Specific Volume (): It is the volume per unit mass, or the reciprocal of its density. υ V m 3 m kg 3. Specific Weight or Weight Density (): It is the weight on a unit volume. γ W KN3 V m mg ρg KN γ 1000V 1000 m3 4. Specific Gravity or Relative Density (S): For Liquids It is the ratio of its density to density of water at standard temperature and pressure. SL L L w w For Gases It is the ratio of its density to the density of either air or hydrogen at some specified temperature and pressure. SG G AH For Gases ρ P Kg RT m 3 Where: P - Absolute pressure in KPaa R -Gas constant in KJ/kg-K T -Absolute temperature in K 8.3143 KJ M kg - K M - molecular weight in kg/kgmole R where: w = 1000 kg/m3 (Standard condition) w = 9.81 KN/m3 (Standard condition) AH = is the density of either air or hydrogen at some value of P and T. 5. Temperature: It is the measure of the intensity of heat of a fluid. Celsius and Fahrenheit Scale F 32 1.8 F 1.8(C) 32 C Absolute Scale RANKINE: R F 460 KELVIN: K C 273 6. Pressure (P): It is the normal component of a force per unit area. F KN or KPa A m2 KN 1 2 1 KPa (Kilo Pascal) m P If a force dF acts on an infinitesimal area dA, the intensity of pressure is: P dF KN or KPa A m2 where: F - force, KN A - area , m2 PASCAL`S LAW At any point in a homogeneous fluid at rest the pressures are the same in all directions. Fx 0 P1 A 1 P3 A 3 sin 0 Fy 0 P2 A 2 P3 A 3 cos P1 A 1 P3 A 3 sin eq. 1 P2 A 2 P3 A 3 cos eq.3 From Figure cos A1 ; A3 A 1 A 3 sin eq. 2 sin Equation 2 to equation 1 P1 P3 A2 A3 A 2 A 3 cos eq.4 Equation 4 to equation 3 P2 P3 therefore P1 P2 P3 Atmospheric Pressure (Pa): It is the absolute pressure exerted by the atmosphere. At sea level Pa = 101.325 KPa = 0.101325 MPa = 1.01325 Bar = 760 mm Hg = 10.33 m of H2O = 1.033 kg/cm2 = 14.7 psi = 29.921 in Hg = 33.878 ft of H2O Absolute and Gage Pressure Absolute Pressure - is the pressure measured referred to absolute zero and using absolute zero as the base. Gage Pressure - is the pressure measured referred to the existing atmospheric pressure and using atmospheric pressure as the base. Pgage - if above atmospheric Pvac- vacuum or negative gage pressure, if below atmospheric Pabs Pa PGage Pabs Pa Pvacuum 7. Viscosity: It is the property of a fluid that determines the amount of its resistance to shearing stress. Assumptions: 1. Fluid particles in contact with the moving surface moves with the same velocity of that surface. 2. The rate of change of velocity dv/dx is constant in the direction perpendicular to the direction of motion. 3. The shearing is directly proportional to the rate of change of velocity. let S - shearing stress in Pa or N/m2 dv dx dv dv v Sμ but dx dx x v Sμ x x N - sec μ S Pa - sec or v m2 S Where - Absolute or dynamic viscosity in Pa-sec or N-sec/m2 S - shearing stress in Pascal (Pa) x - distance apart in meters v - velocity in m/sec 8. Kinematics Viscosity: It is the ratio of the absolute or dynamic viscosity to the mass density. ν μ m2 ρ sec Conversion 1 Pa-sec = 1 N-sec/m2 1 Pa-sec = 10 Poise 1 Pa-sec = 0.020885 lb-sec/ft2 1 Pa-sec = 0.10197 kg-sec/m2 1 Pa-sec = 1000 Centipoise 1 m2/sec = 10,000 stokes 1 m2/sec = 10.764 ft2/sec 1 m2/sec = 1,000,000 Centistokes Stoke = 1 cm2/sec 1 kg/m3 = 0.062428 llb/ft3 1 lb/ft3 = 16.018 kg/m3 9. Elasticity: If a pressure is applied to a fluid, it contracts; if the pressure is released, it expands, the elasticity of a fluid is related to the amount of deformation(expansion or contraction) for a given pressure change. Quantitatively, the degree of elasticity is equal to: P P Ev dP KPa dV V dP Ev KPa dρ ρ dV dρ V ρ Where negative sign is used because dV/V is negative for a positive dP. where: Ev - bulk modulus of elasticity dV - is the incremental volume change, m3 V - is the original volume, m3 dP - is the incremental pressure change in Kpa 10. Surface Tension The attractive force exerted upon the surface molecules of a liquid by the molecules beneath that tends to draw the surface molecules into the bulk of the liquid and makes the liquid assume the shape having the least surface area. Surface tension is the elastic tendency of a fluid surface which makes it acquire the least surface area possible. Surface tension allows insects (e.g. water spiders), usually denser than water, to float and stride on a water surface. At liquid–air interfaces, surface tension results from the greater attraction of liquid molecules to each other (due to cohesion) than to the molecules in the air (due to adhesion). The net effect is an inward force at its surface that causes the liquid to behave as if its surface were covered with a stretched elastic membrane. Thus, the surface becomes under tension from the imbalanced forces, which is probably where the term "surface tension" came from. [1] Because of the relatively high attraction of water molecules for each other through a web of hydrogen bonds, water has a higher surface tension (72.8 millinewtons per meter at 20 °C) compared to that of most other liquids. Surface tension is an important factor in the phenomenon of capillarity. Surface tension has the dimension of force per unit length, or of energy per unit area. The two are equivalent, but when referring to energy per unit of area, it is common to use the term surface energy, which is a more general term in the sense that it applies also to solids. Floating objects Cross-section of a needle floating on the surface of water. Fw is the weight and Fs are surface tension resultant forces. When an object is placed on a liquid, its weight Fw depresses the surface, and if surface tension and downward force becomes equal than is balanced by the surface tension forces on either side Fs, which are each parallel to the water's surface at the points where it contacts the object. Notice that small movement in the body may cause the object to sink. As the angle of contact decreases surface tension decreases the horizontal components of the two Fs arrows point in opposite directions, so they cancel each other, but the vertical components point in the same direction and therefore add up [2] to balance Fw. The object's surface must not be wettable for this to happen, and its weight must be low enough for the surface tension to support it. Examples of Surface Tension Drops of water. When using a water dropper, the water does not flow in a continuous stream, but rather in a series of drops. The shape of the drops is caused by the surface tension of the water. The only reason the drop of water isn't completely spherical is because of the force of gravity pulling down on it. In the absence of gravity, the drop would minimize the surface area in order to minimize tension, which would result in a perfectly spherical shape. Insects walking on water. Several insects are able to walk on water, such as the water strider. Their legs are formed to distribute their weight, causing the surface of the liquid to become depressed, minimizing the potential energy to create a balance of forces so that the strider can move across the surface of the water without breaking through the surface. This is similar in concept to wearing snowshoes to walk across deep snowdrifts without your feet sinking. Needle (or paper clip) floating on water. Even though the density of these objects is greater than water, the surface tension along the depression is enough to counteract the force of gravity pulling down on the metal object. Click on the picture to the right, then click "Next," to view a force diagram of this situation or try out the Floating Needle trick for yourself. Capillarity Capillary Action Capillary action is the result of adhesion and surface tension. Adhesion of water to the walls of a vessel will cause an upward force on the liquid at the edges and result in a meniscus which turns upward. The surface tension acts to hold the surface intact, so instead of just the edges moving upward, the whole liquid surface is dragged upward. r h Where: - surface tension, N/m - specific weight of liquid, N/m3 r – radius, m h – capillary rise, m Table 1.Surface Tension of Water C 0 0.0756 10 0.0742 20 0.0728 30 0.0712 40 0.0696 60 0.0662 80 0.0626 100 0.0589 h 2σ cos θ γr Sample Exercises 1. A mercury barometer at the ground floor of Kingston Tower in Chicago reads 735 mm Hg. At the same time another barometer at the top of the tower reads 590 mmHg. Assuming the air to be constant at 1.21 kg/m 3, what is the approximate height of the tower using g = 9.7 m/sec2. 2 h 1 735(101.325) 98 KPa 760 590(101.325) P2 78.7 KPa 760 ρg 1.21(9.7) KN γ 11.64 x 10- 3 3 1000 1000 m dP γdh P2 P1 γ(h 2 h1 ) P1 h1 0; h 2 h P2 P1 γ(h ) h P2 P1 1658.08 meters γ 2. A tank contains a mixture of 20 kg of nitrogen and 20 kg of carbon monoxide. The total tank volume is 20 m 3. Determine the density, specific volume and specific weight of the mixture if local g = 9.81 m/sec2 m m1 m 2 m 20 20 40 kg ρ m 40 kg 2 3 V 20 m υ 1 m3 0 .5 ρ kg 3. A pressure gage registers 345 KPag in a region where the barometric pressure is 736.7 mm hg. Find the absolute in Bars. Pabs Pa Pgage Bar 736.7(101.325) Pabs 345 443.2 KPaa x 100 KPa 760 Pabs 4.432 Bars 4. The level of water in an enclosed water tank is 40 m above ground level. If the pressure of the air space above the water is 120 Kpa, what is the pressure at ground level in KPa. lb sec 1 Pa - sec x 0.023Pa - sec 2 lb - sec ft 0.020885 2 ft kg 16.018 3 lb m 864.972kg 54 3 x lb m3 ft 1 3 ft 0.023 864.972 4.8 x 10-4 Air 1 40 m 2 2 2.66 x 10-5 m sec 5. A liquid has an absolute viscosity of 4.8 x 10-4lb-sec/ft2. It weighs 54 lb/ft3. What are its absolute and kinematic viscosities in SI. 0.020885lb - sec 2 ft 2.09 x 10-5 lb - sec 1.002x103 Pa - sec ft2 Pa - sec ft2 2 10.764 1.002x103 Pa - sec -6 m -5 ft2 sec 1.004 x 10 x 2 1.08 x 10 sec kg 998 3 sec 1m sec m 6. The absolute viscosity of water at 20C is 1.002 x 10-3 Pa-sec and the density is 998 kg/m3. What are its absolute and kinematic viscosity in English units. d P d h By integ ratio n 2 1 dP 2 1 dh P2 P1 (h 2 h1 ) P2 P1 (h 2 h1 ) h1 0 h2 4 0 m P2 1 20 9.8 1 ( 4 0) 5 12 .4 KPa IDEAL GAS PRINCIPLES 1. CHARACTERISTIC EQUATION PV = mRT 1 P = RT 2 P 3 RT RT υ 4 P PV C 5 T P1V1 P2 V2 6 T1 T2 ρ where: P - absolute pressure in KPa V - volume in m3 m -mass in kg R -Gas constant in KJ/kg-K T - absolute temperature in K - specific volumein m3/kg - density in kg/m3 2. GAS CONSTANT R KJ 7 M kg - K KJ R 8.3143 (Universal Gas Constant) kg mol - K R M molecular weight of a gas in kg kg mol 3. BOYLE`S LAW ( T = C ): Robert Boyle (1627-1691) If the temperature of a certain quantity of gas is held constant, the volume V is inversely proportional to the pressure P, during a quasi-static change of state. Vα 1 1 or V C P P PV C P1V1 P2 V2 8 4. CHARLE`S LAW ( P = C and V = C):Jacques Charles (1746-1823) and Joseph Louis Gay- Lussac (1778-1850) A) At constant pressure (P=C), the volume V of a certain quantity of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature T, during a quasi static change of state. V T or V = CT V C T V1 V2 9 T1 T2 B) At constant volume (V = C), the pressure P of a certain quantity of gas Is directly proportional to the absolute temperature T, during a quasi-static change of state. P T or P = CT Cp Cv R Rk k 1 R Cv k 1 Cp k Cv Cp 5. AVOGADRO`S LAW:Amadeo Avogadro (1776-1856) All gases at the same temperature and pressure, under the action of a given value of g, have the same number of molecules per unit of volume. From which it follows that the M. γ1 M1 R 2 γ 2 M 2 R1 6. SPECIFIC HEATS P C T P1 P2 10 T1 T2 7. ENTROPY CHANGE (S) Entropy is that property of a substance that determines the amount of randomness and disorder of a substance. If during a process, an amount of heat is taken and is by divided by the absolute temperature at which it is taken, the result is called the ENTROPY CHANGE. dQ T dQ ΔS T dS 8. Isentropic Process: It is an internally reversible adiabatic process of an ideal or perfect gas in which S = C or PVk = C. P, V, & T relationship: P1V1k P2 V2 k k 1 T2 P2 k V1 T1 P1 V2 k 1 9. Polytropic Process: It is an internally reversible process of an ideal or perfect gas in which PVn = C. Where n stands for any constant (but not equal to infinity). P, V, & T relationship: P1V1n P2 V2 n n 1 V T2 P2 n 1 T1 P1 V2 n 1 1. Total moles of a mixture n = ni 2. Mole Fraction yi = ni/n 3. Total mass of a mixture m = mi 4. Mass Fraction xi = mi/m 5. Equation of State A. Mass Basis a. For the mixture PV = mRT b. For the components PiVi = miRiTi B. Mole Basis a. For the mixture PV = nRT b. For the components PiVi = niRTi 6. Amagat's Law: The total volume V of a mixture is equal to the sum of the volume occupied by each component at The mixture pressure P, and temperature T. V = Vi n1 m1 V1 n2 m2 V2 n3 m3 V3 P,T P = P1 = P2 = P3 T = T1 = T2 = T3 n = n 1 + n2 + n3 V = V1 + V2 + V3 PV PV1 PV2 PV3 RT RT RT RT RT P V = V1 + V2 + V3 V = V yi Vi V 7. Dalton's Law The total pressure of a mixture P is equal to the sum of the partial pressure that each gas would exert at the mixture volume V and temperature T. P = Pi T = T1 = T2 = T3 V = V1 = V2 = V3 mixture 1 n1 P1 2 n2 P2 n = n 1 + n2 + n 3 PV P1 V P2 V P3 V RT RT RT RT RT P P = P1 + P2 + P3 P yi i P 8. Molecular Weight of a Mixture M y M M R 8.3143 kg R R kgmol i i 9. Gas Constant R x R R R 8.3143 KJ M R kg - K i i 10. Specific Heat KJ Cp x C kg - K Cv x C kg - K i Pi KJ i Vi CP C V R Rk k 1 R CV k 1 CP KJ kg - K 3 n3 P3 n P 11. Gravimetric and Volumetric Analysis Gravimetric Analysis gives the mass fractions of the components in the mixture. Volumetric Analysis gives the volumetric or molal fractions of the components in the mixture. xi y iMi yM i i M y iMi xi Mi yi xi Mi Example 1 The specific weight of water at ordinary pressure and temperature is 9.81 KN/m3. The specific gravity of mercury is 13.55. Compute the density of water, and the specific weight and density of mercury. Example 2 A. Calculate the density, specific weight and specific volume of oxygen at 38C and 104 KPa. B. What would be the temperature and pressure of the gas if it where compressed isentropically to 40 percent of its original volume. C. If the process described in (B) had been isothermal, what would be the temperature and pressure have been? (For O 2: M = 32 ; k = 1.395) Example 3 A vessel contains 85L of water at 10C ( = 999.7 kg/m3) and atmospheric pressure. If it is heated to 70C ( = 977.8 kg/m3), what will be the percentage change in its volume? What mas of water must be removed, to maintain the volume at the original volume? VARIATION OF PRESSURE WITH ELEVATION By applying equations for equilibrium Fy 0 (P dP)A PA W 0 PA dPA PA W 0 dPA W But W γV V A(dh ) dPA γA(dh ) dP γ(dh ) General Equation dP -γdh If the specific weight γ or density ρ is constant ΔP -γΔh Note: Negative sign is used because pressure decreases with increasing elevation and increases with decreasing elevation. h is positive if measured upward h is negative if measured downward Where: P – Pressure in KPa - specific weight in KN/m3 h – elevation in meters a. For isothermal Condition (T = C) P RT Pg γ 1000RT dP γdh ln ρ h 2 h1 h ln Pg dh 1000RT dP g dh P 1000RT 2 dP 2 g dh 1000RT 1 1 P dP P2 g ( h 2 h1 ) P1 1000RT P1 gh P2 1000RT h 1000RT P1 ln Elevation g P2 P2 P1 gh e 1000RT Final Pressure b. Isentropic Condition Pυ k C 2 1 1 P k 1 1 1 / k ( h 2 h1 ) C 1 k 1 k 1 (h ) k 1 k 1 P2 k P1 k k 1 / k C k 1 k 1 C1 / k P2 k P1 k Elevation h k 1 k 1 υ ρ ργ P C γk P1 C γ γ1k P2 γ2k P1 / k C1 / k dP γdh dP dP 1/ k P P 1/ k C dh 1 C 1 1/ k C P 1 / k dP 1 P2 P dh 1/ k P 1 / k dP 2 1/ k 1 k 1 k k 1 h k C1 / k k k 1 Final Pressure dh 1 C1 / k 2 dh 1 Pressure Variation in the Atmosphere TROPOSPHERE: It is the layer in the atmosphere between sea level and 10.769 km and the temperature decreases linearly with increasing elevation at a lapse rate of 6.5K/km. g P Ts 0.0065h 6.5R Ps Ts 6.5R g P Ts 1 Ps h 0.0065 meters STRATOSPHERE: It is the layer that begins at the top of the troposphere and extends to an elevation of 32.3 km, and in this layer the temperature is constant at -55C. P Ps h 1 gh e 1000RT 1000RT Ps ln meters g P where: P - pressure at elevation h, KPa Ps - Pressure at sea level, KPa h - elevation, meters Ts - temperature at sea level in K FROM NASA 1. Atmospheric pressure decreases at the rate of 83.312 mm Hg per 1000 meters rise in elevation. 2. Atmospheric temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5K per 1000 meters rise in elevation. CONDITIONS OF PRESSURE VARIATION WITH ELEVATION General Formula dP dh a. Constant Density 1 dP 1 dh P2 P1 (h 2 h1 ) 2 2 (h 2 h1 ) h P2 P1 h P1 P2 Note h h if measured upward - h - if measured downward b. For Isothermal Condition (T = C) P RT Pg 1000RT dP dh Pg dP dh 1000RT dP g dh P 1000RT g 2 dP 2 1 dh P 1000RT 1 c. Isentropic Condition ln P2 g (h 2 h1 ) P1 1000RT h 2 h1 h ln P1 gh P2 1000RT h 1000RT P1 ln Elevation g P2 P2 P1 gh e 1000RT Final Pressure P k C 1 P C k P P C 1k 2k 1 2 P 1/ k C1/ k dP dh P1/ k dh C1 / k dP 1 1/ k dh 1/ k P C 1 P 1/ k dP 1/ k dh C 1 2 2 1/ k 1 P dP 1/ k 1 dh C dP d. 2 1 1 P k 1 1 1/ k (h 2 h1 ) C 1 k 1 k 1 (h) k 1 k 1 P2 k P1 k k 1/ k C k 1 k 1 1/ k C P2 k P1 k Elevation h k 1 k k k 1 k 1 k 1 h k P2 P1 k 1/ k Final Pressure C Temperature decreases at a Standard Lapse Rate (6.5K per Kilometer) T (Ts 0.0065h) P P RT R(Ts 0.0065h) g Pg 1000 1000R(Ts 0.0065h) dP Pg(dh) 1000R(Ts 0.0065h) dP g dh P 1000R (Ts 0.0065h) 2 1 dP g 2 dh 1 P 1000R (Ts 0.0065h) Ts is constant 1 dP g 2 ( 0.0065)dh P ( 0.0065)1000R 1 (Ts 0.0065h) ln (T 0.0065h) P2 g ln s P1 6.5R Ts 2 g P2 (Ts 0.0065h) 6.5R P1 Ts g (T 0.0065h) 6.5R P2 P1 s Ts 6 .5 R P2 g Ts 1 P1 h 0.0065 MANOMETERS Manometer is an instrument used in measuring gage pressure in length of some liquid column. 1. Open Type Manometer : It has an atmospheric surface and is capable in measuring gage pressure. 2. Differential Type Manometer : It has no atmospheric surface and is capable in measuring differences of pressure. Determination of S using a U - tube Specific gravity or relative density of an unknown liquid can be determine using a U - tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, and applying the Variation of Pressure with Elevation principle, provided that one liquid of known specific gravity is available. Problem No. 1 A mercury manometer shown is connected to a pipeline carrying water ( = 9.81 KN/m3). If the elevation at point B is 3 m above A and the mercury reading y = 1200 mm, what is the pressure in the pipe in KPa. ( of mercury = 133.4 KN/m3) 0 P1 = PB 1 1 2 P2 = PA P0 133.4(1.2) 3(9.81) PA P0 0 PA 189.51KPa Problem no. 2 In the figure shown, fluid A is water ( = 9.81 KN/m3, fluid B is mercury ( = 133.42 KN/m3). Z = 450 mm and Y = 900 mm. Compute the pressure difference (Pn – Pm) in KPa. Pn = P1 1 Pm = P5 5 2 4 3 3 Pn ( y x )9.81 z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pm Pn Pm ( y x )9.81 z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pn Pm y(9.81) x (9.81) z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pn Pm y(9.81) z(133.42) z(9.81) KPa Pn Pm 64.5 KPa Problem no. 3 A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere contains mercury in the lower portion. In one leg, water stands 760 mm above the surface of mercury, in the other leg , oil (S = 0.80) stands 450 mm above the surface of the mercury. What is the difference in elevation between the surfaces of mercury in contact with oil and water columns? HYDROSTATIC FORCES ACTING ON PLANE SURFACES Fig. (a) Fig. (b) C.G. - center of gravity C.P. - center of pressure General Equation: F γhA Therefore, the total hydrostatic force exerted by the fluid on any plane surfaces submerged in a homogeneous fluid at rest, is equal to the product of the surface area A and the pressure at its centroids h . LOCATION OF THE CENTER OF PRESSURE yp Ig A y Ay 2 yp y e ye Ig y Ay Ig Ay Ig e Ss Ss A y e where: e - is the perpendicular distance between C.G. andC.P. Ig - moment of inertia with respect to the axis at its centroids and lying on its plane Ss- statical moment of inertia with respect to the axis SS not lying on its plane HYDROSTATIC FORCE ACTING ON CURVED SURFACES C'C = B'B = L where L - length of the curved surface AB perpendicular to the paper F Fh Fv KN 2 2 Fh γhA KN A = BC x L m2 where: A - area of the vertical projection of the curved surface AB FV γV KN V = AABCDEA m2 Fh - horizontal component of F in KN that passes through the center of pressure of the vertical projection of the curved surface AB Fv - vertical component of F, KN F - total hydrostatic force acting on the curved surface AB Note: If the liquid is underneath the surface the Force acts upward. HOOP TENSION D H 1m Considering a semi-circular segment of 1 m length P = h T T F = 0 F = 2T 1 T F 22 F F T 1m t T On the vertical projection: D 1m F A P where A = 1D F = P(1D) let : S - tensile or hoop stress in KPa S T A where A = 1t (area subjected to tensile stress) S F P(1D) 2(1t) 2(1t) S PD 2t ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE LAWS OF BUOYANCY:Any body partly or wholly submerged in a liquid is subjected to a Buoyant or Upward force, which is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced. If the buoyant force is less than to the weight of the body, the body sinks, and if the buoyant force is greater than the weight of the body the body floats. A. W = BF W = BVBKN; W = BVB kg BF = VsKN; BF = Vs kg B. W = BF - T W = BVBKN; W = BVB kg BF = VsKN; BF = Vs kg C. W = BF + T W = BVBKN; W = BVB kg BF = VsKN ; BF = Vs kg D. W = BF - T W = BVBKN ; W = BVB kg BF = VsKN ; BF = Vs kg VB = Vs E. W = BF + T W = BVBKN ; W = BVB kg BF = VsKN ; BF = Vs kg VB = Vs where: W - weight of the body; KN, kg BF - buoyant force, KN, kg VB - volume of body, m3 Vs - volume submerged, m3 B - specific gravity of the body, KN/m3 - specific gravity of the liquid, KN/m3 B - density of the body, kg/m3 - density of the liquid, kg/m3 SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF SOLIDS HEAVIER THAN WATER SB W1 W1 W2 SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF AN UNKNOWN LIQUIDS SB W1 W3 W1 W2 Where W1 – weight of the body in air W2 - weight of the body in water W3 - weight of the body in an unknown liquid SAMPLE PROBLEMS Problem No. 1 (Manometer) A mercury manometer shown is connected to a pipeline carrying water ( = 9.81 KN/m3). If the elevation at point B is 3 m above A and the mercury reading y = 1200 mm, what is the pressure in the pipe in KPa. ( of mercury = 133.4 KN/m3) 0 P1 = PB 1 1 2 P2 = PA P0 133.4(1.2) 3(9.81) PA P0 0 PA 189.51 KPa Problem no. 2 (Manometer) In the figure shown, fluid A is water ( = 9.81 KN/m3, fluid B is mercury ( = 133.42 KN/m3). Z = 450 mm and Y = 900 mm. Compute the pressure difference (Pn – Pm) in KPa. Pn = P1 1 Pm = P5 5 2 4 3 3 Pn ( y x )9.81 z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pm Pn Pm ( y x )9.81 z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pn Pm y(9.81) x (9.81) z(133.42) z(9.81) x (9.81) Pn Pm y(9.81) z(133.42) z(9.81) KPa Pn Pm 64.5 KPa Problem No. 3 (Variation of Pressure) An airplane barometer reads 762 mm Hg at sea level and 736 mm Hg at some unknown elevation. If the temperature at sea level is 15 C, what is the elevation assuming: a. air at constant density b. air under isothermal condition c. air temperature decreases linearly with elevation at the rate of 6.5 K per kilometer. Given: P1 = 762 mm Hg = 101.6 KPa P2 = 736 mm Hg = 98.23 KPa T1 = 15 + 273 = 288 K a. Constant density P 101.6 kg 1.23 3 RT 0.287(288) m 1.23(9.81) KN 0.01206 3 1000 m P2 P1 (h2 h1 ) P P h 1 2 279.4 meters b. Constant Temperature h 1000RT P1 ln g P2 h 284.2 meters c. Air temperature decreases linearly with elevation at the rate of 6.5 K per kilometer g P2 T1 0.0065h 6.5R P1 T1 6.5R g P 2 T1 1 P1 meters h 0.0065 h = 283.04 meters Problem No. 4 (Variation of Pressure) The bottom of a river is 12 m below the water surface. Underneath which is a silt having a specific gravity of 1.75 and a thickness t. The pressure at the bottom of silt is 450 KPa. Determine the thickness of the silt. at 0 to 2 0 9.81(12) 1.75(9.81)t 450 450 (9.81)12 t 19.355 M 1.75(9.81) Problem No. 5 (Hydrostatic forces) A rectangular gate 1.6 m wide and 2 m high has water on one side and is inclined at 45with the horizontal. Water is 1.5 m above the top of the gate. a) Compute the total force acting on the gate and its location b) If the gate is hinged at the top(B)what force P is needed at the bottom(A) to open the gate. h 1.5 1 sin 45 h 1.5 1 sin 45 M at A h 2.207 m 2P F(1.10) 0 69.3(1.10) P 2 P 38.3 KN 2 A 1.6(2) 3.2 m F 9.81(2.207)(3. 2) F 69.3 KN From Figure sin 45 h y 2.207 y 3.12 m sin 45 For a rectangle Ig yp B yp’ bh3 1.6(2)3 1.0666 m4 12 12 Ig A y 2 Ay 2m F 1.0666 3.2(3.12)2 3.2(3.12) y p 3.23 m P 1.5 1.5 y p' y p 3.23 sin 45 sin 45 y p' 1.109 m A Problem No. 6 (Forces of Curved Surfaces) The curve surface represented by AB in the figure is the surface of a quadrant of a circular cylinder 3 m long. Determine the horizontal and vertical component of the total hydrostatic force on the surface if the liquid is gasoline with S = 0.72. Fv L - length L=3m R = 2 m (radius) Liquid surface Fh γ hA 3m A 2(3) 6 m 2 L=3 m h 3 1 4 m γ 0.72(9.810) 7.0632 KN m3 Fh 169.52 KN Fv γV 1 V π 22 2(3) 3 27.425 m 3 4 Fv 7.0632(27.425) 193.71 KN F Fh 2 Fv 2 257.41 KN 2m Fh 2m h 4m Problem No. 7 (Buoyancy) Two spheres each 1.2 m in diameter weighs 4 KN and 12 KN, respectively. They are connected with a short rope and placed in water. What portion of the lighter sphere protrudes from the water. W1 4 KN; W2 12 KN; R Volume of Sphere 1.2 0.60 m 2 4 πR 3 3 W1 W2 BF1 BF2 4 4 12 9.81VS1 9.81 π(0.60) 3 3 VS1 0.73 m 3 VF1 volume protrudes above liquid surface 4 VF1 π(0.60) 3 0.73 0.175 m 3 3 Problem No. 8 (Buoyancy) A block of material of an unknown volume is submerged in water and weighs 500 N. The same block weighs 650 N when weigh in air. Determine the volume of the material in m3. S W1 650 4.33 W1 W2 650 500 ρ 4.33(1000) 4330 kg m3 W mg 650 66.26 kg 9.81 m ρ V 66.26 V 0.0153 m 3 4330 m Problem No. 9 (Forces on Plane surface) A square gate (3 m x 3 m) is hinged at the top = 0.80) stands on the left side of the gate to a height of 1.5 m above point A. Determine the amount of the hydrostatic force exerted by the oil on the gate and its location of the center of pressure. Ig for a square: Ig = bh 3 12 SOLUTION h 1.5 1.5 sin 60 2.79 m F 0.80(9.81)(2.79)(9) 197.06 KN yp Ig A y 2 Ay 3(3) 3 Ig 6.75 m 12 h y 3.22 m sin 60 6.75 9(3.22) 2 yp 3.453 m 9(3.22) Problem No. 10 (Hoop Tension) A 1.2 m diameter steel pipe, 6 mm thick, carries oil with S = 0.822 under a head of 122 m of oil. Compute a. The stress in the steel in KPa b. The thickness of the steel pipe required to carry a pressure of 1724 KPa with an allowable stress of 124 MPa PD 2t P 0.822(9.81)(122) 983.8 KPa S 983.8(1.2) 98,379 KPa 2(0.006) 1724(1.2) t 0.0083 m 8.3 mm 124,000(2) S SAMPLE OF MANOMETER PROBLEMS 7. The closed tank in the figure is filled with water. The pressure gage on the tank reads 48 KPa. Determine d. The height h in mm in the open water column e. The gage pressure acting on the bottom of the tank surface AB f. The absolute pressure of the air in the top of the tank if the local atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa absolute. 8. The mercury manometer in the figure indicates a differential reading of 30 m when the pressure in pipe A is 30 mm Hg vacuum. Determine the pressure in pipe B. 9. In the figure pipe A contains carbon tetrachloride (S = 1.60) and the closed storage tank B contains a salt brine (S = 1.15). Determine the air pressure in tank B in KPa if the gage pressure in pipe A is 1.75 kg/cm2. 10. A U tube mercury manometer is connected to a closed pressurized tank as shown. If the air pressure is 14 KPa, determine the differential reading h. The specific weight of the air is negligible. 11. A closed tank contains compressed air and oil (S = 0.90) as shown in the figure.a U – tube manometer using mercury (S = 13.6) is connected to the tank as shown. For column heights h1 = 90 cm; h2 = 15 cm and h3 = 22 cm, determine the pressure reading of the gage. 12. The pressure of gas in a pipeline is measured with a mercury manometer having one limb open to the atmosphere. If the difference in the height of mercury in the limbs is 562 mm, calculate the absolute gas pressure. The barometer reads 761 mm Hg, the acceleration due to gravity is 9.79 m/sec2 and SHg = 13.64. 13. A turbine is supplied with steam at a gauge pressure of 1.4 MPa, after expansion in the turbine the steam flows into a condenser which is maintained at a vacuum of 710 mm Hg. The barometric pressure is 772mm Hg. Express the inlet and exhaust pressure in kg/cm2 . Take the S of mercury is 13.6. 14. The pressure of steam flowing in a pipe line is measured with a mercury manometer. Some steam condenses in to water. /estimate the steam pressure in KPa. Take the density of mercury as 13,600 kg/m 3, the barometer reading as 76.1 cm Hg and g = 9.806 m/sec2. 15. A manometer is attached to a tank containing three different fluids, as ashow in the figure below. What will be the difference in elevation h of th mercury column in the manometer. Quiz no. _______ 1. The pressure on top of a mountain is 90 KPa. If the pressure and temperature ate sea level are 101 KPa and 288 K, respectively, Determine the height of the mountain and the temperature on top, Assuming a. Constant density b. Isothermal condition c. Isentropic condition d. Standard atmospheric lapse rate prevails 2. A manometer is attached to a tank containing different fluids, as shown in the figure below. What will be the difference in elevation of the mercury column in the manometer. 1. A differential manometer is shown in the figure below. Calculate the pressure difference (P A – PB) in kg/cm2. (1 inch = 25.4 mm; 1 m = 1000 mm). 2. On top of a mountain the pressure is 85 KPa. If the pressure and temperature ate sea level are 101.33 KPa and 21C respectively, Determine the altitude and temperature on top of the mountain, assuming Constant density b. Isothermal condition c. Isentropic condition d. Standard atmospheric lapse rate prevails 3. For the configuration shown below, calculate the weight of the piston if the gage pressure reading is 70 KPa. 4. On a certain day a PAL plane is flying at an altitude of 3000 m. If the atmospheric pressure and temperature at sea level are 101 KPa and 288 K, respectively. Determine the pressure and temperature in the plane, assuming a. Constant density from sea level to elevation 3000 m b. Isothermal condition c. Isentropic condition d. Standard atmospheric lapse rate prevails 5. A mountain is 2000 meters above sea level. If the pressure and temperature ate sea level are 101 KPa and 288 K, respectively, Determine the temperature and pressure on top of the mountain, assuming a. b. c. Constant density from sea level to the top of the mountain Isothermal condition Isentropic condition Standard atmospheric lapse rate prevails 6. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.03 KPa and the absolute pressure at the bottom of the tank is 231.3 KPa. What is the specific gravity of olive oil? (S of SAE oil = 0.89 ; S of Hg = 13.6) 101.3 (0.89)(9.81)1.5 2.5(9.81) γ oil (2.9) 13.6(9.81)(0.4) 231.3 γ oil 13.34 KN m3 Soil 1.36 SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A vertical piston cylinder device contains a gas at an unknown pressure. If the outside pressure is 100 kPa, determine (a) the pressure of the gas if the piston has an area of 0.2 m2 and a mass of 20 kg. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2. (b) What-if-Scenario: How would the answer in (a) changes if the orientation of the device is changed upside down. Answers: (a) 101 kPa, (b) 99 kPa. 2. A piston with a diameter of 50 cm and a thickness of 5 cm is made of a composite material with a density of 4000 kg/m3. (a) If the outside pressure is 101 KPa, determine the pressure inside the piston-cylinder assembly if the cylinder contains air. (b) How would the answer change if the piston diameter was 100 cm instead? Answers: (a) 104.8 KPa 3. Water flows through a variable-area pipe with a mass flow rate of 10,000 kg/min. Determine the minimum diameter of the pipe if the flow velocity is not to exceed 5 m/s. Assume density of water to be 1000 kg/m 3. Answers: 0.206 m 4. A bucket of concrete with a mass of 5000 kg is raised without any acceleration by a crane through a height of 20 m. (a) Determine the work transferred into the bucket. (b) What happens to the energy as it is transferred to the bucket? (c) Also determine the power delivered to the bucket if it is raised at a constant speed of 1 m/s. Answers: (a) 981 kJ, (c) 49.05 kW 5. A building in Makati is 84.5 m high above the street level. The required static pressure of the water line at the top of the building is 2.5 kg/cm2. What must be the pressure in KPa in the main water located 4.75 m below the street level. P1 = 245.166 KPa 245 .166 9.81(84 .5) 4.75 (9.81) 1120 .71 KPa 6. A cylindrical tank 2 m diameter, 3 m high is full of oil. If the specific gravity of oil is 0.9, what is the mass of oil in the tank? kg ρ 0.9(1000) 900 3 m π 2 V (2) 3 9.425 m 3 4 m ρ V m 900(9.425) 8482.5 kg 7. A cubical tank 1 m on a side, contains a mixture of 1.8 kg of nitrogen (M = 28; k = 1.399) and 2.8 kg of an unknown gas. The mixture pressure and temperature are 290 KPa and 340 K. Determine a) Molecular weight and gas constant of the unknown gas b) the volumetric analysis Given: 8.3143 Mx 72.93 kg/kg m mN2 = 1.8 kg ; mx = 2.8 kg 0.114 P = 290 KPa ; T = 340K xi 0.391 0.609 Mi 28 72.93 0.014 0.0084 xi Mi 0.0223 m 1.8 2.8 4.6 kg 1.8 0.391 39.1% 4.6 x x 0.609 60.9% x N2 PV mRT y N 2 0.6278 62.78% y x 0.3722 37.22% mixture V 1(1)(1) 1 m 3 290(1) KJ 0.1854 4.6(340) kg - K R x N2R N2 X x R x R 8.4143 KJ 0.297 28 kg K 0.1854 0.391(0.297) 0.609( Rx ) R N2 R x 0.114 KJ kg - K 8. A closed vessel of 0.7 m3 internal volume contains a gas at 58 KPa and 18C and with R = 0.27 KJ/kg- K.If now 0.35 kg of another gas at 18C and R = 0.29 KJ/kg-K is also admitted into the vessel. Calculate the final pressure of the mixture. P1V m1R 1 T1 Given: V = 0.7 m3 58(0.7) m1 0.517 kg P1 = 58 KPa; T1 = 18 + 273 = 291 K 0.27(291) R1 = 0.27 KJ/kg-K m m1 m2 0.517 0.35 m2 = 0.35 kg m 0.867 kg T2 = 291 K R2 = 0.29 KJ/kg-K 0.517 x1 0.5963 0.867 0.35 x2 0.4037 0.867 R x1R 1 x2R 2 R 0.5963(0.27) 0.4037(0.29) R 0.278 KJ kg - K mRT 0.867(0.278)(291) V 0.7 P 100.2 KPa P 9. In the figure shown the diameters of the two cylinders are 75 mm and 600 mm, the face of the piston is 6 m above the face of the weight “W” and the intervening passages is filled with oil (S = 0.80). What force F is required if W = 35 KN. F W = 35 KN 10. If 1 100 N force F1 is applied to the piston with 5 cm diameter, what is the magnitude of the force F2 that can be resisted by the piston with the 10 cm diameter? Neglect the weights of the piston. F2 10 cm oil 2m F1 5 cm 2.2 m 11. A glass tube 1.5 m long and 25 mm diameter with one end closed is inserted vertically with the open end down into a tank of water until the open end is submerged to a depth of 1.2 m. If the barometric pressure is 98 KPa, and neglecting vapor pressure, how high will water rise in the tube. (Assume isothermal conditions for air) 1.5 m 1.2 - x 1.2 m x MANOMETER 1. A mercury manometer shown is connected to a pipeline carrying water ( = 9.81 KN/m3). If the elevation at point B is 3 m above A and the mercury reading y = 1200 mm, what is the pressure in the pipe in KPa.( of mercury = 133.4 KN/m3) Open y = 1200 mm B 3m A 2. A is water, Fluid B is oil (S = 0.80), z = 350 mm. Compute the pressure difference between m and n in KPa. Fluid B z m n Fluid A Example 2 What force must be exerted through the bolts to hold the dome in place? The metal dome and pipe weighs 6 KN and has no bottom. 80 cm ID = 20 cm 400 cm 160 cm h 1.6 4 5.6 m V - Volume of imaginary volume of liquid V Vcylinder - Vdome 14 V π(1.6) 2 5.6 π1.6 3 23 2 V π1.6 2 5.6 1.6 36.46 m3 3 Tension in bolts 9.81(36.46) - 6 351.7 KN R = 160 cm water Example 3 A hemispherical dome surrounds a closed tank as shown. If the tank and dome are filled with gasoline (S = 0.72) and the gage indicates a pressure of 60 KPa. What is the total tension in the bolts holding the dome in place. 5.5 m R=2m Gasoline S = 0.72 3.0 m P =60 KPa By extending the curved surface to the imaginary free surface of the liquid with 0 gage 0 0.72(9.81)h 60 h 8.5 m H - height of imaginary cylindrica l prism H 8.5 - 3 5.5 m the weight of imaginary fluid prism V Vcylinder - Vdome 14 V π22 5.5 π23 52.4 m 3 23 W 0.72(9.81)(52.4) 370 KN Example 4 A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side floats at the interface between oil and water with its lower surface 1.50 cm below the interface. The density of the oil is 790 kg/m3 . What is the gage pressure at the lower face of the block? What is the mass and density of the block? 1. A piece of wood of S = 0.651 is 8 cm square and 150 cm long. How many kilograms of lead weighing 11,200 kg/m 3 must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it will float upright with 30.5 cm out of water? S 0.651 kg m3 V1 0.08(0.08)(1.5) 0.96 m 3 ρ wood 0.651(1000) 651 W1 0.96(651) 6.25 kg W2 11,200V2 BF1 (1.5 0.305)(0.08) 21000 7.65 kg BF2 1000V2 W1 W2 BF1 BF2 6.25 11,200V2 7.65 1000V2 V2 7.65 - 6.25 1.4 x 10- 4 m 3 10,200 W2 1.4 x 10- 4 (11200) 1.54 kg 2. A barge is loaded with 150 Metric tons of coal. The weight of the empty barge in air is 35 Metric ton. If the barge is 5.5 m wide, 16 m long and 3 m high, what is its draft. (Depth below the water surface) W BF W1 W2 ρVs (150 35)(1000) 1000(5.5)(16)h h 2.1 m 3. A prismatic object 20 cm thick by 20 cm wide by 40 cm long is weighed in water at a depth of 50 cm and found to weigh 50 N. What is its weight in air and its specific gravity? W1 W2 50 Newton V1 (0.20)(0.20)(0.4) 0.016 m 3 ρ1 m1 V1 m1 V W1 S 1 1000 W1 W2 W1 m1g Newton W1 gV1 W1 1000 W1 W2 W1 W1 9810V1 W1 W2 1 1 9810V1 W1 W2 W1 W2 9,810(0.016) W1 156.96 50 W1 206.96 Newton S 4. 