BONUS CD INTERAKTIF
PRACTICE TEST
TOEFL
5 Paket
PRACTICE TEST
Practice Tes TOEFL tpapasca.indd 5
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•
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Listening Comprehension
Structure & Written
Expression
Reading Comprehension
Tim Master Eduka
Script
Kunci Jawaban
Listening Mp3
Tew
28/08/2014 13:49:46
TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) merupakan tes standar bahasa Inggris sebagai bahasa
asing untuk menguji kemampuan seseorang dalam hal penguasaan bahasa Inggris. Ada beberapa
kemampuan yang diujikan dalam tes model ini, yakni kemampuan dalam memahami teks lisan (Listening
Comprehension), kemampuan memahami struktur dan ungkapan model tulis (Structure and Written
Expression) yang berkaitan dengan tata bahasa Inggris, kemampuan dalam memahami bacaan (Reading
Comprehension) dan kemampuan menulis (Writing).
TOEFL digunakan sebagai salah satu prasyarat untuk studi di luar negeri, terutama negara-negara yang
menggunakan bahasa Inggris sebagai bahasa pengantar. TOEFL biasanya juga menjadi persyaratan
untuk melanjutkan studl S-2 dan S-3 di dalarn negeri. Bahkan saat ini mahasiswa S-1 pada berbagai
universitas ternama di Indonesia juga diharuskan untuk memiliki skor TOEFL tertentu sebagai salah satu
syarat kelulusannya. TOEFL juga sudah mulai digunakan dalam dunia kerja sebagai salah satu
mekanisme rektuitment atau jenjang kenaikan karir.
TOEFL terdiri dari Compttter-based Testing dan Paper-based Testing. Model computer-based adalah
ujian TOEFL yang menggunakan komputer. Skala penilaian model ini berkisar antara 40-300. Sedangkan
jenis kedua, paper-based, adalah ujian TOEFL yang menggunakan kertas sebagai media pengujiannya.
Skor penilaian model ini berada pada kisaran antara 217-677. Sejak tahun 1998, tes TOEFL ini diadakan
secara online dengan menggunakan komputer (Computer-based Testing/CBT), dan sejak tahun 2005
disebut iBT (Internet-based Test). Di tempat-tempat yang belum bisa melaksanakan CBT atau iBT
(karena belum ada fasilitas komputer dan jaringan internetnya), ujian TOEFL ini masih tetap diadakan
secara manual menggunakan kertas dan potlot (paper-based test atau PBT). Bentuk paper-based paling
banyak dan lazim digunakan di indonesia saat ini. Sehingga, seluruh isi dalam buku ini dibatasi pada
sistem penilaian dengan menggunakan model paper-based.
Buku ini merupakan edisi ebook dari buku seri Master berupa 5 (lima) practice test yang dapat
digunakan sebagai latihan dalam mempersiapkan menghadapi ujian TOEFL. Masing–masing practice
test terdiri dari 3 (tiga) section yang diujikan yaitu Listening Comprehention (50 soal); Structure dan
Written Expression (40 soal) dan Reading Comprehentsion (50 soal). Pada lampiran kami berikan
beberapa contoh soal dan latihan Test of English Written (TWE) yang mungkin berguna. Buku ini
merupakan volume 1 dari 2 (dua) voleme yang kami susun.
Maret 2012
Penyusun
1
Practice Test TOEFL
Pengantar
Practice Test TOEFL
Daftar Isi
PRACTICE TEST 1
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
1
2
8
13
PRACTICE TEST 2
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
22
23
29
34
PRACTICE TEST 3
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
42
43
49
54
PRACTICE TEST 4
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
62
63
69
74
PRACTICE TEST 5
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
83
84
90
95
KUNCI dan SCRIPT
Parctice Test 1
Parctice Test 2
Parctice Test 3
Parctice Test 4
Parctice Test 5
104
105
111
118
124
131
DAFTAR PUSTAKA
APPENDIX: TWE
138
139
2
TOEFL
Paper-Based Test
TOEFL merupakan test proficiency, yaitu tes yang yang digunakan untuk: mengukur kemampuan
bahasa Inggris seseorang tanpa dikaitkan secara langsung dengan proses belajar mengajar. Dengan
demikian TOEFL berbeda dengan achievement test, yaitu tes yang lingkup ujinya terbatas pada bahan
yang telah dipelajari siswa dalam satu kelas bahasa Inggris. T OEFL mencakup empat aspek yaitu (1)
Listening Comprehension, (2) Structure dan Writen Expression, (3) Reading Comprehension, dan (4)
Test o/Written English (TWE).
Ada tiga macam tes TOEFL yaitu International TOEFL test, Institutional TOEFL test, dan TOEFL LikeTest. Perbedaanya adalah bahwa soal International TOEFL baru dalam setiap pelaksanaan tes.
Sedangkan soal institusional test dan TOEFL Like-test bersumber pada soal-soal beberapa tahun
sebelumnya dari Internasional TOEFL test. Masa berlaku tes TOEFL berbeda-beda. Untuk International
TOEFL test, masa berlakunya adalah dua tahun yang dapat diterima di seluruh universitas di dunia. Ia
juga dapat digunakan untuk melamar beasiswa ke luar negeri. Bagi Institutional TOEFL Test, masa
berlakunya hanya enam bulan, biayanya jauh lebih rendah, tidak dapat digunakan untuk mendaftar ke
universitas di luar negeri tetapi ada kalanya dapat dipakai untuk melamar beasiswa ke luar negeri.
TOEFL-like test tidak dapat digunakan untuk mendaftar ke universitas luar negeri, hanya untuk
memenuhi persyaratan universitas tertentu di Indonesia.
Jenis TOEFL
Sampai saat ini ada tiga jenis TOEFL yang di keluarkan oleh ETS (English Testing Service), yaitu:
1. PBT (Paper Based Test) TOEFL
2. CBT (Computer Based Test) TOEFL
3. iBT (internet Based Test) TOEFL
Perbedaan dari 3 bentuk TOEFL Test tersebut adalah
1. PBT (Paper Based Test) TOEFL
PBT-TOEFL adalah bentuk TOEFL Test yang pertama kali dikeluarkan oleh ETS. Sistem test pada
PBT-TOEFL menggunakan paper atau lembaran-lembaran kertas soal dan lembar jawaban yang
harus diisi dengan pensil 2B.
Materi yang diujikan adalah:
Listening
Structure
Reading
Score range 217 – 677. Lama waktu test adalah 2 - 2,5 jam.
3
Practice Test TOEFL
Tentang TOEFL
Practice Test TOEFL
2. CBT (Computer Based Test) TOEFL
CBT-TOEFL adalah bentuk kedua, menggantikan PBT-TOEFL. Sistem test CBT-TOEFL tidak lagi
menggunakan paper, tapi langsung dengan computer. Semua soal menggunakan softwere dan
setiap soal langsung dijawab / dikerjakan di computer. CBT pertama kali dikeluarkan pada tahun
1998. Namun di beberapa negara di Asia, khususnya Indonesia masih diperkenankan untuk
menggunakan PBT (ITP-TOEFL) sebagai standar International TOEFL Test. Sehingga pamor CBT di
Indonesia sangat minim. Bahkan hingga sekarang masih banyak masyarakat Indonesia yang tidak
mengetahui
apa
itu
CBT-TOEFL.
Materi yang diujikan adalah:
Listening
Structure
Reading
Writing
Score range 0 – 300. Lama waktu test adalah 2 – 2,5 jam.
3. iBT (internet Based Test) TOEFL
iBT-TOEFL atau yang juga dikenal dengan Next Generation (NG) TOEFL adalah bentuk TOEFL Test
terbaru yang dikeluarkan ETS dan mulai diperkenalkan sejak tahun 2005, tetapi di Indonesia, baru
mulai diberlakukan sejak tahun 2006 sebagai standar International TOEFL Test yang diakui di dunia.
ETS banyak melakukan perubahan pada format dan system TOEFL Test terbaru ini. iBT-TOEFL juga
menggunakan media computer, hanya saja system test pada iBT menggunakan internet. Dengan
demikian peserta test langsung on-line dengan ETS dan menjawab soal-soal test juga secara on-line.
Materi yang di test adalah:
Listening
speaking
writing, and Reading
Score range of iBT is 0-120. Lamanya waktu test adalah 4 jam
Struktur Test TOEFL PBT (Paper – Based Testing)
TOEFL menguji keterampilan bahasa yang disesuaikan dengan bidang akademik dan profesi. Bidangbidang tersebut dikemas dan dibagi menjadi beberapa bagian. Biasanya TOEFL terdiri dati tiga bagian
(section) dengan 140 pertanyaan. Tes TOEFL ini selalu dimulai dengan Listening Comprehension yang
terdiri dari Part (bagian) A, B dan C, kemudian dilanjutkan dengan Structure and Written Expression yang
terditi dari Part A dan B, dan yang terakhir adalah Reading Comprehension.
Section 1 :
Listening Comprehension (pemahaman dalam mendengarkan)
Bagian (section) ini mengujikemampuan Anda dalam mendengarkan percakapan ataupun pidato
pendek dalam bahasa Inggris melalui tape atau media audio lainnya yang disediakan oleh panitia tes
TOEFL.
Jumlah soal bagan ini adalah: 50 soal dengan waktu: 40 menit.
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression (struktur dan ungkapan tertulis)
Bagian ini berkaitan dengan Grammar atau tata bahasa. Bagian ini menguji kemampuan Anda dalam
memahami tata bahasa Inggris dan ungkapan-ungkapan yang lazim ada dalam bahasa tulis di dalam
bahasa Inggris. Selain itu, bagian ini juga menuntut kemampuan Anda dalam menggunakan dan
mengetahui letak kesalahan dari ungkapan atau tata bahasa tersebut.
Jumlah soal: 40 soal dengan waktu: 25 menit.
4
Reading Comprehension (pemahaman bacaan)
Bagian (section) ini menguji kemampuan Anda dalam memahami berbagai jenis bacaan ilmiah
berkaitan dengan: topik, ide utama, isi bacaan, arti kata atau kelompok kata, serta informasi detail
yang berkaitan dengan bacaan tadi. Karena tingkat kosakata dan tingkat kesulitan teks yang dipakai
dalam bacaan cukup tinggi, Anda harus menggunakan strategi yang tepat dalam mengerjakan
bagian ini. Jumlah soal: 50 soal dengan waktu: 55 menit.
Section 4
Test/English Written (TWE) (menulis)
Bagian (section) ini menguji kemampuan Anda dalam menulis bahasa Inggris dalam bentuk esai.
Anda akan diberikan satu topik tertentu dan selanjutnya Anda diminta untuk menuangkan dalam
bentuk tulisan esai pendek. Namun tidak semua res TOEFL mengujikan TWE, bahkan hanya sedikir
yang memasukkannya scbagai salah satu mated pengujian. Skor TWE diberikan secara terpisah dari
skor TOEFL seeara keselutuhan. Skala penilaiannya berkisar antara 1-6. Bila TWE termasuk bagian
yang diujikan dalam sebuah tes TOEFL, biasanya ia dilaksanakan sebelum ujian Listening
Comprehension.
Jumlah soal : 1 soal dengan waktu: 30 menit.
Sub Test
Jumlah Soal
Listening Comprehension
Structure & Written Expression
Reading Comprehension
Test of Written English
50
40
50
1 topik esai
Waktu
(menit)
40
25
55
30
Menghitung Score TOEFL
untuk mengetahui score TOEFL, Anda dapat menggunkan Tabel konversi yang ada dibawah ini.
Contoh menghitung srore TOEFL:
Jawaban
Benar
Sub Test
Listening Comprehension
Structure & Written Expression
Reading Comprehension
Jumlah score hasil konversi
Faktor pengali = 10/3
Score TOEFL Anda
5
41
35
46
Nilai
Konversi
dengan Tabel
58
60
61
179
170/3
597
Practice Test TOEFL
Section 3
Practice Test TOEFL
TOEFL SCORE CONVERSION TABLE
Soal
Listening
Structure
Reading
50
49
48
47
46
45
44
43
42
41
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
33
32
31
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
68
67
66
65
63
62
61
60
59
58
57
57
56
55
54
54
53
52
52
51
51
50
49
49
48
48
47
47
46
45
45
44
43
42
41
41
38
37
37
35
33
32
32
31
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
68
67
65
63
61
60
58
57
56
55
54
53
52
51
50
49
48
47
46
45
44
43
42
41
40
40
38
37
36
35
33
31
29
27
26
25
23
22
21
20
20
67
66
65
63
61
60
59
58
57
56
55
54
54
53
52
52
51
50
49
48
48
47
46
46
45
44
43
43
42
41
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
32
31
30
29
28
28
27
26
25
24
23
23
22
21
6
PRACTICE TEST
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
PRACTICE TEST 01
Listening Comprehension
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Time: Approximately 40 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 40 minutes
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When
you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PART A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He's disappointed with his interview.
He had to cancel his interview.
He doesn't want to discuss the interview now.
He shouldn't have applied for the job.
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Have a cookie.
Make cookies with the woman.
Give the woman a cookie.
Take a cookie for his roommate.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He felt better an hour ago,
His headache should be gone in an hour,
He forgot to take the medicine for his headache.
His head still hurts.
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She hasn't spoken to her friend in a long time.
She intends to visit her friend in Texas.
She sometimes travels abroad for her job.
Her friend has never been to Texas before.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Meet at the bus stop.
Finish their candy bars.
Get off the bus at the next stop.
Meet in front of the rest rooms.
6. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He won't be able to repair the briefcase.
The repair shop is closed until Tuesday.
The woman should buy a smaller briefcase.
The briefcase will be ready before Tuesday.
2
PRACTICE TEST 01
Find out how much work will be required for the class.
Take another class instead of creative writing
Ask his advisor about the instructor in the Wednesday class.
Sign up for the Wednesday class.
8. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He'll take his friends to Florida.
He's not sure what he'll do.
He planned his trip a long time ago.
He'd rather not travel during spring break.
9.
He thinks clothing prices will decrease even further.
He's going to go shopping soon.
He didn't know that stores were having sales now.
He wants to see what the woman bought.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She's glad the man waited for her.
She'd like to reschedule the meeting.
She wasn't very late for the meeting.
She's sorry that she missed the meeting.
11. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She'll play chess with the man this afternoon.
She doesn't know how to play chess.
She'll wear a warm jacket to the match.
She'd rather not go out with the man.
12. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She originally proposed it.
She doesn't think it's a good idea.
She's quite sure it will take place.
Its success depends on the weather.
13. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Not all of the advertised books were on sale.
Some of the books were still packed.
The store was too crowded for him to enter.
He had to work at the bookstore this morning.
14. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She's not sure she wants to go to the party.
She just returned from a visit to the Andersons.
She may not be able to give the man a ride.
The party isn't on Friday.
15. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She'll continue to use the Laundromat near the dorms.
She recently switched Laundromats.
She doesn't use the same Laundromat the man uses.
The Laundromat near the dorms isn't converunent for her.
16. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Try to change his reservations to a different time.
Travel by train instead of by plane.
Continue trying to get a ticket.
Cancel his travel plans.
17. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They should wait for him.
They should go without him.
He'll try to join them later.
They should bring him some pizza.
18. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The jobs have already been filled.
The man should hand in his application very soon.
The man can start work today.
The man isn't qualified for any of the jobs.
3
Listening Comprehension
7. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 01
Listening Comprehension
19. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She read only half of the book.
The man should choose a different book to read.
The man will enjoy the book eventually.
The main characters in the hook aren't interesting.
20. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He can't get a room at the hotel.
He didn't get the type of room he wanted.
He expected the room to be more expensive.
He thought he had already made a reservation.
21. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
If he can help her fill out a job application.
If he knows of any job openings with his former employer.
If he'll be returning to the camp where he worked last year.
If he enjoyed the job he had last summer.
22. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Susan might not be a member of the debate team.
Susan often wears purple shirts.
He doesn't want to go to the debate.
He didn't notice what Susan was wearing.
23. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She's rarely home.
She spends a lot of time on the phone.
She's been away for several days.
She makes calls only when necessary.
24. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Visit her more often.
Stop arguing in front of other people.
Call her if they need her help.
Give her their new address.
25. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Give the woman more time to write her paper.
Visit the woman in the hospital.
Refuse to accept the woman's paper.
Let the woman change the topic of her paper.
26. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn't like wearing one.
He doesn't feel professional wearing one.
He doesn't wear one in his department.
He doesn't want to pay for one.
27. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She saw a nail in the man's tire.
The man shouldn't drive on the tire.
The man may not need a new tire.
She also needs air in her tires.
28. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She'll be on the same airplane as the man.
She doesn't take very good note.
She's looking for a ride to the airport.
She can't help the man.
29. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman looks tired.
He doesn't want to move.
Richardson Dormitory is particularly noisy.
Richardson Dormitory is boring.
30. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It wasn't open on Mondays.
Its opening had been postponed.
It was going to close before Monday.
It didn't deserve the praise I received.
4
PRACTICE TEST 01
DIRECTIONS
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions.
The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you
will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The strength of ocean currents.
The movement of sediment deep in the ocean.
The best methods for studying deep ocean processes.
A new way of measuring the depth of the ocean.
32. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Why the book talks about turbidity currents.
How winds can affect some ocean currents.
The causes of underwater earthquakes.
What a turbidity current is.
33. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It's cleaner.
it's heavier.
It's warmer.
It moves more slowly.
34. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
By greatly increasing the ocean's depth in some areas.
By creating large waves on the surface of the ocean.
By causing mud or sand to mix with ocean water
By crushing large amounts of stone.
35. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To explain how winds cause turbidity currents.
To remind the student where ocean sediments originate.
To explain the effects of turbidity currents.
To remind the student about the next assignment.
36. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To convince him to go on a canoe trip.
To invite him to a cookout.
To ask if she can borrow his car.
To tell him about a trip she took.
37. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A lunch.
A sleeping bag.
A canoe.
A lent.
38. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Swimming.
Driving.
Sleeping outdoors.
Canoeing.
39. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To find out whether he wants to go canoeing.
To tell him whether her car is repaired.
To find out what kind of food he is bringing.
To tell him what time they are leaving.
5
Listening Comprehension
PART B
PRACTICE TEST 01
Listening Comprehension
PART C
DIRECTIONS
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
40. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Competition in business.
Government grants.
A type of economic policy.
International transportation practices.
41. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
American industrialists.
French economists.
International leaders.
Civil War veterans.
42. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The rights of private business owners should be protected.
The government shouldn't interfere in private business.
Politicians should support industrial growth.
Competition among companies should be restricted.
43. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The impact of enzymes on chemical reactions.
The way the body produces enzymes.
The structure of enzymes.
Types of chemical products created with enzymes.
44. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It divides into two different parts.
It keeps the same chemical structure.
It becomes part of a new chemical compound.
It produces more of the enzyme.
45. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Provide extra energy to start the reaction.
Raise the temperature of the chemicals.
Release a chemical needed to start the reaction.
Lower the amount of energy needed to start the reaction.
46. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To show that enzymes are very effective.
To point out that enzymes can sometimes fail to work.
To explain what enzymes are made of.
To describe different types of enzymes.
47. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The relationship between painting and sculpture.
The ideas behind an artist's work.
The practical value of a work of art.
The way the eye perceives shape in sculpture.
48. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It is often displayed outdoors.
It does not always represent an object.
It is three-dimensional.
It is done by relatively few artists.
6
PRACTICE TEST 01
To give an example of natural shapes.
To describe early sculpture.
To illustrate their use as tools.
To demonstrate their role as decorative objects.
50. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They are always made of stone.
They are painted in bright colors.
They contain moving parts.
They make use of holes.
7
Listening Comprehension
49. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 01
Structure and Written Expression
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes (40 Questions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. Most geologists believe ____ from the remains of tiny marine plants and animals that died millions of
years ago.
(A) what was formed petroleum
(B) that petroleum was formed
(C) when petroleum formed
(D) petroleum that formed
2. The seat of France's North American holdings in the eighteenth century was Quebec, and the French
heritage ____ dominant there.
(A) to remain
(B) remaining
(C) by remaining
(D) has remained
3. If Earth did not rotate, differences in air pressure would be ____, with winds blowing from highpressure to low-pressure areas.
(A) primary air flow to cause
(B) the primary cause of air flow
(C) they primarily cause air flow
(D) air flow has a primary cause
4. A mobile is a sculpture constructed of pans so delicately connected and balanced ____ the entire
suspended structure may be moved by vibration or manual manipulation.
(A) in order
(B) making
(C) with
(D) that
5. The ice of a glacier that reaches the sea breaks off ____.
(A) and forming icebergs
(B) to form icebergs
(C) icebergs have-formed
(D) when the formation of icebergs
8
PRACTICE TEST 01
7. South American flamingos can survive in temperatures ____ above the freeing point.
(A) that fewer degrees
(B) if few degrees
(C) only a few degrees
(D) when fewer degrees
8. Made of hard wood, the boomerang is roughly V-shaped, with arms ____ skewed
(A) of slightly
(B) are slightly
(C) slightly
(D) that those are slightly
9. Not until the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries ____ as a unified science.
(A) did ecology emerge
(B) when ecology emerged
(C) ecology emerged
(D) when did ecology emerge
10. The ancient Egyptian water clock required sophisticated calibration, since water dripped faster from
its bowl when ____ and the pressure was greater.
(A) the full bowl
(B) was the bowl full
(C) bowl full
(D) the bowl was full
11. Enid, Oklahoma, ____ a stopping place on die Chisholm Trail in the 1800's, is now the site of the
fourth largest wheat storage space in the world
(A) originally
(B) which originally
(C) was originally
(D) originally where
12. The common barn owl, one of ten species of barn owls found in North America, is also called the
monkey-faced owl because its heart-shaped face looks ____ of a monkey.
(A) like much that
(B) like that much
(C) much like that
(D) that much like
13. All the planets in the solar system except Mercury and Venus have natural satellites, ____ objects
that revolve around the planets.
(A) which
(B) which are
(C) of which
(D) and which
14. Some subsistence activities such as hunting large animals or netting fish require ____ to work
together.
(A) goups are
(B) groups which
(C) groups
(D) that groups
9
Structure and Written Expression
6. Migraine headaches are more frequent among women ____ among men.
(A) than
(B) however
(C) except for
(D) as air
PRACTICE TEST 01
Structure and Written Expression
15. The Expressionistic artist was concerned not with the reality of the subject matter but with ____ inner
nature and the emotions that it aroused
(A) it has
(B) its
(C) what its
(D) is it whether
Written Expression
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16- 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. By the end of the nineteenth century, organic chemistry had develop new methods for the
A
B
C
synthesis of dyes, perfumes, explosives, and medicines.
D
17. The Dinee, a Native American people of the southwestern United States, were once
A
B
seminomadic hunters who practiced a few agriculture.
C
D
18. The earliest successful sewing machines were powered by turn a hand crank.
A
B
C
D
19. Early signs characteristic of the acute phase of viral hepatitis in adults are abdominal
A
B
C
pain, nausea, and feverish often accompanied by chills.
D
20. The Guggenheim Museum in New York City is one of the major center for the collection
A
B
and display of works of abstract art in the United State.
C
D
21. With the discovery of gold in the Klondike in Canada’s Yukon Territory in 1896, people
A
B
flocked soon there from all parts of the world.
C
D
22. The right side of the brain is mostly concerned with pictorial, intuitive, musically and spatial ablilities.
A
B
C
D
23. A uniform mingling of molecules, which it occurs in homogeneous chemical compounds,
A
results from the chemical constituents melting, dissolving, or diffusing into one another.
B
C
D
24. Many dinosaurs were so much heavy that they spent most of their lives in swamps and
A
B
shallow lakes where water could support them.
C
D
10
PRACTICE TEST 01
26. Georgia O’Keeffe is known for hers use of organic, abstract forms painted in clear, strong colors.
A
B
C
D
27. Until the George Washington Bridge was built, modern suspension bridges were stiffened
A
B
with steel trusses and beams to limited their motion in traffic and wind.
C
D
28. First reported by Spanish explorers in 1796, the asphalt in California’s La Brea Tar Pit
A
B
was mined commercial for many years.
C
D
29. Independence political of newspapers became a common feature of journalism in the
A
B
C
D
United States of the 1840’s and 1850’s.
30. Transistors exhibit a high amplification factor, operate without distorted over a wide frequency
A
B
C
range, and can be made extremely small.
D
31. In most cases of epilepsy, cerebral electrical activity, also known as brain waves,
A
demonstrates a characteristically abnormal rhythms.
B
C
D
32. New York City’s theatrical district was concentrated the Bowery from 1860 to 1875, and
A
B
around 1900 the avenue became a center for the Yiddish theater.
C
D
33. Most female lizards lay eggs, but the females of a number of lizard species bear her young alive.
A
B
C
D
34. Recently archaeologists have strived to develop theories, based on archaeological evident,
A
B
C
that explain societal changes such as the development of farming.
D
35. One of the most impressive cultural achievements of the United State during the 1920’s
A
B
was a vastly outpouring of serious literature.
C
D
36. The chemical element chlorine is a corrosive, greenish-yellow gas that has sharp odor
A
B
C
and has 21/2 times heavier than air.
D
37. Hair grows more quickly in summer than in winter and more slowly at the night than
A
B
C
during the day.
D
11
Structure and Written Expression
25. With little nor no mass and no electric charge, neutrinos can penetrate a solid object
A
B
such as the Earth as if it were not there.
C
D
PRACTICE TEST 01
Structure and Written Expression
38. Different fourteen crops were being grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest farmers.
A
B
C
D
39. Between 1905 and 1907, floodwaters from the Colorado River poured into a
A
B
C
salt-covered depression and creating the Salton Sea.
D
40. Saturn takes almost 30 Earth years to make one trip around the Sun, during Jupiter
A
B
takes about twelve Earth years to complete one solar revolution.
C
D
12
PRACTICE TEST 01
Reading Comprehension
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes
DIRECTIONS
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it, For this
section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (0), to each question. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the Letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
Question 1-9
Composers today use a wider variety of sounds than ever before, including many that were
once considered undesirable noises. Composer Edgard Varese (1883-1965) called thus the
"liberation of sound ... the right to make music with any and all sounds." Electronic music, for
Line example—made with the aid of computers, synthesizers, and electronic instruments—may
include sounds that in the past would not have been considered musical. Environmental sounds,
(5)
such as thunder, and electronically generated hisses and blips can be recorded, manipulated,
and then incorporated into a musical composition. But composers also draw novel sounds from
voices and nonelectronic instruments. Singers may be asked to scream, laugh, groan, sneeze, or
to sing phonetic sounds rather than words. Wind and string players may lap or scrape their
(10) instruments.
A brass or woodwind player may hum while playing, to produce two pitches at once; a
pianist may reach inside the piano to pluck a string and then run a metal blade along it. In the
music of the Western world, the greatest expansion and experimentation have involved
percussion instruments, which outnumber strings and winds in many recent compositions.
(15) Traditional percussion instruments are struck with new types of beaters; and instruments that
used to be couriered unconvennonal in Western music — tom-toms, bongos, slapsticks, maracas
— are widely used.
In the search for novel sounds, increased use has been made in Western music of
Microtones. Non-Western music typically divides and interval between two pitches more finely
(20) than Western music does, thereby producing a greter number of distinct tones, or micro tones,
within the same interval. Composers such as Krzysztof Pmderecki create sound that borders on
electronic noise through tone clusters — closely spaced tones played together and heard as a
mass, block, or band of sound. The directional aspect of sound has taken on new importance as
well Loudspeakers or groups of instruments may be placed at opposite ends of the stage, in the
(25) balcony, or at the back and sides of the auditorium. Because standard music notation makes no
provision for many of these innovations, recent music scores may contain graph like diagrams,
new note shapes and symbols, and novel ways of arranging notation on the page.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The use of nontraditional sounds in contemporary music
(B) How sounds are produced electronically
(C) How standard musical notation has beer, adapted for nontraditional sounds
(D) Several composers who have experimented with the electronic production of sound
2. The word "wider" in one 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) more impressive
(B) more distinctivc
(C) more controversial
(D) more extensive
13
Reading Comprehension
Section 3
PRACTICE TEST 01
Reading Comprehension
3. The passage suggests that Edgard Varese is an example of a composer who
(A) criticized eletronic music as too noiselike
(B) modified sonic of the electronic instruments he used in his music
(C) believed that any sound could be used in music
(D) wrote music with environmental themes
4. The word "it" in line 12 refers to
(A) piano
(B) string
(C) blade
(D) music
5. According to the passage, which of the following types of instruments has played a role in much of
the innovation in Western music?
