Test Bank for Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition by Kowalczyk All Chapters 1 - 12 / Full Complete TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. Introduction to Pathology 2. The Skeletal System 3. The Respiratory System 4. The Cardiovascular System 5. The Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System 6. The Hepatobiliary System 7. The Urinary System 8. The Central Nervous System 9. The Hemopoietic System 10. The Reproductive System 11. The Endocrine System 12. Traumatic Disease Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines: a. manifestations. b. pathogenesis. c. sign. d. symptom. ANSWER: B REF: p. 2 2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury refers to: a. disease. b. etiology. c. manifestations. d. pathogenesis. ANSWER: A REF: p. 2 3. The study of the cause of disease is termed: a. disease. b. etiology. c. pathogenesis. d. prognosis. ANSWER: B REF: p. 2 4. Common agents that cause disease include: 1. bacteria. 2. chemicals. 3. heat. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 2 5. A syndrome is best defined as: a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein. b. an adverse response to medical treatment. c. the patient’s perception of the disease. d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance. ANSWER: D REF: p. 2 6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed: a. autoimmune. b. iatrogenic. c. idiopathic. d. nosocomial. ANSWER: B REF: p. 3 7. Prognosis refers to: a. diseases usually having a quick onset. b. the name of the particular disease. c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease. d. the structure of cells or tissue. ANSWER: C REF: p. 3 8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered: a. destructive. b. lytic. c. subtractive. d. all of the above. ANSWER: D REF: p. 3 9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines: a. epidemiology. b. incidence. c. prevalence. d. all of the above. ANSWER: A REF: p. 3 10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are collected and reported by the: a. American College of Radiology. b. Centers for Disease Control. c. Food and Drug Administration. d. National Center for Health Statistics. ANSWER: D REF: p. 2 11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45 years and greater? 1. Heart disease 2. Malignant neoplasm 3. Polycystic kidney disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 4 12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately domestic product. % of the U.S. gross a. b. c. d. 12 17 21 33 ANSWER: B REF: p. 7 13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains autosomal chromosomes and chromosomes. a. 11; 1 b. 11; 2 c. 22; 1 d. 22; 2 ANSWER: D pairs of sex REF: p. 8 14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include maps. 1. genetic 2. SNP 3. physical a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 8 15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic variations of single DNA bases resulted in: the Genome Project. genetic linkage maps. haplotype mapping. physical mapping. a. b. c. d. ANSWER: C REF: p. 8 16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as: a. congenital. b. degenerative. c. genetic. d. metabolic. ANSWER: A REF: p. 10 17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is considered: a. autosomal. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. sex linked. ANSWER: A REF: p. 11 18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular structure best describes which type of microorganism? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Virus d. All of the above ANSWER: C REF: p. 11 19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes: a. etiology. b. infection. c. pathogenesis. d. virulence. ANSWER: D REF: p. 12 20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as: a. degenerative. b. metabolic. c. neoplastic. d. traumatic. ANSWER: B REF: p. 13 21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the a. b. c. d. node. primary sentinel metastatic neoplastic ANSWER: B REF: p. 14 22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best describes: a. lymphatic spread. b. hematogenous spread. c. invasion. d. oncogenesis. ANSWER: C REF: p. 16 23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed: a. carcinoma. b. leukemia. c. lymphoma. d. sarcoma. ANSWER: A REF: p. 16 24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the: a. size of the primary tumor. b. lymph node involvement. c. distant metastasis. d. histologic grading of the primary tumor. ANSWER: A REF: p. 16 25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors? 1. CT 2. PET 3. MRI a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 16 26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with: a. chemotherapy. b. radiation therapy. c. hormone therapy. d. immunotherapy. ANSWER: D REF: p. 16 MATCHING Altered Cell Biology Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description. a. A generalized decrease in cell size b. A generalized increase in cell size c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type e. Abnormal changes of mature cells 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Hypertrophy Atrophy Metaplasia Hyperplasia Dysplasia 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ANSWER: B ANSWER: A ANSWER: D ANSWER: C ANSWER: E TRUE/FALSE REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 9 p. 9 p. 10 p. 9 p. 10 1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy. ANSWER: F REF: p. 14 2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well differentiated. ANSWER: T REF: p. 16 Chapter 2: Skeletal System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT? a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Ewing sarcoma ANSWER: B REF: p. 48 2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle rangeof-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Labral tear c. Calcific tendinitis d. Anterior shoulder dislocation ANSWER: C REF: p. 39 3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion? a. Soft