206.96 1.312 206.96 - 50 A ship, with vertical sides near the water line, weighs 3630 Metric ton and draws 6.7 m in saltwater (S = 1.025). Discharge of 181 Metric ton of water ballast decreases the draft to 6.4 m. What would be the draft d of the ship in fresh water (S = 1) W1 BF1 3630(1000) A1L(6.7)(1.025)(1000) 3,630 Eq.1 6.7(1.025) W2 BF2 A1L (3,630 181)(1000) A 2 L(6.4)(1.025)(1000) A 2L 3449 Eq.2 (6.4)(1.025) 1. An object weighs 25.95 N when submerged in kerosene (S = 0.81) and weighs 26.6 N when submerged in gasoline (S = 0.68). Determine the specific weight of the object. 2. Determine the water power and mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump which has an input of 3 KW. If the pump has a 203 mm diameter suction line and a 152 mm diameter discharge line and handles 10 L/sec of water at 66C ( =980 kg/m3; = 9.6 KN/m3). The suction line gauge shows 102 mm Hg vacuum and the discharge gauge shows 180 KPa. The Discharge gauge is located 61 cm above the center of the discharge pipeline and the pump inlet and discharge lines are at the same elevation. 3. A piece of wood of S = 0.651 is 8 cm square and 150 cm long. How many kilograms of lead weighing 11,200 kg/m 3 must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it will float upright with 30.5 cm out of water? 4. At one point in a pipeline the water speed is 3 m/sec and the gage pressure is 50 KPa. Find the gage pressure at a second point in the line, 11 m lower than the first, if the pipe diameter at the second point is twice at the first. 1. A circular gate 1.5 m in diameter is inclined at an angle of 45. Sea water (S = 1.02) stands on one side of the gate to a height of 10 m above the center of the gate. Determine the total hydrostatic force F and the location of C.P. F hA 1.02(9.81)(10) h sin45 F hA A e 2 D 4 Ig y 10 y 14.142 m sin 45 A 1.767 m 2 Ig Ay h y sin 45 D 4 Ig 64 (1.5) 2 176.82 KN 4 yp D 4 0.2485 m 4 64 Ig A y Ay 2 14.15 m 2. An airplane barometer reads 762 mm Hg at sea level and 736 mm Hg at some unknown elevation. If the temperature at sea level is 15 C, what is the elevation assuming: a. air at constant density (h = 287.8 m) b. air under isothermal condition(h = 292.8 m) c. air under isentropic conditions (h = 291.35 m) d. air condition follows standard atmosphere condition (h = 291.83 m) SOLUTION: 762 101.325 101.6 KPa Ps 760 Ts 15 273 288 K 736 101.325 98.13 KPa P 760 1. What force must be exerted through the bolts to hold the dome in place? The metal dome and pipe weighs 6 KN and has no bottom. h 1 .6 4 5 .6 m V - Volume of imaginary volume of liquid V Vcylinder - Vdome V (1.6) 2 5.6 1 4 3 1.6 23 2 2 V 1.6 5.6 1.6 36.46 m 3 3 Tension in bolts 9.81(36.46) - 6 351.7 KN 2. A U tube mercury manometer is connected to a closed pressurized tank as shown. If the air pressure is 14 KPa, determine the differential reading h. The specific weight of the air is negligible. 14 9.81(0.6) 9.81(0.6) 9.81h 13.6(9.81)h 14 19.81(0.6) 9.81(0.6) 9.81h 13.6(9.81)h 0 h (9.81)(1.2) 0.095 m 9.5 cm 12.6(9.81) 1. A BOEING 747 flies at an altitude of 2500 m above sea level where Ps = 101.33 KPa and Ts = 288 K. Determine the pressure and temperature at this altitude considering a. air under isothermal condition (P2 = 75.31 KPa ; T = 288 K) b. air under isentropic conditions (P2 = 74.31 KPa ; T = 263.6 K) c. air condition follows standard atmosphere condition (P2 = 74.66 KPa ; T = 271.75 K) h 2500 m Ps 101.33 KPa Ts 288 K 1. The closed tank in the figure is filled with water. The pressure gage on the tank reads 48 KPa. Determine a. The height h in mm in the open water column b. The gage pressure acting on the bottom of the tank surface AB c. The absolute pressure of the air in the top of the tank if the local atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa absolute. 48 0.60(9.81) h(9.81) 0 h 5 .5 m 48 0.6(9.81) (0.6)(9.81) PAB PAB 59.772 KPa Pabs 48 101 149 KPa 2. The air above the liquid is under a pressure of 40 KPa gage, and the specific gravity of the liquid in the tank is 0.80. If the rectangular gate is 1 m wide and if y1 = 1 m and y2 = 3 m , What force P is required to hold the gate in place? SOLUTION F 40 0.8(9.81)( 2.5) (1)(3) 178.86 KN Ig e Ay Ig 1(3)3 2.25 m 4 12 A y 3(2.5) 7.5 m3 e 0.3 m M @ Hinge 0 F(1.5 0.3) 3P p 178.86(1.8) 107.32 KN 3 FLUID MECHANICS QUIZ NO. 3 1. A block of wood has a vertical projection of 15.24 cm when placed in water and 10.2 cm when placed in alcohol. If the specific gravity of alcohol is 0.82, find the specific gravity of wood gravity of wood. 2. In water W BF 1000A(h - 0.1524) 1 In Alcohol W BF 0.82(1000)A(h - 0.102) 2 Equating eq.1 and eq. 2 (h - 0.1524) 0.82(h - 0.102) h - 0.82h 0.1524 0.82(0.102) h 0.382 m W 1000(0.2296)A 3 W ρ B A(0.382) 4 eq.3 eq. 4 1000(0.2296) 0.382ρ B SB 3. ρB 0.2296 0.601 1000 0.382 A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side floats at the interface between oil and water with its lower surface 1.50 cm below the interface. The density of the oil is 790 kg/m3 . What is the gage pressure at the lower face of the block? What is the mass and density of the block? 4. Compartments A and B of the tank shown in the figure below are closed and filled with air and a liquid with S = 0.6. If the atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa (abs) and the pressure gage reads 3.5 KPa (gage), determine the manometer reading h in cm. 3.5 9.81h 0.6(9.81)h 0.6(9.81)0.02 13.6(9.81)(0.03) 0 h 5. 3.5 0.6(9.81)0.02 13.6(9.81)(0.03) 1.9 m 9.81(1 0.6) The gate shown is hinged at A and rests on a smooth floor at B. The gate is 3 m square. Oil (S = 0.80) stands on the left side of the gate to a height of 1.5 m above A. Above the oil surface is a gas under a gage pressure of -6.9 KPa. Determine the amount of the vertical force P applied at B that would be required to open the gate. P = -6.9 KPag Free Surface 1.5m h A F P CG CP 3 m 45 h 1.5 1.5 sin 45 2.56 m F 6.9 0.80 (9.81)2.56 (3)(3) 118 .8 KN 6. A spherical buoy 2 m in diameter floats half submerge in a liquid with S = 1.5. What is the weight of the lead anchor weighing 7000 kg/m3 will completely submerged the buoy in the liquid. ρ L 1.5(1000) 1500 kg m3 4 3 πR 4.18 m 3 3 14 Vs π(1) 3 2.09 m 3 volume submerge 23 W1 BF1 ρ L (Vs ) Vsphere W1 1500(2.09) 3135 kg from figure 2 : W1 W2 BF1 BF2 BF1 1500(Vsphere ) 1500(4.18) 6270 kg W1 3135 kg W2 7000V2 BF2 1500V2 3135 7000V2 6270 1500V2 V2 0.57 m 3 W2 3990 kg 7. A glass tube 1.5 m long and 25 mm diameter with one end closed is inserted vertically with the open end down into a tank of water until the open end is submerged to a depth of 1.2 m. If the barometric pressure is 98 KPa, and neglecting vapor pressure, how high will water rise in the tube. (Assume isothermal conditions for air) fOR isothermal : P1V1 P2 V2 π (0.025) 2 (1.5) 0.00074 m 3 4 P2 98 9.81(1.2 x ) 1 V1 π (0.025) 2 (1.5 x ) 2 4 π π 98 (0.025) 2 (1.5) 98 9.81(1.2 x ) (0.025) 2 (1.5 x ) 4 4 98(1.5) 98 9.81(1.2 x )(1.5 x ) V2 147 (98 11.772 9.81x )(1.5 x ) 147 (109.772 9.81x )(1.5 x ) 147 164.658 109.772x 14.715x 9.81x 2 9.81x 2 124.487x 17.658 0 x 2 12.7 x 1.8 0 12.7 12.98 2 x 0.14 m 14 cm x 1. A brass cube 152.4 mm on a side weighs 298.2 N. We want to hold this cube in equilibrium under water by attaching a light foam buoy to it. If the foam weighs 707.3 N/m3, what is the minimum required volume of the buoy? W1 298.2 N BF1 (0.1524)3 (9810) 34.72 N W2 707.3V2 1 BF2 V2 (9810) 2 298.2 707.3V2 34.72 V2 (9810) 298.2 34.72 0.029 m 3 9810 707.3 A man dives into a lake and tries to lift a large rock weighing 170 kg. If the density of the granite rock is 2700 kg/m3, find the force that the man needs to apply to lift it from the bottom of the lake. Assume density of lake water to be 1000 kg/m3. V2 2. W 2700V 170 kg 170 0.063 m 3 2700 BF 1000(0.063) 63 kg V W BF T T 170 - 63 107 kg Example 1 A large pipe called a penstock in hydraulic work is 1.5 m in diameter. Here it is composed of wooden staves bound together by steel hoops each 3.23 cm2 in area, and is used to conduct water from a reservoir to a powerhouse. If the maximum tensile stress permitted in the hoops is 130 MPa, what is the maximum spacing between hoops under a head of 30.5 m. 1.5 m L P 9.81(30.5) 299.205 KPa D 1.5 m On the vertical projection F ; A LD A F 299.205(1.5)L 448.81L KN P F 224.4L KN 2 Tensile Stress on the hoop T T ; A 3.23 cm 2 A A 0.000323 m 2 S S 130000 KPa 224.4L 0.000323 L 0.187 m 18.7 cm 130000 L Example 2 Compute the wall stress in a 1200 mm diameter steel pipe 6 mm thick under a pressure of 970 KPa. Given: D = 1.2 m t = 0.006 m P = 970 KPa S PD 970(1.2) 97,000 KPa 2t 2(0.006) Example 3 What is the minimum allowable thickness of 600 mm diameter steel pipe under an internal pressure of 860 KPa with a working stress in the steel of 70,000KPa. S PD 2t 860(0.600) 2t t 0.004 m 4 mm 70,000 Example 4 A wood stave pipe is bound by steel rods which take the entire bursting stress. Find the proper spacing for 25 mm steel rods for a 1800 mm diameter wood stave pipe under a pressure of 590 KPa if the working stress in the steel is 105,000 KPa. Given Dr = 0.025 m D = 1.8 m P = 590 KPa S = 105,000 KPa F 2T A DL For the rods P S T 0.0252 4 105,000 4T 0.025 2 T 51.54 KN L 2(51.54) 0.10 m 590(1.8) L 10 cm Example 5 A vertical cylindrical tank, 2 m in diameter and 4 m high, is held together by means of two steel hoops, one at the top and one at the bottom. When molasses (S = 1.50) stands to a depth of 3 m in the tank, what is the tensile force in each hoop? A. NOZZLE 2 2 P1 v 1 P v Z 1 2 2 Z 2 HL 2g 2g From continuity equation: Q = Av ; for 1 = 2 = Q A 1v 1 A 2 v 2 For a nozzle the head loss HL is equal to: 1 v 2 1 2 C 2g v 2 where: Cv - velocity coefficient JET POWER 2 v PJet Q 2 2g B. VENTURI METER C. ORIFICE An orifice is an opening with a closed perimeter in which fluid flows. By applying Bernoulli's Energy theorem: 2 2 P1 v 1 P v Z1 2 2 Z2 2g 2g But P1 = P2 = Pa and v1 is negligible, then 2 v2 Z1 Z2 2g and from figure: Z1 - Z2 = h, therefore 2 v2 h 2g v 2 2gh let v2 = vt v t 2gh where: vt - theoretical velocity, m/sec h - head producing the flow, meters g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 COEFFICIENT OF VELOCITY (Cv) actual velocity theoretica l velocity v' Cv vt Cv COEFFICIENT OF CONTRACTION area of jet @ vena contracta area of the orifice a Cc A Cc where: a - area of jet at vena contracta, m2 A - area of the orifice, m2 COEFFICIENT OF DISCHARGE actual flow theoretica l flow Q' Cd Q Cd C v Cc Cd where: v' - actual velocity vt - theoretical velocity a - area of jet at vena contracta A - area of orifice Q' - actual flow Q - theoretical flow Cv - coefficient of velocity Cc - coefficient of contraction Cd - coefficient of discharge JET TRAJECTORY: v velocity of water at tip of nozzle at 1 to 0 v o 2 v12 - 2gd 0 v12 - 2gd (vsin θ) 2 1 2g v 0 v1 gt d v sin θ 2 g at 0 to 2 t d v1t 1 2 gt 2 d 0 1 2 gt 2 d 1 2 gt 2 3 (vsin θ) 2 1 2 2 gt 2g t2 (vsin θ) 2 g2 (vsin θ) t 4 g R v cos θ(2 t ) 2(vsin θ)( v cos θ) v 2 (2sin θ cos θ) g g (2sin θ cos θ) sin( 2θ) R R v 2 (sin2 θ) 5 g If the jet is flowing from a vertical orifice: If the jet is initially horizontal vx = v. D. PUMP Pump is a steady - state, steady - flow machine in which mechanical energy is added to the liquid from one point to another point of higher pressure. B z2 TANK 1 z1 A TANK Pump Centerline PUMP Points 1 & 2 are the reference points at suction and discharge, respectively. a) Total Dynamic Head (Ht) P P v 2 v12 h t 2 1 2 Z2 Z1 HL meters γ 2g b) Fluid or Water Power (FP) FP Qh t KW c) Capacity or Discharge (Q) Q A1v1 A 2 v 2 m3/sec d) Brake or Shaft Power (BP) 2TN KW 60,000 BP e) Motor Power (MP) (For motor driven pump) 1. For single - phase motors MP EI(cos ) KW 1000 2. For 3 - phase motors MP 3 EI(cos ) KW 1000 f) Pump Efficiency p FP x 100% BP g) Motor Efficiency m BP x 100% MP h) Combined Pump-Motor Efficiency (Overall Efficiency) c MP x 100 % IP where: ht - total dynamic head, m FP - Fluid or Water Power, Kw BP - Brake or Shaft Power, KW MP - Motor Power. KW IP - Power input to motor, KW Q - Capacity or Discharge, m3/sec - Specific weight of the liquid pumped, KN/m3 v - velocity, m/sec P - pressure, KPa g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec2 Z - elevation, m (Positive if measured above datum, and negative if measured below datum) HL - head loss (due to fluid friction, fittings and turbulence in pipes) T - Brake torque, N-m N - no. of RPM (revolutions per minute) E - Volts I - current drawn by the motor, Amperes cos - Power Factor E. HYDRAULIC TURBINE Impulse Type (Pelton Type) Reaction Type( Francis Turbine) Dam 1 Head Water Head Gates (Fully Open Penstock Y – Gross Head PA A Draft Tube zA B 2 Tail Water Fundamental Equations 1. TOTAL DYNAMIC HEAD (h): a. For an Impulse Type h = (Z1 - Z2) - HL meters h = Y - HL meters Y = Z1 - Z2 meters b. For a Reaction Type h = (Z1 - Z2) - HL meters h = Y - HL meters Y = Z1 - Z2 meters Y - gross head at plant, m at A to 2 h PA v 2A z A meters 2g 2. WATER POWER (WP): FP = Qh KW 3. DISCHARGE OR RATE OF FLOW (Q): Q = Av m3/sec 4. BRAKE POWER (BP): BP = 2TN KW 60 000 T - brake torque, N-m N - rotative speed, RPM 5. TURBINE EFFICIENCY (e) e = BP x 100% FP e = evehem where: ev - volumetric efficiency eh - hydraulic efficiency em - mechanical efficiency 6. ROTATIVE SPEED (N): N 120f n where: f - frequency, cps or Hertz n - no. of generator poles (usually divisible by 4) QUIZ NO. 4 Problem No. 1 The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 KPa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? d1 0.10 m m sec C v 0.98 v1 3 P1 55 KPa Applying Bernoulli' s equation 2 2 P1 v 1 P v z1 2 2 z 2 HL 2g 2g 2 2 1 v 2 1 v v HL 2 1 2 1 2 0.041 2 2 2g 2g Cv 2g (0.98) 2 2 2 P1 v 1 v v 0 0 2 0 0.041 2 2g 2g 2g 2 2 v2 1 0.041 P1 v1 2g 2g v2 P v 2 2g 1 1 2g 10.75 m 1 0.041 sec m3 (0.10)2 (3) 0.024 4 sec 2 m3 Q d2 (10.75) 0.024 4 sec d2 0.053 m 5.3 cm Q Av (10.75)2 0.24 m HL 0.041 2g Problem No. 2 A centrifugal pump draws water from a well at the rate of 142 L/sec of water through a 203 mm ID suction line and a 152 mm ID discharge line. The suction gauge located on the pump centerline reads 254 mm Hg vacuum, while the discharge gauge is 6 m above the pump centerline. If the power input to the water is 75 KW, find the reading of the discharge gauge in KPa. m3 sec d1 0.203 m ; A 1 0.032 m2 Q 0.142 d2 0.152 m; A 2 0.018 m2 2 d 4 Q v A A m m ; v 2 7 .8 sec sec z1 0; z 2 6 m v 1 4 .4 101.325 P1 -254 33.86 KPa 760 WP Qht ht 75 53.84 m (0.142)(9.81) ht P2 P1 v 2 v 1 z 2 z1 HL 2g 2 2 2 2 P v v1 P2 ht 2 z 2 z1 HL 1 2 g P2 414.45 KPa Problem No. 3 A 15 KW suction pump draws water from a suction line whose diameter is 200 mm and discharges through a line whose diameter is 150 mm. The velocity in 150 mm line is 3.6 m/sec. If the pressure at point A in the suction line is 34.5 KPa below the atmosphere where A is 1.8 m below that of B on the 150 mm line, Determine the maximum elevation above B to which water can be raised assuming a head loss of 3 m due to friction. FP d1 d2 v2 P1 P2 HL A1 A2 Q v1 SW P1/SW P2/SW v1^2/2g v2^2/2g z1 z2 ht D(Phead) D(Vhead) KW m m m/sec KPa KPa m m^2 m^2 m^3/sec m/sec KN/m^3 m m m m m D(Ehead) 15 0.2 0.15 3.6 -34.5 0 3 0.03 0.02 0.064 2.025 9.81 -3.52 0.000 0.209 0.66 0.0 1.8 + h 24.04 3.52 0.45 (1.8 + h) h 15.27 m m Problem No. 4 A power nozzle throws a jet of water that is 50 mm in diameter. The diameter of the base of the nozzle and of the approach pipe is150 mm. If the power of the nozzle jet is 42 HP and the pressure head at the base of the nozzle is 54 m, compute the head lost in the nozzle. Problem No. 5 A fire pump delivers water through a 150 mm main to a hydrant to which is connected a 75 mm hose, terminating in a 25 mm nozzle. The nozzle is 1.5 m above the hydrant and 10 m above the pump. Assuming frictional losses of 3 m from the pump to the hydrant, 2 m in the hydrant and, and 12 m from the hydrant to the base of the nozzle, and a loss in the nozzle of 6% of the velocity head in the jet, to what vertical height can the jet be thrown if the gage pressure at the pump is 550KPa. Problem No. 6 Water issues from a circular orifice under a head of 12 m. The diameter of the orifice is 10 cm. If the discharge is found to be 75 L/sec, what is the coefficient of discharge? If the diameter at the vena cotracta is measured to be 8 cm, what is the coefficient of contraction and what is the coefficient of velocity. v 2gh theoretical velocity v 2(9.81)(12) 15.34 Q' 0.075 m sec m3 sec m3 (0.10)2 (15.34) 0.12 4 sec Q' Cd 0.625 Q a d' 8 Cc 0.67 A D 12 Cd Cc(Cv ) Q Cv 0.625 0.93 0.67 Problem No. 7 A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. Problem No. 8 The inside diameters of the suction and discharge pipes of a pump are 20 cm and 15 cm, respectively. The discharge pressure is read by a gage at a point 2 m above the centerline of the pump, and the suction pressure is read by a gage 1 m below the pump centerline. If the pressure gage reads 145 KPa and the suction gage reads a vacuum of 250 mm Hg when diesel fuel (S = 0.82) is pumped at the rate of 30 L/sec, Find the KW power of the driving motor if overall pump efficiency is 75%. d1 d2 z1 z2 P1 P2 S SW(water) SW 0.20 0.15 -1 2 -33.33 145 0.82 9.81 8.0442 m m m m Kpa KPa KN/m^3 KN/m^3 Q A1 A2 v1 v2 P1/SW P2/SW v1^2/2g v2^2/2g D(Phead) D(Vhead) D(ElHead) HL ht WP e BP 0.03 0.031 0.018 0.955 1.70 -4.14 18.03 0.05 0.15 22.17 0.10 3.00 0.00 25.27 6.10 0.75 8.13 m^3/sec m^2 m^2 m/sec m/sec m m m m m m m m m KW KW Problem No. 9 A jet of water 7.6 cm in diameter discharges through a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.96. If the pressure in the pipe is 82.7 KPa and the pipe diameter is 20 cm and if it is assumed that there is no contraction of the jet, what is the velocity at the tip of the nozzle? What is the rate of discharge? Q A 1v 1 A 2 v 2 4 d 2 2 v 1 2 v 2 d1 4 2 d v 2 v1 2 2 2g d1 2g 2 2 P1 v 1 P v z1 2 2 z 2 HL 2g 2g 2 2 1 v 2 P1 v 1 P v z1 2 2 z 2 2 1 2 2g 2g Cv 2g 4 2 2 1 v 2 P1 d2 v 2 P v z1 2 2 z 2 2 1 2 d1 2g 2g Cv 2g d1 d2 Cv P1 P2 v1 v2 SW g v2 A1 A2 Q 0.20 0.076 0.96 82.7 0 1.80 12.467 9.81 9.81 12.47 0.031 0.005 0.057 m m Kpa KPa m/sec m/sec KN/m^3 m/sec^2 m/sec m^2 m^2 m^3/sec 4 2 d2 P1 P2 v 2 1 1 1 ( z1 z 2 ) 2g C v 2 d1 4 2 v 2 1 d2 P1 P2 2 ( z1 z 2 ) 2g C v d1 P1 P2 2 ( z1 z 2 ) v2 2g 1 d 4 2 2 C v d1 SAMPLE PROBLEMS APPLICATION OF BERNOULLI’S EQUATION ExampleNo. 1 The water in a 10 m diameter, 2 m high aboveground swimming pool is to be emptied by unplugging a 3 cm diameter, 25 m long horizontal pipe attached to the bottom of the pool. Determine the maximum discharge rate of water through the pipe. 1 h=2 m 2 P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z 2 γ 2g γ 2g P1 0; v1 0; P2 0; Z1 0; Z 2 -2 m 0000 2 Q Av Q v22 (2) 2g π (0.03) 2 (6.23) 0.0044 m3/sec 4 v22 2g v 2 2(9.81)( 2 ) 6.23 m/sec Example No. 2 A large tank open to the atmosphere is filled with water to a height of 5 m from the outlet tap. A tap near the bottom of the tank is now opened and water flows out from the smooth and rounded outlet. Determine the water velocity at the outlet. 2 1 2 P1 v 1 P v Z1 2 2 Z 2 2g 2g P1 0; v 1 0; P2 0; Z 1 0; Z 2 - 5 m 2 v 0 0 0 0 2 ( 5) 2g 2 5 v2 2g v 2 2(9.81)5 9.623 m/sec Example No. 3 The water level of a tank on a building roof is 20 m above the ground. A hose leads from the tank bottom to the ground. The end of the hose has a nozzle, which is pointed straight up. What is the maximum height to which the water could rise. P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z2 γ 2g γ 2g P1 0; P2 0; Z1 0; Z2 h; v2 0 0 v12 0 00h 2g v12 2g h max imum height h v1 velocity at the tip of the nozzle Example no. 4 Water flows through a horizontal pipe at the rate of 1 Gal./sec. The pipe consist of two sections of diameter 4 in. and 2 in with a smooth reducing section. The pressure difference between the two pipe sections is measured by mercury manometer . Neglecting frictional effects, determine the differential height of mercury between the two pipe sections. Q = 1 gal/sec = 0.0038 m3/sec D1 = 4 in. = 0.1016 m D2 = 2 in = 0.0508 m 2 1 x h P1 9.81x 9.81h 13.6(9.81 )h 9.81x P Mercury S = 13.6 2 P2 P1 9.81h 13.6(9.81)h P2 P1 123.606 1 from 1 to 2 P1 v 1 2 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z2 γ 2g γ 2g Q 0.0038 v1 0.47 m/sec A1 π (0.1016)2 4 Q 0.0038 v2 1.875m/sec π A2 (0.0508)2 4 2 v1 (0.47)2 0.0113m 2g 2(9.81) v 2 2 (1.875)2 0.18 m 2g 2(9.81) P1 P 0.0113 0 2 0.18 0 γ γ P2 P1 0.0113 0.18 0.1687 γ P2 P1 9.81(0.1687) 1.655 KPa 2 Equating eq. 1 and eq. 2 - 123.606h -1.655 - 1.655 - 123.606 h 0.0134 meters h h 0.53 inches Example No. 5 A 300 mm pipe is connected by a reducer to a 100 mm pipe. Points 1 and 2 are at the same elevation. The pressure at point 1 is 200 KPa. Q = 30 L/sec flowing from 1 to 2, and the energy lost between 1 and 2 is equivalent to 20 KPa. Compute the pressure at 2 if the liquid is oil with S = 0.80. (174.2 KPa) P1 v12 P v 2 z1 2 2 z 2 H L γ 2g γ 2g Q A1v1 A 2 v 2 v Q π ; A D2 A 4 v1 0.030 m v12 (0.424) 2 0.424 ; 0.009 m π sec 2g 2(9.81) (0.3) 2 4 0.030 m v 2 2 (3.82) 2 3.82 ; 0.744 m π sec 2g 2(9.81) (0.1) 2 4 KN γ 0.8(9.81) 7.848 3 m 20 HL 2.55 m 7.848 v2 P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z 2 H L γ 2g γ 2g Z1 Z 2 : (Z 2 - Z1 ) 0 P2 P1 v12 v 2 2 200 HL 0.009 0.744 2.55 γ γ 2g 2g 7.848 P2 174.22 KPa Example No. 6 A venturi meter having a diameter of 150 mm at the throat is installed in a 300 mm water main. In a differential gage partly filled with mercury (the remainder of the tube being filled with water) and connected with the meter at the inlet and at the throat, what would be the difference in level of the mercury columns if the discharge is 150 L/sec? Neglect loss of head. (h=273 mm) L 1m 3 m3 x 0.150 sec 1000L sec S of mercury 13.6 Q 150 γ 13.6(9.81) 133.416 KN m3 d1 0.30m d 2 0.15m Q 0.150 m 3 / sec HL 0 v Q A v1 v2 0.150 π (0.30) 2 4 0.150 π (0.15) 2 4 2.122 m / sec; v12 0.230 m 2g 8.488 m / sec; v22 3.672 m 2g P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z 2 γ 2g γ 2g Z1 Z 2 0 P1 P2 v 2 2 v12 3.672 0.230 γ 2g 2g P1 P2 3.442 m γ P1 P2 3.442(9.81) 33.766 KPa P1 9.81( x ) 9.81h 133.416h 9.81x P2 P1 9.81h 133.416h P2 P1 P2 133.416h 9.81h P1 P2 h (133.416 9.81) P1 P2 33.766 (133.416 9.81) (133.416 9.81) h 0.273 m h h 273 mm Example no. 7 A mechanical engineer of an industrial plant is required to install a centrifugal pump to lift 15 L/sec of water from a sump to a storage tank on a tower. The water is to be delivered into a 105 KPag tank and the water level in the tank is 20 m above the water level in the sump. Pump centerline is 4 m above the water level in the sump. The suction pipe is 100 mm diameter and discharge pipe is 65 mm diameter. Head loss at suction is 3 times the velocity head in the suction line and head loss at discharge is 20 times the velocity head in the discharge pipeline. Other data are as follows: p = 75 % m = 80 % E = 220 Volts Motor – 3-Phase Power Factor = 0.92 Requirements: a. Sketch of the problem b. Total dynamic head in m c. Water Power in KW d. Motor power in KW e. Line current drawn by the motor in amperes f. Total power cost per day for 10 hours a day continuous operation and a power costs of P 5.00/KW-hr 105 KPa 2 20 m 65 mm 100 mm 4m 1 Q Av Q A Q 0.015 m vs 1.91 A s π (0.10) 2 sec 4 Q 0.015 m vd 4.52 A s π (0.065) 2 sec 4 v vs 2 (1.91)2 0.186 m 2g 2(9.81) v d 2 (4.52)2 1.041 m 2g 2(9.81) v 2 h Ls 3 s 0.56 m 2g v 2 h Ld 20 d 20.83 m 2g H L 0.56 20.83 21.39 m P2 P1 v 2 2 v12 Z 2 Z1 H L γ 2g at 1 to 2, datum line through point 1 ht 105 - 0 0 (20 0) 20.83 9.81 h t 52.091 m ht WP 0.015(9.81)(52.091) 7.67 KW 7.67 10.22 KW 0.75 10.22 MP 12.8 KW 0.75 BP MP 3 EI(P.F.) 1000 3 (220)I(0.92) 1000 I 36.44 amperes 12.8 Cost 12.8(10)(5) P639.00 Example No. 8 Figure below shows a siphon discharging oil (sp gr 0.90). The siphon is composed of 8 cm. pipe from A to B followed by 10 cm. pipe from B to the open discharge at C. The head losses are from 1 to 2, 0.34 m; from 2 to 3, 0.2 m; from 3 to 4;0.8 m. Compute the discharge in L/sec 4.5 m 3m 0 Example No. 9 The liquid in the figure has a specific gravity of 1.5. The gas pressure PA is 35 KPa and PBis -15 KPa. The orifice is 100 mm in diameter with Cd = Cv = 0.95. Determine the velocity in the jet and the discharge when h = 1.2. (9.025 m/sec; 0.071 m 3/sec) PA Without considerin g head lost 1 P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 2 2 Z 2 γ 2g γ 2g Datum at point 1 : h PB Z1 0 ; Z2 - h; v1 0 v 2 2 P1 P2 Z1 Z 2 2g γ 2 P P v 2 2g 1 2 h theoreti cal velocity γ KN γ 1.5(9.81) 14.715 3 m 35 15 v 2 v t 2(9.81) 1.2 9.5 m/sec 14.715 Example no. 10 A pump draws water from reservoir A and lifts it to reservoir B as shown in the figure. The loss of head from A to 1 is 3 times the velocity head in the 150 mm pipe and the loss of head from 2 to B is 20 times the velocity head in the 100 mm pipe. Compute the horsepower output of the pump and the pressure heads at 1 and 2 when the discharge is 20 L/sec. (FP= 20.73 HP; 5.74 m ; 84.3 m) 72 m 100 mm 1 6m 150 mm A B I-1 I-2 V-1 V-2 pump 20 m3 0.020 1000 sec Q v A 0.020 vs 1.13 m/sec π (0.150) 2 4 Q vd 0.020 Water Power 0.020(9.81)(78.63) Water Power 15.43 KW 20.7 HP At 1 to A (Point 1 on datum) P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 A S Z B h Ls γ 2g γ 2g 2.55 m / sec π (0.100) 2 4 v 2 h Ls 3 s 0.20 m 2g 000 v 2 h Ld 20 d 6.63 m 2g PA (1.13) 2 6 0.20 γ 2(9.81) PA 5.73 meters ; PA 56.2 KPa γ At B to 2 (Point B on datum) PB v d 2 P v 2 Z B 2 2 Z2 h Ld γ 2g γ 2g H L h Ls h Ld 6.83 m At point 1 to 2 PB 2.55) 2 0 0 0 78 6.63 γ 2(9.81) P1 v12 P v 2 Z1 ht 2 2 Z 2 H L γ 2g γ 2g v1 and v 2 are negligible PB 84.3 meters; PB 827 KPa γ P1 P2 0 gage (Atmospher ic) h t Z 2 Z1 H L h t 72 6.83 78.63 m Example No. 11 The diameters of the suction and discharge pipe of a fuel pump for a day tank of a gasoline engine are 150 mm and 100 mm, respectively. The discharge pressure gauge located 10 m above the pump centerline reads 320 KPa and the suction pressure gauge which is 4 m below the pump centerline reads a vacuum of 60 KPa. Head losses due to pipe friction, turbulence and fittings amounts to 15 m. If gasoline with a relative density S = 0.75 is pumped at the rate of 35 L/sec, find a. The total dynamic head developed by the pump b. The fluid power in KW c. The brake or shaft power delivered to the fluid for a pump efficiency of 75% d. The brake torque if the pump speed is 1200 RPM e. The electrical power input to the pump motor for a motor efficiency of 92% f. The line current drawn by the motor if the motor is 3 – phase, 240 volts, and 0.9 Power Factor g. The cost of power for 5 hours operation, if electricity costs P 1.50/KW-hr Q S SW(water) SW g d1 d2 P1 P2 z1 z2 HL FP A1 A2 0.035 0.75 9.81 7.3575 9.81 0.150 0.100 -60.00 320.00 -4 10 15 75 0.018 0.008 m^3/sec KN/m^3 KN/m^3 m/sec^2 m m KPa KPa m m m KW m^2 m^2 v1 v2 v1^2/2g v2^2/2g P1/sw P2/sw D(Phead) D(vhead) D(Zhead) ht Water Power Pump Efficiency Brake Power Motor Efficiency Motor Power E (Volts) Power Factor Phase N(RPM) Torque(N-m) Line Current PowerCost Cost 2.0 4.5 0.20 1.01 -8.15 43.49 51.65 0.81 14 81.46 20.98 m/sec m/sec m m m m m m m m KW 75.00 % 27.97 KW 92.00 % 30.40 220.00 0.90 3.00 1200.00 222.57 88.65 1.50 228.01 KW Volts Phase RPM N-m Amperes Pesos/KW-hr Pesos Example No. 12 A jet of liquid is directly vertically upward. At A (Nozzle tip) its diameter is 75 mm and its velocity is 10 m/sec. Neglecting air friction, determine its diameter at a point 4 m above A. d1 v1 P1 P2 g A1 Q SW P1/SW P2/SW v1^2/2g z1 z2 HL v2^2/2g v2 A2 d2 d2 0.075 10 0 0 9.81 0.0044 0.0442 9.81 0 0 5.097 0 4 0 9.097 13.36 0.0033 0.065 6.5 m m/sec Kpa KPa m/sec^2 m^2 m^3/sec KN/m^3 m m m m m m m m/sec m^2 m cm Example No. 13 A closed vessel contains water up to a height of 2 m and over the water surface there is air having a pressure of 8.829 N/cm2 above atmospheric pressure. At the bottom of the vessel there is an orifice of diameter 15 cm. Find the rate of flow of water from orifice if Cd = 0.6. Example No. 14 The 600 mm pipe shown in the figure conducts water from a reservoir A to a pressure turbine, which discharges through another 600 mm pipe into tailrace B. The loss of head from A to 1 is 5 times the velocity head in the pipe and the loss of head from 2 to B is 0.2 times the velocity head in the pipe. If the discharge is 700 L/sec , what horsepower is being given up by the water to the turbine and what are the pressure heads at 1 and 2.(FP = 537.4 HP; 53.628 m; -4.75 m) Q 700 L/sec 0.70 m 3 /sec v Q 4(0.70) 2.5 m/sec A π(0.6) 2 v 2 (2.5) 2 0.32 m 2g 2(9.81) h LA-1 5(0.320 1.6 m h L2- B 0.20(0.32) 0.064 m H L 1.6 0.064 1.664 meters At A to B PA v A 2 P v 2 ZA B B ZB H L h γ 2g γ 2g With datum line through poin B Z B 0; ZA 60 m PA PB 0 gage v A VB 0 h (ZA ZB ) H L h 60 1.664 58.336 meters WP Qγh 0.70(9.81)(58.336) 400.6 KW 537 HP h P1 g SW P1/SW d(orifice) A(Orifice) Theoretical Velocity Cd Q(m^3/sec) Q(L/sec) 2 88.29 9.81 9.81 9.0 0.15 0.018 m Kpa m/sec^2 KN/m^3 m m m^2 14.69 m/sec 0.60 0.1558 155.8 m^3/sec L/sec At A to 1 P v2 PA v A 2 Z A 1 1 Z1 h LA 1 γ 2g 2g γ with datum through point A ZA 0 ; Z1 -55.5 m 000 P1 0.32 55.5 γ P1 55.5 0.32 55.18 meters γ P1 55.18(9.81) 541.3 KPa At 2 to B, with datum through point 2 Z 2 0 ; Z B -4.5 m v 2 P P2 v 2 2 Z2 B B ZB h L2 B 2g γ 2g γ P2 0.32 0 0 0 4.5 0.064 γ P2 4.5 0.32 0.064 4.756 meters γ P2 -4.756(9.81) -46.7 KPa 46.7 KPa vacuum FLUID MECHANICS (PRE – FINAL S4) March 15, 2017 Name ____________________________________ 5. A piece of wood of S = 0.651 is 8 cm square and 150 cm long. How many kilograms of lead weighing 11,200 kg/m 3 must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it will float upright with 30.5 cm out of water? S 0.651 kg m3 V1 0.08(0.08)(1.5) 0.96 m3 w ood 0.651(1000) 651 W1 0.96(651) 624.96 kg W2 11,200V2 BF1 (1.5 0.305)1000 1195 kg BF2 1000V2 W1 W2 BF1 BF2 624.96 11,200V2 1195 1000V2 1195 - 624.96 0.056 m 3 10,200 W2 625.93 kg A barge is loaded with 150 Metric tons of coal. The weight of the empty barge in air is 35 Metric ton. If the barge is 5.5 m wide, 16 m long and 3 m high, what is its draft. (Depth below the water surface) V2 6. W BF W1 W2 Vs (150 35)(1000) 1000(5.5)(16)h h 2.1 m 7. A prismatic object 20 cm thick by 20 cm wide by 40 cm long is weighed in water at a depth of 50 cm and found to weigh 50 N. What is its weight in air and its specific gravity? W1 W2 50 Newton V1 (0.20)(0.20)(0.4) 0.016 m3 1 m1 V1 m1 W1 V1 S 1000 W1 W2 W1 m1g Newton W1 W1 gV1 1000 W1 W2 W1 W1 9810V1 W1 W2 1 1 9810V1 W1 W2 W1 W2 9,810(0.016) W1 156.96 50 W1 206.96 Newton S 8. 206.96 1.312 206.96 - 50 A ship, with vertical sides near the water line, weighs 3630 Metric ton and draws 6.7 m in saltwater (S = 1.025). Discharge of 181 Metric ton of water ballast decreases the draft to 6.4 m. What would be the draft d of the ship in fresh water (S = 1) W1 BF1 3630(1000) A 1L(6.7)(1.025)(1000) 3,630 Eq.1 6.7(1.025) W2 BF2 A 1L (3,630 181)(1000) A 2L(6.4)(1.025)(1000) A 2L 3449 Eq.2 (6.4)(1.025) In a hydroelectric power plant, the water surface on the crest of the dam is at elevation 75.3 m while the water surface just at the outlet of the head gate is at elevation 70.4 m. The head gate has 5 gates of 0.91 m x 0.91 m leading to the penstock and are fully opened. Assume 61% as coefficient of discharge, determine a. The quantity of water that enters the hydraulic turbine in m3/sec b. The KW power that the turbine will developed, assuming eturbine = 90% efficiency and the turbine is 122 m below the entrance of the penstock c. The brake torque for a speed N = 1800 rpm d. The number of generator poles if f = 60 Hertz e. The electrical power developed by the generator if electrical and windage loses amounts to 18% h 75.3 70.4 4.9 m head producing the flow v 2gh theoretical velocity Q 5(Av) theoretical flow for 5 gates Q' C d Q Actual flow Q' 0.61(5)(0.91x0.91) 2(9.81)4.9 24.76 m3 sec h t total dynamic head h t 122 4.9 126.9 m BP e Turbine Q' h t 24.76(9.81)(126.9)(0.90) 27,746.2 KW 2TN 60,000 T 147,198 N m BP GP 22, 751KW FINAL EXAM (March 25, 2017) SET 2 NAME _____________________________________ 1. An object weighs 25.95 N when submerged in kerosene (S = 0.81) and weighs 26.6 N when submerged in gasoline (S = 0.68). Determine the specific weight of the object. 6.23(9.81) 61.116 2. KN m3 Determine the water power and mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump which has an input of 3 KW. If the pump has a 203 mm diameter suction line and a 152 mm diameter discharge line and handles 10 L/sec of water at 66C ( =980 kg/m3; = 9.6 KN/m3). The suction line gauge shows 102 mm Hg vacuum and the discharge gauge shows 180 KPa. The Discharge gauge is located 61 cm above the center of the discharge pipeline and the pump inlet and discharge lines are at the same elevation. BP 3 KW D1 0.203 m D2 0.152 m Q 0.01 m^3/sec A1 0.032 m^2 A2 0.018 m^2 v1 0.309 m/sec v2 0.551 m/sec g 9.810 m/sec^2 v1^2/2g 0.005 m v2^2/2g 0.015 m SW 9.6 KN/m^3 P1 -13.60 Kpa P2 180 KPa z2 0.61 m z1 0 m (P2-P1)/sw 20.17 m (v2^20.01 m v1^2)/2g (z2-z1) 0.61 m HL 0.00 m Ht 20.79 m WP 1.996 KW em 66.52 % 3. A piece of wood of S = 0.651 is 8 cm square and 150 cm long. How many kilograms of lead weighing 11,200 kg/m 3 must be fastened at one end of the stick so that it will float upright with 30.5 cm out of water? S 0.651 kg m3 V1 0.08(0.08)(1.5) 0.96 m3 w ood 0.651(1000) 651 W1 0.96(651) 624.96 kg W2 11,200V2 BF1 (1.5 0.305)1000 1195 kg BF2 1000V2 W1 W2 BF1 BF2 624.96 11,200V2 1195 1000V2 1195 - 624.96 0.056 m 3 10,200 W2 625.93 kg V2 4. At one point in a pipeline the water speed is 3 m/sec and the gage pressure is 50 KPa. Find the gage pressure at a second point in the line, 11 m lower than the first, if the pipe diameter at the second point is twice at the first. FLUID MECHANICS (PRE – FINAL S2) March 04, 2017 Name ____________________________________ 1. The diameters of the suction and discharge pipe of a fuel pump for a day tank of a gasoline engine are 150 mm and 100 mm, respectively. The discharge pressure gauge located 10 m above the pump centerline reads 320 KPa and the suction pressure gauge which is 4 m below the pump centerline reads a vacuum of 60 KPa. Head losses due to pipe friction, turbulence and fittings amounts to 15 m. If gasoline with a relative density S = 0.75 is pumped at the rate of 35 L/sec, find a. b. c. d. e. f. g. The total dynamic head developed by the pump The fluid power in KW The brake or shaft power delivered to the fluid for a pump efficiency of 75% The brake torque if the pump speed is 1200 RPM The electrical power input to the pump motor for a motor efficiency of 92% The line current drawn by the motor if the motor is 3 – phase, 240 volts, and 0.9 Power Factor The cost of power for 5 hours operation, if electricity costs P 1.50/KW-hr Q S SW(water) SW g d1 d2 P1 P2 z1 z2 HL FP A1 A2 v1 v2 v1^2/2g v2^2/2g P1/sw P2/sw D(Phead) D(vhead) D(Zhead) ht Water Power Pump Efficiency Brake Power Motor Efficiency Motor Power E (Volts) Power Factor Phase N(RPM) 0.035 0.75 9.81 7.3575 9.81 0.150 0.100 -60.00 320.00 -4 10 15 75 0.018 0.008 2.0 4.5 0.20 1.01 -8.15 43.49 51.65 0.81 14 81.46 20.98 m^3/sec 75.00 % 27.97 KW 92.00 % 30.40 220.00 0.90 3.00 1200.00 KW Volts KN/m^3 KN/m^3 m/sec^2 m m KPa KPa m m m KW m^2 m^2 m/sec m/sec m m m m m m m m KW Phase RPM Torque(N-m) Line Current PowerCost Cost 2. N-m Amperes Pesos/KW-hr Pesos A jet of liquid is directly vertically upward. At A (Nozzle tip) its diameter is 75 mm and its velocity is 10 m/sec. Neglecting air friction, determine its diameter at a point 4 m above A. d1 v1 P1 P2 g A1 Q SW P1/SW P2/SW v1^2/2g z1 z2 HL v2^2/2g v2 A2 d2 d2 3. 222.57 88.65 1.50 228.01 A closed vessel contains the water surface there is air above atmospheric pressure. orifice of diameter 15 cm. orifice if Cd = 0.6. 