HOLIK OLENA MOSKALENKO LYUDMYLA PIDMAZINA OKSANA ZAKHAROVA VALERIYA MYROSLAVA VAKHNOVAN ENGLISH FOR MEDICINE 1 CONTENT 1. HUMAN BODY……………………………..........3 2. MAKING A DIAGNOSIS………………………11 3. PHARMACOLOGY……………………........….21 4. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM………………….......29 5. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM……………......38 6. DIGESTIVE SYSTEM…………………........…..47 7. ENDOCRINE SYSTEM…………………........…55 8. NERVOUS SYSTEM…………………….........…63 9. URINARY SYSTEM………………….........……73 10.INTERGUMENTARY SYSTEM...................….81 REFERENCES………………………............….….93 2 UNIT 1 ___ _HUMAN BODY REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY A Surface anatomy General Anatomy Brain Brain stem Neuron tubes Heart trachea lungs esophagus small intestine colon liver kidneys ureter bladder gallbladder ovaries fallopian stomach pancreas spleen uterus BA. Physical actions You can breathe through your nose or your mouth, so people breathe about 12-15 times a minute. 3 People usually walk to relax and to keep fit. When people don’t feel well, they cannot stand still and basically sway from side to side. When you pick up something heavy, you must bend your knees and keep your back straight. If you have got some difficulties and can’t extend your fingers, you have damaged some nerves. To have a good posture, you should straighten your back. CA. The Human Skeleton Medical term 1. cranium 2. mandible 3. clavicle 4. sternum 5. humerus 6. radius, ulna 7. pelvic girdle 8. femur 9. patella 10. tibia, fibula 11. cervical spine 12. scapula 13. rib cage 14. spine Lay term skull jaw bone collar bone breast bone arm forearm hip bone thigh bone knee cap shinbone neck bone shoulder blade ribs back bone Latin-derived adjectives referring to body parts: cerebral cranial cardiac buccal dermal gastric hepatic dental ocular osseous oral lingual pulmonary renal nasal thoracic abdominal sternal costal lacrimal pelvic spinal mandibular maxillary appendicular vertebral femoral Body systems: D cardiovascular digestive endocrine integumentary muscular-skeletal nervous respiratory reproductive urinary A case report containing the major parts of the human torso A 27-year-old male was brought to the hospital because of apparent injuries to the head and neck obtained in an automobile accident. The patient suffered minor 4 head trauma and may have a concussion. There is no visible injury to the neck. As for the torso, there are small scratches on the chest and waist. Bruising was observed on the abdomen and the rib cage. There is no damage to the legs or groin. The patient complains of pain below the right shoulder blade. He also has a deep cut on the small of his back. However, the patient’s arms and legs appear to be in good condition. cervix breastbone trunk inguina thorax scapula midsection lower –back or lumbar region belly upper and lower extremities PRACTICE 1. Use eight of these words to fill the gaps in the sentences eyes, abdomen, bladder, legs, chest, gallbladder, shoulder, nose 1. Babies crawl around on their hands and _________ 2. She has had an intense sharp pain in the right side of her __________ during breathing for 10 days. 3. Before the pain starts, people start seeing “spots” in front of their ___________ and during the headache they cannot tolerate light. 4. A doctor is going to feel patient’s ____________ for any fractures. 5. Before I examine your _____________ , you might need to go to the toilet: I need to examine you with an empty _____________! 6. Steroid sprays or drops relieve blocked____________ and ease breathing by reducing swollen sinuses. 7. A physician demonstrated results of ultrasound scan: a number of gallstones in the ____________. 2. Write the adjective form of these nouns by adding suffixes: - al, - ar. Noun 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Adjective abdomen cerebrum brachium umbilicus radius lymph ulna face reticulum 5 10. humerus 3. Match the words (1-8) with the definitions (A-H). 1. ----shoulder blade 5. ----neck 2. -----abdomen 6. ---groin 3. -----waist 7. ----chest 4. ----torso 8. ----small of the back A the upper front of the torso B area between the legs C the part of the body between the neck and the groin D lower portion of the back E part of the body that contains the digestive organs F part of the body that allows the head turn and connects the head to the torso G upper backbone that connects to the shoulders H area between the ribs and the pelvis Replace the underlined words with a word that has a similar meaning. 1. The axial skeleton consists of the skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs. 2. The mandible is the only movable bone of the cranium. 3. The collar bone provides the only bony link between the upper extremity and the axial skeleton. 4. The scapula is a flat triangular-shaped bone, lying on the posterior chest wall. 5. The posterior surface of the knee cap articulates with the patellar surface of the thigh bone in the knee joint. 6. The bones of the hip bone are two innominate bones and one sacrum. 7. The head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the shoulder blade forming the shoulder joint. 4. 5. Match the following words with their definitions: 1. They contain a variety of a) macrophages substances that promote blood clotting; they are tiny nonnucleated discs. 2. They have large nuclei and b) platelets defend the body against microbes and other foreign materials. 3. They have important functions c) lymphocytes in inflammation and immunity and function closely with monocytes and lymphocytes. 6 4. They serve as a repair system d) leukocytes for the body and cannot do specific functions but develop in many different types of cells. 5. They are formed in the red bone e) stem cells marrow and characterized by maturation of the cell and formation of hemoglobin inside the cell. 6. They have big nuclei, circulate f) erythrocytes in the blood and are present in great number in lymphatic tissue. 6. Identify each of the following terms by associating it with one of the major anatomical systems of the body: skeleton, circulatory system, skin, nervous system, digestive system or muscles. A term may belong to more than one system. rib cage dermis vertebra peristalsis teeth periosteum skull bursa plasma marrow dendrite rectum pulse pelvis capillary trachea cerebrum ventricle ligament neuron platelet colon kidney bile flexor bronchioles teeth taste buds eye pancreas liver tendon synapse salivary glands hemoglobin capillary 7. Fill in the gaps with the words from the box related to cranial nerves. facial optic vagus hypoglossal glossopharyngeal olfactory accessory trigeminal 1. These nerves pass to the ……. bulb, a group of nerve cell bodies of the second neurons. 2. …….. nerves contain motor and sensory fibers and are among the largest of the cranial ones. 3. The motor fibers supply the muscles of …… expression. 4. ……… nerves have a more extensive distribution than any other cranial nerves. 5. The nerves that arise from nerve cells in the medulla oblongata and in the spinal cord are called …… 7 6. The central retinal artery and vein enter the eye enveloped by the fibers of the …….. nerve. 7. The nerves supplying the muscles of the tongue and contributing to swallowing and speech are ……….. 8. The motor fibers of ……….. nerves stimulate the muscles of the tongue and pharynx and the secretory cells of the parotid glands. EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 During surgery performed on the abdominal cavity one placed (fixed) the ligament of the liver stretching from the anterior abdominal wall (navel) to the inferior surface of the liver. What ligament is it? A. Round ligament of the liver B. Falciform ligament of the liver C. Coronary ligament of the liver D. Venous ligament of the liver E. Triangular ligament of the liver Case presentation 2 A 50-year-old woman complains of persistent thirst. She drinks a lot of liquid and she has increased diuresis. Her blood glucose is 12 mmol/L and urine contains glucose. Which endocrine organ is likely to be impaired in this patient? A. Thyroid gland B. Neurohypophysis C. Adrenal glands D. Pancreas E. Parathyroid gland Case presentation 3 Histological micro slide shows a gastrointestinal organ. The walls of this organ consists of four layers: mucosal, submucosal, muscular and serous. The mucosal layer has folds and pits. Which organ does have such appearance? A. Esophagus B. Small intestine C. Duodenum D. Appendix E. Stomach Case presentation 4 A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive clumsiness and difficulty walking and experiences frequent falls. His muscle tone and strength in limbs are slightly decreased. He is unable to stand still and sways from side to side. Which of the 8 following brain regions is most likely affected and caused the symptoms described above? A. Right hemisphere B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Cerebellum E. Reticular formation Case presentation 5 A laboratory assistant is performing a complete blood count to detect if the bone marrow is making the right amount of blood cells. These blood cells have no nucleus and respond to bleeding of an injured blood vessel by initiating a blood clot. Which of the following items should be tested? A. Prothrombin B. Stem cells C. Leukocytes D. Platelets E. Macrophages Case presentation 6 A specimen shows an organ covered with the inward organ. There is also cortex containing lymphoid cells. What organ is under study? A. Thymus B. Lymph node C. Tonsils D. Red bone marrow E. Spleen Case presentation 7 During intensive physical exertion, one of the energy sources for the working muscles is glucose produced as the result of gluconeogenesis. This process is the most intensive in the following organ: A. Liver B. Brain C. Lungs D. Muscles E. Stomach Case presentation 8 A patient complains of pain in the upper umbilical region. On palpation, there is a mobile painful intestine. What intestine is being palpated by the doctor? A. Transverse colon B. Jejunum C. Duodenum D. Ileum E. Sigmoid colon 9 Case presentation 9 A man was brought to the casualty department with a trauma of the right shoulder. Examination revealed a displaced humeral fracture on the right in the middle onethird of the humerus; the patient cannot extend the fingers of his right hand. Which nerve is damaged? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Musculocutaneous E. Axillary Case presentation 10 After a case of a common cold, a patient developed numbness of the right side of the face. Examination revealed aching pain and thermal sensitivity in the right half of the face. Which nerve was damaged? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Vagus E. Hypoglossal 10 UNIT 2 ____ MAKING A DIAGNOSIS REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY A Taking a history For serious illness, a person is usually admitted to the hospital (1). A patient complains of (2) some symptoms that she (he) suspects of (3). A doctor asks about past medical (4) and family history (5) that provides information concerning the symptoms the patient has experienced (6), previous diseases as well as genetic predisposition. During taking a history the physician reveals (7) some details and facts that the patient can deny (8). So, the doctor administers to do some laboratory and instrumental studies (9) to confirm the diagnosis (10). When the patient feels better, he or she is discharged (11) from the hospital. B to be brought to to make a complaint about to have a suspicion previous genealogical chart to have, to feel to detect, find out refuse, contradict findings to prove the diagnoses to release Common symptoms and signs rash ( eruption, hives, urticaria, exanthema) cyanosis (bruising, bluish color of the skin) constipation (infrequent bowel movement, cough (air expelling from the lungs with a sudden sharp sound) cramp ( spasm, paroxysm) dizziness ( vertigo, light-headedness, drowsiness) itching ( scratch, pruiritis) lump ( tumor, bump, growth, neoplasm) nausea ( sickness, being sick) numbness ( insensibility, apathy, stupor) 11 vomiting ( emesis, nauseated) coryza ( a runny nose) edema ( swelling) sore throat ( pain in the throat) tiredness ( fatigue, exhaustion, prostration) insomnia ( sleepiness, somnolence) dyspnea ( shortness of breath, breathlessness) malaise ( discomfort, restlessness) fever (high temperature) sweating( perspiration, diaphoresis) System General symptoms Cardio-vascular system (CVS) Gastro-intestinal system (GIS) Urinary system Respiratory system Neurological system Skin problems C Symptoms malaise, weakness, myalgia, weight loss, anorexia, drowsiness, delirium, bleeding, vomiting, chills, photophobia dyspnea, palpitation, chest pain, hypertension, arrhythmia diarrhea, melena, constipation, heartburn, flatulence dysuria, frequency, urgency, discoloration, hematuria, nocturia, oliguria, polyuria cough, coryza, sore throat, dyspnea, sputum, hemoptysis blurred vision, blackouts, diplopia, photophobia, numbness rash, pruritis, bruising, itching, pigmentation, Describing pain excruciating stabbing tingling aching Dull Gnawing pain can be mild, moderate, severe, occasional , frequent and constant cramping burning sharp throbbing shooting pressing 12 D Diagnostic studies Physical examination: visual inspection (assessment of the general appearance) palpation( feeling with hands) auscultation( listening to the heart and lungs with the stethoscope) percussion( tapping a part of the body) body mass index (BMI) measurement pulse check respiratory rate assessment blood pressure measurement tilt test (blood pressure and heart rate monitoring when the patient is lying down and standing up) Laboratory methods: urinalysis or urine test blood sample full blood count complete blood count(CBC) fasting blood sugar gastric juice analysis bile examination stool test liver function tests allergy test serologic test pus smear throat swab biopsy Instrumental studies. Imaging techniques: echocardiogram (ECG) colonoscopy exercise tolerance test (ETT) gastroscopy electrocardiogram (EKG) ultrasound scanning doppler sonography (ultrasound) scintigraphy X-ray magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) computed tomography scanning ( CT) 13 PRACTICE 1. 2. Match these words for types of pain with their descriptions 1. a throbbing pain a) feels like it is eating you 2. a sharp pain b) travels fast along part of your body 3. a burning pain c) 4. a stabbing pain d) feels like a muscle is being squeezed 5. a shooting pain e) feels like something sharp is stuck into you 6. a dull ache f) comes and goes rhythmically 7. a gnawing pain g) feels like fire 8. a cramping pain h) is strong and sudden is steady and not too painful Write the words in the box in the correct columns a) aching b) pressing c) unbearable d) hot e) slight f) excruciating g) tingling h) stabbing i) blunt j) throbbing k) annoying l) intense m) dull Intensity of pain Severe Character of pain Mild 3. Read this report about a patient with appendicitis and find three mistakes. Two days ago Miss Jabarti had a mild fever and complained of a loss appetite. Later she suffered nausea and vomiting with an occasional pain in the center of her 14 stomach. She was admitted hospital yesterday. Today her abdomen is swollen and she is suffering a constant sharp pain her lower right side. a) Write a report on this patient who has food poisoning using these notes. Patient name: Ivan Abashev History: Yesterday – vomiting with headaches, diarrhea On admission – severe abdominal pain, high fever This morning – weakness, shivering. Pain in left abdomen- constant, stabbing 4. Make the diagnosis according to the symptoms a) Gastro-esophageal reflux (hiatal hernia) b) Pleuritis infarction d) Pulmonary embolism e) Pericarditis c)Myocardial 1. Sharp retrosternal chest pain, which is often improved by sitting forward. Worse with inspiration and associated shortness of breath, palpitations, shoulder discomfort, and cough. Change of posture and breathing influence the pain. 2. Continuous, pressing, retrosternal chest pain. Lasts about 20 minutes. Possibly radiating to the arms (usually to the left arm), back, neck or the lower jaw. Intensity does not alter. Breathing or changing posture does not influence the severity of the pain. Episodes of pain are related to activity: relief with rest. 3. Nausea and vomiting are sometimes the main symptoms. Sometimes hypotension, presenting as dizziness or fainting. A localized stabbing pain when breathing. Associated with recent or present respiratory illness. Fever, malaise. Aggravated by coughing and deep breathing. 