tissue mass b. Periosteal reaction c. Length of lesion d. Calcification of blood vessels ANSWER: D REF: p. 54 4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance? a. Giant cell tumor b. Ewing sarcoma c. Osteoid osteoma d. Osteoblastoma ANSWER: A REF: p. 50 5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANSWER: A REF: p. 27 6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANSWER: C REF: p. 39 7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus? a. Osteoid osteoma b. Osteoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Paget disease ANSWER: A REF: p. 48 8. Which disease is congenital? a. Pott disease b. Osteoporosis c. Paget disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta ANSWER: D REF: p. 24 9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. pars interarticularis. ANSWER: D REF: p. 42 10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure? a. Femur b. Humerus c. Sternum d. Skull ANSWER: D REF: p. 20 11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient? a. CT b. Knee arthrography c. MRI d. Nuclear medicine ANSWER: C REF: p. 23 12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Paget disease d. Pott disease ANSWER: B REF: p. 38 13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib? a. Scoliosis b. Spina bifida c. Spondylolisthesis d. Transitional vertebrae ANSWER: D REF: p. 30 14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis? a. Pelvis b. Carpals c. Skull d. Bony thorax ANSWER: B REF: p. 53 15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as: a. achondroplasia. b. DDH. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. osteopetrosis. ANSWER: C REF: p. 24 16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as: a. DDH. b. syndactyly. c. fibrous dysplasia. d. talipes. ANSWER: D REF: p. 28 17. The most common form of arthritis is: a. osteoarthritis. b. gouty arthritis. c. psoriatic arthritis. d. rheumatoid arthritis. ANSWER: A REF: p. 37 18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as: a. b. c. d. ankylosing spondylitis. spondylolisthesis. spina bifida. scoliosis. ANSWER: A REF: p. 37 19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology: a. spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spondylolysis. d. spina bifida. ANSWER: B REF: p. 40 20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it? a. Osteoarthritis b. Gouty arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANSWER: B REF: p. 39 21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas? a. CT b. Nuclear medicine bone scan c. Sonography d. PET scan ANSWER: D REF: p. 51 22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as: a. Kienbock disease. b. Reiter syndrome. c. Apert syndrome. d. Pott disease. ANSWER: D REF: p. 33 23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is: a. nuclear medicine. b. radiography. c. CT. d. sonography. ANSWER: A REF: p. 32 24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the: a. brain. b. breast. c. lung. d. colon. ANSWER: C REF: p. 51 25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis? a. Calcific tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Ganglion cyst d. Prepatellar bursitis ANSWER: D REF: p. 34 26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as: a. chondrosarcoma. b. osteosarcoma. c. enchondroma. d. osteoid osteoma. ANSWER: A REF: p. 53 27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications? a. Unicameral bone cyst b. Aneurysmal bone cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Osteoid osteoma ANSWER: B REF: p. 48 28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteosarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Multiple myeloma ANSWER: B REF: p. 24 29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly? a. Pott syndrome b. Reiter syndrome c. Kienbock syndrome d. Alpert syndrome ANSWER: D REF: p. 50 30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conducive for life? a. Anencephaly b. Craniosynostosis c. Encephalopathy d. Osteomyelitis ANSWER: A REF: p. 28 31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip? CT MRI Radiography Sonography a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 1. 2. 3. 4. c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANSWER: B REF: p. 31 32. A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If this procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate? a. Symmetry of both feet b. Increased uptake on the right foot (hot spot) c. Decreased uptake on the right foot (cold spot) ANSWER: C REF: p. 28 33. A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is: a. narrowed disk spaces. b. loss of lordosis. c. subluxation. d. erosion of vertebral body. ANSWER: B REF: p. 32 34. The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is: a. enchondroma. b. osteogenesis imperfecta. c. achondroplasia. d. syndactyly. ANSWER: C REF: p. 41 35. A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What radiographic procedure should be obtained initially? a. Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs b. CT of both knees c. Arthrography of both knees d. MRI of both knees ANSWER: A REF: p. 25 36. A 75-year-old patient with weight-bearing AP and lateral knee radiographs of the left knee demonstrates a decreased medial joint compartment and osteophyte formation on the medial femoral condyle. What would be the initial diagnosis? a. Ewing sarcoma b. Osteoarthritis c. Reiter syndrome d. Osteomyelitis ANSWER: B REF: p. 46 37. The primary site of ossification is the: a. epiphysis. b. metaphysis. c. diaphysis. d. epiphyseal plate. ANSWER: C REF: p. 37 TRUE/FALSE 1. The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical. ANSWER: T REF: p. 21 Chapter 3: Respiratory System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms refers to the gas exchange between the respiratory and circulatory systems? a. Aspiration b. Diffusion c. Inhalation d. Ventilation ANSWER: B REF: p. 59 2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity? 1. Ribs 2. Sternum 3. Thoracic vertebrae a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 63 3. The American College of Radiology suggests that routine mobile chest radiographs are only indicated for patients: 1. with acute cardiopulmonary conditions. 