0.075 10 0 0 9.81 0.0044 0.0442 9.81 0 0 5.097 0 4 0 9.097 13.36 0.0033 0.065 6.5 h P1 g SW P1/SW d(orifice) A(Orifice) Theoretical Velocity Cd Q(m^3/sec) Q(L/sec) m m/sec Kpa KPa m/sec^2 m^2 m^3/sec KN/m^3 m m m m m m m m/sec m^2 m cm 2 88.29 9.81 9.81 9.0 0.15 0.018 m Kpa m/sec^2 KN/m^3 m m m^2 14.69 m/sec 0.60 0.1558 155.8 m^3/sec L/sec water up to a height of 2 m and over having a pressure of 8.829 N/cm2 At the bottom of the vessel there is an Find the rate of flow of water from Example No. 15 A Francis turbine is installed with a vertical draft tube. The pressure gauge located at the penstock leading to the turbine casing reads 372.6 KPa and velocity of water at inlet is 6 m/sec. The discharge is 2.5 m3/sec. The hydraulic efficiency is 85%, and the overall efficiency is 82%. The top of the draft tube is 1.5 m below the centerline of the spiral casing, while the tailrace level is 2.5 m from the top of the draft tube. There is no velocity of whirl at the top or bottom of the draft tube and leakage losses are negligible. Calculate, a) the net effective head in meters (43.817 m) b) the brake power in kw. (881.2 kw) c) the plant output for a generator efficiency of 92%. (810.7 kw) d) the mechanical efficiency (96.550) GIVEN: P1 = 372.6 KPa v = 6 m/sec Q = 2.5 m3/sec eh = 0.85 e = 0.82 ZB = (1.5 + 2.5) = 4 m at point b to 2 (datum line through point 2) 2 2 PA v A P v Z A 2 2 Z 2 hL A 2 h 2g 2g P2 0 v2 0 Z2 0 hL A 2 0 (negligible) 2 h PA v A ZA 2g 372.6 ( 6 )2 4 9.81 2(9.81) h 43.817 m h WP Qh WP 2.5(9.81)( 43.817) 1074.6 kw BP 1074.6(0.82) 881.2 KW PLANT OUTPUT 881.2(0.92) 810.7 KW e em eh e v 0.82 em (0.85)(1) em 0.82 0.965 96.5% 0.85 Example no. 16 A 4 m3/hr pump delivers water to a pressure tank. At the start, the gauge reads 138 KPa until it reads 276 KPa and then the pump was shut off. The volume of the tank is 160 Liters. At 276 KPa, the water occupied 2/3 of the tank volume. a) Determine the volume of water that can be taken out until the gauge reads 138 KPa. b) If 1 m3/hr of water is constantly used, in how many minutes from 138 KPa will the pump run until the gauge reads 276 KPa. P1 138 101.325 239.325 KPa P2 276 101.325 377.325 KPa 1 (0.160) 0.0533 m3 3 P1V1 P2 V2 V2 V1 0.084 m3 Vw@138 (0.160 - 0.084) 0.076 76 Liters 2 (0.16) 0.1067 106.7 Liters 3 Vtaken out 0.1067 0.076 0.0307 30.7 Liters Vw @ 276 4 t 1t 0.0307 t 0.01023 hrs 0.614 min 36.84 sec HEAD LOSSES HL = Major loss + Minor losses Major Loss: Head loss due to friction and turbulence in pipes Minor Losses: Minor losses include, losses due to valves and fittings, enlargement, contraction, pipe entrance and pipe exit. Minor losses are most easily obtained in terms of equivalent length of pipe "Le".the advantage of this approach is that both pipe and fittings are expressed in terms of "Equivalent Length" of pipe of the same relative roughness. Considering Major loss only Darcy-Weisbach Equation hf fLv 2 meters 2gD Considering Major and Minor losses hf f(L ΣLe )v 2 meters 2gD where; f - friction factor from Moody's Chart L - length of pipe, m Le - equivalent length in straight pipe of valves and fittings, m V - velocity, m/sec D - pipe inside diameter, m g - gravitational acceleration, m/sec20 REYNOLD'S NUMBER: Reynold's Number is a non dimensional one which combines the physical quantities which describes the flow either Laminar or Turbulent flow. The friction loss in a pipeline is also dependent upon this dimensionless factor. NR ρvD vD μ ν where; - absolute or dynamic viscosity, Pa-sec - kinematic viscosity, m2/sec For a Reynold's Number of less 2100 flow is said to Laminar For a Reynold's Number of greater than 3000 the flow is Turbulent FRICTION FACTOR: Moody's Chart f /D - absolute roughness D - inside diameter /D - relative roughness NR VALUES OF ABSOLUTE ROUGHNESS FOR NEW PIPES Type of Material Feet Drawn tubing, brass, lead, glass centrifugally spun cement, bituminous lining, transite 0.000005 Commercial Steel, Wrought iron 0.00015 Welded steel pipe 0.00015 Asphalt-dipped cast iron 0.0004 Galvanized iron 0.0005 Cast iron, average 0.00085 Wood stave 0.0006 to 0.003 Concrete 0.001 to 0.01 Riveted steel 0.003 to 0.03 Millimeter 0.0015 0.046 0.046 0.12 0.15 0.25 0.18 to 0.9 0.3 to 3.0 0.9 to 9 For Laminar Flow f 64 NR PIPE, TUBING AND FITTINGS Nominal Pipe Diameter: Pipe sizes are based on the approximate diameter and are reported as nominal pipe sizes. Regardless of wall thickness, pipes of the same nominal diameter have the same outside diameter. This permits interchange of fittings. Pipe may be manufactured with different and various wall thickness, so some standardization is necessary. A method of identifying pipe sizes has been established by ANSI (American National Standard Institute). By convention, pipe size and fittings are characterized in terms of Nominal Diameter and wall thickness. For steel pipes, nominal diameter is approximately the same as the inside diameter for 12" and smaller. For sizes of 14" and larger, the nominal diameter is exactly the outside diameter. SCHEDULE NUMBER: The wall thickness of pipe is indicated by a schedule number, which is a function of internal pressure and allowable stress. Schedule Number 1000P/S where P - internal working pressure, KPa S - allowable stress, KPa Schedule number in use: 10,20,30, 40,60, 80, 100, 120, 140, and 160. Schedule 40 "Standard Pipe" Schedule 80 " Extra Strong Pipe" TUBINGS: Tubing specifications are based on the actual outside diameter with a designated wall thickness. Conventional systems such as the Birmingham WireGauge "BWG" are used to indicate the wall thickness. FITTING: The term fitting refers to a piece of pipe that can: 1. Join two pieces of pipe ex. couplings and unions 2. Change pipeline directions ex. elbows and tees 3. Change pipeline diameters ex. reducers 4. Terminate a pipeline ex. plugs and valves 5. Join two streams to form a third ex. tees, wyes, and crosses 6. Control the flow ex. valves VALVES: A valve is also a fitting, but it has more important uses than simply to connect pipe. Valves are used either to control the flow rate or to shut off the flow of fluid. DESIGN OF A PIPING SYSTEM The engineer should consider the following items when he is developing the design of a piping system. 1. Choice of material and sizes 2. Effects of temperature level and temperature changes. a. insulation b. thermal expansion c. freezing 3. Flexibility of the system for physical and thermal shocks. 4. Adequate support and anchorage 5. Alteration in the system and the service. 6. Maintenance and inspection. 7. Ease of installation 8. Auxiliary and standby pumps and lines 9. Safety a. Design factors b. Relief valves and flare systems 1. A piston moves inside a cylinder with a velocity of 5 m/sec. The 150 mm diameter piston is centrally located within the 150.2 mm inside diameter cylinder. The film of oil separating the piston from the cylinder has an absolute viscosity of 0.40 Pa-sec. Assuming a linear velocity profile, find the: a. Shear stress in the oil ( 20KPa) b. Force required to maintained the given motion. (942 N) 2. An airplane barometer reads 762 mm Hg at sea level and 736 mm Hg at some unknown elevation. If the temperature at sea level is 15 C, what is the elevation assuming: a. air at constant density b. air under isothermal condition c. air temperature decreases linearly with elevation at the rate of 6.5 K per kilometer. 3. The bottom of a river is 12 m below the water surface. Underneath which is a silt having a specific gravity of 1.75 and a thickness t. The pressure at the bottom of silt is 450 KPa. Determine the thickness of the silt. 4. A building in Makati is 84.5 m high above the street level. The required static pressure of the water line at the top of the building is 2.5 kg/cm2. What must be the pressure in KPa in the main water located 4.75 m below the street level. 5. A cylindrical tank 2 m diameter, 3 m high is full of oil. If the specific gravity of oil is 0.9, what is the mass of oil in the tank? 6 8. An iceberg in the ocean floats with 15% of its volume above the surface. What is its specific gravity relative to ocean water? a) 0.78 b) 0.97 c) 0.67 d) 0.85 9. A storage tank contains oil with a specific gravity of 0.88 and depth of 20 m. What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the tank in kg/cm2. (1.76 kg/cm2) 10. The reading on a pressure gage is 1.65 MPa, and the local barometer reading is 94 KPa. Calculate the absolute pressure that is being measured in kg/cm2. (17.78 kg/cm2) 11. An object weighs 25.95 N when submerged in kerosene (S = 0.81) and weighs 26.6 N when submerged in gasoline (S = 0.68). Determine the specific weight of the object. (58.86 KN/m3) 12. A pressure gage at elevation 8 m on a side of a tank containing a liquid reads 57.4 KPa. Another gage at elevation 5 m reads 80 KPa. Determine the density of the liquid. ( 767.6 kg/m3) 13. A mercury barometer at the ground floor of SEARS TOWER in Chicago reads 735 mm Hg. At the same time another barometer at the top of the building reads 590 mmHg. Assuming air density to be constant at 1.22 kg/m3, what is the approximate height of the building. (1617 m) 14. A block of ice 30.5 cm in height with specific gravity of 0.917 floats in fresh water. What must be its surface area to support an 82 kg man if the ice is to be submerged so that its top is coincident with the water surface. (A = 3.24 m2) Sample Problems 2. A block of ice 305mm in height with a specific gravity of 0.917 floats in fresh water. What must be its surface area to support an 82 kg man if the ice is to be submerged so that its top is coincident with the water surface? (3.25 m2) 3. Ice in an iceberg has a specific gravity of 0.922. Determine the percent of expose volume of the iceberg if it floats in sea water with specific gravity of 1.03. (10.485 4. A block of wood has a vertical projection of 15.24 cm when placed in water and 10.2 cm when placed in alcohol. If the specific gravity of alcohol is 0.82,find the specific gravity of wood. a) 0.702 b) 0.601 c) 0.568 d) 0.807 SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. An iceberg in the ocean floats with 15% of its volume above the surface. What is its specific gravity relative to ocean water? a) 0.78 b) 0.97 c) 0.67 d) 0.85 2. A block of material of an unknown volume is submerged in water and weighs 500 N. The same block weighs 650 N when weigh in air. Determine the volume of the material in m 3. a) 0.0218 b) 0.0812 c) 0.063 d) 0.0153 3. Two spheres each 1.2 m in diameter weighs 4 KN and 12 KN, respectively. They are connected with a short rope and placed in water. What portion of the lighter sphere protrudes from the water. a) 0.179 cu.m. b) 0.378 cu.m. c) 0.970 cu.m. d) 0.365 cu.m 4. A block of ice 30.5 cm in height with specific gravity of 0.917 floats in fresh water. What must be its surface area to support an 82 kg man if the ice is to be submerged so that its top is coincident with the water surface. (A = 3.24 m2) 5. An iceberg of density of 922 kg/m3 floats in sea water with a density of 1024 kg/m 3. What percent of the volume of the iceberg is submerged below the seawater surface. 6. A block of wood has a vertical projection of 15.24 cm when placed in water and 10.2 cm when placed in alcohol. If the specific gravity of alcohol is 0.82,find the specific gravity of wood. a) 0.702 b) 0.601 c) 0.568 d) 0.807 7.A spherical buoy 2 m in diameter floats half submerge in a liquid with S = 1.5. What is the weight of the lead anchor weighing 7000 kg/m3 will completely submerged the buoy in the liquid. (3998.4 kg) 8. A vertical tube 3 m long with open end closed is inserted vertically with the open end own into a tank of water until the open end is submerged to depth of 1 m. Neglecting vapor pressure , how far will the water level in the in the tube be below the level in the tank. (answer: 0,787 m) 9. A building in Makati is 84.5 m high above the street level. The required static pressure of the water line at the top of the building is 2.5 kg/cm2. What must be the pressure in KPa in the main water located 4.75 m below the street level. (1120.8 KPa) 11. The crest gate shown consist of a cylindrical surface of which AB is the base, supported by a structural frame hinged at C. The length of the gate perpendicular to the paper is 10 m. Compute the amount and location of the horizontal and vertical components of the total force on AB. (x = 8.59 m from C. wsB 60 A C 2. An iceberg having a specific gravity of 0.92 floats in salt water having a specific gravity of 1.03. If the volume of the ice above the water surface is 1000 m3, what is the total volume in m3 of the iceberg. (9369 m3) 13. A rectangular caisson open at the top having length of 15 m, width of6 m and depth of 7 m is to be made foundation of a bridge in a pier. If the weight of the foundation is 75 tons, Find: a) How deep it will sink in water (0.756 m) b) How much more weight is needed so that the base of the foundation will reach the bottom, the height of water being 6 m. (471,972.75 kg) 14. A block of ice 305mm in height with a specific gravity of 0.917 floats in fresh water. What must be its surface area to support an 82 kg man if the ice is to be submerged so that its top is coincident with the water surface? (3.25 m2) 15. Ice in an iceberg has a specific gravity of 0.922. Determine the percent of expose volume of the iceberg if it floats in sea water with specific gravity of 1.03. (10.485%) 1. A barrel contains a 0.120 m layer of oil floating on water that is 0.250 m deep. The density of the oil is 600 kg/m3 and water at 1000 kg/m3. a) What is the gage pressure at the oil-water interface? b) What is the gage pressure at the bottom of the barrel? ( P1 = 0.706 KPa; P2 = 3.16 KPa) 2. A spherical tank is full of water that has a mass of 10 000 kg. If the outside diameter of the tank is 2722 mm, how thick is the wall of the tank? (25 mm) 1. A mercury barometer at the ground floor of SEARS TOWER in Chicago reads 735 mm Hg(98 KPa). At the same time another barometer at the top of the building reads 590 mmHg(78.7 KPa). Assuming air density to be constant at 1.22 kg/m3, what is the approximate height of the building. (1617 m) 2. An airplane barometer reads 762 mm Hg(101.6 KPa) at sea level and 736 mm Hg(98.12 KPa) at some unknown elevation. If the temperature at sea level is 15 C(288K), what is the elevation assuming: a. air at constant density (288.6 m) b. air under isothermal condition (293.6547 m) c. air temperature decreases linearly with elevation at the rate of 6.5 K per kilometer. (292.7 m) ---------------------------------------------------------------- PROPERTIES AND VARIATION OF PRESSURE 1. A building in Makati is 84.5 m high above the street level. The required static pressure of the water line at the top of the building is 2.5 kg/cm2. What must be the pressure in KPa in the main water located 4.75 m below the street level. 2. A cylindrical tank 2 m diameter, 3 m high is full of oil. If the specific gravity of oil is 0.9, what is the mass of oil in the tank? 3. An open tank contains 5 m of water covered with 2 m of oil ( = 8 KN/m3). Find the pressure at the interface and at the bottom of the tank. 4. A skin diver wants to determine the pressure exerted by the water on her body after a descent of 35 m to a sunken ship. The specific gravity of seawater is 1.02 times that of pure water. Determine the pressure in KPa. 5. The water pressure in the mains of a city at a particular location is 400 KPa gage. Determine the pressure if this maincan serve water to neighborhoods that are 50 m above this location. P1 = 400 KPagae (pressure at the main) P2 = pressure at 50 m elevation P2 P1 γ(h2 h1 ) h1 0; h2 50 m P2 P1 - γ(h2 - h1 ) P2 400 (9.81(50 0) P2 90.5 KPa gage 6. In the figure shown, determine the pressure at point A in KPa, if x = 1.15 m and y = 0.51 m. A x Water S=1 y Mercury S = 13.6 7. A pressure gage at elevation 8 m on the side of a tank containing a liquid reads 58 KPa. Another gage at elevation 5 m reads 80 KPa. Compute the specific weight and density of the liquid. 8. The suction gage of a pump reads 600 mm Hg vacuum and the discharge gage reads 270 KPa. Determine the pressure difference between the discharge and suction gage in psi. 9. An object weighs 25.95 N when submerged in kerosene (S = 0.81) and weighs 26.6 N when submerged in gasoline(S = 0.68). Determine the specific weight of the object. 10. The reading on a pressure gage is 1.65 MPa, and the local barometer reading is 94 KPa. Calculate the absolute pressure that is being measured in kg/cm2. 11. Two spheres each 1.2 m in diameter weighs 4 KN and 12 KN, respectively. They are connected with a short rope and placed in water. What portion of the lighter sphere protrudes from the water? 12. In the figure shown if the pressure at B = 200 KPa, find the pressure at A. Liquid A SA = 0.85 h = 0.4 m 2m A Manometer Liquid (Hg) S = 13.6 Liquid B SB = 1.25 3m 13. A vertical, cylindrical water storage tank of a certain housing project is 3 m in diameter and 5 m high. The tank is vented to the atmosphere and its sides are held in position by means of two steel hoops, one at the top and one B stands to a depth of 4.5 m. at the bottom. What is the tensile force in each hoop if water ME 413H FINAL EXAM The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pascal, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? A centrifugal pump draws water from a well at the rate of 142 L/sec of water through a 203 mm ID suction line and a 152 mm ID discharge line. The suction gauge located on the pump centerline reads 254 mm Hg vacuum, while the discharge gauge is 6 m above the pump centerline. If the power input to the water is 75 KW, find the reading of the discharge gauge in KPa. During a flow of 0.405 m3/sec the gauge pressure is 68.6 KPa in the horizontal 30 cm supply line of a water turbine and –41.4 KPa at a 45 cm section of the draft tube 1.5 m below. Assuming an efficiency of 85 %, compute the power output of the turbine. A 15 KW suction pump draws water from a suction line whose diameter is 200 mm and discharges through a line whose diameter is 150 mm. The velocity in 150 mm line is 3.6 m/sec. If the pressure at point A in the suction line is 34.5 KPa below the atmosphere where A is 1.8 m below that of B on the 150 mm line, Determine the maximum elevation above B to which water can be raised assuming a head loss of 3 m due to friction. A 60 mm fire hose discharges a 30 mm jet. If the head lost in the nozzle is 2 m, what gauge pressure must be maintained at the base of a nozzle to throw a stream to a vertical height of 30 m, neglecting air resistance. (295.5 KPa) 1. A pelton type turbine was installed 30 m below the head gate of the penstock. The head loss due to friction is 15% of the given elevation. The length of the penstock is 80 m and the coefficient of friction is 0.00093. Determine a) the diameter of the penstock in mm. (421.6 mm) b) the power output in KW (781.234 KW) 2. What power in KW can be developed by the impulse turbine shown if the turbine efficiency is 85%. Assume that the resistance coefficient f of the penstock is 0.015 and the head loss in the nozzle itself is negligible. What will be the speed of the wheel , assuming ideal conditions where VJET = 2VBUCKET and what torque will be exerted on the turbine shaft. 1670 m elevation 1 m diameter; L = 6 km 3m DJET = 18 cm 1000 m elevation 3. A hydroelectric plant has a 20 MW generator with an efficiency of 96%. The generator is directly coupled to a vertical Francis type hydraulic turbine having an efficiency of 80%. the total gross head of the turbine is 150 m while the loss of head due to friction at the penstock up to the turbine inlet flange is 4% of gross head. the runaway speed is not to exceed 750 RPM, determine: a) Brake horsepower rating of the turbine (27 927 hp) b) the flow of water through the turbine in cfs (650.53 cfs) c) check if the specific speed falls under that of Francis type turbine. (Ns = 29) d) the rated speed of the turbine (N = 400 RPM) 4. A Francis turbine is installed with a vertical draft tube. The pressure gauge located at the penstock leading to the turbine casing reads 372.6 KPa and velocity of water at inlet is 6 m/sec. The discharge is 2.5 m3/sec. The hydraulic efficiency is 85%, and the overall efficiency is 82%. The top of the draft tube is 1.5 m below the centerline of the spiral casing, while the tailrace level is 2.5 m from the top of the draft tube. There is no velocity of whirl at the top or bottom of the draft tube and leakage losses are negligible. Calculate the following: a) the net effective head in meters (43.817 m) b) the brake power in kw. (881.2 kw) c) the plant output for a generator efficiency of 92%. (810.7 kw) d) the mechanical efficiency (96.550 5. A hydroelectric power plant using a Francis type turbine has the following data: Headwater elevation - 190 m Tailwater elevation - 50 m Head loss due to friction - 3.5% of gross head Turbine discharge at full gate opening - 6 m3/sec Specific speed of turbine - 32 RPM Turbine efficiency at rated capacity - 90% Turbine is to be direct connected to a 60 hertz a-c generator Determine: a) the brake power in kw (7156.8 kw) b) the number of generator poles (12 poles) c) the electrical power output of the generator if the efficiency is 94% (6727.4 kw) d) the torque developed in N-m (102 925.31 N-m) e) the approximate length of the penstock, if the diameter is 1.5 m and friction factor f is 0.018. (693 m) 6. The flow of a river is 21.25 m3/sec and the head on the site is 30.5 m. It is proposed to developed the maximum capacity at the site with the installation of two turbines, one of which is twice the capacity of the other. The efficiency of both units is assumed to be 85%. Determine: a) Rotative speed of each unit in rpm if the specific of both is 70 rpm. b) Brake power of each unit in kw. c) Number of poles of the generator for 60 cycle current 7. The flow of a river is 21 m3/sec and the head at the power site is 24.4 m (80 ft). It is proposed to developed this site with an installation of 3-turbines, 2 similar units and another of half their size, all having the same efficiency of 85%. Find the rotative speed of all these units. (348 rpm; 492 rpm) Ns at 80 ft head = 70 rpm 8. A hydroelectric power plant discharging water at the rate of 0.75 m3/sec and entering the turbine at 0.35 m/sec with a pressure of 275 KPag has a runner of 55 cm internal diameter. Speed is 514 rpm at 260 BHP. The casing is 2 m above the tailwater level. Calculate: a) the net effective head in m (30.039 m) b) the peripheral coefficient (0.61) c) the efficiency (87.8%) 9. A Mindanao province where a mini-hydroelectric plant is to be constructed has an average annual rainfall of 139 cm. The catchment area is 206 km 2 with an available head of 23 m. Only 82% of the rainfall can be collected and 75% of the impounded water is available for power. Hydraulic friction loss is 6%, turbine efficiency is 78% and generator efficiency is 93%. Determine the average kw power that could be generated for continuous operation. POWER = 1.39(206)(1000)2(0.82)(0.75)(9.81)(23)(1-.06)(0.78)(0.93) 8760(3600) = 859 kw 10. A Mindanao province where a hydroelectric power station is to be consrtructed has an average annual rainfall of 1.93 m. The catchment area 260 km 2 wwith an available head of 32 m. Only 82% of the rainfall can be collected and 5/8 of the impounded water is available for power. The load factor of the station is 80%, the penstock efficiency is 94%, turbine efficiency 78% and the generator efficiency is 88%. a) Calculate the average power that could be generated b) Calculate the installed capacity of the station c) Assuming no standby unit, give the possible number and size of the units Average power = load factor(peak power) In a test to determine the discharge coefficient of a 50 mm by 12.5 mm venture meter the total weight of water passing through the meter in 5 minutes was 340 kg. A mercury – water differential gage connected to the inlet and throat of the meter shown an average mercury difference during that time of 360 mm. Determine the meter coefficient. ME 10E/ygm 4. The horizontal orifice in the figure is 75 mm in diameter with Cc = 0.63, Cv = 0.98. When H = 3 m, neglecting air resistance, compute the height to which the jet will rise above the plane of the orifice. What will be the diameter of the jet 1.5 m above the vena contracta? (h = 2.88 m; d = 72 mm) H h 7. A vertical draft tube is installed on a Francis turbine and the total head to the center of the spiral casing at the inlet is 38 m and velocity of water at the inlet is 5 m/sec. The discharge is 2.1 m3/sec. The hydraulic efficiency is 87% and overall efficiency is 84%. The velocities at the inlet and exit of the draft tube are 5 m/sec and 1.5 m/sec, respectively. The top of the draft tube is 1 m below the centerline of the spiral casing while the tailrace (water) level is 3 m. from the top of the draft tube. There is no velocity of whirl at either top or bottom of the draft tube and leakage losses are negligible. What is the power output of the turbine? (747 KW) 8. Two spheres each 1.2 m in diameter weighs 4 KN and 12 KN, respectively. They are connected with a short rope and placed in water. What portion of the lighter sphere protrudes from the water. a) 0.179 cu.m. b) 0.378 cu.m. c) 0.970 cu.m. d) 0.365 cu.m 9. A block of material of an unknown volume is submerged in water and weighs 500 N. The same block weighs 650 N when weigh in air. Determine the volume of the material in m3. a) 0.0218 b) 0.0812 c) 0.063 d) 0.0153 10. During a flow of 0.405 m3/sec the gauge pressure is 68.6 KPa in the horizontal 30 cm supply line of a water turbine and –41.4 KPa at a 45 cm section of the draft tube 1.5 m below. Assuming an efficiency of 85 %, compute the power output of the turbine. a) 56 KW b) 47.5 KW c) 65 KW d) 74.5 KW 12. A 15 KW suction pump draws water from a suction line whose diameter is 200 mm and discharges through a line whose diameter is 150 mm. The velocity in 150 mm line is 3.6 m/sec. If the pressure at point A in the suction line is 34.5 KPa below the atmosphere where A is 1.8 m below that of B on the 150 mm line, Determine the maximum elevation above B to which water can be raised assuming a head loss of 3 m due to friction. Answer: 7.97 m 13. A jet of water from a nozzle discharging into the air has a diameter of 150 mm and a mean velocity of 36 m/sec. Compute the jet power in KW. (415 KW) 14. A 60 mm fire hose discharges a 30 mm jet. If the head lost in the nozzle is 2 m, what gauge pressure must be maintained at the base of a nozzle to throw a stream to a vertical height of 30 m, neglecting air resistance. (295.5 KPa) 15. A free waterfalls is 50 m high. It Discharges at a constant rate of 1.5 m3/sec. A mini hydro electric power plant is to be constructed below the water fall. If the turbine efficiency is 770% and generator efficiency is 90%, calculate: a) the turbine power in KW b) the KW output of the generator c) the annual energy available in KW-hr if the discharge rate is 16. A 20 m3 tank can be filled with water by a motor driven pump. pump efficiency is 90% and motor efficiency is 80%. If the total head is 20 m, Find the required power of the motor, If the electric energy cost is P0.40 per KW-hr, find the cost of the filling. 17. A power nozzle throws a jet of water that is 50 mm in diameter. The diameter of the base of the nozzle and of the approach pipe is150 mm. If the power of the nozzle jet is 42 HP and the pressure head at the base of the nozzle is 54 m, compute the head lost in the nozzle. 18. A jet of liquid is directly vertically upward. At A its diameter is 75 mm and its velocity is 9 m/sec. Neglecting air friction, determine its diameter at appoint 3 m above A. B 3m A 19. A fire pump delivers water through a 150 mm main to a hydrant to which is connected a 75 mm hose, terminating in a 25 mm nozzle. The nozzle is 1.5 m above the hydrant and 10 m above the pump. Assuming frictional losses of 3 m from the pump to the hydrant, 2 m in the hydrant and, and 12 m from the hydrant to the base of the nozzle, and a loss in the nozzle of 6% of the velocity head in the jet, to what vertical height can the jet be thrown if the gage pressure at the pump is 550KPa. constant throughout the year. 20. A 60 mm fire hose discharges water through a nozzle having a jet diameter of 25 mm. The lost head in the nozzle is 4% of the velocity head in the jet. If the gage pressure at the base of the nozzle is 400 KPa (a) compute the discharge (b) what is the maximum horizontal range to which the stream can be thrown if the nozzle makes an angle of 45 degrees, neglect air resistance. 21. Water discharges through an orifice in the side of a large tank as shown in the figure. The orifice is circular in cross section and 50 mm in diameter. The jet is the same diameter as the orifice. The liquid is water , and the surface elevation is maintained at a height "h" of 4 m above the center of the jet. Compute the discharge a) neglecting loss of head. b) considering the loss of head to be 10% of "h" 22. Water issues from a circular orifice under a head of 12 m. The diameter of the orifice is 10 cm. If the discharge is found to be 75 L/sec, what is the coefficient of discharge? If the diameter at the vena cotracta is measured to be 8 cm, what is the coefficient of contraction and what is the coefficient of velocity. 23. A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. 24. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? 25. A jet of water 7.6 cm in diameter discharges through a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.96. If the pressure in the pipe is 82.7 KPa and the pipe diameter is 20 cm and if it is assumed that there is no conraction of the jet, what is the velocity at the tip of the nozzle? What is the rate of discharge? 26. The nozzle in the figure throws a stream of water vertically upward such that the power available in the jet at point 2 is 2.55 KW. If the pressure at the base of the nozzle, point 1 is 145 Pa, Find a) the theoretical height to which the jet will rise b) the coefficient of velocity c) the head loss between points 1 and 2 d) the theoretical diameter of the jet at a point 6 m above point 2. 6m 2 diameter of orifice = 4 cm 30 cm 1 27. The diameters of the suction and discharge pipes of a pump are 15cm and 10 cm, respectively. The discharge pressure is read by a gage at a point 1.5 m above the centerline of the pump, and the suction pressure is read by a gage 0.61 m below the centerline. If the pressure gage reads 138 KPa and the suction gage reads a vacuum of 254 mm Hg when gasoline (s = 0.75) is pumped at the rate of 35L/sec, Find the power delivered to the fluid. 28. An iceberg in the ocean floats with 15% of its volume above the surface. What is its specific gravity relative to ocean water a) 0.78 b) 0.97 c) 0.67 d) 0.85 29. The mechanical engineer of an industrial plant wishes to install a pump to lift 13L/sec of water at 21C from a sump to a tank on a tower. The water is to be delivered into an storage tank at 120 KPa. The tank is 20 m above the sump and the pump is 2 m above the water level in the sump. The suction pipe is 4" sch. 40 steel pipe. 10 m long and will contain 2-90 elbows and a foot valve. The discharge pipe to the tank is 2" sch. 40 steel pipe; 120 m long and contains 590, 1-Check valve and one gate valve. Recommend the motor power requiredto drive the pump if p = 75 ES 423 1. A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. 2. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? ------------------------------------------------------------------------ES 423 1. A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. 2. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? ------------------------------------------------------------------------ES 423 1. A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. 2. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? ------------------------------------------------------------------------ES 423 1. A jet discharges from an orifice in a vertical plane under a head of 3.65 m. The diameter of the orifice is 3.75 cm and the measured discharge is 6 L/sec. The coordinates of the centerline of the jet are 3.46 m horizontally from the vena contracta and 0.9 m below the center of the orifice. Find the coefficient of discharge, velocity and contraction. 2. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec. At the end of the pipe is a nozzle whose velocity coefficient is 0.98. If the pressure in the pipe is 55 Pa, what is the velocity in the jet? What is the diameter of the jet? What is the rate of discharge? What is the head loss? ------------------------------------------------------------------------- HEAT TRANSFER SCHOOL YEAR 2018 - 2019 MODES OF HEAT TRANSFER 1. Conduction: It is the transfer of heat from one part of a body to another part of the same body, or from one body to another in physical contact with it, without appreciable displacement of the particles of the body. 2. Convection: It is the transfer of heat from one point to another point within a fluid, gas, vapor, or liquid by the mixing of some portion of the fluid with another. A. Natural or Free Convection: the movement of the fluid is entirely caused by differences in density resulting from temperature differences. B. Forced Convection: the motion of the fluid is accomplished by mechanical means, such as a fan or a blower. 3. Radiation: It is the transfer of heat from one body to another, not in contact with it, by means of "wave motion" through space. CONDUCTION: Qdx kAdT Q dx kA dT Q(Δx ) kAΔT (Δx ) L From FOURIER'S LAW: Q kA dT dx k Note: Negative sign is used from Fourier's Equation because temperature decreases in the direction of heat flow. From Ohms Law; Current heat flow for an electric conductor V R I current in Amperes V - Energy in Volts (V) I R - electrical resistance in Ohms (Ω) For conductive heat flow - Δt - ΔT R R L C K R or kA Watts Watts Q where: (-T) and(-t) - temperature potential in K or C R - thermal resistance in C/W or K/W Q - conductive heat flow in Watts k - thermal conductivity in W/m-C or W/m-K A - surface area in m2 L - thickness in m THERMAL CIRCUIT DIAGRAM R 1 2 CONVECTION: From Newton' s Law of Cooling Q hA ( t1 t 2 ) Watts ( t1 t 2 ) ( t 2 t1 ) Δt ΔT 1 1 1 1 hA hA hA hA Δt ΔT Q R R Q where Q - convective heat flow, Watts h - convective coefficien t (surface conductanc e), A - Fuid - Surface area, m W m - C 2 or W 2 m -K 2 Δt & ΔT temperatue potential, C or K R - resistance , C K or W W RADIATION: A Surface or (Radiator) T1 T1 > T2 Q T2 T1 – Surface temperature, K T2 – surrounding temperature, K From Stefan-Boltzmann Law: The radiant heat transfer of a blackbody is directly proportional to the product of the surface area A and its absolute temperature to the fourth power. Q AT 4 Q δAT 4 From Fig., the radiant heat flow Q from the surface (or body) to the surrounding (or to other surface or body) is equal to 4 4 Q δA T1 T2 Watts where W Stefan - Boltzmann Constant m2 - K 4 T1 - absolute surface temperatu re, K δ 5.678 x 10-8 , T2 - absolute surroundin g or other surface temperatu re, K Black Body - a hypothetical body that absorbs the entire radiation incident upon it. Gray Body - are actual bodies or surfaces that absorbs a portion of the black body radiation, because they are not perfect radiators and absorbers. EMISSIVITY Emissivity - is the ratio of the actual body (or surface) radiation at temperature T to the black body (or black surface) radiation at the same temperature T. Actual Surface radiation @ T Black Surface radiation @ T Therefore the rate of heat radiated by an Actual Boby (or Actual Surface or Actual Radiator ) is equal to 4 4 Q δA T1 T2 Watts where T1 T2 Relating Radiation to Convection 4 4 Q δA T1 T2 h r AT1 - T2 4 4 δ T1 T2 h r T1 - T2 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 δ T1 T2 δ T1 T2 T1 T2 δ T1 T2 T1 T2 T1 - T2 hr T1 - T2 T1 - T2 T1 - T2 2 2 h r δ T1 T2 T1 T2 radiation coefficien t Combined Radiation and Convection heat transfer Actual surface exposed to the surrounding air involves convection and radiation simultaneously, the total heat transfer Q Q h c A( t1 t 2 ) h combined h Radiation h Convection (Answer: Q = 8400 Watts) Answer: 8125 W t1 = 300C h = 250 W/m2-K QConvection 0.50 x 0.25 m t2 = 40C Answer: 726 W; 547 W t1 = 150C Q t2 = 25C A = 0.5 m2 0.8 QEmitted AT 4 Q A T1 T2 4 4 A plate 30 cm long and 10 cm wide with a thickness 0f 12 mm is made of stainless steel (k = 16 W/m-K), the top of the is exposed to an air stream of temperature 20C. In an experiment, the plate is heated by an electric heater (also 30 cm by 10 cm) positioned on the underside of the plate and the temperature of the plate adjacent to the heater is maintained at 100C. A voltmeter and ammeter are connected to the heater and these read 200 Volts and o.25 Ampere, respectively. Assuming that the plate is perfectly insulated on all sides except the top surface, what is the convective heat transfer coefficient h if the emittance of the top surface = 1. A 0.30(0.10) 0.03 m 2 Tair 20 273 293 K T1 100 273 373 K Q 200(0.25) 50 W 0.03(373 T1 ) 0.012 16 T1 371.75 K Q Q Qh QR 4 4 Q R 1(5.67 x 10-8 )(0.03)(371.75 293 ) Q R 20 W Q h 50 20 30 W Q h hA (371.75 293) h 12.7 W m 2 - C A cold storage room has walls constructed of a 5.08 cm layer of corkboard insulation contained between double wooden walls, each 1.27 cm thick. Find the rate of heat loss in Watts if the wall surface temperature is -12C outside the room and 21C inside the room. The thermal conductivity of corkboard is 0.04325 W/m-C and the thermal conductivity of the wood walls is 0.10726 W/m-C. Q (21 12) 0.0127 0.0508 0.0127 A 0.10726 0.4325 0.10726 Example 4 The wall of a house 7 m wide and 6 m high is made from o.3 thick brick with k = 0.6 W/m-K. The surface temperature on the inside of the wall is 16C and that on the outside is 6C. Find the heat flux through the wall and the total heat loss through it. A = 7 x 6 m2 L 1 k 2 Q Example 5 Assume : 1 L 20 mm Example 7 Assume : 1 Q Qr Qc Qr A T1 T2 4 4 Qc hA (T1 T2 ) Q 4 4 T1 T2 h(T1 T2 ) A Q 4 4 T1 T2 hT1 hT2 A Q 4 4 T1 T2 hT1 hT2 A Q 4 4 T1 hT1 hT2 T2 0 A Q 4 hT2 T2 h 4 A 0 T1 T1 4 T1 105,820,105.82T1 - 45,077,281,841.56 0 T2 20 273 293 T2 7,370,050,801 4 T 105820105.82T - 45077601410.935 0 2 2 s by quadratic formula Ts 426 2 Ts 426 20.64K Example 8 Answer: 1233 KW/m2 Example 9 s CONDUCTION THROUGH A COMPOSITE PLANE WALL Thermal Circuit diagram: At point 1 to 4 Q (t1 - t 4 ) (t1 - t 4 ) (t1 - t 4 ) W L L1 L ΣR R1 R 2 R 3 2 3 k 1A k 2 A k 3 A R1 L1 C k 1A W R2 L 2 C k 2A W R3 L 3 C k 3A W (t1 - t 4 ) A(t1 - t 4 ) W L1 L 2 L 3 1 L1 L 2 L 3 A k1 k 2 k 3 k1 k 2 k 3 (t1 - t 4 ) Q W A L1 L 2 L 3 m 2 k1 k 2 k 3 Q Δt ΣR Δt Q L Σ kA A ( Δt ) Q L Σ k Q (Δt ) L A Σ k where Q (-Δt) (-ΔT) OVERALL COEFFICIENT OF HEAT TRANSFER On the basis of Overall Coefficien t of Heat Transfer Q UA(-Δt) From A(-Δt) L Σ k therefore Q U 1 L Σ k W W or 2 m - C m -K 2 where: U - overall coefficient of heat transfer in W/m2-C or W/m2-K PARALLEL LAYERS OR COMBINED SERIES – PARALLEL LAYERS HEAT TRANSFER FROM FLUID TO FLUID SEPARATED BY A COMPOSITE PLANE WALL L2 L1 Fluid (i) L3 Fluid (o) t1 A t2 ho to t3 hi ti k1 k2 k3 t4 Q Thermal Circuit Diagram: i R2 R1 Ri 1 R3 3 2 4 Ro o Q (t i t o ) (t i t o ) (t t ) ; Q i o L 1 L L 1 R i R1 R 2 R 3 R o ΣR 1 2 3 h i A k 1A k 2 A k 3 A h o A (t i t o ) A(t i t o ) Q ; Q 1 L1 L 2 L 3 1 1 L1 L 2 L 3 1 1 A h i k1 k 2 k 3 h o h i k1 k 2 k 3 h o (t i t o ) Q ; A 1 L1 L 2 L3 1 h i k1 k 2 k 3 h o L 1 1 L L Ri ; Ro ; R1 1 ; R 2 2 ; R 3 3 hiA h oA k1A k 2A k 3A (Δt) (Δt) Q ; ΣR R t 1 L R hA kA Q (Δt) 1 L A h k Q ( Δt) ( Δt) ; Q 1 1 1 L L hA kA A h k A( Δt) Q 1 L h k ( Δt) Q A 1 L h k ( Δt) Q R 1 L ΣR R t h k Q OVERALL COEFFICIENT OF HEAT TRANSFER COMPOSITE PLANE WALL A ( Δt ) 1 L Σ h k Q UA (Δt ) Q U 1 1 L Σ h k SAMPLE PROBLEMS Problem No. 1 A composite plane wall is made up of an external thickness of brickwork 10 cm thick, followed by a layer of fiber glass 8 cm thick and an insulating board 2.5 cm thick. The thermal conductivity for the three are as follows; Brickwork - 1.5 W/m-C Fiber Glass -0.04 W/m-C Insulating Board - 0.06 W/m-C The fluid film coefficient of the inside wall is 3.1 Wm 2-C while that of the outside wall is 2.5 Wm2-C. Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer and the heat loss through such a wall 3.5 m high and 15 m long. Take the internal ambient temperature as 15C and the external temperature as 28C. L1 L3 L2 1 2 3 o ho to 4 k1 k2 i hi ti k3 Q Problem No. 2 A furnace wall is constructed with 25 cm of firebrick, k = 1.36 W/m-K, 8 cm of insulating brick, k = 0.26 W/m-K, and 15 cm of building brick, k = 0.69 W/m-K. The inside surface temperature is 600C and the outside air temperature is 30 C. The convective coefficient for the outside air is 3.6 W/m2-K. Determine a. The total heat transferred W/m2 b. The interface temperature c. The overall coefficient of heat transfer in W/m2-K Problem No. 3 A composite wall is made up of an external thickness of brickwork 11 cm thick, inside which is a layer of fibre glass 7.5 cm thick. The fibre glass is faced internally by an insulating board 2.5 cm thick. The coefficient of thermal conductivity for the three are as follows; Brickwork - 1.5 W/m-C Fiber Glass -0.04 W/m-C Insulating Board - 0.06 W/m-C The surface transfer coefficient of the inside wall is 3.1 Wm 2-C while that of the outside wall is 2.5 Wm2-C. Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer and the heat loss through such a wall 6 m high and 10 m long. Take the internal ambient temperature as 10C and the external temperature as 27C. HEAT TRANSFER QUIZ NO. 1 NAME ________________________________________ RATING ______________________ 1. A wall 3.00 m by 2.44 m is made up of a thickness of 10.0 cm of brick (k = 0.649 W/m-C), 10.0 cm of glass wool (k = 0.0414 W/m-C), 1.25 cm of plaster (k = 0.469 W/m-C), and 0.640 cm of oak wood paneling (k = 0.147 W/m-C). If the inside temperature of the wall is ti =18 C and the outside temperature t0 =−7C, Determine a. The total Resistance of the wall in C/Watt b. The overall coefficient of heat transfer in W/m2-C c. The total conductive heat flow in Watts d. The interface temperature in C 2. A composite plane wall consisting of two layers of materials, 38 mm steel and 51 mm aluminum, separates a hot gas at t i = 93 C; h i = 11.4 W/m2-C, from a cold gas at to = 27C; ho = 28.4 W/m2-C. If the hot fluid is on the aluminum side, Find a. the transmittance U in W/m2-C b. the total resistance R in C -m2/W c. the interface temperature at the junction of two metals in C d. the heat through 9.3 m2 of the surface under steady-state conditions. QUIZ NO. 2 I An insulated steam pipe run through a dark warehouse room. The pipe outside diameter is 60 mm and its surface temperature and emissivity are 165C and 0.95, respectively. The warehouse and air is kept at 5C. If the coefficient of heat transfer by natural convection from the outside surface to the air is 11.4 W/m2-C and the pipe surface may be treated as a gray body, what is the rate of heat loss from the surface per meter of pipe length. A flat furnace wall is constructed of a 11 cm layer of sil-o-cel brick with a thermal conductivity of 0.14 W/m-C, backed by a 23 cm layer of common brick of conductivity 1.4 W/m-C. The temperature of the inner face of the wall is 760 C, and that of the outer face is 77C. a. What is the heat loss through the wall b. What is the temperature of the interface between the refractory brick and common brick c. Supposing that the contact between the two brick layers is poor and that a contact resistance of 0.95 C/W is present, what would be the heat loss. 1 L1 L2 k1 k2 Q ( t1 t 3 ) A L1 L 2 k1 k 2 Q t1 t 2 L1 A k1 2 3 Q Q L t 2 t1 1 A k1 R1 L1 k1A R2 L2 k2A C W Q t1 t 3 A R1 R x R2 R x 0.95 A furnace wall consists of 20 mm of refractory fireclay brick, 100 mm of sil-ocel brick, and 6 mm of steel plate. The fire side of the refractory is at 1150C and the outside of the steel is at 30C. An accurate heat balance over the furnace shows the heat loss from the wall to be 300 W/m2. It is known that there may be thin layers of air between the layers of brick and steel. To how many mm of sil-o-cel are these air layers equivalent. k = 1.52 W/m-C (fireclay) k = 0.138 W/m-C (sil-ocel) k = 4.5 W/m-C (steel) A carpenter builds an outer house wall with a layer of wood (k = 0.080 W/m-K) 2 cm thick on the outside and a layer of Styrofoam (k = 0.01 w/m-K) insulation 3.5 cm thick as the inside wall surface. What is the temperature at the plane where the wood meets the Styrofoam? Interior temperature is 19C; exterior temperature is -10C. L1 L2 t3 t1 k1 k2 Q A An industrial freezer is designed to operate with an internal air temperature of -20C when the external air temperature is 25C and the internal and external heat transfer coefficient are 12 W/m2-K and 8 W/m2-K, respectively. The walls of the freezer are composite construction, comprising of an inner layer of plastic (k = 1 W/m-K, and thickness 3 mm), and an outer layer of stainless stell (k = 16 W/m-K, and thickness of 1 mm). Sandwiched between these two layers is a layer of insulation material with k = 0.07 W/m-K. Find the width of the insulation that is required to reduce the convective heat loss to 15 W/m2. CONDUCTION THROUGH CYLINDRICAL COORDINATES L k t1 t 2 1 2 Q r1 r2 L - length of the cylinder perpendicular to the paper From Fourier' s Equation : dT , since heat flows in a radial direction, the heat tran sfer Q is; dx dT Q - kA , A 2 πrL dx dT dr Q - k(2πrL) , ; Q - 2 πkLdT dr r 2 dr 2 r Q - 2πkL dT ; Qln 2 2 πkL(T2 T1 ) r1 1 r 1 Q - kA r Qln 2 2πkL(T1 T2 ) r1 Q 2 πkL(T1 T2 ) r ln 2 r1 ; Q (T1 T2 ) r ln 2 r1 2 πkL where T1 - T2 t1 - t 2 (t1 t 2 ) ; ln r2 r1 2 πkL r ln 2 r1 R 2πkL where R - resistance Q Q Δt Δt R ln ro ri 2πkL o – refers to outside i – refers to inside Q (t1 t 2 ) R where: Q in Watts k in W/m-C or W/m-K L in meters r in m -t in C or K R in W/C or W/K CONDUCTION THROUGH A COMPOSITE CURVED WALL Let L - length of the cylinder perpendicular to the paper at 1 to 2 at 3 to 4 : Q Q t1 t 2 ln r2 t 3 t 4 r ln 4 r3 2 πk 3L r1 2 πk1L at 2 to 3 at 1 to 4 : Q Q t 2 t 3 ln r3 r2 2 πk 2 L Q (t1 t 4 ) r r ln 4 ln ln 3 r3 r1 r2 2 πk1L 2πk 2 L 2 πk 3L r2 - Δt ln ro ri 2 πkL (t1 t 4 ) Q r r r ln 4 ln 2 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 2 πk1L 2πk 2 L 2 πk 3L (t i t 0 ) r r ln r2 ln 4 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 1 k2 k3 2 πL k1 2 πL(t i t 0 ) Q r r ln r2 ln 4 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 k k k3 2 1 Q 2 π(t i t 0 ) r r L ln r2 ln 4 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 k k k 2 3 1 Q 2 π(-Δt ) L ln ro ri k Q HEAT TRANSFER FROM FLUID TO FLUID SEPARATED BY A COMPOSITE CURVED WALL L - length of the cylinder perpendicular to the paper at i to 1: at 1 to 2: Q = Aihi(ti - t1) Q (t i t1 ) 1 hiAi A i 2r1L Q at 3 to 4: at 2 to 3: (t 1 - t 2 ) r ln 2 r1 2k 1 L at 4 to 0: (t - t ) Q 3 4 r ln 4 r3 2k 3 L Q A 0 h 0 (t 4 t 0 ) Q (t 4 t 0 ) 1 A0h 0 A 0 2r4 L at i to 0: (t i t 0 ) r r r ln 4 ln 2 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 1 1 A i h i 2k 1 L 2k 2 L 2k 3 L A 0 h 0 (t i t 0 ) Q r r r ln 4 ln 2 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 1 1 2r1 Lh i 2k 1 L 2k 2 L 2k 3 L 2r4 Lh 0 Q Q (t 2 - t 3 ) r ln 3 r2 2k 2 L Q (t i t 0 ) r r ln 4 ln r2 ln 3 r3 r1 r2 1 1 1 2L r1 h i k1 k2 k3 r4 h 0 Q 2L( t i t 0 ) r r r ln 4 ln 2 ln 3 1 r3 r1 r2 1 k1 k2 k3 r4 h 0 r1h i 2( t i t 0 ) Q r r r L ln 4 ln 2 ln 3 1 r3 r1 r2 1 k1 k2 k3 r4 h 0 r1h i General Equation: (t ) Q r ln o r ln o ;Q ri (t ) 1 ; where R R Ah 2kL ri 1 Ah 2kL o - refers to outside i - refers to inside Q (t ) r ln o ri 1 1 2L rh k 2L( t ) Q ro ln 1 ri k rh Q 2( t ) r L ln o 1 ri k rh Cylindrical coordinates sample Problems 1. Water through a cast steel pipe (k = 50 W/m-K) with an outer diameter of 104 mm and 2 mm wall thickness. a. Calculate the heat loss by convection and conduction per meter length of insulated pipe (OD = 104 mm ; ID = 100 mm when the water temperature is 15C, the outside air temperature is -10C, the water side heat transfer coefficient is 30,000 W/m2-K and the outside heat transfer coefficient is 20 W/m2-K. b. Calculate the corresponding heat loss when the pipe is lagged with insulation having an outer diameter 0f 300 mm, and thermal conductivity of k = 0.05 W/m-K. ho to ti hi i 1 t1 2 t2 Q r1 r2 2. Saturated steam at 500 K flows in a 20 cm ID; 21 cm OD pipe. The pipe is covered with 8 cm of insulation with a thermal conductivity of 0.10 w/m-C. The pipes conductivity is 52 W/m-C. the ambient temperature is 300 K. The unit convective coefficient are hi = 18 000 W/m2-C and ho = 12 W/m2-C. Determine the heat loss from 4 m of pipe. Calculate the overall coefficient of heat transfer base on the outside area. k1 ti hi 1 2 3 k2 t0 ho Q r1 r2 r3 3. Steam initially saturated at 2.05 MPa, passes through a 10.10 cm (ID =10 cm; OD =12 cm) standard steel pipe (k = 50 W/m – K) for a total distance of 152 m. The steam line is insulated with a 5.08 cm thickness of 85% magnesia (k = 0.069 W/m-K). For an ambient temperature of 22C, what is the quality of the steam which arises at its destination if the mass flow rate is 0.125 kg steam/sec. hsteam = 550 W/m2 – K hstill air = 9.36 W/m2 – K r1 0.0500 k1 50 tsat at 2.05 MPa = 213.61C r2 0.06 k2 0.069 r3 0.1108 hi 550 r2/r1 1.2 ho 9.36 L r3/r2 1.85 m 0.125 ln(r2/r1) 0.182 hs1 2796.3 ln(r3/r2) 0.613 L 152 k2 1/hir1 0.036 2PiL 955.044 Q k1 1/hor3 0.964 ti 213.61 t 22C ln(r2/r1)/k1 0.0036 to 22 1 2 3 ti 213.61C ln(r3/r2)/k2 8.8896 (ti -t0) 191.61 Q 18495.94 Watts hs2 2648.3 Enthalpy r1 hf 913.75 r2 hg 2796.3 r3 hfg 1882.55 x 92.14 Quality 0 Q ms ms hs1 hs2 m s (h s1 - h s2 ) Watts 1000 2πLti - to Q r r2 ln ln 3 1 1 r1 r2 h i r1 k1 k2 h o r3 Q hs 2 h f x s 2 (h g h f ) x s 2 92.14% 4. A steel pipe 100 mm bore and 7 mm wall thickness, carrying steam at 260C is insulated with 40 mm of a moulded hightemperature diatomaceous earth covering, this covering in turn insulated with 60 mm of asbestos felt. The atmospheric temperature is 15C. The heat transfer coefficients for the inside and outside surfaces are 550 and 15 W/m2-K, respectively and the thermal conductivities of steel, diatomaceous earth and asbestos felt are 50, 0.09, and 0.07 W/m-K respectively. Calculate: a. the rate of heat loss by the steam per unit length of pipe b. the temperature of the outside surface c. the overall coefficient of heat transfer based on outside surface k1 k2 k3 1 2 3 ti hi 4 to, ho Q r1 r2 r3 r4 Q L Q L Q 2πt i - t o r r ln 4 ln ln 3 r3 1 r1 r2 1 h i r1 k1 k2 k3 h o r4 r2 2πt i - t 4 r r ln 4 ln ln 3 r3 1 r1 r2 h i r1 k1 k2 k3 r2 2πLt i - t o U o A o t i - t o U o 2πr4 L t i - t o r r ln 4 ln ln 3 r3 1 r1 r2 1 h i r1 k1 k2 k3 h o r4 U o 0.481 r2 W m - C 2 r1 0.050 ti 260 ln(r2/r1) 0.1310 r2 0.057 t0 15 ln(r3/r2) 0.5317 r3 0.097 hi 550 ln(r4/r3) 0.4815 r4 0.157 ho 15 ln(r2/r1)/k1 0.0026 k1 50 (ti - to) 245 ln(r3/r2)/k2 5.9073 k2 0.09 2*PI() 6.28 ln(r4/r3)k3 6.8791 k3 0.07 Ai 0.314 1/hir1 0.0364 L 1 Ao 0.986 1/hor4 0.4246 Q 116.18 SUM 13.2500 Uo 0.481 SUM2 12.8254 t4 22.85 5. Steam at 280C flows in a stainless steel pipe (k = 15 W/m-K) whose inner and outer diameters are 5 cm and 5.5 cm, respectively. The pipe is covered with 3 cm thick glass wool insulation (k = 0.038 W/m-K). Heat is lost to the surroundings at 5C by natural convection and radiation, with a combined natural convection and radiation heat transfer coefficient of 22 W/m 2-K. Taking the heat transfer coefficient inside the pipe is 80 W/m2-K. determine the rate of heat loss from the steam per unit length of pipe. Also determine the temperature drops across the pipe shell and the insulation. k1 k2 1 2 3 ti hi to, ho Q r1 r2 r3 6. Hot water (hi = 6895 W/m2 -C) flows in a 2.5 cm ID; 2.66 cm OD smooth copper pipe (k = 400 W/m -C). The pipe is horizontal in still air ( ho = 3.56 W/m2 -C )and covered with a 1-cm layer of polystyrene foam insulation (k =0.038 W/m-C) . For a 65°C water temperature and 20°C air temperature, Calculate a.the heat loss per unit length of pipe b.the interface temperature in C c.Overall coefficient of heat transfer U OVERALL COEFFICIENT OF HEAT TRANSFER Q = UA(-t) A. For a composite Plane Wall Q A(Δt) Δt Rt 1 L h k L 1 hA kA 1 1 L h k Rt U B. For a Composite Curved Wall Q - Δt r ln o 1 ri hA 2kL r ln o 1 ri Rt hA 2kL r ln o 1 ri UA hA 2kL t Rt UA = UiAi = UoAo where: Ui - overall coefficient of heat transfer based on inside surface, W/m2-C or W/m2-K Uo - overall coefficient of heat transfer based on outside surface, W/m2-C or W/m2-K HEAT EXCHANGER OR HEAT TRANSFER EQUIPMENT TYPES OF HEAT EXCHANGERS 1. DIRECT CONTACT TYPE: The same fluid at two different states is mixed. 2. SHELL AND TUBE TYPE: One fluid flows inside the tubes and the other one on the outside. mh, hh mc, hc m, h By Mass Balance m h mc m By Energy Balance (ΔKE and ΔPE are negligible ) m h h h m c h c mh m h h h m c h c (m h m c )h m h h h mch c m h h mch m h (h h h ) m c (h h c ) Q m h (h h h ) m c (h h c ) Total Heat Transfer Example: SHELL AND TUBE TYPE Shell and Tube Type Heat Exchanger By energy balance: Heat Rejected by hot fluid = Heat Absorbed by cold fluid Qh Qc Q h m h C ph ( t h1 t h 2 ) Hot Fluid Q c m c C pc ( t c 2 t c1 ) Cold Fluid OVERALL COEFFICIENT OF HEAT TRANSFER Q Q h Qc Q UA (LMTD ) Based on Log Mean Temperatur e difference Q UA (AMTD ) Based on Arithmetic Mean Temperatur e difference Where: A – total heat transfer area, m2 LMTD - Log Mean Temperature Difference, C or K AMTD - Arithmetic Mean Temperature Difference, C or K U – Overall Coefficient of Heat Transfer, LMTD AMTD KW KW or 2 2 m C m K θ 2 θ1 θ ln 2 θ1 θ 2 θ1 2 where: - terminal temperature difference TERMINAL TEMPERATURE DIFFERENCE If the design of the heat exchanger is more complex, the LMTD is modified by a correction factor F. Q UAF(LMTD ) Where : F - correction factor TUBE DESIGN Vflow Area x velocit y x Number of tubes m3 sec A πDLn m 2 D - outside diameter of tube ( for U based on outside surface area) A πdLn d - inside tube diameter (For U based on inside surface area) n - total number of tubes L - efdfective length of tube, meters L t - actual length of tube L t L 2t t - thickness of tube sheet, meters F - correction factor F can be determine from charts or tables For Multiple tube passes, divide the length by number of passes and multiply the number of tubes by the number of passes. Example No. 1 Exhaust gases flowing through a tubular heat exchanger at the rate of 0.3 kg/sec are cooled from 400 to 120C by water initially at 10C. The specific heat capacities of exhaust gases and water may be taken as 1.13 and 4.19 KJ/kg-K respectively, and the overall heat transfer coefficient from gases to water is 140 W/m 2-K. Calculate the surface area required when the cooling water flow is 0.4 kg/sec; a. for parallel flow (4.01 m2) b. for counter flow (3.37 m2) Given m c 0.4 kg/sec ; C pc 4.19 KJ/kg - C m h 0.3 kg/sec ; C ph 1.13 KJ/kg - C t h1 400C ; t h2 120C t c1 10C Qh Qc LMTD θ 2 - θ1 390 53.3 169.2C θ 390 ln 2 ln θ1 53.3 For Counter Flow θ 2 t h 1 - t c2 400 66.7 333.3C 0.3(1.13)(400 120) 0.4(4.19)( t c 2 10) θ1 t h 2 t c1 120 10 110C t c 2 66.7C LMTD For Parallel Flow θ 2 t h1 - t c1 400 - 10 390C θ1 t h2 - t c2 120 - 66.7 53.3C Q 0.3(1.13)( 400 120) 94.92 KW Q 94920 Watts 94,920 4.01 m 2 140(169.2) 94,920 A 3 .4 m 2 140(201.43) A 333.3 110 201.43C 333.3 ln 110 Q UA (LMTD ) A Q U(LMTD ) SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A composite wall is made up of an external thickness of brickwork 11 cm thick, inside which is a layer of fiber glass 7.5 cm thick. The fiber glass is faced internally by an insulating board 2.5 cm thick. The coefficient of thermal conductivity for the three are as follows; Brickwork - 1.5 W/m-C Fiber Glass -0.04 W/m-C Insulating Board - 0.06 W/m-C The surface transfer coefficient of the inside wall is 3.1 Wm2-C while that of the outside wall is 2.5 Wm2-C. Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer and the heat loss through such a wall 6 m high and 10 m long. Take the internal ambient temperature as 10C and the external temperature as 27C. 2. A furnace is constructed with 20 cm of firebrick, k = 1.36 W/m-K, 10 cm of insulating brick, k = 0.26 W/m-K, and 20 cm of building brick, k = 0.69 W/m-K. The inside surface temperature is 650C and the outside air temperature is 32 C. The heat loss from the furnace wall is 0.56 W/m2. Determine a. the unit convective coefficient for the air W/m 2-K (3.545) b. the temperature at 25 cm from the outside surface in C. (460 C) 3. A furnace wall consists of 20 mm of refractory fireclay brick, 100 mm of sil-ocel brick, and 6 mm of steel plate. The fire side of the refractory is at 1150C and the outside of the steel is at 30C. An accurate heat balance over the furnace shows the heat loss from the wall to be 300 W/m2. It is known that there may be thin layers of air between the layers of brick and steel. to how many mm of sil-o-cel are these air layers equivalent. (400 mm) k = 1.52 W/m-C (fireclay) k = 0.138 W/m-C (sil-ocel) k = 4.5 W/m-C (steel) 4. A composite plane wall consisting of two layers of materials, 38 mm steel and 51 mm aluminum, separates a hot gas at ti = 93 C; hi = 11.4 W/m2-C, from a cold gas at to = 27C; ho = 28.4 W/m2-C. If the hot fluid is on the aluminum side, Find a. the transmittance U in W/m2-C (8) b. the total resistance R in C -m2/W (0.124) c. the interface temperature at the junction of two metals in C (45) d. the heat through 9.3 m2 of the surface under steady-state conditions. (4937) 5. A heat exchanger is to be designed to the following specifications: Hot gas temperature = 1145C Cold gas temperature = 45C Unit surface conductance on the hot side = 230 W/m2-K Unit surface conductance on the cold side = 290 W/m2-K Thermal conductivity of the metal wall = 115 W/m-K Find the maximum thickness of metal wall between the hot gas and the cold gas, so that the maximum temperature of the wall does not exceed 545C. (20.115 mm) 6. A composite furnace wall is made up of a 300 mm lining of magnesite refractory brick, a 130 mm thickness of 85% magnesia and a steel 2.54 mm thick. Flue gas temperature is 1205 C and the boiler is at 27 C. Gas side film coefficient is 85 W/m 2-C and the air side is 23 W/m2-C. Determine: a. the thermal current Q/A in W/m2 b. the interface temperatures in C c. effect on thermal current and the inside refractory wall temperature if the magnesia insulation were doubled. k for magnesite = 296 W/m-C k for 85% magnesia = 0.0692 W/m-C k for steel = 43.3 W/m-C 7. Determine the thermal conductivity of a wood that is used in a 1.5 m2 test panel, 25 mm thick, if during a 4 hours test period there are conducted 190 KJ through the panel with a temperature differential of 6C between the surfaces. Express answer in W/m-C. (0.0244) 8. The walls of a cold storage are composed of an insulating material (k = 0.065 W/m-C) 10.16 cm thick held between two layers of concrete ( k = 1.04 W/m-C) each 10.16 cm thick. The film coefficients are 22.7 W/m2-C on the outside and 11.4 W/m2-C on the inside. Cold storage temperature is -7C and the ambient temperature is 32C. Determine the heat transmitted in KW through an area of 56 m2. (1.2) 9. A 12 in thick furnace wall with a dimensions of 5 m x 2 m has temperature difference of 60C. The wall has a thermal conductivity of 0.75 BTU/hr-ft-F. Calculate the heat transmitted across the wall. (2554 W) 10. A 15 cm thick wall has a thermal conductivity of 5 W/m-K. If the inside and outside surface temperature of the wall are 200C and 30C, respectively. Determine the heat transmitted. ( 5.67 W/m-K) 11. Two walls of cold storage plant are composed on an insulating material (k = 0.07 W/m-K), 100 mm thick at the outer layer and material (k = 0.97 W/m-K), 15 cm thick at the inner layer. If the surface temperature of the cold side is 30C and hot side is 250C, find the heat transmitted in W/m2. (138) 12. An insulated steam pipe runs through a dark warehouse room.The pipe outside diameter is 60 mm and its surface temperature and emissivity are 165 C and 0.95, respectively. The warehouse and air is kept at 5C. If the coefficient of heat transfer by natural convection from the outside surface to the air is 11.4 w/m 2-C and the pipe surface maybe treated as a gray body, what is the rate of heat loss from the surface per meter of pipe length. ( 657 W/m) 13. Saturated steam at 500 K flows in a 20 cm ID; 21 cm OD pipe. The pipe is covered with 8 cm of insulation with a thermal conductivity of 0.10 w/m-C. The pipes conductivity is 52 W/m-C. the ambient temperature is 300 K. The unit convective coefficient are h i = 18 000 W/m2-C and ho = 12 W/m2-C. Determine the heat loss from 4 m of pipe. Calculate the overall coefficient of heat transfer base on the outside area. (822 W; 0.9 W/m 2-C) 14. A tube 60 mm OD is lagged with a 50 mm layer of asbestos for which the conductivity is 0.21 W/m-C, followed with a 40 mm layer of cork with a conductivity of 0.05 W/m-C. If the temperature of the outer surface of the pipe is 150C and the temperature of the outer surface of the cork is 30C, Calculate the heat loss in Watts per meter length of pipe.(59) 15. An economizer receives hot gas (Cp = 1.13o6 KJ/kg-K) and water in the ratio 1.5 kg gas/kg water. The gas enters at 455C and leaves at 180C; the water enters at 50C. Find the exit temperature of the water and the LMTD: a. for parallel flow ( 125.425C) b. for counter flow (200.81C) Assume no energy losses external to the system. 16. A flat furnace wall is constructed of a 11 cm layer of sil-o-cel brick with a thermal conductivity of 0.14 W/m-C, backed by a 23 cm layer of common brick of conductivity 1.4 W/m-C. The temperature of the inner face of the wall is 760 C, and that of the outer face is 77C. a. What is the heat loss through the wall b. What is the temperature of the interface between the refractory brick and common brick c. Supposing that the contact between the two brick layers is poor and that a contact resistance of 0.95 C/W is present, what would be the heat loss. 17. Steam initially saturated at 2.05 MPa, passes through a 10.10 cm standard steel pipe for a total distance of 152 m. the steam line is insulated with a 5.08 cm thickness of 85% magnesia. For an ambient temperature of 22C, what is the quality of the steam which arises at its destination if the mass flow rate is 0.125 kg steam/sec. (x = 93%) At 2.05 MPa: hf = 914.52 KJ/kg; hfg = 1885.5 KJ/kg; hg = 2800 KJ/kg 18. The hot combustion gases of a furnace are separated from the ambient air and its surrounding which are at 25C, by a brick wall 15 cm thick.The brick has a thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/m-C and a surface emissivity of 0.8. Under steady-state conditions and outer surface temperature of 100C is measured. Free convection heat transfer to the air adjoining this surface is characterized by a convection coefficient of 20 W/m2-C. what is the brick inner surface temperature inC. (352.5C) 19. A counter flow heat exchanger is designed to heat fuel oil from 28 C to 90 C, while the heating fluid enters at 138C and leaves at 105C. The fuel has a specific gravity of 21API, a specific heat of 2.1 KJ/kg-K and enters the heat at the rate of 3 000 L/hr. Determine the required heating surface area in m2 if the overall coefficient of heat transfer is 465.2 W/m2-K. ((3.5 m2) 20. Brine enters a circulating brine cooler at the rate of 5.7 m3/hr at -10C and leaves at -16C.Specific heat of the brine is 1.072 KJ/kg-C and the specific gravity is 1.10. The refrigerant evaporates at -25 C. What is the required heat transfer area if U = 454 W/m2-C. (2.1 m2) 21. A steel pipe 100 mm bore and 7 mm wall thickness, carrying steam at 260C is insulated with 40 mm of a moulded high-temperature diatomaceous earth covering, this covering in turn insulated with 60 mm of asbestos felt. The atmospheric temperature is 15C. The heat transfer coefficients for the inside and outside surfaces are 550 and 15 W/m 2-K, respectively and the thermal conductivities of steel, diatomaceous earth and asbestos felt are 50, 0.09, and 0.07 W/m-K respectively. Calculate: a. the rate of heat loss by the steam per unit length of pipe (116 W) b. the temperature of the outside surface (22.8C) 22. A furnace wall consists of 125 mm wide refractory brick and a25 mm wide insulating firebrick separated by an air gap. The outside wall is covered with a 12 mm thickness of plaster. The inner surface of the wall is at 1100C and the room temperature is 25C. The heat transfer coefficient from the outside wall surface to the air in the room is 17 W/m2-K and the resistance to heat flow of the air gap is 0.16 K/W. The thermal conductivities of refractory brick, insulating brick, and plaster are 1.6, 0.3, and 0.14 W/m-K, respectively. Calculate: a. the rate of heat loss per unit area of wall surface (1344 W) b. the temperature of each interface throughout the wall (995, 780, 220, 104 C) c. the temperature at the outside surface of the wall ( 104.1C) 23. Exhaust gases flowing through a tubular heat exchanger at the rate of 0.3 kg/sec are cooled from 400 to 120C by water initially at 10C. The specific heat capacities of exhaust gases and water may be taken as 1.13 and 4.19 KJ/kg-K respectively, and the overall heat transfer coefficient from gases to water is 140 W/m2-K. Calculate the surface area required when the cooling water flow is 0.4 kg/sec; a. for parallel flow (4.01 m2) b. for counter flow (3.37 m2) 24. A properly designed steam heated tubular pre heater is heating 5.7 kg/sec of air from 21C to 77C when using steam at 0.14 MPa. It is proposed to double the rate of air flow through the heater and yet heat the air from 21C to 77C; this is to be accomplished by increasing the steam pressure. Calculate the new steam pressure required to meet the change condition expressed in KPa. (661.5 KPa) 25. A 404.34 m2 heating surface counter-flow economizer is used in conjunction with a 72,000 kg/hr boiler. the inlet and outlet water temperature are 100C and 155C. The inlet and outlet gas temperature are 340C and 192C. Find the overall coefficient in W/m2-C. (85.6 w/M2-C) 26. A boiler tube for steam at 8.2 MPa (ts = 296.79C; h = 2574.82 KJ/kg) is 9 cm OD and 7 cm ID. assume an internal film coefficient of 11,350 W/m 2-C and a thermal flow of 157,640 W/m2 based on the outside area, calculate a) Outside tube temperature b) Allowable boiler scale thickness if the metal is not to exceed 482C. Assume k for steel = 43.26 W/m-C anf for scale k = 0.52 W/m-C. 27. An 8" steel pipeline (OD = 22 cm; ID = 19 cm) carries steam at 232C. An 85% magnesia (k = 0.07 W/m-C) pipe covering is to be applied of such a thickness so as to limit the surface temperature to 50C with room temperature of 16C. Assume inside and outside coefficients of 1700 W/m2-C and 0.011 W/m2-C and k for steel = 41 W/m-C, calculate the magnesia thickness in cm, 28.Calculate the energy transfer rate across 6 in wall of firebrick with a temperature difference across the wall of 50C. The thermal conductivity of the firebrick is 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F at the temperature interest. BTU W 1.73 hr - ft - F m- C k = 0.65(1.73) = 1.1245 W/m-C L = 0.6" = 0.01524 m Q k ( Δt ) 3689 .3 W/m 2 A L 29. A carpenter builds an outer house wall with a layer of wood (k = 0.080 W/m-K) 2 cm thick on the outside and a layer of styrofoam (k = 0.01 w/m-K) insulation 3.5 cm thick as the inside wall surface. What is the temperature at the plane where the wood meets the Styrofoam? Interior temperature is 19C; exterior temperature is -10C. L1 L2 1 2 Q k1 3 k2 Q (t 1 t 3 ) (t 1 t 2 ) L1 A L1 L 2 k1 k 2 k1 t1 = 19C t3 = -10C k1 = 0.01 k2 = 0.08 L1 = 0.035 m L2 = 0.02 m t2 = - 8C Exams 1. An 8" steel pipeline (OD = 22 cm; ID = 19 cm) carries steam at 232C. An 85% magnesia (k = 0.07 W/m-C) pipe covering is to be applied of such a thickness so as to limit the surface temperature to 50C with room temperature of 16C. Assume inside and outside coefficients of 1700 W/m2-C and 0.011 W/m2-C and k for steel = 41 W/m-C, calculate the magnesia thickness in cm, 2. The emissivity of tungsten is 0.35. A tungsten sphere with a radius of 1.5 cm is suspended within a large enclosure whose walls are at 290K. What power input is required to maintain the sphere at a temperature of 3000K if heat conduction along the supports is neglected? (Area of sphere = 4r2) 3. A copper cylinder is initially at 20C. At what temperature will be its volume be 0.150%larger than it is at 20C. Coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 1.7 x 10-5. REFRIGERATION By: ENGR. YURI G. MELLIZA Refrigeration system is that area in mechanical engineering that deals with the different mechanism involved in maintaining a temperature below that of the immediate surroundings. It is a process of moving heat from one location to another in controlled conditions. The work of heat transport is traditionally driven by mechanical work, but can also be driven by heat, magnetism, electricity, laser, or other means. Major Uses of Refrigeration: 1. Air Conditioning 2. Food Preservation 3. Removing of heat from substances in chemical, petroleum and petrochemical plants 4. Special applications in the manufacturing and construction industries. SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS Whenever energy is transferred, the level of energy cannot be conserved and some energy must be permanently reduced to a lower level. When this is combined with the first law of thermodynamics, the law of energy conservation, the statement becomes: Whenever energy is transferred, energy must be conserved, but the level of energy cannot be conserved and some energy must be permanently reduced to a lower level. KELVIN-PLANCK STATEMENT OF THE SECOND LAW: No cyclic process is possible whose sole result is the flow of heat from a single heat reservoir and the performance of an equivalent amount of work. For a system undergoing a cycle: The net heat is equal to the network. dW dQ W Q W - net work Q - net heat CARNOT CYCLE (Nicolas Leonard Sadi Carnot 1796-1832) A. Carnot Engine Cycle Processes: 1 to 2 - Heat Addition (T = C) 2 to 3 - Expansion (S = C) 3 to 4 - Heat Rejection (T = C) 4 to 1 - Compression (S = C) P T 1 QA T=C S=C 4 1 2 4 3 2 S=C T=C 3 QR V S Heat Added (T = C) Q A = TH ( S) 1 Heat Rejected (T = C) QR = TL ( S) 2 S = S2 - S1 = S3 - S4 3 Net Work W = Q = Q A - QR 4 W = (TH - TL )( S) 5 Thermal Efficiency e W x 100% 6 QA e Q A QR x 100% 7 QA Q e 1 R x 100% 8 QA Eq. 5 to and Eq.1 to Eq. 6 e TH TL x 100% 9 TH B. Carnot Refrigeration Cycle (Reversed Carnot Cycle) Processes: 1 to 2 - Compression (S =C) 2 to 3 - Heat Rejection (T = C) 3 to 4 - Expansion (S = C) 4 to 1 - Heat Addition (T = C) T 3 2 QR 4 1 QA S C. Carnot Heat Pump: A heat pump uses the same components as the refrigerator but its purpose is to reject heat at high energy level. Performance Factor PF = PF = PF = QR W 11 QR QR - Q A TH TH - TL 12 13 PF = COP + 1 14 TON OF REFRIGERATION It is the heat equivalent to the melting of 1 ton (2000 lb) of water ice at 0C into liquid at 0C in 24 hours. 2000(144) BTU 12,000 24 hr KJ TR 211 min TR where 144 BTU/lb is the latent heat of fusion of ice CARNOT REFRIGERATION SYSTEM Processes 1 to 2 – Isentropic compression 2 to 3 – Isothermal Heat rejection 3 to 4 – Isentropic Expansion 4 to 1 – Isothermal Heat Addition QR 3 S COMPONENTS 1. Compressor 2. Condenser 3. Expander 4. Evaporator Condenser 2 TH QR Expansion Valve 1 R Compressor HEAT ADDED (T = C) QA = TL (S) S = S1 – S4 TL = Evaporator temperature HEAT REJECTED QR = TH (S) S = S2 – S3 TH = Condenser temperature NET WORK (compressor work) Wc = QR - QA COEFFICIENT OF PEFORMANCE COP 4 QA Evaporator TL QA QA WC HEAT PUMP A heat pump uses the same components as the refrigerator but its main purpose is to reject heat at high thermal energy level. Its performance is obtained on the basis of Performance Factor. PERFORMANCE FACTOR Performance Factor PF = PF = PF = QR W 11 QR QR - Q A TH TH - TL 12 13 PF = COP + 1 14 SAMPLE PROBLEMS (CARNOT CYCLE) 1. A Carnot engine operating between 775 K and 305K produces 54 KJ of work. Determine the change of entropy during heat addition. (S12= 0.115 KJ/K) e TH TL 775 305 60.6 % TH 775 W (TH - TL )S 54 S 0.115 KJ/K 2. A Carnot refrigerator operates between temperature limits of -5C and 30C. The power consumed is 4 KW and the heat absorbed is 30 KJ/kg. Determine; (a) the COP (b) the refrigerant flow rate TL = -5 + 273 = 268K ; TH = 30 + 273 = 303K; W = 4 KW 268 7 .7 303 268 Q A COP( W ) 7.7( 4) 30.8 KW COP Q A m(30) m 30.8/30 1.03 kg/sec T TH TH QR 2 3 QR R TL 1 4 W QA QA S TL 3. A Carnot refrigerator rejects 2500 KJ of heat at 353K while using 1100 KJ of work. Find a) the cycle low temperature b) the COP c) the heat absorbed or refrigerating capacity W QR Q A 1100 2500 Q A Q A 1400 KJ Q TL COP A W TH TL TL 1400 1100 353 TL 1100TL 494,200 1400TL T TH TH QR 2 3 QR R TL 1 4 W QA QA S TL TL 197.7K COP 1.2727 QUIZ NO 1 1. A Carnot engine operates between temperature reservoirs of 817C and 25C and rejects 25 KW to the low temperature reservoir. The Carnot engine drives the compressor of an ideal vapor compression refrigerator, which operates within pressure limits of 190 KPa and 1200 KPa. The refrigerant is R 22. Determine the COP and the refrigerant flow rate. For the R22 refrigerator h1 =394.27 KJ/kg h2 =440.99 KJ/kg h3 = 279.91 KJ/kg h4 = 279.91 KJ/kg 2. A heat pump is used to heat a house in the winter months. When the average outside temperature is 0C and the indoor temperature is 23C, the heat loss from the house is 20 KW. Determine the minimum power required to heat the heat pump. TL 0 273 273 K TH 23 273 296 K Q R 20 KW Q TH 296 PF R 12.9 W TH TL 296 272 20 W 1.55 KW 12.9 3. A Carnot heat pump is being considered for home heating in a location where the outside temperature may as low as 35C. The expected COP for the heat pump is 1.50. To what temperature could this unit provide? TL 35 273 238 K COP 1.5 TL COP 1.5 TH - TL 1.5TH 1.5( 238) 238 TH 397 K t H 124C VAPOR COMPRESSION REFRIGERATION SYSTEM Processes 1 to 2 – Isentropic Compression 2 to 3 – Isobaric Heat Rejection 3 to 4 – Iso-enthalpic Expansion 4 to 1 – Isobaric Heat Addition COMPONENTS 1. Compressor 2. Condenser 3. Expansion Valve 4. Evaporator Ph and TS Diagram T P 2 tc 3 Pc Pc 3 2 S=C h=C Pe te Pe 4 1 S 4 1 h Schematic Diagram COMPRESSOR WORK a. Compressor W m(h 2 h1 ) KW where m - mass flow rate in kg/sec b. Condenser Q R m(h 2 h 3 ) KW For air cooled condenser Q R m a C pa (ΔTa ) For water cooled condenser Q R m w C pw (ΔTw ) w - refers to water a - refers to air c. Expansion Valve/Coil h3 h 4 h 4 h f 4 x 4 (h g 4 h f 4 ) g saturated vapor f saturated liquid x - Quality x mv mv m mL mv d. Evaporator Q A m(h1 h 4 ) KW REFRIGERATING CAPACITY Refrigerating Capacity is the amount of heat removed from an object to be cooled per unit time by a refrigerating machine. Refrigerating capacity is measured in watts or in kilocalories per hour. Other common units include tons, or Tons of Refrigeration (TR), which describe the amount of water at a given temperature that can be frozen in a given amount of time. Q A m(h1 h 4 ) KW QA 60m(h1 h 4 ) TR 211 COEFFICIENT OF PERFORMANCE (COP) A constant that denotes the efficiency of a refrigerator, expressed as the amount of heat removed from a substance being refrigerated divided by the amount of work necessary to remove the heat. QA W h1 h 4 COP h 2 h1 COP PRODUCT LOAD Cpb Cpa t1 m tf Q1 t2 m tf Q3 Q2 Q Q1 Q 2 Q 3 Q1 mC pa ( t1 tf ) Q 2 mhF Q 3 mC pb ( tf t 2) Q mC pa ( t 1 t f ) mh F mC pb ( t f t 2 ) Q m C pa ( t1 t f ) h F C pb ( t f t 2 ) where m mass , kg; kg / min KJ KJ or kg - C kg - K KJ KJ C pb sp.heat of product below freezing, or kg - C kg - K h F heat of fusion (latent heat of freezing) in KJ/kg C pa sp.heat of product above frezing, Considerin g heat gains/loss es Q Q1 Q 2 Q 3 (1 Gain / loss ) Q QA Refrigeration Load Calculations The heat load calculation is separated into the following main sources of heat for a given 24 hour period: 1. Transmission load 2. Air change load 3. Miscellaneous load 4. Product load Transmission Load Methods of determining the amount of heat flow through walls, floor and ceiling are well established. This heat gain is directly proportional to the Temperature Difference (T.D.) between the two sides of the wall. The type and thickness of insulation used in the wall construction, the outside area of the wall and the T.D. between the two sides of the wall are the three factors that establish the wall load. Tables are provided to simplify the calculations. Some coolers for above freezing temperatures have been constructed with only a floor slab (no floor insulation). Air Change Load Average Air Change- when the door to a refrigerated room is opened, warm outside air will enter the room. This air must be cooled to the refrigerated room temperature, resulting in an appreciable source of heat gain. This load is sometimes called the infiltration load. The probable number of air changes per day and the heat that must be removed from each cubic foot of the infiltrated air, are given in tables based on experience. For heavy usage, the infiltration may be doubled or more. Infiltration Through a Fixed Opening- As an alternate to the average air change method using Psychrometry, some formulas may be used to calculate the infiltration resulting from natural ventilation through external door openings. Miscellaneous Loads Although most of the heat load in a refrigerated room or freezer is caused by wall heat leakage, air changes and product cooling or freezing, there are three other heat sources that should not be overlooked prior to the selection of the refrigeration equipment. Since the equipment has to maintain temperature under design conditions, these loads are generally averaged to a 24 hour period to provide for capacity during these times. Lights- typically storage requirements are 1 to 1-1/2 watt per square foot. Cutting or processing rooms can be double the wattage. Each watt is multiplied by 3.42 BTU/watt to obtain a BTUH figure. This is then multiplied by 24 to obtain a daily figure. Motors- smaller motors are usually less efficient and tend to generate more heat per horsepower as compared to larger motors. Also, motors inside the refrigerated area will reject all of their heat losses. However, motors that are located outside but do the work inside, like a conveyor, will reject less heat into the refrigerated space. If powered material handling equipment is used, such as forklift trucks, this must be included under Motor Heat Loads. Generally only battery operated lift trucks are used in refrigerated rooms, which represent a heat gain of 8,000 to 15,000 BTU/hr. or more over the period of operation. If motor or loading conditions are not known, then calculate one motor horsepower for each 16,000 cubic foot box in a storage cooler and one HP for each 12,500 C.F. in a storage freezer which allows for fan motors and some forklift operations. These figures can be higher in a heavily used area, i.e. loading dock or distribution warehouse. Occupancy- People working in the refrigerated storage area dissipate heat at a rate depending on the room temperature. Multiple occupancies for short periods should be averaged over a 24 hour period. If occupancy load is not known, allow one person per 24 hour for each 25,000 cubic foot space. Product Load Whenever a product having a higher temperature is placed in a refrigerator or freezer room, the product will lose its heat until it reaches the storage temperature. This heat load consists of three separate components: Specific Heat- The amount of heat that must be removed from one pound of product to reduce the temperature of this pound by 1ºC., is called its specific heat. It has two values: one applies when the product is above freezing; the second is applicable after the product has reached its freezing point. Latent Heat- The amount of heat that must be removed from one kg of product to freeze this kg is called the latent heat of fusion. Most products have a freezing point in the range of -3.3C. to -0.56C. If the exact temperature is unknown, it may be assumed to be -2.2C. There is a definite relationship between the latent heat of fusion and the water content of the product and its specific and latent heats. Estimating specific and latent heats: Sp. Ht. above freezing = 0.20 + (0.008 X % water) Sp. Ht. below freezing = 0.20 + (0.008 X % water) Latent Heat = 143.3 X % water Respiration- Fresh fruits and vegetables are alive. Even in refrigerated storage they generate heat which is called the heat of respiration. They continually undergo a change in which energy is released in the form of heat, which varies with the type and temperature of the product. Tabulated values are usually in KJ/kg/24 hours, and are applied to the total weight of product being stored and not just the daily turnover. Pull down Time- When a product load is to be calculated at other than a 24 hour pull down, a correction factor must be multiplied to the product load. Safety Factor When all four of the main sources of heat are calculated, a safety factor of 10% is normally added to the total refrigeration load to allow for minor omissions and inaccuracies (additional safety or reserve may be available from the compressor running time and average loading). PRODUCT LOAD SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. Compute the heat to be removed from 110 kg of lean beef if it were to be cooled from 20C to 4C, after which it is frozen and cooled to -18C. Specific heat of beef above freezing is given as 3.23 KJ/kg-C, and below freezing is 1.68 KJ/kg-C. Freezing point of beef is -2.2C, and latent heat of fusion is 233 KJ/kg. Given: m = 110 kg Cpa = 3.23 KJ/kg-C t1 = 20C Cpb = 1.68 KJ/kg-C t2 = 4C hL = 233 KJ/kg tf =-2.2C t3 = -18C Q = m[Cpa(t1 - t2) + Cpa(t2 - tf) + hL + Cpb(tf - t3)] 2. Q = 36 438 KJ A refrigeration storage is supplied with 10 000 kg of fish at a temperature of 2C. The fish has to be cooled to -10C for preserving it for a long period without deterioration. The cooling takes place in 10 hours. The specific heat of fish is 0.7 KCal/kg-C above freezing point and 0.3 KCal/kg-C below freezing point which is -3C. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 KCal/kg. Find the refrigerating capacity of the plant in tons of refrigeration. (24.35 tons) 3. 4. A mass of ice at -4C is needed to cool 114 kg of vegetables in a bunker for 24 hours. The initial temperature of the vegetables is assumed to be 29C. It also assumed that the average temperature in the bunker is 7C, within the 24 hours period. If the heat gained per hour in the bunker is 30% of the heat removed to cool the vegetables from 29C to 7C, what would be the required mass of ice? (29.33 kg) Specific heat of ice = 1.9387 KJ/kg-C Specific heat of vegetables = 3.35 KJ/kg-C Specific heat of water = 4.2292 KJ/kg-C Heat oof fusion of ice = 335 KJ/kg 4. Four hundred kilograms of poultry enter a chiller at 6C and are frozen and chilled to a final temperature of -16C for storage in 12 hours. Compute the product load. Cpa - 3.18 KJ/kg-C Cpb - 1,55 KJ/kg-C Latent heat - 246 KJ/kg Freezing temperature - -3C ANSWER: 2.73 KW 5. Ten thousand kilograms of dressed poultry are blast frozen on hand trucks each day (24 hours) in a freezing tunnel.The poultry is pre-cooled to 7C before entering the freezer where it is frozen and its temperature lowered to -20C for storage. The hand trucks carrying the poultry total 700 kg per day and have a specific heat of 0.47 KJ/kg-C. The specific heat of poultry above and below freezing are 3.18 KJ/kg-C and 1.55 KJ/kg-C, respectively, the latent heat is 246 KJ/kg and the freezing temperature is -2.75C. Determine the product load. (35.3 KW) 6. Twenty three hundred liters of partially frozen ice cream at -4Center a hardening room each day. Hardening is completed and the temperature of the ice cream is lowered to -28C in 10 hours. The average density of ice cream is 0.69 kg/L, the average latent heat per kg is 233 KJ. determine the product load. (10.86 KW) 7. A food freezing plant receives peas from the field at a temperature of 24C, chills, freezes and chills them further to -18C. What refrigerating capacity in tons is required to perform this operation on 500 kg of peas per hour. (14.2 tons) Freezing point of peas = -1.1C Cpa = 3.31 KJ/kg-C Cpb = 1.76 KJ/kg-C Latent heat of freezing - 246.6 KJ/kg 8. An ice plant is freezing 3785.4 liters of water per hour from 18C into ice at -7C. Find the output of the refrigerating machine in tons, assuming 20% additional load due to losses in heat leakage, etc. Specific heat of water is 4.187 KJ/kg-C, specific heat of ice is 2.1 KJ/kg-C and latent heat of fusion is equal to 334.9 KJ/kg. ( Q = 152.27 tons) 9. A fish weighing 11 000 kg with a temperature of 20C is brought to a cold storage and which shall be cooled to -10C in 11 hours. Find the required plant refrigerating capacity in tons of refrigeration if the specific heat of peas is 0.7 KCal/kg-C above freezing and 0.3 KCal/kg-C below freezing point which is -3C. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 KJ/kg. (24.4 tons) Wet Compression P Pc 3 Pe 4 2 1 h Sub – Cooling of Refrigerant T tc t3 P 2 PC 2 Pc 3 3 Pe Pe te 4 4 1 1 S h Superheating of Suction Vapor P T 2 3 tc PC t1 te 1 Pe 4 Pc 3 Pe 4 2 1 h S Sub Cooling and Superheating T P Sub – Cooling & Superheating 2 tc t3 t1 te PC 3 1 4 Pe S Pc 3 Pe 4 2 1 h ACTUAL VAPOR COMPRESSION CYCLE As the refrigerant flows through the system there will be pressure drop in the condenser, evaporator and piping. Heat losses or gains will occur depending on the temperature difference between the refrigerant and the surroundings. Compression will be polytropic with friction and heat transfer instead of isentropic. The actual vapor compression cycle may have some or all of the following items of deviation from the ideal cycle: Superheating of the vapor in the evaporator Heat gain in the suction line from the surroundings Pressure drop in the suction line due to fluid friction Pressure drop due to wiredrawing at the compressor suction valve. Polytropic compression with friction and heat transfer Pressure drop at the compressor discharge valve. Pressure drop in the delivery line. Heat loss in the delivery line. Pressure drop in the condenser. Sub-cooling of the liquid in the condenser or sub-cooler. Heat gain in the liquid line. Pressure drop in the evaporator. COMPRESSOR EFFICIENCY Ideal Power x100% Brake or Shaft Power Wc ec x100% BP ec MOTOR EFFICIENCY e Motor Brake or Shaft Power x 100% Motor Power where BP - Power supplied by the motor MP - Electrical Power supplied to the motor (For Motor driven) BRAKE POWER (In terms of Torque) 2 πTN KW 60,000 where BP T - Brake Torque in N - m N - No. of RPM MOTOR POWERa) For single phase motor MP EI(cos θ) KW 1000 MP 3 EI(cos θ) KW 1000 where E Volts I Current drawn by the motor, Amperes cos θ - Power Factor RECIPROCATING COMPRESSOR ISENTROPIC WORK W m(h 2 h1 ) KW k 1 kmRT1 P2 k W 1 KW k - 1 P1 P1V1' mRT1 k 1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 Where : m - mass flow rate of refrigeran t in kg sec V1' volume flow rate measured at intake, m3 sec KJ kg - K P - absolute pressure in KPa R - Gas constant in subscripts 1 - suction 2 - discharge T - absolute temperat ure, K h - enthalpy, KJ kg DISPLACEMENT VOLUME (For Reciprocating type of compressor) a. For Single Acting πLD 2Nn' m3 VD 4(60) sec b. For Double Acting without considering piston rod VD 2πLD 2 Nn' m 3 4(60) sec c. For Double Acting considering piston rod πLNn' m3 VD 2D 2 - D 2 4(60) sec KW PER TON OF REFRIGERATION KW 211(h 2 - h1 ) KW Ton (60)(h1 - h4 ) Ton COEFFICIENT OF PERFORMANCE Q COP A W h1 - h 4 COP h 2 - h1 CUBIC METER/min PER TON OF REFRIGERATION A. For Single Acting m3 211πLD2Nn' m3 min - Ton 4m(h1 - h4 ) min - Ton B. For double acting without considering piston rod m3 211(2)πLD2Nn' m3 min - Ton 4m(h1 - h4 ) min - Ton C. For double acting considering piston rod m3 211πLNn' m3 2D2 - d 2 min - Ton 4m(h1 - h4 ) min - Ton where; L - length of stroke, m D - diameter of bore, m d - diameter of piston rod, m N - no. of RPM n' - no. of cylinders VOLUMETRIC EFFICIENCY v V1' ' x 100% VD 1 k P 2 v 1 c c x 100% P1 where: V1' - volume flow rate at intake, m3/sec VD - displacement volume, m3/sec v - volumetric efficiency 1 - specific volume, m3/kg PISTON SPEED PS 2LN m/min PS 2LN m/sec 60 PERCENT CLEARANCE Clearance Volume x 100% Displaceme nt Volume For reciprocating type compressor design, values of percent clearance C range from 3 to 10 percent C EFFICIENCY A. Compression Efficiency Ideal Work ηcn x 100% Indicated Work B. Mechanical Efficiency Indicated Work ηm x 100% Brake or Shaft Work C. Compressor Efficiency Ideal Work ηc x 100% Brake or Shaft Work ηc ηcnηm Example No. 1 A six cylinder, 6.7 cm x 5.7 cm, R-22 compressor operating at 1800 RPM indicate a refrigerating capacity of 96.4 KW and a power requirement of 19.4 KW at an evaporating temperature of 5C and a condensing temperature of 35C. Compute: a) the clearance volumetric efficiency if c = 5% b) the actual volumetric efficiency c)the compressor efficiency QR 3 2 Condenser Expansion Valve L HE CE 4 1 Evaporator D QA Example No. 2 An air conditioning system of a high rise building has a capacity of 350 KW of refrigeration, uses R-12. The evaporating and condensing temperature are 0C and 35C, respectively. Determine the following: a) mass of flash gas per kg of refrigerant circulated b) mass of R-12 circulated per second c) volumetric rate of flow under suction conditions d) compression work e) the COP QR 3 2 Condenser Expansion Valve W Compressor 4 Evaporator QA 1 From Chart or Table for R 12 (Saturated vapor and liquid) t e 0C Pe 359 KPa 3.59 Bar h1 355.51 KJ kg m3 kg KJ S1 1.5591 kg - K υ1 0.04827 S1 S2 1.5591 KJ kg - K t c 35C Pc 843 KPa 8.43 Bar At S1 S2 to 843 KPa t 3 40.45C S1 S2 1.5591 KJ kg - K KJ kg h 3 h 4 h f at 35 (saturated liquid) h 2 370.67 h 3 h 4 234.12 KJ kg h1 355.51 KJ/kg h2 370.67 KJ/kg h3 234.12 KJ/kg h4 234.12 KJ/kg vg1 0.04827 m3/kg QA 350 KW hf4 204.7 KJ/kg hg4 355.51 KJ/kg hg4-hf4 150.81 KJ/kg x4 19.51 % (h1-h4) 121.39 m 2.9 kg/sec V1' 0.14 m3/sec mW 43.71 KW COP 8.007 Example No. 3 A 4 cylinder, R-12 compressor operates between evaporator and condenser temperature of 4C and 43C. It is to carry a load of 20 tons of refrigeration at 1200 RPM. If the average piston speed is 213 m/min and the actual volumetric efficiency is 80%, what should be the bore and stroke of the compressor? From R12 table and Chart At 4C (Psat 3.48 Bar 348 KPa t e 4C ; Pe 348 KPa h1 355.08 KJ/kg S1 S 2 1.5596 KJ/kg - K 1 0.04976 m3 kg At 43C Psat 10.29 Bar 1029 KPa tc 43C; Pc 1029 KPa h1 355.08 KJ/kg h 2 h at S 2 1.5596 and P2 1029 KPa h2 374.46 KJ/kg h3 242.32 KJ/kg h4 242.32 KJ/kg vg1 0.04976 m3/kg QA 10 TR QA 35.17 KW N 1200 RPM PS 213 m/mim PS 3.55 m/sec ev 80 % n' 4.0 cyl. (h1 - h4) 112.76 KJ/kg KJ kg t 2 49.95C m 0.31 kg/sec V1' 0.016 m3/sec VD 0.019398 m3/sec L 0.08875 m L 8.9 cm D 0.058981 m D 5.9 cm h 2 374.46 h 3 h 4 hf at 43C KJ h 3 h 4 242.32 kg Example No. 4 An ammonia compressor operates at an evaporator pressure of 316 KPa and a condenser pressure of 1514.5 KPa. The refrigerant is sub-cooled 5C and is superheated 8C. A twin cylinder compressor with bore and stroke ratio of 0.85 is to be used at 1200 RPM. The mechanical efficiency is 77%. For a load of 87.5 KW, determine: a) the quantity of the cooling water in the condenser if the increase in temperature is 7C. b) the bore and stroke in cm assuming c = 5% c) the size of the driving motor d) the quality of the refrigerant entering the evaporator P 3 Pc = 1514.5 KPa QR 2 3 Pe = 316 KPa 4 2 Condenser S=C 1 Expansion Valve L HE h CE 4 QA T 2 t2 = 117.36 C tc = 39.04 C t3 = 34.04 C t1 = 0.07 C te = -7.93 C Evaporator 3 1 4 S 1 D For Ammonia at Saturated Condition With 8C Superheating of refrigerant at inlet of compressor t1 = -7.93 + 8 = 0.07C With 5C subcooling of condensate at condenser exit t3 = 39.04 – 5 = 34.04C Example No. 5 A refrigerant 22, 4-cylinders, 85 mm x 70 mm, compressor running at 28 RPS, a condensing temperature of 38C and an evaporating temperature of -2C carries a refrigerating load of 112 KW. The motor driving the compressor has an efficiency of 92% and draws 32.5 KW. There is a 5C sub-cooling and 7C superheating of the suction gas entering the compressor. Compute a) the actual volumetric efficiency b) the compression efficiency For R22 at Saturated Condition With sub – cooling and super – heating of refrigerant t1 2 7 5 t 3 38 5 33 C From R22 chart and table (Superheated and Subcooled condition) Example No. 6 A cold storage warehouse uses a refrigeration system to keep groceries at 2C while the temperature outside the warehouse is 30C. The groceries and the outside air act as thermal reservoirs in this process. Although the warehouse is insulated, it absorbs heat from the surroundings at a rate of 775 KW. Determine the power requirement and COP for a Carnot refrigeration cycle and for an ideal Ammonia vapor – compression refrigeration cycle that will maintain the temperature of the groceries under these conditions. The condenser operates at 1600 KPa and the evaporator operates at 300 KPa. QR 3 2 Condenser Expansion Valve HE L W CE 4 1 Evaporator D QA Carnot Cycle T QR TH 3 2 TL 4 1 QA S TH QR W R QA TL For the Vapor – Compression Cycle (Refrigerant: Ammonia) P Pc 2 3 S=C Pe 4 1 h T 2 tc 3 Pc h=C te Pe 4 1 S Saturated Properties (Ammonia) Superheated Properties at P2 = 1600 KPa and S1 = S2 = 6.2175 KJ/kg-K Sample Problem No. 7 The catalog for a refrigerant 22, 4-cylinders, hermetic compressor operating at 29 r/s, a condensing temperature of 40C and an evaporating temperature of -4C shows a refrigeration capacity of 115 KW. At this operating points the motor whose efficiency is 90 percent, draws 34.5 KW. The bore of the cylinders is 87 mm and the piston stroke is 70 mm. The performance data are based on 8C of sub-cooling of the liquid leaving the condenser. Compute a. the actual volumetric efficiency b. the compression efficiency c. the actual COP of the system From R22 Table and Chart Pe Psat at - 4C 436.28 KPa Pc Psat at 40C 1533.58 KPa t 3 40 - 8 32C t e t1 t 4 h1 h @ - 4C 403.55 S1 1.7566 KJ (saturated vapor) kg KJ m3 ; υ1 0.0535 kg - K kg S1 S 2 h 2 h @ S1 S 2 to Pc 1533.58 KPa (Superheated vapor) h 2 435.01 KJ ; t2 60.2C kg h3 h 4 h@ 1533.58 KPa and 32C h3 h 4 239.16 KJ kg Q A m(h1 h 4 ) 115 KW m 0.70 kg sec V1 ' mυ1 0.70(0.0535) 0.037 m3 sec πLD 2Nn' m3 0.05 4(60) sec V e v 1 ' x100% 77.53% VD VD W m(h 2 h1 ) 22.01KW MP 34.5 KW BP x100% 90% MP BP 0.90(34.5) 31.05 KW emotor W x100% BP 22.01 ec x100% 70.9% 31.05 115 COP 3.33 34.5 ec Sample Problem No. 8 Refrigerant-134a enters the compressor of a refrigerator as superheated vapor at 140 KPa and −10°C at a rate of 0.12 kg/s, and it leaves at 700 KPa and 50°C. The refrigerant is cooled in the condenser to 24°C and 650 KPa, and it is throttled to 150 KPa. Show the cycle on a Ph diagram and determine a. the rate of heat removal from the refrigerated space and the power input to the compressor b. the isentropic efficiency of the compressor, and c. the COP of the refrigerator. P1 140 KP1; t1 - 10C P2 700 KPa ; t 2 50C P3 650 KPa; t 3 24C P4 150 KPa At P1 140 KPa and t1 -10C KJ kg KJ S1 1.768 kg - K h1 394.5 υ1 0.1461 At P2 700 KPa and 50C KJ kg KJ S 2 1.791 kg - K At P3 650 KPa ; t 3 24C h 2 436.67 h3 h 4 233.12 KJ kg At S1 S 2 1.768 KJ to P2 700 KPa (Considering Isentropic compression) kg - K KJ ; t 2 42.6 kg Q A m(h1 h 4 ) 1936.56 KW h 2 429.32 W m(h 2 - h1 ) 502.44 KW Wisentropic 0.12(429.32 - 394.5) 417.84 KW e compression COP Wisentropic W x100% 83.2% QA 3.82 W EFFECTS ON CHANGING OPERATING CONDITIONS A. Effects on Increasing the Vaporizing Temperature P 1. The refrigerating effect per unit mass increases. h 2.The mass flow rate per ton decreases 3. The volume flow rate per ton decreases. 4. The COP increases. 5. The work per ton decreases. 6. The heat rejected at the condenser per ton decreases. T S B. Effects on Increasing the Condensing Temperature T P 1. The refrigerating effect per unit mass decreases. 2. The mass flow rate per ton increases. 3. the volume flow rate per ton increases. 4. The COP decreases. 5. The work per ton increases. 6. The heat rejected at the condenser per ton increases. S h C. Effects of Superheating the Suction Vapor T P h When superheating produces useful cooling: 1. The refrigerating effect per unit mass increases. 2. The mass flow rate per ton decreases 3. The volume flow rate per ton decreases. 4. The COP increases. 5. The work per ton decreases. When superheating occurs without useful cooling: 1. The refrigerating effect per unit mass remains the same. 2. The mass flow rate per ton remains the same. 3. The volume flow rate per ton increases. 4. The COP decreases. 5. The work per ton decreases. 6. The heat rejected at the condenser per ton increases. S D. Effects of Sub-cooling the Liquid 1. The refrigerating effect per unit mass increases. 2. The mass flow rate per ton decreases. 3. The volume flow rate per ton decreases. 4. The COP increases. 5. The work per ton decreases. 6. The heat rejected at the condenser per ton decreases. LIQUID-SUCTION HEAT EXCHANGER The function of the heat exchanger is: 1. To ensure that no liquid enters the compressor, and 2. To sub-cool the liquid from the condenser to prevent bubbles of vapor from impeding the flow of refrigerant through the expansion valve. QR 4 3 Condenser Heat Exchanger 2 5 Expansion Valve W 6 Evaporator 1 Compressor ACTUAL VAPOR COMPRESSION SYSTEM 1. An ammonia compression plant is to be designed for a capacity of 50 tons. The system operates with a condensing temperature of 40C and an evaporating temperature of -20C. The other data are the following: Temperatures leaving evaporator -10C entering compressor -5C leaving compressor 95C entering condenser 85C leaving condenser 33C entering expansion valve 36C Wiredrawing suction valve 20 KPa discharge valve 40 KPa Compressor Speed 400 RPM Mechanical Efficiency 80% Volumetric Efficiency 77% Stroke to bore ratio 1.3 A twin cylinder, double acting compressor is to be used. The heat absorbed by the jacket water is 30% of the indicated work of the compressor. determine a. the bore and stroke in cm b. the brake work in KW c. the heat loss or gain between compressor and condenser d. the heat rejected from the condenser h5 = hf at 33 C = 356.3 KJ/kg h6=h7= hf at 36 C = 370.96 KJ/kg h8=h at 190.74 KPa and -10 C = 1460 KJ/kg h9=h at 190.74 KPa and -5 C = 1470 KJ/kg h1 = h9 = 1470 KJ/kg v1 = v at 190.74 KPa and h1 = 0.75 m3/kg h3 = h at 1557 KPa and 95 C = 1650 KJ/kg h4 = h at 1557 KPa and 85 C = 1628 KJ/kg a) D = 17.94 cm ;L = 23.3 cm b) BP = 52 KW d) QR = 12,323 KJ/min c) Q34 = 213.2 KJ/min 2. An ammonia refrigeration plant is to be designed for a capacity of 30 TR. The cooling water temperature requires a condenser pressure of 1400 KPa and the brine temperature a pressure of 291.6 KPa in the brine cooler. The following temperatures will exist at the points designated: Compressor suction 0C entering condenser 90C leaving condenser 32C leaving evaporator -5C Wire drawing through compressor valves suction 35 KPa discharge 70 KPa A two cylinder, vertical compressor is to be used at 120 m/min piston speed. Mechanical efficiency 80% Adiabatic compression efficiency 82% Volumetric efficiency 75% stroke to bore ratio 1.2 Determine: a. the rate of circulation of ammonia (5.7 kg/min) b. the BHP of the compressor (52.3 HP) c. the bore and stroke and RPM of the compressor (D=19.7 cm;L=23.6 cm;N=254 RPM) d. the heat rejected at the condenser (7353.5 KJ/min) e. the COP (3.38) h5 = h6 = hf at 32C = 351.5 KJ/kg h7 = h at 291.6 KPa and -5C = 1465 KJ/kg h1 = h8 = h at 291.6 KPa and 0C = 1475 KJ/kg v1 = v at 256.6 KPa and h1 = 0.48 m3/kg h2' = h at 1470 KPa and S1 = S2' = 1745 KJ/kg h4 = h at 1400 KPa and 90C = 1645 KJ/kg MULTIPRESSURE SYSTEMS A multi-pressure system is a refrigeration system that has two or more Low - Side pressures. The low-side pressure is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and the intake of the compressor. A multi-pressure system is distinguished from the single-pressure system, which has but one low-side pressure. Removal of Flash Gas A savings in the power requirement of a refrigeration system results if the flash gas that develops in the throttling process between the condenser and the evaporator is removed and recompressed before complete expansion. The vapor is separated from the liquid by an equipment called the Flash Tank. The separation occurs when the upward speed of the vapor is low enough for the liquid particles to drop back into the tank. Normally, a vapor speed of less than 1 m/sec will provide adequate separation. Inter-cooling Inter-cooling between two stages of compression reduces the work of compression per kg of vapor. Inter-cooling in a refrigeration system can be accomplished with a water-cooled heat exchanger or by using refrigerant. The water-cooled intercooler may be satisfactory for two-stage air compression, but for refrigerant compression the water is not usually cold enough. The alternate method uses the liquid refrigerant from the condenser to do the inter-cooling. Discharge gas from the low stage compressor bubbles through the liquid in the intercooler. Refrigerant leaves the intercooler as saturated vapor. Inter-cooling with liquid refrigerant will usually decrease the total power requirement when ammonia is the refrigerant but not when R-12 or R-22 is used. 2-Evaporators and 1-Compressor 2-Compressors and 1-Evaporator 2-Compressors and 2-Evaporators SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. Calculate the power required by a system of one compressor serving two evaporators. One evaporator carries a load of 35 KW at 10C and the other at a load of 70 KW at -5C. A backpressure valve reduces the pressure in the 10C evaporator to that of the -5C evaporator. The condensing temperature is 37C. The refrigerant is ammonia. What is the COP. From ammonia table or chart h 3 h 4 h 7 h f at 37C 519.02 h 5 h 6 h g at 10C 1615.27 KJ kg KJ kg KJ kg Energy balance in the HP evaporator h 8 h g at - 5C 1599.82 35 m HP (h 5 - h 4 ) kg sec Energy balance in the LP evaporator m HP 0.032 70 m LP (h 8 h 7 ) kg sec at mixing point m LP 0.065 m HP h 6 m LP h 8 m1h1 m1 0.032 0.065 0.097 KJ kg From table by interpolation h1 1604.92 At S1 = S2 = 6.1781 to P2 = 1430 KPa KJ kg W m1 (h 2 h1 ) 19.7 KW h 2 1808.04 COP 35 70 5.33 19.7 2. 3. Calculate the power required in an ammonia system that serves a 210 KW evaporator at -20C. The system uses twostage compression with inter-cooling and removal of flash gas. The condensing temperature is 32C. For minimum work and with perfect inter-cooling, the intermediate pressure P2 is equal to P2 = (P1P4)1/2 m7 = m8 = m1 = m2 Q = m1(h1 - h8) m1 = 0.172 kg/sec by mass and energy balance about the intercooler; m2h2 + m6h6 = m7h7 + m3h3 m3 = 0.208 kg/sec WLP = m1(h2 - h1) = 21.6 KW WHP = m3(h4 - h3) = 31.1 KW W = WHP + WLP In ammonia system, one evaporator is to provide 200 KW of refrigeration at -30C and another evaporator is to provide 220 KW at 5C. The system uses two stage compression with inter-cooling and is arranged as shown below. The condensing temperature is 40C. a. Calculate the power required by the compressor. b. What is the COP of the system? Psat at 40C = 1557 KPa Psat at 5C = 517 KPa Psat at -30C = 120 KPa h1 = hg at -30C = 1422.9 KJ/kg h2 = h at S1 = S2 to 517 KPa = 1630 KJ/kg h3 = hg at 5C = 1466.8 KJ/kg h4 = h at S3 = S4 to 1557 KPa = 1625 KJ/kg h5 = h6 = hf at 40C = 390.6 KJ/kg h7 = h8 = hf at 5C = 223.2 KJ/kg by energy balance at -30 C evaporator m1 = 200/(h1 - h8) = 0.167 kg/sec m1 = m2 = m7 = m8 by energy balance at 5C evaporator m6 = 220/(h3-h6) = 0.204 kg/sec from the boundary condition above m5h5 + m2h2 + 220 = m3h3 + m7h7 m5 = m3 = m4 m2 = m 7 m3 = 0.422 kg/sec WHP = m3(h4-h3) = 66.76 KW WLP = m2(h2-h1) = 34.59 KW W = WHP + WLP = 101.4 KW COP = 220 +200 101.4 COP = 4.142 4. A two-stage ammonia refrigeration system with a capacity of 50 TR operates with an evaporator temperature of -50C and a condensing temperature of 28C. The intermediate (intercooler) pressure is 275 KPa. The discharge vapor from the LP cylinder is bubbled through a flash intercooler which reduces it to saturated state and before entering the condenser is sub-cooled by 7C, flashed directly into the inter-stage flash inter-cooler and part of the saturated liquid passed through the main expansion valve to the evaporator. Other data are as follows: Assume Isentropic Compression LP cylinder actual volumetric efficiency = 85 % HP cylinder actual volumetric efficiency = 75 % Determine a) Piston displacement in m3/sec b) Work of the LP and HP cylinders in KW c) L/min of condenser cooling water for a temperature rise in cooling water temperature of 10C 5 6 su b -cco l er 4 3 2 7 1 8 9 CASCADE SYSTEM A cascade system combines two vapor compression units, with the condenser of the low temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the high temperature system. This system can furnish refrigeration for about -100 C. There are two types of a cascade system, the closed cascade condenser and the direct contact heat exchanger. In the closed cascade condenser fluids in the low-pressure and high-pressure may be different, but in the direct contact heat exchanger the same fluid is used throughout the system. CLOSED CASCADE CONDENSER DIRECT CONTACT CONDENSER SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A cascade refrigerating system uses R-22 in the low-temperature unit and R-12 in the hightemperature unit. The system develops 28 KW of refrigeration at -40C. the R-12 system operates at -10C evaporating and 38C condensing temperature. There is a 10C overlap of temperatures in the cascade condenser. Calculate: a) the mass flow rate of R-22 (0.1485 kg/sec) b) the mass flow rate of R-12 (0.305 kg/sec) c) the power required by the R-22 compressor (5.7 KW) d) the power required by the R-12compressor (7.6 KW) For R 12 Pcondenser = 912.533 KPa Psat at 38C P1 = P4 = 218.78 KPa h1 = 348.29 KJ/kg S1 = 1.5644 At S1 = S2 t0 912.533 KPa h2 = 373.71 KJ/kg h3 = h4 = 237.16 KJ/kg For R22 Pevaporator = 105.231 KPa Psat at -40C h5 = 388.13 KJ/kg S5 = 1.8231 KJ/kg-K At S5 = S6 to P6 = 497.988 KPa h6 = 425.84 KJ/kh h7 = h8 = 200 KJ/kg Q A 28 mR 22 (h5 h8 ) kg sec By energy balance in the cascade condenser m 0.149 mR12 (h1 h 4 ) mR 22 (h6 h7 ) mR12 mR 22 (h6 h7 ) kg 0.3025 (h1 h 4 ) sec PowerR12 mR12 (h2 h1 ) 7.7 KW PowerR22 mR22 (h6 - h5 ) 5.62 KW COP 28 2.10 7.7 5.62 2. In a certain refrigeration system for low temperature application, a two stage operation is desirable which employs ammonia system that serves a 30 ton evaporator at -30 C. the system uses a direct contact cascade condenser, and the condenser temperature is 40 C. find the following: a) Sketch the schematic diagram of the system and draw the process on the Ph diagram b) the cascade condenser pressure in KPa for minimum work c) the mass flow rate in the high pressure and low pressure loops in kg/sec d) the total work in KW AIR CYCLE REFRIGERATION The air cycle refrigeration system in which a gaseous refrigerant is used throughout the cycle. The compression is accomplished by a reciprocating or a centrifugal compressor as in the vapor-compression system, but condensation and evaporation is replaced by a sensible cooling and heating of the gas. An air cooler is used in place of a condenser and a refrigerator in place of an evaporator. The expansion valve is replaced by an expansion engine or turbine. The air cycle refrigeration system is ideally suited for use in air craft, because it is lighter in weight and requires less space than the vapor-compression cycle. One disadvantage of the air cycle is that it is not as efficient as the vapor-compression cycle. The air cycle refrigeration may be designed an operated either as an open or a closed system as shown above. In the closed or dense-airsystem, the air refrigerant is contained within the piping or component parts of the system at all times and with the refrigerator usually maintained at pressures above atmospheric level. In the open system, the refrigerator is an actual space to be cooled with the air expanded to atmospheric pressure, circulated through the cold room and then compressed to the cooler pressure . IDEAL AIR REFRIGERATION CYCLE Processes: 1 to 2: Isentropic Compression 2 to 3: Constant Pressure Heat Rejection 3 to 4: Isentropic Expansion 4 to 1: Constant Pressure Heat Absorption Refrigerating Effect QA = mCp(T1-T4) Heat Rejected QR = mCp(T3-T2) Compressor Work k 1 kP1V1 P2 k Wc 1 1 k P1 Expander Work k 1 kP3 V3 P4 k WE 1 1 k P3 Net Work W = WC - WE Coefficient of Performance COP Refrigerating Effect Net Work SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. An air cycle refrigeration system operating on a closed cycle is required to produced 50 KW of refrigeration with a cooler pressure of 1550 KPa and a refrigerator pressure of 448 KPa. Leaving air temperature are 25C for cooler and 5C for the refrigerator. Assuming a theoretical cycle with isentropic compression and expansion, no clearance and no losses. Determine; a) the mass flow rate (0.720 kg/sec) b) the compressor displacement (0.1283 cu.m./sec) c) the expander displacement (0.0964 cu.m./sec d) the COP (2.35) 2. An open air refrigeration system carries a load of 35 KW with a suction pressure of 103 KPa and a discharge pressure of 690 KPa. the temperature leaving the refrigerator is 5C and leaving the cooler is 30C. the compression is polytropic with n = 1.35. Determine: a) the power required (24 KW) b) the COP (1.47) 3. An air refrigeration system is required to produce 52.5 KW of refrigeration with a cooler pressure of 1448 KPa and a refrigerator pressure of 207 KPa. Leaving air temperature are 29C for cooler and 5C for refrigerator. Expansion is isentropic and compression is polytropic with n = 1.34. Determine the COP. (answer: 1.47) R - 410A Food and Foodstuff - Specific Heats By: Engr. Yuri G. Melliza Specific heats of some common food and foodstuff as apples, bass, beef, pork and much more The table below can be used to find the specific heat of food and foodstuffs. Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Apples 0.87 3.64 0.87 0.42 1.76 0.42 Apricots. fresh 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Artichokes 0.87 3.64 0.87 0.42 1.76 0.42 Asparagus 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Asparagus beans 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Avocados 0.72 3.01 0.72 0.37 1.55 0.37 Bacon 2.0 Bananas 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Barracuda 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Bass 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Beef, carcass 0.68 2.85 0.68 0.48 2.01 0.48 Beef, flank 0.56 2.34 0.56 0.32 1.34 0.32 Beef, hamburger 3.52 Beef, loin 0.66 2.76 0.66 0.35 1.47 0.35 Beef, rib 0.67 2.81 0.67 0.36 1.51 0.36 Beef, round 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.38 1.59 0.38 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Beef, rump 0.62 2.6 0.62 0.34 1.42 0.34 Beef, shanks 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Beef, corned 0.63 2.64 0.63 0.34 1.42 0.34 Beets 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.43 1.8 0.43 Blackberry 0.87 3.64 0.87 0.42 1.76 0.42 Blueberries 0.87 3.64 0.87 0.42 1.76 0.42 Brains 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Broccoli 0.92 3.85 0.92 0.44 1.84 0.44 Brussels sprouts 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Butter 0.65 2.72 0.65 0.34 1.42 0.34 Butter-fish 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.39 1.63 0.39 Cabbage 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Candy 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.93 3.89 0.93 Carp 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Carrots 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Cauliflower 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Celery 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Chard 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.43 1.8 0.43 Cheese, cottage 3.27 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Cherries, sour 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.41 1.72 0.41 Cherries, sweet 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.4 1.67 0.4 Chicken, squab 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.39 1.63 0.39 Chicken, broilers 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.38 1.59 0.38 Chicken, fryers 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.35 1.47 0.35 Chicken, hens 0.65 2.72 0.65 0.44 1.84 0.44 Chicken, capons 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.41 1.72 0.41 Chocolate (aprox.) 