(A) String
(B) Percussion
(C) Woodwind
(D) Brass
6. The word "thereby" m line 20 is closest in meaning to
(A) in return for
(B) in spite of
(C) by the way
(D) by that means
7. According to the passage, Krzysziof Pendereckj is known for which of the following practices?
(A) Using tones that are clumped together
(B) Combining traditional and nontradinonal instruments
(C) Seating musicians in unusual areas of an auditorium
(D) Playing Western music for non-Western audiences
8. According to the passage, which of the following would be considered traditional elements of Western
music?
(A) Microtones
(B) Tom-toms and bongos
(C) Pianos
(D) Hisses
9. In paragraph 3, the author mentions diagrams as an example of a new way to
(A) chart the history of innovation in musical notation
(B) explain the logic of standard musical notation
(C) design and develop electronic instruments
(D) indicate how particular sounds should be produced
14
PRACTICE TEST 01
(10)
(15)
(20)
10. Which of the following questions does the passage primarily answer?
(A) How do individual ants adapt to specialized tasks?
(B) What are the differences between social and solitary insects?
(C) Why are ants predators?
(D) Why have ants been able to thrive for such a long time?
11. The word "unique" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) inherited
(B) habitual
(C) singular
(D) natural
12. The word "rotting" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) decaying
(B) collected
(C) expanding
(D) cultivated
13. The word "key" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) uncommon
(B) important
(C) incidental
(D) temporary
14. According to the passage, one thing eusocial insects can do is rapidly switch from
(A) one type of food consumption to another
(B) one environment to another
(C) a solitary task to a group task
(D) a defensive to an offensive stance
15
Reading Comprehension
Line
(5)
Questions 10-19
What unusual or unique biological train led to the remarkable diversification and
unchallenged success of the ants for ever 50 million years? The answer appears to be that they
were the first group of predatory unsocial insects that both lived and foraged primarily in the soil
and in rotting vegetation on the ground. Eusocial refers to a form of insect society characterized
by specialization of tasks and cooperative care of the young; it is rare among insects. Richly
organized colonies of the land made possible by eusociality enjoy several key advantages over
solitary individuals.
Under most circumstances groups of workers arc better able to forage for food and defend
the nest, because they can switch from individual to group response and back again swiftly and
according to need. When a food object or nest intruder is too large for one individual to handle,
nest mates can be quickly assembled by alarm or recruitment signals. Equally important is the
fact that the execution of multiple-step tasks is accomplished in a series-parallel sequence. That
is, individual ants can specialize in particular steps, moving from one object (such as a larva to be
fed) to another (a second larva to be fed). They do not need to carry each task to completion
from start to finish — for example, to check the larva first, then collect the food, then feed the
larva. Hence, if each link in the chain has many workers in attendance, a senes directed at any
particular object is less likely to fail. Moreover, ants specializing in particular labor categories
typically constitute a caste specialized by age or body form or both. There has bees some
documentation of the superiority in performance and net energetic yield of various castes for their
modal tasks, although careful experimental studies are still relatively few.
What makes ants unusual in the company of eusocial insects is the fact that they are the
only eusocial predators (predators are animals that capture and feed on other animals)
occupying the soil and ground litter. The eusocial termites live in the same places as ants and
also have wingless workers, but they feed almost exclusively on dead vegetation.
PRACTICE TEST 01
Reading Comprehension
15. The task of feeding larvae is mentioned in the passage to demonstrate
(A) the advantages of specialization
(B) the type of food that larvae are fed
(C) the ways ant colonies train their young for adult tasks
(D) the different stages of ant development
16. The author uses the word "Hence" in line 16 to indicate
(A) a logical conclusion
(B) the next step in a senes of steps
(C) a reason for further study
(D) the relationship among ants
17. All of the following terms art defined in the passage EXCEPT
(A) eusocial (line 3)
(B) series-parallel sequence (line 12)
(C) caste (line 18)
(D) predators (line 22)
18. The word "they" in line 24 refers to
(A) termites
(B) ants
(C) places
(D) predators
19. It can be inferred from the passage that one main difference between termites and ants is that
termites
(A) live above ground
(B) are eusocial
(C) protect their nests
(D) eat almost no animal substances
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
Questions 20-29
Glaciers are large masses of ice on land that show evidence of past or present movement.
They grow by the gradual transformation of snow into glacier ice. A fresh snowfall is a fluffy mass
of loosely packed snowflakes, small delicate ice constals grown in the atmosphere. As the snow
ages on the ground for weeks or months, the crystals shrink and become more compact, and the
whole mass becomes squeezed together into a more dense form, granular snow. As new snow
falls and buries the older snow, the layers of granular snow further compact to form firm, a much
denser kind of snow, usually a year or more old, which has little pore space.
Further burial and slow cementation—a process by which crystals become bound together
in a mosaic of inter grown ice crystals—finally produce solid glacial ice. In this process of
recrystallization, the growth of new crystals at the expense of old ones, the percentage of air is
reduced from about 90 percent for snowflakes to less than 20 percent for glacier ice. The whole
process may take as little as a few years, but more likely ten or twenty years or longer. The snow
is usually many meters deep by the time the lower layers art convened into ice.
In cold glaciers those formed in the coldest regions of the Earth, the entire mass of ice is at
temperatures below the melting point and no free water exists. In temperate glaciers, the ice is at
the melting point at every pressure level within the glacier, and free water is present as small
drops or as larger accumulations in tunnels within or beneath the ice.
Formation of a glacier is complete when ice has accumulated to a thickness (and thus
weight) sufficient to make it move slowly under pressure, in much the same way that solid rock
deep within the Earth can change shape without breaking. Once that point is reached, the ice
flows downhill, either as a tongue of ice filling a valley or as thick ice cap that flows out in
directions from the highest central area where the most snow accumulates. The up down leads to
the eventual melting of ice.
16
PRACTICE TEST 01
21. Which of the following will cause density within the glacier to increase?
(A) Increased water and air content
(B) Pressure from the weight of new snow
(C) Long periods of darkness and temperature variations
(D) Movement of the glacier
22. The word "bound" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) covered
(B) chosen
(C) planned
(D) held
23. Which of the following will be lost is a glacier forms?
(A) Air
(B) Pressure
(C) Weight
(D) Rocks
24. According to the passage, which of the following is the LEAST amount of time necessary for glacial
ice to form?
(A) Several months
(B) Several years
(C) At least fifty years
(D) A century
25. The word "converted" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) changed
(B) delayed
(C) promoted
(D) dissolved
26. What is the purpose of the material in paragraph three (lines 15-17)
(A) To define two types of glaciers
(B) To contrast glacier ice with non-glacier ice
(C) To present theories of glacier formation
(D) To discuss the similarities between glacial types
27. In temperate glaciers, where is water found?
(A) Only near the surface
(B) In pools a: various depths
(C) In a thin layer below the firm
(D) In tunnels
28. The word "it" in line 19 refers to
(A) formation
(B) ice
(C) thickcess
(D) weight
29. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a glacier
(A) can revert to a fluffy mass
(B) maintains the same shape throuth out the glacial process
(C) is too cold to be thoroughly studied
(D) can contribute water to lakes, rivers, or oceans
17
Reading Comprehension
20. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The effect of glaciers on climate
(B) Damage from glaciers
(C) Glacier formation
(D) The location of glaciers
PRACTICE TEST 01
Reading Comprehension
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Questions 30-39
The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceabiliy of British copyright law in the
American colonies made it possible for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers.
Although they rarely undertook major publishing project because it was difficult to sell books as
cheaply as they could be imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish work that
required only small amounts of capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be published with
minimal financial risk. Consisting of only one sheet of paper and requiring small amounts of type,
broadsides involved lower investments of capital than longer works. Furthermore, the broadside
format lent it self to subjects of high, if temporary, interest, enabling them to meet with ready sale.
If the broadside printer miscalculated, however, and produced a sheet that did not sell, it was not
likely to be a major loss, and the printer would know this immediately, There would be no
agonizing wait with large amounts of capital tied up, books gathering dust on the shelves, and
creditors impatient for payment.
In addition to broadsides, books and pamphlets, consisting mainly of political tracts,
catechisms, primers, and chapbooks were relatively inexpensive to print and to buy. Chapbook
were pamphlet-sized books, usually containing popular tales, ballads, poems, short plays, and
jokes, small, both in formal and number of pages, they were generally bound simply, in boards (a
form of cardboard) or merely stitched in paper wrappers (a sewn antecedent of modern-day
paperbacks). Pamphlets and chapbooks did not require fine paper or a great deal of type to
produce they could thus be printed in large, cost effective editions and sold cheaply.
By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that
had proven to be steady sellers, providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the
publisher. They would not, by nature, be highly topical or political, as such publications would
prove of fleeting interest. Almanacs, annual publications that contained information on astronomy
and weather patterns arranged according to the days, week, and months of a given year,
provided the perfect steady seller because their information pertained to the locale in which they
would be used.
30. Which aspect of colonial printing does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Laws governing the printing industry.
(B) Competition among printers
(C) Types of publications produced
(D) Advances in printing technology
31. According to the passage, why did colonial printers avoid major publishing projects?
(A) Few colonial printers owned printing machinery tha was large enough to handle major projects.
(B) There was inadequate shipping available in the colonies.
(C) Colonial printers could not sell their work for a competitive price.
(D) Colonial printers did not have the skills necessary to undertake large publishing projects.
32. Broadsides could be published with little risk to colonial printers because they
(A) required a small financial investment and sold quickly
(B) were in great demand in European markets
(C) were more popular with colonists than chapbooks and pamphlets
(D) generally dealt with topics of long-term interest to many colonists
33. The word "they" in line 16 refers to
(A) chapbooks
(B) tales
(C) jokes
(D) pages
34. The word "antecedent" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) predecessor
(B) format
(C) imitation
(D) compontent
18
PRACTICE TEST 01
36. Thc word "appealing" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(A) dependable
(B) respectable
(C) enduring
(D) attractive
37. What were "steady sellers" (line 21)?
(A) Printers whose incomes were quite large
(B) People who traveled from town to town selling Books and pamphlets
(C) Investors who provided reliable financial Support for new printers
(D) Publications whose sales were usually consistent from year to year
38. The word "locale" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) topic
(B) season
(C) interest
(D) place
39. All of the following are defined in the passage EXCEPT
(A) "Broadsides" (line 5)
(B) "catechisms" (line 14)
(C) "chapbooks"(line 14)
(D) "Almanacs" (line 23)
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Questions 40-50
Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs
increased producuvity by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in
manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per
capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year—30 percent over the course of a
generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made
goods, since the 1790's, North American entrepreneurs—even without technological
improvements—had broadened the scope of the outwork system that mace manufacturing more
efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a single step of
the production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's the shoe industry greatly
expanded the scale and extend of me outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid
according to the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes, which were bound to
the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts towns, whereas
previously journeymen would have made the endure shoe. This system of production made the
employer a powerful "shoe boss" and eroded workers' control over the pace and conditions of
labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their price.
For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more
important new organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and
assembly-line techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the
prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill driven
by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the mill, cleaned it as it fell into
containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the
top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made
use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled
them to build factories in the nation's largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of
inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and eager customers.
19
Reading Comprehension
35. Chapbooks produced in colonial America were characterized by
(A) fine paper
(B) cardboard covers
(C) elaborate decoration
(D) a large number of pages
PRACTICE TEST 01
Reading Comprehension
40. What is the passage mainly about?
(A) The difficulties of industrialization in North America
(B) The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers
(C) The rapid speed of industrialization in North America
(D) Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods
41. The word "boosted" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) ensured
(B) raised
(C) arranged
(D) discouraged
42. The word "scope" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) value
(B) popularity
(C) extent
(D) diversity
43. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how
(A) entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system
(B) entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output
(C) rural workers responded to "shoe bosses"
(D) changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes
44. All of the following are mentioned as effects of changes in the shoe industry during the 1820's and
1830's EXCEPT
(A) an increase in the worker's dependence on entrepreneurs
(B) an increase in the wages paid to journeymen shoemakers
(C) a decline in the workers ability to control the speed of production
(D) a decrease in the price of shoes
45. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT
(A) It involved stages of production.
(B) It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.
(C) It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.
(D) It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.
46. The word "prolific" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(A) efficient
(B) productive
(C) self-employed
(D) progressive
47. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills differ from the mill built by Oliver
Evans?
(A) They were located away from large cities.
(B) They used new technology to produce power.
(C) They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels.
(D) They combined technology with the outwork system.
48. The word "it" in line 21 refers to
(A) water power
(B) machinery
(C) grain
(D) mill
20
PRACTICE TEST 01
50. The word "eager" in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) wealthy
(B) knowledgeable
(C) regular
(D) enthusiastic
Material:
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test, 11 th edition, Barron’s Educational
Series, Inc
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.
21
Reading Comprehension
49. The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory machinery?
(A) It become easier for factory' owners to find workers and customers.
(B) Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.
(C) The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.
(D) Factories could operate more than one engine at a time.
PRACTICE TEST
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
PRACTICE TEST 02
Listening Comprehension
Time: Approximately 40 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 40 minutes
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When
you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PART A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Spend more time working on calculus problems.
Talk to an advisor about dropping the course.
Work on the assignment with a classmate.
Ask the graduate assistant for help.
2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Go home to get a book.
Return a book to the library.
Pick up a book at the library for the woman.
Ask the librarian for help in finding a book.
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman could use his metric ruler.
He'll finish taking the measurements for the woman.
The woman's ruler is better than his.
He's faster at making the conversions than the woman.
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She wants the man to attend the tournament with her.
The tournament begins next week.
The man should check with his doctor again
She hopes the man will be able to play in the tournament.
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The advisor has already approved the man's class schedule.
The man should make an appointment to see his advisor.
The man should change his course schedule.
The man should sign the document before leaving.
6.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She didn't teach class today.
She noticed that the students didn't do their homework.
She usually assigns homework.
She usually talks quietly.
23
Listening Comprehension
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 02
Listening Comprehension
7.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It started to rain when she was at the beach.
She'd like the man to go to the beach with her.
The forecast calls for more rain tomorrow.
She won't go to the beach tomorrow if it rains.
8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She disagrees with the man.
She doesn't enjoy long speeches.
She hadn't known how long the speech would be.
She doesn't have a strong opinion about the speaker
9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He makes more money than the woman.
He's satisfied with his job.
He had trouble finding a job.
He doesn't like working outdoors.
10. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He has already finished his report.
He hasn't chosen a topic for his report.
The woman's report is already long enough.
The woman will have time to finish her report
11. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She'll speak to Larry about the problem.
Larry has apologized to his roommate.
Larry should find a new roommate.
Larry's roommate may be partly responsible for the problem.
12. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man should take his vacation somewhere else.
She doesn't know when her semester ends.
She hasn't called the travel agent yet
The man may have to reschedule his trip.
13. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She didn't work hard enough on it
It wasn't as good as she thought
Her professor was pleased with it.
It was written according to the professor's guidelines.
14. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Go to the ballet later in the year.
Take ballet lessons with his sister.
Get a schedule of future performances.
Get a ticket from his sister.
15. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Her hotel is located far from the conference center
She didn't want to stay at the Gordon.
The man should consider moving to a different hotel.
She isn't sure how to get to the conference center.
16. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Few readers agreed with his ideas.
Very few people have read his article.
He doesn't expect the article to be published.
The woman doesn't fully understand the article,
17. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He'll go with the woman to the next hockey game.
He missed the hockey game because he was ill.
He forgot about the hockey game.
He doesn't like to go to hockey games.
18. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Karen can drive to the airport on Tuesday.
Karen can attend the meeting on Tuesday.
Karen had to change her plans at the last minute.
Karen is returning from a trip on Tuesday.
24
PRACTICE TEST 02
Call her after five.
Make calls from her phone.
Go to the meeting with her.
Fix her phone.
20. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Look for more information for their financial plan.
Ask for more time to finish their financial plan.
Finish their financial plan with the material available to them.
Turn in their financial plan late.
21. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn't want to drive anymore.
The road to Bridgeport just opened.
It doesn't take long to get to Bridgeport.
He has memorized every part of the drive.
22. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She doesn't have time to work in a garden.
She'll consider the man's invitation.
She doesn't want to join a gardening club.
She was never formally invited to join a gardening club.
23. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She's enjoying the music.
The music will keep her awake.
The music doesn't bother her .
She would prefer a different style of music.
24. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
His house can accommodate a meeting of the entire committee.
The woman should find out when the meeting starts.
The meeting should be held at the library.
A smaller committee should be formed.
25. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She doesn't have time to collect the data.
She prefers to wait until after the election.
She needs to decide on a method soon.
She'll send out the questionnaire in a month.
26. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He's angry with the woman,
He feels sick.
He doesn't get along well with some people.
He prefers to study alone.
27. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It provides reading material for people waiting to get in.
He had to wait a long time for a seat there.
He wasn't able to find a seat there.
The seats used there are uncomfortable.
28. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Students still have time to apply for a loan.
Students must wait until next month to submit loan applications.
The woman should find out whether her loan application was accepted.
The woman should ask for an extension on the application deadline.
29. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The casserole usually contains fewer vegetables.
She wishes she hadn't ordered the casserole
The cafeteria usually uses canned vegetables.
She doesn't usually eat in the cafeteria,
30. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Stay in the dormitory.
Find out the cost of living in the dormitory.
Ask for a reduction in her rent.
Move into an apartment with a roommate.
25
Listening Comprehension
19. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 02
Listening Comprehension
PART B
DIRECTIONS
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions.
The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you
will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They're classmates.
They're roommates.
They're cousins.
They're lab partners.
32. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He couldn't decide on a topic for his paper.
He thought his paper was late.
He hadn't heard from his family in a while.
He thought the woman had been ill.
33. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To find their way back to the nest.
To locate plant fibers.
To identify kinds of honey.
To identify relatives.
34. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Visit his parents.
Write a paper.
Observe how bees build nests
Plan a family reunion.
35. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
An alternative use of fuel oil.
A way to make fuel oil less polluting.
A new method for locating underground oil.
A new source of fuel oil
36. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She was doing research for a paper on it,
She read a newspaper article about it.
She was told about it by her roommate.
She heard about it in class.
37. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To produce a gas containing carbon and hydrogen.
To remove impurities from methanol.
To heat the reactors
To prevent dangerous gases from forming
38. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It hasn't been fully tested.
It's quite expensive.
It uses up scarce minerals.
The gas it produces is harmful to the environment.
26
PRACTICE TEST 02
DIRECTIONS
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
39. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The influence of European popular music on non-Western music.
The musical background of the director of the Broadway version of The Lion King
The types of music used in the Broadway version of The Lion King.
Differences between the music of the film version and the Broadway version of The Lion King.
40. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It was performed by the Zulu people of South Africa.
It developed outside the musical traditions of Europe.
It's familiar to most audiences in the United States.
The students heard it performed in New York City.
41. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The director is of African ancestry.
The director wanted the songs in the Broadway version to be identical to the songs in the film.
The Broadway version was first performed in Africa.
The story takes place in Africa.
42. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A type of music that originated in Indonesia.
The meaning of non-English words used in a song
The plot of The Lion King
Popular rock and jazz music performed in
43. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
How ancient philosophers measured the distance between heavenly bodies.
How ancient philosophers explained the cause of an eclipse of the Moon.
Why ancient philosophers thought the Earth was a sphere.
Why ancient philosophers thought the Earth moved around the Sun.
44. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
How the natural world was described in Greek mythology.
What they observed directly.
The writings of philosophers from other societies.
Measurements made with scientific instruments.
45. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They noticed an apparent change in the position of the North Star.
They observed eclipses at different times of the year.
They were the first to estimate the distance between heavenly bodies.
They wanted to prove that the Earth was flat.
46. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A place for making astronomical observations.
An instrument used for observing stars.
A unit of measurement.
The North Star.
47. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
One of the students asked him about it in the previous class.
He read about it the previous day.
He had just read Dr. Frederick Cock's travel log
The students were required to read about it for that day's class
27
Listening Comprehension
PART C
PRACTICE TEST 02
Listening Comprehension
48. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
That Peary bad announced his success prematurely.
That the investigation of Peary's expedition wasn't thorough.
That Peary wasn't an experienced explorer.
That he had reached the pole before Peary did.
49. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They talked to one of Peary's companions.
They interviewed Peary.
They conducted a computer analysis of photographs.
They examined Peary's navigation tools,
50. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Dr. Cook's expedition.
The conclusions of the Navigation Foundation.
Exploration of the Equator.
Exploration of the South Pole.
28
PRACTICE TEST 02
Structure and Written Expression
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes (40 Questions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1.
Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting in Indiana,
she called for a state woman's rights convention.
(A) begin
(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun
2.
The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles___
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano
3.
Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with
the cause of liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing
(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent
4.
Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater
___fifteen minutes before having to surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that
5.
Protein digestion begins in the stomach ____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because
29
Structure and Written Expression
Section 2
PRACTICE TEST 02
Structure and Written Expression
6.
When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules
7.
_____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every
8.
Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep
9.
Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women's rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in
the 1970's,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning
(D) winning five of them
10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___the course of evolution by preserving those traits best
adapted for an organism's survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it
(C) directs it
(D) that directs
11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped
link the Atlantic Ocean with the Great Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends
12. The chief sources of B12, a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat, milk and
eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is
(D) that not
13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history
14. The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor
30
PRACTICE TEST 02
Written Expression
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16- 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. The outer layer of the heart, called the pericardium, forms a sac in what the heart lies.
A
B
C
D
17. Wood from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly when it is exposed to steam.
A
B
C
D
18. The ability to talk is one of the skill that make humans different from the rest of the animal world.
A
B
C
D
Jawab : B
19. In plane geometry, the sum of the internal angles of any triangle has always equal to 180 degrees.
A
B
C
D
20. Polar bears are bowlegged and pigeon-toed, adaptations that enable this massive animals
A
B
to maintain their balance as they walk.
C
D
21. Caves are formed by the chemical or action mechanical of water on soluble rock, by volcanic
A
B
C
activity, and by earthquakes.
D
22. Celery, an edible plant is having long stalks topped with feathery leaves, grows best in cool weather.
A
B
C
D
23. The first fiction writer in the United States to achieve international fame was Washington Irving,
A
B
C
who wrote many stories, included " Rip Van Winkle" and "The Legend of Sleepy Hollow".
D
24. Three fundamental aspects of forest conversation are the protection of immature trees, the use
A
of proper harvesting methods, and provide for an environment that supports reproduction.
B
C
D
25. For each enzyme reaction there is an optimum temperature which maximum efficiency is achieved
A
B
C
D
26. Adolescence is a transitional stage in human development from the beginning of puberty to
A
B
the attainment of the emotion, social, and physical maturity of adulthood.
C
D
31
Structure and Written Expression
15. Maufacturing is Canada's most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.
(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging
PRACTICE TEST 02
Structure and Written Expression
27. The people native to the northwest coast of North American have long be known for wood
A
B
C
carvings of stunning beauty and extraordinary quality.
D
28. Colonial efforts to manufacture glass at Jamestown --- and later attempts near
A
B
Philadelphia and Boston -- failed despite the abundant of fuel and good raw materials
C
D
29. The orbit of a celestial body is usually in the shape of ellipse.
A
B
C
D
30. Chicago is the third largest publishing center in the United States, exceeding only by New York City
A
B
C
D
and San Francisco.
31. North American bison differ from domestic cattle in have 14 rather than 13 pairs of ribs.
A
B
C
D
32. Female sea turtles, before laying her eggs, swim as much as 2,000 kilometers
A
B
to return to the beaches where they themselves were hatched.
C
D
33. Water is the only substance that occur at ordinary temperatures in all three
A
B
C
states of matter: solid, liquid and gas.
D
34. Despite the growth of manufacturing and other industries, the economy
A
B
of the state of Texas has remained heavily dependence on oil and gas.
C
D
35. Lyndon B. Johnson was the only United States President who oath of office was
A
B
C
administered by a woman Judge Sarah Tilghman Hughes.
D
36. It took more than fourteen years to carve the faces of four United States
A
B
C
Presidents into the granite cliffs to Mount Rushmore, South Dakota.
D
37. Charles Bullfinch was the architect who design the original red brick core of the
A
B
C
D
State House in Boston.
38. Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on as much aspects of social,
A
B
economic, and cultural development as the growth of electronics.
C
D
39. Lowell, Massachusetts, known as the "Spindle City" since 1822 when its first
A
B
textile mills were built, attracted worldwide attention as textile center.
C
D
32
PRACTICE TEST 02
33
Structure and Written Expression
40. Strange Victory, Sara Teas dale's smallest and most perfect collection
A
B
of poems, appear in print in 1933.
C
D
PRACTICE TEST 02
Reading Comprehension
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes
DIRECTIONS
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it, For this
section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (0), to each question. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the Letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-10
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century,
it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural
hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as fanners from within a
Line radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other
products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street Market was continuously enlarged
(5)
throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market
was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market
began operation. Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in
Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The
(10) fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in
the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail
merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs
and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on
(15) the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export
merchants became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to
appear in addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.
One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the
surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth. They did their
(20) business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they cater to the governor and
his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the capital for legislative sessions of the
assembly and council and the meetings of the courts of justice.
1.
What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Philadelphia's agriculture importance
(B) Philadelphia's development as a marketing center
(C) The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia
(D) The administration of the city of Philadelphia
2.
It can be inferred from the passage that new markets opened in Philadelphia because
(A) they provided more modem facilities than older markets
(B) the High Street Market was forced to close
(C) existing markets were unable to serve the growing population
(D) farmers wanted markets that were closer to the farms.
3.
The word "hinterland " in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) tradition
(B) association
(C) produce
(D) region
34
PRACTICE TEST 02
The word "it" in line 6 refers to
(A) the crowded city
(B) a radius
(C) the High Street Market
(D) the period
5.
The word "persisted" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) returned
(B) started
(C) declined
(D) continued
6.
According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held
(A) on the same day as market says
(B) as often as possible
(C) a couple of times a year
(D) whenever the government allowed it
7.
It can be inferred that the author mentions "Linens and stockings" in line 12 to show that they were
items that
(A) retail merchants were not willing to sell
(B) were not available in the stores in Philadelphia
(C) were more popular in Germantown man in Philadelphia
(D) could easily be transported
8.
The word "eradicate" in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) eliminate
(B) exploit
(C) organize
(D) operate
9.
What does the author mean by stating in line 17 that "economic development was on the merchants'
side "?
(A) Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.
(B) Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.
(C) Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence
(D) Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.
10. The word "undergoing" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) requesting
(B) experiencing
(C) repeating
(D) including
Questions 11-22
Aviculturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned how to
simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue to look for better ways to
increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates. When parrots incubate their eggs in
Line the wild, the temperature and humidity of the nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred
from the bird's skin to the top portion of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a
(5)
cooler temperature. This temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest
construction can contribute to this temperature gradient Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks,
or dirt are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material. Such
nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom sections of the nest
(10) so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the water that collects in the bottom of
the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is heated by the incubating bird, which adds
significant humidity to the incubation environment.
In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots and
35
Reading Comprehension
4.
PRACTICE TEST 02
Reading Comprehension
(15)
(20)
incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the eggs fairly
evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird's method of natural incubation, and perhaps
reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks. When incubators are not used,
aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors to use as nests in which to place eggs.
In areas where weather can become cold after eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a
deep foundation of nesting material to act as insulator against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs
rest against the wooden bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to
a point where the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from
direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo. Nesting
material should be added in sufficient amounts to avoid both extreme temperature situations
mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure place to rest.
11. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Nesting material varies according to the parrots' environment.
(B) Humidity is an important factor in incubating parrots' eggs.
(C) Aviculturists have constructed the ideal nest box for parrots.
(D) Wild parrots' nests provide information useful for artificial incubation.
12. The word "They" in line 2 refers to
(A) aviculturists
(B) birds
(C) eggs
(D) rates
13. According to paragraph 2, when the temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg are cooler than
the top, then
(A) there may be a good chance for successful incubation
(B) the embryo will not develop normally
(C) the incubating parent moves the egg to a new position.
