1 ABE 306: Engineering Economics Credit unit = 2 This lecture note was prepared by Dr. K. O. Yusuf Department Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering, Faculty of Engineering and Technology, University of Ilorin, Ilorin, Nigeria The lecture note is not for sale and should not be converted to textbook by any other person without the consent of Dr. K. O. Yusuf Course outline 1. 2. 3. 4. The nature and scope of economics Basic concepts of engineering economy Interest formulae Discounted cash flow, present worth, equivalent annual growth and rate of return comparisons 5. Replacement analysis 6. Depreciation 7. Breakdown analysis 8. Benefit-cast analysis 9. Minimum acceptable rate of return 10. Judging attractiveness of proposed investment Useful textbooks 1. Mao, K. (2006). Engineering Economics: overview and application in process Engineering industry, 10.490 ICE 2. Newnan, D.G, Erchenbach, T.G and Larella, J.P (2004). Engineering Economics analysis, 9th Edition, Oxford University press, New York. 3. Park, C.S (2007). Contemporary Engineering Economics 4th Edition, Pearson Prentice Hall, Now Jersey. 2 Introduction and definition of Engineering Economics Before starting with Engineering Economics let us look at the definition of Economics so that the knowledge can be applied to Engineering Economics. Economics is a social science which deals with human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means that have alternative uses. Commodities or items are not readily available to meet the demand of man, human’s wants or needs are unlimited and the resources or the money is insufficient to procure the items. Therefore, there is need to prioritize our items according to the way they are needed and usefulness on a list called scale of preference. With this brief definition of Economics and scope of Economics, we can now go to Engineering Economics. Engineering Economics was formerly called Engineering Economy, it deals with methods which are used for justification and selection of project (s) from the available alternatives. Engineering economics can be defined as the application of economic principles to evaluate alternatives by computing the specific measure of value of money (cash flow) or project over a given period of time. In the past, Engineers were concerned mainly with design and fabrication of machines, equipment and tools. Today, Engineers have many challenges confronting them which make design and fabrication difficult. This is so because natural resources and materials for construction are becoming scarce and expensive. The demand for materials and natural resources for engineering work are higher than the available resources and this normally makes cost of production of items higher. Not only that, people are conscious of the negative effects of engineering innovations that normally cause environmental degradation and pollution which could be hazardous to man. Engineers must carry out analysis to know if a particular project is profitable, if there are alternatives, cost of producing the project, choose a project that is more economical, profitable and choose the best alternative for the project from the available alternatives. The basis for selecting alternative(s) could be because of being economical simplicity and other benefits. The focus of Engineering Economics is economic justification and selection of alternative (s) with regards to the project (s), manufacturing, processing and investment. Engineers must carry out analysis before taken decision. Areas where engineering economics decision are needed are as follows: (i) Equipment and project selection (ii) Equipment replacement (iii) New product and product or project expansion 3 (iv) Cost of production (v) Public works (vi) Cost effectiveness of materials and production. Engineering Economic Concepts The basic concept of engineering economics is the principle of time value of money. This means that time value of money is very important concept of engineering economics. Other concepts are: (i) Internal rate of return, interest rate, cash flow, equivalent worth of money and utility. Economic concepts are usually qualitative in nature and not universal in application. Utility: is the power of a goods or service to satisfy human needs (wants). Value: This means the worth that a person attaches to an object or service. It is a measure or appraisal of utility and is not the same as cost or price. Utility goods: This could be as follows: Consumer goods: goods and services that directly satisfy human wants (needs) e.g foods, clothing, TV, houses, shoe and other items. Producer goods: goods and services that satisfy human wants indirectly as part of the production or construction process such as equipment, industrial chemicals and materials. In Engineering Economics, we need to know the following because they are very important before a decision is taken. (i) Time value of money (ii) Estimation of cash flows (iii) Quantitative measurements of profitability (iv) Comparison of alternatives before taken a decision Time value of money Time value of money is the relationship between interest and time. This means that time value of money is characterized by the interest and time. For example P 0 Present P+I=F 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Future 10 years 4 Where: P = present worth (value) of the money, I = interest on money after 10 years and F = Future worth of the money after 10 years. Money has time value because the purchasing power of money changes within short period of time especially naira. Interest: is the amount of money that is charged by financial institution or pay for the use of borrowed capital to finance an enterprise or project over a given period of time. Sources of income or capital for a project The initial capital that can be used to start and finance a project or company can be obtained from the following. (i) Loan from the bank, Loan from cooperative and Contribution Purchasing power of money Price of goods and services can go upward and downward. Therefore, purchasing power of money is not stable or fixed but it changes with time. i. Price reduction: this occurs when there is increase in productivity and availability of goods in the market for sale. ii. Price increase: this occurs due to government policies, price support scheme and deficit financing. Cash flow diagram Cash flow diagrams are the means in form of a diagram for visualizing and simplifying the flow of income (receipt) or expenditure (disbursement) for the acquisition and operation of items in an enterprise. Revenue: is the income or receipt and is represented by upward line arrow or upward pointed arrow. The upward line arrow is called positive cash flow. Disbursement: This is cash out flow and is normally negative cash flow. It is denoted by downward pointed arrow. All disbursement and revenue are assumed to take place at the end of the year in which they occur. This is known as the “End of year convection. Note that expenses incurred before time t equals to zero (t = 0) are sunk costs and are not considered in the analysis. Cash flow: is the sum of money recorded as receipts or disbursements in a project financial records. N1120 N120 N120 N120 N120 N120 Expenses Receipts N1000 5 From the cash flow diagram, the expenses are indicated by the arrows pointing downward while the receipts (income) are denoted by the arrows pointing upward. Time value of money changes and depreciates with time especially Nigerian currency (naira). This means that time affect the worth or value of money. For instance, a TV set bought in 1983 at a rate of N300 may be N30,000 in 2010. Period of interest: is the time frame over which the interest or net return on investment is evaluated. Interest formulae Interest rate formula used is important in economic evaluation of engineering alternatives. Types of Interest Formulae (i) Simple interest (ii) Compound interest Simple interest = I I= πππ 100 P = principal (limited) money, T = time in year, R = interest rate in % I = interest charges at the end of the period Example 1: Mr. Benson borrowed N100,000 at a simple interest of 17% per annum for 2years. Calculate the simple interest on the money borrowed and total amount of money which Mr. Benson will pay at the end of the 2 years. I= I= πππ P = N100,000, T = 2 years, R = 17% 100 100000 π₯ 2 π₯ 17 100 = N34,000 At the end of 2nd year, Mr. Benson will pay N100,000+N34,000 = N134,000 Compound interest Compound interest is the interest which banks normally use to determine their interest. It is based on yearly interest. 