2. in the intensive care unit. 3. who are on a mechanical ventilator. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 66 4. The current standard of care when a pulmonary embolus is suspected is a: a. PA and lateral chest radiograph. b. thoracic computed tomographic angiogram. c. nuclear medicine ventilation and perfusion scan. d. thoracic MRI. ANSWER: B REF: p. 67 5. Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange function best describes: a. hypercapnia. b. hypoxemia. c. CPAP. d. PPV. ANSWER: B REF: p. 74 6. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) a. genetic. b. inflammatory. c. degenerative. d. neoplastic. ANSWER: A disease. REF: p. 75 7. The incomplete maturation of the type II alveolar cells within the surfactant-producing system causes unstable alveoli resulting in: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. pneumonia. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. more than one of the above. ANSWER: D REF: p. 76 8. Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include: 1. Staphylococcus aureus. 2. parainfluenza. 3. H. influenza. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 77 9. The most common lethal nosocomial infection in the United States is: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. pleurisy. d. pneumonia. ANSWER: D REF: p. 77 10. A permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall best describes: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. emphysema. d. pleurisy. ANSWER: A REF: p. 79 11. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be caused by: a. chronic obstructive bronchitis. b. emphysema. c. both a and b. ANSWER: C REF: p. 82 12. Pneumoconioses result from inhalation of foreign substances and may include: a. anthracosis. b. asbestosis. c. silicosis. d. all of the above. ANSWER: D REF: p. 84 13. Patients presenting with a lung abscess often demonstrate which of the following clinical manifestations? 1. Fever 2. Cough 3. Expectoration of pus a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 87 14. Pleural effusion is best described as: a. excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity. b. inflammation of the pleura. c. a cavity that is radiographically visible on a chest image. d. more than one of the above. ANSWER: A REF: p. 87 15. Which of the pathologies listed below is the most common fatal primary malignancy in the United States, accounting for over 90% of all lung tumors? a. Bronchial carcinoid tumors b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Hematogenous metastatic lung disease d. Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease ANSWER: B REF: p. 91 16. Which of the following pathologies of the respiratory system are classified as additive pathologies? 1. Cystic fibrosis 2. Emphysema 3. Pleural effusion a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 94 17. Chest radiography is the imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of: 1. bronchial adenoma. 2. hyaline membrane disease. 3. pneumoconiosis. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 94 18. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography is the imaging modality of choice for: 1. COPD. 2. bronchogenic carcinoma. 3. metastatic lung disease. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 95 19. High-resolution computed tomography is the imaging modality of choice in cases of suspected: bronchiectasis. cystic fibrosis. fungal pneumonia. respiratory distress syndrome. a. b. c. d. ANSWER: A REF: p. 80 20. Sinusitis is considered a(n) a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANSWER: A REF: p. 95 21. Pleurisy is considered a(n) a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANSWER: C pathologic condition. pathologic condition. REF: p. 95 22. A disruption in the esophagus or airway may result in: a. hemothorax. b. mediastinal emphysema. c. pectus excavatum. d. Legionnaires’ disease. ANSWER: B REF: p. 65 23. Inflammatory diseases of the respiratory system include: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. mycoplasma pneumonia. c. subcutaneous emphysema. d. bronchial adenoma. ANSWER: B REF: p. 78 24. The upper respiratory system includes the: 1. larynx. 2. pharynx. 3. trachea. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 59 TRUE/FALSE 1. On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left hemidiaphragm. ANSWER: T REF: p. 61 2. M. tuberculosis is captured by macrophages within the alveoli and creates a cell- mediated immune response that infiltrates the lymph nodes. ANSWER: T REF: p. 80 3. Early pulmonary tuberculosis is always symptomatic. ANSWER: F REF: p. 80 4. Coccidioidomycosis is a systemic, fungal infection of the lungs particularly endemic to the Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi River valleys. ANSWER: F REF: p. 86 5. Small cell carcinoma has a much higher mortality rate than other bronchogenic cancers. ANSWER: T REF: p. 91 6. Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural space than an erect lateral chest radiograph. ANSWER: T REF: p. 62 7. The posterior mediastinum contains the heart and great vessels, esophagus, and trachea. ANSWER: F REF: p. 59 8. The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only paranasal sinuses present at birth. ANSWER: T REF: p. 59 MATCHING Medical Devices Directions: Match the following medical devices with the correct descriptions. a. Chest tube b. Endotracheal tube c. CVP lines d. Pulmonary artery catheter e. Access catheter 1. A large plastic tube inserted through the patient’s nose or mouth into the trachea to manage 5. the patient’s airway A large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs to allow drainage of fluid or air A multilumen catheter that serves to evaluate cardiac function A catheter inserted for an alternative injection site or to allow for infusion of massive volumes of fluids Catheters placed to allow multiple tapping for injection of chemotherapeutic agents 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ANSWER: B ANSWER: A ANSWER: D ANSWER: C ANSWER: E 2. 