(D) the incubation process is slowed down
14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or dirt are used to
(A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly hatched chick
(B) hold the nest together
(C) help lower the temperature at the bottom of the nest
(D) make the nest bigger
15. According to paragraph 2, the construction of the nest allows water to
(A) provide a beneficial source of humidity in the nest
(B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the nest
(C) keep the nest in a clean condition
(D) touch the bottom of the eggs
16. All of the following are part of a parrot's incubation method EXCEPT
(A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the bottom of the nest
(B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of the nest
(C) transferring heat from the parent to the top of the eggshell
(D) maintaining a constant temperature on the eggshell
17. The word "suspend" in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) build
(B) paint
(C) hang
(D) move
36
PRACTICE TEST 02
19. The word "secure" in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) fiesh
(B) diy
(C) safe
(D) warm
20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation of nesting material provides
(A) a constant source of humidity
(B) a strong nest box
(C) more room for newly hatched chicks
(D) protection against cold weather
21. Which of the following is a problem with commercial incubators?
(A) They lack the natural temperature changes of the outdoors.
(B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly
(C) They do not transfer heat to the egg in the same way the parent bird does.
(D) They are expensive to operate.
22. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
(A) Aviculturists (line I)
(B) Gradient (line 8)
(C) Incubation (line 15)
(D) Embryo (line 24)
Questions 23-33
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large
boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus of examination in
studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the composite sizes of particles in a
Line soil sample, typically several representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and
clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as
(5)
a percentage of the sample weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the
damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched
fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish
(10) shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral
characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes if they can be formed at all,
provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is
determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when
dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more
(15) refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment
sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of
sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size
categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves
(20) work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far
too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles
are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle
so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and
evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.
37
Reading Comprehension
18. The word "fatal" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) close
(B) deadly
(C) natural
(D) hot
PRACTICE TEST 02
Reading Comprehension
23. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Characteristics of high quality soil
(B) Particles typically found in most soils
(C) How a high clay content affects the texture of soil
(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil
24. The author mentions "several representative handrals" in line 4 in order to show
(A) the range of soil samples
(B) the process by which soil is weighed
(C) the requirements for an adequate soil sample
(D) how small soil particles are
25. The phrase "sorted out" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) mixed
(B) replaced
(C) carried
(D) separated
26. It can be inferred mat the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect
(A) the way the soil is extracted
(B) the results of squeezing the soil
(C) the need to check more than one handful
(D) the difficulty of forming different shapes
27. The word "dampened" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) damaged
(B) stretched
(C) moistened
(D) examined
28. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about a soil sample with little or no clay in
it?
(A) It is not very heavy.
(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.
(C) Its shape is durable
(D) Its texture cannot be classified
29. The word "they" in line 23 refers to
(A) categories
(B) sieves
(C) larger particles
(D) clay particles
30. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in
determining soil texture because
(A) using the sieve takes less time
(B) the sieve can measure clay
(C) less training is required to use the sieve
(D) the sieve allows for a more exact measure
31. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they
(A) stick to the sides of the water container
(B) take some time to sink to the bottom
(C) separate into different sizes
(D) dissolve quickly
32. The word "fine" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) tiny
(B) many
(C) excellent
(D) various
38
PRACTICE TEST 02
Questions 34-43
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is
the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized communication through
Line performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice
that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language
(5)
itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by
the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may
indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant's
(10) tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the
acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with
its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the
text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality,
(15) and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic
communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others,
and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident,
pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also
(20) the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding
behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or
sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging
or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic
sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic
qualities of the depressed.
34. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The function of the voice in performance
(B) The connection between voice and personality
(C) Communication styles
(D) The production of speech
35. What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" (lines 9-10)?
(A) Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
(B) The tone of voice can canny information beyond the meaning of words.
(C) A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
(D) Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
36. The word "Here" in line 10 refers to
(A) interpersonal interactions
(B) the tone
(C) ideas and feelings
(D) words chosen
37. The word "derived" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) discussed
(B) prepared
(C) registered
(D) obtained
39
Reading Comprehension
33. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT
(A) texture (line 3)
(B) ribbon (line 11)
(C) sediment sieves (line 19)
(D) evaporated (line 27)
PRACTICE TEST 02
Reading Comprehension
38. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 17?
(A) As examples of public performance
(B) As examples of basic styles of communication
(C) To contrast them to singing
(D) To introduce the idea of self-image
39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person's
(A) general physical health
(B) personality
(C) ability to communicate
(D) vocal quality
40. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide
(A) hostility
(B) shyness
(C) friendliness
(D) strength
41. The word "drastically" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) frequently
(B) exactly
(C) severely
(D) easily
42. The word "evidenced" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) questioned
(B) repeated
(C) indicated
(D) exaggerated
43. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
(A) Lethargy
(B) Depression
(C) Boredom
(D) Anger
Questions 44-50
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis
Line upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social
mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating
(5)
immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was
(10) greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational
education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students,
many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult
immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement
houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit
(15)
the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population. Schools tried to
educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy,
and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
(20) education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had
meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included incomeproducing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-
40
PRACTICE TEST 02
44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was
(A) the growing number of schools in frontier communities
(B) an increase in the number of trained teachers
(C) the expanding economic problems of schools
(D) the increased urbanization of the entire country
45. The word "means" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) advantages
(B) probability
(C) method
(D) qualifications
46. The phrase "coincided with" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) was influenced by
(B) happened at the same time as
(C) began to grow rapidly
(D) ensured the success of
47. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that
(A) most places required children to attend school
(B) the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
(C) new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
(D) adults and children studied in the same classes
48. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned in lines 11-12 to illustrate
(A) alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
(B) the importance of educational changes
(C) activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
(D) the increased impact of public schools on students.
49. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that
(A) different groups needed different kinds of education
(B) special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
(C) corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
(D) more women should be involved in education and industry
50. The word "it" in line 24 refers to
(A) consumption
(B) production
(C) homemaking
(D) education
Material:
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test, 11 th edition, Barron’s Educational
Series, Inc
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.
41
Reading Comprehension
(25)
century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem.
Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer.
Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring
for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in
the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
PRACTICE TEST
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
PRACTICE TEST 03
Listening Comprehension
Time: Approximately 40 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 40 minutes
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When
you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PART A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He has just recovered from the flu.
He won’t be able to go to the play.
He heard that the play isn’t very good.
He has already seen the play.
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Share the place he’s renting.
Avoid living near the campus.
Apply for campus housing.
Find an apartment soon.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He wants to meet the woman after his Spanish class.
The woman should borrow someone else’s workbook.
He can take the woman to her class.
The woman needs to return the workbook before the class.
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She didn’t know Dr. Turner’s lecture would be so interesting.
She didn’t expect to have a quiz today.
Dr. Turner often gives quizzes.
The man should have prepared for the class.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
There are different kinds of folders.
This decision requires careful thought.
It doesn’t matter which color she uses.
The color should suggest the content.
6. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She prepares her students well.
She used to teach graduate courses.
She isn’t qualified to teach organic chemistry.
Her students rarely attend graduate school.
43
Listening Comprehension
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 03
Listening Comprehension
7. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He decided not to sell the piano.
He’s looking for a place to store the piano.
No one has bought the piano.
He hasn’t been able to find an inexpensive piano yet.
8. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Tennis players often injure their backs.
She hadn’t heard about the man’s problem.
The man should have seen the doctor.
She’ll check the man’s schedule as soon as possible.
9. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He already knew about the problem.
Someone has started fixing the washing machine.
No one complained about the washing machine today.
There’s nothing wrong with the washing machine.
10. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It won’t take long to get to the station.
It’ll be easy for him to give the woman a ride to the station.
He’ll ride on the train with the woman.
He’s picking someone up from the station.
11. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
I’ll out an application from.
Apply for a different position.
File the papers in the cabinet.
Show her the advertisement from the newspaper.
12. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Go with her to the airport.
Talk to her for a short time.
Find out when the plane is leaving.
Make the phone call now.
13. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He can give the woman directions to Chicago.
He can drive the woman to Chicago.
He can get a map for the woman.
He can take the woman to the bookstore.
14. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He didn’t show his paintings at the exhibit.
He didn’t see the paintings.
He doesn’t understand Ted’s art.
The exhibit was canceled.
15. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She has canceled her trip to lowa.
The snowstorm is getting weaker.
The man’s information isn’t accurate.
They also may get a lot of snow.
16. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She needs more time to get ready for the dinner.
She thought the dinner was at another time.
She forgot about the plans she made for dinner.
She won’t be able to go to dinner.
17. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Take the class this semester.
Get permission to take the class.
Take the class over again.
Register for the class next semester.
18. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn’t like his new eyeglass frames.
He didn’t get a haircut.
He got his eyeglasses a long time ago.
Several people have asked him about his new eyeglass frames.
44
PRACTICE TEST 03
The grades have been calculated correctly.
The woman will get the grade she deserves.
The woman received one of the highest grades.
The woman’s grade can’t be changed.
20. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She left the lecture for a few minutes.
She was reading doing the lecture.
She may have fallen asleep.
She misunderstood the speaker’s last points.
21. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man hasn’t seen Joan recently.
The man plans to call Joan soon.
Joan doesn’t know what happened to the book.
Joan gave the book to the man.
22. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Why she should tell her students about her plans.
What he plans to do when he’s on sabbatical.
Why she can’t take a sabbatical next semester.
Why her students probably weren’t surprised by her announcement.
23. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Put a little more pepper in the stew.
Taste the stew to see if it needs paper.
Check the recipe to see if they followed it correctly.
Serve the stew as it is.
24. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She wants to know where Tom heard the stories.
She’s surprised Tom was so serious last night.
Tom doesn’t usually tell funny stories.
The stories probably weren’t true.
25. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He plans to sell the books to a collector.
He won’t sell the books until he has read them.
The books probably aren’t worth a lot of money.
The woman can borrow any of the books if she wants to.
26. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Leave with the man.
Get ready to leave for the weekend.
Stay where she is for the weekend.
Meet the man later.
27. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man is upset that the wasn’t invited to the party.
The man and the woman live in different buildings.
The woman’s friends were louder than she expected they would be.
The woman hadn’t intended to serve food and beverages at the party.
28. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Mary hadn’t planned to attend the seminar.
Mary has been ill for several weeks.
Mary forgot about the seminar.
Mary wasn’t able to attend the seminar.
29. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Do more research before they meet.
Meet several days before the presentation.
Change the day of the presentation.
Try to solve the problems before they meet.
30. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She’ll talk to Judy about the problem.
She may not be available later to help the man.
She isn’t sure if Judy can solve the problem.
The man will be able to solve the problem himself.
45
Listening Comprehension
19. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 03
Listening Comprehension
PART B
DIRECTIONS
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions.
The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you
will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Places the man has visited.
A paper the woman is writing for a class.
School activities they enjoy.
The woman’s plans for the summer.
32. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She has never been to Gettysburg.
She took a political science course.
Her family still goes on vacation together.
She’s interested in the United States Civil War.
33. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Why her parents wanted to go to Gettysburg.
Why her family’s vacation plans changed ten years ago.
Where her family went for a vacation ten years ago.
When her family went on their last vacation.
34. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It’s far from where she lives.
Her family went there without her.
She doesn’t know a lot about it.
She’s excited about going there.
35. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A catalog mailed to the man.
The woman’s catalog order.
The history of mail-order catalogs.
A comparison of two kinds of catalogs.
36. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She wants to learn about Richard Sears.
She is helping the man with his assignment.
She needs to buy a filing cabinet.
She wants to order some textbooks.
37. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Teachers.
Farmers.
Students.
Laborers.
38. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
As textbooks.
As fuel.
As newspapers.
As art.
39. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Taxes on factory goods rose.
Some people lost their farms.
Shipping prices rose.
some families lost their businesses.
46
PRACTICE TEST 03
DIRECTIONS
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
40. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Problems with pesticides.
Characteristics of one type of falcon.
Migratory patterns of birds.
Tracking systems for animals.
41. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It flying speed.
Its keen hearing.
It size.
Its aggressiveness.
42. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
By radar.
By airplane.
By direct observation.
By satellite.
43. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The types of instruments used in bebop music.
The social setting in which bebop music developed.
How two styles of jazz music influenced each other
The influence of bebop music on the United States economy during the 1940’s.
44. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They didn’t use singers.
They gave free concerts.
They performed in small nightclubs.
They shortened the length of their performances.
45. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To discuss one way it impacted jazz music.
To explain why the government reduced some taxes.
To describe a common theme in jazz music.
To discuss the popularity of certain jazz bands.
46. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The music contained strong political messages.
The music had a steady beat that people could dance to.
The music included sad melodies.
The music contained irregular types of rhythms.
47. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The increase in beachfront property value.
An experimental engineering project.
The erosion of coastal areas
How to build seawalls.
48. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To protect beachfront property.
To reduce the traffic on beach roads.
To provide privacy for homeowners.
To define property limits.
47
Listening Comprehension
PART C
PRACTICE TEST 03
Listening Comprehension
49. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
By sending water directly back to sea with great force.
By reducing wave energy.
By reducing beach width.
By stabilizing beachfront construction.
50. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Protect roads along the shore.
Build on beaches with seawalls.
Add sand to beaches with seawalls.
Stop building seawalls.
48
PRACTICE TEST 03
Structure and Written Expression
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes (40 Questions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1.
The giant ragweed, or buffalo weed, grows ____.
(A) 18 feet up to high
(B) to high 18 feet up
(C) up to 18 feet high
(D) 18 feet high up to
2.
Neptune is ____ any planet except Pluto.
(A) to be far from the Sun
(B) far from the Sun being
(C) farther than the Sun is
(D) farther from the Sun than
3.
Since prehistoric times, artists have arranged paint on surfaces in ways ____ their ideas about
people and the world.
(A) express
(B) that their expression of
(C) which, expressing
(D) that express
4.
Except for certain microorganisms, ____ need oxygen to survive.
(A) of all living things
(B) all living things
(C) all are living things
(D) are all living things
5.
Dubbing is used in filmmaking ____ a new sound track to a motion picture.
(A) which to add
(B) to add
(C) is adding that
(D) to add while
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Structure and Written Expression
Section 2
PRACTICE TEST 03
Structure and Written Expression
6.
____ of green lumber may come from moisture in the wood.
(A) More weight than half
(B) Of the weight, more than half
(C) The weight is more than half
(D) More than half of the weight
7.
Archaeologists study ____ to trace ancient trade routes because such tools are relatively rare, and
each occurrence has a slightly different chemical composition.
(A) which obsidian tools
(B) obsidian tools
(C) how obsidian tools
(D) obsidian tools are
8.
____ the hamster’s basic diet is vegetarian, some hamsters also eat insects.
(A) Despite
(B) Although
(C) Regardless of
(D) Consequently
9.
The Navajo Indians of the southwestern United States ____ for their sand painting, also called dry
painting.
(A) noted
(B) are noted
(C) to be noted
(D) have noted
10. In 1784, the leaders of what would later become the state of Virginia gave up ____ to the territory
that later became five different Midwestern states.
(A) any claim
(B) when the claim
(C) to claim
(D) would claim
11. ____ one after another, parallel computers perform groups of operations at the same time.
(A) Conventional computers, by handling tasks
(B) Since tasks being handled by conventional computers
(C) Whereas conventional computers handle tasks
(D) While tasks handled by conventional computers
12. The Liberty Bell, formerly housed in Independence Hall, ____ in Philadelphia, was moved to a
separate glass pavilion in 1976.
(A) which a historic building
(B) a historic building which
(C) was a historic building
(D) a historic building
13. Fossils, traces of dead organisms found in the rocks of Earth’s crust, reveal ____ at the time the
rocks were formed.
(A) what was like
(B) was like life
(C) what life was like
(D) life was like
14. Although the huge ice masses ____ glaciers move slowly, they are a powerful erosive force in
nature.
(A) call them
(B) are called
(C) to call
(D) called
50
PRACTICE TEST 03
Written Expression
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16- 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. A gene is a biological unit of information who directs the activity of a cell or organism
A
B
C
during its lifetime.
D
17. The flowering of African American talent in literature, music, and art in the 1920’s in New York City
A
B
C
became to know as the Harlem Renaissance.
D
18. The symptoms of pneumonia, a lung infection, include high fever, chest pain, breathing
A
B
C
difficult, and coughing.
D
19. The rapid grow of Boston during the mid-nineteenth century coincided with a large influx of
A
B
C
European immigrants.
D
20. In 1908 Olive Campbell started writing down folk songs by rural people in the southern Appalachian
A
B
C
mountains near hers home.
D
21. The thirteen stripes of the United States flag represent the original thirteen states of the Union, which
A
B
C
they all were once colonies of Britain.
D
22. In 1860, more as 90 percent of the people of Indiana lived rural areas, with only a few cities having a
A
B
C
population exceeding 10,000.
D
23. Gravitation keeps the Moon in orbit around Earth and the planets other of the solar system in orbit
A
B
C
D
around the Sun.
24. Photograph was revolutionized in 1831 by the introduction of the colloid process for making
A
B
C
D
glass negatives.
51
Structure and Written Expression
15. The soybean contains vitamins, essential minerals, ____ high percentage of protein.
(A) a
(B) and a
(C) since a
(D) of which a
PRACTICE TEST 03
Structure and Written Expression
25. After flax is washed, dry, beaten, and combed, fibers are obtained for use in making fabric.
A
B
C
D
26. A fever is caused which blood cells release proteins called pyrogens, raising the body’s temperature.
A
B
C
D
27. Because of various gift-giving holidays, most stores clothing in the United Sates do almost as much
A
B
business in November and December as they do in the other ten months combined.
C
D
28. The United States National Labor Relations Board is authorized to investigation allegations of unfair
A
B
labor practices on the part of either employers or employees.
C
D
29. The Great Potato Famine in Ireland in the 1840’s caused an unprecedented numbers of people from
A
B
C
Ireland to immigrate to the United States.
D
30. The particles comprising a given cloud are continually changing, as new ones are added while
A
B
others are taking away by moving air.
C
D
31. Political parties in the United States help to coordinate the campaigns of their members and
A
B
organizes the statewide and national conventions that mark election years.
C
D
32. The lemur is an unusual animal belonging to the same order than monkey’s and apes.
A
B
C
D
33. Chese may be hard or soft, depending on the amount of water left into it and
A
B
C
D
the character of the cutting.
34. The carbon-are lamp, a very bright electric lamp used for spotlights, consists of two carbon
A
B
electrodes with a high-current are passing between it.
C
D
35. At first the poems of E.E. Cummings gained notoriety to their idiosyncratic punctuation and
A
B
typography, but they have gradually been recognized for their lyric power as well.
C
D
36. The mechanism of human thought and recall, a subject only partly understood by scientists, is
A
B
C
extraordinary complicated.
D
37. While the process of photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used
A
B
to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and organic compounds.
C
D
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PRACTICE TEST 03
39. Humans do not constitute the only species endowed with intelligence: the higher animals also
A
B
C
have considerably problem-solving abilities.
D
40. Many of species of milkweed are among the most dangerous of poisonous plants, while others
A
B
C
have little, if any, toxicity.
D
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Structure and Written Expression
38. The globe artichoke was known as a delicacy at least 2,500 years ago, and records of its
A
B
C
cultivation date from fifteenth century.
D
PRACTICE TEST 03
Reading Comprehension
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes
DIRECTIONS
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it, For this
section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (0), to each question. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the Letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-10
In the early 1800’s, over 80 percent of the United States labor force was engaged in
agriculture. Sophisticated technology and machinery were virtually nonexistent. People who lived
in the cities and were not directly involved in trade often participated in s mall cottage industries
Line making handcrafted goods. Others cured meats, silversmiths, candle or otherwise produced
needed goods and commodities. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, candle makers, and other artisans
(5)
worked in their homes or barns, relying on help of family.
Perhaps no single phenomenon brought more widespread and lasting change to the
United States society than the rise of industrialization. Industrial growth hinged on several
economic factors. First, industry requires an abundance of natural resources, especially coal, iron
(10) ore, water, petroleum, and timber-all readily available on the North American continent. Second,
factories demand a large labor supply. Between the 1870’s and the First World War (1914-1918),
approximately 23 million immigrants streamed to the United States, settled in cities, and went to
work in factories and mines. They also helped build the vast network of canals and railroads that
crisscrossed the continent and linked important trade centers essential to industrial growth.
Factories also offered a reprieve from the backbreaking work and financial unpredictability
(15)
associated with farming. Many adults, poor and disillusioned with farm life, were lured to the cities
by promises of steady employment, regular paychecks, increased access to goods and services,
and expanded social opportunities. Others were pushed there when new technologies made their
labor cheap or expendable; inventions such as steel plows and mechanized harvesters allowed
(20) one farmhand to perform work that previously had required several, thus making farming capitalintensive rather than labor-intensive.
The United States economy underwent a massive transition and the nature of work was
permanently altered. Whereas cottage industries relied on a few highly skilled craft workers who
slowly and carefully converted raw materials into finished products from start to finish, factories
(25) relied on specialization. While factory work was less creative and more monotonous, it was also
more efficient and allowed mass production of goods at less expense.
1. What aspect of life in the United States does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The transition from an agricultural to an industrial economy
(B) The inventions that transformed life in the nineteenth century
(C) The problems associated with the earliest factories
(D) The difficulty of farm life in the nineteenth century
2. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, and candle makers are mentioned in lines 5-6 as examples of artisans who
(A) maintained their businesses at home
(B) were eventually able to use sophisticated technology
(C) produced unusual goods and commodities
(D) would employ only family members
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PRACTICE TEST 03
4. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the industrial growth that occurred
in the United States before 1914?
(A) The availability of natural resources found only in the United States
(B) The decrease in number of farms resulting from technological advances
(C) The replacement of canals and railroads by other forms of transportation
(D) The availability of a large immigrant work force
5. The word “lured” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) attracted
(B) assigned
(C) restricted
(D) attached
6. The word “Others” in line 18 refers to other
(A) adults
(B) promises
(C) goods and services
(D) social opportunities
7. The word “expendable” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) nonproductive
(B) unacceptable
(C) nonessential
(D) unprofitable
8. It can be inferred from the passage that industrialization affected farming in that industrialization
(A) increased the price of farm products
(B) limited the need for new farm machinery
(C) created new and interesting jobs on farms
(D) reduced the number of people willing to do farm work
9. What does the author mean when stating that certain inventions made farming “capital-intensive
rather than labor-intensive” (lines 20-21)?
(A) Workers had to be trained to operate the new machines.
(B) Mechanized farming required more capital and fewer laborers.
(C) The new inventions were not helpful for all farming activities.
(D) Human labor could still accomplish as much work as the first machines.
10. According to the passage, factory workers differed from craft workers in that factory workers
(A) were required to be more creative
(B) worked extensively with raw materials
(C) changed jobs frequently
(D) specialized in one aspect of the finished product only
Question 11-20
Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle.
Notwithstanding preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s
Feather inevitably wears out. All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and upon
Line close observation, one can recognize the frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that are nearing
the end of their useful life. Two distinct processes are involved in molting. The first step is when
(5)
the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new feather grows in its place.
When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt can be said to be complete. This,
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Reading Comprehension
3. The phrase “hinged on” in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) recovered from
(B) depended on
(C) started on
(D) contributed to
PRACTICE TEST 03
Reading Comprehension
(10)
(15)
(20)
however, is an abstraction that often does not happen: incomplete, overlapping, and arrested
molts are quite common.
Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately one-third
of its body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems listless and unwell.
But far from being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary forces that have established
an optimal time and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the time of least stress on the bird. Many
songbirds, for instance, molt in late summer, when the hard work of breeding is done but the
weather is still warm and food still plentiful. This is why the woods in late summer often seem so
quiet, when compared with the Exuberant choruses of spring.
Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species,
for example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain balance in
the air) and wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before
shedding the
next outermost, and so on. Others always start with the innermost primary feathers and work
outward. Yet other species begin in the middle and work outward on both weeks while the
replacement feathers grow.
11. The passage mainly discusses how
(A) birds prepare for breeding
(B) bird feathers differ from species
(C) birds shed and replace their feathers
(D) birds are affected by seasonal changes
12. The word “Notwithstanding” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) despite
(B) because of
(C) instead of
(D) regarding
13. The word “intricate” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) regular
(B) complex
(C) interesting
(D) important
14. The word “random” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) unfortunate
(B) unusual
(C) unobservable
(D) unpredictable
15. The word “optimal” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) slow
(B) frequent
(C) best
(D) early
16. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason that songbirds molt in the late summer?
(A) Fewer predators are in the woods.
(B) The weathers is still warm.
(C) The songbirds have finished breeding.
(D) Food is still available.
17. Some birds that are molting maintain balance during flight by
(A) constantly preening and caring for their remaining feathers
(B) dropping flight feathers on both sides at the same time
(C) adjusting the angle of their flight to compensate for lost feathers
(D) only losing one-third of their feathers
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PRACTICE TEST 03
19. The author discusses ducks in order to provide an example of birds that
(A) grow replacement feathers that are very long
(B) shed all their wing feathers at one time
(C) keep their innermost feathers
(D) shed their outermost feathers first
20. It can inferred from the discussion about ducks that the molting of their flight feathers takes.
(A) a year
(B) a season
(C) several months
(D) a few weeks
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Question 21-30
The Harlem Renaissance, a movement of the 1920’s, marked the twentieth century’s
first period of intense activity by African Americans in the field of literature, art, and music in the
United States. The philosophy of the movement combined realism, ethnic consciousness, and
Americanism. Encouraged by the example of certain Americans of European descent such as
Thomas Eakins, Robert Henri, and George Luks, who had included persons of African descent in
their paintings as serious studies rather than as trivial or sentimental stereotypes, African
American artists of this period set about creating a new portrayal of themselves and their lives in
the United States. As they began to strive for social and cultural independence. Their attitudes
toward themselves changed, and, to some extent, other segments of American society began to
change their attitudes toward them. Thus, thought the Harlem Renaissance was a short-lived
movement, its impact on American art and culture continues to the present.
The district in New York City know as Harlem was the capital of the movement. In 1925 an
issue of Survey Graphic magazine devoted exclusively to Harlem and edited by philosopher Alain
Locke became the manifesto of the African American artistic movement. Locke strongly
suggested that individuals, while accepting their Americanism, take pride in their African
ancestral arts and urged artists to look to Africa for substance and inspiration. Far from
advocating a withdrawal from American culture, as did some of his contemporaries, Locke
recommended a cultural pluralism through which artists could enrich the culture of America.
African Americans were urged by Locke to be collaborators and participators with other
Americans in art, literature, and music; and at the same time to preserve, enhance, and promote
their own cultural heritage.
Artists and intellectuals from many parts of the United States and the Caribbean had Been
attracted to Harlem by the pulse and beat of its unique and dynamic culture. From this unity
created by the convergence of artists from various social and geographical backgrounds came a
new spirit, which, particularly in densely populated Harlem, was to result in greater group
awareness and self-determination. African American graphic artists took their place beside the
poets and writers of the Harlem Renaissance and carried on efforts to increase and promote the
visual arts.
21. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) African American paintings in the 1920’s
(B) An arts movement of the 1920’s
(C) The influence of Alain Locke on African American art
(D) Some ways in which African culture inspired American literature, art and music
22. According to the passage, Tomas Eakins, Robert Henri, and George Luks were important because of
(A) the philosophical contributions they made to the Harlem Renaissance
(B) their development of a new style of African American art
(C) they way in which they depicted African Americans in their paintings
(D) their independence from European artistic traditions
57
Reading Comprehension
18. The word “Others” in line 20 refers to
(A) ducks
(B) sides
(C) species
(D) flight feathers
PRACTICE TEST 03
Reading Comprehension
23. The word “them” in line 10 refers to
(A) Americans of European descent
(B) paintings
(C) African American artists
(D) attitudes
24. According to the passage, African American artists of the 1920’s differed from earlier African
American artists in terms of their feelings about
(A) themselves
(B) other artists
(C) their impact on American art
(D) stereotypes
25. The word “urged” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) prepared
(B) defined
(C) permitted
(D) encouraged
26. Alain Locke believed all of the following to be important to the African American artistic movement
EXCEPT
(A) pride in African art
(B) cultural pluralism
(C) collaboration with other artists
(D) withdrawal from American culture
27. In mentioning “the pulse and beat” (line 23) of Harlem during the 1920’s, the author is characterizing
the district as one that
(A) depended greatly on its interaction with other parts of the city
(B) grew economically in a short period of time
(C) was an exciting place to be
(D) was in danger of losing population
28. The word “convergence” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) gathering
(B) promotion
(C) expression
(D) influence
29. According to the passage, all of the following were true of Harlem in the 1920’s EXCEPT:
(A) Some Caribbean artists and intellectuals lived there.