6 Use compound interest to solve example 1 Solution P = N100,000, R = 17% T = 2 but for 1 years interval First year I = 100000π₯1π₯17 100 = N17,00 At the end of the first year, the debt = N117,000 and this will be the principal for the second year 2nd year: I = 117000 π₯ 1 π₯ 17 100 = 19,890, I = N19,890 Total debt = N117,000 +19,890 = N136,890 Derivation of a single payment compound interest formula Notations P = present worth=present value, F = future worth, i = interest rate (in fraction) A = Annual worth or Annuity Again, P is also principal T = N = n = time = number of years I = P n αΌ° for the first year First year: P x 1 x αΌ° = PαΌ° F1 = P + PαΌ°, F1 = P(1+αΌ°), now P = F1 For the second year y2 = I = P (1+αΌ°) x 1 x i = P (1+αΌ°) αΌ° ∴F2 = P (1+αΌ°) + P (1+αΌ°) αΌ° F2 = PαΌ° (1+αΌ°) + P (1+αΌ°) (PαΌ°+P)(1+αΌ°) = P (1+αΌ°)(1+αΌ°) = P (1+αΌ°)2 Similarly, F3 = P (1+αΌ°)3 and F4 = (1+αΌ°)4 ∴Fn = P ( + αΌ°)n this is formula is for compound interest. This is simply as F = (1+ αΌ°)n Fn means amount of money to be paid at the end of n-year considered Example 2: Calculate the future worth of N100,000 borrowed from UBA which must be paid back after 2 years with 17% interest rate using compound interest formula. Solution P = N100,000, n = 2 and interest rate of 17% 17 αΌ° =17% = 100 = 0.17 7 F = P(1+ αΌ°)n F = 100,000 (1+0.17)2 = 100000(1.17)2v=136,890 F = N136,890 Class work: if the money is to be paid back at end of 5 years using the interest rate of 17% with P = N100,000. Determine the future worth of the money using: (i) Single payment compound interest formula (ii) Normal compound interest formula (Ans = 219,244.80). Example 3: If future worth of N100,000 is N136,890 after a certain period of time at interest rate of 17%. Calculate the number of years required to achieve it. Fn = N136,890, P = N100,000, αΌ° = 17%, n = ? F = P (1+ αΌ°)n πΉ π = (1+ αΌ°)n take log of both sides πΉ πππ ( ) πΉ π log (1+ αΌ°)n =log (π) n = log(1+αΌ°) πππ n= 10( πππ10 136,890 ) 100,000 = (1+0.17) 0.136371723 0.068185861 n = 2.00000015 = 2 Therefore, n = 2 years Example 4: Dr. Taiye Johnson was given an appointment at the university of Ilorin in 1981 as a lecturer I and his salary was N1350 (when N1 = USD1.50) and interest rate was 17%. Dr. Kehinde Johnson was given the same appointment as a lecturer I in March, 2019 (38 years since 1981) at the University of Ilorin and his salary was N320,000. Determine; (i) The future worth of salary of Dr. Taiye Johnson in 2019 (ii) The difference in salary of Dr Taiye Johnson and Dr. Kehinde Johnson (iii) Who has better salary between Dr Taiye and Dr. Kehinde Johnson (i) Salary of Dr. Taiye Johnson in 1981 = N1350 P = N1350, αΌ° =17% = 0.17, n = 38, F = ? F = P (1+ αΌ°)n F = future worth of the money in 2019 F = 1350 (1+0.17)38 = 1350 (1.17)38 = 1350 (389.998) F = 526,497.3 (ii) = N526,497.30 526,497.30 -320,000.00 = N206,497.30 ∴ The difference = N206,497.30 8 Using USD = 1.5 x 1350 = USD 2025 in 1981 In 2019 when USD1 = N360 2025x360 = N729,000 in 2019 (iii) Dr. Taiye Johnson had a better salary of N1350 in 1981 than Dr. Kehinde Johnson with salary of N320,000 in 2019 Interest factors Interest factor: this is a multiplication factor developed from the interest formula for a given interest rate and period. The factor is used to convert cash flows occurring at different time to a common time. The compound amount factor from the formula is (1 + αΌ°)n but is normally represented by (πΉ⁄π , αΌ°%, n) in which (πΉ⁄π , αΌ°, n) factor can be obtained from the table and then multiply by the value of P to get the future worth (future value) which is denoted by F. (πΉ⁄π , αΌ°, n) is called future worth factor. Again, if future worth sum is known or given at a given rate over a period of time, then, present worth sum (P) could be calculated. The method of inverse of compounding from which present worth sum is calculated when future worth sum is given is called discounting. P = F (1+ αΌ°)-n P=F ∴P = 1 (1+αΌ°π ) where πΉ 1 (1+αΌ°)π is the factor P = F (π⁄πΉ , αΌ°, n) 1+αΌ°π from the table Again, present worth could also be determined when annual worth sum called annuity (A) is given. The formula is given as follow. P= π΄ (1+αΌ°)π −1 αΌ°(1+αΌ°)n A=π( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)n ) (1+αΌ°)π−1 From future worth sum when given annuity or annual worth sum (A) (1+αΌ°)π −1 F = A( αΌ° ) but (πΉ⁄π΄, αΌ°, n ) is called series compound amount factor 9 αΌ° A = πΉ( (1+αΌ°)π −1 ) but (π΄⁄πΉ, αΌ°, n ) is called sinking fund factor which is the reciprocal of series compound amount factor. Summary of formulae for conversion of F to P and A F = π(1 + αΌ°)π − (1): πΉ = π (πΉ⁄π, αΌ°, n ) P= πΉ (1+αΌ°)π __(2): P = πΉ (π⁄πΉ, αΌ°, n ) from the table from the table (1+αΌ°)π −1 P = A( ) _____(3): P = π΄ (π⁄π΄, αΌ°, n ) αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π A = P( ) _____(4): A = P(π΄⁄π, αΌ°, n ) (1+αΌ°)π −1 (1+αΌ°)π −1 F = A( )_____(5): F = A(πΉ⁄π΄, αΌ°, n ) αΌ° αΌ° A = F( π΄ )___(6): A = F(πΉ , αΌ°, π) (1+αΌ°)π −1 Capital recovery factor It is important to be able to relate regular periodic payments to the present worth A=P( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π π΄ ) but this could be obtained from the table as A = P (π , αΌ°, π) (1+αΌ°)π −1 In this equation, the interest expression is called capital recovery factor. This is because the equation defines or gives a regular income that is necessary to recover a capital from an investment but P (π⁄π΄, αΌ°, π) series present worth factor. Gradient. It is occasionally necessary to treat a cash flow which regularly increases or decreases at each period. Such pattern changes in cash flow is called gradient. The gradient may be in constant amount. This means that the gradient could be linear (arithmetic progression) or geometric progression. Arithmetic Gradient A A = Annuity = Annual worth G = Arithmetic Gradient A G A 2G 3G 4G A A Formulae to find A when G is given and to find P when G is given A 10 (1+αΌ°)π −αΌ°π−1 A = G( ) - (7): A = G(π⁄πΊ , αΌ°, π) αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π −αΌ° ο¦ ο¨1 ο« I ο©n ο in ο 1 οΆ ο· - (8) : P = G (P/G, i, n) P ο½ Gο§ο§ n 2 ο· ο¨ i ο¨1 ο« i ο© οΈ Example 1: If N5000 is invested at 12% per annum compound interest in January, 1998, determine the future worth sum of the money in January, 2008 N5000 N =10 0 1 π F = P(1 + αΌ°) = αΌ° = 12% = 0.12 3 2 4 5 6 F = 5000 (1 + 0.12)10 7 8 9 10 αΌ° =12% = 0.12 10 F = 5000 (1.12) = 5000 (3.10584208) = 15,529.4 F=? F = 15, 529.24 = N15,529.24 Using the Table to determine the factor F = P(πΉ⁄π , αΌ°, π) = 5000 (πΉ⁄π , 12% 10) = 5000 (3.1058) F = 15,529 = N15,529 Example 2 Use the value of future worth sum of N15,529.24 with the same interest rate of 12% and 10years to find the present worth sum (P) Solution. This is to move from right to left. P=? 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 αΌ° =12% P= πΉ (1+αΌ°)π = 15529.24 (1+0.12)10 = 0.321973236 P = N4999.9997 ≈ N5,000 From the Table P = F(π⁄πΉ , αΌ°, π) = 15529.24 (π⁄πΉ , 12%, 10) F =N15,529.24 11 P = 15529.24 (0.3220) = 5000.42 P = N5000.42≈N5000 Example 3: Calculate the interest rate that is required on N5000 put in a bank to yield N15,000 in 10 years solution F = N15,000 P = N5000 n = 10 years F = P (πΉ⁄π , αΌ°, π) you can use future worth Table to solve this problem πΉ π = 15000 5000 = 3.0000 Now check πΉ π from the Table at 10 years period where you can get 3.0000 from the Table, 3.0000 is not available. Then, choose 2 values that are close to it and interpolate. Recall that by interpolation, the actual interest rate required would be determined From the Table interpolation 12% =3.1058 αΌ°−11 12−11 = 3.000−2.8394 3.1058−2.8391 αΌ°r =3.0000 11% = 2.8394 αΌ°-11 = αΌ°−11 1 = 0.1606 0.2664 0.1606π₯1 0.2664 0.1606π₯1 αΌ°-11 = 0.2664 =0.602852852 αΌ° =11+ 0.602852852 =11.602852852 Alternatively, F ο½ Pο¨1 ο« i ο© , 15000ο½ 5000ο¨1 ο« i ο© 10 n 1 ο¦ 15000οΆ 10 1ο« i ο½ ο§ ο· =1.1161, i = 1.1161 – 1 = 0.1161 x 100. Therefore, i = 11.6%. ο¨ 5000 οΈ now, let us check if we can get N15,000 F = P (1+ αΌ°)n , P = 5,000, n =10 F = 5000 (1 + αΌ° = value obtained 11.602852852 10 100 ) F=5000 (1.116029)10 =5000 (2.9975) F = 14,987.50 F = N14,987.50 What is the difference between the actual figure of the money and the calculated figure. 