4. Burning or pressing pain in the middle of the chest. Associated with eating. May be triggered by exercise. Nausea. Worse lying down. 5. Central stabbing chest pain; also may be burning, aching or dull, heavy sensation. Rapid breathing. Tachycardia. Pain is often not severe although the onset is sudden. May be worsened by breathing deeply, coughing, eating, or bending. 5. Read this article about the four techniques used during a patient examination and complete the gaps. Regardless of which part of the body you are examining, you will use four techniques. These must be used in sequence unless you are carrying out an abdominal assessment. a) __________ involves using a stethoscope to listen for different breath, heart and bowel sounds. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the patient’s skin to 15 listen for low-pitched sounds. Close your eyes to focus while you are carrying out the technique. b) ___________ entails touching the patient with different parts of the hand, using varying degrees of pressure. This technique requires you to have short fingernails and warm hands. Use a light form of this technique to assess surface abnormalities in texture, tenderness, temperature, moisture, pulsations and masses. c) ____________ can be done via smell and hearing as well as vision, in order to observe both normal conditions in a patient and deviations from the norm. If it is done correctly, it can reveal more than any other of the four techniques. Observe the patient for the following pointers: color, size, location, movement, texture, symmetry, as well as sounds and odors. d) _____________ requires tapping the fingers or hands quickly and sharply against parts of the patient’s body. The technique is usually used on the chest or abdomen to locate organ borders, to identify shape and position of an organ or determine its consistency. Listen to the sounds produced: observe their loudness, pitch and duration. Research the symptoms of one of these illnesses and give a short presentation describing them to the class. AIDS tuberculosis malaria gangrene rabies leprosy 6. Work in groups. Present summaries of the following cases using medical language. Case 1. Name: Charmine Plantz Age: 31 Occupation: Sales Manager Chief Complaint: Lump on front of neck for one month Other symptoms: Palpitations. Heat intolerance. Nervousness. Insomnia. Breathlessness. Increased bowel movements. Light menstrual periods. Physical examination: Enlarged thyroid, Tachycardia. Slight hypertension. Warm, moist, smooth skin. Exophthalmos. Tremor. Weight loss. Muscle weakness. Hair loss. 16 Case 2. Name: Selina Burton Age: 37 Occupation: Typist Chief Complaint: Tingling of first three fingers and thumb that gets worse at night Other symptoms: Weakness of fingers (has difficulty-buttoning clothes). Sometimes pain in forearm. Physical examination: Muscle wasting at base of thumb. Unable to distinguish hot from cold. Case 3. Name: Bob Smithson Age: 50 Occupation: Construction worker Chief Complaint: Attacks of dizziness with nausea and vomiting. During attack, high pulse rate and rapid breathing. No pattern to attacks. Other symptoms: Hissing or ringing in ears (on both sides), loss of hearing. Physical examination: Vital signs normal. Nystagmus. Positive Romberg test. Case 4. Name: Chuck Talavera Age: 38 Occupation: Farmer Chief Complaint: Low subjective fever, cough with bad tasting phlegm, night sweats, and weight loss getting worse over the last four months Social History: Long-term smoker Physical examination: Temperature of 38°C, gingival disease and dullness to percussion; absent breath sounds in lower right lobe of lung. Clubbing of fingers. EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Сase presentation 1 General practitioner performs a physical examination of the patient. In the course of examination, it is necessary to measure the palpable regular expansion of a superficial artery caused by the ejection of blood into the vessels through heart contraction. What sign does the doctor measure? A. Saturation B. Heart electricity C. Blood pressure 17 D. Pulse E. Heartbeat Case presentation 2 A 23-year-old woman was brought into the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea, tiredness and dizziness. A few days ago, she went to a fast food restaurant for a birthday party. Her friends are experiencing similar symptoms. Laboratory studies show anemia. What samples should be obtained for microbiologic testing in this case? A. Urine B. Bile C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Blood E. Stool Case presentation 3 A 27-year-old female presents with a severe sore throat, hoarseness, painful swallowing and low-grade fever. On intraoral examination, a large gray membrane is noticed on the oropharynx. Removal of the membrane reveals a bleeding edematous mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Streptococcal pharyngitis B. Diphtheria C. Meningococcal disease D. Scarlet fever E. Measles Case presentation 4 A 25-year-old male presents to an emergency department with sudden-onset rightsided pleuritic chest pain and breathlessness. On examination, he has arterial blood saturation of 90% in air and is afebrile. An X-ray shows a lung edge visible in the right hemi thorax, beyond which no lung markings are seen. Which of the following conditions has most likely occurred in this patient? A. Pneumonia B. Acrophagy C. Pleurisy D. Pneumothorax E. Rib fracture Case presentation 5 Autopsy of the body of a 48-year-old man shows that the bone marrow in the flat bones, as well as in the cylindrical bone diaphysis and epiphyses, is moist, colored gray-red or gray-yellow, and puri-form (pyoid bone marrow). The spleen weight is 7 kg; it is dark red on section, with signs of ischemic infarctions. All the lymph nodes are enlarged, soft, and grey-red in color. In the liver, there are signs of fatty degeneration and leukemic infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis? 18 A. B. C. D. E. Chronic myeloid leukemia Multiple myeloma Acute myeloid leukemia Acute lymphoid leukemia Lymphogranulomatosis Case presentation 6 A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and chest pain that started a few hours ago. She did not have fever, expectoration, or any accompanying symptoms. She has a history of right leg deep vein thrombosis that occurred 5 years ago. Sometime later, she dies of severe respiratory distress. A pulmonary autopsy specimen reveals red loose mass that is lodged in the bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk with extensions into both the left and right main pulmonary arteries. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Thromboembolism B. Myocardial infarction C. Pneumonia D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cancer Case presentation 7 The disease onset occurred 3 days ago. The patient complains of body temperature up to 38°C, stomachache, and frequent loose bloody stools. Bacillary dysentery was clinically diagnosed in the patient. What method of microbiological diagnostics would be advisable in this case and what samples should be obtained from the patient to confirm this diagnosis? A. Bacteriology, feces B. Bacterioscopy, feces C. Bacterioscopy, blood D. Bacteriology, urine E. Serology, blood Case presentation 8 A patient suffers from a condition, which is characterized by a restriction in blood supply to tissues, which leads to inadequate oxygen delivery to cells and contravention of cell metabolism. It is often caused by partial or total blockage of arteries. Which of the following is developed in this patient? A. Ischemia B. Hypoxia C. Inflammation D. Spasm E. Embolism 19 Case presentation 9 A 49-year-old man complains of pain in his metatarsophalangeal joint and joint deformation. In blood, hyperuricemy can be observed. X- ray has revealed metatarsophalangeal joint space narrowing, erosion, per articular calcification of the both joints, osteoporosis. Microscopy has detected inflammatory granulomatous reaction surrounding necrotizing masses in the area of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Choose the most likely diagnosis: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Urolithiasis D. Pyrophosphate arthropathy E. Gout Case presentation 10 A 10-year-old child has painful swallowing, neck edema, temperature rise up to 39.0 C; the whole body is covered with bright-red petechial rash. Back of the throat and tonsils are hyperemic, the tongue is crimson-colored. Tonsillar surface is covered with isolated grayish –colored necrosis nidi. What disease is it? A. Diphtheria B. Measles C. Influenza D. Scarlet fever E. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis 20 UNIT 3 PHARMACOLOGY REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY Drug Description Drugs are chemical substances used in medicine to treat diseases that can be obtained from various parts of plants, animals and are synthesized in pharmaceutical laboratories. Drugs are classified by how they work, what they treat and their chemical structure. They are classified so, in order, to be used properly, more effectively, to get the most benefit, to prevent harmful, unwanted side effects andto identify drug-to-drug interaction and the potential for drug resistance. There are many drug classifications in modern pharmacology. You are offered the most general, so drugs can be divided in these classes: Drug Categories 1. Analgesics – drugs that provide pain relief. 2. Anaesthetics – drugs that induce anaesthesia. 3. Antiemetics – drugs that help with nausea and vomiting 4. Antibiotics – drugs that kill bacteria 5. Anticoagulants – drugs that prevent blood clotting. 6. Antacids – drugs that neutralize acid in digestive system, lowering acidity 7. Antihistamines – drugs that treat allergic conditions. 8. Antiarrhythmics – drugs that correct abnormal heart rrythm. 9. Anticholinergic – drugs that block the action of acetylcholine. 10. Anti-Inflammatory (NSAIDS – Non-steroid Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) drugs that reduce inflammation and pain. 11. Antidotes – drugs that neutralize the effects of another drug or poison. 12. Antiviral – drugs that deal with variety of viruses. 13. Antimicrobials – drugs that prevent or treat conditions caused by bacteria, fungi, protozoa. 14. Antidepressants – drugs that relieve the symptoms of depression. 15. Bronchodilators – drugs that relax the muscles that surround airways. 16. Laxatives – drugs that loose the stool, also increasing bowel movement. 17. Vitamins - drugs that make the body develop and function normally. 21 Routes of drug administration Administration of drugs is a common, but important clinical procedure. There are various routes of administration available; each one of them has their own advantages and disadvantages. There are such routes of administation of drugs as: Oral Nasal Ophthalmic Otic Sublingual Rectal Topical Inhalation Parenteral Intravenous Intramuscular Intrathecal Subcutaneous Transdermal Groups of drugs prescribed to treat health problems of various body systems: * Antipsychotics *Cardiac glycosides *Diuretic *H2-Antagonists *Laxatives *Statines *Sympathomimetics *Hormones *Ointments *Vasodilators *Vasoconstrictors *Corticosteroids *Antidiarrheal *Antimicrobials 22 PRACTICE 1. Complete each sentence with a type of medicine. A painkiller, a sedative, an anti-inflammatory, an inoculation, an antibiotic, an antihistamine, a stimulant, an antidepressant, a laxative, a supplement. 1. … kills bacteria and other microorganisms. 2. … protect you against infectious diseases. 3. … relives pain. 4. … reduces swelling. 5. … encourages bowel movement. 6. … provides a substance that the body lacks. 7. … treats allergies. 8. … increases activity in the body. 9. … reduces feelings of extreme sadness. 10.… makes you relaxed and sleepy. 2. Work in pairs. Match these pictures with the medical problems. What groups of drugs should be prescribed for these cases? What is the way of drugs’ administration? 1. An infection 2. A cut 3. An insect bite 23 4. Constipation 5. Obesity 6. Vitamin deficiency 7. An infectious disease 8. An allergy 9. An infection 10.A cut 11.An insect bite 12.Constipation 13.Obesity 14.Vitamin deficiency 15.An infectious disease 16.An allergy 3. Correct the following statements. Comment your answer. 1. Digital glycosides are drugs, which relax the muscles of vessel walls and can be made synthetically. 2. Nitrites are used to prevent the formation of clots. 3. Digitoxin is also used as a vasodilator. 4. Heparin is administered only intravenously. 5. Diuretics are used to increase blood pressure. 6. People take antibiotics to stop the pain of heartburn and indigestion. 7. Antacid products irritate peptic ulcers and come in the form of injecti 8. H-2 antagonists cause many serious side effects. 24 9. Omeprazole and lansoprazole are more effective than H-2 antagonists. 10.Antibiotics aren’t usually prescribed in combination with other drugs. 3. Rewrite the sentences replacing the words in capitals with groups of drugs. 1. People suffering from hypertension are recommended to take drugs to reduce blood pressure. 2. Everyone should control cholesterol levels by taking drugs lowering it. 3. Poisoning must be treated by taking drugs that neutralize the poison of toxin. 4. A child was prescribed some medicines that widen the airways and keep the smooth muscles of the bronchioles relaxed. 5. As she was complaining of neuroses and couldn’t fall asleep, a physician administered drugs that induce sleep and sedation. 6. Diarrhea can be relieved by taking drugs which alleviate loose bowel movement. 7. Frequent intake of medicines that reduce inflammation and pain can promote gastritis or even peptic ulcers. 4. Match names of medicines on the left with their description on the right 1. Celecoxib 1. Can be administered in case of breathing is inhibited as an antidote (oral, parenteral). 2. Protamine 2. A calcium channel blocker that promotes sulfate antianginal and hypotensive action (tablets). 3. Piracetam 3. A non-steroidal used to treat some types of arthritis (oral). 4. Proserin 4. A medicine used to reverse the effects of heparin during surgery (intravenously). 5. Adrenalin 5. Used to treat hypothyroidism by providing more thyroid hormone (orally, tablets). 6. Tolbutamide 6. A medicine that acts on your brain and nervous system (tablets). 7. L-thyroxine 7. Used to treat severe allergic reactions as well as cardiac arrest, superficial bleeding. 8. Amlodipine 8. A medication used in the treatment of severe heart failure given intravenously. 9. Dobutamine 9. An oral antihyperglycemic agent used to treat non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. 