(B) It attracted people from various regions of United States.
(C) It was one of the most expensive neighborhoods in New York City.
(D) It was a unique cultural center.
30. The phrase “carried on” in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) continued
(B) praised
(C) transformed
(D) connected
Questions 31-40
Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its
Evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the 1960’s
but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced to the work of
Line Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz and Niko
Tinbergen.
(5)
Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and
Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these is
58
PRACTICE TEST 03
(15)
(20)
(25)
31. What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology?
(A) Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology.
(B) Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen.
(C) Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology.
(D) Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children.
32. The word “diverse” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) small
(B) varied
(C) wild
(D) particular
33. The word “ensures” in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) guarantees
(B) proves
(C) teaches
(D) assumes
34. According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period when imprinting
takes place, which of the following will most likely occur?
(A) The gosling will not imprint on any object.
(B) The gosling may not find a mate when it matures.
(C) The mother will later imprint on the gosling.
(D) The gosling may imprint on another object.
35. The word “it” in line 11 refers to
(A) development
(B) goose
(C) time
(D) object
36. The word “suitably” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) willingly
(B) moderately
(C) appropriately
(D) emotionally
59
Reading Comprehension
(10)
imprinting, the carly following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay
close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an
early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present during this time,
but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead.
Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child
Development” the critical period. It refers to a limited times span during which the child is
biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably
stimulating environment. Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether
complex cognitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods. For
example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the
early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered
during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced?
Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby
applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its
parents. He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping, and
crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact
with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed,
protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy
growth. The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving changes
in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby.
PRACTICE TEST 03
Reading Comprehension
37. The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT
(A) grasping
(B) crying
(C) eating
(D) smiling
38. According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended to
(A) get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met
(B) allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent
(C) provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation
(D) prepare the infant to cope with separation
39. The phrase “affectional tie” in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) cognitive development
(B) emotional attachment
(C) psychological need
(D) behavioral change
40. It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that
(A) to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied
(B) failure to imprint has no influence on inteligence
(C) the notion of critical periods applies only to animals
(D) there are similarities between animal and human behavior
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Questions 41-50
There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the Proterozoic con. Much of
our information about climate in the more recent periods of geologic history comes from the fossil
record, because we have a reasonably good understanding of the types of environment in which
many fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils of the Proterozoic, mostly single-celled
bacteria, provide little evidence in this regard. However, the rocks themselves do include the
earliest evidence for glaciation, probably a global ice age.
The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of glacial activity is
based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which posits that natural processes now at work on
and within the Earth operated in the same manner in the distant past. The deposits associated
with present-day glaciers have been well studied, and some of their characteristics are quite
distinctive. In 2.3-billion-year-old rocks in Canada near Lake Huron (dating from the early part of
the Proterozoic age), there are thin laminae of fine-grained sediments that resemble varves, the
annual layers of sediment deposited in glacial lakes. Typically, present-day varves show twolayered annual cycle, one layer corresponding to the rapid ice melting and sediment transport of
the summer season, and the other, finer-grained, layer corresponding to slower winter deposition.
Although it is not easy to discern such details in the Proterozoic examples, they are almost
certainly glacial varves. These fine-grained, layered sediments even contain occasional large
pebbles or “dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial environments where coarse material is
sometimes carried on floating ice and dropped far from its source, into otherwise very fine
grained sediment. Glacial sediments of about the same age as those in Canada have been found
in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and Europe. This indicates that the glaciation
was global, and that for a period of time in the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice
age.
Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate appears to have Been
fairly benign for a very long time. There is no evidence for glaciation for the next 1.5 billion years
or so. Then, suddenly, the rock record indicates a series of Glacial episodes between about 850
and 600 million year ago, near the end of the Proterozoic con.
41. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories about the climate of the
Proterozoic age
(B) What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the late Proterozoic age
(C) The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different parts of the world
(D) The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since the Proterozoic age
60
PRACTICE TEST 03
43. The word “scarce” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) ancient
(B) tiny
(C) available
(D) rare
44. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of uniformitarianism indicates that
(A) similar conditions produce similar rock formations
(B) rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time
(C) different kinds of sedimentary rocks may
(D) each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers
45. The word “resemble” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) result from
(B) penetrate
(C) look like
(D) replace have similar origins
46. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed by
(A) fossilized bacteria
(B) pieces of ancient dropstones
(C) a combination of ancient and recent sediments
(D) annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition
47. The phrase “the other” in line 15 refers to another
(A) annual cycle
(B) glacial lake
(C) layer of sediment
(D) season
48. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates that
(A) the glacial environment has been unusually server
(B) the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly
(C) there has been a global ice age
(D) coarse rock material has been carried great distances
49. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India, and Europe in lines 23-24?
(A) To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones
(B) To explain the principles of varve formation
(C) To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in the early Proterozoic eon
(D) To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in different parts of the globe
50. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
(A) fossil record (line 3-4)
(B) laminae (line 12)
(C) varves (line17)
(D) glacial episodes (line 26)
Material:
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test, 11 th edition, Barron’s Educational
Series, Inc
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.
61
Reading Comprehension
42. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con is
(A) highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of organisms
(B) less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods
(C) very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria
(D) more useful to researchers than other aspects of the rock record
PRACTICE TEST
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
PRACTICE TEST 04
Listening Comprehension
Time: Approximately 40 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 40 minutes
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When
you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PART A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They don’t enjoy swimming.
They won’t go swimming in the lake today.
They don’t know how to swim.
They’ll swim in the lake tomorrow.
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The style of sweater she’s wearing is very common.
The man saw Jill wearing the sweater.
She wore the sweater for the first time yesterday.
She usually doesn’t borrow clothes from Jill.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He went to see the dentist a week ago.
The woman should cancel her appointment with the dentist.
The woman’s toothache will go away by itself.
The woman should have seen the dentist by now.
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She’s planning a trip to Antarctica.
She thinks attending the lecture will be helpful to her.
Her geography class is required to attend the lecture.
She has already finished writing her report.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman should join the chess club.
He’s not a very good chess player.
The woman needs a lot of time to play chess.
He’s willing to teach the woman how to play chess.
6. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ask Alice if the man can borrow the novel.
Return the novel to Alice immediately.
Help the man find this own copy of the novel.
Find out how much the novel costs.
63
Listening Comprehension
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 04
Listening Comprehension
7. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He has already tasted the chocolate pudding.
Chocolate is his favorite flavor.
He doesn’t want any chocolate pudding
There is no more chocolate pudding left.
8. (A) See the movie at a theater close by.
(B) Wait until later to see the movie.
(C) Consider seeing an English version of the movie.
(D) Call the Pine Street Cinema to see what time the movie starts.
9. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn’t know how to find the student’s grade.
He doesn’t know if Dr. Wilson has finished grading the midterm exams.
He isn’t allowed to tell the student her grade.
Dr. Wilson doesn’t want to be contacted while she’s away.
10. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She had to wait even longer than the man did to have her car inspected.
The man should have had his car inspected sooner.
The auto inspection center will be closed at the end of the month.
The man doesn’t need to have his car inspected until next month.
11. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He can act as a subject in the experiment.
He thinks the woman’s experiment is difficult to understand.
He’s busy working on his own experiment.
He’s willing to help the woman run the experiment.
12. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Look for the misplaced check.
Ask the bookstore for a refund.
Borrow some cash from the woman.
Repair his desk.
13. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He hadn’t heard that Karen had a new roommate.
Karen wouldn’t give specific reasons for her feelings.
He thinks that Karen shouldn’t be angry.
Karen won’t be getting a new roommate after all.
14. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman didn’t submit the thesis proposal to him on time.
He returned the thesis proposal to the woman a week ago.
He hasn’t read the thesis proposal yet.
The thesis proposal isn’t acceptable.
15. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It only cost $400.
He bought it a year ago.
It has broken down.
It's not as bad as his last car.
16. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Purchase some ingredients.
Give the man a recipe.
Write down the directions to the supermarket.
Check to see if the stew is ready.
17. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He arrived at the theater late.
He left his watch in the theater.
The production seemed much shorter than it actually was.
He did not enjoy the production.
18. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He can’t understand the instructions.
He doesn’t have a computer.
He has a degree in computer science.
He needs to take his computer to be repaired.
64
PRACTICE TEST 04
Arrange by phone to have a bucket delivered.
Deliver the papers herself.
Take her recycling to the town office.
Return the bucket to the recycling department.
20. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She prefers her eggs fried.
She never eats breakfast.
She gets an allergic reaction when eating eggs.
She doesn’t eat a lot for breakfast.
21. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn’t know anything about engineering.
He wants the woman to postpone the talk.
He hasn’t finished preparing for his presentation.
He regularly gives talks to high school students.
22. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He told the woman to take seven courses this semester.
He knew that the woman’s schedule would be too difficult for her.
His current schedule is also very demanding.
Taking so many classes will enable the woman to graduate early.
23. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He needs help repairing his truck.
He doesn’t want to use his truck for the field trip.
The woman can use his truck if she agrees to drive.
He doesn’t think all the telescopes will fit in his truck.
24. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Dr. Luby won’t be taking students to New York this year.
She doesn’t know where the man can buy theater tickets.
Dr. Luby is performing in a play on Broadway.
She’s going on a theater trip with Dr. Luby Elizabeth.
25. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman’s source of information is reliable.
He didn’t enjoy taking history with Dr. Parker.
He thought Dr. Parker’s tests were easy.
Dr. Parker is no longer teaching history.
26. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man doesn’t have air-conditioning.
The man’s air conditioner is broken.
The man hasn’t been using his air conditioner.
The summer has been unusually hot.
27. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He has decided how he’s going to spend the prize money.
He doesn’t know how much his rent is going to increase.
He’s already planning to enter next year’s essay contest.
He has already paid his landlord for next year’s rent.
28. (A) He’ll probably postpone the test until after he talks
(B) He usually tells the students ahead of time what will be on his tests.
(C) He’ll probably talk about chapter 16 in class today.
(D) He might test the students on material not discussed in class
29. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He has been applying only for advertised jobs.
He’s convinced that there’s a shortage of jobs.
He doesn’t have time to read all the job ads.
He’ll help the woman find a job.
30. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To make plans for the evening.
To ask her about the assignment.
To talk to her roommate.
To give her some information.
65
Listening Comprehension
19. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 04
Listening Comprehension
PART B
DIRECTIONS
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions.
The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you
will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A class presentation they’re preparing.
A television program the man is watching.
Visiting a close fiend of theirs.
Studying for a test.
32. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He’s taking a break from studying.
He has already finished studying.
He was assigned to watch a program by his professor.
He’s finding out some information for a friend.
33. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He didn’t know that she was enrolled in a linear algebra course.
He thought she preferred to study alone.
He thought she had made arrangements to study with
He had told her that he had done poorly on a recent test.
34. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He and Elizabeth argued recently.
He heard Elizabeth did poorly on the last test.
He doesn’t want to bother Elizabeth so late in the evening.
He’d rather study in his own dormitory.
35. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A more economical diesel fuel.
Characteristics of a new type of fuel.
Where a new energy source is located.
How to develop alternative energy sources.
36. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He’s studying for a test.
He lost his notes.
He missed the class.
He’s doing research on alternative.
37. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It will reduce the amount of pollutants in the air.
It will increase the amount of unpleasant odors from vehicles.
It will eventually destroy the ozone layer.
It will reduce the cost of running large vehicles.
38. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It’s expensive to manufacture.
It’s hasn’t been adequately tested.
It damages car engines.
It’s dangerous to transport.
39. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To help him explain the information to his roommate.
To help him write a paper.
To prepare for a test.
To tell her if the notes are accurate.
66
PRACTICE TEST 04
DIRECTIONS
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
40. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The life and times of an important modern poet.
How a poem’s images relate to its meaning.
The musical quality of modern poetry.
The poems of Gertrude Stein.
41. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She’s the most famous of the modern poets.
She didn’t publish any of her works in her lifetime.
She was better known as a prose writer than as a poet.
She began her career as a writer relatively late in her life.
42. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It reflects poetic techniques that were rejected by modern poets.
It’s from a poem that the students have read.
It’s the title of a poem by John Ashbery.
It’s an example of a statement that is “empty” but pleasing to hear.
43. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Read some poems out loud.
Research the life of Gertrude Stein.
Compare the poems of Gertrude Stein to the poems of John Ashbery.
Write a few lines of poetry.
44. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Employment in the fishing and whaling industries.
Nineteenth-century sea captains.
The economic importance of sailing ships.
The development of the steamship.
45. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They were protected by a strong United States Navy.
They were supported by a well-developed railroad
Most crew members had experience on foreign ships.
As part owners of the ships, captains got some of the profits.
46. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
They carried passengers, but not cargo.
They were large, but surprisingly fast.
They were the first successful steam-powered ships.
They were more reliable than other ships of the 1860’s.
47. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It’s now taught with the aid of computers.
It isn’t considered as important today as it was in the past.
Children today learn it earlier than children did in the past.
A lot of times is spent teaching it.
48. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To indicate the emphasis teachers once placed on penmanship.
To criticize a technique used to motivate children.
To illustrate the benefits of competition.
To suggest that teachers be recognized for their efforts.
67
Listening Comprehension
PART C
PRACTICE TEST 04
Listening Comprehension
49. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
How educators create a curriculum.
Why some parents object to the teaching of penmanship.
The standards for penmanship in state curricula.
The effects of rewarding good penmanship.
50. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The number of hours per week that must be spent teaching penmanship.
The level of penmanship a child is expected to have.
The recommended method for teaching penmanship.
The reason computers should be used to help in the teaching of penmanship
68
PRACTICE TEST 04
Structure and Written Expression
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes (40 Questions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1.
From 1949 onward ,the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico ____.
(A) her permanent residence was
(B) where her permanent residence
(C) permanent residence for her
(D) her permanent residence
2.
Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, ____ employed to
investigate the deep sea.
(A) can be robots
(B) robots can be
(C) can robots
(D) can robots that are
3.
In ____ people, the areas of the brain that control speech are located in the left hemisphere.
(A) mostly of
(B) most
(C) almost the
(D) the most of
4.
Stars shine because of ____ produced by the nuclear reactions taking place within them.
(A) the amount of light and heat is
(B) which the amount of light and heat
(C) the amount of light and heat that it is
(D) the amount of light and heat
5.
____ is not clear to researchers.
(A) Why dinosaurs having become extinct.
(B) Why dinosaurs became extinct
(C) Did dinosaurs become extinct
(D) Dinosaurs became extinct
69
Structure and Written Expression
Section 2
PRACTICE TEST 04
Structure and Written Expression
6.
Although many people use the word “milk” to refer to cow’s milk, ____ to milk from any mammal,
including human milk and goat’s milk.
(A) applying it also
(B) applies also
(C) it also applies
(D) but it also applies
7.
The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established ____ 1956.
(A) while
(B) until
(C) on
(D) when
8.
____ on two people think exactly alike, there will always be disagreement, but disagreement should
not always be avoided: it can be healthy if handled creatively.
(A) There are
(B) Why
(C) That
(D) Because
9.
Drinking water ____ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
(A) containing
(B) in which containing
(C) contains
(D) that contain
10. In the 1820’s physical education became ____ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.
(A) to be part
(B) which was part
(C) was part
(D) part
11. Pewter, ____ for eating and drinking utensils in colonial America, is about ninety percent tin, with
copper or bismuth added for hardness.
(A) was widely used
(B) widely used it
(C) widely used
(D) which widely used
12. A moth possesses two pairs of wings ____ as a single pair and are covered with dislike scales.
(A) function
(B) are functioning
(C) that function
(D) but functions
13. Soap operas, a type of television drama series, are so called because, at first they were ____.
(A) often which soap manufacturers
(B) sponsored often soap manufactures
(C) often sponsored by soap manufacturers
(D) soap manufactures often sponsored them
14. The Woolworth Building in New York was the highest in America when ____ in 1913 and was
famous for its use of Gothic decorative detail.
(A) built
(B) it built
(C) was built
(D) built it
70
PRACTICE TEST 04
Written Expression
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16- 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton.
A
B
C D
17. Perhaps the most popular film in movie history, Star Wars was written and direction
A
B
C
D
by George Lucas.
18. Some animal activities, such as mating, migration, and hibernate, have a yearly cycle.
A
B
C
D
19. Geographers were once concerned largely with exploring areas unknown to them and
A
B
from describing distinctive features of individual places.
C
D
20. In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that talk and act like people while
A
B
C
retaining its animal traits.
D
Jawab : D
21. The first city in the United States that put into effect major plan for the clustering of
A
B
C
government buildings was Washington, D.C.
D
22. In a microwave oven, radiation penetrates food and is then absorbed primarily by water
A
B
molecules, caused heat to spread through the food.
C
D
23. The cultures early of the genus Homo were generally distinguished by regular use of
A
B
stone tools and by a hunting and gathering economy.
C
D
24. Dolphins are sleek and powerful swimmers that found in all seas and unlike porpoises
A
B
have well defined, beaklike snouts and conical teeth.
C
D
71
Structure and Written Expression
15. Humans, ____, interact through communicative behavior by means of signs or symbols used
conventionally.
(A) like other animals
(B) how other animals
(C) other animals that
(D) do other animals
PRACTICE TEST 04
Structure and Written Expression
25. The velocity of a river is controlled by the slope, the depth, and
A
B
C
the tough of the riverbed.
D
26. The phonograph record was the first successful medium for capturing, preservation and
A
B
C
reproducing sound.
D
27. Generally, the pattern of open space in urban areas has shaped by commercial systems,
A
B
C
governmental actions, and cultural traditions.
D
28. A liquid that might be a poor conductor when pure is often used to make solutions that
A
B
C
readily transmits electricity.
D
29. The initial discovery by humans almost 10,000 years ago that they could exploit metallic mineral
A
B
deposits was an important milestone in the development civilization.
C
D
30. In 1989 Tillie Fowler a Republican, became the first member of her party to serving as
A
B
C
president of the city council of Jacksonville, Florida.
D
31. General anesthesia, which is usually used for major surgery, involves a complete loss of
A
B
consciousness and a relaxed of the muscles.
C
D
32. After first establishment subsistence farms along the Atlantic seaboard, European
A
B
settlers in North America developed a maritime and shipbuilding industry.
C
D
33. The legs of a roadrunner are enough strong that it can run up to 24 kilometers per hour
A
B
C
to catch lizards and small rodents.
D
34. For the immune system of a newborn mammal to develop properly, the presence of
A
B
C
the thymus gland is essentially.
D
35. Physicians working in the field of public health are mainly concerned with the
A
B
environmental causes of ill and how to eliminate them.
C
D
36. By 1850, immigration from distance shores, as well as migration from the countryside,
A
B
had caused New York City's population to swell.
C
D
72
PRACTICE TEST 04
38. Astronomers use photography and sighting telescopes to study the motions of all of
A
B
C
the bright stars and many of the faint one.
D
39. In the nineteenth century a number of Native American tribe, such as the Comanche,
A
B
lived a nomadic existence hunting buffalo.
C
D
40. The average elevation of West Virginia is about 1,500 foot above sea level.
A
B
C
D
73
Structure and Written Expression
37. By identifying similar words or structures in different languages, we find evidence
A
that those languages are related and may be derived from same ancestor.
B
C
D
PRACTICE TEST 04
Reading Comprehension
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes
DIRECTIONS
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it, For this
section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (0), to each question. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the Letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Question 1-9
The canopy, the upper level of the trees in the rain forest, holds a plethora of climbing
mammals of moderately large size, which may include monkeys, cats, civets, and porcupines.
Smaller species, including such rodents as mice and small squirrels, are not as prevalent overall
in high tropical canopies as they are in most habitats globally.
Small mammals, being warm blooded, suffer hardship in the exposed and turbulent
environment of the uppermost trees. Because a small body has more surface area per unit of
weight than a large one of similar shape, it gains or loses heat more swiftly. Thus, in the trees,
where shelter from heat and cold may be scarce and conditions may fluctuate, a small mammal
may have trouble maintaining its body temperature.
Small size makes it easy to scramble among twigs and branches in the canopy for insects,
flowers, or fruit, but small mammals are surpassed, in the competition for food, by large ones that
have their own tactics for browsing among food-rich twigs. The weight of a gibbon (a small ape)
hanging below a branch arches the terminal leaves down so that fruit-bearing foliage drops
toward the gibbon’s face. Walking or leaping species of a similar or even larger size access the
outer twigs either by snapping off and retrieving the whole branch or by clutching stiff branches
with the feet or tail and plucking food with their hands.
Small climbing animals may reach twigs readily, but it is harder for them than for large
climbing animals to cross the wide gaps from on tree crown to the next that typify the high
canopy. A macaque or gibbon can hurl itself farther than a mouse can: it can achieve a running
start, and it can more effectively use a branch as a springboard, even bouncing on a climb
several times before jumping.
The forward movement of a small animal is seriously reduced by the air friction against the
relatively large surface area of its body. Finally, for the many small mammals that supplement
their insect diet with fruits or seeds an inability to span open gaps between tree crowns may be
problematic, since trees that yield these foods can be sparse.
1.
The passage answers which of the following questions?
(A) How is the rain forest different from other habitats?
(B) How does an animal’s body size influence an animal’s need for food?
(C) Why does the rain forest provide an unusual variety of food for animals?
(D) Why do large animals tend to dominate the upper canopy of the rain forest?
2.
Which of the following animals is less common in the upper canopy than in other environments?
(A) Monkeys
(B) Cats
(C) Porcupines
(D) Mice
74
PRACTICE TEST 04
The word “they” in line 4 refers to
(A) trees
(B) climbing mammals of moderately large size
(C) smaller species
(D) high tropical canopies
4.
According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the small mammals in the rain forest?
(A) They have body shapes that are adapted to life in the canopy.
(B) They prefer the temperature and climate of the canopy to that of other environments.
(C) They have difficulty with the changing conditions in the canopy.
(D) They use the trees of the canopy for shelter from heat and cold.
5.
In discussing animal size in paragraph 3, the author indicates that
(A) small animals require proportionately more food than larger animals do
(B) a large animal’s size is an advantage in obtaining food in the canopy
(C) small animals are often attacked by large animals in the rain forest
(D) small animals and large animals are equally adept at obtaining food in the canopy
6.
The word “typify” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) resemble
(B) protect
(C) characterize
(D) divide
7.
According to paragraph 4, what makes jumping from one tree crown to another difficult for small
mammals?
(A) Air friction against the body surface
(B) The thickness of the branches
(C) The dense leaves of the tree crown
(D) The inability to use the front feet as hands
8.
The word ‘supplement” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
(A) control
(B) replace
(C) look for
(D) add to
9.
Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
(A) canopy (line 1)
(B) warm blooded (line 5)
(C) terminal leaves (line 13)
(D) springboard (line 20)
Question 10-19
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed
United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not
Line considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the
seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American
(5)
Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political
influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no
notice was taken of these contributions. During these Centuries, women remained invisible in
history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of
(10)
female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were
amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their
selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history
(15) by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local
75
Reading Comprehension
3.
PRACTICE TEST 04
Reading Comprehension
(20)
(25)
women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper
clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest
collections of women’s history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger
Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such
sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just
as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that
women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women
leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of
these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote,
or authors, and were not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of
ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
10. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The role of literature in early American histories
(B) The place of American women in written histories
(C) The keen sense of history shown by American women
(D) The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
11. The word “contemporary” in line 5 means that the history was
(A) informative
(B) written at that time
(C) thoughtful
(D) faultfinding
12. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that
(A) a woman’s status was changed by marriage
(B) even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
(C) only three women were able to get their writing published
(D) poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
13. The word “celebratory” in line 12 means that the writings referred to were
(A) related to parties
(B) religious
(C) serious
(D) full of praise
14. The word “they” in line 12 refers to
(A) efforts
(B) authors
(C) counterparts
(D) sources
15. In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
(A) They put too much emphasis on daily activities
(B) They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
(C) The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
(D) They were printed on poor-quality paper.
16. On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have
been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
(A) Newspaper accounts of presidential election results
(B) Biographies of John Adams
(C) Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem
(D) Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college
76
PRACTICE TEST 04
18. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-century
“great women” EXCEPT
(A) authors
(B) reformers
(C) activists for women’s rights
(D) politicians
19. The word “representative” in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) typical
(B) satisfied
(C) supportive
(D) distinctive
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Question 20-29
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were
Marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous
Lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an
eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural
forms.
The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted,
with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface
seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the
years of its greatest popularity had been generically Termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended
for decorative purposes and relied for its effect pon carefully chosen color combinations and
innovative techniques. France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau
style; among The most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846-1904). In the United States, Louis
Comfort Tiffany (1843-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety
of Glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today.
Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian
motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915,
Although its influence continued throughout the mid-920’s. It was eventually to be overtaken by a
new school of thought known as functionalism that had been present since the turn of the
century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism
emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of
the movement-that function should determine from was not a new concept. Soon a distinct
aesthetic code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be
based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar
reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public
taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded
dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.
20. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
(A) Design elements in the Art Nouveau style
(B) The popularity of the Art Nouveau style
(C) Production techniques for art glass
(D) Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style
77
Reading Comprehension
17. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger Library
and the Sophia Smith Collection?
(A) They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia
(B) They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
(C) They provided valuable information for twentieth-century historical researchers.
(D) They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
PRACTICE TEST 04
Reading Comprehension
21. The word “one” in line 4 refers to
(A) century
(B) development
(C) style
(D) coloration
22. Paragraph 1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient
buried glass
(A) The distortion of the glass
(B) The appearance of the glass surface
(C) The shapes of the glass objects
(D) The size of the glass objects
23. What is the main purpose of paragraph 2?
(A) To compare different Art Nouveau styles
(B) To give examples of famous Art Nouveau artists
(C) To explain why Art Nouveau glass was so popular in the United States
(D) To show the impact Art Nouveau had on other cultures around the world
24. The word “prized” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) valued
(B) universal
(C) uncommon
(D) preserved
25. The word “overtaken” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) surpassed
(B) inclined
(C) expressed
(D) applied
26. What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form” (line 22)?
(A) A useful object should not be attractive.
(B) The purpose of an object should influence its form.
(C) The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.
(D) The form of an object should not include decorative elements.
27. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it
(A) clearly distinguished between art and design
(B) appealed to people who liked complex painted designs
(C) reflected a common desire to break from the past
(D) was easily interpreted by the general public
28. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?
(A) Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.
(B) It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.
(C) It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.
(D) It was not attractive to architects all designers.
29. According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include
(A) a flowered design
(B) bright colors
(C) modern symbols
(D) a textured surface
78
PRACTICE TEST 04
(10)
(15)
(20)
30. What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) The classification of different types of surge glaciers
(B) The causes and consequences of surge glaciers
(C) The definition of a surge glacier
(D) The history of a particular surge glacier
31. The word “intervals” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) records
(B) speeds
(C) distances
(D) periods
32. The author compares the surging motion of a surge giacier to the movement of a
(A) fish
(B) wave
(C) machine
(D) boat
33. Which of the following does the author mention as a possible cause of surging glaciers?
(A) The decline in sea levels
(B) The occurrence of unusually large ocean waves
(C) The shifting Antractic ice shelves
(D) The pressure of melt water underneath the glacier
34. The word “freeing” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) pushing
(B) releasing
(C) strengthening
(D) draining
79
Reading Comprehension
Line
(5)
Question 30 – 40
During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal glaciers, traveling perhaps
only a couple of inches per day. However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers move
forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often progresses along a glacier like a great
wave, proceeding from one section to another. Subglacial streams of melt water water pressure
under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the friction between ice and rock, thus freeing
the glacier, which rapidly sliders downhill Surge glaciers also might be influenced by the climate,
volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of these glaciers exist in the same area as normal
glaciers, often almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska’s Hubbard Glacier advanced toward the sea, retreated, and
advanced again 500 years later. Since 1895, this secentry-mile-long river of ice has been flowing
steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200 feet per year. In June 1986,
however, the glacier surged ahead as much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a western tributary,
called Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet a day. Hubbard’s surge closed off Russell Fiord
with a for midable ice dam, some 2,500 feet wide and up to 800 feet high, whose caged waters
threatened the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are heading toward the sea. If enough
surge glaciers reach the ocean and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could rise off the
seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the Southern Sea. With the
continued rise in sea level, more ice would plunge into the ocean, causing sea levels to rise even
higher, which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious cycle. The additional sea
ice floating toward the tropics would increase Earth’s albedo and lower global temperatures,
perhaps enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears to have occurred at the end of
the last warm interglacial (the time between glacations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice
cooled the ocean dramatically, spawning the beginning of the Ice Age.