12 15,000 - 14,987.50 = N12.50 The error is due to approximation of values from the table Class-work: Calculate the interest rate required on N5,000 that is put in a bank to achieve N15,529.24 in 10 years. Example 4: To calculate present worth sum (P) if the annual worth sum or annuity is N315.45 at interest rate of 10% and in 4 years Solution Recall that A=( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π (1+αΌ°)π −1 ) but P =A ( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π ) (1+αΌ°)π −1 (1+αΌ°)π −1 ∴P = A ( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π ) = A (P/A, i, n) (1+0.10)4 −1 P =315.45 ( N315.45 N315.45 N315.45 N315.45 αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π 10%=0.10, ) 1.4641−1 0.4641 ) = 315.45 (0.14641) 0.1(1.4641) P = 315.45 ( P =315.45 (3.169865446) = 999.9341 ∴ P = N999.93≈N1000 Similarly, if P = N1000, αΌ° =10% and n=4 determine the annual worth sum (annuity) P =N1000 4 years αΌ° =10% A =P ( A A A αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π (1+αΌ°)π −1 ) 0.14641 A= 1000 ( A 0.4641 ) =1000 (0.315470803) A = N315.47 Uniform Gradient series or Arithmetic Gradient P 13 To find P when G is given αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π −1−αΌ°π P=G( αΌ°2 (1+αΌ°)π ) P =G (π⁄πΊ , αΌ°%, π) Note that for uniform gradient series, there is an increment every year with a constant value. To convert a uniform gradient to present worth sum, you need to calculate annuity by converting the annuity to present worth sum as P, and P2 for gradient to present worth sum. Example 1: The yearly payment at the end of 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th year are N1000, N1500, N2000, N2500 and N3000, respectively if the interest rate is 8%, calculate the equivalent present worth of the payment and annual worth of the payment. P O A N1000 N1500 N2000 N2500 N3000 14 P1 P2 + O O N1000 o N1000 A G=500 500 1000 1500 A to P G to P 2000 π P2 = G( ⁄πΊ, 8%, 5) from the table P1 = A(π⁄π΄, 8%, 5) (1+αΌ°)π −1 P1=A( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π ο¦ ο¨1 ο« i ο©n ο 1 ο in οΆ ο· using formula P2 ο½ Gο§ο§ n 2 ο· ο¨ ο© i 1 ο« i ο¨ οΈ ) (1+0.08)5 −1 P1 =1000 ( =1000 ( 1000 ( 0.08(1.08)5 ) ο¦ ο¨1 ο« 0.08ο©5 ο 1 ο 0.08 ο΄ 5 οΆ ο· P2 ο½ 500ο§ο§ 2 5 ο· ο¨ ο© ο¨ ο© 0 . 08 1 ο« 0 . 08 ο¨ οΈ 1.4633− 1 0.11755 ) 0.46933 ) 0.11755 1.46933 P2 = 500( (0.08)5 −1−0.008π₯5 0.06933 1000(3.9926) 500 ( P1=3992.60 500(7.3724) P1=N3992.60 0.0064(1.08)5 0.009404 ) ) P1 = N3,686.20 P= P1+ P2 = N3992.60 + 3,686.20 = 7678.8 ∴ Present worth sum = N7678.80k Similarly from the Table P1=A(π⁄π΄ 8%, 5) +P2=G (π⁄πΊ 8%, 5) 1000 (3.9927) +500 (7.37123) P =3992.70 +3685.65 = N7678.35k ∴The equivalent present worth of the payment = N7678.80k (from calculation without having table to check value of conversion factor) or N7678.35k (from Table). 15 To convert uniform gradient to annual worth use the data provided in example 1 and calculate the annual worth sum of the money and then convert the annual worth sum to present worth sum. By calculation Annual worth sum or annuity (A) A = 1000 +G (π΄⁄πΊ , αΌ°% π) αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π αΌ°π−1 A = 1000 +500 ( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π −1 G = N500 ) By calculation without table (1+αΌ°)π αΌ°π−1 A= G ( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π −1 ) (1.08)5 −0.08π₯5−1 A=1000+500 ( A=1000+500 A=1000+500 0.08(1.08)5 −0.08) ) 1.46933−0.4−1 0.08(1.46933)−0.08 0.06933 0.03755 =1000+500 (1.8463) A=N1923.15k ∴ The annual worth sum for 5year = N1923.15 From table or using Table A = P (π΄⁄πΊ , αΌ°% π) = if P = N7678.23 αΌ° = 8%, n = 5 years A=7678.28(0.2505) = N1923.40k Similarly, the present worth sum of the annual worth could be converted to PW (present worth) or net present worth (NPW) By calculation P = A(π⁄π΄ 8%, 5) ο· (1+αΌ°)π −1 A( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π P=1923.15( from the previous calculation ) A=N1923.15K now convert this A to NPV or NPW (1.08)5 −1 ) 0.08(1.08)5 P = 1923.15 ( 0.46933 0.11755 ) 1923.15 ( 1.46933−1 0.08(1.46933) = N7678.77K ) 16 Basic methods for making decision The basic methods that are commonly used to analyze economic alternatives in order to make decision in engineering economic are as follows: (1) Present worth (PW or PV) method (2) Future worth (PW) method (3) Annual worth (AW) method (4) Internal rate of Return (IRR) method (5) External rate of Return (ERR) method (6) Explicit Reimbursement Rate of Return (ERRR) (7) Payback period Example 3: Determine the annual amount of money that must be set aside in order to overcome anticipated expenses in the following table if the interest rate is 8%. End of year 2 3 5 8 Expenses (N) 12,000 6,000 20,000 13,000 P=? 0 2 3 4 1 N12,000 5 6 7 N6000 N20,000 N13,000 Solution Step 1: Calculate the present worth sum Step 2: convert the present worth sum to annual worth sum (A) ο¨ ο© P = F P F ,8%,2 + F(π⁄πΉ, 8%, 3) + F(π⁄πΉ, 8%, 5) + F(π⁄πΉ, 8%, 8) From the Table P = 12000(0.8573) + 6000(7938) + 2000 (0.6606) + 13000 (0.5403) P = N35,686.30 7 By calculating the factor using formula is a little bit cumbersome but also accurate. P = F(π⁄πΉ αΌ°%, π) 17 P = F(1 + αΌ°)−π = P= 12000 (1.08)2 πΉ (1+αΌ°)π 6000 20000 + (1.08)3 + (1.08)5 + 13000 (1.08)8 10,288.07+4,762.99+13,611.66+7,023.50=35686.22 From calculation PW = N35,686.22K Now convert this PW to annual worth Solution A= P (π΄⁄π, 8%, 8) = 35686.22 (0.1740) A = N6209.40K Or, A = P ( αΌ°(1+αΌ°)π ), (1+αΌ°)π −1 0.1480744168 35656.22 ( 0.85093021 A = 3586.22 0.08(1.08)8 (1+0.08)8 −1 , 35686.22 ( 0.08(1.85093021) 18.5093021−1 ) ) = 35686.22 (0.17401476) = N6,209.93 ∴ sum of N6,209.93k should be set aside every year to take care of the expenses. Example 2: Mr. Benson is planning to embark on a project with an initial capital of N10,000 which is expected to yield annual revenue of N5,310 for 5 years. The project has a salvage value of N2000. Annual disbursement is N3000 for the operation and maintenance of the project. The interest rate on the capital project is 10%. Show whether this project is a desirable investment. Solution Salvage value = SV is the market value of worth of an item or asset at the end of its useful life. SV = future worth at the end of 5 years = F = future worth Method to use = annual worth sum (A) for this method, you convert initial capital and salvage value to annual worth sum (A) for comparison. N5310 N5310 N5310 N5310 N5310 +5V of N2000 N10,000 0 1 2 3 4 N3000 N3000 N3000 N3000 5 N3000 18 Note that SV is still part of revenue which Mr. Benson can sell at the end of the 5 th year. Net annual worth (NAW) or Net annual value (NAV) The methods that can be used and the equations to use are: (1) Total annual revenue – total disbursement = NAV or (2) AW = P (π΄⁄π αΌ°%, π) - SV (π΄⁄πΉ αΌ°%, π) − − − (1) If Net Annual Worth (NAW) ≥ 0 the project is good and profitable but If NAW < 0, the project is not profitable First method: Total disbursement => but convert initial capital to annual worth P = N10,000 => initial capital + Annual disbursement on operation and maintenance of N3000, αΌ° =10%, n = 5years π΄ AW of initial capital =P(π , 10%, 5) From the table AW=1000 (02638) =N2638 If table is not available and the calculation is done using formula π΄ αΌ° (1+αΌ°)n π (1+αΌ°)π −1 AW=P ( , αΌ°%, π) = π ( 0.1 (αΌ°+1)5 AW =1000 ( (αΌ°+1)5 −1 ) =1000 AW = 0161051 1.61051 ) 01(1.61051) 1.61051−1 =10000 (0.26379748) To 4d.p AW = 10000 (02638) = N2638, Therefore, N10,000 present worth = N2,638 AW Total disbursement = 2638 + 3000 = N5638.00 Total revenue =5310 + salvage value SV = F, this is so because at end of 5th year the item would be sold A = F(π΄⁄πΉ , αΌ°%, n), A = SV (π΄⁄ππ , αΌ°%, n) from table 0.1638 at αΌ° =10% n=5 , A = 2000 ( 0.1 0.1 ) = 2000 (0.61051) (1+1)5 −1 A = 2000 (0.16379748) =2000 (0.1638) = 327.6 A = N327.60k Total annual revenue = 5310 + 327.60 = 5637.60 NAW = Revenue – Disbursement NAW = 5637 – 5638.00 = -N0.4 = 40k = 40 kobo (100k = N1) 19 Second method by converting o present worth Annual disbursement = AD (π+π)π −1 (1+0.1)5 −1 π(π+π) 0.1 (1.1) 5) = π = 0.61051 0.161051 ADP = P + 3000 (π⁄π΄, 10%, 5), 11000+ 3000 (3.7908) 10,000+ 11372. 40 = #21,372.40 Annual revenue to present worth ARP= 5310 (π⁄π΄, 10% , 5) + 2000 (π⁄πΉ, 10% , 5) 3.7908 also 0.6209 from the table ARP = 5310 (3.7908) + 2000 (0.6209) 20,129.15 +1,241.80 = N21,370.95 NPW = Revenue – Disbursement NPW = 21370.95 - 21372.40 = -1.45 From the calculation above, NPW< 0 Now let us make or take decision based on the calculation Our decision from the analysis is that the project is not profitable Therefore, don’t embark on the project. Example 3: Use the information provided in the table to carry out the analysis using annual worth method and choose the best oil extracting machine that is economical for a particular company. The minimum required rate of return is 8% S/No Cost Machine A (N) Machine B (N) 1 Initial cost 26,000 36,000 2 Annual maintenance cost 800 300 3 Annual labour cost 11,000 7,000 4 Annual expenditure - 2,600 5 Salvage value 2,000 3,000 6 Expected useful life in year 6 10 Machine A Annual maintenance + labour cost + expenditure, SV=N2000 A=? 