5. Match the words with their definitions: 1. Intramuscular a) given into the eye by drops, gel or ointment 2. Topical b) held under the tongue 25 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Ophthalmic Intravenous Rectal Otic Intrathecal Sublingual Transdermal etc 10. Oral c) given by drops into the ear d) applied to the skin e) injected into the spine f) injected into a vein or into an IV line g) injected into muscle with a syringe h) inserted into the rectum i) swallowed by mouth as a tablet, lozenge, j) given through a patch placed on the skin EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 Muscle relaxant Tubocurarine was administered during surgery. After the operation the patient’s breathing wasn’t restored. What antidote should be given to the patient to restore his breathing? A. Clonidine B. Bemegride C. Propranolol D. Proserin* E. Atropine sulfate Case presentation 2 A woman poisoned with unknown substance was hospitalized to the Toxicological department. What group of drugs can be administered to disease absorption and introduction of the poison to her body? A. Antioxidants B. Cholinesterase inhibitors C. Neuroleptics D. Adsorbents E. Organic nitrates Case presentation 3 A patient suffering from ischemic heart disease was prescribed some calcium channel blockers. Name this drug: A. Amlodipine* B. Altiopril C. Nitroglycerin D. Carvedilol E. Thiotriazolin 26 Case presentation 4 A 46-year- old patient suffering from ulcer disease of the stomach is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. What anti-inflammatory drug would be the most advisable in this case? A. Celecoxib B. Prednisolone C. Analgin D. Promedol E. Paracetamol Case presentation 5 A patient with acute myocardial infarction has been administered heparin as a part of complex therapy. Sometime after heparin was injected the patient developed hematuria. What heparin antagonist should be injected to remove the complication? A. Fibrinogen B. Aminocaproic acid C. Neodicumarin D. Protamine sulfate* E. Vicasol Case presentation 6 An alcoholic has alcoholic psychosis with evident psychomotor agitation. What neuroleptic drug should be administered for emergency aid? A. Diazepam B. Reserpine C. Halothane D. Aminazine* E. Sodium bromide Case presentation 7 Prolonged treatment of hypothyroidism has caused general dystrophy, dental caries, tachycardia, tremor of extremities. What drug is the cause of these side effects? A. L-thyroxin* B. Parathyreoidinum C. Prednisolone D. Thyrocalcitonin E. Humulin (Human insulin) Case presentation 8 A man complaining of memory deterioration, reduced mental capabilities, sleep disorders, and vertigo was brought to the neurologic department. The patient 27 explains these symptoms as consequences of the brain concussion received in a traffic accident 2 year ago. Choose the drug, which can improve the patient’s brain metabolism and would be the most advisable in this case: A. Piracetam* B. Sydnocarb (Mesocarb) C. Sodium oxibutirate D. Cordiamin (Nikethamide) E. Caffeine Case presentation 9 A 46-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pain in his lingers and wrists for the last 2 months. The pain is present in both hands and the wrists are swollen. Furthermore, he described morning stiffness in his joints lasting about 2 hours, which improves with use. His past medical history reveals he was successfully treated for H. pylori related ulcers last year. He denies smoking and stopped drinking when his gastric symptoms started. Which of the following drugs is the best choice for his joint’s pain management? A. Prednistone B. Celecoxib* C. Paracetamol D. Aspirin E. Morphine Case presentation 10 In the morning, a man diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, received a prescribed dose of long-action insulin on an empty stomach. He missed his regular meal and soon after that, he developed weakness, headache, and vertigo, body tremors, convulsions, feeling of hunger, and signs of hypoglycemia. Glucose administration did not improve the patient’s condition. What medicine should be administrated to provide quick relief to the patient? A. Adrenaline* B. Triamcinolone C. Noradrenaline D. Prednisolone E. Hydrocortisone 28 UNIT 4 ________RESPIRATORY SYSTEM REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY A Basic terms The components of the respiratory system The respiratory system is made up of air passages, pulmonary vessels, the lungs and breathing muscles. The upper respiratory tract includes the nose and nasal cavities, pharynx, and larynx. The air enters the nasal cavity through the nostrils or external nares. The cilia (hair-like projections) help get rid of the trapped airborne particles through sneezing. The pharynx (the throat) opens into the larynx and is divided into the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx. The larynx (the voicebox or glottis) is the air passage between the pharynx and the trachea. The lower respiratory tract is composed of the trachea, bronchi, bronchial tree, and the lungs. The trachea (the windpipe) is the main airway into the lungs. It splits into the right and left bronchi. The primary bronchi branch into smaller passageways until they terminate in tiny air sacs called alveoli. The smallest branch of the tracheobronchial tree is the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles. The lungs are paired organs that are soft and spongy. Each lung is covered by a serous membrane, called the pleura. The space between the visceral and parietal pleura is the pleural cavity. It contains serous fluid that acts as lubricant to reduce friction, and it helps to hold the two layers of pleura together as the lungs inflate and deflate. The base of the lung is found near the diaphragm (the midriff) that is the main muscle of respiration. Medical terms related to respiration: quiet breathing diaphragmatic breathing costal breathing forced breathing internal respiration external respiration cellular respiration aerobic respiration 29 anaerobic respiration inhalation (inspiration, breathing in) exhalation (expiration, breathing out) gas exchange ventilation diffusion B Specific symptoms and signs of the respiratory diseases thoracalgia (chest pain) cough (persistent, “barking”, troubled, spasmodic) sneezing sore throat coryza (runny nose) sputum production (purulent sputum, streaked with blood, transparent sputum) mucus plugs (thick and sticky) expectoration (bringing up and spitting out phlegm, sputum or mucus) hemoptysis (coughing up and spitting out blood) wheezing (a high-pitched whistling sound) rales (fine crackles) rhonchi (a low-pitched sound that resembles snoring) C perfusion conducting zone respiratory zone respiratory cycle respiratory rate respiratory compliance stridor (a high-pitched loud sound that sounds like a bark) dysphonia (hoarse voice) egophony (a sound that resembles the bleating of a goat) fremitus (palpable vibration of the walls of the chest) dysphagia (difficult swallowing) orthopnea (difficult breathing when lying down) tachypnea (rapid breathing) dyspnea (difficulty breathing, shortness of breath) hypopnea (shallow breathing) hyperpnea (deep breathing) apnea (absence of breathing) expanded chest cyanosis (bluish discoloration) finger clubbing (bulbous enlargement of the fingertip Diagnostic studies Physical examination: inspection palpation (feeling with the hands) percussion auscultation (listening with a stethoscope) Laboratory methods: a) microbiological tests complete blood count 30 blood chemistry study sputum examination Disease Pulmonary embolism Inherited emphysema Cystic fibrosis Lung cancer Pneumonia (Latent) tuberculosis infection Sarcoidosis Asthma Eosinophilic disease Connective tissue disorders Pleural effusion Test D-dimer a1-antitrypsin Specific genetic tests Tumour marker Procalcitonin Tuberculin skin test Angiotensin-converting enzyme Total and specific immunoglobulin E, skin testing with allergens Eosinophils Immunological tests such as rheumatoid factor Total protein, LDH (lactate dehydrogenase), glucose, cholesterol and others in pleural fluid b) histological and cytological examination Respiratory function tests: spirometry lung capacity diffusing capacity blood gas analysis cardiopulmonary exercise testing Imaging techniques: chest X-ray high resolution computed tomography pulmonary and bronchial angiography magnetic resonance imaging fluoroscopy utrasonography Invasive biopsy techniques: bronchoscopy percutaneous needle biopsy thoracentesis and pleuroscopy surgical methods 31 D Laboratory and instrumental findings abnormal breathing patterns (apnea, orthopnea, dyspnea, hyperpnea, tachypnea, hyperventilation, hypoventilation) chest wall deformities (sunken chest, pigeon chest) oedema (swelling) lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes) points of tenderness (sensitivity to pain) pleural effusion (dullness) pneumothorax (hyperresonance) abnormal breathing sounds (wheezes, crackles, pleural friction rub) PRACTICE 1. Agree or disagree with the following statements. Comment on your answer. 1. The larynx is the air passage between the oropharynx and the trachea. 2. The sound production includes the windpipe that vibrates as the expelled air passes through it. 3. The respiratory system filters, warms, and humidifies the expired air. 4. The right lung has a greater volume than the left lung. 5. The primary bronchi branch into the largest passageways until they terminate in tiny air sacs called alveoli. 6. The nose is made up of soft tissue and is located in the lower face area. 7. The lungs are soft and spongy organs. 8. The term “breathing” is the same as “ventilation”. 2. Match the definitions with the phrases in the box. quiet breathing diaphragmatic breathing costal breathing forced breathing aerobic respiration anaerobic respiration 1. a shallow breath ___________________ 2. taking place in the presence of oxygen to produce energy _________________ 3. hyperpnea, a mode of breathing that occurs during exercise ________________ 4. eupnea, a mode of breathing that occurs at rest ____________________ 32 5. taking place in the absence of __________________ 6. deep breathing ___________________ oxygen to produce energy 2. Match words in column A to words in column B to make phrases. Then match the phrases to the terms 1-10. A thick and sticky spitting out shortness of difficult bulbous enlargement of runny bluish hoarse fine a high-pitched B nose swallowing discoloration expectoration voice whistling sound crackles fingertips blood breath 1. finger clubbing ___________________ 2. dyspnea _________________________ 3. dysphonia _______________________ 4. dysphagia _______________________ 5. cyanosis _________________________ 6. hemoptysis _______________________ 7. rales ___________________________ 8. wheezing _______________________ 9. coryza __________________________ 10.mucus plugs _____________________ 3. Complete a case history with the words/phrases in the box. Explain these concepts. sick contacts sputum specimens pleuritic chest pain chest computed tomography scan hemoptysis sweats a cavitary lesion DNA probe method first-line therapy duration laboratory abnormalities A 40-year-old male presented to the emergency department complaining of ______________of 8 days’___________. This was associated with mild right-sided _________________and night ___________. The patient didn’t 33 have any shortness of breath, fever, or weight loss. The patient did not report any history of _____________. On admission, the patient had a normal physical examination and no significant _________________. A _________________ showed ______________with an air-crescent sign in the apical segment of his right lower lobe, suggestive of fungal infection. Acid fast bacillus and fungal cultures were performed on three consecutive early morning _________________after admission; all were positive for acid fast bacteria but were negative for fungi. M. tuberculosis infection was confirmed by the________________. The patient was discharged on ________________with isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol with pyridoxine. 4. a) Read a case report. A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and chest pain that started a few hours ago. She did not have a fever, expectoration, or any accompanying symptoms. She has a history of right leg deep vein thrombosis that occurred 5 years ago. Some time later, she dies of severe respiratory distress. A pulmonary autopsy specimen reveals red loose mass that is lodged in the bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk with extensions into both the left and right main pulmonary arteries. b) Find phrases in the text that mean the following. Respiratory failure Elevated temperature Sputum Coexisting manifestations Sample Obstruction of blood flow due to a blood clot Dyspnea Thoracalgia Division c) Present this case report to your partner in the group. Answer your partner’s questions about the case. 5. Work in different pairs. What are the causes of the conditions below? Discuss their management (assessment of patients, summary of investigations, choice of treatment). Tuberculosis Bronchitis Emphysema Pneumonia Asthma Lung cancer 34 EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 A 6-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother, who complains of low-grade fever, chronic cough and night sweats in her child. She describes the cough as productive, producing white sputum that is sometimes streaked with blood. She also says that her son has lost some weight in the last month. His vital signs include blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, heart rate of 110/min., respiratory rate of 18/min. and temperature of 36.6o C . On physical examination, the patient is ill looking. Pulmonary auscultation reveals some fine crackles in the right upper lobe. The pediatrician suspects an active infection and performs Mantoux test. Intradermal injection of which of the following substances has been most likely used by pediatrician for screening test in this clinical case? A.Tuberculin B.Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine C. Diphtheria-tetanus toxoids -acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) D.Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td) E.Case presentation 2 A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculous process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux test. What immunobiological preparation was injected? A. Tuberculin B. BCG vaccine C. DTP vaccine D. Tularinum E. Td vaccine Case presentation 3 A 67-year-old patient with clinical diagnosis of chronic bronchitis, pneumosclerosis, and cardiopulmonary decompensation has the biopsy material taken from the suspicious area in his right bronchus mucosa. Cellular and tissue atypism along with pearly bodies can be histologically detected. What pathologic process is characterized by the described histological changes? A. Squamous cell carcinoma of bronchus with keratinization B. Polypoid chronic bronchitis C. Bronchiectasis D. Acute bronchitis E. Squamous cell metaplasia of bronchial mucosa 35 Case presentation 4 A 5-year-old child has been diagnosed with acute right distal pneumonia. Sputum inoculation revealed that the causative agent is resistant to penicillin and senstive to macrolides. What drug should be prescribed? A. Azithromycin B. Tetracycline C. Gentamycin D. Streptomycin E. Ampicillin Case presentation 5 Autopsy of a man who had tuberculosis revealed a 3x2 cm large cavity in the superior lobe of the right lung. The cavity was interconnected with a bronchus, its wall was dense and consisted of three layers: the internal layer was pyogenic, the middle layer was made of tuberculous granulation tissue and the external one was made of connective tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis B. Fibrous focal tuberculosis C. Tuberculoma D. Acute focal tuberculosis E. Acute cavernous tuberculosis Case presentation 6 Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed slightly elongated grampositive diplococci with pointed opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Neisseria meningitidis E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Case presentation 7 A child is 10 years old. The following presentations have developed: sharp pain during swallowing, swollen neck, body temperature rise up to 39, 0o C , brightred finely papular rash all over the body. Pharynx and tonsils are sharply hyperemic ("flaming pharynx"), "crimson tongue". On the tonsils surface there are isolated greyish necrosis focuses. What disease it might be? A. Scarlet fever B. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis C. Diphtheria D. Influenza E. Measles 36 Case presentation 8 When studying the signs of pulmonary ventilation, reduction of forced expiratory volume has been detected. What is the likely cause of this phenomenon? A. Obstructive pulmonary disease B. Increase of respiratory volume C. Increase of inspiratory reserve volume D. Increase of pulmonary residual volume E. Increase of functional residual lung capacity Case presentation 9 An HIV-positive patient’s cause of death is acute pulmonary insufficiency resulting from pneumonia. Pathohistological investigation of lungs has revealed interstitial pneumonia, alveolocyte desquamation and methamorphoses: alveolocyte enlargement, large intranuclear inclusions surrounded by lightlycoloured areas. Transformed cells resemble owl’s eye. Name the causative agent of pneumonia: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Pneumococcus C. Influenza virus D. Candida fungi E. Toxoplasma Case presentation 10 A 28-year-old patient undergoing treatment in a pulmonological department has been diagnosed with pulmonary emphysema caused by splitting of alveolar septum by tissular tripsin. The disease is caused by the congenital deficiency of the following protein: A. α1 -proteinase inhibitor B. α2 -macroglobulin C. Cryoglobulin D. Haptoglobin E. Transferrin Case presentation 11 A 30-year-old man has sustained an injury to his thorax in a traffic incident, which caused disruption of his external respiration. What type of ventilatory difficulty can be observed in the given case? A. Restrictive extrapulmonary ventilatory impairment B. Restrictive pulmonary ventilatory impai- rment C. Obstructive ventilatory impairment D. Impaired ventilation regulation dysfuncti- on E. Cardiovascular collapse 37 UNIT 5 ____CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY A Basic terms The components of the cardiovascular system The cardiovascular system consists of the heart, blood, and blood vessels. There are five general classes of blood vessels in the cardiovascular system: arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. The human heart is a hollow and cone-shaped muscular organ. The walls of the heart are composed of three layers: the outer epicardium, middle myocardium, and inner endocardium. The heart is enclosed in a tough fibrous sac known as the pericardium. The heart is divided into four chambers: two atria and two ventricles. Between each atrium and ventricle, there are valves that allow blood to flow in one direction and prevent backflow. The atrioventricular valves include the mitral (bicuspid) valve on the left and the tricuspid valve on the right. The pulmonary and aortic valves are known as semilunar valves. There are two types of blood circulation: systemic and pulmonary. Medical terms related to the work of the heart: blood circulation cardiac conduction system cardiac cycle cardiac output systole diastole stroke volume vasoconstriction vasodilation heartbeat B Specific symptoms and signs of the cardiovascular diseases unequal pulses (heartbeats varying hypertension (high blood pressure) in force) hypotension (low blood pressure) tachycardia (fast resting heart rate) 38 palpitation heartbeat) arrhythmia heartbeat) (rapid or irregular (abnormal/irregular heart murmur (whooshing or swishing heart sound) atrial fibrillation (erratic twitching of the heart) cholesterol plaques (fatty deposits) impaired blood coagulation (abnormal blood clotting) congestion (blockage) Chest pain description: burning cramping crushing blinding gripping pounding C angina (chest pain) hypoesthesia (numbness in the face and limbs) paresthesia (tingling/prickling/ burning sensation in the face and limbs) globus sensation (choking sensation) edema (swelling) presyncope (lightheadedness) diaphoresis (abnormal sweating) visual disturbances: diplopia (double vision) and blurred vision shooting stabbing tingling throbbing oppressive squeezing Diagnostic studies Physical examination: assessment of the general appearance body mass index (BMI) measurement checking pulse and radiofemoral delay respiratory rate assessment blood pressure measurement tilt test (blood pressure and heart rate monitoring when the patient is lying down and standing up) chest and abdominal palpation (feeling with the hands) cardiac auscultation (listening with a stethoscope) cardiac percussion Laboratory methods: urinalysis for protein and blood serum creatinine, potassium and uric acid measurement full blood count 39 fasting blood sugar troponin blood test cholesterol level and lipid profile tests liver function tests Imaging techniques: echocardiogram (ECG) exercise tolerance test (ETT) electrocardiogram (EKG) doppler sonography (ultrasound) myocardial perfusion scan (scintigraphy) chest X-ray magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) cardiac computed tomography (Cardiac CT) Invasive biopsy techniques: left and right heart catheterization coronary angiography left ventricular and/or right ventricular angiography endomyocardial biopsy pericardiocentesis percutaneous pericardioscopy epicardial or pericardial biopsy D Laboratory and instrumental findings ejection sounds (clicks) pericardial friction rub ventricular gallop atrial gallop heart murmurs decreased cardiac output distention, bulging or protrusion of jugular vein enlarged heart vascular congestion pulse inequality pulse deficit weak pulses bounding and firm pulse pulsations bradycardia irregular rhythms loss of blood vessel elasticity narrowed blood vessels 40 PRACTICE 6. Agree or disagree with the following statements. Comment on your answer. 1. The only function of the cardiovascular system is to transport nutrients and gases. 2. There are two general classes of blood vessels in the cardiovascular system. 3. The smallest blood vessels are arterioles and venules. 4. The heart is divided into two chambers. 5. The atrioventricular valves include the mitral (bicuspid) valve on the left and the tricuspid valve on the right. 6. The superior vena cava carries blood from the lower trunk and legs. 7. Four pulmonary arteries supply the left atrium with oxygen-rich blood that is transported from the lungs. 8. Blood is directed through the aortic valve into the largest artery in the body, known as the aorta. 7. Complete the sentences with the words and word-combinations in the box. deoxygenated blood finer arterioles reservoirs for blood diffusion of blood midline of the thoracic cavity waste rich blood mitral valve backflow 1. Between each atrium and ventricle, there are valves that allow blood to flow in one direction and prevent ___________. 2. Arteries subdivide into thinner vessels that branch into ____________. 3. The human heart is a muscular organ situated to the left of the _______. 4. Capillary walls allow the _____with high level of oxygen and nutrients. 5. ____________ flows into the right atrium from the veins known as the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava (the largest veins in the body), and the coronary sinus. 6. Veins also serve as __________in certain conditions, such as during arterial haemorrhage. 7. Blood passes from the left atrium into the left ventricle through the ___________. 8. Then carbon dioxide and ________ drains into the veins through the venules and returns to the right atrium of the heart through the vena cava. 41 8. Match words in column A to words in column B to make phrases. Then match the phrases to the terms 1-10. A swishing fast resting abnormal blood heartbeats tingling double erratic fatty abnormal choking B varying in force twitching of the heart deposits vision sweating heart rate sensation sensation in the face and limbs heart sound clotting 11.tachycardia __________________________ 12.unequal pulses ________________________ 13.heart murmur ________________________ 14.cholesterol plaques _____________________ 15.impaired blood coagulation ______________ 16.atrial fibrillation _______________________ 17.paresthesia ___________________________ 18.globus sensation _______________________ 19.diplopia ______________________________ 20.diaphoresis ___________________________ 9. Complete a case history with the words/phrases in the box. Explain these concepts. tachypneic murmur palpitation a diabetic edema syncope heart disease palpable diaphoretic nocturnal breathlessness hypertensive A 48-year-old man presented to the emergency room with recent worsening of breathlessness. His dyspnea was worse at night. His _______________woke him up frequently. For the past 5 months he had experienced increasing fatigue on walking and climbing stairs. He was not ___________or ______________and denied any chest pain, ______________or _______________. He did not smoke but took 5-6 pegs of alcohol on most days of the week, for the last 30 years. None of his family members had history of _________________. 42 On examination, he was _____________and ______________. Pulse was rapid and feeble with a changing volume in alternate beats and the extremities were cold. His heart rate was 120 beats/min with a BP of 106/74 mm Hg. The JVP was clearly elevated and there was also ____________over his ankles. The liver edge was _____________6 cm below the right costal margin. There was a soft pansystolic ______________over the mitral area with an audible gallop sound in early diastole. 10. a) Read a case report. A 58-year-old man presented to the cardiology facility with fatigue, difficulty in breathing and increasing swelling over his ankles. He had noticed an increase in his abdominal girth and had loss of appetite, but there was no weight loss. There was no history of fever, productive cough, chest pain or hemoptysis. He also denied palpitations or episodes of syncope. The patient was not hypertensive or diabetic. On examination, he was tachypneic. The pulse was 90 beats/min with a BP of 114/72 mm Hg. There was no cyanosis or jaundice but pitting edema was present around the ankles. There was no murmur or pericardial friction rub. d) Find phrases in the text that mean the following. Angina Exhibiting abnormally rapid breathing Dyspnea A swollen tissue remains indented after being pressed Lightheadedness Rapid or irregular heartbeat Extreme tiredness Having increased blood pressure Swishing heart sound e) Present this case report to your partner in the group. Answer your partner’s questions about the case. 11. Work in different pairs. What are the causes of the conditions below? Discuss their management (assessment of patients, summary of investigations, choice of treatment). Chronic stable angina Hypertension Atherosclerosis Acute coronary syndromes Myocardial infarction Arrhythmias Cardiomyopathies Pericarditis Acute mitral regurgitation Congenital heart disease 43 Heart failur EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 A patient with ciliary arrhythmia was prescribed digoxin. What mechanism of action of this medicine results in its anti-arrhythmic effect? A. Inhibition of Na, K-ATPase B. Increased potassium concentration in the cardiomyocytes C. Decreased sympathetic influences D. Decreased permeability of the cell membrane to calcium E. Decreased permeability of the cell membrane to sodium Case presentation 2 A 27-year-old woman suffering from rheumatic heart disease since her childhood has developed cardiac decompensation and died. Autopsy shows mitral stenosis; mitral valve cusps are sharply thickened, sclerotic, and fused together along the closure line. Specify the type of endocarditis in this case: A. Fibroplastic endocarditis B. Diffuse endocarditis C. Recurrent verrucous endocarditis D. Acute verrucous endocarditis E. Ulcero-polypoid endocarditis Case presentation 3 A microspecimen of heart shows rectangular cells from 50 to 120 micrometers large with central position of nucleus and developed myofibrils. The cells are connected by intercalated discs. These cells are responsible for the following function: A. Function of heart contractions B. Function of impulse conduction C. Endocrine D. Protective E. Regeneratory Case presentation 4 Increased HDL levels decrease the risk of atherosclerosis. What is the mechanism of HDL anti-atherogenic action? A. They remove cholesterol from tissues B. They supply tissues with cholesterol C. They are involved in the breakdown of cholesterol 44 D. They activate the conversion of cholesterol to bile acids E. They promote absorption of cholesterol in the intestine Case presentation 5 A 43-year-old-patient has arterial hypertension caused by increase in cardiac output and general peripheral resistance. Specify the variant of hemodynamic development of arterial hypertension in the given case: A. Eukinetic B. Hyperkinetic C. Hypokinetic D. Combined E. Case presentation 6 Angiocardiography of a 60-year-old man revealed constriction of the vessel located in the left coronary sulcus of his heart. Name this pathological vessel: A. Ramus circumflexus B. Ramus interventricularis posterior C. A. coronaria dextra D. V. cordis parva E. Ramus interventricularis anterior Case presentation 7 A patient with acute myocardial infarction has been administered heparin as a part of complex therapy. Some time after heparin injection the patient developed hematuria. What heparin antagonist should be injected to remove the complication? A. Protamine sulfate B. Vicasol C. Aminocaproic acid D. Neodicumarin E. Fibrinogen Case presentation 8 When treating a patient with chronic cardiac failure a doctor detected bradycardia and deterioration of the patient’s general state. Such condition is caused by cumulative effect of a drug. Which drug of those listed below has cumulative action? A. Digoxin B. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrol) C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Isosorbide E. Retinol acetate 45 Case presentation 9 In an elderly person the change in heart force and vessels physical properties were detected; they can be clearly observed on graphic recording of carotid pulse waves. What method was applied? A. Sphygmography B. Plethysmography C. Rheography D. Myography E. Phlebography Case presentation 10 A patient has developed paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia against the background of cardiac infarction. What anti-arrhythmic drug should be chosen to avoid lowering cardiac output? A. Lidocaine hydrochloride B. Procainamide C. Verapamil D. Propranolol E. Potassium chloride Case presentation 11 Cholesterol content in blood serum of a 12-year-old boy is 25 mmol/l. Anamnesis states hereditary familial hypercholesterolemia caused by synthesis disruption of receptor related proteins for: A. Low-density lipoproteins B. High-density lipoproteins C. Chylomicrons D. Very low-density lipoproteins E. Middle-density lipoproteins Case presentation 12 A 27-year-old patient with injury to the neck has lost approximately 30% of the blood volume. The patient’s condition is severe: blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg, heart rate is 140/min., respiratory rate is 30/min., conscious. Characterize the condition of the patient’s circulatory system: A. Hypovolemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Collapse D. Coma E. Arterial hypertension 46 UNIT 6 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM Review of basic terminology Basic terms 1. In peritonitis patient’s peritoneum is usually plethoric or hypovolemic and has yellow-green deposit or film which looks like a membrane. 