PRACTICE TEST 04
Reading Comprehension
35. According to the passage, the Hubbard Glacier
(A) moves more often than the Valerie Glacier
(B) began movement toward the sea in 1895
(C) is 800 feet wide
(D) has moved as fast as 47 feet per day
36. Yakutat is the name of
(A) an Alaskan town
(B) the last ice age
(C) a surge glacier
(D) an Antarctic ice shelf
37. The word “plunge” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) drop
(B) extend
(C) melt
(D) drift
38. The term “vicious cycle” in lines 20 refers to the
(A) movement pattern of surge glaciers
(B) effect surge glaciers could have on the temperature of tropical areas
(C) effect that repeated rising sea levels might have on glacial ice
(D) constant threat surge glaciers could pose to the Gulf of Alaska
39. The author provides a definition for which of the following terms?
(A) Tributary (line 12)
(B) Ice dam (line 14)
(C) Albedo (line 21)
(D) Interglacial (line 23)
40. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
(A) The movement of surge glaciers can be prevented.
(B) The next ice age could be caused by surge giaciers.
(C) Surge glaciers help to support Antarctic ice shelves.
(D) Normal glaciers have little effect on Earth’s climate.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
Question 40-50
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship
groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal
process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or
recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of
research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural
leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common;
rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet
the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different
individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a
social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive
leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social
group’s member. Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than
with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and
conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships
within the group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the
80
PRACTICE TEST 04
41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The problems faced by leaders
(B) How leadership differs in small and large groups
(C) How social groups determine who will lead them
(D) The role of leaders in social groups
42. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT
(A) recruitment
(B) formal election process
(C) specific leadership training
(D) traditional cultural patterns
43. In mentioning “natural leaders” in lines 8-9, the author is making the point that
(A) few people qualify as “natural leaders”
(B) there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist
(C) “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
(D) “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
44. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in
another group.
(B) Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
(C) A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
(D) Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
45. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on
(A) ensuring harmonious relationships
(B) sharing responsibility with group members
(C) identifying new leaders
(D) achieving a goal
46. The word “collective” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) necessary
(B) typical
(C) group
(D) particular
47. The word “them” in line 19 refers to
(A) expressive leaders
(B) goals of the group
(C) group members
(D) tension and conflict
48. “secondary relationship” mentioned in line 21 between a leader and the members of a group could
best be characterized as
(A) distant
(B) enthusiastic
(C) unreliable
(D) personal
81
Reading Comprehension
(25)
group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in
the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to
discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that
threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders
generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are
successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a mote distant respect.
PRACTICE TEST 04
Reading Comprehension
49. The word “resolve” in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) avoid repeating
(B) talk about
(C) avoid thinking about
(D) find a solution for
50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of
(A) examples that illustrate a problem
(B) cause and effect analysis
(C) narration of events
(D) comparison and contrast
Material:
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test, 11 th edition, Barron’s Educational
Series, Inc
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.
82
PRACTICE TEST
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
PRACTICE TEST 05
Listening Comprehension
Section 1
Listening Comprehension
Time: Approximately 40 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 40 minutes
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When
you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
PART A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She has had the man's calculator since Thursday.
The man's calculator is broken.
The man may use her calculator.
She'll return the man's calculator on Thursday.
2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Buy a different kind of medicine.
See a doctor.
Take a second pill.
Avoid taking any medication.
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He'll go running after his study group meeting.
He doesn't agree with the woman about the weather.
He doesn't like to go running.
He'll go with the woman this afternoon.
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Another friend commented on his haircut too.
The woman has mistaken him for another person.
He decided to try a new barbershop.
A different person cut his hair this time.
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man shouldn't be surprised at how busy he is.
The man should leave more time for his studies.
The man should try to find a different job.
The bookstore will be hiring more people.
6.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman should get more sleep.
The woman may be sicker than she realizes.
He isn't sick.
He doesn't think the woman is sick.
84
PRACTICE TEST 05
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The art museum isn't open today.
The number 42 bus doesn't run on Mondays.
The man should wait for the number 42 bus.
She has never taken the bus to the art museum.
8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man should buy a jacket instead of a suit.
The green jacket doesn't fit as well as the blue one.
The style of clothing is more important than the color.
The man looks better in blue.
9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The woman will get to her class on time.
The woman should go to a different counter.
He doesn't like sandwiches very much.
He's having trouble deciding what to eat.
10. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Her sister's train is late.
Her sister will visit in three months.
She'll have to leave without her sister.
She's eager to see her sister.
11. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She's pleased they were invited.
Susan gave them the wrong directions.
They'll probably be late for dinner.
Susan's house is probably nearby.
12. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Buy some orange juice for the woman.
Borrow some money from the woman.
Drive the woman to the store.
Pay back money the woman lent him.
13. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She hasn't worn the dress in a long time.
She doesn't like the dress very much.
She intends to give the dress to her sister.
She doesn't remember where her sister bought the dress.
14. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She never cleans the apartment.
She's doing a report with her roommate.
She's too busy to clean the apartment.
She doesn't like sharing an apartment.
15. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He'll try to finish the novel tonight.
He liked the novel very much.
He doesn't remember where he put the novel.
He's looking forward to the next literature assignment.
16. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He doesn't like to wake up early in the morning.
The woman seems unusually sad.
There's no special reason for his good mood.
He wasn't in a good mood when he woke up.
17. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Get a ride to the station with the woman.
Take the woman to the station.
Borrow the woman's car to go to the station.
Drive his car instead of taking the train.
18. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Review the assignment by himself.
Wait a few minutes before trying to phone John again.
Ask one of John's housemates about the assignment.
Go over to John's house.
85
Listening Comprehension
7.
PRACTICE TEST 05
Listening Comprehension
19. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He won't vote for the woman.
He may also run for class president.
The woman already asked him for his vote.
The woman should ask his roommate to vote for her.
20. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She isn't sure that the author's ideas would work.
The author isn't an expert in economics.
She has a better theory about the economy.
The author spends too much time arguing about details.
21. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She doesn't agree with the man.
The man doesn't need an official grade report.
Official copies of grades used to be cheaper.
The man should go to a different office.
22. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Take her bicycle to the repair shop.
Leave her bicycle outside.
Go to work when it stops raining.
Check to make sure the garage is dry.
23. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Others should hear about the man's accomplishment.
The man should avoid talking about his accomplishment.
The man's parents helped him gel the scholarship.
The man's parents already told her about his scholarship.
24. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The course is too difficult,
The professor changed his mind.
The final exam was cancelled.
The woman misunderstood the professor.
25. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The coffee used to taste better.
He's surprised that the woman drinks coffee.
He'd rather drink something other than coffee.
The coffee tastes the same as before.
26. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Come back later in the day.
Join the staff meeting. .
Wait for the pool to open.
Wait for the competition to begin.
27. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He'd like to go to the theater Friday night.
He already has a ticket for the Friday night performance.
He doesn't think he can exchange his ticket.
He rarely goes to the movies.
28. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
She took a history class last year.
She doesn't trust the man's opinion.
She probably won't take any history classes.
She didn't like her sociology professor.
29. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The other job wouldn't have paid for her tuition.
The woman should have taken the other job offer.
The woman should get an advanced degree.
Paid tuition is only a small benefit.
30. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man should have signed her up for the class.
The man needs to pay more attention in class.
She warned the man not to take an early morning class.
She thought the chemistry class was difficult.
86
PRACTICE TEST 05
DIRECTIONS
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions.
The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you
will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To return some business books.
To apply for a new library card.
To check out some books from the library
To find out where the art books are located.
32. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The library assistant thinks he has an overdue book.
The books he needs have been checked out by someone else.
The library assistant is unable to locate the books that he needs.
A library notice was sent to him at his previous address.
33. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To explain why he had difficulty finding the library.
To explain why he couldn't have borrowed library books in June.
To explain why he doesn't yet have a library card,
To explain why he needs assistance in locating a book.
34. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The man has mistakenly received someone else's books.
The man changed his major from art to business.
The man recently moved off campus.
There are two students named Robert Smith.
35. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
See if he is related to any of the students.
Apply for a job as a library assistant.
Use his middle name.
Use a different library.
36. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Its similarities to previous architecture.
Its impressive and distinctive features.
Methods used in its construction.
How it was preserved for later generations.
37. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Public market days.
Races and sporting events.
Processions of priests.
Speeches by politicians.
38. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It was removed by an invading army.
It broke off when part of the hall collapsed.
It was cut away to let banners pass through the entrance.
It was later used in building another temple.
39. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Its lighting.
Its sound quality.
Its air circulation.
Its stability in an earthquake.
87
Listening Comprehension
PART B
PRACTICE TEST 05
Listening Comprehension
PART C
DIRECTIONS
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
40. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The relationship between physics and philosophy.
Ancient Greek beliefs about matter and motion.
The effects of Aristotle's philosophy on current theories of physics.
Aristotle's use of fire in scientific experiments.
41. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Earth.
Water.
Air.
Fire.
42. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Pulling and pushing motions.
Throwing motions.
Planetary motions.
Natural downward or upward motions.
43. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It's pushed away from Earth by fire.
It's trying to return to its natural resting place.
It's attracted to other planets.
Its main substance is water.
44. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To solicit volunteers for Turtle Watch.
To give an assignment to a biology class.
To warn students not to hurt green turtles.
To describe the nesting and hatching activities of the green turtle.
45. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The lights attract predators.
They need to save electricity.
The baby turtles are attracted to light.
The volunteers use lights for signals.
46. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Write a report about their activities.
Attend make-up classes with Dr. Webster.
Help find turtle eggs before they hatch.
Spend two hours working for the project.
47. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
How people in rural areas preserved food.
The construction of icehouses.
An important industry in the nineteenth century.
How improvements in transportation affected industry.
48. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Modem technology for the kitchen.
Improved transportation systems.
Industrial use of streams and rivers.
Increased temperatures in many areas.
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PRACTICE TEST 05
Only wealthy families had them.
They were important to the ice industry.
They were built mostly on the east coast.
They are no longer in common use.
50. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
To keep train engines cool.
To preserve perishable food.
To store ice while it was being transported.
To lift blocks of ice from frozen lakes and ponds.
89
Listening Comprehension
49. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
PRACTICE TEST 05
Structure and Written Expression
Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes (40 Questions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter
of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1.
The role of the ear is ____ acoustic disturbances into neural signals suitable for transmission to the
brain.
(A) to code
(B) so that coded
(C) coded
(D) it coding
2.
The imagist movement in poetry arose during the second decade of the twentieth century
____against romanticism.
(A) when a revolt
(B) as a revolt
(C) a revolt was
(D) that a revolt
3.
Virtually ____ species have biological clocks that regulate their metabolism over a 24-hour period.
(A) all there are
(B) all
(C) all are
(D) they all
4.
According to United States criminal law, insanity may relieve a person from the usual legal
consequences____.
(A) what his or her acts have
(B) of his or her acts are
(C) of his or her acts
(D) what of his or her acts
5.
In addition to ____a place where business deals are made, a stock exchange collects statistics,
publishes prices quotations, and sets rules and standards for trading.
(A) being
(B) it is
(C) that which
(D) where is
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PRACTICE TEST 05
The first inhabitants of the territories ____Canada came across the Bering Strait and along the edge
of the Arctic ice.
(A) make up that now
(B) make up now that
(C) that make up now
(D) that now make up
7.
____ need for new schools following the Second World War that provided the sustained thrust for
the architectural program in Columbus, Indiana.
(A) Since the
(B) To be the
(C) The
(D) It was the
8.
The soybean contains vitamins, essential minerals, ____high percentage of protein.
(A) a
(B) and a
(C) since a
(D) of which a
9.
Hail is formed when a drop of rain is carried by an updraft to an altitude where ____ to freeze it.
(A) is the air cold enough
(B) the air cold enough
(C) the cold enough air
(D) the air is cold enough
10. Geometrically, the hyperbolic functions are related to the hyperbola, ____ the trigonometric functions
are related to the circle.
(A) just as
(B) same
(C) similar to
(D) and similar
11. ____, Kilauea is one of the world’s most active volcanoes, having erupted dozens of times since
1952.
(A) The big island of Hawaii’s location
(B) Locates the big island of Hawaii
(C) Located on the big island of Hawaii
(D) On the big island of Hawaii’s location
12. Not until the eighteenth century ____ the complex chemistry of metallurgy.
(A) when scientists began to appreciate
(B) did scientists begin to appreciate
(C) scientists who were beginning to appreciate
(D) the appreciation of scientists began
13. ____ 1810, water-powered textile manufacturing arrived in New Hampshire with the founding of a
company in Manchester that manufactured cotton and wool.
(A) Early
(B) In the early
(C) As early as
(D) When early
14. The settings of Eudora Welty’s stories may be rather limited, but ____about human nature is quite
broad.
(A) exposes
(B) exposes that
(C) she exposes
(D) what she exposes
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Structure and Written Expression
6.
PRACTICE TEST 05
Structure and Written Expression
15. Lichens grow extremely well in very cold parts of the world ____plants can survive.
(A) where few other
(B) few others
(C) where do few others
(D) there are few others
Written Expression
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16- 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. The pear tree has simple, oval leaves that are smoother and shinier than them of the apple
A
B
C
D
17. In the orbit of a planet around the Sun, the point closest to the Sun is called it the perihelion
A
B
C
D
18. In the early 1900’s, Roy Harris created and promoted a distinctly American style of
A
B
C
classical music and greatly influenced a number of composer in the United States.
D
19. The eighteenth century witnessed the emergence of North American ports, particular
A
B
Boston, New York, and Philadelphia, as major commercial centers within the British empire.
C
D
20. Guitarlike instruments have exist since ancient times, but the first written mention
A
B
C
of the guitar itself is from the fourteenth century.
D
21. The law of biogenesis is the principle what all living organisms are derived from a
A
B
C
parent or parents.
D
22. Onyx is a mineral that can be recognized its regular and straight parallel bands of
A
B
C
white, black, or brown.
D
23. There are as many as 200 million insects for every human beings, and in fact their
A
B
total number exceeds that of all other animals taken together.
C
D
24. Native to South America and cultivated there for thousands of years, the peanut
A
B
is said to have introduced to North America by early explorers.
C
D
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PRACTICE TEST 05
26. Among the symptoms of measles, which takes about twelve days to incubate, are a high
A
B
C
fever, swelling of glands in the neck, a cough, and sensitive to light.
D
27. Ice crystals in a glacier tends to melt and recrystallize within a brief moment of travel
A
B
C
D
on a downhill glide.
28. Photograph was revolutionized in 1851 by the introduction of the collodion process
A
B
C
for making glass negatives.
D
29. The piano is a stringed musical instrument in which the strings are strike by
A
B
C
felt-covered hammers controlled by a keyboard.
D
30. The sounds used in human languages to create meaning consist of small variation in
A
B
air pressure can be sensed by the ear.
C
D
31. The mountains, especially the Rocky Mountains, formerly constituted a seriously
A
B
barrier to east-west trade in British Columbia.
C
D
32. Telescope are frequently used in astronomy to collect light from a celestial object,
A
B
bring the light into focus, and producing a magnified image.
C
D
33. Diamond is the hardest known substance, so diamond can be cut only by another diamonds
A
B
C
D
34. There are about 350 species and subspecies of birds in danger of become extinct,
A
B
with a large number of them, 117 in all, found on oceanic islands.
C
D
35. The nineteenth-century romantic movement in art was partially a reaction to what
A
B
C
was perceived as overemphasis on reasonable and order in neoclassicism.
D
36. Like triglycerides, cholesterol is a type of fat that is both consumed in the diet but
A
B
C
D
manufactured by the body.
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Structure and Written Expression
25. Originally canoes were made by the hollowing out of logs and used were for combat
A
B
C
as well as transport.
D
PRACTICE TEST 05
Structure and Written Expression
37. Both the United States silver dollar and half-dollar, first minted in 1794, had a figure
A
B
C
of Liberty on one side and a eagle on the reverse side.
D
38. For an advertisement to be effective, its production and placement must to be based
A
B
C
on a knowledge of human nature and a skilled use of the media.
D
39. While photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert
A
B
C
water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
D
40. The Democratic Party, the most oldest existing political party in the United States,
A
B
has played a vital role in the nation’s history.
C
D
94
PRACTICE TEST 05
Reading Comprehension
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes (50 Questions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes
DIRECTIONS
In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it, For this
section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (0), to each question. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the Letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
Questions 1-10
One area of paleoanthropological study involves the eating and dietary habits of hominids,
erect bipedal primates—including early humans. It is clear that at some stage of history, humans
began to carry their food to central places, called home bases, where it was shared and consumed
with the young and other adults. The use of home bases is a fundamental component of human
social behavior; the common meal served at a common hearth is a powerful symbol, a mark of
social unity. Home base behavior does not occur among nonhuman primates and is rare among
mammals. It is unclear when humans began to use home bases, what kind of communications and
social relations were involved, and what the ecological and food-choice contexts of the shift were.
Work on early tools, surveys of paleoanthropological sites, development and testing of broad
ecological theories, and advances in comparative primatology are contributing to knowledge about
this central chapter in human prehistory.
One innovative approach to these issues involves studying damage and wear on stone tools.
Researchers make tools that replicate excavated specimens as closely as possible and then try to
use them as the originals might have been used, in woodcutting, hunting, or cultivation. Depending
on how the tool is used, characteristic chippage patterns and microscopically distinguishable
polishes develop near the edges. The first application of this method of analysis to stone tools that
are 1.5 million to 2 million years old indicates that, from the start, an important function of early
stone tools was to extract highly nutritious food—meat and marrow-from large animal carcasses.
Fossil bones with cut marks caused by stone tools have been discovered lying in the same 2-millionyear-old layers that yielded the oldest such tools and the oldest hominid specimens (including
humans) with larger than ape-sized brains. This discovery increases scientists' certainty about when
human ancestors began to eat more meat than present-day nonhuman primates. But several
questions remain unanswered: how frequently meat eating occurred; what the social implications of
meat eating were; and whether the increased use of meat coincides with the beginnings of the use
of home bases.
1.
The passage mainly discusses which of the following aspects of hominid behavior?
(A) Changes in eating and dietary practices
(B) The creation of stone hunting tools
(C) Social interactions at home bases
(D) Methods of extracting nutritious food from carcasses
2.
According to the passage, bringing a meal to a location to be shared by many individuals is
(A) an activity typical of nonhuman primates
(B) a common practice among animals that eat meat
(C) an indication of social unity.
(D) a behavior that encourages better dietary habits
95
Reading Comprehension
Section 3
PRACTICE TEST 05
Reading Comprehension
3.
The word "consumed" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) prepared
(B) stored
(C) distributed
(D) eaten
4.
According to paragraph 2, researchers make copies of old stone tools in order to
(A) protect the old tools from being worn out
(B) display examples of the old tools in museums
(C) test theories about how old tools were used
(D) learn how to improve the design of modern tools
5.
In paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following as examples of ways in which early stone tools
were used EXCEPT to
(A) build home bases
(B) obtain food
(C) make weapons
(D) shape wood
6.
The word "innovative" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) good
(B) new
(C) simple
(D) costly
7.
The word "them" in line 14 refers to
(A) issues
(B) researchers
(C) tools
(D) specimens
8.
The author mentions "characteristic chippage patterns" in line 15 as an example of
(A) decorations cut into wooden objects
(B) differences among tools made of various substances
(C) impressions left on prehistoric animal bones
(D) indications of wear on stone tools
9.
The word "extract" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) identify
(B) remove
(C) destroy
(D) compare
10. The word "whether" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) if
(B) how
(C) why
(D) when
96
PRACTICE TEST 05
(10)
(15)
(20)
11. Which of the following aspects of domestic life in colonial North America does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A) Methods of baking bread
(B) Fireplace cooking
(C) The use of iron kettles in a typical kitchen
(D) The types of wood used in preparing meals
12. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
author mentions the fireplaces built in the South to illustrate
how the materials used were similar to the materials used in northeastern fireplaces
that they served diverse functions
that they were usually larger than northeastern fireplaces
how they were safer than northeastern fireplaces
13. The word "scorched" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) burned
(B) cut
(C) enlarged
(D) bent
14. The word "it" in line 6 refers to
(A) the stonework
(B) the fireplace opening
(C) the mantel tree
(D) the rising column of heat
15. According to the passage, how was food usually cooked in a pot in the seventeenth century?
(A) By placing the pot directly into the fire
(B) By putting the pot in the oven
(C) By filling the pot with hot water
(D) By hanging the pot on a pole over the fire
97
Reading Comprehension
Line
(5)
Questions 11-20
In seventeenth-century colonial North America, all day-to-day cooking was done in the
fireplace. Generally large, fireplaces were planned for cooking as well as for warmth. Those in
the Northeast were usually four or five feet high, and in the South, they were often high
enough for a person to walk into. A heavy timber called the mantel tree was used as a lintel to
support the stonework above the fireplace opening. This timber might be scorched
occasionally, but it was far enough in front of the rising column of heat to be safe from catching
fire.
Two ledges were built across from each other on the inside of the chimney. On these
rested the ends of a "lug pole" from which pots were suspended when cooking. Wood from a
freshly cut tree was used for the lug pole, so it would resist heat, but it had to be replaced
frequently because it dried out and charred, and was thus weakened. Sometimes the pole
broke and the dinner fell into the fire. When iron became easier to obtain, it was used instead of
wood for lug poles, and later fireplaces had pivoting metal rods to hang pots from.
Beside the fireplace and built as part of it was the oven. It was made like a small,
secondary fireplace with a flue leading into the main chimney to draw out smoke. Sometimes
the door of the oven faced the room, but most ovens were built with the opening facing into the
fireplace. On baking days (usually once or twice a week) a roaring fire of "oven wood,"
consisting of brown maple sticks, was maintained in the oven until its walls were extremely hot.
The embers were later removed, bread dough was put into the oven, and the oven was sealed
shut until the bread was fully baked.
Not air baking was done in a big oven, however. Also used was an iron "bake kettle,"
which looked like a stewpot on legs and which had an iron lid. This is said to have worked well
when it was placed in the fireplace, surrounded by glowing wood embers, with more embers
piled on its lid.
PRACTICE TEST 05
Reading Comprehension
16. The word "obtain" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) maintain
(B) reinforce
(C) manufacture
(D) acquire
17. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 2 as a disadvantage of using a wooden lug pole?
(A) It was made of wood not readily available.
(B) It was difficult to move or rotate.
(C) It occasionally broke.
(D) It became too hot to touch.
18. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that, compared to other firewood, "oven wood" produced
(A) less smoke
(B) more heat
(C) fewer embers
(D) lower flames
19. According to paragraph 3, all of the following were true of a colonial oven EXCEPT:
(A) It was used to heat the kitchen every day.
(B) It was built as part of the main fireplace.
(C) The smoke it generated went out through the main chimney.
(D) It was heated with maple sticks.
20. According to the passage, which of the following was an advantage of a "bake kettle"?
(A) It did not take up a lot of space in the fireplace.
(B) It did not need to be tightly closed.
(C) It could be used in addition to or instead of the oven.
(D) It could be used to cook several foods at one time.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
Questions 21-29
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects—an estimated 90 percent of
the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of
insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a
favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating
information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past
century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For
example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number
found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This
early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between
temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary
among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness
within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed,
comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still
mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike
comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation
phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical
decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously;
little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the
preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by
focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
98
PRACTICE TEST 05
Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Their physical characteristics
(B) Their names
(C) Their adaptation to different habitats
(D) Their variety
22. The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) result
(B) explanation
(C) analysis
(D) requirement
23. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they
(A) are simple in structure
(B) are viewed positively by people
(C) have been given scientific names
(D) are found mainly in temperate climates
24. The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to
(A) physical
(B) confusing
(C) noticeable
(D) successful
25. The word "exceed" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) locate
(B) allow
(C) go beyond
(D) come close to
26. All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT
(A) differences between temperate and tropical zones
(B) patterns of distribution of species in each region
(C) migration among temperate and tropical zones
(D) variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
27. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16 as an example of a location where
butterfly behavior varies with climate
a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
butterflies are affected by human populations
documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
28. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
(A) European butterfly habitats
(B) Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
(C) Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
(D) Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
29. The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) requested
(B) caused
(C) assisted
(D) estimated
99
Reading Comprehension
21.
PRACTICE TEST 05
Reading Comprehension
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
30.
Questions 30-40
According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or
about 20 hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of
work performed per week, however, begin with the Industrial Revolution (1760-1840) when 10- to
12-hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted
to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end
of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a
half-day holiday. The half holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did
not become common in the United States until the 1920's.
In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60
hours per week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914 Henry Ford reduced
daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his
factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other
firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.
The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread
available work around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours.
In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940,
and since that time the 8-hour day, 5-day workweek has been the standard in the United States.
Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for
example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5-hour workweek; and in 1990 many
workers in Britain won a 37-hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a
6- to a 5-day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the
average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per
worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.
What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week
(B) Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week
(C) A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries
(D) Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution
31. Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century
(A) remained constant
(B) decreased slightly
(C) decreased significantly
(D) increased significantly
32. The word "norm" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) minimum.
(B) example
(C) possibility
(D) standard
33. The word "henceforth" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) in the end
(B) for a brief period
(C) from that time on
(D) on occasion
34. The "idea" mentioned in line 13 refers to
(A) the 60-hour workweek
(B) the reduction in the cost of automobiles
(C) the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories
(D) the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse
100
PRACTICE TEST 05
36. Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 ?
(A) To discourage workers from asking for increased wages
(B) To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek
(C) To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers
(D) To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek
37. The word "mandated" in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) required
(B) recommended
(C) eliminated
(D) considered
38. The word "immutable" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) unmatched
(B) irregular
(C) unnecessary
(D) unchangeable
39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek has been
declining since the nineteenth century?
(A) The half-day holiday (line 7)
(B) Henry Ford (lines 10)
(C) United States Steel and Westinghouse (line 13)
(D) German metalworkers (line 19)
40. According to the passage, one goal of the Japanese government is to reduce the average annual amount
of work to
(A) 1,646 hours
(B) 1,800 hours
(C) 1,957 hours
(D) 2,088 hours
Questions 41-50
The Arts and Crafts Movement in the United States was responsible for sweeping changes
in attitudes toward the decorative arts then considered the minor or household arts. Its focus on
decorative arts helped to induce United Slates museums and private collectors to begin collecting
Line furniture, glass, ceramics, metalwork, and textiles in the late nineteenth and early twentieth
centuries. The fact that artisans, who were looked on as mechanics or skilled workers in the
(5)
eighteenth century, are frequently considered artists today is directly attributable to the Arts and
Crafts Movement of the nineteenth century. The importance now placed on attractive and
harmonious home decoration can also be traced to this period, when Victorian interior
arrangements were revised to admit greater light and more freely flowing spaces.
The Arts and Crafts Movement reacted against mechanized processes that threatened
(10)
handcrafts and resulted in cheapened, monotonous merchandise. Founded in the late nineteenth
century by British social critics John Ruskin and William Morris, the movement revered craft as a
form of art. In a rapidly industrializing society, most Victorians agreed that art was an essential
moral ingredient in the home environment, and in many middle and working-class homes craft was
(15) the only form of art, Ruskin and his followers criticized not only the degradation of artisans
reduced to machine operators, but also the impending loss of daily contact with handcrafted
objects, fashioned with pride, integrity, and attention to beauty.