6yr N800 N26,000 800 + 11,000 + 0 = N11,800 N11,000 20 Note that salvage value is a revenue SV = F = N2000 Total annual cost of operating machine A AC= P(π΄⁄π , 8%, 6) + 11,800 – SV (π΄⁄πΉ , 8%, 6) AC=26000 (0.2163) +11800 – 2000 (0.1363) = N17,151.20 Machine B has a SV of N3,000 Annual cost of maintenance + labour + expenditure = 300 + 700 + 2600 = N9,900 AC = AW = P (A/P, 8%, 10) + 9,900 – 3000 (A/F, 8%, 10) AC = 36000 (0.1490) + 9,900 – 3000 (0.0690) 5364 + 9900 – 207 = N15,057 Cost of running machine A is N17,151.20k and for machine B is N15,057.00. Therefore, machine B is economically better for the company than machine B. In the computation to take the decision, present worth method was not used but annual cost (AC) because of unequal useful life in years of machine A and machine B. Third Method: Internal Rate of Return (IRR) Internal rate of return: This is also known as investor method. IRR is the interest rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of all cash flow equal to zero. With this method, the cash flow of the project is converted to present worth sum and net present worth (NPW) or NPV is determined. NPV = PVin – PVout must be equal to zero for good IRR Example 1: A lathe machine is purchased at a rate of N100,000 for producing machine tools. The lathe machine has a useful life of 10 years with salvage value of N20,000. The machine can generate N40,000 as annual revenue while N22,000 is needed as annual disbursement for the operating cost and maintenance of the machine. If the minimum acceptable rate of return (MARR) is 13%, calculate the required internal rate of return. Cash flow diagram A=N40,000 1 2 P=N100,000 3 4 5 +SV=N20,000 6 7 8 9 10 21 Note that IRR method is based on trial and error or iteration until a reasonable value is obtained. With this method there may be need for interpolation to get the required value of internal rate of return (αΌ±). Note that Arrows pointing upward =Revenue Arrows pointing downward =Expenses or disbursement Assumption: let the initial IRR be =12% Now, convert all cash flows to PW (PV) PWin = A (π⁄π΄, 12% , 10) + 5π (π⁄πΉ, 12% , 10) 5.6502from the Table 0.3220 from Table PWin = 40,000 (5.6502) + 20000 (0.3220) PWin = N232,448.00 PWout = P + A (P/A, 12%, 10) PWout = 100,00 +22,000 (5.6502)= 100,000+124,304.40 =N224,304.40 Net present worth or net present value NPV = PWin – Pwout NP1 = 232,448.00 - 224,304.40 = N8,143.60 NPV = N8143.6 which is greater than zero Therefore, choose another value of IRR >12% Let IRR = 13% => αΌ± = 13% for new iteration PWin = 40,000 (π⁄π΄, 13% , 10) + ππ (π⁄πΉ, 13% , 10) = 40000 (5.4262) +20,000 (0.2946) = PWin = N222,940 PWout =100,000 +22,000 (π⁄π΄, 13% , 10) =100,000 +22,000 (5.4262) = 219376.4 NPV2 = 222,940 - 219,376.4 = N3563.6 > 0 NPV1 and NPV2 > 0 Then, try IRR = 14% to check if is close to zero If IRR = 14% PWin = PVin = 40,000 (π⁄π΄, 14% , 10) + ππ (π⁄πΉ, 14% , 10) PWin = 40,000 (5.2161) +20000 (0.2697) = 214,038 22 PWout =100,000 + 22000 (π⁄π΄, 14% , 10) 100,000+22,000 (5.2161) = N214,754.20 NPV = PVin – Pvout = 214,038 - 214,754.20 = - N716.20 which is closer to zero than 12% The required IRR is between 13% and 14% 13% =-716.20 the required IRR is expected to give 0.00 IRR? =0.00 14% =3,563.60 Let us do the interpolation πΌπ π − 13 0.00 − 3,563.60 = 14 − 13 − 716.20 − 3,563.60 πΌπ π − 13 −3,563.60 = 1 −4,279.80 IRR – 13 = 0.83266 IRR = 13 + 0.8327 = 13.8327% ∴ IRR = 13.8327% but to 2 d.p =13.83% Let us check the NPV or NPW if is =zero IRR =13.83% PWin = 40,000 (π⁄π΄, 13.83% , 10) + 20,000 (π⁄πΉ, 13.83% , 10) = 40,000 ( 40,000 ( (1+αΌ±)π −1 αΌ±`(1+αΌ±)π 1 ) + 20,000 ((1+αΌ±)π ) (1.1383)10 −1 1 ) + 20,000 ((1.1383)10) 0.1383(1.138310 ) 3.65231−1 40000 ( 0.1383(3.65231) 2.65231 40,000 ( 0.50511 ) + 20000 (0.2738) ) + 20000 (0.2738) 40,000 (5.2510) +20,000 (0.2738) =N215,516 PWin = PVin = N215,516 (π⁄πΉ, 13.83% , 10) PWout = 100,000+22,000 (5.2510), 100,000 +115,522 = 215,522 PWout = N215,522 NPV=PVin – Pvout = 215,516 -215522 NPV = -N4 23 IRR =13.83%, the NPV is – N4 For 13.8% (1.138)10 −1 1 PWin = 40,000(0.138(1.138)10 ) + 20,000 ((1.138)10 ) 2.6427 40,000 (0.5027) + 20000 (0.2745) (π⁄π΄, 13.8% , 10) 210, 280.49 + 5,490 = N215,770.49 PWout= 100,000 +22000 (π⁄πΉ, 13.8% , 10) 100,000+22000 ( 2.6427 0.5027 ) =100000 +115,654.27 PWout =100,000+115,654.27 = N215,654.27 NPV = PWin -PWout =215,770.49-215,654.27 NPV = N116.22 IRR =13.8% = N116.22 IRR =13.83% = - N4.00 and when IRR is 13.8%, NPV = - N6 A computer programme will give the best IRR NPV =4 0,000 ( (1+αΌ±)10 −1 αΌ±`(1+αΌ±)10 1 ) + 20,000 ((1+αΌ±)10) - [100,000 + 22,000 ( (1+αΌ±)10 αΌ±(1+αΌ±)10 )] NPV = 0 by putting the appropriate value of αΌ± 4th method: future worth (FW) Use future worth method to show whether the lathe machine in example is economically good for a company or not. Data given annual revenue = N40,000, Salvage value of the machine = N20,000 Annual disbursement = N22,000, Initial cost of lathe machine = N100,000 MARR = αΌ± = 13% A=N40,000 +SV=N20,000 10 P= N100,000 Year = N22,000 SV=F=already in future worth at the end of 10 year th 24 All the cash flow are converted to future worth l =13% n =10 FWin = A (F/A, 13%, 10) + 20,000 or ο¦ ο¨i ο« i ο©n ο 1 οΆ ο· + 20000 = FW inο½ 40000ο¦ο§ ο¨i.13ο©10 ο 1 οΆο· + 20000 = N756,789.97 FW inο½ Aο§ο§ ο· i ο¨ 0.13 οΈ ο¨ οΈ FWout ο½ 100000ο¨1.13ο© 10 + A (F/A, 13%, 10) 100000 (3.3940) + 22000 (18.4197) = N744,693.40 NFW = FWin – Fwout. NFW = 756,789.97 – 744,693.40 = N12,096.57 Total annual revenue= 5310 + 327.60 = 5637.60 Since NFW is greater than zero, the project good and profitable because revenue is greater than the disbursement. Now, NAW = Revenue - Disbursement = 5637.60 - 5638.00 = -#.4k = 40k NAW< 0: the project is not profitable second method Calculate the total disbursement AW = P (A/P, i%, n) –SV (π΄⁄πΉ i%, n), = 10,000(0.2638) - 2000 (0.1638) = 2638- 327.6 AW = 2310.40: art of disbursement Total disbursement = 3000 + 2310.40 = N5310.40 NAW = Revenue - Disbursement NAW = 5310 - 5310.40 = - 40k NAW < 0: The project is not profitable Alliteratively, the annual cost could be converted to present worth sum. Annual revenue = N5310 Salvage value = N2000 Initial cost or capital= N10,000 Annual maintenance cost = N3000 531 5310 5310 5310 5310 #3000 #3000 #3000 #3000 #3000 FWin = A (πΉ⁄π΄, 13. % , 10) + 20,000 25 = 40,000 ( (1+αΌ±)π −1 αΌ±` (1.13)10 −1 40,000 ( 0.13 ) + 20,000 ) + 20,000 = N756789.97 FWin = N756,789.97 P(πΉ⁄π , αΌ±, π) FWout =100000 (1+αΌ±)1+(πΉ⁄π΄, 13. % , 10) (1.13)10 −1 100,000 (3.3946) +22000 ( 0.13 ) 339,460 +22000 (18.4197) = N744693.40 FWout = N744,693.40K NFW = FWin – FWout NFW =756,790 -744,693.40 = N12,096.60K NFW > 0 The project is good and profitable because revenue > Disbursement 5th Method: payback period Payback period: is the expected number of years required to recover the initial capital investment. This means that the number of years required for the cash in flow of a project to return to the initial cash investment of the project. Payback period as a tool of analysis is often used because it is easy to apply and easy to understand for most individuals regardless of academic training or field of endevour. Actually, payback period does not properly account for the time value of money, risk and opportunity cost. In short, the short coming of this method are: (1) Time value of money is not considered (2) Not all the project cash inflows are considered Formula for computing payback period (PBP) is given in the following expression. PBP = year before recovery + πππ πππ’π‘π π£πππ’π ππΆπΉ ππ π‘βππ‘ π¦πππ πππ β ππππ€ ππ π‘βπ ππππππ€πππ π¦πππ NCF = Net cash flow Example 1: Calculate the payback period of a project with an initial capital of N1000. Annual revenue from the project for the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th year are N500, N400, N200, N200 and N100, respectively. 