3. 4. REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: p. 70 p. 71 p. 72 p. 71 p. 72 Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The innermost tissue layer of the heart is the: a. epicardium. b. myocardium. c. pericardium. d. endocardium. ANSWER: D REF: p. 99 2. Oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the: a. pulmonary arteries. b. superior vena cavae. c. pulmonary veins. d. aorta. ANSWER: C REF: p. 99 3. The mitral valve is also known as the a. bicuspid b. semilunar c. aortic d. tricuspid ANSWER: A valve. REF: p. 119 4. What is the name of the internal tubular structure of a blood vessel? a. Intima b. Lumen c. Adventitia d. Endocardium ANSWER: B REF: p. 100 5. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a chest radiograph? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANSWER: C REF: p. 101 6. An enlarged heart is known as: a. ischemia. b. cor pulmonale. c. cardiomegaly. d. tetralogy of Fallot. ANSWER: C REF: p. 102 7. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following conditions? 1. Deep vein thrombosis 2. Carotid stenosis 3. Lower extremity arterial stenosis a. 1 and 3 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 104 8. The contraction of the heart is known as: a. diastole. b. systole. c. peristole. d. myostol. ANSWER: B REF: p. 100 9. The single most frequent cause of death in the United States is: a. congestive heart failure. b. coronary artery disease. c. valvular heart disease. d. ventricular septal defects. ANSWER: B REF: p. 124 10. A CT calcium score best demonstrates: a. chambers of the heart. b. soft plaque. c. pulmonary arteries. d. hard plaque. ANSWER: D REF: p. 106 11. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed: a. atheroma. b. ischemia. c. infarction. d. necrosis. ANSWER: B REF: p. 123 12. What type of aneurysm results when the intima tears and allows blood to flow within the vessel wall? a. Dissecting b. Fusiform c. Saccular ANSWER: A REF: p. 126 13. A blood clot is known as a(n): a. b. c. d. infarct. aneurysm. thrombus. adventitia. ANSWER: C REF: p. 129 14. A procedure used to break up blood clots is known as a(n): a. embolization. b. thrombolysis. c. angioplasty. d. TIPSS. ANSWER: B REF: p. 110 15. What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth? a. Ductus arteriosus b. Cor pulmonale c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Foramen ovale ANSWER: D REF: p. 112 16. The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is: a. coronary artery disease. b. rheumatic fever. c. congestive heart failure. d. ventricular septal defect. ANSWER: B REF: p. 119 17. Which of the following imaging modalities provides the most information in terms of mitral valve function? a. CT b. MRI c. US d. TEE ANSWER: D REF: p. 120 18. Congestive heart failure is most commonly caused by: a. high cholesterol. b. aneurysm. c. congenital heart disease. d. hypertension. ANSWER: D REF: p. 120 19. A pulmonary embolus (PE) is best visualized with: a. a VQ scan. b. a nuclear perfusion scan. c. CT. d. angiography. ANSWER: C REF: p. 130 20. Venous thrombosis most often affects the a. deep; upper b. deep; lower c. superficial; upper d. superficial; lower ANSWER: B veins of the extremities. REF: p. 127 21. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm include: 1. angiography. 2. CT. 3. sonography. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 126 22. Common risk factors for CAD include: 1. cigarette smoking. 2. hypertension. 3. low-fat diet. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 125 23. Clinical signs of a myocardial infarction include: 1. shortness of breath. 2. crushing chest pain. 3. neck pain. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 125 TRUE/FALSE 1. Pulmonary circulation transports blood between the heart and lungs. ANSWER: T REF: p. 98 2. In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart. ANSWER: F REF: p. 98 3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart. ANSWER: T REF: p. 100 4. MRI is used for imaging of the anatomy, function, and disease of the heart. ANSWER: T REF: p. 107 5. A Greenfield filter may be placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs. ANSWER: T REF: p. 128 Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia? a. Salivation b. Choking c. Cyanosis d. All of the above ANSWER: D REF: p. 151 2. Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia? a. Duodenal atresia b. Jejunal atresia c. Ileal atresia d. Colonic atresia ANSWER: C REF: p. 151 3. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) a. congenital b. degenerative c. inflammatory d. neurologic ANSWER: A condition of the GI system. REF: p. 152 4. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) examination should be performed and is considered the gold standard. a. transabdominal ultrasound b. small bowel follow-through c. upper GI d. contrast-enhanced CT ANSWER: C REF: p. 155 5. If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to: a. bacterial overgrowth. b. colonic distention. c. electrolyte imbalances. d. all of the above. ANSWER: D REF: p. 156 6. In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme: a. lactase. b. lipase. c. amylase. d. lactose. ANSWER: A REF: p. 157 7. Currently, is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. a. abdominal radiography b. computed tomography (CT) c. magnetic resonance enterography (MRE) d. colonoscopy ANSWER: B REF: p. 166 8. A less common type of hiatal hernia is the a. rolling b. sliding c. paraesophageal d. both a and c ANSWER: D type. REF: p. 171 9. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications of: a. pneumoperitoneum. b. obstruction. c. both a and c. d. none of the above. ANSWER: C REF: p. 182 10. Colorectal cancers are the a. first b. second c. third d. none of the above ANSWER: A most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States. REF: p. 187 11. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas? a. Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT) b. Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC) c. Digital rectal examination d. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) ANSWER: D REF: p. 189 12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure. b. The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer. c. Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population. d. All of the above statements are true. ANSWER: A REF: p. 145 13. Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer? a. GI bleed scans b. Gastric emptying scans c. Urea breath test d. SPECT gastric imaging ANSWER: C REF: p. 145 14. Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus? 1. Epiphrenic 2. Killian-Jameson 3. Zenker a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 179 15. The “olive sign” is associated with what pathologic process? a. Appendicitis b. Esophageal varices c. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis d. Leiomyoma ANSWER: C REF: p. 153 16. Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction? 1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen. 2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel. 3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliterating gastrointestinal tumor. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 174 17. Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because: a. the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn disease. b. Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall. c. the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum. d. both b and c are correct. ANSWER: A REF: p. 163 18. Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue? 1. T1-weighted images 2. T2-weighted images 3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 144 TRUE/FALSE 1. Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure. ANSWER: T REF: p. 153 2. Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending colon. ANSWER: F REF: p. 156 3. A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in the fetus. ANSWER: T REF: p. 156 4. Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel. ANSWER: F REF: p. 157 5. A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. ANSWER: T REF: p. 160 6. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in a recumbent position causes poor visualization. ANSWER: F REF: p. 168 7. A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve. ANSWER: T REF: p. 176 8. Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas. ANSWER: T REF: p. 183 9. Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small- bowel neoplasms. ANSWER: F REF: p. 185 10. A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel. ANSWER: T REF: p. 170 11. Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases, particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present. ANSWER: T REF: p. 165 12. A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease. ANSWER: F REF: p. 187 Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following diagnostic imaging studies provides physiologic function of the liver? a. CT without contrast b. Sonogram c. Radiograph d. Nuclear medicine with contrast ANSWER: D REF: p. 197 2. Which diagnostic examination does the ACR recommend for a patient who presents with right upper quadrant pain that may be attributed to the biliary system? a. CT without contrast b. Sonogram c. Radiograph d. Nuclear medicine with contrast ANSWER: B REF: p. 198 3. A MRCP is used to visual which anatomic structures? 1. Gallbladder 2. Biliary system 3. Kidney a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 197 4. A radiograph of the abdomen on a patient with known cirrhosis may be compromised due to what additional pathologic condition? a. Shrunken liver tissue b. Gallstones c. Ascites d. Pancreatitis ANSWER: C REF: p. 201 5. Which form of hepatitis is transmitted from the GI tract in fecal material? a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HDV ANSWER: A REF: p. 203 6. Which liver lesion is primarily composed of blood vessels? a. b. c. d. Hepatocellular adenoma Hemangioma Hepatocellular carcinoma Hepatoma ANSWER: B REF: p. 209 7. The TIPSS procedure is designed to reduce portal hypertension by uniting which vessels? 1. Hepatic artery 2. Hepatic vein 3. Portal vein a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 202 8. What is the incidence of gallstones in the United States for persons over 65 years of age? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% ANSWER: D REF: p. 205 9. The inflammation of the gallbladder is referred to as: a. colitis. b. cholecystitis. c. cholelithiasis. d. cholecystectomy. ANSWER: B REF: p. 206 10. A fluid collection that develops from the pancreas is termed: a. ascites. b. pancreatitis. c. polycystic disease. d. a pseudocyst. ANSWER: D REF: p. 207 11. Which of the following imaging studies are highly recommended for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis? 1. CT 2. SPECT 3. Sonography a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 207 12. The impaction of a gallstone in the small bowel is referred to as: a. cholelithiasis. b. gallstone ileus. c. obstructive jaundice. d. medical jaundice. ANSWER: B REF: p. 206 13. Chronic liver disease has the highest incidence in which age group? a. 25-34 years b. 35-44 years c. 45-65 years d. Greater than 65 years ANSWER: C REF: p. 201 14. Which imaging procedure is preferred in the evaluation of proximal obstructions involving the hepatic duct bifurcation? a. ERCP b. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram c. T-tube cholangiogram d. Operative cholangiogram ANSWER: B REF: p. 195 15. Which imaging procedure can differentiate between vessels and biliary ducts based on flow characteristics? a. CT of the abdomen with contrast b. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography c. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy d. Doppler sonography ANSWER: D REF: p. 197 16. Fatty infiltration of the liver is termed: a. hyperlipidemia. b. cirrhosis. c. metabolic syndrome. d. steatosis. ANSWER: D REF: p. 200 17. Cirrhosis of the liver is considered an end-stage condition resulting from liver damage caused by chronic: 1. alcohol abuse. 2. hepatitis. 3. biliary tract obstruction. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 200 18. How many types of viral hepatitis have been identified? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: C REF: p. 203 19. Which of the following additional imaging procedures are highly recommended in patients who have gallstones demonstrated with sonography but do not have fever or an elevated white blood cell count? 1. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy 2. CT of the abdomen (with or without contrast) 3. MRI of the abdomen (with or without contrast) a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 205 20. Which type of jaundice occurs because of hemolytic disease in which too many red blood cells are destroyed or because of liver damage from cirrhosis or hepatitis? a. Medical jaundice b. Obstructive jaundice ANSWER: A REF: p. 195 21. The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the a. head b. body c. tail ANSWER: A of the pancreas. REF: p. 212 22. Ascites is best demonstrated by which of the following imaging procedures? 1. CT of the abdomen 2. Sonogram of the abdomen 3. ERCP a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A TRUE/FALSE REF: p. 201 1. The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the common bile duct. ANSWER: F REF: p. 194 2. The liver has a double supply of blood, coming from the hepatic artery and the portal vein. ANSWER: T REF: p. 193 3. Hepatitis B (HBV) is transmitted parenterally in infected serum or blood products. ANSWER: T REF: p. 203 4. Although most commonly found in the gallbladder, gallstones can be located anywhere in the biliary tree. ANSWER: T REF: p. 205 5. Chronic pancreatitis resolves without impairing the histologic makeup of the pancreas. ANSWER: F REF: p. 206 6. The liver is a common site for metastasis from other primary sites such as the colon, pancreas, stomach, lung, and breast. ANSWER: T REF: p. 210 7. Hepatitis B accounts for 80% of the cases of hepatitis that develop after blood transfusions. ANSWER: F REF: p. 204 8. Approximately 80% of all gallstones are composed of a mixture of cholesterol, bilirubin, and calcium salts. ANSWER: T REF: p. 205 Chapter 7: Urinary System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The kidneys are located: 1. in the retroperitoneal cavity. 2. between T-12 and L-3. 3. anterior to the spleen. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 216 2. Which anatomic structures are located in the hilum of the kidney? 1. Renal artery 2. Renal vein 3. Nerve plexus a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 216 3. In an adult, the ureters are normally approximately a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: B inches long. REF: p. 217 4. Which of the following is a waste product derived from a breakdown of a compound normally found in muscle tissue? a. BUN b. Serum creatinine c. GFR d. Urine ANSWER: B REF: p. 218 5. Which laboratory test is used to determine the urinary system’s ability to break down nitrogenous compounds from proteins to produce urea nitrogen? a. BUN b. Serum creatinine c. GFR d. All of the above ANSWER: A REF: p. 218 6. Normally, the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys should be mL/min/1.73m2 or greater. a. 30 b. 50 c. 75 d. 90 ANSWER: D REF: p. 218 7. Serious adverse effects typically accompany the injection of urographic contrast agents are most common in elderly: a. black females. b. white females. c. black males. d. white males. ANSWER: B REF: p. 219 8. Which of the following predisposing conditions may increase the risk of an adverse reaction to an iodinated contrast agent? 1. Dehydration 2. Heart disease 3. Asthma a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 219 9. What is the modality of choice for evaluating individuals after kidney transplantation? a. CT b. MRI c. Sonography d. FDG-PET ANSWER: C REF: p. 222 10. The American College of Radiology’s imaging modality of choice for a patient presenting with an acute onset of flank pain or other symptoms that suggest the presence of renal calculi is: a. CT stone study. b. abdominal CT with and without contrast. c. abdominal MR with and without contrast. d. renal sonogram. ANSWER: A REF: p. 223 11. Which of the following is highly recommended by the American College of Radiology in the diagnosis of renovascular hypertension? a. b. c. d. CTA of the kidneys Abdominal CT with and without contrast Abdominal MR with and without contrast MRA of the kidneys ANSWER: D REF: p. 223 12. What type of catheter connects the renal pelvis to the outside of the body? a. Nephrostomy tube b. Ureteral stent c. Foley catheter d. Suprapubic catheter ANSWER: A REF: p. 226 13. The congenital absence of a kidney is termed: a. renal agenesis. b. renal aplasia. c. compensatory hypertrophy. d. more than one of the above. ANSWER: D REF: p. 227 14. A kidney located out of its normal position is termed: a. malrotation. b. ectopic. c. prolapsed. d. cross fused. ANSWER: B REF: p. 229 15. A congenital, familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant is: renal agenesis. polycystic kidney disease. crossed ectopy. medullary sponge kidney. a. b. c. d. ANSWER: B REF: p. 231 16. A congenital dilatation of the renal tubules leading to urinary stasis and increased levels of calcium phosphate is: a. renal agenesis. b. polycystic kidney disease. c. crossed ectopy. d. medullary sponge kidney. ANSWER: D REF: p. 232 17. Which of the following microorganisms are generally involved in pyelonephritis? a. E. coli b. Proteus c. Staphylococcus a. b. c. d. 