In the United States as well as in Great Britain, reformers extolled the virtues of
handcrafted objects: simple, straightforward design; solid materials of good quality; and sound,
101
Reading Comprehension
35. What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United
States during the 1930's?
(A) Several people sometimes shared a single job.
(B) Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States.
(C) Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.
(D) The United States government instituted a 35-hour workweek.
PRACTICE TEST 05
Reading Comprehension
(20)
(25)
enduring construction techniques. These criteria were interpreted in a variety of styles, ranging
from rational and geometric to romantic or naturalistic. Whether abstract, stylized, or realistically
treated, the consistent theme in virtually all Arts and Crafts design is nature.
The Arts and Crafts Movement was much more than a particular style; it was a philosophy
of domestic life. Proponents believed that if simple design, high-quality materials, and honest
construction were realized in the home and its appointments, then the occupants would enjoy
moral and therapeutic effects. For both artisan and consumer, the Arts and Crafts doctrine was
seen as a magical force against the undesirable effects of industrialization.
41. The passage primarily focuses on nineteenth-century arts and crafts in terms of which of the following?
(A) Their naturalistic themes
(B) Their importance in museum collections
(C) Their British origin
(D) Their role in an industrialized society
42. According to the passage, before the nineteenth century, artisans were thought to be
(A) defenders of moral standards
(B) creators of cheap merchandise
(C) skilled workers
(D) artists
43. It can be inferred from the passage that the Arts and Crafts Movement would have considered ail of
the following to be artists EXCEPT
(A) creators of textile designs
(B) people who produce handmade glass objects
(C) operators of machines that automatically cut legs, for furniture
(D) metalworkers who create unique pieces of jewelry
44. The word "revered" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) respected
(B) described
(C) avoided
(D) created
45. According to paragraph 2, the handcrafted objects in the homes of middle and working-class
families usually were
(A) made by members of the family
(B) the least expensive objects in their homes
(C) regarded as being morally uplifting
(D) thought to symbolize progress
46. The word "extolled" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) exposed
(B) praised
(C) believed
(D) accepted
47. The author mentions all of the following as attributes of handcrafted objects EXCEPT
(A) the pride with which they were crafted
(B) the complexity of their design
(C) the long time that they lasted
(D) the quality of their materials
48. The word "consistent" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) conservative
(B) considerable
(C) constant
(D) concrete
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PRACTICE TEST 05
50. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
(A) Private collectors in the nineteenth century concentrated on acquiring paintings.
(B) The Arts and Crafts Movement in the United States, unlike the one in Britain, did not react strongly
against mechanized processes.
(C) Handcrafted objects in the United States and Britain in the nineteenth century did not use
geometric designs.
(D) The Arts and Crafts Movement believed in the beneficial effect for people from being surrounded
by beautiful objects.
Material:
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the TOEFL Test, 11 th edition, Barron’s Educational
Series, Inc
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.
103
Reading Comprehension
49. According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred at the same time as the Arts and
Crafts Movement?
(A) The creation of brighter and more airy spaces inside homes
(B) The rejection of art that depicted nature in a realistic manner
(C) A decline of interest in art museum collections
(D) An increase in the buying of imported art objects
Kunci dan Script
Kunci dan Script Practice Test 1
Kunci dan Script Practice Test 2
Kunci dan Script Practice Test 3
Kunci dan Script Practice Test 4
Kunci dan Script Practice Test 5
DAFTAR PUSTAKA
TWE (Test of English Written)
PRACTICE TEST 01
Kunci
Practice Test 01
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Kunci & SCript Practice Test 01
Kunci dan
Script
PRACTICE TEST 01
Kunci & Script Practice Test 01
Section 1
Script Listening Comprehension
PART A
1. W : How did your job interview go?
M : I don't think I came across as well as I could have.
Q. : What does the man mean?
2. W : Care for may of these cookies? My roommate made them.
M : Don't mind if I do.
Q. : What will the man probably do?
3. W : Oh my, you still don't look too good. Didn't you take the pain reliever I gave you'?
M. : Yeah, an hour ago. Guess I've got a headache that just won't quit
Q. : What does the man mean?
4. M : Owe. You must be sad, what with your best friend taking a job m Texas. It's so far away.
W : Yeah, I'm really going to miss her. But at least I have a good reason to visit a new part of the
country now.
Q. : What does the woman imply?
5. M : My fingers are sticky from that candy bar. Do you mind if I use the restroom to wash up before
we leave?
W : Sure, I'll be over at the bus stop.
Q. : What will the speakers probably do next?
6. W : This strap on my briefcase is broken. Do you think you could replace it sir, by next Tuesday?
M : Let's see, oh sure that won't be a problem. It won't even take that long
Q. : What does the man mean?
7. M : Sir, my adviser wants me to take the creative writing class that meets on Wednesday, instead
of the Monday class because the instructor in the class is supposed to be great. But that'd
mean I'd have to spend the whole day on campus every Wednesday.
W : Well, but especially in creative writing the instructor can make a big difference in how much you
get out of the class
Q. : What does the woman imply the man should do?
8. W : Have you finalized your plans for spring break yet?
M : Well, I could visit some friends in Florida, or go to my roommate's home. It's a tough choice.
Q. : What does the man mean?
9. W : This is such a great time to buy winter clothes. So many stores are having sales now and the
price reductions are pretty substantial.
M : Yeah, It's just what I've been waiting for. There are so many things I need.
Q. : What does the man imply?
10. M : Where have you been? I was just about to give up on you.
W : Sorry, my bus was delayed. But I'm glad you were patient, it would have been hard for us to
find another time to meet this week.
Q. : What does the woman mean?
11. M : It's so cold and windy. This would be a good afternoon for a chess match.
W : Yeah. I’d love to, the trouble is I'm afraid I never figured out file rules.
Q. : What can be inferred about the woman?
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PRACTICE TEST 01
13. W : The bookstore on Center Street is having a sale. They're advertising discounts of up to 70% on
a lot of their books.
M : Yeah. I was there when they opened this morning. It was so packed I didn't even go inside
Q. : What does file man mean?
14. M : Can you drive me to the Anderson's party Friday night?
W : It depends on if I get my car back from the shop.
Q. : What does the woman imply?
15. M : I've been washing my clothes in the same Laundromat you use, the one near the dorms.But I
can't stand it that their prices keep going up, I think I might start going to that one over on 2nd
Ave.
W : Well the one on 2nd might be cheaper. But for me the convenience of having a Laundromat so
close to where I live is worth the extra dollar to.
Q. : What does the woman mean?
16. M : I can't believe I can't get a plane ticket for the December holidays. I mean, it's only October.
W : Well, you know I wouldn't worry about it too much. People cancel their reservations all the time.
Q. : What does the woman imply the man should do?
17. W : A bunch of us are going out for pizza.
M : Count me out, but have a good time.
Q. : What does the man mean?
18. M : Excuse me. I heard that there were a couple of jobs available in the library. So I'd like to apply
for one of them. Can I fill out the application form at home and bring it bake next week?
W : Sure, but you should know that we're about to start looking at the applications, and we hope to
make some job offers in a few days.
Q. : What does the woman imply?
19. M : I started reading that book you loaned me, but I’m having a tough time keeping up with the
main characters. It's hard to remember them all
W : Yeah, I know. The first part isn't easy. All I can say is stick with it. Once you get halfway through
you won't want to put it down.
Q. : What does the woman imply?
20. W : I’m afraid this is the only room in the hotel we have free at this time Sir, We weren't expecting
you.
M : Oh, dear. I guess I'll take what I can get. Next mime I'll be sure to call in advance and make a
reservation.
Q. : What can be inferred about the man?
21. M : I heard you were thinking of applying for a job as a camp counselor
W : Yeah, Do you know if they need anyone at that place where you worked last summer?
Q. : What does the woman ask the man?
22. W : Hey, is Susan on fie debate team? She's wearing a purple shirt to day doesn't everyone on the
team wear a purple shin on days when you're having a debate?
M : I guess, But other people some times wear purple colored shirts too you know.
Q. : What does the man mean?
23. M : I've been trying to reach you for days, but your line's always busy
W : You're lucky. You got me before my roommate came home
Q. : What can be inferred about the woman's roommate?
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Kunci & SCript Practice Test 01
12. M : Say, remember that proposal for an international festival next spring? Do you think there's any
chance it'll ever get off the ground?
W : I don t thing it's a question of whether it'll happen. It's just a matter of where it'll be held.
Q. : What does the woman imply about the international festival?
PRACTICE TEST 01
Kunci & Script Practice Test 01
24. M : It's not fun being around Debbie and Mike these days. All they do is quarrel.
W : I've noticed it too. I wish they would keep their squabbles to themselves.
Q. : What does the woman want Debbie and Mike to do?
25. W : Dr. Jones, I was wondering if you would consider giving me an extension on my paper. I just
got back on campus yesterday from hospital.
M : Well, under the circumstances I can't see how I can deny your request.
Q. : What does Dr Jones say he will do?
26. W : I know it's only A piece of clothing, but something about wearing a white lab coat makes me
feel really, well, professional.
M : Yeah, but I think the department should be paying for them, not us.
Q. : What does the man say about lab coats?
27. M : I think I need a new tire. I had to put air in it twice this week.
W : That happened to me once. It was just a nail, and they were able to repair it.
Q. : What does the woman mean?
28. M : Say Mary, I've got to fly home for winter break early. I'm actually leaving tomorrow. Do you
think you could take notes for me in our American History class on Thursday?
W : Oh, Jim. I'm leaving tomorrow too.
Q. : What does the woman imply?
29. W : This dormitory is too boring for me .I wonder if can move to Richardson?
M : Are you sure you want to do that? Even you need some sleep.
Q. : What does the man imply?
30. W : I'm going to see the sculpture exhibition at the University Museum next Monday.
M : Oh, You mean they've decided to hold it over?
Q. : What had the man assumed about the exhibition?
PART B
Questions 31-35: Listen to a conversation between a geology professor and student.
They are discussing a reading assignment about the ocean floor.
W : Dr. Smith. I need to ask you about something in Chapter 12. Well it talks about erosion and the
deposit of sediment on the deep sea floor, but I'm confused, ‘cause, well, for that to happen there
would have to be some kind of force down there moving the mud or sand or whatever, right. But I
thought there weren't any waves or currents that deep in the ocean.
M : That's not exactly correct. It's true that deep down on the ocean floor we won't have the same kinds
of currents we find in shallower parts. But we do find what we call turbidity currents. This wasn’t in
the book but the term came up in class. Do you remember what it means?
W : Umh, turbidity currents? Oh, yeah! Isn't that when sediment like sand or mud gets stirred up and
mixes with water And then this mixer kind of flows through the water around it, right?
M : Good!
W : Umh, but I thought that only happened in rivers.
M : Well, yes. This does occur in rivers, but we see turbidity currents deep in the ocean as well.
W : But how do they get started there?
M : Earthquakes mostly, when an earthquake occurs under water, it throws up tremendous amounts of
mud or sand that becomes suspended in a layer of water near the bottom of the ocean. This layer
is so much denser and heavier than other ocean water that if flows right down the slopes o f the
ocean floor and gains more and more speed as it moves along. Then it's just like the winds blowing
across the desert picking up sand from one place and moving it along and finally dropping it
somewhere else.
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PRACTICE TEST 01
32. Q. : What does the professor ask the student to explain?
33. Q. : How is a turbidity current different from the water around it?
34. Q. : According to the professor, how do earthquakes cause turbidity currents?
35. Q. : Why does the professor mention desert winds?
Questions 36 - 39: Listen to a conversation about weekend plans.
W : Hey Neal, now that the midterms are over a bunch of us are getting away for the weekend to go
canoeing. Wanna come along'?
M : Well, uhm, it'd be great to get away, but I've never done ii before.
W : None of the others have either except for me. I went once last fall. But there'll be an instructor in
each canoe the first day.
M : I don't know.
W : Oh, come on. This is our last chance to take a break before finals. The scenery is beautiful, and if it
gets too hot we can dive in whenever we feel like it. The river's really calm this time of the year, no
rapids to deal with.
M : That's a relief. What would I have to bring?
W : Let's see. Tom's bringing food for the Friday night cookout for everyone. And the people who run
the trip have tents set up and they supply food and drinks for all day Saturday. On the way back
Sunday morning we'll stop somewhere for breakfast. So, you have to bring a bathing suit and a
sleeping hag.
M : Well, I do love camping and sleeping out. Where is this place?
W : Well, it's about an hour and a half to the place where we meet the trip leaders. We leave our car
there and they drive us and the canoes upriver to the place where we start canoeing.
M : And who's driving us to the meeting place?
W : Well, I was hoping we could take your car. Mine's in the shop again.
M : Oh, I see. It's not me you want, it's my car.
W : Don't be silly. So what would you say?
M : Oh, why not!
W : Great I'll give you a call when i find out when everyone wants to leave on Friday.
36. Q. : What is the main reason the woman calls the man?
37. Q. : What is one thing the man has to bring?
38. Q. : What does the man say he enjoys doing?
39. Q. : What does the woman need to talk to the man again?
PART C
Question 40-42: Listen to a part o f a talk in a business class.
In the 18th century French economists protested the excessive regulation of business by the government.
Their motto was laisser faire. Laisser faire means let the people do as they choose. In the economic
sense, this meant that while the government should be responsible for things like maintaining peace and
protecting property fights, it should not interfere with private business. It shouldn't create regulations that
might hinder business growth, nor should it be responsible for providing subsidies to help. In other words,
governments should take a hand off approach to business. For a while in the United States, laisser faire
was a popular doctrine. But things quickly changed. After the Civil War, politicians rarely opposed the
government’s generous support of business owners. They were only too glad to support government land
grants and loans to railroad owners for example. Their regulations kept tariffs high and that helped protect
American industrialists against foreign competition. Ironically in the late 19th century, a lot of people
believed that the laisser faire policy was responsible for the countries industrial growth. It was generally
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Kunci & SCript Practice Test 01
31. Q. : What is the main topic of the discussion?
PRACTICE TEST 01
Kunci & Script Practice Test 01
assumed that because business owners did not have a lot of external restrictions placed on them by the
government, they could pursue their own interests, and this was what made them so successful. But in
fact, many of these individuals would not have been able to meet their objectives if not for government
support.
40. Q. : What is the talk mainly about?
41. Q. : Who first used the motto laisser faire?
42. Q. : What is the principle idea of the laisser faire policy?
Question 43-46: Listen to a talk about enzymes in a biology class.
Let's begin today by discussing enzymes. Enzymes are what make many of the body's
biochemical reactions possible. Actually biochemical reactions can take place without them, but at much
lower rates. In fact an enzyme may cause a reaction to proceed billions of times faster than it would
otherwise. Before I go on to the biochemical specifics of how this works, let me provide a figurative
example. I think it will help illustrate the power of enzymes more clearly. Now, suppose you got a bag and
you put a bunch of locks in it, just small padlocks. Then you put in all the keys that go with the locks. And
you closed the bag and shook it hard. No matter how long you shook, chances are very small that any
key would get inserted in any of the locks. But if you took them all out of the bag and this time used your
hands to insert the keys in the locks, you could combine them much quicker.
Enzymes act like your hands, quickly allowing chemical reactions that would otherwise take much
longer. Now, there are 2 reasons that enzymes are so effective at enabling biochemical reactions. Firs
enzymes greatly reduce the amount of energy required to start the reactions, and with less energy
needed the reactions can proceed a lot faster than they, could without the enzyme. The second mason is
that on a small amount of an enzyme is needed to enable the biochemical reaction. That's because the
chemical structure of the enzyme itself does not become altered as if enables the reaction. So a single
enzyme can be used to start the same biochemical reaction over and over again.
43. Q. : What is the talk mainly about?
44. Q. : What point does the professor make about an enzyme when it is involved in a biochemical
reaction?
45. Q. : What do enzymes do to help start a biochemical reaction?
46. Q. : Why does the professor talk about locks and keys?
Question 47-50: Listen to part of a lecture in an art history class;
Today I'd like to talk about the sculptor Henry Moore, in particular the ideas his work is based on, and
also how he viewed the medium of sculpture. Moore said that to appreciate sculpture a person needs to
respond to form in all of it's 3 dimensions. He believed that this is more difficult than responding to art that
is done on a flat surface, a surface such as canvas that has only 2 dimension. For example, when you're
looking at a painting you don't have to walk around it. You don't relate to form and shape in the same way
you do when to shapes in nature such as that of bones and shells and stones. He thought that if you
could appreciate the shape of something simple, like a stone that you could go on to appreciate more
complex forms. He noticed that many of the stones he picked up had holes in them. One distinctive
feature of Moore's sculpture is his use of holes or opening to emphasize that he is indeed working in a 3
dimensional medium. He believed that the shape of a solid mass, and could even help create a sense of
mass or volume. Moore was also interested m representing the human figure, which he sculpted in such
materials as bronze, stone, and wood. His sculptures of humans contained one person as in the work
reclining figure or several people as in the sculpture family group.
47. Q. : What is the talk mainly about?
48. Q. : According to Henry Moore, why is sculpture more difficult to appreciate than other forms of art?
49. Q. : Why does the professor mention bones and shells?
50. Q. : What is one well-known feature of Henry Moore's sculptures?
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PRACTICE TEST 02
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Kunci dan Script Practice Test 02
Kunci dan
Script
PRACTICE TEST 02
Kunci & Script Practice Test 02
Section 1
Script Listening Comprehension
PART A
1. M : I'm really having trouble with this calculus course. If I can't start doing better soon, I'm going to
have to drop it.
W : Why don't you get some help from the graduate assistant? That's what he's there for.
What does the woman suggest the man do?
2. W : Hey, don't forget to drop that book off at the library on your way home.
M : Oh, thanks for reminding me. I am on my way.
What will the man probably do next?
3. W : I sure wish I had a metric ruler with me. I need the measurements in millimeters, not in inches
and I'm tired of converting.
M : Would it make things go faster if you borrowed mine?
What does the man imply?
4. M : Good news. I'm not going to need surgery after all. The doctor says I can start working out
again soon. And maybe play soccer again in a few weeks.
W : That's terrific. It would be great if you could get back in shape in time for the state tournament.
What does the woman mean?
5. M : I already know what I want to take next semester. So why do I have to make an appointment to
see my advisor? All I need is her signature on my course sheet.
W : I'm afraid it doesn't work that way. She has to talk with you to make sure everything is on the
right track.
What does the woman mean?
6. W : Prof Smith sure was acting strangely today.
M : I noticed that too. She was talking so quietly and then… not giving us any homework. Can you
believe that?
What can be inferred about Prof Smith?
7. M : It's been pouring for three days now. I begin to wonder if it'll ever stop.
W : And tomorrow is gonna be my day at the beach. But if it doesn't clear up by then, I'll just have
to forget about that.
What does the woman imply?
8. M : What a boring speaker! I could hardly keep from falling asleep.
W : Oh, I don't know about that. In fact, it's been a long time since I've heard anyone as good.
What does the woman mean?
9. W : Gee, Tom, I hear that you're working as a house painter this summer. It's got to be awfully hot
working up there on a ladder in the blazing sun all day.
M : Well it's hard work, but I get to be outdoors and the pay is decent.
What does the man imply?
10. W : I've been working on this report all day. And I've still got 12 pages to write. At this rate, I'll never
get it done by tomorrow.
M : Oh, that's right. You weren't in class today, so you probably haven't heard that the deadline's
been extended a week.
What does the man imply?
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PRACTICE TEST 02
12. M : I just called the travel agent. It's all set. On June first, I'm heading for the mountains for an
entire week.
W : Have you checked the academic calendar? Because my classes aren't over till the 7th.
What does the woman imply?
13. M : What sort of grade did you get on your research paper? I know how hard you worked on it.
W : Yeah, well, I was hoping for something really good. But the professor said that I made too many
broad claims that weren't supported enough.
What can be inferred about the woman's paper?
14. W : The state ballet's coming to town next weekend, and I can't find a ticket anywhere.
M : You know, my sister just happens to have one and she can't go. She's got some sort of conflict
in her schedule.
What does the man imply the woman should do?
15. M : Have you found out yet what hotel you'll be staying in? I'm at the Gordon right across the street
from the conference center.
W : Huh, Lucky you. I'm at the Apple Gates six miles away.
What does the woman mean?
16. W : Joe, I thought your article on the school newspaper was right on target. You certainly convinced
me anyway.
M : Thanks Mary. Unfortunately, based on the general response, you and I are definitely in the
minority.
17. W : Why didn't you go to the hockey finals last weekend? You missed a great game.
M : Oh, come on. You know how sensitive I am to loud noise.
What can be inferred about the man?
18. W : I know I promised to drive you to the airport next Tuesday. But I am afraid that something's
come up. And they've called a special meeting at work.
M : No big deal. Karen said she was available as a backup.
What does the man mean?
19. M : My telephone doesn't seem to be working. And I have lots of calls that I have to return this
afternoon.
W : Feel free to use mine if you want. I'll be in a meeting till five.
What does the woman suggest the man do?
20. M : I don't think we have nearly enough information for our financial plan. But it's due tomorrow. So
I guess there isn't a lot we can do about it.
W : Guess not. At this point, we will just have to make do with what we have got.
What will the speakers probably do?
21. W : Ever since your girlfriend moved to Bridgeport, you're always driving there. How many trips a
week do you make anyway?
M : I have lost count. But I can do it with my eyes closed.
What does the man mean?
22. M : I've noticed that you spend a lot of time tending to your garden. Do you think you might like to
join the university gardening club? We meet every other Tuesday.
W : Oh, thanks for the invitation. But this is how I relax. I'd rather not make it something formal and
structured.
What does the woman imply?
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Kunci dan Script Practice Test 02
11. M : Can you believe the way Larry was talking to his roommate? No wonder they don't get along.
W : Well, maybe Larry was just reacting to something his roommate said. There are two sides to
every story you know.
What does the woman mean?
PRACTICE TEST 02
Kunci & Script Practice Test 02
23. M : Does this music bother your studying, Pam?
W : Actually I'm not studying any more, but I'm trying to sleep.
What does Pam imply?
24. W : I think we should hold our fast committee meeting in one of the meeting rooms of the library. So
far, there're 8 of us who plan to come.
M : Wow, if it there were more than four, I'd say that we have it over at my place, but with 8 of us, I
guess I'd have to get along with your suggestion.
What does the man imply?
25. M : I just don't know if you should call everyone to collect the data or just send out a questionnaire.
But you'd better make a decision soon.
W : I know. There's only one month till the election.
What does the woman mean?
26. W : What's with you? You sure don't look like yourself.
M : Stay away from me; I don't know what I've got, but whatever it is, you don't want to catch it.
What can be inferred about the man?
27. W : You waited at the Tera's Cafe yesterday, didn't you? Was there much of a wait to be seated?
M : Was there? Wish I'd brought a book or something to occupy my time.
What does the man imply about the Tera's Cafe?
28. W : I thought there was still time for me to apply for student loan. But someone just told me that the
closing date was last Wednesday.
M : Are you sure? I thought we still had another month. Wait, I've got a brochure right here. Yeah,
Wednesday was the opening date.
What does the man imply?
29. M : This casserole really tastes good. I guess that's because the vegetables in it are fresh instead
of canned.
M : I know. Kind of a rare treat in this cafeteria.
What does the woman mean?
30. W : I don't think I want to live in the dormitory next year. I need more privacy.
M : I know what you mean. But check out the cost of renting an apartment first, I wouldn't be
surprised if you changed your mind.
What does the man think the woman will do?
PART B
Questions 31-34 Listen to a conversation between two students who meet in front of the library.
M
W
M
W
:
:
:
:
M :
W :
M :
W :
M :
W :
Hi, Sue. Where have you been?
Oh. Hi, Dan. I was just at the library. I have to hand in my biology paper tomorrow.
Tomorrow? Oh, no! I thought it wasn't due till Monday.
Oh. Don't worry. It is due Monday. But I'm going away for the weekend and won't be back till
Monday night.
Oh, where are you going?
California. We're having a family reunion. It's my grandmother's ninetieth birthday, so all the
cousins and aunts and uncles are going. She planned the whole thing herself.
Wow. That's great. How many people will be there?
Around sixty. My family is big and spread up but we're pretty close. So have you started working on
your biology paper?
Yeah. I'm doing it on bees and how they're able to recognize whether another bee is related to
them.
How can they tell?
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PRACTICE TEST 02
31. What is the relationship between the speakers?
32. Why was the man worried at first?
33. According to the man, how do some bees use their sense of smell?
34. What will the man probably do over the weekend?
Questions 35-38
Listen to a conversation between two students.
W : Hi, Jim. What are you doing?
M : Oh. Hi, Linda. I'm working on a report on energy sources for my environmental science class. But
I'm having trouble finding enough information.
W : You know, we were talking about sources of fuel in my class today.
M : Yeah?
W : Prof Collins. He's an authority on energy sources. He was telling us about a new way of getting fuel
oil from coal.
M : I didn't know that was possible.
W : He said something about coal being set on fire and blasted with a mixture of steam and oxygen.
This process produces a gas made up of hydrogen and carbon, the ...hum, the basic elements of
oil.
M : And then they do something to change that gas to oil?
W : Right. First, since coal contains fewer hydrogen atoms than oil, they have to add some extra
hydrogen to the gas. Then impurities are washed out with methanol, I think, before this gas is sent
on to reactors where it's changed into oil.
M : Since coal is so plentiful I guess it won't be long till this new type of oil will be available all over the
place, ah?
W : I doubt it. Prof. Collins said something about the process not be economically enough to use in this
country. At any rate, you really ought to talk to him. He'll be able to help you more than I can and
he's got office hours all afternoon today.
M : Thanks. He's over in Anderson Hall, right?
W : Right.
35. What are the students mainly discussing?
36. How did the woman learn about the process she describes?
37. In the process described by the woman, why is the coal burned?
38. What does the woman mention as a disadvantage of the process she describes?
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Kunci dan Script Practice Test 02
M : They use their sense of smell. The sweat bees guard their nest this way. If another bee approaches
the nest, the guard determines if the new bee is familiar. If it is, it's allowed to enter.
W : Interesting. Can other insects do this? Well, the paper wasps can. Each wasp nest has a special
combination of plant fibers and so the wasps that live there have a unique smell. Those two are the
only kinds I've read about so far.
M : Well, you've still got time. It sounds like that the bees are picky about who comes to their family
reunion.
PRACTICE TEST 02
Kunci & Script Practice Test 02
PART C
Questions 39- 42
Listen to part of a talk in a music class. The professor is discussing a musical theater production.
It may seem strange that we're discussing music from a Broadway production in this class, "The Lion
King" especially, since it's based on a popular Hollywood movie. I mean music performed for Broadway
theater in the heart of New York City surely would seem to be in the western tradition of popular music
and not have much in common with the music we've been studying in this course, such as gamelan music
of Indonesia, or Zulu chants of South Africa – music that developed outside the western tradition of
Europe and America. But in fact, musicians have a long standing tradition of borrowing from one
another's cultures. And this production's director intentionally included both western and non-western
music. That way, some of the rhythms, instruments, harmonies typical of non-western music contrast with
and complement popular music more familiar to audiences in North America and Europe, music like rock,
jazz or Broadway style show tunes. So I want to spend the rest of this class and most of the next one on
the music from the show "The Lion King" as a way of summarizing some of the technical distinctions
between typical western music and the non-western music that we've been studying. Now the African
influence on the music is clear, the story takes place in Africa. So the director got a South African
composer to write songs with a distinctly African sound. And the songs even include words from African
languages. But we'll get back to the African influence later. First let's turn to the music that was written for
the shadow puppet scenes in "The Lion King", music based on the Indonesian music used in the shadow
puppet theater of that region.
39. What is the talk mainly about?
40. What can be inferred about most of the music the students have studied in the course?
41. Why were African words included in some songs for the Broadway version of "The Lion
King"?
42. What will the professor probably talk about next?
Questions 43-46 Listen to part of a talk in a class on the history of science.