26 Solution Let C.F = cash in flow COF = cash out flow => first cost of project NCF = C.F + COF Year Cash in flow Cash out flow Cumulative NCF = CF + COF 0 - -1000 -1000 1 500 - -500 2 400 - -100 3 200 - +100 4 200 - +300 5 100 - +400 Payback period or break-even point occurs during the third year but not up to third year because at the end of third year initial capital N1000 has been exceeded by N100. ∴ PBP = Last year with a negative NCF + πππ πππ’π‘π π£πππ’π ππΆπΉ ππ π‘βππ‘ π¦πππ πππ β ππ ππππ€ ππ π‘βπ ππππππ€πππ π¦πππ 100 PBP = 2 + 200 = 2,5 years. Therefore, payback period = 2.5 years Example 2: Mr. John is planning to embark on a project with an initial cost of N10,000 and cash inflow for four years are N1000, N3000, N4000 and N6000 as an Engr. advise Mr. John on his plan whether to go ahead or not. Solution N1000 N10,000 N3000 N4000 N6000 27 Year Cash in flow Cash out flow Cumulative (N) (N) NCF = CIF + COF 0 - -10,000 -10,000 1 1000 - -9,000 2 3000 - -6,000 3 4000 - -2,000, ignore –ve 4 6000 - +4000 PBP = Last year with a negative NCF + πππ πππ’π‘π π£πππ’π ππΆπΉ ππ π‘βππ‘ π¦πππ πππ β ππ ππππ€ ππ π‘βπ ππππππ€πππ π¦πππ Payback period is between the 3rd and 4th year PBP = 3 + 2000 6000 = 3 + 0.33 = 3.33 years Therefore, payback period = 3.33years. Mr. John is advised to start the project. Depreciation Depreciation: means gradual loss or reduction in the value of an asset (project) over a given period of time. The book value of an asset decreases as the economic or useful life of the asset reduces over a given period of time. Depreciation is influenced by deterioration (worn-out) and obsolete (outdated) over a period of years. Life span or useful life of an asset or project is the anticipated period of time in years. Which an asset or machine could be used for producing item before the machine is replaced. Examples of depreciable items includes machine, vehicle, equipment, TV, etc. Salvage value: is the market or trade value of an asset or a machine at the end of its useful life. Note that land is not commonly regarded as a depreciable item because it does not wear-out or become absolute. Methods for computing depreciation 1. Straight line depreciation method (SL) 2. Sum of year digit method (SYD) 3. Declining balance method (DB) 4. Double declining balance method (DDB) the commonly used methods are the SL and SYD straight line method (SL) the following formula of SL is as given in the following expression Dt = π−ππ π Where Dt = annual depreciation 28 P = initial cost of the machine or item N = useful life or recovery period SV = salvage value. 1 The rate of depreciation is π for SL, it is constant. Disadvantage: the writing off is not accelerated. The process of charging the depreciation is called writing off the asset book value (BVt) = P – Dt x t :. BVt = P – t D t where t = number of year t = 1,2,3,4,… Example1: A Toyota carina car purchased in 1990 at a rate of N 80,000 and have a salvage value of N20,000 in 1995. Calculate (i) the annual depreciation (ii) compute the book value of car after each year (iii) plot the book value against the time. Use straight line (SL) method to solve the example. Data given P= N 80,000 SV= N 20, 000 and n = 5 years Solution Dt = annual depreciation Dt = D= 80,000−20,000 5 = 60,000 5 π−ππ π = N 12,000 Therefore, the annual depreciation is N 12, 000, Book value of the car at the end of each year When t = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 years. At t = 0 BVt = P – t Dt BV0 = 80,000 – 0 x 12000 = N 80, 000. But when t = 1 BV1 = 80 000 – 1x12000 = 68, 000. When t = 2 BV2 = 80 000 – 2x12000 = N 56,000 when t =3 BV3 = 80 000 – 3x 12000 = N 44,000 BV4 = 80 000 – 4x12000 = N 32, 000 BV5 = 80 000 – 5x12000 = N 20, 000 Note that at the end of the 5th year, book value is equal to the salvage value of the car BV5 = SV = N 20, 000 Student should not be surprised that a Toyota carina car was purchased a rate of N80, 000 in 1990 but the value of the same car after 29 years (1990- 2019) if the interest is 12%, calculate the current value of N 80, 000 in 2019. : FW = P (1 + Ξ―)n P = N80, 000 Ξ― = 12% = 0.12 n = 29 FW = 80, 000 (1.12)29 = N 2,139,994.44k The Toyota carina car now worth N2,139,994.44k when Ξ― = 12%. The graph is a straight line. 29 90,000 80,000 70,000 Book value (N) 60,000 50,000 40,000 30,000 20,000 10,000 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Time (year) Graph of book value versus time using SL Sum of the year digit method (SYD) Formula for computing depreciation by SYD is given as π−ππ Dt = (n – t + 1) ( π )=( π−π‘+1 π )(π − ππ) π−π‘+1 π = is the rate of depreciation and it varies according time t. The book value of a particular project for different years(s) could be calculated using the following formula BVt = P – t ( Where S = π−0.5π‘+0.5 5 ) (π − ππ) π (π+πΌ) 2 BVt = book value of the project in a given time n = useful life or life span of the project in year t = time of the year p = initial cost SV = salvage value Dt = depreciation rate 30 Example1: use SYD method to solve the example previously solved using SL to determine the depreciation at every year and compute the book value. Also plot the graph of the book value versus time. The information is given on page 44. Solution Let us calculate the depreciation using SYD and then calculate the book value at every year of the useful life. π−π‘+πΌ Dt = ( π )(π − ππ) but S = π (π+1) 2 Data given P = N 80, 000, SV = N 20, 000 n = 5years S= 5 (5+1) = 2 5 (6) 2 = 15 :. S = 15 The value of S = 15 will remain constant when t=1 but n= 5 5−1+1 D1 = ( 15 ) (80,000 − 20000) 5 D1 = (15) (60,000) = N 20, 000 t = 2 for second year 5−2+1 D2 = ( 15 4 ) (60,000) = 15 (60,000) = N 16, 000 t=3 5−3+1 D3 = ( 15 5−4+1 D4 = ( 15 N 15 2 ) (60,000) = 15 (60,000) = N 8, 000 5−5+1 D5 = ( 3 ) (60,000) = 15 (60,000) = N 12, 000 1 ) (60,000) = 5 (60,000) = N 4, 000 Depreciation (N) Cumulative(N) Book value (N) depreciation 80000 – 0 = 80,000 0 ----- ------ 1 20, 000 20,000 80000 – 20000 = 60,000 2 16,000 36,000 80,000 – 36000 = 44,000 3 12,000 48,000 80,000 – 48000 = 32,000 4 8,000 56,000 80000 – 56000 = 24,000 5 4,000 60,000 80000 – 60000 = 20,000 31 Alternative, by book value could be determined using the following formula for SYD method BVt = P - t [(n-0.5t +0.5)( π−ππ 5 Let us determine S S= π (π+1) 2 = )] n=5 5 (5+1) 2 = 15 Now when t = 0 what is the book value of the project (machine) P = N 80, 000 BV0 = 80000- [(5-0.5x0x0.5)x SV = N 20, 000 n = 5 80 000−20000 ( 15 ) t = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 BV0 = 80000 – 0 (5.0) (4,000) = 80000 – 0 BV0 = N 80, 000 = book value is still the same 80000-20000 = 60, 000= N 50 BV1 = 80000 – 1 [5-0.5x1+ 0.5) ( 60,000 60000 15 ) 15 = 4000 80,000 -1 (5) (4000) = N 60, 000 BV2 = 80000 -2 (5-0.5x2 + 0.5) (4000) = N 44, 000 BV3 =80, 000 -3 (5-0.5x3 +0.5) (4000) = 80,000 -3 (4) (4000) = N 32, 000 BV4 = 80,000 -4 (5-0.5x4+0.5) (4000) =80, 000 -4 (3.5 (4000) = N 24, 000 BV5 = 80000 -5 (5-0.5 x 5 + 0.5) (4000) 80000 -5 (3) (4000) = N 20, 000 Book value at end of 5th year = SV = N 20, 000 Both SL and SYD gave the same book value at the end of the useful life of the project = N 20, 000 90,000 80,000 70,000 Book value (N) 60,000 50,000 40,000 30,000 Salvage value 20,000 10,000 0 0 1 2 3 4 Time (year) Graph of book value against time using SYD 5 6 32 Assignment/Home work An airline company bought an aircraft equipment for N50,000. The salvage value after 8 years useful life is N2000,using the sum of the year digit depreciation method, determine; (i) The depreciation at the end of each year to the end of useful life of the equipment. (ii) The book value of the equipment at the end of each year. (iii) Plot the graph of book versus time. (iv) Also use straight line to solve i,ii and iii as given above. Declining Balance (DB) method and Double Declining Balance (DDB) depreciation method Declining balance (DB) method: this method is also called diminishing balance method. DB, DDB and SYD are accelerated depreciation method in which large part of the depreciation occur at the beginning of the life of the fixed asset and become smaller towards the end of the useful life of the asset. DB could never depreciation the asset to zero because the salvage value in the formula must be positive. Common type of declining balance method is the double declining balance depreciation method (DDB). Note that for straight line depreciation method, depreciation occur uniformly over the useful life the fixed asset Example 1 A Toyota carina car purchased in 1990 at a rate of β¦20,000 in 1995 Use declining balance (DB) method to compute TV annual depreciation and the book value of the assets. Present your answer in tabular form. Also plot the graph of book value against time. (hint :( π−π‘+π π )(P-SV) Formula for computing DB 1 ο¦ οΆ SV ο§ ο¦ οΆn ο· Dt ο½ ο¨BVt ο` ο©ο§1 ο ο§ ο· ο· ο§ ο¨ P οΈ ο· ο¨ οΈ n=5 P = β¦80,000 SV = N20, 000 When t = 1 BV1-1 = BV0 = book value at the beginning of first year BVt = first price = initial cost = β¦80,000 1 ο¦ οΆ ο§ ο¦ 20000οΆ 5 ο· D1 = (80000) [1 – ( ] Dt ο½ ο¨800000ο©ο§1 ο ο§ ο· ο· = (80000) (1-0.757858203) 80000 ο§ ο¨ 80000οΈ ο· ο¨ οΈ 20000 33 D1 = (80000) (0.242141716) = β¦ 19, 371.34 D1 = β¦ 19, 371.34 BV1 = BV0 – D1 = P – D, = 80000 – 19371.34 ππ BV1 = β¦ 60,628.66 note that (1-( π )1⁄π) is constant throughout which is 0.242141716 D2 = (BV1) (0.242141716) D2 = (60628.66) (0.242141716) = β¦ 14680.73 BV2 = BV1 – D2 = 60628.66 – 14680.73 = 45947.93 BV2 = β¦ 45947.93 D3 = (BV2) (0.242141716) D3 = (45947.93) (0.242141716) = 11, 125. 