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 233 18. Inflammation of the bladder is termed: a. cystitis. b. nephritis. c. glomerulitis. d. diverticulitis. ANSWER: A REF: p. 235 19. Intermittent pain associated with the movement of renal calculi is termed: a. neurogenic bladder. b. trabeculae. c. renal colic. d. pneumatic lithotripsy. ANSWER: C REF: p. 238 20. An obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes dilatation of the renal pelvis and calyces with urine is: a. glomerulonephritis. b. hydronephrosis. c. hematuria. d. nephrosclerosis. ANSWER: B REF: p. 240 21. Renal cell carcinoma is a type of: a. adenocarcinoma. b. sarcoma. c. epithelioma. d. glioma. ANSWER: A REF: p. 241 22. Which of the following examinations are recommended for staging and follow-up of renal cell carcinoma by the American College of Radiology? 1. Abdominal CT with and without contrast 2. Abdominal MRI with and without contrast 3. Renal ultrasound a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 242 23. Bladder cancer may be treated with which of the following procedures? 1. Cryoablation 2. Radiofrequency ablation 3. Total cystectomy a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 245 24. Congenital anomalies of the urinary system are often evaluated in the fetus using which of the following modalities? a. CT b. MRI c. Radiography d. Sonography ANSWER: D REF: p. 222 TRUE/FALSE 1. Kidney function is generally unimpaired with a horseshoe kidney. ANSWER: T REF: p. 228 2. Vesicoureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine out of the bladder and into the urethra. ANSWER: F REF: p. 220 3. The retention of urea in the blood is termed pyurea. ANSWER: F REF: p. 239 4. It is estimated that more than half of people at age 50 have renal cysts. ANSWER: T REF: p. 241 5. The cure rate for Stage I-III Wilms’ tumor (nephroblastoma) is 95%. ANSWER: T REF: p. 243 6. Renal cell carcinoma often metastasizes to the chest, so often a chest radiograph is recommended. ANSWER: T REF: p. 243 Chapter 8: Central Nervous System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following structures is NOT considered part of the brainstem? a. Pons b. Medulla oblongata c. Diencephalon d. Midbrain ANSWER: C REF: p. 250 2. Which of the following is the modality of choice for detecting cerebrovascular hemorrhage following acute head trauma? a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Nuclear medicine d. Sonography ANSWER: A REF: p. 258 3. A ventricular shunt is placed between the ventricles and the to drain excess CSF in patients diagnosed with hydrocephalus. a. internal jugular vein b. heart c. peritoneum d. all of the above ANSWER: D REF: p. 281 4. Since the introduction of CT, the overall mortality rate due to brain abscesses has decreased from more than 40% to less than: 30%. 15%. 5%. 0.5%. a. b. c. d. ANSWER: C REF: p. 266 5. Which of the following advanced MR imaging techniques is not useful in supporting a diagnosis of MS? a. Diffusion imaging b. Functional imaging (fMRI) c. Perfusion imaging d. Magnetization transfer ANSWER: B REF: p. 272 6. Noncontrast brain CT scans are most commonly used to diagnose patients with strokelike symptoms because of their: a. b. c. d. high sensitivity to ischemic strokes. high sensitivity to hemorrhagic strokes. wide availability. both b and c. ANSWER: D REF: p. 275 7. In children, brain tumors often tend to occur in the: a. brainstem. b. frontal lobe. c. temporal lobes. d. posterior fossa. ANSWER: D REF: p. 276 8. Distinguishing clinical features of astrocytomas include: a. fast growing. b. infiltrative tumors. c. high grade of malignancy. d. all of the above. ANSWER: B REF: p. 278 9. Meningiomas are fed by the meningeal arteries, often enabling demonstration of an enlarged foramen spinosum and increased meningeal vascular markings on: a. skull radiography. b. contrast-enhanced CT. c. contrast-enhanced MRI. d. all of the above. ANSWER: A REF: p. 281 10. Which of the following is NOT one of three tumors of the peripheral nerve sheath? a. Acoustic neuroma b. Acoustic neurilemma c. Schwannoma d. Pituitary adenoma ANSWER: D REF: p. 284 11. What are the three meningeal layers of the spinal cord, in order, from outermost to innermost? a. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater b. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater c. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater d. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater ANSWER: A REF: p. 250 12. The primary role of conventional radiography in imaging of the central nervous system includes the demonstration of: 1. fractures related to cranial trauma. 2. calcifications related to chronic disease. 3. cerebral aneurysms. a. b. c. d. 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 253 13. Which of the following pathologic conditions would demonstrate as a decrease in tissue density on CT images of the CNS? 1. Cerebral infarctions 2. Cerebral calcifications 3. CNS cysts a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: B REF: p. 258 14. What imaging modality is most commonly used to image the brain of neonates? a. CT b. Conventional radiography c. MRI d. Ultrasound ANSWER: D REF: p. 259 15. Which of the following neurologic deficits are associated with a meningomyelocele? 1. Diminished control of the urinary bladder 2. Diminished control of the bowel 3. Diminished control of the lower extremities a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 261 16. What is the most common cause of chronic meningitis? a. Bacterial infections b. Fungal infections c. Viral infections d. None of the above ANSWER: A REF: p. 264 17. What are the determining factors of a patient’s prognosis when diagnosed with metastatic brain disease? 