In ancient times, many people believed the earth was a flat disc. Well over 2,000 years ago, the ancient
Greek philosophers were able to put forward two good arguments proving that it was not. Direct
observation of heavenly bodies was the basis of both these arguments. First, the Greeks knew that during
eclipses of the moon, the earth was between the sun and the moon, and they saw that during these
eclipses, the earth's shadow on the moon was always round, they realized that this could be true only if
the earth was spherical. If the earth were a flat disc, then its shadow during eclipses would not be a
perfect circle, it would be stretched out into a long ellipse. The second argument was based on what the
Greeks saw during their travels. They noticed that the North Star, or Polaris, appeared lower in the sky
when they traveled south, in more northerly regions, the North Star appeared to them to be much higher
in the sky. By the way, it was also from this difference in the apparent position of the North Star that the
Greeks first calculated the approximate distance around the circumference of the earth, a figure recorded
in ancient documents says 400,000 stadia, that's the plural of the word stadium. Today, it's not known
exactly what length one stadium represents, but let's say it was about 200 meters, the length of many
athletic stadiums. This would make the Greek's estimate about twice the figure accepted today, a very
good estimate for those writing so long before even the fast telescope was invented.
43. What is the talk mainly about?
44. According to the professor, what were, the beliefs of the Greek philosophers based upon?
45. What does the professor say about ancient Greeks who traveled south?
46. What does the professor say the term stadium refers to?
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PRACTICE TEST 02
47. Why did the professor mention the controversy surrounding Peary?
48. What did Doctor Cook maintain?
49. How did the experts determine that Peary reached the North Pole?
50. Which topic will most probably be included in the continuation of today's lecture?
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Kunci dan Script Practice Test 02
Questions 47-50.
Listen to the beginning of a lecture given by a history professor.
Good morning, class. Before we begin today, I would like to address an issue that one of you reminded
me of after the last lecture. As you may recall, last time I mentioned that Robert E. Peary was the first
person to reach the North Pole. Umm, what I neglected to mention was the controversy around Peary's
pioneering accomplishment. In 1910, a committee of the national geographical society examined
Commodore Peary's claim to have reached the North Pole on April 6th 1909 and found no reason to doubt
him. This judgment was actually confirmed by a committee of the US Congress in 1911. Nevertheless,
Peary's claim was surrounded by controversy. This was largely due to the competing claim of Doctor
Frederic Cook who told the world he had reached the Pole a four-year earlier. Over the decades Peary
was given the benefit of the doubt, but critics persisted in raising questions about his navigation and the
distances he claimed to have covered. So the Navigation Foundation spent an additional 12 months of
exhaustive examination of documents relating to Peary's polar expedition. The documents supported
Peary's claims about the distances he covered. After also conducting an extensive computer analysis of
photos taken by Peary at the pole, they concluded that Pierre and his companions did in fact reach the
near vicinity of the North Pole on April 6th, 1909. OK, today we're going to talk about exploration of the
opposite end of the world. I assume you all read chapter 3 in our text and are now familiar with the
names: Emerson and Scott.
PRACTICE TEST 03
Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
Kunci dan
Script
Kunci
Practice Test 01
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Section 1
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Section 2
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Section 3
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C
PRACTICE TEST 03
Script Listening Comprehension
PART A
1. A
B
Q
: So are you going to see the student play tonight?
: I doubt it. I'm still getting over the flu.
: What does the man mean?
2. A
: Gordom needs to find another place to live. The apartment he rents now has been sold to a
new owner.
: He'd better start looking right away. When all the students come back in a few weeks, he won't
find any near the campus.
: What does the woman suggest Gorden do?
B
Q
3. A
B
Q
: Mind if I borrow your Spanish workbook?
: Not as long as I have it back in time to take to class this evening.
: What does the man mean?
4. A
: You know that quiz we took in Dr. Turner's class today? Did you know that she was going to
give it to us?
: l. Actually I was just as surprised as u were.
: What does the woman mean?
B
Q
5. A
B
Q
: I don't know which color folder to use, white or brown?
: What difference does it make? It's the content that's important.
: What does the man mean?
6. A
: You know I heard that professor Martin's introduction to Chem. class is way to demanding for
first year students. They say it's as hard as courses for graduate students.
: Yeah, but a lot of students will tell u otherwise. To talk to anyone who's gone on to the
advanced course, like organic Chem. or who study Chem. in graduate school. They r really
glad they started out with Profesor Martin.
: What does the man imply about profesor Martin?
B
Q
7. A
B
Q
: Hey Mark, have u been able to sell you are old piano yet?
: Ah, you were right, just posting notices on bulletin boards at a coupke of supermarket wasn't
enough. I think i'll have to place an advertisement in the local newspaper.
: What does the man imply?
8. A
B
Q
: My back has been aching ever since I started playing tennis on the weekends,
: Haven't u had that checked out yet?
: What does the woman imply?
9. A
: Hi, uhm... I think something's wrong with the washing machine. It works and I just did my
laundry but it makes some strange noises. Maybe u should call so to fix it.
: Oh don't worry. So from the repair shop is already on the way over to take a look at it.
: What does the man imply?
B
Q
10. A
B
Q
: It's so thoughtful of u to offer to drop me off at the train station. Are you sure it's not out of your
way?
: Not at all. The station is really close to where i'm going.
: What does the man mean?
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 03
Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
11. A
B
Q
: I'm here about the job u advertised in the paper.
; You need one of those forms over there, on the table next to the file cabinet.
: What does the woman imply the man should do?
12. A
B
Q
: I know i ought to call home, but i've got a plane to take and I may be late.
: But it only takes a minute.
: What does the woman suggest the man do?
13. A
B
Q
: I have to drive in to Chicago next week. Do you have a map I could borrow?
: Sorry I don't, but i can pick one up for u while I'm at the bookstore.
: What does the man mean?
14. A
B
Q
: What did u think of the paintings that Ted was showing last week?
; I never made it to the exhibit.
: What does the woman mean?
15. A
B
Q
: Did u hear about the big show storm in Iowa yesterday? Three feet and twelve hours.
: Yeah, and I hear it's headed our way. We'r supposed to get the same thing tonight.
: What does the woman mean?
16. A
B
: You are joining us for dinner tonight, aren't you?
: Oh, I'm really sorry, but I had the wrong date for my geometry test. I just found out it's tomorrow
and I need all the time I can get to prepare.
: What does the woman imply?
Q
17. A
B
Q
: I can't decide whether I should take physics now or wait till next semester.
: You might as well get it over with if you can.
: What does the man suggest the woman do?
18. A
B
: You look different today. Did you get a haircut?
: That's funny. You are the third person to ask me that. But all I did was getting new frames for
my eye glasses.
: What does the man imply?
Q
19. A
B
Q
: Dr. Eliot, I'd like u to check the way u calculated my grade for this test, I think u may have made
a mistake in adding up the number of questions I got right. When I added them up I came up
with thos slightly higher grade than u did.
: I'd be ahppy to check it for u. And if I made a mistake in determing the grade i'll be sure to
correct it. Don't worry.
: What does the man imply?
20. A
B
Q
: That last speaker was pretty boring. But he did make a few good points at the end.
: Really? I didn't catch them. I must have dozed off for a minute.
: What does the woman neam?
21. A
: If u run into Joan this afternoon, could u ask her to call me. I need that book back that i lent her
yesterday.
: No need. I saw her this morning and I've got it right here.
: What can be infered from the conversation?
B
Q
22. A
B
Q
: I told my student today that I'd be taking a sabbatical next semester. But they didn't seem very
surprised.
: Well, last week i let ur plans slip to same my students. So more than likely the word got around.
: What does the man explain to the woman?
23. A
B
Q
: Mary, I've got the bowls out for the stew. Do u think it needs any more pepper before I serve it?
: It's really quite nice an we did exactly what the recipe says. Why take a chance of ruining it?
: What does the woman imply the man should do?
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PRACTICE TEST 03
: Those were such funny stories Tom told last night. He was like a totally different guy.
: Yeah, really. He is normally so serious. What do u think brought all that out of him.
: What does the woman imply?
25. A
: Wow,look at all these old books on this shelf. They've got to be at least one hundred years old.
I'll bet they worth a lot to collectors.
: Well. they'be got a lot of sentimental value for me, but that's about it.
: What does the man mean?
B
Q
26. A
B
Q
: Hi, Susan, would u like to go our to eat with us? Several of us are going over to the Macardy's.
: Well, that sure beats sticking around here. Uhh... just let me pack up my things.
: What is the woman going to do?
27. A
: I thought u said u and ur friends were just planning a small gathering. I could hear u from all the
way up on the fourth floor of the building.
: Oh, Gee, I'm really sorry. I guess we did get a little carried away, didn't we?
: What can be inferred from the conversations?
B
Q
28. A
B
Q
29. A
B
Q
30. A
B
Q
: I kept looking for Mary at the seminar but never did see her. I can't imagine she forgot about it.
She'd be talking about it for weeks.
: Oh she didn't. It's just that she caught areally bad cold a couple of days ago.
: What can be inferred fom the conversation?
: Our history presentation is Thursday. When do u want to get together to work on it?
: Well, how about Monday ?That way we will still have enough time to figure out anything we are
having trouble with.
: What does the woman suggest they do?
: Hi, thanks for your help. I guess I can handle the rest myself. But just in case, rugoing to be
around later?
: I don't know but u can always ask Judy. She 's really good with these kinds of problems.
: What does the woman imply?
PART B
Questions 31-34
M : Hi, Janet, ur so lucky to be done with ur final exams and term papers. I still have 2 more finals to
take?
W : Really?
M : Yeah, So what ru doing this summer, anything special?
W : Well, actually yeah. My parents have always liked taking my sister and me to different places in the
United States. U know, places with historical significance. I guess they wanted to reinforce the stuff
we learned in school about history. And so even though we are older now, they still do once in a
while. Oh so where ru going this summer?
M : Well, this summer it's finally go in to be Gettyburg.
W : Finally? You mean they never took u yet? I mean Gettysburg, it's probably the most famous civil
war site in the country, It's only a couple of hours away. I think that would be one of the first place
that they've taken u. I have been there a couple of times.
M : We were gonna to go about ten, well, no, it was exactly ten years ago, but I don't know,sth
happened, I cannot remember what. Sth changed ur plans?
W : Yeah, don't ask me what it was, but we ended up not going anywhere that year. I hope that doesn't
happen again this year. I wrote a paper about
M : Gettysburg last semester for a history class. I was taking. Well about the political situation in the
United States right after the battle at
W : Gettysburg, So I'm eager to see the place.
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
24. A
B
Q
PRACTICE TEST 03
Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
31. What are the students mainly discussing?
32. What does the man find surprising about the woman?
33. What is the woman unable to remember?
34. What does the woman imply about Gettysburg?
Questions 35-39
M : What ru doing?
W : I'm ordering some filing cabinet out of a catalog.
M : What do u need them for?
W : There's so much stuff piling up in my dormitory room. If I don't do sth soon, I won't be able to move
in there.
M : Do u usually order from a catalog?
W : Some times. Why?
M : OH, it's just in the history class today we were talking about how the catalog sales business first got
started in the US. A Chicago retailer,
W : Montgomery Ward started it in the late 1800s. It was really popular among farmers. It was difficult
for them to make it to the big city stores so they ordered from catalogs.
M : Was Ward the only one in the business?
W : At first, but another person named Richard Sears started his own catalog after he heard how much
money Ward was making.
M : What made them so popular?
W : Farmers trusted Ward and Sears for one thing. They delivered the products the farmers paid for
and even refunded the price of things the farmers weren't satisfied with. The catalog became so
popular some countries school teachers even used them as textbooks.
M : Textbooks?
W : Yeah, Students practice spelling the names and adding up the prices of things in the catalogs.
M : Was everybody that thrilled about it?
W : That's doubtful. Say they drove some small store owners out of business.
M : Sears and Ward sold stuff in such large quantities. They were able to undercut the prices at some
small family owned stores.
35. What is the conversation mainly about?
36. Why was the woman reading a catalog?
37. Who were the main customers of Sears and Ward's business?
38. What unusual way were the catalog used?
39. What was one of the negative effects of the catalog business?
PART C
Questions 40 - 42
The birds you see here in this slide are peregrine falcons. These birds represent a success story among
animals on the endanger species list. In the 1970s, the peregrine falcons almost disappeared as a result
of the contamination of the food chain by the DDT in pesticide. The presence of the poison in their
systems resulted in eggs too weak to support the incubating chicks. Their remarkable recovery is a result
of the ban of DDT as a pesticide, aggressive captive feeding programs and their own resiliency. The
peregrine falcon is one of the fastest birds alive. They've been clocked at 140 to 200 miles per hour in
successful pursuit of pray. In addition to speed, these birds fly directly into head winds and they are
capable of flying more than 600 miles per day with favorable tail winds. Today with the sophistication of
telemetry, the speeds of these birds can be tracked by orbiting satellites, by means of transmitters
attached to the bird. For example, peregrine falcons stage in warmer climate, in other words, they spend
time in the southern US over changes preparing them to breed in the Arctic. Then they migrate north to
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PRACTICE TEST 03
40. What is the talk mainly about?
41. According to the passage, what makes the peregrine falcon a good hunter?
42. How did biologists track peregrine falcons over long distances?
Questions 43-46
Ok, so in our last class we were discussing big bands swing music. You remember this was a kind of
dance music with a steady rhythm. But today we deal with music played by smaller jazz bands. It's called
bebop may use all sorts of new types of rhythms, some of them very irregular. We'll talk more about that
later. But first I want to talk about some of the social elements that I believe contributed to the
development of bebop music. To do this, we have to look at when bebop arose and started becoming so
popular, which was from the late 1930s through the 1940s, from the time of the environment for bebop
music was the decline of the US economy, during the great depression. The economy suffered
tremendously. And fewer people had money to spend on entertainment. Then during the 2nd World War
the government imposed a new tax on public entertainment, what you might call performance tax. The
government collected money on performances that included any types of acting, dancing or singing, but
not instrumental music, so to avoid this new tax, some jazz bands stop using singer altogether. They
started relying on the creativity of the instrumentalist to attract audiences. This was what bebop bands
did. Now remember a lot of bands have singers. So the instrumentalists simply played in the background
and had occasional solos while the singer sang the melody to the songs, but not bebop bands. So the
instrumentalists had much more freedom to be creative. So they experimented, playing the music faster
and using new irregular sorts of rhythms.
43. What is the talk mainly about?
44. How did the bebop bands avoid the performance tax?
45. Why does the professor mention the decline of the US economy during the great depression?
46. What dose the professor describe as a significant characteristic of bebop music?
Questions 47-50
UR professor has asked me to talk to you today about the topic that should be of real concern to civil
engineers: the erosion of the US beaches. Let me start with some statistics. Did you know that 90% of the
coast in this country is eroding, on the gulf of Mexico for instance, erosion averages 4 to 5 feet per year.
Over the past 20 years, there has been an increase in building along the coast, even though geologists
and environmentalists have been warning communities about problems like erosion. Someway
communities have tried to protect their building and roads and to build seawalls. However geologists have
fouled that such stabilizing structure actually speed up the destruction of the beaches. These beaches
with seawalls, called stabilized beaches, are much narrower than beaches without them. You may
wonder how seawalls speed up beach loss. The explanation is simple. If the flow of the beaches is gentle,
the water energy is lessened as it washes up along the shore. It is reduced even more that returns to the
sea so it doesn't carry back much sand. On the other hand, when the water hit the nearly vertical face of
the seawall. It goes straight back to the sea with the full force of its energy and it carries back a great deal
of sand. Because of the real risk of losing beaches, many geologists support a ban on all types of
stabilizing construction on shore lines.
47. What is the speaker mainly discussing?
48. Why do communities build seawalls?
49. How does a gently sloping beach help prevent erosion?
50. What would the speaker probably advise engineers to do?
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 03
the much colder Arctic regions. Birds have been tracked from Texas in late April to their nesting ground in
Alaska, Canada and Greenland. Now let's move on to another species of birds, the bald eagles.
PRACTICE TEST 04
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
Kunci dan
Script Listening
Kunci
Practice Test 04
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PRACTICE TEST 04
Script Listening Comprehension
PART A
1. W : I’m not swimming in the lake unless it warms up outside today.
M : me neither. Unfortunately I think it's supposed to stay as cold all day.
Q : What can be inferred about the speakers?
2. M : that sweater is so unusual, and yet it looks familiar. Did I just see you wearing it yesterday?
W : well, not me. But . . . see, it belongs to my roommate Jill, and she is in your chemistry class.
Q : What does the Woman imply?
3. W : this toothache is killing me! I was hoping it would just go away but it's getting worse by the
minute. What did you say the name of your dentist was?
M : I told you last week to make that appointment.
Q : What does the Man imply?
4. M : you wanna go to a lecture tonight over in the science auditorium? It’s some guy who spent a
year living in Antarctica.
W : no kidding! I’m doing a report on Antarctica for my geography class. Maybe I can get some
good information to add to it.
Q : What does the Woman mean?
5. W : I’d really like to learn how to play chess, but it looks so complicated. it seems like it will take a
really long time to learn.
M : well, it takes a long time to get good at it. But we can go over the basics the afternoon if you
want.
Q : What does the Man imply?
6. M : d you think u can lend me that novel when you are finished with it? I've been looking all over for
a copy, but apparently it sold out at all the bookstores.
W : oh, it's not mine. It belongs to Alive. But I’ll see what she says.
Q : What will the Woman probably do?
7. W : umm . . . are you going to try some of this chocolate pudding? It’s incredible.
M : well, to be honest with you, I’ve never been a big fan of chocolate.
Q : What does the Man imply?
8. W : why don't we go catch the new Italian film at the Pin Street cinema?
M : that's a little out of the way, doesn’t u think? It’s playing just up the street of the Grow of Two,
you know.
Q : What does the Man suggest they do?
9. W : hi, I know Doctor Wilson's out of town at a conference, but I was wondering. . . um. . . since she
won't be back till next week, if u. . . if u could check in your computer records "n"(and) find out
how I did on her mid-term exam?
M : I’m sorry, miss. But I’m not authorized to give out that kind of information.
Q : What does the Man mean?
10. M : you wouldn't believe the line at the auto inspection center. I waited more than two hours to get
through it.
W : that's what u get for waiting until the last day of the month.
Q : What does the Woman imply?
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
Section 1
PRACTICE TEST 04
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
11. W : you know, I’ll be conducting my psychology experiment this Sat. and I’m going to have my
hands full. So I was wondering if you could help me. Maybe you could register the subjects and
ask 'em (them) a few questions as they come in.
M : I’ve got some work of my own to do. But I guess I can make some time. Just let me know what
I’m supposed to do.
Q : What does the Man mean?
12. W : did you ever get around to cashing that refund check from the bookstore?
M : oh, gosh! You know what, I must've misplaced that in my desk somewhere. But thanks for
reminding me. My funds are running low, so I’d better in it soon.
Q : What will the Man probably do?
13. W : it sounds like Kare isn't happy at all with her new roommate. Did she say why?
M : believe me, I tried to find out. But I simply couldn't pin her down.
Q : What does the Man mean?
14. W : oh, Professor Jackson, I was wondering . . . but uh . . . well, if uh . . . if I had a chance yet to uh
. . . look at my thesis proposal?
M : well, I know you gave it to me over a week ago, but to be honest, I have been swamped with
other things.
Q : What does the professor imply?
15. W : that's a shame about your car. Talk about bad timing!
M : yeah. And just a few months ago I put 400 dollars into it and I hoped it would make it through
another year.
Q : What can be inferred about the Man's car?
16. M : this stew is delicious. I’d love to be able to make it myself
W : why not? You can get all the ingredients at any supermarket. Here, let me get a pencil and
paper.
Q : What will the Woman probably do next?
17. W : so how was the drama club's new production last night? Did I miss out on anything good?
M : hardly, I kept looking at my watch the whole time.
Q : What does the Man mean?
18. W : I feel you haven't gotten that program to run on your computer yet. Want me go over the
instruction Manual with you?
M : that would be great. You need a Ph. D. to understand it.
Q : What can be inferred about the Man?
19. W : how do I get one of those green buckets everyone here puts out of the curb of paper recycling?
M : oh, just call up the sanitation department, they’ll deliver a bucket at no charge.
Q : What does the Man suggest the Woman do?
20. M : there's nothing I like better to get me started in the morning than a big breakfast, eggs, bacon,
home fried potatoes. . .
W : not me! All that fatty food will give me a stomachache. I prefer something light, like fruit or a
yogurt.
Q : What does the Woman mean?
21. W : what's the problem, Paul? You really look panicked.
M : I am speaking to a group of high school students about engineering this afternoon. But I have
no idea how I am going to simplify some of the concepts for them.
Q : What can be inferred about the Man?
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PRACTICE TEST 04
23. W : do you think we can use your pickup truck to take the telescopes out to the field again this
weekend?
M : to be honest, I’ve got a lot of dents in my truck from the last field trip. Maybe someone else can
help out this time.
Q : What does the Man imply?
24. M : Do you think Dr. Luby will lead a theater trip to Broadway in New York City again this year?
W : I don't think so. I know so! And I’ve already signed up for it.
Q : What does the Woman mean?
25. W : tomorrow we are having our first test in my history class. I’m really worried about it. You’ve
taken one of Dr. Parker's tests, haven't u? I hear they're impossible to pass.
M : I don't know who you've been talking to. My experience was just the opposite.
Q : What does the Man imply?
26. M : I haven't turned on my air-conditioner at all this summer.
W : that's surprising, considering how hot it's been lately.
Q : What does the Woman find surprising?
27. W : hey, congratulations on winning the essay contest. That thousand-dollar prize money should
really come in handy.
M : you bet! I’ve already put it aside to cover the increase my landlord just announced for next year.
Q : What does the Man mean?
28. W : you know, we never went over chapter 16 in class. What do you think the odds are that Dr.
Bomb will include it on the test?
M : he's been long to do things like that. So I wouldn't put it past him
Q : What does the Man say about Dr. Bomb?
29. W : I heard that only 20% of summer jobs in this part as the country are advertised. The other 80%
are filled some other way.
M : really? Then maybe I need to change my job search techniques.
Q : what can be inferred about the Man?
30. M : I don't remember the assignment off hand, but I’ve got it written down at home. How about if I
call u tonight?
W : if u call before nine, just leave a message with my roommate.
Q : Why will the Man call the Woman?
PART B
Questions 31 through 34:
Listen to conversations between two students in the lounge of a college dormitory.
W : Hi, Kaven. Your roommate told me that I could find you in the TV lounge. What are you doing here?
M : what does it look like I am doing?
W : well, it looks like u are watching television. But we have a linear algebra mid-term tomorrow, so I
thought you'd be studying for it and maybe I can study with you.
M : oh, well, I was just taking a break. This linear algebra stuff gives me a headache if I work on it too
long.
W : I know what you mean. I’ve been working on it for three hours through it already. I’m beginning to
go cross. I’d been theorying at the sample problems. I just don't get some of them.
127
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
22. W : well, I am never doing this again! Seven courses in one semester is just too much. I don't have
a minute to myself!
M : well I hate to say this, but . . . I told you so.
Q : What does the Man mean?
PRACTICE TEST 04
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
M : but I can't believe you are coming to me. I mean you do know what I got on the last test, don't u?
W : yeah, I know. You told me. I just thought two heads might be better one.
M : yeah, that's nice idea. But . . . you know, I wish I knew that person in our class who got a hundred
on the last test. She didn't miss a question. Umm . . . was it Elizabeth?
W : oh yeah, Elizabeth! She is a friend of mine. She’d be a big help right now. Why don't I give her a
call?
M : what! At this hour? It’s already ten thirty. I don't wanna impose on her.
W : yeah, I guess you are right. But you know what, she owes me a big favor. Let’s at least give her a
call and see what she says. Maybe going over some of the problems with us would help her review
the material.
M : it's worth a try.
31. Q
: What are the speakers mainly discussing?
32. Q
: Why is the Man watching television?
33. Q
: Why is the Man surprised that the Woman wants to study linear algebra with him?
34. Q
: Why doesn't the Man want to call Elizabeth?
Questions 35 through 39:
Listen to two students talking about their engineering class.
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W :
hello?
hi, may, this is bill johns.
oh hi, bill. You weren't in engineering class today, were you?
I have the flu. I was wondering if you could tell me what went on.
actually we had an interesting class. Dr. Collin talked about a new type of fuel.
oh, yeah?
uh-hum. It’s called dimethylether or DME.
oh, I remember reading something a bout DME. It’s mostly used in spray cans, right?
right. DME doesn't destroy the ozone, so it's been environmentally friendly.
but doesn't DME pollute the air if it's burned in an engine?
Dr. Collin says something about its exhausts being clear, that it doesn't release as much pollutants
as diesel fuel. And he mentioned something about DME being more efficient than other alternative
fuels.
when will it replace diesel fuel?
not for a while. It’s not economical to mass produce.
well, thanks for the information. I guess I won't need to borrow your notes.
well, maybe you should look at them. We are having a test next week.
okay, could u give them to Mike Andrews? I think he is in your psychology class. he is my
roommate.
sure. I hope you're feeling better soon.
thanks. Me too. Bye!
bye!
35. Q
: What is the conversation mainly about?
36. Q
: Why is the Woman giving the Man the information?
37. Q
: What effect will the increased use of DME instead of diesel fuel probably have?
38. Q
: According to the conversation, why won't DME be on the market soon?
39. Q
: Why does the Woman suggest the Man look at her notes?
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PRACTICE TEST 04
Questions 40 through 43:
Okay. Uh . . . you remember that ive mention that it's important to read the assigned poems aloud, so you
can develop and appreciation of the sounds of the poetry: the rhymes, the rhythm, the repetition of words
or sounds, and to get a sense of the interplay between the sounds of the words and their meaning. This is
really critical as we move into modern poetry, especially by writers who place so much importance on
sounds that the meaning becomes all better relevant. Like this line by Gertrude Stein that I'd like to quote.
Listen, listen as I say the words. "Rose is a rose is a rose is a rose. “Taken literally this would seems to
be an empty statement, one which gives us no information. But the purpose of a poem need not be to
inform the reader of anything, but rather to evoke feelings. To create a sensual as well as phonically
pleasing experience. Now Gertrude Stein was better known for her prose than for her poems. But I’d like
to like to quote this line because of its musicality, and because I think it helps open up our awareness to
the unconventional lyricism of contemporary poets. You’ll see this in your homework tonight as you read
the poetry of John Ashbery, especially if you read it out loud, which I recommend you do. Poets like
ashbery don't rely so much on any formal rhyme scheme or meter as on the musical quality of the
individual words themselves. As I said, Stein was better known for her non-poetical work. And now I’d like
to touch briefly on her essay entitled "Conversation and Explanation". This work deals with her theory of
writing and will help to explain some of the things we've talking about.
40. Q
: What does the professor mainly discuss?
41. Q
: What does the professor say about Gertrude Stein as a writer?
42. Q
: Why does the professor recommend the students do as part of their homework?
43. Q
: What does the professor recommend the students do as part of their homework?
Questions 44 through 46
Listen to a talk in a class about United States history.
Last week, you recall, we discussed the early development of railroads in the United States. Today I want
to mention an even earlier form of transportation, one that brought the first European settlers to America.
And that's the wooden sailing ship. From colonial times sailing ships were vital to the economy. Many
coastal towns depended on fishing or whaling for employment and income. This was especially true in the
northeastern states. And there the wood from nearby forests and the skills of local designers and workers
also formed the basis of an important shipbuilding industry. But the big profits were to be made on trade
with far away places. And since sea captains often became part owners of their ships, they had a strong
interest in the commercial success of their voyages. So these Yankees, that's what US sailor and officers
came to be called, they carried on a very profitable trade with other parts of the world. The high point of
this trade came in the mid-19th century with the introduction of the clipper ship, the enormous Yankee
clippers with huge sails reaching nearly two hundred feet into sky. He’d carry passengers and cargo from
New York around South America to San Francisco in less than three months and clear to China in just
half a year. At that time this seemed unbelievable fast and efficient. But in the 1860s, more reliable
steam-powered ship began to take over. And soon the important role of sailing ships in the US economy
would come to an end.
44. Q
: What aspect of United States history does the professor mainly discuss?
45. Q
: According to the professor, what may be one reason for the success of the merchant
ships of the United States?
46. Q
: What does the professor say about clipper ships?
129
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
PART C
PRACTICE TEST 04
Kunci & Script Practice Test 04
Questions 47 through 50:
Listen to part of a talk in a class on early childhood education.