91 D3 = β¦ 11,125.91 BV3 = 45,947.93 – 11,125.91 = β¦ 34,822.02 D4 = (BV3) (0.242141716) = (34822.02) (0.242141716) = β¦8,431.86 BV4 = BV3- D4 = 34822.02-8,431.86 BV4 = β¦ 26,390.16 D5 = (BV4) (0.242141716) = (26390.16) (0.242141716) = β¦ 6,390.16 BV5 = BV4-D5= 26390.16-6390.16 BV5 = β¦ 20,000 N First price β¦ Annual Book valueβ¦ depreciationβ¦ Cumulative depreciation 0 80,000 ________ 80,000 ________ 1 80,000 19,371.34 60,628.66 19371.34 2 80,000 14,680.73 45,947.93 34,052.07 3 80,000 11,125.91 34,822.02 45,177.98 4 80,000 8,431.86 26,390.66 53,609.84 5 80,000 6,390.16 20,000 60,000.00 34 90,000 80,000 70,000 Book value (N) 60,000 50,000 DB 40,000 30,000 20,000 10,000 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Time (year) 4th method Double declining balance method (DDB). The formula for DDB for computing annual depreciation is given in the following expression. ο¦ 2 οΆο¦ n ο 2 οΆ Dt ο½ Pο§ ο·ο§ ο· ο¨ n οΈο¨ n οΈ t ο1 Example: use DDB for computing annual depreciation of the previous example. Data in the example are: P: N80,000, 5v = N20,000, n = 5 ο¦ 2 οΆο¦ n ο 2 οΆ Dt ο½ Pο§ ο·ο§ ο· ο¨ n οΈο¨ n οΈ t ο1 when t =1 Student plot the graph of book value versus time as assignment /home work. 2 5−2 t-1 5 5 D1 = 80,000 ( ) ( D1 = β¦32,000 ) = (80,000) (0.4) (0.6)0 = 80,000 (0.4) (1) 35 D2 = (80,000) (0.4) 2-1 when t = 2 = (80,000) (0.4) (0.6)1 D2 = β¦19.200 D3 = (80,000) (0.4) 2 = β¦11,520 Book value: Bvt = P – Dt Bv1 = 80,000 – 32,000 = β¦48,000 Bv2 = 80,000 – (32,000 + 19,200 ) = β¦28,800 The remain value to salvage value = β¦8,800 i.e 28,800 – 20,000 = β¦8,800 But from calculate Bv3 = 80,000 – (51,200 + 11,520) = β¦17,280 β¦17,280 is less than the salvage value. This means that n depreciation again from the question because salvage value is β¦20,000 the useful life n 2 π−2 First price Dt = P (π) ( π ) t-1 Cum. (β¦) (β¦) Depreciation Book value Bvt = P – cum. Dt (β¦) (β¦) 0 80,000 ------- ------ 80,000 1 80,000 32,000 32,000 48,000 2 80,000 19,200 51,200 28,800 3 80,000 11,520 = 8,800 62,720 20,000 4 80,000 No Depreciation 60,000 20,000 5 80,000 No Depreciation 60,000 20,000 Assignment /home work A mazida car is purchased at a rate of N421,775 and has a useful life of 5years and salvage value of the car at the end of the 5th year is N50,000. Use DDB method to compute the annual depreciation and book value of the car. Present your computation (answer) in tabular form. ο¦ 2 οΆο¦ n ο 2 οΆ Hint: Dt ο½ Pο§ ο·ο§ ο· ο¨ n οΈο¨ n οΈ t ο1 36 Replacement analysis Replacement analysis: this is the aspect of engineering economics that deals with economic comparison of two assets and choose the beat out of the alternative that is economical and profitable. An asset is usually considered for replacement prior to the anticipated life spam of the assets because of the physical deterioration and obsolescence (old fashion). In replacement analysis, an assets or a project that is currently being owned by a company is called defender while the new project to be purchased for the placement is called challenger. In comparing the two assets the current, market value of the defender is normally considered as the first cost of the assets and all other associated costs such as salvage value and annual operating cost of the machine are considered. Example 1: A lathe machine purchased 3 years ago N200,000 with an estimated lifespan of 9 years and salvage value of N60,000 annual operation cost of the old lathe machine is N50,000 and the market value for the old lathe machine is N170,000 A challenger has been old lathe machine at a cost of N220,000. The life span of the proposed for the replacement of the old lathe machine is 9years with salvage value of N70,000 and annual operating cost of N40,000. Should the machine be replaced or not if the minimum acceptable rate of return (MARR) is 10%. Solution Let AOC = Annual operating cost EAC = Equivalent annual cost D = defender C = Challenger SV = salvage value =future value of the assets (f) In solving this problem, convert all necessary cost(s) to annual worth for uniformity and easy comparison and easy comparison Let EACD = Equivalent annual cost of defender EACC = Equivalent annual cost of challenge Let P= current cost of the lathe machine = N170,000 SV = salvage value = N60,000 Annual operating cost = AOCD = N50,000 EACD = P(A/P, αΌ± %, n) – SV (A/F , αΌ± %, π ) 37 EACD = 170,000(A/P, 10%, 9) – 60,000 (A/F 10%,9) + 50,000 ο¦ οΆ ο¦ i ο¨1 ο« i ο©n οΆ i ο· ο· - 60000 ο§ EACD ο½ 170000ο§ο§ n n ο§ ο¨1 ο« i ο© ο 1 ο· + 50000 ο· ο¨ ο© 1 ο« i ο 1 ο¨ οΈ ο¨ οΈ =170,000 ( 0.1(1.1)9 (1.1)9−1 ) - 60,000 ( 0.1 ) +50,000 (1.1)9−1 =170,000 (0.1736) - 60,000 (0.0736) + 50,000 EACD + N75,096 For challenger, P = N220,000 SV = N70,000 AOCC = N40,000 EACC = P (A/P, αΌ± %, n) - SV (A/F , αΌ± %, π ) + AOCC =220,000 (A/P, 10%, 9) – 70,000 ((A/F , 10 %, 9 ) + 40,000 =220,000 (0.1736) – 70,000 (0.0736) + 40,000 EACC = N73,040 From the above calculation or analysis EACC = N73,040 EACD = 75,096 EACC < EACD: This lathe machine) is higher than that of challenger. Therefore replacement is necessary is necessary to buy new lathe machine. Example 2: When annual maintenance cost is not constant but varies linearly: sAn electric oven in a bakery is being considered for replacement. Its salvage value and maintenance costs are give in the following table. A new oven cost N80,000 ad this price includes a complete guarantee of the maintenance of the new oven are shown in the table. Should the oven be replaced this year if the MARR is 10%. SV at the beginning = first price (P) = N20,000. (see page 60aand 60b). Year SV(β¦) Maintenance cost (β¦) SV (β¦) Maintenance cost (β¦) 0 20,000 ------- 80,000 ---- 1 17,000 9,500 75,000 0 2 14,000 9,600 70,000 0 3 11,000 9,700 66,000 1000 4 7,000 9,800 62,000 3000 Old oven (Defender) 38 Let the current market price of the oven = SV and SV for old oven = N20,000 if the oven is dispose. The question is on page 60a and 60b . Let EACD = equivalent annual cost for defender AMC = Annual maintenance cost. SV for year 0 = N20,000 From the table, annual maintenance cost is not Constance, therefore, the calculation should be done yearly (each year). Note that maintenance cost must be converted to annual maintenance cost. Maintenance cost occur as present worth but should be converted to future worth for a common value and them to annual worth cost. 17,000 14,000 11,000 7000 P=N20,000 G=N100 For the first year n=1 Defender EACD = (P-5) (A/P , αΌ± %, π ) + SV (αΌ± %) + AMC --------(i) EACD = P(A/P , αΌ± %, π ) + SV (A/F , αΌ± %, π ) + AMC --------(2) From Equation EACD1 for the first year D1, maintenance cost of N9,500 is annual cost because it occurs for the first year, there is no need to regard it as present cost or convert it to further worth and later to annual worth sum (A) EACD1 = (20,000-17,000) (A/P , 10 %, 1) + 17,000 (0.1) + 9,500 3000 (1.1)+ 17,000 +9500 = N14,500 n=1 39 OR using Equation (2) EACD1 = 20,000 ( P = N20,000 αΌ±(1+αΌ±)π (1+αΌ±)π−1 =20,000 ( =20,000 ( (1+αΌ±)π−1 0.1(1.1)1 0.1 (1.1)1−1 (1.1)1−1 0.11 0.1 αΌ± ) - 17,000 ( ) + 17,000 ( ) +9500 ) + 9500 0.1 ) - 17,000 (0.1) + 9500 =20,000 (1. 1) - 17,000 (1) + 9500 =N14,500 :- EACD1 = N14,500 Both equations(1) and (2) gave the same answer as EACD1 = N14,500 For second year when n=2 Maintenance cost of 1st and 2nd year must be combined together as the total cost and converted to annual worth (i.e N9,500 t future worth, add it to that of 2nd year –N9600 and then convert the total or sum to annual worth sum). EACD2 = (P-SV) (A/P , 10 %, 2 ) + SV (102) + (9500(F/P,10%,1) +9600) (A/F, 10%,2) = (20,000-14,000) (0.5762) + 14,000 (0.1) = (6000) (0.5752) + 14000 + (9500(F/P, 10%, 1)+ 9600 (A/F, 10%,2)). Let us do or determine the future value of N9500 that occurs in the first and add it to N9600 for the second year as cumulative money or cost spent on maintenance and then convert it to annual worth. 9500 (1.1) =10,450=this is future worth of N9500 in second year 10450 + 9600 = N20,050. Therefore cost maintenance at the end of second year = N20,050 but we need to convert it annual worth (A). 20,050 (A/F, 10%,2) = 20,050 ( 0.1 αΌ± (1+αΌ±)π−1 ) or from table 0.1 20,050 ((1.1)2−1) 20,050 (1.21−1) 20,050 ( 0.1 ) = 20,050 (0.4762) you can get this from table 0.21 AMCD1= N9,547.81 Total cost = EACD2 back to previous calculation EACD2 = 6000 (0.5762) + 1400 +9547.81 =3457.2+1400+9547.81 =N14,405.01 = N14,405.01 The little difference in answer of EACD2 that wasN14,405.01 instead of N14,404.82 is due to round off error which was due approximation. 