1.6 Clams, meat only 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.36 1.51 0.36 Coconut, meat and milk 0.68 2.85 0.68 0.45 1.88 0.45 Coconut, milk only 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.42 1.76 0.42 Codfish 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.39 1.63 0.39 Cod Roe 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Cow-peas, fresh 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.22 0.92 0.22 Cow-peas, dry 0.28 1.17 0.28 0.41 1.72 0.41 Crabs 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Crab apples 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.43 1.8 0.43 Cranberries 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.38 1.59 0.38 Cream 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.45 1.88 0.45 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Cucumber 0.98 4.1 0.98 0.45 1.88 0.45 Currants 0.97 4.06 0.97 0.45 1.88 0.45 Dandelion greens 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Dates 0.2 0.84 0.2 0.01 0.03 0.01 Eels 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.39 1.63 0.39 Eggs 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.4 1.67 0.4 Eggplant 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Endive 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Figs, fresh 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Figs, dried 0.39 1.63 0.39 0.26 1.09 0.26 Figs, candied 0.37 1.55 0.37 0.26 1.09 0.26 Fish, canned 3.35 Fish, fresh 3.6 Flounders 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Flour 0.38 1.59 0.38 0.28 1.17 0.28 Frogs, legs 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.44 1.84 0.44 Garlic 0.79 3.31 0.79 0.4 1.67 0.4 Gizzards 0.78 3.27 0.78 0.39 1.63 0.39 Goose 0.61 2.55 0.61 0.34 1.42 0.34 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Gooseberry 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Granadilla 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Grapefruit 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Grapes 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Grape juice 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Guavas 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Guinea hen 0.75 3.14 0.75 0.38 1.59 0.38 Haddock 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.42 1.76 0.42 Halibut 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Herring, smoked 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Horseradish, fresh 0.79 3.31 0.79 0.4 1.67 0.4 Horseradish, prepared 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Ice cream 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.4 1.67 0.4 Kale 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Kidneys 0.81 3.39 0.81 0.4 1.67 0.4 Kidney beans, dried 0.28 1.17 0.28 0.23 0.96 0.23 Kohlrabi 0.92 3.85 0.92 0.44 1.84 0.44 Kumquats 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.41 1.72 0.41 Lamb, carcass 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.38 1.59 0.38 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Lamb, leg 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Lamb, rib cut 0.61 2.55 0.61 0.34 1.42 0.34 Lamb, shoulder 0.67 2.81 0.67 0.35 1.47 0.35 Lard 0.54 2.26 0.54 0.31 1.3 0.31 Leeks 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Lemons 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Lemon juice 0.92 3.85 0.92 0.44 1.84 0.44 Lettuce 0.96 4.02 0.96 0.45 1.88 0.45 Lima beans 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.38 1.59 0.38 Limes 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Lime juice 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Litchi fruits, dried 0.39 1.63 0.39 0.26 1.09 0.26 Liver, raw beef 3.5 Lobsters 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Loganberries 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Loganberry juice 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Milk, cow - whole pasteurized 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.47 1.97 0.47 Milk, dry no fat 1.52 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Mushrooms, fresh 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Mushrooms, dried 0.3 1.26 0.3 0.23 0.96 0.23 Muskmelons 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Nectarines 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Nuts 0.28 1.17 0.28 0.24 1 0.24 Olives, green 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Onions 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.43 1.8 0.43 Onion, Welsh 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Oranges, fresh 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.43 1.8 0.43 Orange juice 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Oysters 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Peaches, Georgina 0.87 3.64 0.87 0.42 1.76 0.42 Peaches, North Carolina 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Peaches, Maryland 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.43 1.8 0.43 Peaches, New Jersey 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Peach juice fresh 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Pears, Bartlet 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Pears, Beurre Bosc 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pears. dried 0.39 1.63 0.39 0.26 1.09 0.26 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Peas, young 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.41 1.72 0.41 Peas, medium 0.81 3.39 0.81 0.4 1.67 0.4 Peas, old 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Peas, split 0.28 1.17 0.28 0.23 0.96 0.23 Peppers, ripe 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Perch 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Persimmons 0.72 3.01 0.72 0.37 1.55 0.37 Pheasant 0.75 3.14 0.75 0.36 1.51 0.36 Pickerel 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pickles, sweet 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pickles, sour and dill 0.96 4.02 0.96 0.45 1.88 0.45 Pickles, sweet mixed 0.78 3.27 0.78 0.29 1.21 0.29 Pickles, sour mixed 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Pig's feet, pickled 0.5 2.09 0.5 0.31 1.3 0.31 Pike 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pineapple, fresh 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Pineapple, sliced or crushed 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pineapple, juice 0.9 3.77 0.9 0.43 1.8 0.43 Plums 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Pomegranate 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.41 1.72 0.41 Pompano 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.39 1.63 0.39 Porgy 0.81 3.39 0.81 0.4 1.67 0.4 Pork, bacon 0.36 1.51 0.36 0.25 1.05 0.25 Pork, ham 0.62 2.6 0.62 0.34 1.42 0.34 Pork, loin 0.66 2.76 0.66 0.35 1.47 0.35 Pork, shoulder 0.59 2.47 0.59 0.33 1.38 0.33 Pork, spareribs 0.62 2.6 0.62 0.34 1.42 0.34 Pork, smoked ham 0.65 2.72 0.65 0.35 1.47 0.35 Pork, salted 0.31 1.3 0.31 0.24 1 0.24 Potatoes 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Prickly pears 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.43 1.81 0.43 Prunes 0.81 3.39 0.81 0.4 1.67 0.4 Pumpkin 0.92 3.85 0.92 0.44 1.84 0.44 Quinces 0.88 3.68 0.88 0.43 1.8 0.43 Rabbit 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Radishes 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Raisins 0.39 1.63 0.39 0.26 1.09 0.26 Raspberries, black 0.85 3.56 0.85 0.41 1.72 0.41 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Raspberries, red 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Raspberry juice, black 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Raspberry juice, red 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Reindeer 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.37 1.55 0.37 Rhubarb 0.96 4.03 0.96 0.45 1.88 0.45 Rose Apple 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Rutabagas 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Salmon 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Sand dab 0.86 3.6 0.86 0.42 1.76 0.42 Sapodilla 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Sapote 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.37 1.55 0.37 Sauerkraut 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Sausage, beef and pork 0.56 2.34 0.56 0.32 1.34 0.32 Sausage, Bratwurst 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Sausage, Bologna 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Sausage,FRANKFURTER 0.69 2.89 0.69 0.36 1.51 0.36 Sausage, salami 0.45 1.88 0.45 0.28 1.17 0.28 Sardines 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.39 1.63 0.39 Shad 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food Shrimp (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) 0.83 3.48 0.83 0.41 1.72 0.41 0.73 0.39 1.63 0.39 Skim milk Spanish mackerel 4.0 0.73 Starch 3.06 1.75 Strawberries 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Strawberry juice 0.79 3.31 0.79 0.39 1.63 0.39 String beans 0.91 3.81 0.91 0.44 1.84 0.44 Sturgeon, raw 0.83 3.48 0.83 0.41 1.72 0.41 Sturgeon, smoked 0.71 2.97 0.71 0.37 1.55 0.37 Sugar apple, fresh 0.79 3.31 0.79 0.39 1.63 0.39 Sweet potatoes 0.75 3.14 0.75 0.38 1.59 0.38 Swordfish 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Terrapin 0.8 3.35 0.8 0.4 1.67 0.4 Tomatoes, red 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Tomatoes, green 0.96 4.02 0.96 0.45 1.88 0.45 Tomato, juice 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Tongue, beef 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.38 1.59 0.38 Tongue, calf 0.79 3.31 0.79 0.4 1.67 0.4 Tongue, lamb 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.38 1.59 0.38 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Tongue, pork 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.39 1.63 0.39 Tongue, sheep 0.69 2.89 0.69 0.36 1.51 0.36 Tomato soup, concentrate 3.67 Tripe, beef 0.83 3.48 0.83 0.41 1.72 0.41 Tripe, pickled 0.89 3.73 0.89 0.43 1.8 0.43 Trout 0.82 3.43 0.82 0.41 1.72 0.41 Tuna 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Turkey 0.67 2.81 0.67 0.35 1.47 0.35 Turnips 0.93 3.89 0.93 0.44 1.84 0.44 Turtle 0.84 3.52 0.84 0.41 1.72 0.41 Veal, carcass 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.38 1.59 0.38 Veal, flank 0.65 2.72 0.65 0.35 1.47 0.35 Veal, loin 0.75 3.14 0.75 0.38 1.59 0.38 Veal, rib 0.73 3.06 0.73 0.37 1.54 0.37 Veal, shank 0.77 3.22 0.77 0.39 1.63 0.39 Veal, quarter 0.74 3.1 0.74 0.38 1.59 0.38 Venison 0.78 3.27 0.78 0.39 1.63 0.39 Watercress 0.95 3.98 0.95 0.45 1.88 0.45 Watermelon 0.94 3.94 0.94 0.45 1.88 0.45 Specific Heat above Freezing Specific Heat below Freezing Food (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) (btu/lboF) (kJ/kgoC) (kcal/kgoC) Whitefish 0.76 3.18 0.76 0.39 1.63 0.39 Yams 0.78 3.27 0.78 0.39 1.63 0.39 Recommended maximum freezing time: Storage Time (months) Food -12 oC -18 oC -24 oC Apricots, raw 4 18 >24 Apricots, in sugar 3 18 >24 Asparagus, with green spears 3 12 >24 Bacon, sliced and vacuum packed 12 12 12 Beans, green 4 15 >24 18 >24 Beans, lima Beef carcass, unpackaged 8 15 24 Beef steaks/cuts 8 18 24 Breads 3 Broccoli 15 24 Brussels sprouts 6 15 >24 Butter, lactic and unsalted pH 4.7 15 18 20 Butter, lactic and salted pH 4.7 8 12 14 Storage Time (months) Food -12 oC Butter, sweet-cream and unsalted pH 6.6 Butter, sweet-cream and salted pH 6.6 20 Cakes -18 oC -24 oC >24 >24 >24 >24 15 24 Carrots 10 18 >24 Califlower 4 12 24 Cherries, raw 4 18 >24 Cherries, in sugar 3 18 >24 Chicken, whole 9 18 >24 Chicken, parts/cuts 9 18 >24 Clams 4 6 >9 12 18 6 >12 12 15 15 >24 12 18 12 18 12 >24 5 >9 Corn on the cob Crab 4 Cream Cut corn 4 Dough, raw Duck, whole 6 Egg, whole magma Fish, fat - glazed 3 Storage Time (months) Food Fish, lean -12 oC -18 oC -24 oC 4 9 >12 24 >24 Fruit juice concentrate Geese, whole 6 12 18 Ground beef 6 10 15 Ice cream 1 6 24 Lamb carcass, unpackaged 18 24 >24 Lamb steaks 12 18 24 Leeks, blanched 18 Liver 4 12 18 Lobster 4 6 >12 Mushrooms, cultivated 2 8 >24 10 15 Onions Oysters 4 6 >9 Peaches, raw 4 18 >24 Peaches, in sugar 3 18 >24 Peas, green 6 24 >24 6 12 Peppers, red and green Pork carcass, unpackaged 6 10 15 Pork steak/cuts 6 10 15 Storage Time (months) Food -12 oC -18 oC -24 oC Potatoes, french fried 9 24 >24 Raspberries/Strawberries, raw 5 24 >24 Raspberries/Strawberries, in sugar 3 24 >24 Shrimps, in shell and cooked 4 6 >12 Shrimps, peeled and cooked 2 5 >9 Spinach, chopped 4 18 >24 Turkey, whole 8 15 >24 Veal carcass, unpackaged 6 12 15 Veal, steaks/cuts 6 12 15 The latent heat of melting for some common solids are indicated below: Latent Heat of Melting Product (kJ/kg) (Btu/lbm) Acetic acid 181 77.8 Acetone 98.3 42.3 Alcohol, ethyl (ethanol) 108 46.4 Alcohol, methyl (methanol) 98.8 42.5 Alcohol, propyl 86.5 37.2 Latent Heat of Melting Product (kJ/kg) (Btu/lbm) Aluminum 321 138.2 Ammonia 339 146 Aniline 113.5 48.8 Antimony 164 70.5 Benzene 126 54.2 Bismuth 52.9 22.7 Brass 168 72.2 Bromine 66.7 28.7 Cadmium 46 19.8 Carbon disulfide 57.6 24.8 Carbon dioxide 184 79 Carbon tetrachloride 174 74.8 Cast iron 126 54.2 Chloroform 77 33.1 Chromium 134 57.6 Cobalt 243 104.5 Copper 207 89 Decane 201 86.4 Dodecane 216 92.8 Latent Heat of Melting Product (kJ/kg) (Btu/lbm) Ether 96.2 41.4 Ethyl ether 113 48.6 Ethylene glycol 181 77.8 Glycerine 200 75.6 Gold 67 28.8 Heptane 140 60.2 Hexane 152 65.3 Iodine 62.2 26.7 Iron, gray cast 96 41.4 Iron, white cast 138 59.4 Iron, slag 209 90.0 Lead 22.4 9.65 Manganese 155 66.6 Mercury 11.6 5.08 Naphthaline 151 64.9 Nickel 297 127.7 Octane 181 77.8 Paraffin 147 63.2 Ice, see Water Latent Heat of Melting Product (kJ/kg) (Btu/lbm) Phenol 121 52 Phosphrus 21.1 9.1 Platinium 113 48.6 Potassium 59 25.4 Propane 79.9 34.3 Propylene 71.4 30.7 Silver 88.0 37.9 Sulphur 39.2 16.87 Tin 58.5 25.2 Toluene 71.8 30.9 Water, Ice 334 144 Wood's alloy 33.5 14.4 Zinc 118 5.63 Introduction "Open Dating" on a food product is a date stamped on a product's packages to help the store determine how long to hold the food for sale. It can be helpful to the consumer to identify the time limit to buy the item or when the product is at its best quality. It is NOT a safety date. With the exception of infant formula and baby food, product dating is not required by federal regulations. If a date is used on perishable foods, it must have both the day and month. On shelf-stable and frozen products the year must also be included, a phrase explaining the meaning of the date such as "sell by" or "use before" must also be present. There is no uniform system used for food dating by manufacturers in the U.S. Although dating of some foods is required by more than 20 states, some states do not require any date codes. When present "open dating" is found primarily on perishable foods such as meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products. "Closed" or "coded" dating might appear on shelf-stable products such as cans and boxes of food. Types of Dates A "Sell-By-Date" tells the store how long to hold the food for sale. You should buy the food before the sellby-date expires. A "Best-if-Used-By (or Before) -Date" is indicates best flavor or quality. It is not a safety date and does not indicate when a food should be purchased. A "Use-By-Date" is the last date recommended for peak quality. The date is determined by the manufacturer of the product. "Closed or coded dates" are packing numbers for use by the manufacturer so if there is a problem with the food, it can be recalled. Safety after dates expire Except for "use-by-dates," product dates don't always refer to home storage or use after purchase. Even if the dates expires during home storage, perishable foods should be safe, wholesome, and of good quality - if handled properly and kept in the frigerator or frozen. Changing dates A retailer can legally sell fresh or processed meat and poultry products beyond the expiration date on the package as long as the product is wholesome. It is also legal for a retailer to change a date on wholesome fresh meat that has been cut and wrapped in the meat department of the store. However, retailers cannot change dates on products packaged under federal inspection. If a food is not handled properly, it can become a health hazard regardless of the date code. Dating of infant formula and baby food Formula and baby food dating is for quality as well as nutrient retention. The "use-by-date" is selected by the manufacturer on the basis of product analysis throughout its shelf life. It is also based on the conditions of handling, storage, preparation, and use printed on the label. Do not buy or use baby formula or baby food after its "use-by-date." Can Codes Cans must show a packing code so the food can be tracked through distribution. This helps manufacturers rotate their stock as well as to locate their products in the event of a recall. These codes aren't meant for the consumer to interpret as "use-by" dates. Cans may also display "open" or calender dates. Usually these are "best if used by" dates for optimum quality. In general, high-acid foods such as canned tomatoes can be stored on the shelf for 12 to 18 months; low-acid foods such as canned meat, poultry, fish and most vegetables will keep 2 to 5 years -- if the can remains in good condition and if it has been stored in a cool, clean, dry place. Normally food from these cans is safe to eat unless the can is bulging or leaking, but the quality may be diminished. Dates on Egg Cartons If an egg carton has an expiration date on it such as "EXP July 1", be sure that the date has not passed when you buy the eggs. That is the last day the store may sell the eggs as "fresh." On eggs which use a federal grading like, Grade AA, the date cannot be more than 30 days from the date the eggs were put in the carton. If you purchase a carton of eggs before the expiration date, you should be able to use the eggs safely for 3 to 5 weeks from the date of purchase. Storage Times Since dates aren't a good guide for safe use of a product, follow these tips to be sure that food is still top quality. Purchase the food before the expiration date. For perishable food, take it home immediately after purchase and refrigerate or freeze it promptly. Refrigerators should be kept at 40 o F or below, while freezers should be set a 0o F or below. Once a perishable food is frozen, it doesn't matter if the date expires because foods kept frozen continuously are safe indefinitely. Follow handling recommendations on the product. Consult the following storage chart for fresh or uncooked meat and poultry. Refrigerated Home Storage (at 40o F or below) of Fresh or Uncooked Products. If product has a "Use-ByDate", follow that date. If the product has a "Sell-By-Date" or no date, cook or freeze by the times on the following chart. These storage times are general recommendations at refrigeration temperatures. PRODUCT STORAGE TIMES AFTER PURCHASE Poultry 1 to 2 days Beef, veal, pork, lamb 3 to 5 days Ground beef and ground poultry 1 to 2 days Variety meats (liver, tongue, brain, kidneys, heart, chitterlings) 1 to 2 days Cured ham, cook-before-eating 5 to 7 days Sausage from pork, beef or turkey, uncooked 1 to 2 days Eggs 3 to 5 weeks Refrigerator Home Storage (at 40o F or below) for Processed Products Sealed at the Plant. If product has a "Use-By-Date" follow this date. If product has a "Sell-By-Date" or no date, cook or freeze the product by the times on the following chart. UNOPENED, PROCESSED PRODUCT AFTER OPENING AFTERPURCHASE Cooked poultry 3 to 4 days 3 to 4 days Cooked sausage 3 to 4 days 3 to 4 days Sausage, hard/ dry, shelf-stable 6 weeks/pantry 3 weeks Corned beef, uncooked, in pouch with pickling juices 5 to 7 days 3 to 4 days Vacuum-packed dinners, commercial brand with USDA seal 2 weeks 3 to 4 days Bacon 2 weeks 7 days Hot Dogs 2 weeks* 7 days Lunch Meats 2 weeks* 3 to 5 days Ham, fully cooked 7 days 3 days - slices, 7 days - whole Ham, canned, labeled “keep refrigerated” 9 months 3 to 4 days Ham, canned, shelf-stable 2 years/ pantry 3 to 5 days Canned meat and poultry, shelf-stable 2 to 5 years/ pantry 3 to 4 days * no longer than 1 week after a "sell-by-date". Food Safety and Inspection Service United States Department of Agriculture Washington, D.C. 20250-3700 Safe Storage of Meat and Poultry: From the farm to the store, meat and poultry products must be chilled -- and kept chilled, packaged and handled properly so it will be safe for consumers to buy. Several government agencies have the responsibility to assure the food's safety. In the home, food caretakers must do their part to store, handle and cook meat and poultry right so it's safe to eat. Here are some of the scientific principles behind the safe storage of meat and poultry. Why is Chilling Meat and Poultry Important? Raw meat and poultry products should be maintained at 40° F or below to greatly reduce the growth rate of any pathogenic bacteria that may be present on their surfaces. Chilling is required of all raw product unless it moves directly from the slaughter line to heat processing or cooking (made into hot dogs or luncheon meats, for example), which destroys pathogens. How is Meat and Poultry Chilled and Maintained at the Plant? Meat and poultry products are chilled immediately after slaughter to acceptable internal temperatures which insure the prompt removal of the animal heat and preserve the wholesomeness of the products. Generally, red meat carcasses (which are above 90° F at the time of slaughter) are chilled in a blast cooler with rapidly moving chilled air, and, in some instances, a cold water shower. Poultry is required to be chilled to 40° F or less within specified time frames, depending upon the size of the carcass. Whole birds and parts of major size are chilled in ice or ice and water media. Poultry parts are chilled in ice, air or water spray with continuous drainage. Giblets must be chilled to 40° or below within two hours of slaughtering the birds. How Does Packaging Prolong Storage Times? Packaging is a physical barrier to cross contamination. Microorganisms exist everywhere in nature. They are in the soil, air, and water. The simple act of covering food keeps microorganisms from contacting the food. Covered perishable foods can be stored longer and at better quality than uncovered foods. Modified atmosphere packaging (MAP) and vacuum packaging help prolong storage (see following question). Refer to the charts on pages 5 and 6 for recommended storage times. What Effect Does Vacuum Packaging and MAP Have on Meat Storage? Oxygen in the air hastens both the chemical breakdown and microbial spoilage of many foods. To help preserve foods longer, scientists have developed ways to help overcome the effects of oxygen. Vacuum packaging, for example, removes air from packages and produces a vacuum inside. MAP (modified atmosphere packaging) helps to preserve foods by replacing some or all of the oxygen in the air inside the package with other gases such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen. (examples: lunch meat in a blister package; raw beef brisket or filets in vacuum packaging; fresh turkeys). At What Temperature Can Raw Poultry Be Maintained? USDA's new rules for labeling raw poultry products as to their storage temperature will become effective in December 1997. The term "fresh" may ONLY be placed on raw poultry that has never been below 26° F. Poultry held at 0° or below must be labeled "frozen" or "previously frozen." No specific labeling is required on poultry between 0 and 26° F. This poultry label rule addresses a truth-in-labeling issue, not food safety, because most pathogenic bacteria do not grow or grow very slowly at normal refrigerator temperatures. The Agency concluded that the term "fresh" should not be used on the labeling of raw poultry products that have been chilled to the point they are hard to the touch. How are Meat Products Kept Safe During Transportation? To prevent rapid growth of pathogenic bacteria, perishable meat and poultry products should be kept cold (40° or below) or frozen (0° or below) during transport from the plant to a refrigerated warehouse or retail store. Microorganisms capable of causing foodborne illness either don't grow or grow very slowly at refrigerated temperatures of 40°F. Freezing keeps food safe by slowing the movement of molecules, causing any microbes present to enter a dormant stage. There's also no risk of dripping juices to contaminate nearby products and storage areas. How is the Temperature Inside Trucks Monitored? Trucks should have temperature devices which constantly record temperatures on a running graph for the duration of a trip. A visual temperature device is located outside the trucks so the drivers can monitor how cold it is inside. Trucks can be specially sealed to prevent being opened during transit. How are Meat Products Kept Safe During Loading and Unloading? One of the extremely important places in handling perishable meat and poultry products safely is the receiving dock. Employees should verify the products are at a safe temperature upon arrival. According to the Food and Drug Administration Food Code (which covers retail establishments, not federal) the temperature must be at 5° C (41° F) when received. Employees should also check the conditions of the packaging materials and the sight and smell of the products.. In the Store, How Should Meat Products Be Safely Handled? To protect perishable food from contamination after receipt at the store, food employees must wash their hands before handling it. Raw foods must be kept separate from cooked ready-to-eat foods during storage, preparation, holding and display. Some local jurisdictions may require food handlers to wear gloves. Frozen foods must be maintained frozen. When "thawed for your convenience," frozen food must be kept under refrigeration that maintains the food at 5° C (41° F) or below, or completely submerged under running water following strict guidelines outlined in the Food Code. How is Meat Kept Safe in Display Cases? Meat and poultry products on display must be protected from contamination by the use of packaging; counter, service line, or salad bar food guards; display cases or other effective means, according to the Food Code. Unpackaged, raw animal food, such as beef, lamb, pork, poultry and fish, may not be offered for consumer self-service. Ready-to-eat meat and poultry at consumer self-service operations must be provided with suitable utensils or effective food dispensing methods that protect the food from contamination. After being served or sold and in the possession of a consumer, food that is unused or returned by the consumer may not be re-offered as food for human consumption. Should Meat and Poultry Be Stacked Above the Cooling Level of the Display Case? In order for meat and poultry to be stored at the required safe temperatures, fresh and frozen products should not be stacked above the cooling level of refrigerator and freezer display cases. The foods should be arranged to maintain the recommended temperature of 5° C (41° F) in the Food Code unless the state prescribes a different temperature (for example, many states allow shell eggs to be stored at 45° F). Is Food Product Dating Required by Federal Law? Except for infant formula and some baby food (see below), product dating is not required by Federal regulations. However, if a calendar date is used, it must express both the month and day of the month (and the year, in the case of shelf-stable and frozen products). If a calendar date is shown, immediately adjacent to the date must be a phrase explaining the meaning of that date such as "sell by" or "use before." There is no uniform or universally accepted system used for food dating in the United States. Although dating of some foods is required by more than 20 states, there are areas of the country where much of the food supply has some type of open date and other areas where almost no food is dated. What Types of Food Are Dated? "Open" dating, or dates you can read, are found primarily on perishable foods such as meat, poultry, eggs and dairy products. "Closed" or "coded" dating might appear on shelf-stable products such as cans and boxes of food. Types of Dates There are several types of dates: A "Sell-By" date tells the store how long to display the product for sale. You should buy the product before the date expires. A "Best if Used By (or Before)" date is recommended for best flavor or quality. It is not a purchase or safety date. A "Use-By" date is the last date recommended for the use of the product while at peak quality. The date has been determined by the manufacturer of the product. "Closed or coded dates" are packing numbers for use by the manufacturer. Safety After Date Expires Except for "use-by" dates, product dates don't always refer to home storage and use after purchase. But even if the date expires during home storage, a product should be safe, wholesome and of good quality -- if handled properly and kept at 40° F or below. See the accompanying refrigerator charts for storage times of dated products. Foods can develop an off odor, flavor or appearance due to spoilage bacteria. If a food has developed such characteristics, you should not use it for quality reasons. If foods are mishandled, however, foodborne bacteria can grow and cause foodborne illness -- before or after the date on the package. For example, if a package of hot dogs is taken to a picnic and left out several hours, the hot dogs wouldn't be safe to use, even if the date hasn't expired. Other examples of potential mishandling are products that have been: defrosted at room temperature more than two hours; cross contaminated; or handled by people who don't use proper sanitary practices. Make sure to follow the handling and preparation instructions on the label to ensure top quality and safety. How Can Some Products Have Lengthy Storage Dates? Product dating is not required by Federal regulations. But a plant may use shelf-life studies to determine a sell-by or use-by date for its products. If the plant has dated a "keep-refrigerated" product, it promises the consumer it will be safe to use until at least that time, assuming the consumer is storing the product at 40° F or below. Some packaging procedures which can lengthen safe storage of perishable foods are vacuum packaging and MAP. If a fresh meat and poultry product does not have a date affixed at the plant: refrigerate raw poultry and ground meat up to 2 days; beef, veal, pork and lamb, 3 to 5 days. Cook or freeze within those times. Hot dogs and luncheon meats can be refrigerated unopened up to 2 weeks but no longer than 1 week after a "sell-by" date. After opening, use or freeze hot dogs within 7 days; luncheon meats, 3 to 5 days. Canning is another process which can lengthen the storage of meat and poultry products. Commercially processed cans, jars and flexible types of retort packages must exhibit a packing code to enable tracking of the product in interstate commerce. These codes aren't meant for the consumer to interpret as "use-by" dates. "Best if used by" dates on these products are quality dates. Canned meat and poultry will keep at best quality 2 to 5 years if the can remains in good condition and has been stored in a cool, clean, dry place. What Ensures the Safe Storage Dates of Processed Products with Lengthy Dates? Processed meat and poultry products are either cooked, heat treated, smoked or dried. These processes in themselves extend shelf life beyond that of a raw product. In addition, packaging processes such as canning, vacuumsealing, MAP, retort packaging, and sealing in blister packaging further extend the shelf life of these products. If the plant has dated the product, it promises the consumer it will be safe to use until at least that time, assuming the consumer is storing the product at 40° F or below. Storage Times Since product dates aren't a guide for safe use of a product, the consumer should follow these tips to store the food and use it at top quality. Purchase the product before the date expires. If perishable, take the food home immediately after purchase and refrigerate it promptly. Freeze it if you can't use it within times recommended on chart. Once a perishable product is frozen, it doesn't matter if the date expires because foods kept frozen continuously are safe indefinitely. Rotate frozen foods; use the oldest first for best flavor and quality. Follow handling recommendations on products. REFRIGERATOR HOME STORAGE (at 40° F or below) OF FRESH OR UNCOOKED PRODUCTS If product has a "Use-By Date," follow that date. If product has a "Sell-By Date" or no date, cook or freeze the product by the times on the following chart. PRODUCT STORAGE TIMES AFTER PURCHASE Poultry 1 or 2 days Beef, Veal, Pork and Lamb 3 to 5 days Ground meat and ground poultry 1 or 2 days Fresh Variety Meats (Liver, Tongue, Brain, Kidneys, Heart, Chitterlings) 1 or 2 days Cured Ham, cook-before-eating 5 to 7 days Sausage from pork, beef or turkey, uncooked 1 or 2 days Eggs 3 to 5 weeks REFRIGERATOR HOME STORAGE (40° F or below) OF PROCESSED PRODUCTS SEALED AT PLANT If product has a "Use-By Date," follow that date. If product has a "Sell-By Date" or no date, cook or freeze the product by the times on the following chart. PROCESSED PRODUCT UNOPENED, AFTER PURCHASE AFTER OPENING Cooked Poultry 3 to 4 days 3 to 4 days Smoked Turkey, whole frozen (after defrosting) 3 to 4 days 3 to 4 days Cooked Sausage 3 to 4 days 3 to 4 days Sausage, Hard/Dry, shelf stable 6 weeks/pantry 3 weeks Corned Beef, uncooked, in pouch with pickling juices 5 to 7 days 3 to 4 days Vacuum-packed Dinners, Commercial brand with USDA seal 2 weeks 3 to 4 days Bacon 2 weeks 7 days Hotdogs 2 weeks (but no longer than 1 week after a "sell-by" date) 7 days Lunch Meats 2 weeks (but no longer than 1 week after a "sell-by" date) 3 to 5 days Ham, fully cooked 7 days slices 3 days whole 7 days Ham, canned, labeled "keep refrigerated" 9 months 3 to 4 days Ham, canned, shelf stable 2 years/pantry 3 to 5 days Canned Meat and Poultry, shelf stable 2 to 5 years/pantry 3 to 4 days For additional food safety information about meat, poultry or eggs, call the toll-free USDA Meat and Poultry Hotline at 1 (800) 535-4555. It is staffed by home economists, dietitians and food technologists from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. Eastern time year round. An extensive selection of food safety recordings can be heard 24 hours a day using a touch-tone phone. PRODUCT LOAD Q = Q 1 + Q2 + Q3 Q - product load Q1 - heat to cool product from t2 to tf Q2 - heat to freeze Q3 - heat to cool product from tf to final storage temperature t2 Q1 = m Cpa (t1 - tf) KJ/min Q2 = mhL KJ/min Q3 = m Cpb (tf - t2) where: m - mass rate in kg/min t1 - entering temperature in C tf - freezing temperature in C t2 - storage temperature in C Cpa - specific heat above freezing, KJ/kg-C or KJ/kg-K Cpb - specific heat below freezing, KJ/kg-C or KJ/kg-K hL - latent heat of freezing of product, KJ/kg Q = m [Cpa (t1 - tf) + hL + Cpb (tf - t2)] KJ/min Q m [C pa (t1 - t f ) h L C pb (t f - t 2 )] 211 Tons AIR CONDITIONING Instructor: Engr. Yuri G. Melliza PROPERTIES OF MOIST AIR Psychrometry - is the study of the properties of air and water vapor mixture. FUNDAMENTAL PARAMETERS 1. Total Pressure P = Pa + Pv KPa 2. Vapor Pressure Pv = Pw - PA(td - tw) where A A KPa 6.66 x 10 4 5.94 x 10 4 (For tw than 0C) C (For tw than 0C) C 3. Specific Humidity or Humidity Ratio 4. Relative Humidity W 0.622 Pv P Pv φ Pv x 100 % Pd kgm kgda 5. Enthalpy h 1.0045td W2501.3 1.86td KJ kgda h = 1.0045td + W[2501.3 + 1.86td] KJ/kgda 6. Specific Volume υ 17. Degree of Saturation 0.287( t d 273) m 3 (P Pv) kgda P Pd μ φ P Pv where: P - total pressure of air and vapor mixture, KPa Pa - Partial pressure of dry air, KPa Pv - vapor pressure, KPa Pw - saturation pressure corresponding tw, KPa Pd - saturation pressure corresponding td, Kpa td - dry bulb temperature, C tw - wet bulb temperature, C - relative humidity, % W - specific humidity or humidity ratio, kgm/kgda h - enthalpy, KJ/kgda hg - enthalpy at saturated vapor at td, KJ/kg = specific volume, m3/kgda R = 0.287 KJ/kg-K -degree of saturation Psychrometric Chart P = 760 mm Hg h Dew Point Temperature (DPT) tw W Saturation Curve tw td DPT - dew point temperature (saturation temperature corresponding Pv) Basic Psychrometric or Air Conditioning processes 1) SENSIBLE HEATING: Addition of heat to moist air. Sensible heating follows a constant specific humidity line on the psychrometric chart. m h1 m 2 1 h2 Q Sensible Heating h2 h1 Saturation Curve 1 W1 = W2 2 t1 t2 By Energy Balance mh1 Q mh 2 1 Q m(h 2 - h1 ) 2 Q mC p (t 2 - t1 ) 3 C p 1.0045 1.86W 4 W W1 W2 2) SENSIBLE COOLING: It is the removal of heat from moist air without the removal of moisture. It also follows a constant specific humidity line. Q m h1 1 2 m h2 Sensible Cooling h1 h2 Saturation Curve 1 2 t2 W1 = W2 t1 By Energy Balance mh1 mh 2 Q 1 Q m(h1 - h 2 ) 2 Q mC p (t1 - t 2 ) 3 C p 1.0045 1.86W 4 W W1 W2 3) COOLING AND DEHUMIDIFYING: It is the removal of heat and moisture from moist air. It involves sensible and latent heat transfer. Q t1 m h1 W1 2 1 m h2 W2 mw hw t2 h1 Cooling and Dehumidifying DPT ha 1 W1 h2 QL Saturation Curve 2 QS t2 By Energy Balance mh1 mh 2 Q m w h w 1 Q m(h1 - h 2 ) - m w h w 2 By moisture balance mW1 m w mW2 m w m(W1 W2 ) 4 Q Qs Q L 5 Q s mC p (t1 - t 2 ) 5 C p 1.0045 1.86W1 6 Q L m(W1 - W2 )h fg @t 7 2 where: QS - sensible heat QL - latent heat hfg - latent heat at t2 For air conditioning design: hfg = 2466 KJ/kg Cp = 1.02 KJ/kg-C a t1 W2 4) HEATING AND HUMIDIFYING: It is the addition of heat and moisture to moist air. Q t1 m h1 2 1 m t2 h2 W2 W1 mw hw h2 Heating and Dehumidifying ha 2 W2 h1 QL Saturation Curve W1 = Wa 1 a QS W1 t1 t2 By Energy Balance mh 1 Q m w h w mh 2 1 Q m(h 2 - h1 ) - m w h w 2 By moisture balance mW1 m w mW2 m w m(W2 W1 ) 4 Q Qs Q L 5 Qs mC p (t 2 - t1 ) 5 C p 1.0045 1.86W1 6 Q L m(W2 - W1 )h fg@t 7 2 W1 Wa Q m(h 2 - h1 ) - m(W2 W1 )h w Q m(h 2 - h1 ) - (W2 W1 )h w 8 m mw (W2 W1 ) Q mw (h 2 - h1 ) - (W2 W1 )h w (W2 W1 ) (h 2 - h1 ) Q hw 9 (W2 W1 ) m w Δh Q h w 10 ΔW m w where: hfg = hfg at t2 or hfg = 2466 KJ/kg Cp = 1.0045 + 1.86W1 5) HUMIDIFYING: It is the addition of moisture to moist air without the addition of heat. t1 m h1 W1 2 1 m t2 h2 W2 mw hw Humidifying 2 2 hw < hg at t1 hw = hf @ tw1 0r tw2 2 hw = hg at t1 hw > hg at t1 2 Saturation Curve 1 By energy balance m w h w m ( h 2 h1 ) 1 By moisture balance m w m( W2 W1 ) 2 m mw 3 ( W2 W1 ) Equation 3 to equation 1: Δh hw ΔW Conditions: a. If hw = hg at t1, the process follows a constant dry bulb temperature line. b. If hw hg at t1, the air is heated as well as humidified. c. If hw hg at t1 , the air is cooled and humidified. d. If hw is equal to hf at the wet bulb temperature, the process follows the constant wet bulb temperature line. 6) ADIABATIC MIXING OF TWO STREAMS OF MOIST AIR: It is the mixing of two streams of moist without the addition of heat. m2 W2 h2 W1 m1 h1 W3 m3 h3 air h1 Adiabatic Mixing h3 1 W1 h2 W2 3 Saturation Curve W3 2 t2 By energy balance: m1h1 + m2h2 = m3h3 1 By moisture balance: m1W1 + m2W2 = m3W3 By mass balance: m1 + m2 = m3 3 t3 t1 2 m1 h 3 h 2 W3 W2 t 3 t 2 m 2 h1 h 3 W1 W3 t1 t 3 m1 h 3 h 2 W3 W2 t 3 t 2 m 3 h1 h 2 W1 W2 t1 t 2 m 2 h1 h 3 W1 W3 t1 t 3 m 3 h1 h 2 W1 W2 t1 t 2 SENSIBLE HEAT FACTOR Sensible Heat factor is the ratio of the sensible heat to the total heat transfer for a process. QS Q QS SHF QS Q l SHF APPARATUS DEW POINT Cooling and Dehumidifying Process ADP (Apparatus Dew Point) LOAD RATIO LINE Room Condition Supply Air LOAD RATIO LINE For Air Conditioning Design: Supply air temperature is within 3°C to 11°C lower than room temperature Sample Problems 1. Find the heat transfer rate and mass flow rate of a heating and adiabatic humidification process where 0.94 m 3/sec of air enters at 5°C and 40% relative humidity and leaves at 43°C and a relative humidity of 30% and moisture is supplied at 43C. (Assume P = 101.325 KPa) By energy balance Q m w h w mh 2 Q m(h 2 h1 ) m w h w By water balance mW1 m w mW2 m w m(W2 W1 ) Q m(h 2 h1 ) (W2 W1 )h w From Psycrometric chart or by empirical formulas At 5C and 40% RH kgm kgda KJ h1 10.43 kgda W1 0.0021 m3 kgda At 43C and 30% RH υ1 0.7907 kgm kgda KJ h 2 85.41 kgda W2 0.0163 m3 kgda h w hf at 43C υ 2 0.9192 h w 179.94 KJ kg 2. Find the heat transfer rate required to warm 42.5 m3/min of air at 16C and 90% relative humidity to 49C without the addition of moisture. From Psycrometr ic chart or by empirical formulas At 16C and 90% RH kgm kgda KJ h1 41.93 kgda W1 0.0102 υ1 0.8326 m3 kgda At 49C and W1 W2 0.0102 h 2 75.71 kgm kgda KJ kgda m3 kgda RH 2 13.91% υ 2 0.9276 3. Moist air at 27C db and 20C wb is cooled to 15C and 80% relative humidity. The volume flow rate is 0.95 m3/sec and the condensate leave at 16C. Find the heat transfer rate in tons. 4. Air at 14C and 90% RH is to be heated until the relative humidity is 50%. Determine the heat added per kilogram of dry air. (10.2 KJ/kgda) 5. Moist air at 32C and 60% relative humidity enter the refrigeration coils of a dehumidifier with a flow rate of 1.5 kg/sec. The air leaves saturated at 15C. Calculate the condensate removed and the tons of refrigeration required. From Psychromet ric chart or using emperical formulas, assuming P 101.325 KPa At t d1 32C and 60% RH W1 0.0180 h1 78.34 at t d2 15C and 100% RH (Saturated ) W2 0.0106 h 2 42.01 h w hf at 15C h w 62.867 m moist ai r m m Vapor 1.5 m mW1 kg of dry air sec by energy balance m 1.47 mh 1 Q mh 2 m w h w Q m ( h1 h 2 ) m w h w 1 by water balance mW1 m w mW2 m w m(W1 W2 ) 2 Q m(h1 h 2 ) (W1 W2 )h w m w 0.0109 Q 52.72 6. kg sec KJ 15 TR sec Moist air enters a dehumidifier-heater unit at 26C and 80% RH. It is to leave at 26C and 50% RH. For an air flow rate of 0.47 m3/sec, find the refrigeration in tons and the heating required in KW. 80% 1 50% 2 3 26C At 26C and 80% RH W1 = 0.017002 kgm/kgda h1 = 69.474 KJ/kgda v1 = 0.8711 m3/kgda 26C and 50% RH W3 = 0.010518 kgm/kgda h3 = 52.943 KJ/kgda v3 = 0.8623 m3/kgda At 2 to 3 W2 = W3 and RH2 = 100%, from chart or table, h2 = 41.463 KJ/kgda v2 = 0.83 m3/kgda t2 = 14.794 C hw = hf at 14.794C = 62.12 KJ/kg 6. Air enters a humidifier-heater at 10C and 10% RH. The air mixture leaves the heater at a temperature of 24C and a relative humidity of 50%. Determine the heat and water added if the airflow rate is 0.75 kg/sec. The water temperature entering is 15C. 7. Ten kilograms of air having a dry bulb temperature of 27C and a humidity ratio of 0.010 kgm/kgda are mixed with 5 kilograms of air having a dry bulb temperature of 35C and a humidity ratio of 0.020 kgm/kgda. Determine the dry bulb temperature and humidity ratio of the mixture. 