2. After the surgery on the intestine the patient developed a complication: his walls of operated intestine adhered together to form commissure. 3. The lesser peritoneal sac (which is also known as omental bursa) is the potential space that exists within the abdomen between the stomach and the pancreas 4. The foramen of Winslow or omental foramen provides its only communication with the greater omental sac or peritoneal cavity. 5. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with the manufacture of lipid molecules. 6. Hydrolysis involving organic compounds may be illustrated by the reaction of water with an ester of a carboxylic acid 7. Trypsin can be used as protease. Chymotrypsin facilitates the cleavage of peptide bonds by a hydrolysis reaction which occurs extremely slowly in the absence of a catalyst. 8. Patients with hepatitis usually have yellow sclerae or whites of the eyes. Specific symptoms and signs of diseases of digestive system 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Loose stool = diarrhoea Yellow whites of the eyes = icteric sclerae Jaundice = icterus Enlarged liver = hepatomegaly Discoloured faeces = faecal hypocholia Diagnostic studies 1. Bacteriology analysis is the method used to identify the number of bacteria 2. Serology analysis is the laboratory procedure carried out on a sample of blood serum for the purpose of detecting antibodies or antibodylike substances that appear specifically in association with certain diseases. 3. Bacterioscopy is the method of identifying bacteria with the help of microscope 47 4. Autopsy is the surgical procedure of examining dead body to identify the cause of death 5. Histological microslide is the tissue put on the glass for examination 6. Solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is the method that describes the detection and quantitation of antibodies IgG and IgM in blood serumen. Laboratory and instrumental findings Prefix Hypo– = decrease, low level Prefix Hyper– = increase, high level Suffix –emia = a substance that is contained in the blood Example: Hypo+protein+emia = low level of protein in the blood Example: Hyper+bilirubin+emia = high level of bilirubin in the blood Haema (blood) + glutination (joining together) = Haemagglutination (the reaction when erythrocytes are stuck together) Suffix –uria = a substance that is contained in the urine Example: Urobilinuria (the presence of urobilin in the urine) Bilirubinuria (the presence of bilirubin in the urine) Fibrin (connective tissue)+purulent(containing pus)=fibrinopurulent (containing fibrin and pus) Suffix –itis = inflammation Peritoneum (abdominal membrane) + itis (inflammation) = = peritonitis (inflammation of abdominal membrane) Entero (intestine) + –ase (forming a name of an enzyme) = enterokinase (an enzyme of the duodenum that activates trypsinogen into trypsin) Immuno (antibodies) + electrophoresis (directed transition of charged particles)= = immunoelectrophoresis (electrophoretic separation of antibodies followed by identification by the formation of precipitates through specific immunologic reactions) 48 Immuno(antigen, antibodies)+fluorescence (refers to the invisible wavelengths of light that become "visible" when exposed to ultraviolet radiation) = immunofluorescence (the labeling of antibodies or antigens with fluorescent dyes especially for the purpose of demonstrating the presence of a particular antigen or antibody in a tissue PRACTICE 1. Match the words from the left column with words from the right column to have word combinations. Compose sentences with these word combinations 1. Omental 2. Foramen of 3. Agranular endoplastic 4. Loose 5. Icteric 6. Enlarged 7. Faecal 8. Serology 9. Histological 10.Plethoric a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. reticulum stool bursa sclerae hypocholia Winslow microslide peritoneum liver analysis 2.Match the term with its explanation 1. Hydrolysis a. the method of identifying bacteria with the help of microscope 2. Trypsin 3. Diarrhoea b. enlarged liver c. discoloured faeces 4. Icterus d. involving organic compounds may be illustrated by the reaction of water with an ester of a carboxylic acid 49 5. Hepatomegaly e. is the surgical procedure of examining dead body to identify the cause of death 6. Faecal hypocholia f. inflammation of abdominal wall g. is an enzyme secreted by pancreas and acts on the proteins h. liquid stool i. jaundice j. an enzyme of the duodenum that activates trypsinogen into trypsin 7. Autopsy 8. Enterokinase 9. Bacterioscopy 10.Peritonitis 3.Fill in the gaps in the sentences Plethoric, icteric, body temperature, protein hydrolysis, bloody diarrhea, omental foramen, bacteriology of faeces. 1. A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of, ___________________ fatigue and confusion. 2. ___________________would be advisable to take from the patient to confirm bacillary dysentery? 3. On autopsy the peritoneal layers are_______________, dull, and covered with massive yellow-green membranous deposits. 4. Activity of chymotrypsin and trypsin depends on the presence or absence of enterokinase 5. Objectively, patient’s skin and sclerae are _______________, he has elevated body temperature, enlarged liver, dark urine, fecal hypocholia. 6. The patient complains of _______________ up to 38°C, stomachache, and frequent loose bloody stools. 7. During an invasive operation the surgeon needs to access the omental bursa of the peritoneal cavity via the __________________ (foramen of Winslow). 8. ___________________occurs in the duodenum under the action of enterokinase. 50 4.Match the parts of the sentences 1. To test donor blood for hepatitis B antigens, 2. Autopsy is the surgical procedure of examining dead body a. identify the number of bacteria 3. Bacteriology analysis is the method used to c. it is necessary to use solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay d. to identify the cause of death 4. Serology analysis is the method of diagnostics 5. Histological microslide is the tissue put on the glass 6. Bacterioscopy is the method of 7. Disturbed activity of trypsin and chymotrypsin leads to 8. On physical examination patients with hepatitis usually have b. disturbed protein breakup in the small intestine. e. used to detect antibodies or antibodylike substances. f. yellow sclerae or whites of the eyes. g. identifying bacteria with the help of microscope h. for examination 1. Agree or disagree with the statements. Prove your idea. 1. In order to prove the diagnosis of dysentery one should perform bacteriological test of faeces. 2. Thick yellow-green fluid from the patient’s cavity evidences serous inflammation. 3. Enterokinase deficiency can stimulate the activity of trypsin. 4. The wall of the stomach consists of 4 layers: mucosal, submucosal, muscular, and serous. 5. In peritonitis patient’s peritoneum is usually without morphological changes. 6. Antibiotics are usually prescribed after surgery on the intestine to avoid formation of commissures. 7. After the surgery on the intestine the patient developed a complication: his walls of operated intestine adhered together to form commissure. 51 8. Hypoproteinemia is high level of protein in blood. 9. Hyperbilirubinemia is low level of bilirubin in blood. 10. Immunofluorescence test is used for labeling of antibodies or antigens with fluorescent dyes especially for the purpose of demonstrating the presence of a particular antigen or antibody in a tissue. 2. Answer the questions 1. What is haemoglutination? 2. What is urobilinuria? (the presence of urobilin in the urine) 3. What is bilirubinuria? (the presence of bilirubin in the urine) 4. What is fibrinopurulent peritonitis? 5. What is immunoelectrophoresis and immunofluorescence? 6. What can cause long-term taking of medicines in the liver? 7. What is the function of enterokinase? 8. What can be the clinical manifestations of hepatocellular parenchymal jaundice? EXAMPLES OF EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea, fatigue and confusion. A few days earlier, she went to a fast food restaurant for a birthday party. Her friends are experiencing similar symptoms. Laboratory studies show anemia. Which of the following would you most likely obtain for microbiologic testing? A. Blood B. Urine C. Bile D. Cerebrospinal fluid E. Stool Case presentation 2 The disease onset occurred 3 days ago. The patient complains of body temperature up to 38°C, stomachache, and frequent loose bloody stools. Bacillary dysentery was clinically diagnosed in the patient. What method of microbiological diagnostics would be advisable in this case and what samples should be obtained from the patient to confirm this diagnosis? A. Bacteriology, feces B. Bacterioscopy, feces C. Bacterioscopy, blood 52 D. Bacteriology, urine E. Serology, blood Case presentation 3 A 39-year-old man underwent a surgery for peptic ulcer disease of the stomach. He died 7 days after the surgery. On autopsy the peritoneal layers are plethoric, dull, and covered with massive yellow-green membranous deposits. The peritoneal cavity contains approximately 300 mL of thick yellow-green fluid. What pathologic process was detected in the peritoneal cavity A. Peritoneal commissures B. Serous peritonitis C. Serofibrinous peritonitis D. Fibrinopurulent peritonitis E. Fibrinohemorrhagic peritonitis Case presentation 4 During an invasive operation the surgeon needs to access the omental bursa of the peritoneal cavity via the omental foramen (foramen of Winslow). What anatomical structure makes up the anterior border of this foramen A. Hepatorenal ligament B. Hepatoduodenal ligament C. Visceral surface of liver D. Superior part of duodenum E. Greater omentum Case presentation 5 Long-term taking of medicines can affect cells of the liver. Particularly, it can cause marked hypertrophy of agranular endoplasmic reticulum due to the following function of this organelle: A. Protein synthesis B. Nucleic acid synthesis C. Detoxication of harmful substances D. Formation of maturation spindle 0% E. Intracellular digestion Case presentation 6 A 45-year-old woman presents with insufficient secretion of enterokinase enzyme. Enterokinase deficiency can cause disturbance of the following digestive function: A. Lipid absorption B. Carbohydrate hydrolysis C. Lipid hydrolysis D. Vitamin absorption E. Protein hydrolysis 53 Case presentation 7 Disturbed activity of trypsin and chymotrypsin leads to disturbed protein breakup in the small intestine. Activity of these enzymes depends on the presence of the following factor: A. Bile acids B. Pepsin C. Enterokinase D. Hydrochloric acid E. N a+ salts Case presentation 8 To test donor blood for hepatitis B antigens, it is necessary to use highly sensitive detection methods. What test should be used for this purpose A. Complement binding B. Immunoelectrophoresis C. Indirect hemagglutination D. Solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay E. Indirect immunofluorescence Case presentation 9 Histological microslide shows a gastrointestinal organ. The wall of this organ consists of 4 layers: mucosal, submucosal, muscular, and serous. The muscular layer has folds and pits. What organ has such appearance? A. Stomach B. Appendix C. Duodenum D. Small intestine E. Esophagus Case presentation 10 A 28-year-old man complains of nausea, vomiting, and right-sided subcostal pain. Objectively, his skin and sclerae are icteric, he has elevated body temperature, enlarged liver, dark urine, fecal hypocholia, hyperbilirubinemia (direct and indirect bilirubin), bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, hypoproteinemia, and decreased blood coagulability. What condition can be characterized by these changes? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Post-hepatic jaundice C. Acute cholecystisis D. Pre-hepatic hemolytic jaundice E. Hepatocellular parenchymal jaundice 54 UNIT 7 _ ENDOCRINE SYSTEM Review of basic terms Basic terms 1. Extracellular matrix is a threedimensional network consisting of extracellular macromolecules a nd minerals, such as collagen, enzymes, glycoprotei ns that provide structural and biochemical support to surrounding cells. 2. Follicular epithelium is spheroidal collections of epithelial cells (thyrocytes). 3. Cuboid cells is a type of epithelium that consists of a single layer of cuboidal (cubelike) cells which have large, spherical and central nuclei. 4. Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that look like fish scales, and are found in the tissue that forms the surface of the skin or the lining of the hollow organs of the body. 5. Colloid is the sticky fluid which fills follicles of thyroid gland. 55 6. Glucose uptake is the process of glucose absorption. 7. Glucose reuptake is the process of glucose reabsorption. 8. Metformin is hypoglycemic drug which inhibits the process of gluconeogenesis in the liver, increases sensitivity of cells to insulin, delays the absorption of glucose in the intestine. 9. Glibenclamide is hypoglycemic drug which stimulates secretion of insulin by beta cells of pancreas 10.Hyper/hypothyroidism is the condition when the thyroid gland produces too much/little of thyroid hormones 11.Renin is a proteolytic enzyme of the kidney that plays a major role in the release of angiotensin 12.Angiotensin is the part of the renin angiotensin aldosterone system (RAAS), a classic endocrine system that helps to regulate long-term blood pressure and blood volume in the body. Specific symptoms and signs of endocrine diseases 1. The biggest risk factors for general hyperpigmentation are sun exposure and inflammation, as both situations can increase melanin production. 2. Smell of acetone. If a person's breath smells like acetone, it may indicate that there are high levels of ketones bodies in the blood. 3. Increased level of glucose in blood can provoke thirst or polydipsia in a patient. 4. Dryness in the mouth or xerostomia can mark the beginning of diabetes. 5. Glucosuria appears when kidneys eliminate the excess amount of glucose in urine. 6. Weight loss can be triggered by hypersecretion of triiodothyronine (T3 hormone) since it increases metabolism. 7. Stress situation can provoke palpitations which are feeling of heartbeat. 8. Protruding eyes of a patient or exophthalmos may indicate Graves’ disease. Diagnostic studies 1. Blood test for glycated hemoglobin is a diagnostic procedure that shows the level of glucose chemically linked to hemoglobin. 2. Fasting blood glucose test is type of blood test that shows how well body's insulin responds to periods without food. 56 Laboratory and instrumental findings 1. Pancreatic islet insufficiency = inability of pancreatic islets to produce insulin 2. Ovarian insufficiency = inability of ovaries to produce female sex hormones 3. Insulin insufficiency = inability of pancreas to secrete insulin PRACTICE 1. Match the words from the left column with words from the right column to have word combinations. Compose sentences with these word combinations 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Extracellular Follicular Cuboid Glucose Ovarian Blood test for Acetone Insulin a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. reuptake glycated hemoglobin epithelium production matrix insufficiency cells smell 2. Match the medical term with its explanation 1. Pancreatic islet insufficiency a network consisting of extracellular macromolecules and minerals to support surrounding cells 2. Exophthalmos a condition when the thyroid gland produces too little of thyroid hormones a condition when the thyroid gland produces too much of thyroid hormones sticky fluid inside the thyroid follicle inability of beta cells of pancreas to produce insulin protruding eyes of a patient 3. Glucosuria 4. Hyperpigmentation 5. Extracellular matrix 6. Hypothyroidism 57 7. Hyperthyroidism excess pigmentation in a bodily part or tissue (such as the skin) presence of glucose in urine 8. Colloid 3. Fill in the gaps in the sentences below. Colloid, renin, acetone smell, angiotensin, palpitations, metformin, squamous cells, glucose uptake, xerostomia, exophthalmos 1. 