40 20,050 ( 0.1 ) 20,050 (0.476190476) 0.21 = 9,547.619048 From the table 6000 (0.5762) + 1400 +9547.62+N14,404.82 :- EACD3 = N14,405.01 = N14,404.82 Error of 0.19 due to approximation but this is not a problem just for you to understand that round-off error can affect your final answer with little magnitude. Now Let s calculate EACD3 for the 3rd Year EACD3 =(P-SV) (A/P , 10 %, 3 ) + SV (αΌ± %) +AMC3 9000 (0.4021)+ 1100 (0.1) = 3 618.9+1100 Let us calculate the AMC3 separately AMC3 =9500 (F/P, 10%,2) + 9600 (F/P, 10%,1) + 9700 =9500 (1.210) + (9600(1.1) + 9700 11,495 + 10,560 +9700 = N31,755 This N31,755 is future worth at the end of 3rd year but it must be converted to annual worth 31,755 (A/F, 10%,3) = 31,755 (0.3021) AMC3 =N95993.19 EACD3 3618.9 +1100+9593.19 = N14,312.09 :- EACD3 = N14,312.09 EACD4 EACD4 = (P-SV) (A/P , 10 %, 4 ) + SV (αΌ± %) +AMC4 = (20,000 -7000) (0.3155) + 7000 (0.1)+AMC4 Let us calculate AMC4 Different in 4-1= 3 :- 9500 to 9700 =n=3 not 4years AMC4 = 9500 (F/P , 10 %, 3 ) + 9600 (F/P , 10 %, 2) + 9700 (F/P , 10 %, 1)+ 9800 9500 (1.331) + 9600 (1.210) + 9700 (1.100) + 9800) 12,644.5 + 11,616.0+10,670+9800 FW of maintenance = FMC =44,730.5 FMC4 to AMC4 = 44730.5 (A/P , 10 %, 4) AMC4 = 44,730.5 (0.2155) AMC4 = N9639.42 :- EACD4 = (20,000 -7000) (0.3155) + 7000(0.1) + 09639.42 (13000) (0.3155) +700 + 9639.42 4,101.5 + 700 + 9639.42 = N14,440.9 41 :- EACD4 14,440.94 from the text EACD4 = N14,439.60 14,440.94 – 14,439.60 = N1.32 different due round off error EACD1 = N14,500.00 EACD2 = N14,405.01 All these are for the defender EACD3= N14,312.09 EACD4 = N14,440.94 For the challenger EACC1 = (P-SV) (A/P , αΌ± %, π ) + SV (αΌ± %) +AMC = (80,000 – 75,000) (A/P , 10 %, 1) + 75,000 (0.1) +0 as AMC =0 for the first year (5,000) (1.1)+7,500 = N13,000 EACC2 (80,000 -70,000) (A/P , 10 %, 2) + 7000 (0.1) at the 2nd year AMC =0 = (10,000) (0.5762) + 7000 + 0 = N12,762 for the 3rdyear EACC3 (80,000 - 66,000) (A/P , 10 %, 3) + 66,000 (0.1)+AMC3 =(14,000) (0.4021) +6,600 + AMC3 …N1000 is future worth compare to year 1 and 2. AMC3 = 1000 (A/P , 10 %, 3) = 1000 (0.3021) AMC3 = 302.1 = N302.10 Now back to the original calculation EACC3 = (14,000) (0.4021) + 6,600 + 302.10=12531.5 EACC3 = N12,531.50 For the 4th year n=4 EACC4 = (80,000-62,000) (A/P , 10 %, 4) – 62,000 (0.1) + (1000 (F/P , 10 %, 1)+3000) (A/P , 10 %, 4) AMC4 = 1000 (F/P , 10 %, 1 ) + 3000) (A/P , αΌ±10%, 4 ) 1000 (1.100)+3000) (0.2155) (1100+3000) (0.2155) = (4100) (0.2155) AMC4 (18,000) (0.3155)+6,200+883.55 EACC4 = 5679+6200 +883.55 = N12,762.55 Summary of the cost of running the oven Year Defenderβ¦ Challenger β¦ 0 20,000 80,000 1 14,500.00 13,000.00 2 14,405.01 12,762.00 3 14,312.09 12,531.50 4 14,440.94 12,762.55 42 The annual operating cost at the end of the 3rd year was very small both for defender and challenge but that of defender is greater than that of challenge. β¦14.312.09 > β¦12,531.50 Therefore, replace the defender with the new electric oven at the end of the 3rd year. This is done to reduce coast of production and make more profit. 43 Break-Even Analysis Break-Even: is the point at which total revenue received is exactly equal to the cost of production. At this point no profit is made and no lost incurred. Break-even point (BEP) can expressed in terms of unit sales or unit indicates the level of sales that is required to cover the total cost of incurred for the production. Sales above this point will definitely give profit but sales below this point result in to a loss. This means that break even analysis aims at finding the value of individual variables at which the project NPV is zero Break even is required to quantify the level of production that is needed for a new business. Break even point (BEP) unit = BEPU BEPU = BEPu = π΄π£πππππ ππππ’ππ πππ₯ππ πππ π‘ ππ£πππππ π ππππππ πππππ − ππ£πππππ π£πππππππ πππ π‘ πΉ.πΆ (unit e.g kg or bags ) ππ−π.πΆ Break even sales (BEP) in naira (β¦) BEPS = πΉ.πΆ 1−(ππΆ ÷ππ) Profit =selling price x quantity - (F.C + V.C x quantity ) Profit = SP x Q – (F.C + V.C x Q) Example 1: A fertilizer company located in Kaduna normally produces fertilizer for retailers sale of β¦500 per bag . the average variable cost per bag is β¦200 and the annual fixed cost is β¦6,000,000 . determine (i) Break even unit (ii) Break even sales Solution Break even unit BEPU = = πΉ.πΆ ππ−π.πΆ 6,000,000 500 −280 BEPu = 27,273.73 = 6,000,000 220 ≈ 27, 273 bags 44 (ii) Break even sale BEPS = BES = πΉ.πΆ πΌ−(ππΆ÷5π) 6,000,000 BEPS = 1−(280÷500 ) BEPS = 6,000,000 0.44 = 6,000,000 1−0.56 = β¦13,636,363.64 Alternatively, break even sales could be determined using the following formula BEPS = BEPU x sales in naira per bag BEPS = 27,273 X 500 = β¦13,636,500 or as if it not approximated to whole naira 27,272.73 x 500 = β¦13,636,365 Break-even point as it was defined before as the production (number of units produced) without profit loss Cost and revenue BEP E DD B F C A Units Break even graph Let F.C = fixed cost, V.C = variable cost. BEP = break-even point, AB = variable cost, CF = fixed cost and CD = F.C + V.C Note that AB should be parallel to CD Note the following expressions Total cost = F.C + n (V.C) 45 Again, for simplicity, let F = fixed point (β¦), V = variable cost (β¦), n = unit of production at BEP R = selling price per unit (β¦) Total cost = F + n V Total revenue = n R F + n V = nR F = nR – nV n= πΉ π −π or as BEPU = F.C SP−V.C Where SP = selling price V.C = variable cost F.C = fixed point BEPu = break-even point of unit production in term of kg or bags Example 2: Nigerian society o engineers (NSE) is planning to have a one day seminar (workshop) for its members. The following cost data are necessary for NSE to have the program conducted. Fixed cost : Brochure printing = β¦12,600 Mailing brochure = β¦19000 Room charges = β¦15000 Speaker gift = β¦8000 Total fixed cost = β¦54,600 Variable costs: The following costs are for each participant for the seminar Lunch = β¦650 Coffee = β¦ 375 Folder = β¦ 250 Total variable cost = β¦ 1275 Calculate (i) The break-even point for the seminar if the cost of attending the seminar is β¦5000 per person, (ii) Profit to be made if 42 people attended the seminar Solution Total fixed cost F.C = β¦54,600 V.C = β¦1275 46 R = β¦5000 Let F.C = F, n = BEPU R = selling price per people or unit, = variable cost n = number of unit at BEP n= n= F R−V , 54600 3725 n= 54600 5000 − 1275 = 14.6577 units Q = 42 people attended it BEP = N = 14.66 units (participants) Profit = R x Q – (F + V X Q) Profit = RQ – (F + VQ) = 5000 x 42 – (54600 + 1275 X 42) = 210,000 – 108, 150 = 101,850 Profit that could be made from the seminar = β¦101,850 Benefit-cost ratio Profitability index = Benefit cost Profitability index is also called benefit -cost ratio (B-C ratio). Benefit -cost ratio: is the ratio of the sum of present value of future benefits to the sum of the future capital expenditure and cost. Profitability index = Benefit -cost ratio. If benefit -cost ratio > 1, the project is good but if it is < 1, the project is not good. Example 1: Use the data provided in the last example in which NSE is planning to conduct a one day seminar for its members. From data given FC = β¦54,600 VC (per person) = β¦1275 Number of participants = 42 V.C for 42 participants =β¦1275 x 42 = β¦53,550 Total cost = F.C + V.C = β¦54600 + β¦53550 = β¦108,150 Expected selling price or revenue from 42 people =β¦ 5000 x 42 = β¦210,000 Benefit – cost ratio = Profitability index = Benefit cost Benefit cost = 210,000 108,50 = 1.942, B.C ratio > 1 That means that the seminar is profitable because the benefit – cost ratio is greater than 1.0 47 ABE 306 OBJECTIVE TEST QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS (1) Calculate the future worth of β¦100,000 borrowed from UBA which must be payback after 3 years at 15% interest rate Solution F = P (1 + αΌ±)n F = 100,000 (1.15)3 = β¦ 152,087.5 A. β¦136,890 B. β¦200,000 C. β¦152,087.5 D. β¦152,000 (2) Dr. Taiye Johnson put β¦ X (Naira X) in UBA in 1980 at interest rate of 18% and he intended to collect the money 40 years later (in 2020) for his first child to start a business when it would be β¦1,000,000 . Calculate the present worth of the money (β¦ X) put in the bank Solution F = P(1 + αΌ±)N A.