8. An air-water vapor mixture enters an air-conditioning unit at 30C and 50% RH. The mass flow rate of dry air entering the unit is 1 kg/sec. The air vapor mixture leaves the air-conditioning unit at 10C and 100% RH and liquid condensate also leaves the unit at 10C. The total pressure of the air vapor mixture is 110 KPa. Determine the rate of heat transfer for this process. At 30C and 50% RH and P = 110 KPa W1 = 0.012266 h1 = 61.509 v 1= 0.8071 At 10C and 100% RH and P = 110 KPa W2 = 0.007023 h2 = 27.745 v2 = 0.7447 hw = hf at 10C = 42.01 KJ/kg 9. A stream of outdoor air is mixed with a stream of return air in an air conditioning system that operates at 101 KPa pressure. The flow rate of outdoor air is 2 kg/sec, and its condition is 35C BD and 25C WB. The flow rate of return air is 3 kg/sec, and its condition is 24C and 50% RH. Determine a) the enthalpy of the mixture b) the humidity ratio of the mixture c) the dry bulb temperature of the mixture SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. An air conditioning system admits 24 m 3/sec of air at 32C db, 60% RH, and discharges it from the cooling coil at 15C db and saturated. the refrigerant used is R-12, this leaves the receiver at 689 KPa subcooled-12C and leaves the evaporator at 179 KPa superheated -12C. Compression efficiency is 80% and mechanical efficiency is 90%. Find a) the power required to drive the compressor in KW (240 KW) b) the tons of refrigeration capacity (270 TR) 2. A space to be conditioned as shown has a total load of 29 KW and a sensible heat ratio of 0.80. It is to be maintain at a condition not to exceed 27C and 50% RH. For proper ventilation 55% of the supply air is fresh air and the rest are re-circulated air. Outside air is 32C DB and 22C WB. The air is supplied at 21C, Find: a) the kg/min of fresh air supplied b) the tons of refrigeration required by the a-c unit OA Outside air MA - Mixed air CA - conditione d air SA - Supply air RA - Returned air(Recirc ulated air) EA - Exhaust air Room Air Outside Air tdo 32C two 22C Pwo 2.642 KPa Pv Pw - P(6.66 x 10 -4 )(td - tw) Pvo 1.9952 KPa 0.622Pv W P - Pv Wo 0.0125 h 1.0045td W 2501.3 1.86td ho 64.16 td3 27C RH 3 50% Pd3 3.563 KPa Pv Pd Pv3 1.7836 KPa 0.622Pv W P - Pv W3 0.0111 RH h 1.0045td W 2501.3 1.86td h 3 55.58 SHF Qs Qs 0.80 Q Qs Q L Qs 0.80(29) 23.2 KW Q L 29 - 23.2 5.8 KW For air conditioni ng design KJ kg - C KJ hfg 2466 kg Qs m(1.02)( 27 21) Cp 1.02 m o 0.55m 23.3 kg m 3.81 (1.02)( 27 21) sec Q L m(W3 - W2 )hfg 5.8 KW m o 0.55(3.81) 2.096 5.8 W2 W3 3.81(2466) W2 0.0105 mo t1 t 3 h1 h 3 W1 W3 0.55 m to t 3 ho h 3 Wo W3 t1 29.75 at 21C and W2 0.0105 h1 60.3 h 2 47.48 W1 0.0119 m mo mR m R 3.81 2.096 1.714 kg/sec Qs = 0.8(29) = 23.2 KW Ql = 29 - 23.2 = 5.8 KW Wo = 0.0124 kgm/kg da ho = 64.5 KJ/kg o = 0.88 m3/kg Qs = mCp(t4-t3) W4 = 0.116 kgm/kg da h4 = 56.6 KJ/kg 4 = 0.86 m3/kg m = 3.79 kg/sec Ql = m(W4-W3)hfg hfg = 2437.6 KJ/kg at 27C W3 = 0.009 kgm/kg da Q = m(h4 - h3) h3 = 48.95 KJ/kg 3 = 0.845 m3/kg mo = 0.55(3.79) = 2.0845 kg/sec m5 = 1.7055 kg/sec a) Vo = 2.0485(0.88) = 1.835 m3/sec = 110 m3/min b) W2 = W3 = 0.009 kg m/kg da Pv2 = 1.45 KPa tdp2 = 12.5C Note: the temperature of the spray water is equal to the temp. of the air leaving the air conditioner. h2 = 35.3 KJ/kg mo/m = h1 - h4/ho - h4 h1 = 60.945 KJ/kg Qc = m(h1 - h2) =97.2 KW = 5832 Kj/min = 27.6 tons 3. A small store has a sensible heat load of 16 KW and a latent heat load of 4 KW. Indoor conditions of 24C DB and 50% RH are to be maintained when outside air is 33C DB and 24C WB. All outside air supplied with re-heater to satisfy the space conditions. The conditioned air leaves the fan at 16C Db. the fan energy may be neglected. Find: a) the tons of refrigeration required by the air conditioner b) the supply fan capacity in m3/sec c) the heat supplied in re-heater in KW Wo = 0.0152 kgm/kgda ho = 72.48 KJ/kg W3 = 0.0094 kgm/kgda h3 = 48 KJ/kg Qs = mCp(t3-t2) 16 = m(1,02)(24-16) m = 1.96 kg/sec Ql = m(W3-W2)hfg hfg at 24C = 2444.7 KJ/kg W2 = 0.0086 kgm/kgda Q = Qs + Ql = m(h 3-h2) h2 = 37.8 KJ/kg W1 = W2 = 0.622Pv2 kgm/kgda 101.325-Pv2 Pv2 = Pv1 = 1.38 KPa t1 = 11.756C h1 = 33.5 KJ/kgda Qc = m(ho - h1) = 22 tons Q1 = m2 2 = 0.82 m3/kg Q1 = m2 = 1.61 m3/sec Qh = m(h2 - h1) = 8.453 KW 4. A space to be conditioned has a sensible heat load of 633 000 KJ/hr and a moisture load of 1,584,000 grains per hour; 2300 lbs of air are to be introduced each minute to this space for its conditioning to 27C DB and 50% RH. Determine the amount of air to be bypassed and the amount and temperature of air leaving the dehumidifier. re c ir c ula ted a ir o uts id e at 27C and a ir50% RH Pd4 = 3.567 KPa Pv4 = 1.7835 KPa W4 = 0.0111 kgm/kg da h4 = 55.6 KJ/kg da 4 = 0.865 m3/kg da tdp4 = 15.69C e xha us t a ir b yp ass ed a ir co nd itio ne d a ir AC - unit S pa ce Qs = 633,000 KJ/hr Ql = m(W4-W3)hfg m = 2300/2.205 = 1043.084 kg/min m(W4-W3) = 1,584,000 Grains/min 1 lb = 7000 Grains 1 kg = 15,435 grain 5. A small store has a sensible heat load of 16 KW and a latent heat load of 4 KW, indoor conditions of 24C DB and 50% RH are to be maintained when ventilating air amounting to 34 m 3/min at 33C DB and 24C WB temperature is used. Duct work and apparatus are arranged with the by-pass system. The air conditioner has an apparatus dew point of 10.3C and the conditioned air leaves the fan at 16C. The fan energy may be neglected. Find a) the tons of refrigeration required b) the volume of by-pass air in m3/min td3=16C Vo = 34 m3/min tdo = 33C two = 24C Wo = 0.0152 kgm/kgda ho = 72.5 KJ/kg o = 0.89 m3min at 24C and 50% RH W4 = 0.0094 kgm/kg da h4 = 48 KJ/kg da Q = Qs + Ql Q = 20 KW Q = mCp(t4 - t3) m = 1.96 kg/sec Q = m(h4-h3) h3 = 37.8 KJ/kg Ql = m(W4-W3)hfg x+c=1 c=1-x 24x + ct2 = 16 24x + (1-x)t2 = 16 xtdp4 + ctdp2 = 1tdp3 12.8x + 10.3c = 11.756 4 = 0.854 m3/kg da tdp4 = 12.8C hfg @ 24C = 2444.7 KJ/kg W3 = 0.0086 kgm/kg da Pv3 = 1.38 KPa tdp3 = 11.756C 24x + 10.3c = 16 x = 0.379 x = 37.9% c = 62.1% xh4 + ch2 = 1h3 h2 = 31.57 KJ/kg Qc = m2 (h1 - h2) Qc = 10.12 tons Vx = xm4 Vx = 0.379(1,96)60(0.854) =38.06m3/min mo = Vo/o = 38.2 kg/min m2 = 0.621(1.96)60 = 73.03 kg/min mo/m2 = h1 - h4 ho - h4 h1 = 60.81 KJ/kg 6. An air conditioned theater is to be maintained at 26.7C DB and 50% RH. The calculated total sensible heat load in the theater is 126,240 KCal/hr and latent heat load is 82,920 KCal/hr. the air mixture at 28.9C DB and 22.2C WB temperature is cooled to 17.22C DB and15C WB temperature by chilled water cooling coils and delivered as supply air to the theater. Calculate the tons of refrigeration required. recirculated air exhaust air 4 3 AC unit outside air 0 1 at 28.9C and 22.2C WB h1 = 65 KJ/kg at 17.22C and 15C WB h2 = 42 KJ/kg at 26.7C and 50% RH h3 = 54.5 KJ/kg Q = Qs + Ql Q = 875,753 KJ/hr Q = m(h3 - h2) m = 70,060 kg/hr 2 conditioned air Qc = m(h1 - h2) 60(211) Qc=127.3tons 7. An auditorium is to be maintained at a temperature of 26C DB and 50% RH. Air is to be supplied at a temperature not lower than 15C DB. The sensible heat gain is 110 KW and the latent heat gain is 37.5 KW . Take ventilating air as 25% by weight of the air from the room and is at 35C DB and 60% RH. Determine the refrigeration capacity in tons. recirculated air exhaust air 4 3 outside air 2 0 conditioned air 1 AC unit 8. Atmospheric air at 10C and 40% RH is heated to 25C in the heating section of an air-conditioning device and then steam is introduced to increase the relative humidity to 50% while the temperature increases to 26C. Determine the mass flow rate of water vapor added and the rate of heat transfer needed in the heating section if the volume flow rate of inlet air is 50 m 3/min.(0.458 kg/sec; 19.33 KW) Humidifier m 0 1 2 m2 Heater mw 9. Outside air in a dry climate enters an air conditioner at 40C and 10% RH and is cooled to 22C. (a) Calculate the heat removed (b) Calculate the total energy required to conditioned outside (humid) air at 30C and 90% RH to 22C and 10% RH. ( 19 KJ/kgda; 98 KJ/kgda) 10. One hundred m3/min of outside air at 36C and 80% RH is conditioned for an office building by cooling and heating. Estimate both the rate of cooling and the rate of heating required if the final state of the air is 25C and 40% RH. (152 KW ;26.8 KW) 11. Room air at 29C and 70% RH is cooled by passing it over coils through which chilled water at 5C flows. The mass flux of the chilled water is 0.5 kg/sec and it experiences a 10C temperature rise. If the room air exits the conditioner at 18C and 100% RH, Estimate (a) the mass flux of the room air (b) the heat transfer rate. (0.91 kg/sec ; 20.9 KW) 12. Outside air at 40C and 20% RH is to be cooled using an evaporative cooler. If the flow rate of the air is 40 m3/min, estimate (a) the minimum possible temperature of the exit stream and (b) the minimum mass flux needed for the water supply. (21.7C ; 0.329 kg/min) 13. Thirty m3/min of outside air at 0C and 40% RH is first heated and then passed through and evaporative cooler so that the final state is 25C and 50% RH. Determine the temperature of the air when it enters the cooler, the heat transfer rate needed during the heating process, and the mass flux of water required by the cooler. (45C; 30 KW ; 0.314 kg/min) 14. Water is used to remove the heat from the condenser of a power plant. 10,000 kg/min of 40C water enters a cooling tower. Water leaves at 25C. Air enters at 20C and 50% RH and leaves at 32C and 98% RH. Estimate (a) the volume flow rate of air into the cooling tower (b) the mass flow rate of water that leaves the cooling tower from the bottom. (7450 m 3/min ; 9800 kg/min) 15. Cooling water leaves the condenser of a power plant at 38C with a mass flow rate of 40 kg/sec. It is cooled to 24C in a cooling tower that receives atmospheric air at 25C and 60% RH. Saturated air exits the tower at 32C. Estimate (a) the required volume flow rate of entering air (b) the mass flow rate of the make up water. ( 37 m3/sec ; 0.8 kg/sec) AIR OR GAS COMPRESSORS By: Engr. Yuri G. Melliza Compressor is a machine used to compressed air or gas to a final pressure exceeding 241.25 KPa gage (342.6 KPaa). TYPES OF COMPRESSORS Centrifugal Compressors - For low pressure and high capacity application Rotary Compressors - For medium pressure and low capacity application Reciprocating Compressors - For high pressure and low capacity application USES OF COMPRESSED AIR Operation of small engines Pneumatic tools Air hoists Industrial cleaning by air blast Tire inflation Paint Spraying Air lifting of liquids Manufacture of plastics and other industrial products To supply air in mine tunnels Other specialized industrial applications ANALYSIS OF CENTRIFUGAL AND ROTARY TYPE W 2 m m 1 Q Q = h + KE + PE + W (Steady state - steady flow equation) W Q Δh ΔKE ΔPE W VdP ΔKE ΔPE Q Δh VdP For a compressor work is done on the system, therefore the work is (-W) W Δh - Q ΔKE ΔPE W VdP ΔKE ΔPE let - W Wc Wc Δh - Q ΔKE ΔPE Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE A) Isentropic Compression (PVk = C) P 2 W VdP PV k C 1 V For Isentropic Compressio n k 1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 Q0 Wc Δh ΔKE ΔPE Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) k 1 k(P2 V2 - P1V1 ) kmR(T2 - T1 ) kmRT1 P2 k VdP 1 k 1 k 1 k 1 P1 if ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) k 1 k(P2 V2 - P1V1 ) kmR(T2 - T1 ) kmRT1 P2 k Wc 1 k 1 k 1 k 1 P1 where m - mass flow rate of the gas in kg/sec W - work in KW P - pressure in KPa T - temperature in K R - gas constant in KJ/kg-K V - volume flow rate in m3/sec B) Polytropic Compression (PVn = C) P 2 W VdP PV n C 1 V For Polytropic compression, Q 0 n 1 n 1 V T2 P2 n 1 T1 P1 V2 Wc Δh Q ΔKE ΔPE Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) n 1 n (P2 V2 P1V1 ) nmR (T2 T1 ) nmRT1 P2 n VdP 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 P1 Q mC n (T2 T1 ) kn Cn Cv 1 n If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Δh Q n 1 n (P2 V2 P1V1 ) nmR (T2 T1 ) nmRT1 P2 n Wc VdP 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 P1 n 1 nmRT1 P2 n W 1 n 1 P1 C) Isothermal Compression (PV = C) P 2 W VdP PV C 1 V P1V1 P2 V2 T1 T2 Wc Δh Q ΔKE ΔPE Δh 0 Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE VdP P V ln P P2 1 1 1 if ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Q Wc P1V1 ln P1V1 mRT1 P2 P1 ANALYSIS OF RECIPROCATING TYPE COMPRESSOR Cylinder Valve Piston HE Piston Rod CE d D L P P2 2 2' P1 1' 1 V1' cVD VD V HE - Head end CE - Crank end L - length of stroke, m VD - Displacement volume, m3/sec D - diameter of bore, m d - diameter of piston rod, m V1’ – Volume flow rate measured at intake in m3/sec PERCENT CLEARANCE Clearance Volume C Displaceme nt Volume V C 2' x 100% VD For compressor design, values of percent clearance C ranges from 3 to 10 %. V2' CVD where: V2’ - clearance volume VOLUMETRIC EFFICIENCY Volume flow rate at intake ηv x 100% Displaceme nt Volume V ηv 1' x 100% VD A) For Isentropic Compression (PVk= C) 1 P2 k ηv 1 C C x 100% P1 B) For Polytropic Compression (PVn = C) 1 P2 n ηv 1 C C x 100% P1 C) For Isothermal Compression (PV = C) P ηv 1 C C 2 x 100 % P1 ACTUAL VOLUMETRIC EFFICIENCY ηva Va x 100% VD Va - actual volume of air or gas drawn in DISPLACEMENT VOLUME A) For single acting VD πLD 2 Nn' m3 4(60) sec B) For Double acting without considering the volume of piston rod VD 2πLD 2 Nn' m3 4(60) sec C) For Double acting considering volume of piston rod πLNn' m3 2D 2 d 2 4(60) sec where: L - length of stroke, m D - diameter of bore, m d - diameter of piston rod, m n' - no. of cylinders N = no. of RPM VD A) For Isentropic Compression and RE-expansion process (PVK = C),no heat is removed from the gas. k 1 T2 P2 k T1 P1 Q0 Wc Δh ΔKE ΔPE Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) k 1 k 1 kmRT1 P2 k kP1V1' P2 k VdP 1 1 k 1 P1 k 1 P1 P1V1' mRT1 m - mass flow rate measured at intake, kg/sec V1' volume flow rate at intake, m3/sec if ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) k 1 k 1 kmRT1 P2 k kP1V1' P2 k Wc 1 1 k 1 P1 k 1 P1 B) For Polytropic Compression and Re-expansion process (PVn = C), some amount of heat is removed from the gas. n 1 n 1 V T2 P2 n 1 T1 P1 V2 Wc Δh Q ΔKE ΔPE Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE Δh mC p (T2 T1 ) n 1 n 1 nmRT1 P2 n nP1V1' P2 n VdP 1 1 n 1 P1 n 1 P1 Q mC n (T2 T1 ) kn Cn C v 1 n If ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Δh Q n 1 n 1 nmRT1 P2 n nP1V1' P2 n Wc VdP 1 1 n 1 P1 n 1 P1 n 1 n 1 nmRT1 P2 n nP1V1' P2 n Wc 1 1 n 1 P1 n 1 P1 C) For Isothermal compression and re-expansion process (PV = C), an amount of heat equivalent to the compression work is removed from the gas. P1V1 P2 V2 T1 T2 Wc Δh Q ΔKE ΔPE Δh 0 Wc VdP ΔKE ΔPE VdP P V ln P P2 1 1' 1 if ΔKE 0 and ΔPE 0 Wc Q Wc P1V1' ln P2 P1 P1V1' mRT1 MEAN EFFECTIVE PRESSURE W Pm KPa VD W in KJ, KJ/kg, KW VD in m3, m3/kg, m3/sec PISTON SPEED PS 2LN m 60 sec EFFICIENCY a. COMPRESSION EFFICIENCY Ideal Work ecn x100% Indicated Work b. MECHANICAL EFFICIENCY em c. Indicated Work x100% Brake or Shaft Work COMPRESSOR EFFICIENCY Ideal Work x100% Brake or Shaft Work MOTOR EFFICIENCY ec ecnem BP x100% MP BP Brake or Shaft Power emotor MP - Motor Power MOTOR POWER A. For Single Phase Motor MP EI (Power Factor) KW 1000 B. For 3 – Phase Motor MP 3 EI (Power Factor) KW 1000 Where: E – Volts I – Current in Amperes PF – Power Factor MULTISTAGE COMPRESSION Multi staging is simply the compression of air or gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor. It is used in reciprocating compressors when pressure of 300 KPa and above are desired, in order to: Save power Limit the gas discharge temperature Limit the pressure differential per cylinder Prevent vaporization of lubricating oil and to prevent its ignition if the temperature becomes too high. It is common practice for multi-staging to cool the air or gas between stages of compression in an intercooler, and it is this cooling that affects considerable saving in power. A) 2 - Stage Compression without pressure drop in the intercooler For an ideal multistage compression, with perfect inter-cooling and minimum work, the cylinder were properly designed so that: the work at each stage are equal the air in the intercooler is cooled back to the initial temperature no pressure drop occurs in the intercooler the pressure ratio at each stage are equal W1 = W2 ; T1 = T3 ; P2 = P3 = Px where: W1 - work of the LP cylinder (1st stage) W2 - work of the HP cylinder (2nd stage) Px = ideal intercooler pressure, optimum pressure Assuming polytropic compression and expansion processes: W1 W2 Work for LP cylinder (W1 ) T1 T3 n 1 nP1V1' P2 n W1 1 n 1 P1 P1V1' mRT1 n 1 n T2 P2 T1 P1 n 1 T4 P4 n T3 P3 Work for HP cylinder (W2 ) n 1 nP3 V3' P4 n W2 1 n 1 P3 P3 V3' mRT3 T2 T4 P2 P4 P1 P3 P1V1' P3V3' Total Work (W) for Ideal 2 - stage W W1 W2 Pressure Ratio W 2 W1 P2 P4 P1 P3 n 1 2nP1V1' P2 n W1 1 n 1 P1 1 P2 Px P1 P1 P1P4 P1 1 Px P2 P3 1 1 n 1 2nP1V1' P4 2 n W1 1 n 1 P1 By Energy Balance in the Intercoole r Q x m(h 2 - h1 ) mC p (T2 - T1 ) Heat produced during compressio n (PV n C) Q1 mC n (T2 - T1 ) Q 2 mC n (T4 - T3 ) k-n Cn Cv 1- n 1 P 2P 2 P 2 P 2 P 2 1 4 4 1 4 1 4 P1 P P1P1 2 P1 2 1 PX P4 P1 PX Px P1P4 Ideal intercoole r pressure B) 2 stage compressor with pressure drop in the intercooler For 2 stage compression with pressure drop in the intercooler, P2 P3 The air in the intercooler may or may not be cooled to the initial temperature, and the work at each stage may or may not be equal, thus the work W = W1 + W2 For 2 - stage ompression with pressure drop P2 P3 W1 W2 or W1 W2 T1 T3 or T1 T3 P2 P4 P P or 2 4 P1 P3 P1 P3 T2 T4 T T or 2 4 T1 T3 T1 T3 W W1 W2 where Work for LP cylinder (W1 ) n 1 nP1V1' P2 n W1 1 n 1 P1 P1V1' mRT1 Work for HP cylinder (W2 ) n 1 nP3 V3' P4 n W2 1 n 1 P3 P3 V3' mRT3 By Energy Balance in the Intercoole r Q x m(h 2 - h1 ) mC p (T2 - T1 ) Heat produced during compressio n (PV n C) Q1 mC n (T2 - T1 ) Q 2 mC n (T4 - T3 ) k-n Cn Cv 1- n C. Three-Stage compressor without pressure drop in the intercooler Considering Polytropic compression and expansion processes and with perfect inter-cooling and minimum work For 3 - stage ompression without pressure drop P2 P3 Px P4 P5 Py W1 W2 W3 T1 T3 T5 P P2 P4 6 P1 P3 P5 P Px Py 6 P1 Px Py Px 3 P12 P6 LP Intercoole r pressure Py 3 P1P6 2 HP Intercoole r pressure T T2 T4 6 T1 T3 T5 W W1 W2 W3 where Work for 1st Stage cylinder (W1 ) n 1 nP1V1' P2 n W1 1 n 1 P1 P1V1' mRT1 Work for 2nd Stage cylinder (W2 ) n 1 nP3 V3' P4 n W2 1 n 1 P3 P3 V3' mRT3 Work for 3rd Stage cylinder (W3 ) n 1 nP5 V5' P6 n W3 1 n 1 P5 P5 V5' mRT5 n 1 3nP1V1' P2 n W 1 n 1 P1 Total W W W1 W2 W3 but W1 W2 W3 W 3W1 1 P2 P6 3 P1 P1 n 1 3nP1V1' P6 3n W 1 n 1 P1 For multistage compression with minimum work and perfect inter-cooling and no pressure drop in the inter-coolers between stages, the following conditions apply: 1. the work at each stage are equal 2. the pressure ratio between stages are equal 3. the air temperature in the inter-coolers are cooled to the original temperature T1 4. the total work W is equal to n 1 SnP1V1' P2S Sn WS 1 n 1 P1 where S - number of stages INTERCOOLER PRESSURES 1 Pa Pb Pc Pd Pe P2S P2S S P1 Pa Pb Pc Pd Pe P1 1 Pa P2S S P1 P1 1 P S Pa P1 2S P1 1 1 1 1 1 P S P S P S Pb Pa 2S P1 2S 2S P1 P1 P1 2 P S Pb P1 2S P1 1 P S P S P S Pc Pb 2S P1 2S 2S P1 P1 P1 3 P S Pc P1 2S P1 4 P S Pd P1 2S P1 5 P S Pe P1 2S P1 Sample Problems 1. A 2-stage, double acting air compressor 41cm and 25cm bore x 18 cm running 600 RPM has a free air un-loader at each end for capacity control. It is driven by a 150 HP motor, 460V,3 phase, 60 hertz, 1175 RPM thru super-high capacity V-belts at sea level installation.P1 = 101 KPa and P4= 984 KPa, calculate the power assuming the LP cylinder discharges the air to the ideal pressure and intercooler cools the air to the initial temperature of 21C. 2. A single acting compressor has a volumetric efficiency of 87% operates at 500 RPM. It takes in air at 100 KPa and 30C and discharges it to 600 KPa. The air handled is 6 m3/min measured at discharge condition. If compression and expansion processes are isentropic, find the piston displacement per stroke. 3. A two-stage reciprocating air compressor is required to deliver 0.70 kg/sec of air from 98.6 Kpa and 305K to 1276 KPa. The compressor operates at 205 RPM, compression and re-expansion processes are PV1.25 = C, and both cylinders have 3.5% clearance. There is a 20 KPa pressure drop in the intercooler. The LP cylinder discharges at the optimum pressure into the intercooler. The air enters the HP cylinder at 310K. the intercooler is water cooled with the water entering at 295K and leaving at 305K. Determine the motor power required if m= 85%.( 260 KW) 4. A 36 cm x 36 cm , horizontal double acting air compressor w/ 5% clearance operates at 120 RPM and draws air at 100 KPa and 31C and discharges it to 397 KPa. Compression and expansion processes follows PV1.3 = C. Determine compressor power required in KW.(22 KW) 5. An ideal 3-stage air compressor with intercoolers handles air at the rate of 2 kg/min. The suction pressure is 101 Kpa, suction temperature is 21C, delivery pressure is 5000 KPa. Assuming perfect inter-cooling and minimum work, calculate total power required if compressor efficiency is 60% and both compression and expansion processes are PVn=C, where n = 1.2. (21 KW) 6. A two stage compressor with 5% clearance delivers 40 kg/min of air to 965 Kpa. At intake the pressure is 98.6 KPa and the temperature is 16C. the compression is polytropic with n = 1.31 and the intercooler cools the air to 16C. Determine the mean effective pressure in KPa. 7. A double acting, 2 stage air compressor running at 150 RPM has a suction pressure and temperature of 100 KPa and 27C, respectively. The low pressure cylinder is 36 cm x 38 cm and connected in tandem to the high pressure cylinder. The LP cylinder discharges the air at 386 KPa. The intercooler cools back the air to its initial temperature and the air enters the HP cylinder at 370 KPa and leaves at 1 480 KPa. Both LP and HP cylinders have 4% clearance and compression follows PV1.3 = C. Neglect effect of piston rods. Standard air is at 101 KPa and 16C. Determine: a) the volume of free air based on apparent volumetric efficiency b) the heat removed by cooling water in the intercooler ( 24 KW) c) the diameter of the HP cylinder in cm (19 cm) d) the power required to drive the compressor if the aggregate losses is 20% of the power of the conventional diagram. (72 KW) 8. A turbine driven compressor handles 10 kg/sec of air from 100 KPa to 600 KPa with an inlet temperature of 300K and a discharge temperature of 530K. The inlet tubing has a 0.5 m inside diameter and the discharge piping a 0.20 m diameter. The compression is adiabatic. Determine: a) the air inlet and exit velocities in m/sec b) the isentropic compression efficiency c) the power required in KW 9. A large centrifugal compressor handles 9 kg/sec of air, compresses it from 100 KPa and 15C and with an initial velocity of 110 m/sec to discharge pressure. The velocity of the high pressure air stream is 90 m/sec. The pressure ratio is 4:1 the compressor has an isentropic compression efficiency of 80%. Determine a) the exit pressure in KPa b) the exit temperature in K c) the power required 10.A centrifugal compressor handling air draws 6 m 3/sec of air at a pressure of 96.5 KPa and a temperature of 15.6C. The air delivered from the compressor at a pressure 482.5 KPa and a temperature of 73C. The area of the suction pipe is 0.2 m2, the area of the of the discharge pipe is 0.4 m2, the discharge pipe is located 6 m above the suction pipe. The weight of the jacket water that enters at 16C and leaves at 43C is 3.45 kg/sec. Find the power required to drive this compressor assuming no loss from radiation. 11.A low pressure water jacketed air compressor, compresses 6.8 kg/min of air from 101.325 KPa and 21C to 136 Kpa and 43C. a) let the process to be polytropic, neglecting KE and PE find W and the mass flow rate of cooling water circulating if tw = 4C. b) considering the process to be irreversible adiabatic with a final temperature of 54C, find the value of m in PVm = C and W. ANSWER: a) 3 KW; 1.7 kg/sec; b) W = 4 KW; m = 1.6 12.There are required 1903 KW of compressor power to handle air adiabatically from 1001 KPa, 27C to 305 KPa. The initial air velocity is 21 m/sec and the final velocity is 85 m/sec. a) if the process is isentropic, find the volume of air handled in m3/min measured at inlet conditions. b) If the compression is an irreversible adiabatic to a final temperature of 158C,with the capacity found in (a) find the power input. 13.A 36 cm x 30 cm, single cylinder, double acting air compressor with 5.5% clearance operates at 125 RPM. The suction pressure and temperature are 96 KPa and 38C, respectively. The discharge pressure is 290 KPa. Compression and re-expansion processes are PVn=C with n = 1.3. /neglecting piston rod effects, determine: a) the volumetric efficiency ( 93%) b) the volume flow rate at suction conditions (7.07 m3/min) c) the work in KW (15 KW) d) the heat rejected during compression (3 KW) e) the indicated power in KW in the compression efficiency is 75%. (20 KW) 14.An industrial plant operates an air compressor system for cooling. The air entering the compressor has a temperature of 16 C at 345 KPa and is compressed to 1206 KPa. The compressed air is then cooled by circulating water to a temperature of 38C and then allowed to expand to the original pressure. Assume adiabatic compression and dry air. Find: a) temperature of the compressed air b) final temperature of air after expansion c) diameter of the pipe necessary to conduct 0.02 m3/sec if the piping system has a 12- 90 elbow long radius elbow , 2-globe valves, 3 tees on run, and 61 m of straight pipe. Friction drop in the pipeline is limited to 14 KPa. Assume specific weight and velocity remains constant along the pipe 15.Air is compressed from 103.4 KPa and 21 C to 4132 KPa by a three-stage compressor with a value of n = 1.32.Determine the theoretical work of the compressor and the heat absorbed by the intercoolers. 16.A single acting compressor with a clearance of 6% takes in air at atmospheric pressure and at a temperature of 29C and discharges it at a pressure of 586 KPa. The air handled is 0.0071 m3/cycle measured at the discharge pressure. If the compression is isentropic,find: a) Piston displacement per cycle (0.03 m3/cycle) b) Compressor power if n = 750 RPM ( 72 KW) 17.A single cylinder, double acting air compressor running at 200 RPM has a piston speed of 183 m/min. It compresses 27 kg/min of air from 97 KPa and 16C to 654 KPa. Clearance is 5.5%. For isentropic compression, Find: a) the volumetric efficiency (84%) b) the piston displacement in m3/min (28 cu.m./min) c) the work in KW (96 KW) d) the mean effective pressure in KPa (207 Kpa) e) the bore and stroke of the compressor in cm. (D=44 cm;L=46 cm) 18.An air compressor with a clearance of of 6% is to compress 0.43 m3/sec of free air where the atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa and the atmospheric temperature is 24C. At the end of the suction stroke, the pressure and temperature of the air in the cylinder are 97 KPa and 32C. For a discharge pressure of 520 KPa, Determine the conventional volumetric efficiency and displacement of the compressor when the compression process is: a) Isothermal (74%; 0.6 cu.m./sec) b) Isentropic (86%; 0.5 cu.m./sec) c) polytropic with n = 1.33 (84.8%; 0.51 cu.m./sec) 19.A single stage reciprocating air compressor has two double acting cylinders each 46 cm diameter and 36 cm stroke and the piston rods are 50 mm in diameter. The intake and discharge pressure are 101 KPa and 445 KPa, respectively and the speed is 257 RPM. If the volumetric efficiency is 78%, mechanical efficiency is 94% and the isothermal compression efficiency is 66%, Find: a) the metered flow per second (0.795 cu.m./sec) b) the indicated power in KW (181 KW) c) the power required to drive this compressor in KW ( 193 KW) d) the adiabatic compression efficiency ( 82%) 20. An air pollution control device requires 0.23 cu.m./sec of free air. To provide this demand a double acting, single stage reciprocating air compressor having a clearance of 3% was bought. Suction conditions are 101 KPa and 21C and a discharge pressure of 724 KPa is desired. When tested under these conditions, performance was within the terms of guarantee. a) what is the piston displacement in cu.m./sec of the compressor if n =1.34 b) if the compression ratio is held constant and the unit is operated at an altitude of 1800 m, what will be its capacity and discharge pressure d) what would be the displacement of a similar compressor to handle the same mass of air as in (a) when operated at 1800 m elevation. 21. A 2-stage, double acting air compressor, 410mm x 250 mm bore x 180 mm stroke, running at 600 RPM, has a free air unloader at each end for capacity control. It is driven by a 150 HP electric motor, 460 volts, 3 phase, 60 Hz, 1175 RPM thru superhigh capacity V-belts at sea level installation. Suction pressure is 1.034 kg/ cm2 absolute and discharge pressure is 9 kg/cm2 gage. Calculate: a) piston displacement in m3/hr ( 1711; 636) b) piston speed in m/sec ( 3.6) c) ideal pressure gage reading in kg.cm2 ( 2.2) 22. A reciprocating 2-stage air compressor takes in air at atmospheric pressure and 27C.The flash point of the oil used in the cylinder is 260C. Safety precautions limit the temperature of the air in the HP cylinder to be 28 C below the flash point of the oil. Assuming perfect intercoooling, what would be the allowable working pressure of this compressor if the compression curve follows PV1.34 = C. (P4 = 6144.3 KPa) 23. The following data were obtained from a performance test of a 10 cm x 4 cm x 9 cm single acting, water jacketed two stage air compressor; Pressures: Atmospheric – 102 KPa Leaving 1st stage – 634 KPa Entering 2nd stage – 634 KPa Leaving 2nd stage – 4200 KPa Temperature: Atmospheric – 24C Leaving 1st stage – 108C Entering 2nd stage –25C Leaving 2nd stage – 127C Compressor speed – 648 RPM Power input to motor – 5.65 KW Motor and belt efficiency – 81.5% The following are calculated from test data: Air flow rate – 0.387 kg/min Compression exponents: 1st stage, 1.15: 2nd stage, 1.2 Calculate: a) approximate indicated power (2.4 KW) b) power for isothermal compression ( 2.04 KW) c) Shaft power ( 4.6 KW) d) 1st stage piston displacement ( 0.458 m3/min) e) actual volumetric efficiency ( 70.52%) f) isothermal compression efficiency ( 86.61%) g) mechanical efficiency based on the approximate indicated power ( 51.3%) h) overall efficiency of the compressor ( 44.49%) 24. An industrial plant requires 127.5 m3 of free air per hour for its processes. Two steam engine driven three stage air compressor has to compress the under the following conditions: Intercooler pressure between 1st and 2nd stage – 353 KPa Barometer reading – 792.5 mm Hg Exponent n = 1.3 Mechanical efficiency of compressor – 80% Thermal efficiency of the steam engine – 14% Boiler, Furnace, An piping efficiency – 70% Heating value of Malangas coal – 32 103 KJ/kg Assuming the intermediate pressure between stages is that required for minimum work , find the amount of Malangas coal to produced enough steam to operate two compressors ( 3 stage) of the same diameter to compresses the required capacity. ( 45 kg/hr) 25. Determine the percent clearance of a single cylinder, double acting air compressor with bore and stroke of 45 cm x 45 cm x 180 RPM. The compressor is tested and it delivers air from 101.3 KPa and 300 K to 675 KPa at a rate of 0.3 m3/sec. The exponent n = 1.33 for compression and expansion processes. There is a 5% pressure drop through the inlet and discharge valves. The air is warmed to 38 C during the intake stroke. (c = 6.78%) 26. A two stage, reciprocating air compressor is required to deliver 0.70 kg/sec of air from 986 KPa and 32 C to 1276 KPa. The compressor operates at 205 RPM , compression and expansion processes follow PV1.25 = C, and both cylinders have 3.5% clearance. There is a 20 KPa pressure drop in the intercooler. The LP cylinder discharges at the optimum pressure into the intercooler. The air enters the HP cylinder at 37 C. The intercooler is water cooled, with the water entering at 22 C and leaving at 32 C. Determine: a) the free air capacity in m3/sec 0.583) b) the LP and HP discharge temperature ( 121 ; 405) c) the optimum interstage pressure (354.7 KPa) d) the cooling water required for the intercooler in kg/sec ( 1.41) e) the theoretical power required in KW (185) f) the LP cylinder dimensions if L/D = 0.70 (706.5 mm x 494.6 mm) g) the motor requirements in KW, if the adiabatic compression efficiency is 83% and mechanical efficiency is 85%. (278.14 KW) 27. A single acting, 2-stage air compressor with 3% clearance is required to compressor has a mean piston speed of 140 m/min, and that each piston has the same stroke. Take free air conditions to be the same as suction conditions and for perfect intercooling, Calculate: a) piston areas for minimum power (0.0435 m2; 0.0251 m2) b) total power required in KW (6 KW) c) heat loss in the intercooler in KW ( 3 KW) 28. Find the indicated power of a compressor delivering NH3 at 2.3 kg/min. The gas enters the compressor at 207 KPa and –7C and is compressed to 1103 KPa at 121C. Five kilograms of cooling water enters the compressor jacket at 27C and leaves at 30C.(12 KW) 29. A 2 cylinder, single acting air compressor is directly coupled to an electric motor running at 1000 RPM. Other data are as follows: Size of each cylinder – 15 cm x 20 cm Clearance volume - 10% of displacement Exponent n for PVn = C - 1.6 Calculate the following: a) the volume rate of air delivery in terms of standard air for a delivery pressure of 8 times ambient pressure under ambient air conditions of 100 KPa and 300 K. b) Shaft power required if mechanical efficiency is 81%. 30. A single acting air compressor operates at 300 RPM with an initial conditions of air at 98 KPa and 27 C, and discharges the air at 380 KPa to a cylindrical tank. The bore and stroke are 355 mm and 381 mm, respectively, with a percent clearance of 5%. If the surrounding air is at 100 KPa and 20 C while the compression and expansion processes are PV1.3= C. Determine: a) the free air capacity in m3/sec (0.164) b) power of compressor in KW ( 27 KW) 31. A closed metal tank is designed to be safe when subjected to an internal pressure of 689 KPa. It is used to hold compressed air and is filled with this material at a temperature of 16C and a pressure of 551 KPa. The tank stands in the sun and its contents may obtained a temperature of 52 C. a) Assuming the tank does not expand with temperature and pressure changes will the design pressure be exceeded b) what temperature will have to be attained to raise the pressure of the air to the value for which the tank was designed. 32. An air compressor receives air from the surroundings at 100 KPa and 21C. There is a 2 KPa drop through the intake valves, and the temperature at the end intake stroke is 38 C. The discharge pressure is 480 KPa and there is a 20 KPa pressure drop through the discharge valves. Determine a) the ideal volumetric efficiency (80%) b) the actual volumetric efficiency (74.1%) c) the power if the piston displacement is 14 Liters and the ideal intake volume is 11.2 Liters. The compressor is operating at 200 RPM and n = 1.35 ( 7 KW) 33. Required an air compressor to supply 36 kg of air per minute at a pressure of 1034 KPa; Temperature of air entering the compressor is 16 C, atmospheric. Not counting frictional losses , Find: a) the power require to operate the compressor if; 1. Single stage with n = 1.35 (160 KW) 2. 