2. 3. 4. A 26-year old woman is complaining of thirst and____________. Hyperfunction of the thyroid gland can cause _____________ in a patient. Each lobule contains a cluster of follicles filled with ________________. Follicular epithelium consists of low columnar, cuboidal or _______________depending on the level of activity of the follicle. 5. _______________________can be detected in patients with Diabetes Mellitus. 6. ______________is the drug which inhibits the process of gluconeogenesis in the liver, increases sensitivity of cells to insulin, delays the absorption of glucose in the intestine. 7. Acarbose belongs to the class of hyperglycemic drugs that delays the _______________in the duodenum. 8. _______________is the substance in blood that provides vasoconstrictive effect and in this way increases blood pressure. 9. _______________ is the substance which is produced by kidneys and is in the control of blood pressure and various other physiological functions. 10. Patients with ischaemic heart disease often experience ___________ at rest. 4. Match two parts of the sentences 1. Hyperpigmentation is present over many areas of her body, 2. The examination has revealed 3. Past medical significant for history is 4. A patient complaining of weight loss (10 kg during 2 months), palpitation and exophthalmos a. came to the endocrinologist. b. depending on the level of activity of the follicle. c. quite frequently, but denies any dysuria or pain on urination. d. most prominently over the face, neck and back of hands (areas exposed to light). 58 5. A 24-year-old man undergoes surgery and during the operation, an organ is excised 6. Follicular epithelium consists of low columnar, cuboidal or squamous cells 7. Analysis of urine from a 24year-old man revealed the following changes: 8. The patient says he has to urinate e. daily diuresis - 10 l, relative density - 1,001, qualitative alterations are absent. h. glucosuria and blood glucose content of 6,5 mmol/l. i. and sent for histological evaluation. j. diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, both managed medically. 5. Answer the questions 1. In what conditions can people develop hyperpigmentation? 2. What kind of cells does thyroid gland consist of? 3. What hormones are produced by thyroid gland? 4. What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism? 5. Why does the patient develop high blood sugar level? 6. How can high sugar level be detected? 7. How can diabetes mellitus be clinically manifested? 8. What hypoglycemic drugs do you know? 9. What substances take part in blood pressure regulation? 10.What can ovarian insufficiency result in? EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 A 45-year-old woman comes to her physician with complaints of excessive fatigue and weakness. She says that these symptoms have been present for the past month. On further questioning, she admits having lost 3 kilograms in the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, she is a tiredappearing thin woman. Hyperpigmentation is present over many areas of her body, most prominently over the face, neck and back of hands (areas exposed to light). Increased production of which of the following hormones is the most likely cause of hyperpigmentation in this patient? A. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) B. Growth hormone (GH) C. Gonadotropins D. β-Lipotropin 59 E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Case presentation 2 A 16-year-old girl concerned about her sexual development comes to the physician. She mentions that she has still not had a menstrual period. However, she is otherwise a healthy girl with no significant medical problems since birth. On physical examination, her vital signs are stable. She does not have pubic hair and her breast is slightly elevated with areola remaining in contour with surrounding breast. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this abnormal physical development? A. Pancreatic islet insufficiency B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Ovarian insufficiency E. Adrenal medulla hyperfunction Case presentation 3 A 26-year old woman is complaining of thirst and dryness in her mouth. The examination has revealed glucosuria and blood glucose content of 6,5 mmol/l. What condition are these symptoms the most typical for? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Diabetes mellitus C. Steroid diabetes D. Renal diabetes E. Alimentary glucosuria Case presentation 4 On your physiology class, the professor asks you to report about the effects of various body hormones and neurotransmitters on the metabolism of glucose. You begin your report with the statement that the use of glucose by the cell is preceded by absorption through the plasma membrane from the extracellular matrix into the cell. Which of the following hormones is most likely responsible for the glucose uptake by the cell? A. Thyroxine B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Aldosterone E. Epinephrine Case presentation 5 A 56-year-old man presents for a checkup. The patient says he has to urinate quite frequently, but denies any dysuria or pain on urination. Past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, both managed medically. Current medications are metformin, aspirin, rosuvastatin, captopril and furosemide. Laboratory findings are significant for the following: Glycated Hemoglobin (Hb A1c) - 8.0%, Fasting Blood Glucose - 12 mmol/L. His doctor decides to add 60 glibenclamide to the therapy. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this drug’s action? A. Inhibition of insulin release B. Stimulation of glucose reuptake by the cell C. Facilitation of glucose absorption in the intestine D. Stimulation of insulin release Case presentation 6 A patient complaining of weight loss (10 kg during 2 months), palpitation and exophthalmos came to the endocrinologist. For the hyperfunction of what gland (glands) are these complaints the most typical? A. Pancreas B. Ovaries C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands E. Thyroid Case presentation 7 A 24-year-old man undergoes surgery and during the operation, an organ is excised and sent for histological evaluation. A light microscopic examination reveals the organ encased by thin connective tissue capsule that enters the substance of the lobes to further subdivide the organ into irregular lobular units. Each lobule contains a cluster of follicles filled with colloid. Follicular epithelium consists of low columnar, cuboidal or squamous cells depending on the level of activity of the follicle. Which of the following organs does this tissue most likely belong to? A. Parotid gland B. Pancreas C. Thyroid gland D. Thymus E. Parathyroid gland Case presentation 8 An unconscious patient was brought into the hospital. The smell of acetone can be detected from the patient’s mouth. Blood glucose - 25 mmol/L, ketone bodies -0.57 mmol/L. What hormone deficiency can result in the development of this condition? A. Somatotropin B. Thyroxin C. Glucocorticoids D. Aldosterone E. Insulin Case presentation 9 61 A 27-year-old woman complains of insomnia, irritability, hand tremor, acute weight loss despite high appetite, and constant fever with body temperature of 37,2-37,5 C<sup>o</sup>. What endocrine gland is likely to be functionally impaired in this case? A. Pancreas B. Parathyroid gland C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal glands E. Neurohypophysis Case presentation 10 Analysis of urine from a 24-year-old man revealed the following changes: daily diuresis - 10 l, relative density - 1,001, qualitative alterations are absent. A patient complains of excessive thirst, frequent urination. What is the most likely cause of this disease? A. Vasopressin hypersecretion B. Vasopressin hyposecretion C. Glucocorticoid hypersecretion D. Relative insulin insufficiency E. Aldosterone hypersecretion 62 UNIT 8 NERVOUS SYSTEM Review of basic terminology Basic terms 1. Nasolabial fold 2. Optic chiasm 3. Trigeminal nerveve 4. Chorda tympany 6.Gustatory sensation 5. Gyrus (pl. gyri) 7. Ganglionitis – inflammation of a ganglia Gyrus (pl. gyri) 8. Neuropathy – damage or dysfunction of one or more nerves 9.Muscle tone – the resistance of a muscle to active or passive stretch. 63 Specific symptoms and signs of the nervous system Impaired consciousness Facial asymmetry Tingling sensation Loss of sensitivity Nuchal rigidity Brudzinski’s sign Diminishing peripheral vision Hemianopsia Meningeal signs Kerning’s sign Clumsiness Loss of sensitivity 1. Facial asymmetry is a condition in which the face is not symmetrical or even balanced. 2. Meningeal signs involve nuchal rigidity refers to neck stiffness; Kerning’s sign refers to severe stiffness of the hamstring causes inability to strengthen the leg when hip is flexed to 90 degrees; Brudzinski’s sign is considered positive when passive forward flexion of the neck causes the patient to involuntary raise his knees or hips in flexion. 3. Tingling sensation is an abnormal pin-or-needles sensation that is often felt in arms, hands, legs or feet 4. Diminishing peripheral vision is condition when a patient can poorly see objects unless they are in front of him. 5. Hemianopsia is loss of sight in half of patient’s visual field 6. Loss of sensitivity is inability to feel pain or touch 7. Clumsiness is being awkward 8. Impaired consciousness is a state when consciousness has been affected by damage to the brain. 64 Diagnostic studies &instrumental findings 1. Nerve conduction study is a diagnostic procedure that measures how fast an electrical impulse moves through the nerve 2. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination to find out the cause of death. 3. Nerve compression is a condition when a nerve is squeezed or compacted 4. Poorly demarcated grey white junction refers to the disbalance between cerebral and cerebellar white and gray matter in the brain 5. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is bleeding under the arachnoid mater of the brain 6. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding into the brain 7. Brain concussion is jarring injury of the brain resulting in disturbance of cerebral function PRACTICE 1. Choose the correct option: 1. What forms nasolabial triangle? a. The nasolabial folds, the nose and the upper lip b. The eyes, the nose and the lips c. The chin, the cheeks and the ears d. The cheeks, the forehead and the nose 2. What nerve has three branches? a. Optic b. Oculomotor c. Trigeminal d. Abducent 3. The pathology that involves inflammation of nerve ganglia is known as: a. Arthritis b. Neuritis c. Ganglionitis d. Stomatitis 4. Some pathologic condition of a particular nerve is called: a. Neuritis b. Neuropathy c. Neurology d. Neuroglia 5. A post-mortem examination to find out the cause of death is called: 65 a. b. c. d. Biopsy Autopsy Gastroscopy Bronchoscopy 6. Hemianopsia refers to: a. Total blindness b. Monochromatic vision c. Loss of sight in half of patient’s visual field d. Double vision 7. Impaired consciousness can be the sign of: a. Intracerebral haemorrhage b. Rhinitis c. Sinusitis d. Otitis 8. An awkward gait usually results in: a. Vertigo b. Dizziness c. Paralysis d. Clumsiness 9. Decreased muscle tone can be the sign of serious infectious disease like: a. Brain stroke b. Meningitis c. Superlative tonsillitis d. Myocarditis 10.Facial asymmetry can occur as the manifestation of: a. Damage to the facial nerve b. Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve c. Hyperactivity of the vagus nerve d. Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve 2. Correct the statements and explain your idea. 1. Optic chiasm is s the part of the spinal cord where the optic nerves cross. 2. Сhorda tympani is a branch of the optic nerve that runs through the middle ear, and carries taste messages to the brain. 66 3. Peripheral or central nervous system disorders clinically can be manifested with altered gustatory sensation. 4. The gustatory sensation system is partially responsible for the perception of smell. 5. Meningeal signs, used to diagnose meningitis, involve rigidity of abdominal muscles and Chvostek’s sign. 6. Tingling sensation is a symptom of neurologic disorder when the patient cannot feel his extremities. 7. Nerve conduction study is a diagnostic procedure used to measure the level of patient’s sensation. 8. Brain concussion is the injury of the brain resulting in damage of brain meninges. 9. Kerning’s sign is considered positive when a patient has stiffness of neck’s muscles. 10. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is bleeding which occurs on the arachnoid mater of the brain. 3. Match the words from the left column with words from the right column to have word combinations. Compose sentences with these word combinations 9. Tingling 10.Nerve 11.Meningeal 12.Subarachnoid 13.Impaired 14.Facial 15.Diminished 16.Nuchal 17.Brudzinski’s 18.Muscle i. compression j. consciousness k. tone l. sign m. sensation n. peripheral vision o. signs p. haemorrhage q. asymmetry r. rigidity 4. Match the parts of the sentences 1. A 37-year-old man suddenly developed acute headache 2. The pain started as an occasional throb and she could ignore it reveal nerve compression. brain swelling, widened gyri and poorly demarcated gray-white junction. 67 3. Nerve conduction studies accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and impaired consciousness. 4. By the time the ambulance arrived, 5. The gross examination of the cerebral left hemisphere showed 6. Parenchyma of the spinal ganglion is composed of he had difficulty speaking. or take ibuprofen. he sways from side to side, unable to stand still. 7. The loss of taste sensation of Improves metabolism in the brain the tongue 8. When the patient is asked to pseudounipolar neurons localized stand with his eyes closed and under the capsule of connective with both feet close together, tissue. 9. After a long drive with the was caused by the damage to chorda window open a man tympani. developed 10.Piracetam is the drug that facial asymmetry and he cannot close his right eye now. 5. Fill in the gaps Cerebrospinal, optic chiasm, spinal ganglion, clumsiness, brain concussion, nerve compression, cerebellum, skin sensitivity, impaired consciousness, tingling sensation 1. A 37-year-old man suddenly developed acute headache accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and ____________________. 2. Analysis of the ________________fluid revealed blood in it. 3. A 37-year old female presents to the clinic complaining of severe pain in her left wrist and ______________in her left thumb, index finger, and middle finger, and some part of her ring finger. 4. Nerve conduction studies reveal __________________. 5. The reason of patient’s bitemporal hemianopsia is pathology of_____________. 6. Memory deterioration, reduced mental capabilities, sleep disorders, and vertigo appeared as a consequences of the __________________. 68 7. A 52-year-old woman came to the neurologist with complaints of loss of _________________on the right half of her face. 8. The __________________is composed of pseudounipolar neurons localized under the capsule of connective tissue. 