1. Age of the individual 2. Number of metastatic lesions present 3. Primary type of malignant disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: C REF: p. 285 TRUE/FALSE 1. Vertebral disks are covered by a tough outer covering called the nucleus pulposus. ANSWER: F REF: p. 269 2. Spheres, coils, or beads are used to embolize or occlude cerebral vasculature, as in the case of an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM). ANSWER: T REF: p. 260 3. Antibiotics are often successful against many forms of meningitis, though antibiotic therapy is never given before a definite diagnosis has been established. ANSWER: F REF: p. 264 4. The most common locations for disk herniation are in the lower cervical and lower lumbar regions. ANSWER: T REF: p. 268 5. About 80% of all strokes are caused by small vessel disease. ANSWER: F REF: p. 273 6. Optimal detail of posterior fossa structures can be obscured by beam-hardening artifact associated with CT, making MRI the initial modality of choice for evaluating patients of all ages. ANSWER: T REF: p. 276 7. In patients previously treated for brain neoplasms, who subsequently present with new neurologic complaints, distinguishing between radiation necrosis and tumor recurrence is relatively simple. ANSWER: F REF: p. 277 8. Recurrence is common with medulloblastomas, and chemotherapy regimens have not been found to be consistently effective in controlling the recurrence. ANSWER: T REF: p. 281 9. The appearance of craniopharyngioma tumors on both CT and MR depends on the solid and cystic components of the mass. ANSWER: T REF: p. 284 10. In spinal tumor diagnosis and evaluation, conventional spine radiographs are primarily reserved for demonstrating bony destruction and widening of the vertebral pedicles related to tumor growth. ANSWER: T REF: p. 287 11. The blood–brain barrier consists of a network of capillaries that connects the arteries and veins of the brain that prevent the passage of unwanted macromolecules and fluids from leaking into the brain parenchyma. ANSWER: T REF: p. 252 12. A contrast-enhanced CT of the spine is the best imaging choice for postoperative patients in the evaluation of scarring when the tissue extends beyond the vertebral interspace. ANSWER: F REF: p. 269 13. A hemorrhagic stroke results from a rupture of a blood vessel of the brain due to a weakening in the diseased vessel wall. ANSWER: T REF: p. 272 Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The hemopoietic system consists of: 1. lymphatic tissue. 2. blood cells. 3. the liver. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 291 2. What substance helps to regulate the passage of water and solutes through the capillaries? a. Albumins b. Immune globulins c. Glucose d. Lipids ANSWER: A REF: p. 291 3. The three basic types of blood cells include: 1. erythrocytes. 2. leukocytes. 3. lymphocytes. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: A REF: p. 291 4. Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level less than a. 5 b. 7 c. 12 d. 20 ANSWER: C grams per 100 mL of blood. REF: p. 291 5. Which type of blood cells contains various antigens that determine blood type? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANSWER: A REF: p. 291 6. Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANSWER: D REF: p. 292 7. Which blood type is considered to be a universal recipient? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANSWER: C REF: p. 292 8. Which of the following are classified as granular leukocytes? 1. Basophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Neutrophils a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 292 9. Platelet activity is a. decreased b. increased c. not affected ANSWER: B by an inflammatory response. REF: p. 292 10. Major areas of lymph node chains include the: 1. neck. 2. pelvis. 3. retroperitoneum. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 293 11. Which of the following cells are the most important in the development of immunity? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANSWER: C REF: p. 293 12. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive blood cell type? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANSWER: C REF: p. 294 13. What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Thoracic duct d. Thymus ANSWER: A REF: p. 294 14. Radiographic skeletal survey images are appropriate in the diagnosis of: a. HIV. b. leukemia. c. multiple myeloma. d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma. ANSWER: C REF: p. 294 15. Which imaging modality has the highest specificity in demonstrating lymphatic disease? a. CT b. MRI c. PET d. Radiography ANSWER: C REF: p. 294 16. Which of the following is the principal agent of AIDS in the United States? a. HIV-1 b. HIV-2 c. HIV-3 d. Both a and b ANSWER: B REF: p. 295 17. What enzyme can covert viral RNA into a DNA copy? a. Retrovirus b. Reverse transcriptase c. Monoclonal paraprotein d. CD4 ANSWER: B REF: p. 296 18. Which of the following results from neoplastic changes in the B cells of the blood plasma? a. AIDS b. ALL c. Hodgkin lymphoma d. Multiple myeloma ANSWER: D REF: p. 300 19. Which of the following is a common complication associated with multiple myeloma? a. Opportunist infections b. Renal failure c. Splenomegaly d. Hepatomegaly ANSWER: B REF: p. 301 20. Leukemias frequently infiltrate the: 1. liver. 2. spleen. 3. lymphatic tissue. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: D REF: p. 301 21. Which type(s) of leukemia develop(s) from primitive or stem cells? a. Monocytic b. Myelocytic c. Lymphocytic d. All of the above ANSWER: B REF: p. 302 22. Which type of leukemia often infiltrates the skin and soft tissues of the body? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML ANSWER: B REF: p. 302 23. Bruising frequently occurs with a variety of hemopoietic disorders due to a decreased count. a. erythrocyte b. leukocyte c. lymphocyte d. platelet ANSWER: D REF: p. 302 24. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with which type of lymphatic cells? 1. Reed-Sternberg cells 2. B cells 3. T cells a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only IF YOU WANT THIS TEST BANK OR SOLUTION MANUAL EMAIL ME donc8246@gmail.com TO RECEIVE ALL CHAPTERS IN PDF FORMAT IF YOU WANT THIS TEST BANK OR SOLUTION MANUAL EMAIL ME donc8246@gmail.com TO RECEIVE ALL CHAPTERS IN PDF FORMAT