2-stage with air entering 2nd stage cylinder at 339 KPa and 18 C. ( 137 KW) b) the temperature of the air going to the receiver in each case.( 255 C ; 119 C) 34. An air compressor is direct connected to a heat engine. The compressor handles 28.5 m3/min of free air and delivers it to 1203 KPa. Atmospheric pressure and temperature being 97 KPa and 16 C, respectively and the overall isothermal efficiency of the compressor is 70%. The brake thermal efficiency of the heat engine is 25% and all the engine comes from an oil, the combustion of each liter of which liberates 41 000 KJFind: a) The liters of oil per day required by the engine if run continuously at the given load (1386.5 L/day) b) The combined thermal efficiency based on the indicated power of the compressor if the compression efficiency is 77%. ( 23%) 35. Determine the percent clearance of a single cylinder, double acting air compressor with bore and stroke of 45 cm x 45 cm by 3 RPS. The compressor is tested and it delivers air from 101.3 KPa and 300 K to 675 KPa at a rate of 0.3 m3/sec. The exponent n = 1.33 for compression and expansion processes. There is a 5% pressure drop through the inlet and discharge valve. The air is warmed to 311 K during the intake stroke. (7%) 36. A reciprocating compressor with 3 % clearance receives air at 100 KPa and 27 C and discharges it at 1000 KPa. The compression and expansion are polytropic with n = 1.25. There is a 5% pressure drop through the inlet and discharge valves. The air is warmed to 38 C by the cylinder walls by the end of the intake stroke. Determine: a) the theoretical and actual volumetric efficiency (82.5%; 75.6%) b) the percentage of the work needed to overcome the throttling process. 37. A single acting compressor has a volumetric efficiency of 87% and operates at 500 RPM. It takes in air at 100 KPa and 30 C and discharges it at 600 KPa. the air handled is0.10 m3/sec measured at discharge condition. If the compression is PVk = C, find the mean effective pressure in KPa. (204 KPa) 38. A reciprocating, 2-stage, single acting air compressor has a rated capacity of 0.02 m3/sec of free air at 101 KPa and 27 C when running at 600RPM. The discharge pressure is 30 kg/cm2 and the air is discharge into an air receiver of 1250 Liters capacity. The compressor has two LP cylinders each 13 cm diameter and one HP cylinder 7 cm in diameter; piston stroke is 10 cm. the intercooler is of the finned tube type with the cooling fan mounted on the compressor shaft. The compressor is driven by a 1750 RPM,3-phase,60 Hz, 460 V motor thru Vbelts with transmission efficiency of 95%. Calculate: a) Optimum intercooler pressure for equal work in the LP and HP cylinders b) Volumetric efficiency of compressor c) Brake power at compressor shaft if compressor efficiency is 85% d) KW of the driving motor in KW e) Time in minutes to fill air receiver from empty condition. 39. A two stage air compressor receives 0.20 m3/sec of air at 103 KPa and 27 C and discharges it at 828.5 KPa. All clearances are 3.5%. The compression and expansion processes on both cylinders is polytropic with n = 1.35. Determine: a)the ideal intercooler pressure in KPa b) the minimum power required in KW c) the displacement volume of each cylinder in m3/min d) the LP and HP cylinder dimensions if the compressor operates at 205 RPM and L/D = 1.2 for both cylinder e) the cooling water required in the intercooler for perfect inter- cooling assuming 10 C temperature rise in cooling water. f) the percentage of the work saved for single stage compression to the same pressure. 40. A natural pipeline distributes gas through the country, pumped by a large gas-turbine driven centrifugal compressors. Assume that the natural gas is methane, the pipe diameter is0.2m and the gas enters the compressor at 300 K and 105 KPa. the velocity of the methane entering the compressor is 4 m/sec. The compression process is isentropic and the discharge pressure is 700 KPa. Determine: a) the discharge temperature (475.7 K) b) the mass flow rate in kg/sec ( .085 kg/sec) c) the power required in KW (32 KW) For Methane: R = 0.5183 KJ/kg-K ; k = 1.321 41. A 2 stage, double acting air compressor, operates at 150 RPM. The conditions of the air at the beginning of compression are P1 = 97.9 KPa and t1 = 27 C. The LP cylinder with a bore and stroke of 35.5 cm x 38.1 cm discharges the air at 379 KPa into the intercooler. The air in the intercooler suffers a 17.2 KPa pressure drop and enters the HP cylinder at 29 C. the discharge pressure from the compressor is 2000 KPa. Compression and expansion process in both cyclinders are PV1.3 = C. The surrounding are at 100 KPa and 20 C. The percent clearance of each cylinder is 5%. Determine: a) the free air capacity in m3/sec ( 0.164) b) the heat loss in the intercooler in KJ/min (1270) c) the total power required in KW (62 KW) d) the optimum interstage pressure in KPa. ( 442.5) e) the diameter of the HP piston if the stroke is the same as the LP piston (19 cm) f) the heat loss in the LP and the high pressure compression processes.(Q1 = 308 KW; Q2 408 KW) 42. There are compress 0.2 m3/sec 0f air from 103 KPa, 27 C to 828 KPa. All clearances are 8%. a) Find the isentropic power and piston displacement required for a single stage compression b) Using the same data, find the minimum ideal power for 2-stage compression when the intercooler cools the air to the initial temperature. c) Find the displacement of each cylinder for the conditions of part (b). d) How mush heat is exchanged in the intercooler. e) For a compressor efficiency of 78%, what driving motor output is required for 2-stage compression. 43. A single cylinder, double acting air compressor running at 200 RPM has a piston speed of 183 m/min. It compresses 27 kg/min of air from 97 KPa and 16 C to 654 KPa. Clearance is 5.5%. For isentropic compression, Find: a) the volumetric efficiency (84%) b) the piston displacement in m3/min ( 28 cu.m./min) c) the work in KW ( 96 KW) d) the mean effective pressure in KPa (207 Kpa) e) the bore and stroke of the compressor in cm. (D=44 cm;L=46 cm) FANS Fan is a machine used to add energy to the gaseous fluid to increase its pressure. Fans are used where low pressures (from a few mm of water to 50 mm Hg or 6.70KPa) and comparatively large volume are required. They run at relatively low speed, the casing and impeller usually built of sheet iron. FAN TYPES 1) AXIAL FLOW FANS - the flow of the gases is parallel to the fan shaft. a. tube axial b. vane axial c. Propeller 2) RADIAL OR CENTRIFUGAL FLOW FANS- the flow of gases depends upon the centrifugal action of the impeller or rotor. a. Straight blades b. Forward curved blades c. Backward curved blades d. Double curved blades COMMON USES OF FANS 1. Ventilation and air conditioning 2. Forced and induced draft service for boilers 3. Dust collection 4. Drying and cooling of materials 5. Cooling towers 6. Mine and tunnel ventilation 7. Pneumatic conveying and other industrial process work AIR FLOW MEASUREMENT Static pressure Static pressure is the potential energy put into the system by the fan. It is given up to friction in the ducts and at the duct inlet as it is converted to velocity pressure. At the inlet to the duct, the static pressure produces an area of low pressure (see Figure 5.15). Velocity pressure Velocity pressure is the pressure along the line of the flow that results from the air flowing through the duct. The velocity pressure is used to calculate air velocity. Total pressure Total pressure is the sum of the static and velocity pressure. Velocity pressure and static pressure can change as the air flows though different size ducts accelerating and de-accelerating the velocity. The total pressure stays constant, changing only with friction losses. The illustration that follows shows how the total pressure changes in a system. The fan flow is measured using pitot tube manometer combination, or a flow sensor (differential pressure instrument) or an accurate anemometer. Care needs to be taken regarding number of traverse points, straight length section (to avoid turbulent flow regimes of measurement) up stream and downstream of measurement location. The measurements can be on the suction or discharge side of the fan and preferably both where feasible. MEASUREMENT BY PITOT TUBE The Figure 5.16 shows how velocity pressure is measured using a pitot tube and a manometer. Total pressure is measured using the inner tube of pitot tube and static pressure is measured using the outer tube of pitot tube. When the inner and outer tube ends are connected to a manometer, we get the velocity pressure. For measuring low velocities, it is preferable to use an inclined tube manometer instead of U tube manometer. HEAD CALCULATIONS Note: Usually Fans are designed to overcome fluid friction (No cooling system required). (Q = 0) W (Fan Work or Power) P2 P1 m m v2 v1 P P v v h m of gas 2g 2 2 2 1 2 1 a) For fans installed with both suction and discharge duct P E z 0 h Q 0 0 P2 P 1 hs P2 hv v2 h hs v2 P 1 v1 2g 2 hv v1 2g 2 2 S tatic m of g as He ad 2 m V e lo c ity of g as He ad b) For fans installed with only a suction duct, P2 = 0 gage P1 v 2 v1 h 2g 2 2 m of gas c) For fans installed with only a discharge duct, P1 = 0 gage and v1 = 0. 2 P v h 2 2 2g m of gas hs - static head at which a fan operates, m of gas hv - velocity head at which a fan operates, m of gas h - total head added to the fluid, m of gas h = hS + hV m of gas HEAD CONVERSION hwater gashgas water gashgas water m of water where h refers to h, hs or hv h tw hsw h vw Where h - stands for ,total head, static head or velocity head w - refers to water; g - refers to gas FAN POWER FP Qhtw KW Where Q – capacity of fan in m3/sec - specific weight of water (Gage Fluid) in KN/m3 htw – total head in m of water STATIC POWER: Part of the total Fan Power that is used to produced the change in static head. SP Qhsw KW where Q - capacity in m3/sec w - specific weight of water (gage fluid) in KN/m3 htw - total head in m of WG hsw - static head in m of WG FP - total fan power in KW SP - Static power in KW FAN EFFICIENCY Fan Power x 100% Brake or Shaft Power FP e fan X % BP e fan STATIC EFICIENCY Static Power x 100% Brake or Shaft Power SP e Static X% BP e Static Where BP - Brake or shaft power in KW MOTOR EFFICIENCY Brake or Shaft Power x 100% Motor Power BP eMotor X% MP eMotor MOTOR POWER: (For motor driven Fan) a. For Single Phase Motor EI (Power Factor) KW 1000 where MP E - Volts I - Current Amperes PF - Power Factor b. For 3 – Phase Motor MP SPECIFIC FAN POWER 3 EI (Power Factor) KW 1000 AFFINITY LAWS FOR FANS A. Variation in speed and impeller diameter Q ND3 H N2D2 B. Variation in impeller Speed Q N ; H N2 ; Power N3 C. Variation in impeller size; Tip speed = C ; = C and same proportions; H = C Q D2 ; Power N2 ; N 1/D D. Variation in impeller size; N = C; = C ; Same proportions Q D3 ; Power D5 ; H D2 ; Tip Speed D E. Variation in density; Q = C; N =C; D = C; system = C H ; Power F. Variation in Density; D = C; H = C 1 Q ρ Power 1 N ρ 1 ρ G. Variation in density; m = C;D = C; system = C Q 1 1 1 ; H ; N ; ρ ρ ρ Power COMMON LAWS FOR ACTUAL FAN APPLICATION A. Variation in speed and constant impeller diameter Q 2 N2 Q1 N1 h 2 N2 h1 N1 2 Power2 N2 Power1 N1 3 B. Variation in impeller Diameter and Constant Speed Q2 D2 Q1 D1 h2 D2 h1 D1 2 Power2 D2 Power1 D1 3 1 ρ2 SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. Find the air power of an industrial fan that delivers 25 m3/sec of air through a duct 90 cm x 120 cm outlet. Static pressure is 127 mm WG. Air temperature is 21C and barometric pressure is 760 mm Hg. A 0.90(1.20) 1.08 m2 v Q m 23.15 A sec v2 hva 27.31m of air 2g kg ρ w 1000 3 m P kg ρ air 1 .2 3 RT m h (ρ ) h vw va air 0.03 m of H2O ρ water h tw hsw h vw 0.16 m of WG FP Q( γ w ater )h tw 39.2 KW 2. 3. A fan filled with only a discharge duct delivers 2400 m3/min of standard air against a total pressure of 10.8 cm of WG when the static pressure is 10.2 cm WG. The temperature of the gage fluid is 40 C ( = 992.26 kg/m3). The fan receives a 60 KW input. Find the fan efficiency. (70%) A large centrifugal fan handles 7.5 m3/sec of air from 100 KPa and with an initial velocity of 110 m/sec to discharge pressure. the velocity at exit is 90 m/sec and the pressure ratio is 3:1. The fan efficiency is 80%. For a gage fluid density of 996 kg/m3, determine the brake power required in KW. (Pair = 100 KPa ; tair = 21 C) m3 sec m m v 1 110 ; v 2 90 sec sec Q 7 .5 v v1 hva 2 203.87 m of air 2g P kg kg ρ air 1.19 3 ; ρ w ater 992.96 3 RT m m 992.96(9.81) KN γ w ater 9.77 3 1000 m h ρ hvw va air -0.24 m WG ρ w ater 2 2 P1 100 KPa P2 3 P1 P2 300 KPa hsw P2 - P1 20.47 m WG γ w ater htw 20.23 m WG Fan Power Qγ w aterhtw 1,482.22 Fan Power x100% Brake Power Brake Power 1,852.8 eFan 4. A fan operating with standard air and a system with fixed ducts gives the following performance data: Q = 8.5 m 3/sec; hsw = 5 cm; N = 583 RPM; BP =6 KW. The fan is to be used with the system unchanged and is to handle the same rated weight of air when it exists at a temperature of 82C and Pa = 759 mm Hg. Find the necessary performance data under the required conditions of operation. m3 sec hs1 5 cm 0.05 m Q1 8.5 Q 1 ρ H N1 583 RM N 1 ρ Power BP1 6 KW For standard air P 101.325 KPa T 21 273 294K kg m3 at T 82 273 355K ρ 21 C 1.2 P 759 mm Hg 101.2 KPa ρ 82C 0.99 kg m3 1 ρ Q 2 = 10.3 m3/sec N2 = 707 RPM h sw 2 = 6.06 cm WG BP2 = 8.82 KW 1 ρ2 A fan filled with only a discharge duct delivers 2400 m3/min of standard air against a total pressure of 10.8 cm of WG when the static pressure is 10.2 cm WG. The temperature of the gage fluid is 40 C ( = 992.26 kg/m3). The fan receives a 60 KW input. Find the fan efficiency. (70%) 6. An induced draft fan handles 1700 m3/min of flue gas at apparent molecular weight of 30 from a boiler at 260 C against a static pressure of 10.2 cm WG. The discharge duct has an area of 2.8 m 2 and a total fan efficiency of 65%. Determine the power required to drive the fan. (45KW) 7. Compute the required motor capacity needed for the forced draft fan under the following conditions: Coal rate - 10 metric tons /hr Coal analysis: C = 78%;H2 = 3%;O2 = 3% ;S = 1% ;M = 7%; A= 8% Excess air = 30% Plenum chamber pressure = 18 cm H2O Atmospheric condition - P = 101.325 KPa ; t = 21 C Mechanical efficiency = 60% ( BP = 87 KW) 8. Air enters a fan through a duct at a velocity of 6.3 m/sec and an inlet static pressure of 2.5 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure. The air leaves the fan through a duct at a velocity of 11.25 m/sec and a discharge static pressure of 7.62 cm of water above the atmospheric pressure. If the density of the air is 1.20 kg/m 3 and the fan delivers 9.45 m3/sec, what is the fan efficiency when the power input to the fan is 13.75 KW at the coupling? (71.81%) 9. Find the motor size needed to provide the FD fan service to a boiler that burns coal at the rate of 10 Metric Tons per hour. The air requirements are 28 m3/sec air is being provided under 15.24 cm WG by the fan which has a mechanical efficiency of 60%. Assume fan to deliver at a total pressure of 15.24 cm WG. 10. A fan with the inlet open to the atmosphere delivers 1.5 m3/sec of air at a static pressure of 5.1 cm WG through a duct 28 cm in diameter, the manometer being attached to the discharge duct at the fan. Air temperature is 21C and the barometer pressure is 767 mm Hg. Calculate the brake power of the drive motor if the efficiency is 65%. 11. A certain fan delivers 340 m3/min of air at a static pressure of 25.4 mm WG when operating at a speed of 400 RPM and requires an input of 3 KW. If in the same installation 425 m3/min of air are desired, what will be the new Q, hsw and Fan power required? (40 mm WG;500 RPM;6 KW ) 10. A certain fan delivers 6 m3/sec of air at 21 C and normal barometric pressure at a static pressure of 2.5 cm WG when operating at 400 RPM and requires 3 KW input. If the air temperature is increased to 93 C and the speed of the fan remains the same, what will be the new static pressure and power. ( 2.05 cm WG; 2.5 KW ) 11. A certain fan delivers 6 cu.m./sec at 21 C and normal barometric pressure at a static pressure of 3 cm WG when operating at 400 RPM and requires 3 KW. If the speed of the fan is increased so as to produce 3 cm WG static pressure at 93 C, what will be the new capacity, speed and power needs? (450 RPM; 6.4 m3/sec; 3.4 KW) 12. If the speed of the fan of (8) is increased so as to deliver the same weight of air at 93 C as at 21 C, what will be the new speed;new capacity; new static pressure and new power? (498 RPM; 7 m3/sec; 3.2 cm; 5 KW) 13. Two forced draft fans in parallel with a capacity of 73 m3/sec each supplying combustion air to a steam generator. Air inlet is at 45C, a static pressure of 26 cm WG is developed and the fan speed is 1200 RPM. If the fan input is 3 KW, determine the static efficiency; capacity; head and power requirements for a speed increase of 20%. (71%; 90 m 3/sec;370 RPM; 450 KW) 14. A fan discharges 5 m3/sec of air through a duct 90 cm in diameter against a static pressure of 22 mm WG. The gage fluid density is 995 kg/m3, the air temperature is 30 C and the barometric pressure is 730 mm Hg. If the power input to the fan is measured as 3 KW, what is the overall and static efficiency of the fan. (41%; 38%) 15. A fan manufacturer rates his fan at 12 cm of water static pressure for 3 m3/sec of 21C air, 1500 RPM, 760 mm Hg barometric pressure, 71% static efficiency. What will be the flow, static pressure, and brake power at 95 C air and 660 mm Hg barometric pressure. (4 m3/sec; 12 cm of water; 6 KW) 16. A fan manufacturer rates his fan at 15.2 cm WG static pressure for 10 m3/sec of 21C air at 1200 RPM and static efficiency of 69%. At what speed should this fan operate to developed 13 cm WG static pressure when the temperature is 316C. Also find the capacity and brake power at this temperature. ( 1571 RPM; 13.1 m3/sec; 24.2 KW) 17. A fan is driven by a belt and pulley so that its speed can be changed by changing the pulley diameter. The fan is rated at 4 m3/sec and 127 mm WG static pressure for 1700 RPM and 15.56C. The static efficiency is 73%. What is the maximum speed at which the fan can operate without overloading a 7.46 KW motor if the temperature is 93 C. (1895 RPM) 18. A fan whose static efficiency is 40% has a capacity of0.47 m 3/sec at 15.56 C and barometer of 762 mm Hg and gives a static pressure of 5.081 cm of WG on full delivery. What size of electric motor should be used to drive this fan? ( 0.784 HP) 19. A fan discharges 5 m3/sec through a duct 90 cm in diameter against a static pressure of 20 mm WG. The gage fluid density is 995 kg/cu.m. The air temperature is 30 C and the barometric pressure is 730 mm Hg. If the power input to the fan is measured to be 3 KW, what is the overall efficiency of the fan. (38.3) 20. A certain fan delivers 6 cu.m./sec at a static pressure of 25 mm WG when operating at a speed of 400 RPM and requires an input of 3 KW. If in the same installation 7 cu.m./sec are desired, what will be the power input required in KW. (4.8) 21. What capacity would you recommend for a forced draft fan to be used with a boiler operating under the following conditions: Maximum boiler rating = 137 000 kg/hr Steam pressure = 6 MPa Steam temperature = 480 C Feedwater temperature = 150 C Boiler efficiency = 90% Ambient air temperature = 38 C Flue gas exit temperature = 150C Assume 15% excess air is required for combustion. Heating value of fuel is equal to 43 000 KJ/kg. Allow 20% excess capacity to cover air leakages and slagging. The ultimate analysis of the fuel are: C = 83%; H = 12.7%; O = 1.2%; N = 1.6%; S = 0.4%; M = 1%; Ash= 1%. 5. 21.A fan operating with standard air and a system with fixed ducts gives the following performance data: Q = 8.5 m3/sec; hsw = 5 cm; N = 583 RPM; BP =6 KW. The fan is to be used with the system unchanged and is to handle the same rated weight of air when it exists at a temperature of 82 C and Pa = 759 mm Hg. Fin the necessary performance data under the required conditions of operation. (10.3 m3/sec; 707 RPM; 8.82 KW) BLOWERS Blower is a machine used to compressed air or gas by centrifugal force to a final pressure not exceeding 241 KPa gage. Usually blower has no cooling system or it is not water cooled. COMPRESSION OF GASES The design of blower is usually based upon either an adiabatic or isothermal compression. A. Isothermal Compression (PV = C) or (T1 = T2 = T) W (Work/Power of Blower P P2 T2 P1 T1 P2 m m P1 V1 P2 V2 T1 T2 P W P1 V1 ln 2 P1 V1 Q P Wc P1 Q ln 2 P1 P1 Q mRT W QH H IsothermalHead g 1000 P RT Pg (1000)RT P1 g P H P1Q ln 2 Q P1 (1000)RT1 H (1000)RT1 P2 ln meters g P1 2 W VdP PV C P1 1 V B. Isentropic Compression (PVk = C; 0r S = C) P1 V1k P2 V2k T2 P2 T1 P1 k 1 k Q 0 W Q h KE PE W VdP KE PE For a compressor work is done on the system;let - W Wc Wc Ideal compressor work/Power W WC h Q KE PE W WC VdP KE PE k 1 kP1 V1 P2 k VdP k 1 P1 1 KW v 2 2 v 12 KE KW 2(1000) mgz2 z1 PE KW 1000 k 1 kP1 V1 P2 k 1 KE PE Wc k 1 P1 If KE & PE are negligible k 1 kP1 V1 P2 k 1 Wc k 1 P1 P1 V1 mRT1 Q0 k 1 kP1 V1 P2 k 1 QH Wc k 1 P1 V1 Q P1 g (1000)RT1 k 1 P1 g kP1Q P2 k H 1 Q k 1 P1 (1000)RT1 k 1 1000kRT1 P2 k 1 Adiabatic Head H g(k 1) P1 EFFICIENCY A. Adiabatic Efficiency Isentropic Work x 100% Actual Work B. Isothermal efficiency ek eI IsothermalWork x 100% Actual Work RATIO OF THE ADIABATIC TEMPERATURE RISE TO THE ACTUAL TEMPERATURE RISE Y P K 1K 2 T1 1 P1 T T ' 2 1 RELATIONSHIP FOR CORRECTING PERFORMANCE CURVES 1. Volume Flow Q B NB Q A NA 2. Weight Flow m B NB P1B T1A m A N A P1A T1B 3. Pressure Ratio P K 1K 2 1 P1 4. Head 2 NB T1A N T P K 1K A 1B 2 1 P1 A P2 rp (pressureratio) P1 B HB NB2 2 HA NA 5. Brake Power 3 BPB NB P1B T1A BPA N A P1A T1B P K 1K 2 1 P1 BPB P1B Q B B K 1 BPA P1A Q A P K 2 1 P1 A 1 - suction 2 - discharge A - 1st condition B - 2nd condition R - gas constant, KJ/kg-K P - absolute pressure in KPa - density, kg/m3 T - absolute temperature, K - specific weight, KN/m3 Q - capacity, m3/sec BP - brake power, KW N - speed, RPM W - work, KW m - mass flow rate, kg/sec H - head, m PREPARED BY: YURI G. MELLIZA SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. A radial type Boeing 747 blower is designed to deliver 1.3 m3/sec of air at a pressure of 107 KPa when operating at an altitude of 4000 m where the temperature is – 10 C and thepressure is 60 KPa. It rotates at 18 000 RPM and is to have an adiabatic efficiency of 72%. It is to be tested at sea level ( P= 101 KPa and t = 21 C) at a speed of 14 000 RPM.Assuming that the efficiency at the design point does not change, determine for thedesign under test conditions the power required to drive it in KW. ( 61 KW) 2. A blower compresses 0.02 m3/sec of gaseous mixture that has the following volumetric analysis: CO2 = 11% ; O2 = 8% ; CO = 1% ; N2 = 80% ; from 101 Kpa and 27 C to 180 KPa. Assuming the compression to be isentropic, find the work in KW. For CO2 : For O2 : For CO: For N2 : M =44 M = 32 M = 28 M = 28 K = 1.288 K = 1.295 K = 1.399 K = 1.399 ANSWER: W = 1.3 KW 3. It requires 41 KW to compress 28 m3/min of air at 15.56C and 101.325 KPa to a pressure of 69 KPag. The temperature of the air leaving the blower is 85C. a) what is the flow in m3/min from the blower discharge? (20.654 m3/min) b) What is the head of the blower in meters on an adiabatic basis. (4727 m) c) What is the head of the blower in meters on an isothermal basis. (4385 m) d) What is the value of n for the compression. ( n = 1.709) e) What power would be required if the compression were adiabatic. (26.5 KW) f) What power would be required if the compression were isothermal. (24.56 KW) g) What is the adiabatic efficiency. (64.6%) h) What is the isothermal efficiency. (60%) i) What is the adiabatic temperature rise ratio. (0.665) 4. (A) A blower operating at 15000 RPM compresses air from 20C and 101.325 KPa to 69 KPag. The design flow is 38.3 m3/min and at this point the brake power is 60 KW. Determine the efficiency of the blower at the design point. (60.4%) (B) If the discharge pressure of the blower is increased to 83 KPag, find the new speed and the corresponding values of Q and Brake power. (16 379 RPM; 41.8 m3/min; 78.12 KW) (C) If the suction of the blower is throttled to 83 KPa, determine the head and the discharge pressure in KPag, the flow (referred to 20C and 101.325 KPa) and the brake power. (4799.4 m; 38.195 KPag; 31.4 m 3/min; 49.15 KW) (D) If the temperature at the inlet of the blower is reduced to 5C, determine the head, discharge pressure in KPag, the flow (referred to 20C and 101.325 KPa) and the brake power. 5. A booster blower takes 340 m3/min of natural gas having a volumetric chemical composition of 15% C 2H6 and 85% CH4 at a gage pressure of 13.8 KPa and a temperature of 21C and compresses it to 63 KPagage. What power is required if the adiabatic efficiency of the blower is 60%. (BP = 445.2 KW) For C2H6: M = 30; Cp = 1.7549 KJ/kg-K; Cv = 1.4782 KJ/kg-K For CH4: M = 16; Cp = 2.1377 KJ/kg-K; Cv = 1.6187 KJ/kg-K 6. A two stage radial type airplane supercharger is designed to deliver 80 kg of air per minute at a pressure of 107 KPa when operating at an altitude of 6000 m where the temperature is -20C and the pressure is 46 KPa. It rotates at 20,000 RPM and is to have an adiabatic efficiency of 70%. It is to be tested at sea level ( P = 101.325 KPa; t = 21C) at a speed of 12,000 RPM. Assuming that the efficiency at the design point does not change, determine for the design point under test conditions: a) the cu. m. of air taken in per minute b) the discharge pressure in KPa c) the brake power required for driving 7. A blower is design to draw in 0.5 m3/sec of CO2 at 32C and 122 KPa and compresses it to 138 KPa when operating at 4000 RPM. It is to be tested with air at 101 KPa and 21C and driven by a motor running at 3550 RPM. Determine the flow and discharge pressure which the machine should deliver at the design point on test to be acceptable. 8. A large centrifugal fan handles 7.5 m3/sec of air from 100 KPa and with an initial velocity of 110 m/sec to discharge pressure. the velocity at exit is 90 m/sec and the pressure ratio is 3:1. The fan efficiency is 80%. For a gage fluid density of 996 kg/m3, determine the brake power required in KW. 9. A fan operating with standard air and a system with fixed ducts gives the following performance data: Q = 8.5 m3/sec; hsw = 5 cm; N = 583 RPM; BP =6 KW. The fan is to be used with the system unchanged and is to handle the same rated weight of air when it exists at a temperature of 82 C and Pa = 759 mm Hg. Find the necessary performance data under the required conditions of operation. ME 514P Quiz # 1 1. A large centrifugal fan handles 7.5 m3/sec of air from 100 KPa and with an initial velocity of 110 m/sec to discharge pressure. the velocity at exit is 90 m/sec and the pressure ratio is 3:1. The fan efficiency is 80%. For a gage fluid density of 996 kg/m3, determine the brake power required in KW. 2. A fan operating with standard air and a system with fixed ducts gives the following performance data: Q = 8.5 m3/sec; hsw = 5 cm; N = 583 RPM; BP =6 KW. The fan is to be used with the system unchanged and is to handle the same rated weight of air when it exists at a temperature of 82 C and Pa = 759 mm Hg. Find the necessary performance data under the required conditions of operation. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------#1: Q = 7.5 m3/sec P1 = 100 KPa v1 = 110 m/sec v2 = 90 m/sec rp = 3:1 F = 0.80 w = 996 kg/m3 P2 = 100(3) = 300 KPa w = 996(9.81)/1000 = 9.77 KN/m3 a = 1.2 kg/m3 a = 11.772 x 10-3 KN/m3 #2: Given: Q1 = 8.5 m3/sec hsw1 = 5 cm WG BP1 = 6 KW 1 ρ 1 N ρ Q H 1 ρ Power 1 ρ2 For standard air: P = 101.325 KPa ; t = 21 C ; 21 = 1.2 kg/m3 P = 759 mm Hg = 101.2 KPa 82 = 0.99 kg/m3 Q2 = 10.3 m3/sec N2 = 707 RPM hsw2 =6.06 cm WG BP2 = 8.82 KW A radial type Boeing 747 blower is designed to deliver 1.3 m3/sec of air at a pressure of 107 KPa when operating at an altitude of 4000 m where the temperature is – 10 C and the pressure is 60 KPa. It rotates at 18 000 RPM and is to have an adiabatic efficiency of 72%. It is to be tested at sea level ( P= 101 KPa and t = 21 C) at a speed of 14 000 RPM. Assuming that the efficiency at the design point does not change, determine for the design under test conditions the power required to drive it in KW. ( 61 KW) Solution: Condition A: k = 0.72 K 1 Q = 1.3 m3/sec B: Condition kP1Q P2 P1 =K 101 KPa P1 = 60 KPa WA 1 h = 4000 m P1 T1 = 294 K k 1 T1 = 263 K N = 14000 R P2 = 107 KPa WA 49 KW N = 18000 RPM BPA 49 68 KW 0.72 INDUSTRIAL PLANT DESIGN 1. A fan discharges 5 m3/sec of air through a duct 90 cm in diameter against a static pressure of 22 mm WG. The gage fluid density is 995 kg/m 3, the air temperature is 30 C and the barometric pressure is 730 mm Hg. If the power input to the fan is measured as 3 KW, what is the overall and static efficiency of the fan. (41%; 38%) 2. A fan manufacturer rates his fan at 12 cm of water static pressure for 3 m 3/sec of 21C air, 1500 RPM, 760 mm Hg barometric pressure, 71% static efficiency. What will be the flow, static pressure, and brake power at 95 C air and 660 mm Hg barometric pressure. (4 m3//sec; 12 cm of water; 6 KW) 3. A fan manufacturer rates his fan at 15.2 cm WG static pressure for 10 m 3/sec of 21C air at 1200 RPM and static efficiency of 69%. At what speed should this fan operate to developed 13 cm WG static pressure when the temperature is 316C. Also find the capacity and brake power at this temperature. ( 1571 RPM; 13.1 m3/sec; 24.2 KW) 4. A fan is driven by a belt and pulley so that its speed can be changed by changing the pulley diameter. The fan is rated at 4 m3/sec and 127 mm WG static pressure for 1700 RPM and 15.56 C. The static efficiency is 73%.What is the maximum speed at which the fan can operate without overloading a 7.46 KW motor if the temperature is 93 C. (1895 RPM) 5. A 2-stage, double acting air compressor 41cm and 25cm bore x 18 cm running 600 RPM has a free air unloader at each end for capacity control. It is driven by a 150 HP motor, 460V, 3 phase, 60 hertz, 1175 RPM thru superhigh capacity V-belts at sea level installation. P1 = 101 KPa and P4= 984 KPa, calculate the power assuming the LP cylinder discharges the air to the ideal pressure and intercooler cools the air to the initial temperature of 21 C. 6. A single acting compressor has a volumetric efficiency of 87% operates at 500 RPM. It takes in air at 100 KPa and 30 C and discharges it to 600 KPa. The air handled is 6 m3/min measured at discharge condition. If compression and expansion processes are isentropic , find the piston displacement per stroke. 7. A double acting, 2 stage air compressor running at 150 RPM has a suction pressure and temperature of 100 KPa and 27 C, respectively. The low pressure cylinder is 36 cm x 38 cm and connected in tandem to the high pressure cylinder. The LP cylinder discharges the air at 386 KPa. The intercooler cools back the air to its initial temperature and the air enters the HP cylinder at 370 KPa and leaves at 1 480 KPa. Both LP and HP cylinders have 4% clearance and compression follows PV1.3= C. Neglect effect of piston rods. Standard air is at 101 KPa and 16 C. Determine: a) the volume of free air based on apparent volumetric efficiency b) the heat removed by cooling water in the intercooler ( 24 KW) c) the diameter of the HP cylinder in cm (19 cm) d) the power required to drive the compressor if the aggregate losses is 20 % of the power of the conventional diagram. (72 KW) 8. A turbine driven compressor handles 10 kg/sec of air from 100 KPa to 600 KPa with an inlet temperature of 300 K and a discharge temperature of 530 K. The inlet tubing has a 0.5 m inside diameter and the discharge piping a 0.20 m diameter. The compression is adiabatic. Determine: a) the air inlet and exit velocities in m/sec b) the isentropic compression efficiency c) the power required in KW 9. A single cylinder, double acting air compressor running at 200 RPM has a piston speed of 183 m/min. It compresses 27 kg/min of air from 97 KPa and 16 C to 654 KPa. Clearance is 5.5%. For isentropic compression, Find: a) the volumetric efficiency (84%) b) the piston displacement in m3/min ( 28 cu.m./min) c) the work in KW ( 96 KW) d) the mean effective pressure in KPa (207 Kpa) e) the bore and stroke of the compressor in cm. (D=44 cm;L=46 cm) 10. An atmospheric cooling tower has an efficiency of 50% when handling 4 L/s of water. It is connected to the water cooling system of an engine developing 56 KW. If the wet bulb temperature is 21 C, what are the temperature of the water entering and leaving the cooling tower. Heating value of fuel is 43 000 KJ/kg, fuel consumption is 0.24 kg/KW-hr, 1 27 % of total heat value of fuel goes to jacket water. Assume no heat loss in connections. ( 27C; 24C) 11. A cooling tower receives 3.2 L/sec of water at 46 C. Atmospheric air at 16C DB and 55% RH enters the tower at 3 m3/sec and leaves at 32 C saturated. Determine: a) the volume of water leaving the tower in L/sec ( 3.07 L/sec) b) exit temperature of water in C. (25 C) 12. A cooling tower receives 6 kg/sec of water at 60 C. Air enters the tower at 32C DB and 27 C WB temperature and leaves at 50 C and 90% RH.The coolingtower efficiency is 61% and make up water is available at 30C. Determine: a) the mass flow of air entering ( 3.41 kg/sec) b) the quantity of make up water required ( 0.191 kg/sec) 13. It is desired to designed a drying plant to have a capacity of 680 kg/hr of product 3.5% moisture content from a wet feed containing 42% moisture. Fresh air at 27C with 40% RH will be preheated to 93 C before entering the dryer and will leave the dryer with the same temperature but with a 60% RH. Find: a) the amount of air to dryer in m3/sec ( 0.25) b) the heat supplied to the preheater in KW (16) At 27 C DB and 40% RH At 93 C and W = .0089 kgm/kgda W = .0089 kgm/kgda h = 117.22 KJ/kgda h = 49.8 KJ/kgda = 1.05 m3/kgda At 93 C and 60% RH W = 0.54 kgm/kgda h = 1538.94 KJ/kgda 14. A 400 kg/hr of ceramic powder is to be produced. The powder has a specific heat of 0.921 KJ/kg-C and a density of 1568 kg/m3. Initial moisture content is 19% and final moisture content is 5%. A continuous belt dryer is used. the drying time is 45 minutes at 71C DB and 38C WB. Product temperature is 38 C. Compute: a) the weight of moisture to be removed and weight of material entering the dryer b) the weight of air required in kg/hr if make up air is at 27C DB and W = 0.0168 kgm/kgda. c) heat required by the dryer 15. A rotary dryer is fired with bunker oil of 41 870 KJ/kg HHV is to produce 20 metric tons per hour of dried sand with 0.5% moisture from a wet feed containing 7% moisture, specific heat of sand is 0.879 KJ/kg-C, temperature of wet feed is 30 C and temperature of dried product is 115 C. a) Calculate the kg/hr of wet feed b) Calculate the kg/hr of moisture removed from sand c) Calculate the heat in KJ/hr required d) Calculate the L/hr of bunker oil consumed if the specific gravity of bunker oil is 0.90 and dryer efficiency of 60% 16. An industrial furnace needs an actual draft of 64 mm of water column. The frictional losses in the stack or chimney are 15% of the theoretical draft. Assume that the flue gas average temperature is 149C with average molecular weight of 30. Outside air temperature is 10C and barometer reading of 759.5 mm Hg, calculate the height of the stack or chimney in meters. a) 196 b) 96 c) 106 d) 276 17. A blower is designed to draw in 0.5 m3/sec of CO2 at 32 C and 122 KPa and compress it to 136 KPa when operating at 4000 RPM. It is to be tested with air at 101 KPa and 21 C and driven by a motor running at 3550 RPM. Determine the flow and discharge pressure which the machine should deliver at the design point on test to be acceptable. For CO2: R = 44 k = 1.288 2 ME 514P Semi Final Exam 1. A certain fan delivers 6 cu.m./sec at 21 C and normal barometric pressure at a static pressure of 3 cm WG when operating at 400 RPM and requires 3 KW. If the speed of the fan is increased so as to produce 3 cm WG static pressure at 93 C, what will be the new capacity, speed and power needs? 2. If the speed of the fan of (1) is increased so as to deliver the same weight of air at 93 C as at 21 C, what will be the new speed; new capacity; new static pressure and new power? 3. A single cylinder, double acting air compressor running at 200 RPM has a piston speed of 183 m/min. It compresses 27 kg/min of air from 97 KPa and 16 C to 654 KPa. Clearance is 5.5%. For isentropic compression, Find: a) the volumetric efficiency b) the piston displacement in m3/min c) the work in KW d) the mean effective pressure in KPa e) the bore and stroke of the compressor in cm. 4. A two stage, reciprocating air compressor is required to deliver 0.70 kg/sec of air from 986 KPa and 32 C to 1276 KPa. The compressor operates at 205 RPM , compression and expansion processes follow PV1.25 = C, and both cylinders have 3.5% clearance. There is a 20 KPa pressure drop in the intercooler. The LP cylinder discharges at the optimum pressure into the intercooler. The air enters the HP cylinder at 37 C. The intercooler is water cooled, with the water entering at 22 C and leaving at 32 C. Determine: a) the free air capacity in m3/sec b) the LP and HP discharge temperature c) the optimum interstage pressure d) the cooling water required for the intercooler in kg/sec e) the theoretical power required in KW f) the LP cylinder dimensions if L/D = 0.70 g) the motor requirements in KW, if the adiabatic compression efficiency is 83% and mechanical efficiency is 85%. PREPARED BY: ENGR. YURI G. MELLIZA TO BE CONTINUED………………. 3 4