9. A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive ________ and difficulty walking. 10. The __________ controls the ability of a person to stand still. 6. Answer the questions 1. What is ganglionitis? 2. What does the term neuropathy mean? 3. What does the muscle tone show? 4. What are the specific symptoms of nervous disorders? 5. What meningeal signs do you know? 6. Where does a patient usually feel tingling sensation? 7. What is haeminopsia? 8. What is brain concussion? EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Сase presentation 1 After a long drive with the window open a man developed facial asymmetry; he cannot close his right eye, his right nasolabial fold is smoothed out, movements of expression are absent on the right, there is a disturbance of gustatory sensation in the tongue on the right. No other neurological pathologies were detected. What disease can be provisionally diagnosed in this patient? A. Neuropathy of the facial nerve B. Neuropathy of the trigeminal nerve C. Trigeminal ganglionitis D. Neuropathy of the oculomotor nerve E. Ischemic stroke Сase presentation 2 A 37-year-old man suddenly developed acute headache accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and impaired consciousness. Objectively blood pressure is 190/120 mm Hg, the face is hyperemic. Patient’s consciousness is clouded, his answers to the 69 questions are short, monosyllabic. Movement and sensory disturbances are absent. Meningeal signs are positive. Cerebrospinal fluid contains blood. What provisional diagnosis can be made? A. Cerebral vascular embolism B. Meningitis C. Ischemic stroke D. Encephalitis E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Сase presentation 3 A 37-year old female presents to the clinic complaining of severe pain in her left wrist and tingling sensation in her left thumb, index finger, and middle finger, and some part of her ring finger. The pain started as an occasional throb and she could ignore it or take ibuprofen but now the pain is much worse and wakes her up at night. She works as a typist and her pain mostly increases after typing all day. Her right wrist and fingers are fine. Nerve conduction studies reveal nerve compression. Which of the following nerves is most likely compressed in this patient? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Axillary nerve E. Musculocutaneous nerve Сase presentation 4 A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic after missing her last 2 periods. Her cycles are usually regular, occurring at 28-30 day interval with moderate bleeding and some abdominal discomfort. She also complains of progressively diminishing peripheral vision. Her doctor reveals loss of vision in the lateral halves of both eyes. Involvement of which of the following structures would you most likely expect to be the reason of bitemporal hemianopsia? A. Left optic nerve B. Left optic tract C. Right optic tract D. Optic chiasm E. Right optic nerve Сase presentation 5 A 60-year old man with a history of hypertension, diabetes and hyperlipidemia had a sudden onset of right-sided weakness. By the time the ambulance arrived, he had difficulty speaking. Unfortunately, the patient died within the next 2 hours and an autopsy was performed immediately. The gross examination of the cerebral left 70 hemisphere showed brain swelling, widened gyri and poorly demarcated gray-white junction. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s death? A. Intracerebral hemorrhage B. Ischemic stroke C. Abscess D. Cyst E. Tumor Сase presentation 6 A man complaining of memory deterioration, reduced mental capabilities, sleep disorders, and vertigo was brought to the neurologic department. The patient explains these symptoms as consequences of the brain concussion received in a traffic accident 2 years ago. Choose the drug that can improve the patient’s brain metabolism and would be the most advisable in this case: A. Sydnocarb (Mesocarb) B. Sodium oxybutirate C. Piracetam D. Cordiamin (Nikethamide) E. Caffeine Сase presentation 7 A 52-year-old woman came to the neurologist with complaints of loss of skin sensitivity on the right half of her face in the area of the lower eyelid, nasal arch, and upper lip. What branch of what nerve is damaged in this patient? A. A Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve B. B Greater petrosal nerve branching from the facial nerve C. C Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve D. D Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve E. E Chorda tympani branching from the facial nerve Сase presentation 8 Parenchyma of an organ is composed of pseudounipolar neurons localized under the capsule of connective tissue. Central place belongs to nerve fibers. Name this organ: A. Nerve trunk B. Sympathetic ganglion C. Intramural ganglion D. Spinal ganglion E. Spinal cord Сase presentation 9 71 A 25-year-old man came to the family doctor complaining of the loss of taste sensation in the front two- thirds of his tongue. The doctor determined that this condition was caused by the damage to a certain nerve. What nerve is likely to be functionally impaired in this case? A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Accessory nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Vagus E. Chorda tympani Сase presentation 11 A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive clumsiness and difficulty walking. He walks “like a drunk man” and has experienced frequent falls. His muscle tone and strength in all 4 limbs are slightly decreased. When he is asked to stand with his eyes closed and with both feet close together, he sways from side to side, unable to stand still. Which of the following brain regions is most likely affected and caused the symptoms described above? A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Cerebellum D. Reticular formation E. Right hemisphere 72 UNIT 9 URINARY SYSTEM Review of basic terminology Basic terms 1.Glomerular permeability is the ability of water and microsubstances to pass through ultrafilration membrane 2. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is pressure which pushes water and solutes in blood plasma through the glomerular filter. 3. Oncotic pressure is the pressure exerted by plasma proteins on the capillary wall 4. Primary urine is the fraction of blood plasma which is filtered out by renal glomeruli. 5. Residual urine is the amount of urine that remains in the bladder after urination 6. Tubular reabsorption is the process of water absorption in renal tubules of nephron 7. Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome characterized by edema and large amounts of protein in the urine. 8. Nephritic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that presents as hematuria, elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and edema. 9. Pyelectasis is an increased collection of urine in part of the baby's kidney called the renal pelvis. 10. Nephroblastoma is a rare kidney’s malignant tumour that primarily affects children. 11. Eosinophilic mass is the collection of eosinafils. 12. Glomerular mesangium is a space which is continuous with the smooth muscles of the arterioles. It is outside the capillary lumen but surrounded by capillaries. It is in the middle (meso) between the capillaries (angis). 13. Glomerular filtration rate is a blood test that checks how fast blood is filtrated through glomeruli. 14. Tubulopathy is pathology of renal tubules. 15. Pitting oedema is when a swollen part of the body has a pit after it is pressed for a few seconds. 73 Specific symptoms and signs of the urinary diseases Urine disorders 1. Polyuria large amount of secreted urine 6. 2. Hypostenuria low urine density 3. Oliguria reduced excretion of urine URIA Nocturia frequent urination at night 5. Haemoturia blood in urine 4. Isosthenuria a condition in which the kidneys produce urine with the specific gravity of protein-free blood plasma Diagnostic studies& laboratory/instrumental findings 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Foamy urine = urine covered with foam Azotemia = the presence of nitrogen in the urine Microhaemoturia = presence of a few erythrocytes in blood Urolithiasis = kidney stone disease Contracted kidney = shrinking kidney Dimished kidney = a kidney which is smaller in size Congo red = a dye that is red in alkaline and blue in acid solution PRACTICE 1. Match the words from the left column with words from the right column to have word combinations. Compose sentences with these word combinations 1. Nephrotic 2. Residual 3. Glomerular 4. Primary 5. Pitting 6. Nephritic 7. Tubular a. b. c. d. e. f. g. urine syndrome oedema permeability urine mass pressure 74 8. Glomerular 9. Oncotic 10.Eosinophilic h. mesangium i. syndrome j. reabsorption 2. Match the term with its explanation 1. Pyelectasis a. kidney stone disease 2. Tubulopathy b. a dye that is red in alkaline and blue in acid solution 3. Urolithiasis c. blood in urine 4. Azotemia d. an increased collection of urine in part of the baby's kidney called the renal pelvis 5. Haematuria e. reduced excretion of urine 6. Congo red f. the presence of nitrogen in the urine 7. Hyposthenuria g. urine with the protein-free blood plasma 8. Oliguria h. pathology of renal tubules 9. Isosthenuria i. frequent urination at night 10. Nocturia j. low urine density 3. Fill in the gaps in the sentences Nephroblastoma, microhaematuria, renal failure, foamy urine, contracted, diminished, glomerular filtration rate, primary urine, oedema, polyuria. 1. An 11-year-old girl is brought to the doctor’s office by her mother who states her daughter has been weak and has _____________of the face for 3 days. 2. Upon inquiry, the girl mentioned that she had ________ __________ but denied blood in urine, urinary frequency at night, or pain during urination. 3. Analysis detects glucose and amino acids in the __________ ___________. 4. Autopsy of a 60-year-old woman shows significantly _____________ kidneys (weight of both kidneys is 80 g) with finely granular surface. 5. ____________ is a malignant tumour that primarily affects children’s kidneys. 6. 52-year-old patient suffers chronic glomerulonephritis that is why his ______________ is reduced by 20 % compared to normal. 7. Laboratory study revealed proteinuria and _______________________ in the patient with glomerulonephritis. 8. On section ____________ kidney looks like uniform renal cortical thinning. 75 9. ____________ (increased volume of urine) and hyposthenuria (low specific gravity of urine; N=1,010 – 1,025) are the signs of diluted urine, i.e. urine with great volume of water. 10.Chronic diseases of kidneys can lead to chronic ____________results from progressive and irreversible loss of large numbers of active functioning nephrons. 4. Match the parts of the sentences 1. Physical examination reveals generalized swelling of the face and 2. Clinical course of urolithiasis was complicated 3. Section shows significant 4. A patient with a history of chronic glomerulonephritis presents 5. Upon inquiry, the girl describes a foamy appearance of her urine 6. In the residual urine glucose and amino acids are 7. Due to the use of poor-quality measles vaccine 8. During pathomorphological kidney investigation of a patient, who died from progressing renal failure, the following was revealed: 9. A process of water absorption in renal tubules of nephron 10.Ultrasonic examination revealed small stones a. enlargement of the patient’s right kidney. b. but denies blood in urine, urinary frequency at night, or pain during urination. c. pitting edema on the lower limbs. d. for preventive vaccination, a child developed an autoimmune renal injury. e. deposits of homogeneous eosinophilic masses in glomerular mesangium, and stroma, which became red when stained with Congo red. f. is known as tubular reabsorption g. by the passage of a renal calculus. h. in the kidneys that provoked renal colic attacks. i. with azotemia, oliguria, hypo- and isosthenuria, proteinuria. j. absent due to tubular reabsorption of these substances. 5. Answer the questions 76 1. What are the most common symptoms of renal diseases? 2. What is urolithiasis? 3. What are the typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome? 4. How can contracted kidney look like on section? 5. What is nephrolith? What can it cause in a kidney? 6. What are the three stages of urine formation? 7. What is amyloidosis? 8. What hormonal disorder can trigger the formation of urine stones? 9. What are the most common symptoms of glomerulonephritis? 10.What is the most common complication of glomerular nephritis? EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 An 11-year-old girl is brought to the doctor’s office by her mother who states her daughter has been weak with swollen face for 3 days. The mother states her daughter had always been healthy and active until the initiation of symptoms. Upon inquiry, the girl describes a foamy appearance of her urine but denies blood in urine, urinary frequency at night, or pain during urination. Physical examination reveals generalized swelling of the face and pitting edema on the lower limbs. Laboratory study shows proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely cause of findings in the laboratory study of urine? A. Increased plasma oncotic pressure B. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure C. Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule D. Increased permeability across the glomerular capillary wall E. – Case presentation 2 Analysis detects glucose and amino acids in the primary urine. In the residual urine they are absent due to tubular reabsorption of these substances. Where in the nephron does this process occur? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Henle’s loop D. Collecting duct E. Macula densa 77 Case presentation 3 Clinical course of urolithiasis was complicated by the passage of a renal calculus. Where in the ureter is it most likely to stop? A. In the renal pelvis B. At the border between the abdominal and pelvic segments C. In the middle of the abdominal segment D. 2 cm above the entrance to the urinary bladder E. 5 cm above the pelvic segment Case presentation 4 A 30-year-old woman developed facial edemas. Examination detected proteinuria (5.87 g/L), hypoproteinemia, dysproteinemia, and hyperlipidemia. Such combination of signs is characteristic of: A. Nephritic syndrome B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Acute kidney failure D. Chronic kidney failure E. Nephrotic syndrome Case presentation 5 Autopsy of a 60-year-old woman, who for a long time had been suffering from essential hypertension, shows significantly diminished kidneys (weight of both kidneys is 80 g) with finely granular surface. Uniform renal cortical thinning can be observed on section. Name the described changes in the kidneys: A. Secondary contracted kidney B. Pyelonephritic contracted kidney C. Primary contracted kidney D. Amyloid contracted kidney E. Diabetic nephrosclerosis Case presentation 6 Section shows significant enlargement of the patient’s right kidney. There is a nephrolith at the place of incision. Renal pelvic lumen is distended with accumulating urine. Renal parenchyma is acutely thinned out. What is the most correct diagnosis? A. Pyelectasis B. Hydronephrosis C. Hydroureteronephrosis D. Renal cyst E. Nephroblastoma Case presentation 7 78 Due to the use of poor-quality measles vaccine for preventive vaccination, ej 1year-old child developed an autoimmune renal injury. The urine was found to contain macromolecular proteins. What process of urine formation was disturbed? A. Reabsorption and secretion B. Secretion C. Filtration D. Secretion and filtration E. Reabsorption Case presentation 8 During pathomorphological kidney investigation of a patient, who for a long time had been suffering from osteomyelitis and died from progressing renal failure, the following was revealed: deposits of homogeneous eosinophilic masses in glomerular mesangium, arterial and arteriolar walls, and stroma, which became red when stained with Congo red. What pathological process is this? A. Amyloidosis B. Mucoid swelling C. Calcinosis D. Carbohydrate degeneration E. Hyalinosis Case presentation 9 Periodic renal colic attacks are observed in a woman with primer hyperparathyroidism. Ultrasonic examination revealed small stones in the kidneys. What is the most plausible reason of the stones’ formation? A. Hypercholesterinemia B. Hyperphosphatemia C. Hyperuricemia D. Hyperkalemia E. Hypercalcemia Case presentation 10 A patient with a history of chronic glomerulonephritis presents with azotemia, oliguria, hypo- and isosthenuria, proteinuria. What is the leading factor in the pathogenesis of these symptoms development under chronic renal failure? A. Tubular hyposecretion B. Intensification of glomerular filtration C. Mass decrease of active nephrons D. Disturbed permeability of glomerular membranes E. Intensification of sodium reabsorption 79 Case presentation 11 In 52-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) was reduced by 20 % compared to normal. What causes the decrease in GFR in patient with chronic renal failure? A. Obstruction of urinary tract B. Renal artery thrombosis C. Renal ischemia D. Reduced number of active nephrons E. Tubulopathy Case presentation 12 A 29-eyar-old patient with pyelonephritis has been found to have hyposthenuria combined with polyuria. According to this data, what process is most likely to be disrupted? A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular excretion C. – D. Tubular secretion E. Tubular reabsorption 80 UNIT 10 INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM REVIEW OF BASIC TERMINOLOGY Applied anatomy and physiology The skin, nails, hair, glands, and associated nerve endings make up the “integumentary system”. Skin The skin acts a physical, biochemical, and immunological barrier between the outside world and the body. It also has a role in temperature regulation, synthesis of Vitamin D, prevention of water loss, antigen presentation, and sensation. The skin made up of three layers – epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis. Epidermis This is the outermost layer and is formed of a modified stratified squamous epithelium. Dermis Below the epidermis lies a layer of connective tissue consisting of collagen, elastic fibers, and ground substance. It is here where the “skin appendages”, muscles nerves, and blood vessel lie. Hypodermis Also called the subcutaneous layer or superficial fascia, this consists of adipose tissue, serves both as a lipid store, and provides insulation. It also contributes to the body contours and shape. Glands Sweat glands secrete a mixture of water, electrolytes, urea, urate, ammonia, and mild acids. Eccrine sweat glands are found all over the body surface, besides the mucosa. 81 Common skin diseases and conditions *Acne *Hives *Cellulitis *Moles *Dermatitis *Psoriasis *Kaposi’s sarcoma * Athlete’s foot *Shingles *Rosacea *Impetigo * Burns * Ringworm * Lupus * Candidiasis *Vitiligo *Eczema *Warts Typical symptoms and signs of the skin diseases raised red or white bumps (lumps, nodes) a painful or itchy rash (sore or pruritic eruption) scaly skin (skin desquamation) ulcers (cankers) dry, cracked skin (rough, bumpy ) discolored patches of skin (plaques) warts or other skin growths (boil, protuberance) erythema (excessive redness of the skin) open sores or lesions (ulceration, boil, abscess) peeling skin (exfoliated skin) depigmentation (discoloration) pruiritis (itching) cicatria (scars) macule (spot) xerosis (dry skin) exanthema (rah, eruption) urticaria (hives) excoriation (abrasion) Characteristic features of rashes red painful sore blistering swollen Description of skin dry combination oily normal sensitive 82 spotty filled with liquid or oozing bumpy swollen itchy profuse scabby scaly calloused clear waxen wrinkled Morphological elements of skin rash patch blister pustule petechiae turbecle E purpura birth mark roseola crust node papulae scale erythema erosion vesicle scar abrasion ulcer spot lesion Diagnostic studies. Physical examination Visual inspection Assessment of the color, size, shape, depth, border, symmetry, location Palpation of the skin History taking Laboratory findings Instrumental findings. Imaging testing Biopsy CT scan Punch biopsy dermographism scraping optical ultrasound imaging(OUI) culture magnetic-resonance image wood light(black light) scanning(MRI) Tzanck testing optical coherence tomography(OCT) diascopy phototesting X-ray examination skin tests(use test, patch test, prick test, intradermal test) dermoscopy diascopy immunofluorescence test blood test 83 PRACTICE 1. Agree or disagree with the following statements. Comment on your answer. 1. The integumentary system is composed of skin, hair, and sebaceous glands. 2. The integumentary system acts only as a physical barrier- protecting the body from bacteria, infection, injury and sunlight. 3. The skin is the largest and heaviest organ in the body, weighing about 6 pounds or more. 4. The skin consists of four layers: dermis, epidermis, hypodermis and cutaneous tissue. 5. Dermis is the top layer of the skin, which contains sweat and oil glands as well as hair follicles. 6. The glands of the integumentary system comprise sweat, sebaceous, mammary and ceruminous ones. 7. Eccrine sweat glands are located all over the body, except for mucosa. 8. Skin conditions contribute nearly 2 % of the global burden of disease worldwide and can be life threatening. 2. Complete the sentences with the words and word-combinations in the box. patches widespread resolve on its own antihistamines autoimmune fungal position greasy more noticeable hyperpigmentation 1. In seborrheic dermatitis, the affected skin appear to be erythematous, ----- and swollen. 2. Lupus is a complex----- disorder, resulting in inflammation and pain, red rings, sunburn like rash on the nose and cheeks. 3. The typical symptoms of psoriasis include itchy---- of skin with an unusual appearance. 4. Eczema is incurable, however, it may------- and medications that relieve the symptoms are available. 5. Since Vitiligo causes a loss of pigmentation, it is typically ---- in people with dark or tanned skin. 84 6. Acne is one of the most ------skin conditions characterized by dark spots known as ------. 7. The treatment of hives usually involves------or corticosteroids. 8. Athlete’s foot is a-------which multiplies in warm, damp conditions, such as inside sneakers. 3. Match words in column A to words in column B to make phrases. Then match the phrases to the terms 1-10. A B rough rash fluid-filled skin skin on one side of the body itchy sores red redness swollen appearance painful area on the skin Raised eruption scars desquamation discoloration bumps 1. depigmentation___________________ 2. pruiritis ________________________ 3. erythema ______________________ 4. blisters _____________________ 5. cicatria ______________ 6. scaly skin _______________________ 7. lumps __________________________ 8. edematous _______________________ 9. ulceration _______________________ 10. xerosis _________________________ 4. a) Read an extract below and explain the condition as if you were talking to a patient. Erythema nodosun is an inflammatory disorder that produces tender, red nodules under the skin, most often over the shins, but occasionally on the arms and other areas. Quite often, erythema nodosun is a symptom of other disease or sensitivity to a drug. Young adults, particularly women, are most prone to the disorder, which may recur for months or years. Bacterial, fungal or viral infections may also cause erythema nodosun. Erythema nodosun nodules resemble raised bumps 85 and bruises that gradually change from pink to bluish brown.Fever and joint pain are common. Lymph nodes in the chest occasionally become enlarged and are detected with a chest X-ray. The painful nodules are usually the tell-tale sign for the doctor. b) Find phrases in the text that mean the following: Excessive redness of the skin Sensitive skin Susceptibility to a medicine Erythematous blisters Elevated nodules Lesions that turn pink to pale blue Arthralgia Swollen lymph nodes Evident signal (symptom) 5. Match the following terms with their definitions: a flat circumscribed area of skin or an area of altered skin color a very small blister in the skin, often no bigger than a 2) purpura pinpoint that contains a clear fluid a bruise: an initially bluish-black mark on the skin, 3) wheal resulting from the release of blood into tissues an outer layer or coating formed by the drying of a 4) ecchimosis bodily exudates such as pus or blood a scab a flat area of color change in the skin that is 1 cm or 5) pustule more in width an open, painful sore on an external or internal surface 6) scale of the body caused by a break in the skin 1) crust 7) macule 8) ulcer 9) patch 10) vesicle a raised itchy (pruritic) area of the skin that is sometimes an over sign of allergy a small pus-containing blister on the skin a skin rash resulting from bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, purple spots of the rash any of the flakes of dead epidermal cells shed from the skin 86 6. Work in groups. Describe the pictures and identify the types of skin condition shown. a) What are the causes of each? b) Why are dermatological problems especially distressing? 87 7. Work in pairs. What lesions do the diagrams show? When you have answered as many as you can, look at the list at the bottom to help you crust purpura wheal ecchimosis pustule scale macule ulcer patch vesicle 88 EXAMPLES OF THE EXAM TASKS Case presentation 1 A 5-grade pupil complains of extensive skin rash accompanied by intensive itching, especially at night. Objectively: there are small red papules set mostly in pairs in the region of interdigital folds on both hands, on the flexor surface of radicarpal articulations, abdomen and buttocks skin as well as internal surface of thighs. In the centre of some papules, vesicles or serohaemorrhagic crusts can be seen. There are multiple excoriations. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Scabies B. Dermatitis C. Ringworm in body D. Toxicoderma E. Eczema Case presentation 2 A 43-year-old female patient complains of eruption on her right leg skin, pain, weakness, body temperature rises up to 38°C. The disease is acute. Objectively: there is an edema on the right leg skin in the region of foot, a well-defined bright red spot in form of flame tips, which feels hot. There are isolated vesicles in focus. What is your provisional diagnosis? A. Erysipelas B. Microbial eczema C. Contact dermatitis D. Toxicoderma E. Haemorrhagic vasculitis Case presentation 3 A 19-year-old patient complains about skin rash that appeared 2 days ago after eating smoked fish. The rash disappears after 4-6 hours but then turns up again. It is accompanied by itching. Objectively: trunk and upper limbs are covered with multiple pink blisters as big as a pea or a bean. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute urticaria B. Allergic dermatitis C. Quincke’s edema D. Toxicodermia E. Purigo Case presentation 4 After a serious nervous stress, a 35-year-old patient has developed redness and swelling on the dorsal surface of hands that were later replaced by small inflammatory nodules, vesicles and following erosion with a significant serous 89 discharge. The process is accompanied by severe itching. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. True eczema B. Allergic dermatitis C. Microbial eczema D. Simple contact dermatitis E. Toxicodermia Case presentation 5 A 36-year-old patient complains of skin rash that appeared a week ago and doesn’t cause any subjective problems. Objectively: palm and sole skin is covered with multiple lenticular disseminated papules not raised above the skin level. The papules are reddish, dense on palpation and covered with keratinous squamae. What is the provisional diagnosis? A. Secondary syphilis B. Verrucosis C. Palmoplanar psoriasis D. Palmoplanar rubrophytosis E. Palm and sole callosity Case presentation 6 A full-term infant is 3 days old. On the different parts of skin there are erythemas, erosive spots, cracks, areas of epidermis peeling. The infant has scalded skin syndrome. Nikolsky’s symptom is positive. General condition of the infant is grave. Anxiety, hyperesthesia, febrile temperature are evident. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Phlegmon of newborn C. Finger’s pseudofurunculosis D. Impetigo neonatorum E. Mycotic erythema Case presentation 7 A 72-year-old male patient complains of itching in his left shin, especially around a trophic ulcer. Skin is reddened and edematous; there are some oozing lesions, single yellowish crusts. Focus of affection is well defined. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Microbial eczema B. Allergic dermatitis C. Seborrheic eczema D. Cutaneous tuberculosis E. Streptococcal impetigo 90 Case presentation 8 A patient with femoral neck fracture, who had to remain in bed in a forced (supine) position for a long time, has developed dark-brown lesions along the backbone; soft tissues are swollen, in the areas of maceration there is a foulsmelling liquid. Name the clinic-pathological type of necrosis: A. Dry gangrene B. Bedsore C. Coagulation necrosis D. Infarction E. Sequestrum Case presentation 9 Granulomas containing lymphocytes and macrophages were detected during analysis of skin biopsy. Among macrophages there are large cells with fat inclusions, which contain microorganisms in spheric packages (Virchow’s cells). The following disease is based on the described type of hypersensitivity: A. Rhinoscleroma B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis E. Epidemic typhus Case presentation 10 A 45-year-old female patient has worked as a painter for 14years.Contacts with synthetic paint result in face skin redness, swelling, intense itching, oozing lesions. The symptoms disappear after the exposure to chemical agents, but recur even at the smell of paint. The symptom intensity progresses with relapses. A provisional diagnosis: A. Occupational eczema B. Simple contact dermatitis C. Contact- type allergy D. Toxicodermia E. Recessive mutation Case presentation 11 An 8-year-old girl has been admitted to the cardiology department. Objectively: there is skin lesion over the extensor surfaces of joints with atrophic cicatrices, depigmentation, and symmetrical affection of skeletal muscles (weakness, edema, and hypotrophy) .What disease are these changes most typical for? A. Dermatomyositis B. Systemicscleroderma C. Nodular periateritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 91 E. Reiter’s disease Case presentation 12 A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess developed. On section, the focus is dense and yellowgreen colored. In the purulent masses, there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process: A. Actinomycosis B. Furuncle C. Carbuncle D. Syphilis E. Leprosy 92 REFERENCES 1. Baker T., Nicolic G., O’Connor S. Practical Cardiology: An Approach to the Management of Problems in Cardiology/ T. Baker, G. Nicolic, S. O’Connor. – Elsevier Australia, 2008 – 405 p. 2. Bender J.R., Russel K.S., Rosenfeld L. E., Chaudry S. Oxford American handbook of cardiology / J.R. Bender, K.S. Russel, L. E. Rosenfeld, S. Chaudry. – Oxford University Press, 2011 – 706 p. 3. Dave A.M., Adelrahman A., Mehta V., Cavalieri S., Vivekanadan R. 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