β¦1350.00 (3 π P = (1+αΌ±)n B. β¦1332.66 = C. β¦1500 1,000,000 (1.18)40 = 1,332.66 D. β¦2,000 If the future of β¦100,000 after a certain period of time at interest rate of 15% is β¦152, 087.5, calculate the years required to achieve the repayment. Solution F = P (1+ αΌ±) n F = (1 + αΌ±) n P ο¦ 152087.5 οΆ ο¦FοΆ log10 ο§ log10 ο§ ο· ο· 100000 οΈ PοΈ ο¨ ο¨ n Take log of both sides, Log10 (F/p) = log10 (1+ αΌ±) , n ο½ , nο½ ο½ 3 years log10 ο¨1 ο« i ο© log10 ο¨1.15ο© A. 3 years B. 3.5years C. 5years D. 2years (4) Calculate the interest rate to 4 decimal places that is require on N5000 put in a bank to yield N15000 in 10years. Solution F = P (1+ αΌ±) n , (1+i)10 = 15000 15000 = 5000 (1+i)10 , 1+ i = ο¨3ο©10 , 1+ i = 1.116123174, i – 1.116123174 – 1 = 0.1151232 x 100 1 5000 i = 11.6123% A. 11.61232% B. 11.0000% C. 12.0000% D. 10.500% (5) Calculate the interest rate to 4 decimal places that is require on β¦1,000,000 Put in bank to yield β¦3,500,000 in 16 years. Solution F = P (1+ αΌ±) n , πΉ π = (1 + αΌ±) n ο¨1 ο« i ο©16 ο½ 3500000 , 1 ο« i ο½ ο¨3.5ο©16 , i = ο¨3..5ο©0.0625 ο 1 , 1.081444541 – 1, 1 1000000 i = 0.0814445 x 100 = 8.1445% A. 8.1445% B. 18.445% C. 10.08% D. 20.08% (6) The following assets depreciate over a given period of time except A. US dollar B. Lathe machine C. money D. land 48 (7) In replacement analysis, the old machine that is currently being used for production is called? A. Replacement B. Defender C. Asset D. Challenger (8) Calculate the annual worth if the present worth of money is β¦250,000 at 10% interest rate over a given period of 10 years. iο¨1 ο« i ο© Hint A = P (π΄⁄π , 10%, n) is A = P to 4 decimal places ο¨1 ο« i ο©n ο 1 n 0.1ο¨1.1ο© 10 Solution: A = P A. 25,000 ο¨1.1ο© ο 1 10 B. 50,000 ο½P 0.2594 , BUT P = 250,000, A = 250000 (01628) = 40,700 1.5937 C. 40,000 D. 40,700 (9) The yearly payment at the end of 1st , 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th years are β¦10,000 , β¦10,500 , β¦11,000, β¦11,500 and β¦12,000, respectively. If the interest rate is 8%, calculate equivalent present worth of the payment. Hint: (π⁄π΄ , 8%, 5 = 3.9926), (P/G, 8%, 5 = 7.3713) Solution: P = A (π⁄π΄ , 8%, 5) + πΊ(π⁄πΊ , 8%, 5), 10,000(3.9926) + 500(7.3713) = 43,611.65 A. β¦43,611.65 (10) B. β¦39,926 C. β¦3,685,65 D. β¦50,000 The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flows equal to zero is called? A. Simple interest rate B. Payback period C. Internal rate of return D. Interest rate (11) The number of year required to recover the initial capital investment is called? A. Payback period (12) B. Internal rate return C. Minimum acceptable rate of return D. Break even Gradual loss in the value of an asset over a given period of time is called? A. Book value B. Diminishing in value of asset C. Appreciation D. Depreciation (13) The market value of an asset at the end of its useful life is called? A. Depreciation (14) B. Salvage value C. Future worth D. Break-even Determine the book value of a lathe machine at the end of the 3rd year if the initial cost of the lathe machine is 80,000 and the salvage value of the machine is 20,000 and useful life is 5years (use straight line method). Solution: D5 ο½ P ο SV 80000 ο 20000 ο½ ο½ 12000 , Book value (BV3) = 80000 – 12000 x 3 = 44000 n 5 A. β¦12,000 B. β¦44,000 C. β¦56,000 D. β¦20,000 (15) Use sum of year digit (SYD) method to calculate the depreciation at the end of first year if the initial cost of a pumping machine is β¦50,000 salvage value is 2000 and its useful life is 8 years. Hint ( π−π‘+1 π(π+1) π 2 ) (P - SV) and S = Solution Using SYD: S ο½ useful life = n = 8, SV = N2000, P = N50,000, t = 1 year ο¨8 ο 1 ο« 1ο©ο¨50000 ο 2000 ο© ο½ 10,666 .67 8ο¨8 ο« 1ο© ο½ 36 , D1 ο½ 2 36 49 A. β¦10,666.67 (16) B. β¦9,333.33 C. β¦48,000 D. β¦20,000 Determine the book value at the end of third year (BV3) using sum of year digit if the first cost of lathe machine is 80,000 and salvage value of the machine is 15000 and useful life of the lathe machine is 10 years Solution n = 10 , P = β¦80,000 , t = 3 but S = π−ππ BVT = P – t [(n − 0.5t + 0.5)( S= 10(10−1) 2 π π(π+1) 2 )] = 5(11) = 55 BV3 = 80,000 – 3(10 – 0.5 x 3 + 0.5) ( β¦80,000−β¦15,000 55 ) = 80,000 - 3 (9)(65,000) = 80,000 – 31,909.09 = 48,090.91 A. β¦48,090.91 (17) B. β¦31.909.09 C. β¦30,000 D. β¦35,000 Determine the depreciation of the end of the first year using declining balance method. If the initially cost of motorcycle is 80,000 has a salvage value of 20,000 and useful life of the 1 ο¦ οΆ ο§ ο¦ SV οΆ n ο· motor cycle is 10years. Hint; Dt ο½ ο¨BVt ο1 ο©ο§1 ο ο§ ο· ο· ο§ ο¨ P οΈ ο· ο¨ οΈ 1 ο¦ οΆ ο§ ο¦ 2000 οΆ 10 ο· Solution D1 ο½ ο¨80000ο©ο§1 ο ο§ ο· ο· = 80000 (0.129449436)0.1 = 10,355,95 ο§ ο¨ 80000οΈ ο· ο¨ οΈ A. β¦19,371.34 (18) B. β¦10,355.95 C. β¦25,000 D. β¦69,644.05 Calculate the book value of motorcycle at the end of second year using SYD if the initial cost is β¦90,000, salvage value is β¦16,000 and useful life of the motor cycle is 7 years Solution: t = 2, n = 7, P = N90,000, SV = N16,000 S= n(n+1) 2 = 7(7+1) 2 ο¦ P ο SV οΆ = 7 x 4 = 28, BVt ο½ P ο t ο¨n ο 0,5t ο« 0.5ο©ο§ ο· ο¨ S οΈ ο¦ 90000ο 16000οΆ BVt ο½ 90000ο 2ο¨7 ο 0,5 ο΄ 2 ο« 0.5ο©ο§ ο· ο½ 55,642.86 28 ο¨ οΈ A. β¦55,642.86 B. β¦34,357.14 C. β¦74000 D. β¦2, 642.86 (19) The aspect of engineering economics that deals with economic comparison of two assets and choose the best out of the alternatives that is economical and profitable is called? A. Break even analysis (20) B. Engineering economy C. replacement analysis D. Benefit cost ratio Calculate the profitability index if the benefit is β¦500,000 and cost is β¦400,000 50 Solution: Profitability index = A. β¦100,000 (21) B. 1.25% Benefit cost 500,000 == C. 1.25 400,000 = 1.25 D. 1.00 Use the straight line method to calculate the depreciation if the initial cost of a Toyota car is β¦940,000 and the salvage value is β¦150,000 and the useful life of the Toyota is 10 years Solution P = β¦940,000 D= 940,000 – 150,000 n = β¦10years = β¦79,000 10 A. β¦79,000 (22) SV = β¦150,000 B. β¦100,000 C. β¦250,000 D. β¦50,000 The amount of money that is charged by financial institution for the use of borrowed capital over a given period of time is called A. Tax B. Liquidity ratio (23) C. Revenue D. Interest Calculate the annual worth of the present worth money of β¦100,000 over a given period of 8years and interest rate is 12%. Hint : A = P( A = 100,000 ( A. β¦20,130 (24) A , i , n) is P p=( i(1+i)n (1+i)n−1 0.12(1.12)8 0.12(2.4760 0.2971 (1.12)8−1 1.476 1.4760 ) = 100,000 ( B. β¦25,000 C. β¦30,000 ) = 100,000 ( ) Solution ) = 100,000 (0.2013) = β¦20,130 D. β¦15,000 Calculate the present worth of money if the future worth at the of 10years is β¦250,000 and the interest rate is 10% Solution F ο½ Pο¨1 ο« i ο© , P ο½ n A. β¦648,435.62 (25) F ο¨1 ο« i ο© n B. β¦96,385.82 , Pο½ 250000 ο½ 96,385.82 ο¨1.1ο©10 C. β¦120,000 B. β¦100,000 Determine the interest rate to 1 decimal place that is needed on β¦250,000 to yield β¦3,500,000 at end of 12 years 1 1 ο¦ 35000,000οΆ 12 ο¦ F οΆn n Solution F ο½ Pο¨1 ο« i ο© , i ο½ ο§ ο· ο 1 , i ο½ ο§ ο· ο 1 ο½ 0.246 ο½ 24.6 % ο¨PοΈ ο¨ 250,000 οΈ A. 8.3% (26) B. 24.6% C. 15.0% D. 25% If the future worth on β¦250,000 after certain period of time at interest rate of 24.6% is β¦3,500,000. Calculate the year required to achieve it to 1 decimal place Solution: F ο½ Pο¨1 ο« i ο© , n F ο¦FοΆ n n ο½ ο¨1 ο« i ο© , Take log of both sides, log10 ο§ ο· ο½ log10 ο¨1 ο« i ο© P P ο¨ οΈ ο¦ 3500000οΆ log10 ο§ ο· 250000 οΈ ο¨ nο½ ο½ 11.999 ο½ 12.0 years log10 ο¨1.246ο© A. 12.0 B. 10.0 C. 15.0 D. 20.0 51 (27) The fixed cost for organizing a workshop by NSE β¦54,600, variable cost per unit is 1,275 and cost per participant is β¦5,000. Calculate the number of participants at break-even point. V = β¦1275, n ο½ Solution FC = β¦54,600 R = β¦5000 BEPU = n = 54600 5000−1275 A. 14.66 B. 10.92 (28) = 54600 3725 C. 42.82 FC FC or as BEPU ο½ R οV SP ο V .C = 14.6577 = 14.66 D. 18.00 The yearly payment at the end of 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 14th, and 5th year are β¦1000, β¦1500, β¦2,000, β¦2500, and β¦3000, respectively. Calculate the annual worth of the payment if the interest rate ο¨1 ο« i ο©n ο in ο 1 , G = N500 and A = N1000 n iο¨1 ο« i ο© ο 1 (1+ αΌ±)π−&π−1 A is10%. (hint: G( /P, % n) is αΌ±(1+ αΌ±) π−1 ο¨1.1ο©5 ο 0.1 ο΄ 5 ο 1 ο¦ 0.11051οΆ A= 1000 + 500 , 1000 + 500 ο§ ο· = 1000+500 (1.797) = 1,899.5 5 0.1ο¨1.1ο© ο 0.1 ο¨ 0.0615 οΈ A β¦2000 B β¦15000 C β¦1,898.5 D β¦4,500 (29) calculate the net annual worth (NAW) if the annual revenue and disbursement are β¦785 and β¦715, respectively. Solution: NAW = Revenue – Disbursement = 785 – 715 = N70 A β¦1500 B β¦750 D β¦70 C 500 (30) The initial cost of a Yahama motor cycle is β¦50,000 and its salvage value at the end of 8 years useful life is β¦12,000 calculate the book value at end the of 5th year using straight line method. D ο½ 50000−12000 P ο SV = = D8 = N4,750, Book value = P – t x Dt = 5 x 4750 = 26250 8 n A β¦26,250 B β¦4750 C β¦7600 D β¦15,000 (31) A fertilizer company producing fertilizer for retail sales at rate of β¦2000 per bag. The average variable cost per bag is β¦1,200 and annual fixed cost β¦5,000,000. Calculate the break -ven point sales. Solution BEPS ο½ A β¦12,500,000 FC , ο¦ VC οΆ 1ο ο§ ο· ο¨ SP οΈ BEPS ο½ B β¦10,000.000 5,000,000 5,000,000 ο½ ο½ N12,500,000 1 ο 0.6 ο¦ 1200οΆ 1ο ο§ ο· ο¨ 2000οΈ C β¦2,5000 D β¦4,166.67 (32) What is the full meaning of MARR A. Maximum average rate of return, B. Minimize acceptable rate of return C. Minimum average rate of return, D. Marginal acceptable rate of return 52 (32) Profitability index is called A Profit after tax, B Benefit cost ratio C Marginal profit D Break-even point (34) in replacement analysis, the new equipment to procure for replacement of old equipment is called. A Asset B Defender C Challenger D Depreciation (35) The expression P (A/P, αΌ± &, n) means A Conversion of present worth to annual worth B Conversion of annual worth to present C Conversion of present worth to future worth D Conversion of annual worth to gradient worth