The professor is discussing penmanship: the quality of one's handwriting. As you prepare to become
elementary school teachers, you'll be hearing a lot of discussion about the relevance of teaching
penmanship. Now years ago when I was studying education in college, reading writing and arithmetic
were the basics of elementary school education. It went without saying that writing meant first and
foremost penmanship. That is, the neatness of a child's handwriting. Back then, penmanship was often
taught as a separate subject from the fist grade right up through the sixth grade long after the children
had moved from writing in block capital letters to cursive script. It was considered so important that
sometimes prizes were even awarded for the best handwriting. But when we move ahead a few decades
into the 1980s, we see teachers and administrators and even parents telling us that teaching penmanship
is waste of time. With computers, they said, children can successfully manipulate the keyboard or mouse
of their home computers before they can even hold a pencil. This change in attitude had an impact on the
classroom. In your homework for this week you'll be looking at what statewide curriculum standards in the
US say about penmanship. You’ll see that in many states penmanship has been de-emphasized in a
required curriculum, especially in the later years of elementary school. In California, for example, the
curriculum calls for fourth-grade students to . . . and I quote, "write fluently and legibly in cursive or
grades. But after this, the curriculum makes no further mention of penmanship in grade five, six or
beyond, any higher level of quality or neatness is simply not among the curricular objectives. Your
assignment is to look at what the curricular standards say for all fifty states say about penmanship.
47. Q
: What is the professor's main point about penmanship in early childhood education?
48. Q
: Why does the professor mention prizes?
49. Q
: What will the students read about for homework?
50. Q
: What does the professor quote from California's curriculum requirements?
130
PRACTICE TEST 05
Kunci
Practice Test 05
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D
Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
Kunci dan
Script Listening
PRACTICE TEST 05
Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
Section 1
Script Listening Comprehension
PART A
1. M : I can't seem to find my calculator. Did I lend to you by any chance?
W : No, but you are welcome to mine if you need it, as long as I get it back by Thursday.
Q : What does the woman mean?
2. M : Wah, I’ve already taken one of those pills for my headache, but it's still bothering me.
W : Why not take another? The recommended dose.
Q : What does the woman suggest the man do?
3. W : Do you want to go running down by the lake after psychology class. I really like to take
advantage of the beautiful weather this afternoon.
M : Well, normally I begin to gather with my study group then, but I guess I can skip that just
this once
Q : What does the man imply?
4. W : Great hair-cut, James. You go to a new barbershop or something?
M : Oh, thanks. No, it was the same place, just another guy.
Q : What does the man mean?
5. M : I can't believe it, at the bookstore today, I had to unload two dozens boxes of textbooks,
and there are more to do tomorrow.
W : But it's always busy at the start of a new year, isn't it?
Q : What does the woman imply?
6. W : Oh, man, I feel awful. I think I’m coming down with that flu everybody's been late up with.
Do you have it too?
M : No, I mean I probably look terrible 'cause i stayed up all last night studying, but I should be
fine after some sleep.
Q : What does the man mean?
7. M : Excuse me, can you tell me which bus to take to get to the art museum?
W : Well, that would be the number of 42. But I wouldn't think you want to go there today. They
are closed on Mondays.
Q : What does the woman mean?
8. M : I really like this green jacket. The (finet) is perfect, but I’m not sure about the color. What
do you think?
W : Emh. Try another one. It’s the same style, but blue suits you better
Q : What does the woman mean?
9. W : Hey, Dan, do you think you might hurry up just a bit you've been (jeny) from that sandwich
counter forever. And you know, i got class in ten minutes, and so do you, by the way
M : Sorry, oh, I just wish they didn't give me so many choices.
Q : What does the man imply?
10. M : Hey, didn't your sister get here yet?
W : No, I can hardly wait. I haven't seen her in three months.
Q : What does the woman mean?
132
PRACTICE TEST 05
12. W : So, did you pick up that orange juice for me like you said you would?
M : I meant to. But I’m short of cash. I’ll be going back later though, after i stop by the bank if
you can wait that long
Q : What does the man imply he will do?
13. M : That's a great dress, Cindy. I don't think I’ve ever seen you wear it before.
W : Oh, I have. It’s just that it's sent back to my closet. My sister gave it to me like ages ago
and I totally forgot about it.
Q : What does the woman imply?
14. W : Just look at this apartment, Kellen. What a mess! You (starp) this all over. How does you
roommate put up with it?
W : I know. I haven't been doing my share this week. But I have three reports to do on Friday,
and I haven't even started one of them.
Q : What can be inferred about Kellen?
15. W : So we had better stop to read for a literature class. That novel she assigned us is so boring
M : Really? I started it yesterday afternoon, and I couldn't put it down until I finished it.
Q : What does the man mean?
16. W : Wah, you seem to be in a really good mood today. What’s the secret?
M : I don't know. I guess some mornings you wake up feeling great, some mornings you don't.
Q : What does the man mean?
17. W : If you are planning to take the train when you leave next Friday, remember that i drive right
past the station on my way home from campus
M : Say, I think I’ll pick you up on that.
Q : What will the man probably do next Friday?
18. M : I need to ask John about the chemistry assignment for tomorrow. But his phone's been
busy for the last hour and a half. Who can he be talking to for so long?
W : It may not him, you know. It could be one of his housemates. Why don't you just (hand on)
over there. Is that important?
Q : What does the woman suggest the man do?
19. W : Jame, I don't know if you know this. But I’m prepared to run for class president and I’m
wondering if I, if I can count on your vote?
M : Oh, maybe if you asked me sooner. But my roommate's running too and I’ve already
promised him he had my support
Q : What does the man mean?
20. M : I might argue with some of the details, but I basically agree with managing the economy.
W : Sure it sounds great in theory. My concern is in practice
Q : What does the woman mean?
21. M : You know that summer internship I’m apply for. They want an official copy of all my grade.
But the records office charges 20 dollars for an official grade report. That’s a lot, don't you
think?
W : It really is. I only had to pay six for mine last year
Q : What does the woman mean?
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11. M : This looks like sweety Susan's house, but I don't know. I wish I read down the directions
W : At this rate, we are lucky to get there in time for desert
Q : What does the woman imply?
PRACTICE TEST 05
Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
22. M : Kay, the weather report says it's going to pour today. you should probably put your bike in
the garage before it really starts coming down.
W : Emh, why bother? It’s been true a lot worse. If it's still worse, just fine
Q : What will the woman probably do?
23. M : Let me tell you, I’m really happy i got that ... scholarship. But I wish my parents would stop
(dragging) to everybody.
W : What, that's quite an accomplishment. if you ask me, i think you deserve a little bit
recognition
Q : What does the woman mean?
24. W : Can you believe it? A twenty-page term paper in the final exam! What does Professor
Johnson think? That we don't have any classes of his?
M : Wait a second, I’m sure what he said was either one or the other
Q : What does the man imply?
25. W : Emh, coffee in this restaurant is really improved. They must have changed suppliers.
M : Really? You can taste differences?
Q : What does the man mean?
26. M : Ah, and I rushed to get here before one so i can swim my last before the pool got too
crowded. Why they are still closed?
W : They are having a brief staff meeting. Take around.
Q : What does the woman suggest the man do?
27. W : I know that you don't really like light theater, but I have extra tickets for the play at the
community theater on Friday night. You won't be interested, would you?
M : Well, you know, I could use exchange. I mean I can go to the movie every weekend.
Q : What does the man imply?
28. M : I’d think twice about taking a history class next year. There’s not a single good professor in
all history department.
W : Look, that's what you said last term about the sociology department and I’m very glad I
didn't pay any attention to what you said.
Q : What does the woman mean?
29. W : My boss says the company will pay for any college costs if I take ...advanced degree.
M : That's a ...benefit you wouldn't have if you had taken the other job offer.
Q : What does the man imply?
30. M : Jean, it's surely hard to wake up at the time for that eight o'clock chemistry class. I never
should sign up for something so early in the morning.
W : Well, maybe next time you'll listen to me.
Q : What does the woman imply?
PART B
Questions 31-35:
Listen to a conversation between a student and a librarian assistant.
M : I'm sorry, but I can't let you check out these books.
W : What do you mean?
M : Woo, the computer shows you got an overdue book, art work, .and your circulation perpetual is
revoked until you return it.
W : but that's impossible. I only started going to this school last month and I’m a business major, not an
artist.
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PRACTICE TEST 05
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Emh. This is pretty strange. Let me look out the records.
OK. You are Robert Smith?
Yeah.
You live at forty twenty-three western
No, I am living on campus, in the new ...
You did say you are Robert Smith, right?
Yeah, well, my full name is Robert James Smith, but I usually go by pa
Let me check one more thing on the computer. Aha, it's seen now. There’s another Robert
Smith in the class …, Robert El Smith. And it looks like he's the one who got the overdue book
checked out.
Another Robert Smith? No kidding
so I guess you two never met.
No, but I think I should probably try. I could at least what's just happened.
Good idea. Now let's check out these books today. But I suggest you start use your middle name,
or mid initial or avoid any problem like this in the future.
31. Why is the man talking to the woman?
32. Why does the man mention that he is a new student at the school?
33. Why does the man mention that he is a new student at the school?
34. What does the woman discover when she looks at the records on her computer?
35. What does the woman suggest the man do in the future?
Questions 36-39:
Listen to part of a discussion between two students who are in the same history architecture
class.
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So what do you think of that ancient Egypt temple Professor talked about in class today?
The temple in Kanenet? Oh, pretty amazing. So grand and magnificent with also so many features.
Woo, I’m sure. After all, the temple was built to honor the ruler and according to ancient
Egyptian, the ruler was reviewed as god after the death.
Oh, no. but like that all the heavenual grand whole living up to the temple. I mean that roadways
with all those statues, sacrificial animals along both sides. All that seems perfectly designed for the
grand religious perception they often had there. And that huge stone over the entrance of the
temple was cut away.
Yeah. That was clever. cut away part of that stone, so the ...perception could pass through the
entrance underneath, even with all torn these they are carrying out of temple.
Right. How about the inside, ...? In the great hall.
You mean the columns?
Yeah.
So the columns are really amazing. i mean, like how many were there, over 100? and each one is
in the image of gods and kings cut to its surface to tell stories of their great deeds.
Well, they were all pretty awesome. But I particularly meant the columns down the center of the
island at the hall. The one that is so much taller than others, so they raise the central roof much
higher than the roof on neither side.
Oh, yeah though. What a nature life down middle of the great hall. Architects must be really
creative.
36. What aspects of the temple of Ka.. Are the speakers mainly discussing?
37. According to the discussion, what was the avenue of ramp of a newsport?
38. Why is part of the stone over the elfrance the missing?
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
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PRACTICE TEST 05
Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
39. According to the conversation, what aspect of the great hall was improved by raising
part of its roof?
PART C
Questions 40-43.
Listen to part of a talk in a physics class.
OK. We’ve been talking about mechanics and then we still have a few minutes. Let me tell you about
ancient Greek and what they thought about mechanics. They came up with a … for them to describe
different motions in different materials. in more than 2000 years ago, Aristotle, the ancient Greek
philosopher, assumed that all the matter on earth were made up with four substances, earth, water,
air and fire. Under his system, earth is the densest, water is the next, air is less dense than water
and fire is least dense of all. The heaviest object remains of earth and water, and lighter object
contains significant amounts of fire or air. So in Aristotle's ..., different types of matter have different
characteristics. He assumes this was because different types of matter were composed of different
amounts of four primary substances. And Aristotle believes that the motions of objects could also be
explained by the basic natures of four primary substances. eh, for example, there are basic motion
of up or down. Aristotle noted that when he released most objects, they would drop downward. But
he also knew that something could ...upward, like smoke.
Aristotle considered an object downward or upward motion to be the result of dominant nature of the
object. So according to Aristotle, matter like rock were primarily composed of earth, therefore, they
naturally want to move toward the center of the earth because this was all thing earth rested. But fire
had a different a resting place, the sky. So smoke would naturally rise when it was released because
it was driving toward its natural resting place.
40. What is the main topic of the talk?
41. Using Aristotle's system of classification, which primary substance is the densest?
42. According to the speaker, what types of motions does Aristotle's theory try to explain?
43. According to Aristotle's theory, why does smoke rise?
Questions 44-46:
Listen to an announcement given in a university biology class.
Hi, I'm Jim Black. Before you get to start the class today, Doctor give me a few minutes to talk you
about the biology department's ongoing turtle watching project down the south beach. As many of
you probably know, south beach is an important nesting site for the green turtle....in the next few
days, turtles from several nesting sites along the beach will hatch ahead the water. the problem is
that a lot of this hatching will never make it, rackles and hungry birds will get many of them before
they reach the ....so we have a 24-hour watch going on now, so the volunteers will be on hand to
protect the turtles after they hatch. Oh, we also need someone to notify the owners of the beach to
leave their yard ...for the next couple of weeks. The baby turtles are tracking artificial. In fact, some
of them end up in the beach highway and killed by passing cars. So we are tracking and minimize
beach. Now if you are interested, please stop by my office in the biology department and sign up.
What we ask you to do, we are asking for at least two-hour commitment for each participant. Oh,
and please note, the turtle-watching activities do not constitute excuse of absence from class.
Thanks.
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PRACTICE TEST 05
45. Why should homonors turn their lights off?
46. What do turtle-watching participants have to do?
Questions 47-50:
Listen to part of a talk in a United States history class.
Well, on the topic of ...technology has made..., I’d like to spend a few minutes on the ice industry,
one of the major industry in the 1800.now, before refrigerators come to common use, people in rural
areas often have a ware or a spring house to keep perishable fruits fresh...huge one, but a spring
house was a small house that people would build over a spring. Farm families then rely on cool
water from the spring to help keep their products or meat cool....boxes instead and they bought a lot
of ice, put in these ice boxes and they packed all the milk or meat inside to keep them fresh. So until
refrigerators..., the ice industry supplied city dwellers with these blocks of ice. Now, by 1800, people
have learned how to harvest blocks of ice from lake and cut these ice with... and storing. These ice
houses are enormous, among the largest structures anywhere in the country at that time. They are
so important that they often had rail tracks going right up next to them. In addition to being
transported by train, ice was delivered by ships all along the east coast or further inland by ...boat.
Eventually, the industry supplied blocks of ices to almost any place in the country where people
could afford such luxury.
47. What is the talk mainly about?
48. According to the speaker, what may be the ice industry of the Li?
49. What does the speaker imply about the spring houses?
50. What was the purpose of an ice box?
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Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
44. What is the purpose of the talk?
PRACTICE TEST 05
Kunci & Script Practice Test 05
DAFTAR PUSTAKA
Educational Testing Service (2001) TOEFL Institutional Testing Program-Examine Handbook and
Admission Form, Overseas Edition, Princeton, New Jersey, USA.
Elizabeth, Chesla (2002) TOEFL Exam success from Learning Express in only 6 strategic steps, 1st ed.,
Learning Express
ETS (2003) TOEFL Practice Test, Volume 1, Educational Testing Service, Ets, USA
Hinkel, Eli (2004) TOEFL Test Strategies, Barron's Educational Series, Inc., Hauppauge, New York, USA.
Janet Shanks Kaplan (2010) TOEFL Paper and Pancil, 3th edition. Simon & Schuster, New York And
Toronto
Learning Express (2004) TOEFL exam Essentials, New York
Learning Express (2007) Vocabulary for TOEFL Learning Express, LLC, New York
Leech, Geoffrey, Cruickshank, Benita and Ivanic, Roz (2001) An A-Z of English Grammar & Usage,
Longman, Harlow, Essex.
Lin Lougheed (2003), 600 Essential Words for the TOEIC Test, Barron’s Educational Series, Inc.
Michael A. Pyle, (2001) CliffsTestPrep TOEFL, IDG Books Worldwide, Inc. An International Data Group
Company, Foster City, Chicago, Indianapolis, New York,
Nancy Gallagher (2007) Delta's Key to the Next Generation TOEFL Test: Advanced Skill Practice Book,
First Edition, Educational Testing Service Canada (ETS)
Pamela J. Sharpe (2004) How to Prepare for the Toefl Test of English As a Foreign Language, 11th
edition, Barron’s Educational Series, Inc.
Pamela J. Sharpe (2007) Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, Barron's Educational Series, Inc.,
Hauppauge, New York, USA.
Pyle, Michael A, and Ellen Munoz, Mary Page (2002) TOEFL Preparation Guide, Cliffs Notes, Inc., USA.
Tim Avants (2007) Ace the TOEFL essay (TWE) Sourcebooks, Inc.
Tom Paulson (2002), TOEFL Secrets Your Key to TOEFL Success, MO Media
Tai Lieu Du Hoc (2010) Toefl Writing (Twe) Topics And Model Essays, at www.tailieuduhoc.org
138
Appendix
Bagian ini dikhususkan untuk mengetahui kemampuan peserta tes dalam melakukan tulis-menulis dalam
bahasa Inggris. Dalam uji ini, peserta tes diberikan satu topik atau tema tertentu dan selanjutnya diminta
untuk menulis ide mengenai tema tersebut. Namun tidak semua tes TOEFL mengujikan TWE, bahkan
hanya sedikit yang memasukkannya sebagai salah satu materi pengujian. Skor TWE diberikan secara
terpisah dari skor TOEFL secara keseluruhan. Skala penilaiannya berkisar antara 1-6. Berikut tips untuk
Test of Written English dalam TOEFL.
Ada tiga tahap yang bisa Anda lakukan yaitu: membuat kerangka essay, menulis essay, memeriksa
kembali essay Anda.
1. Membuat kerangka essay
Pada tahap ini, perhatikan baik-baik topik yang diminta. Jangan sampai salah membuat essay.
Dengan membuat essay yang tidak sesuai topik yang diminta, nilai Anda sudah pasti jelek. Umumnya
topik yang diberikan sifatnya umum dan merupakan pertanyaan setuju atau tidak dengan suatu
pernyataan. Biasanya akan diminta memberikan alasan dan contoh.
Buatlah catatan kecil. Tulis gagasan pokok Anda.
Tulis mengapa Anda setuju dengan pernyataan tersebut dan mengapa tidak.
Berikan alasan dan contoh yang relevan.
Tulis poin-poin Anda saja.
2. Menulis essay
Buat essay Anda dalam empat paragraf saja (sebenarnya lebih juga tidak masalah, terserah Anda).
Jangan panjang-panjang. Paragraf 1 memperkenalkan topik tersebut kepada pembaca. Paragraf 2
dan 3 merupakan tubuh essay. Paragraf 4 adalah penutup, biasanya berupa kesimpulan.
Jangan menjelaskan apapun pada paragraf 1. Tempat Anda menjelaskan (memberikan alasan
dan contoh) ada di paragraf 2 dan 3. Paragraf 4 juga jangan terlalu panjang. Hanya tuliskan
kesimpulan dari essay Anda.
Jangan buat essay Anda terlalu panjang karena waktu yang diberikan sempit. Bila terlalu panjang
membuatnya, selain belum tentu essay Anda akan selesai, Anda juga akan kehilangan waktu
untuk mengecek kembali essay Anda.
3. Memeriksa kembali
Periksa apakah ada pembukaan, alasan dan contoh yang relevan, dan penutup. Setelah struktur dan
konten essay Anda dicek, lakukan pengecekan terhadap tanda baca dan pengejaan (dari segi
bahasa).
Apakah tanda baca seperti titik, koma, titik koma, dan sebagainya sudah dipergunakan secara
benar?
Apakah semua kalimat sudah dimulai dengan huruf besar?
Apakah pengejaan kata sudah tepat?
Apakah grammar dan tense yang digunakan sudah benar?
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Test of English Written (TWE)
Test of English Written
(TWE)
Question :
Some people prefer to spend most of their time alone. Others like to be with friends
most of the time. Do you prefer to spend your time alone or with friends? Use specific
reasons to support your answer.
If I had to choose between spending time alone or spending time with my friends, I'd
rather be alone. I need this time alone to "recharge my batteries," to re-energize my
mind and spirit. Being with friends can be fun and can help you get through the rough
spots in life, but it's the time alone, I think, that forms you as a person.
When I'm alone, I have time to think about my goals and to develop a strategy
to reach them. Of course, lean think about these things when I'm with others, but it's
harder to concentrate in a crowd. Being alone gives me the quiet time to really think
about my life and what I want to do with it.
Being by my self is also a good way to listen to the silence and relax
completely. When I'm alone I can practice meditation and lower my stress level. That's
a very good way to sharpen my powers of concentration. Too much time with friend
means filling my mind with a lot of chitchat. That's enjoyable for a moment, but can
dull my concentration.
Being with other people can also distort my view of things. It's easy sometimes
to become too worried about what other people think of me, or what other people
have that I don't. When I'm alone I have time to step back. I can see the real value of
things, without being influenced by the opinions of my friends. It's natural to want to be
with other people, but I find the time I spend alone is more valuable to me in the long
run.
Question :
When people move to another country, some of them decide to follow the customs of
the new country. Others prefer to keep their own customs. Compare these two
choices. Which one do you prefer? Support your answer with specific details.
Nowadays it is quite common for people to immigrate to the countries. When they
move, some of them decide to follow the customs of the new country while others
prefer to keep their own. If I were forced to agree with one of the two positions, my
choice would be the former.
Sample 2
Test of English Written (TWE)
Sample 1
Appendix
To illustrate my point, let us first take a look on why some people dislike the
idea of following the customs of the new country. For one thing, these people are so
accustomed to their own culture, religion and customs, and it is very hard for them to
accept the new cultures. For instance, people from a Islamic country may find a lot of
customs in western countries offensive.
Although I agree that some customs are hard to change, I insist that the
advantages of adapting to a new culture are apparently seen. In the first place, by
following the customs of the new country, you can learn about the country and
understand the people more easily and become a real member of the country. People
who stick to their way of life may sometimes feel lonely and isolated. To share the
same custom means that having more things in common and it can pull people
together. Furthermore, you have to adapt to some customs of the new country, if they
are written into the law. As a result, it is much more sensible to do as the Roman do.
In conclusion, I believe that the advantag of following the customs of the new
country is obvious because you can easily learn about the country and be a real
member of it. What is more, you can live more easily in a foreign country.
140
Appendix
Sample 3
Both learning through personal experience and learning through the advice of others
can help you in life. If you don't have a lot of knowledge about something, the advice
of people you trust can be very valuable. They can tell you about their own
experiences, and about the advantages and disadvantages of a situation. Then you
can consider your own wants and needs and decide what you should do. Pretty soon,
you'll have more experience of your own.
When you are thinking about what you want to do with your life, friends and
relatives are a great resource. They can give you information about things like jobs,
school, volunteering, and traveling to other parts of the world. They've done a lot of
learning in their lives, and you can use it to decide what you want to do with yours.
In some cases, there's no real substitute for personal experience. For example,
I really don't like to make presentations in class. I know I'll make mistakes, even if I'm
thoroughly prepared and know all about my topic. Nothing but experience can help me
deal with the nervousness I feel. I know that the feedback I get from the teacher and
from the other students will help me learn from those mistakes. At least I'm confident
that the next class presentation I make will be much better than the last one.
In the end, I think that the best way to learn about life is by experiencing it
firsthand. No one else can teach you how to get along with other people, how to
realistically judge your own abilities, or how to understand who you are. You can only
learn these things by dealing with situations every day. Experience is the best
teacher.
Question :
You need to travel from your home to a place 40 miles (64 kilometers) away.
Compare the different kinds of transportation you could use. Tell which method of
travel you would choose. Give specific reasons for your choice.
Sample 4
Now I face a choice that I need to go to another city which is 40 miles from my
location, and decide which transportation I take.
While by bicycle, train, bus, and on foot are the basic four choices for me. The
first one is a good way to excise my body, but too tiring and time consuming; The
second way is economical to save time, while not always convenient, for sometimes
there is no train at the exact time that available for me, that is to say, maybe I need to
wait more than half an hour for the train; As for the last method, it is not in my
consideration at all for I do not think one can do a good job by driving as long as forty
miles expect that he has ever do some professional training in long run.
Obviously, I would like to choose bus as my tool for this journey. Firstly, bus
facilitate me in schedule, for, as a matter of fact, almost there is a bus available each
ten minutes for my travel or even more often. Secondly, it is also efficient by bus to
fulfill this journey. Thirdly, I will really enjoy myself during the travel for the comfortable
in bus, with TV or music supplied through out the traveling time.
To summary, having a journey like forty miles, bus, as a transportation, is
definitely the first choice, while if it is a much longer one, train will promote to be a
replacement among these four. Lastly, bicycle or running can fit for a short one.
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Test of English Written (TWE)
Question :
Some people believe that the best way of learning about life is by listening to the
advice of family and friends. Other people believe that the best way of learning about
life is through personal experience. Compare the advantages of these two different
ways of learning about life. Which do you think is preferable? Use specific examples
to support your preference.
Appendix
Sample 5
Some people believe that a college or university education should be available to all
students. Other people take the view that higher education should be available only to
good students. While both methods may have their advantages and disadvantages,
they can be applied under different circumstances. Afterwards, I will explain my
opinion about it.
For every student, having the opportunity to being educated in a college is
truly a good news. If a country can afford higher education to each of its students, we
can call it a great country, because education is the power which enhances a
country's economy. America, Germany and other countries which have highly
developed education give us good examples.
But this also demonstrates that offering higher education to every one does
not mean that a country can receive the corresponding profit from its investment. Is it
a truth that each student who receives higher education can eventually become a
qualified graduate who can find a suitable place in the society?
Moreover, offering higher education to every student will result in the
decrease of the educational efficiency. Suppose that if everyone can go to college
without any restrictions, the campus will be crowded, the library will have less space
for students and lose its calmness. Teachers have to face hundreds of heads in the
classroom. We couldn't expect any good educational quality from such condition.
Making higher education available to good students, on the other hand, is no
doubt an efficient way. Limiting the quality of the students is like selecting good
mineral source. Only locating the miner in a potential place can we get what we need.
For example, in Germany, students of different levels go to different schools. Those
students who is promising have the chance to enter university for higher education.
Under this circumstance, various schools produce various competent persons serving
in various places of the country.
In my opinion, offering higher education to good students is better than to
every student in two ways: First, it can keep the quality of the high education from
decreasing. Second, it will help the development of the economy by producing
excellent graduates who is available in different parts of the country machine.
Question :
Some people like doing work by hand. Others prefer using machines. Which do you
prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Sample 6
Test of English Written (TWE)
Question :
Some people believe that a college or university education should be available to all
students. Others believe that higher education should be available only to good
students. Discuss these views. Which view do you agree with? Explain why.
Here's the problem. I'm sloppy. That's why I like to use machines to do my
work rather than do things by hand. Machines can be creative, precise, and efficient.
Most people think that you can only be creative if you do things by hand. However, it
takes creativity to set the machine up. Once it's set up, it can repeat the same task
over and over and over perfectly. If you want to write ten letters, you can set up your
word processor to do it, press a button, and ten letters will be printed. It would take me
forever by hand, and I would make a lot of mistakes. By hand, each letter would be
different. By machine, each one is perfect.
Machines are very precise. They don't get tired and cut the wrong way. They
don't get distracted and drop some mustard on the paper. As I said, I'm sloppy, but I
like neatness. That's why I prefer to use machines.
Machines are also more efficient. I'm too tired to pick up the phone and see
who is calling me. My answering machine isn't tired. It's always on duty. It doesn't get
tired, upset, or moody. I can depend on my machines, but I can't always depend on
my hand to be creative, precise, or efficient.
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Appendix
Sample 6
I think it's better for college students to live on-campus their first two years, and then
move into an apartment off-campus their last two years. Freshmen and sophomores
need the stability of campus life, while juniors and seniors need the independence of
off-campus life. Students' needs change over four years, so their housing should too.
Living on-campus makes it easier to get oriented to the way things are done.
You get the whole university experience. Plus, you interact more with other students.
This includes not only your roommates, but everyone in your dormitory. The older
students in the dormitory can be a big help for the new students. Keeping up with
studies your first year is hard enough. You shouldn't have to worry about finding your
way around and figuring out the university bureaucracy.
Living in the dormitory also makes a student feel more apart of the university
community. There are more opportunities for becoming involved in university activities
and networking with student leaders and university administration.
Living off-campus, however, is a definite advantage for older students.
Finding an apartment, dealing with leases and the landlord's regulations, cooking
meals, and figuring out budgets are all good practice for life after graduation. This kind
of independence helps older students grow into adulthood.
Off-campus housing also gives students a better perspective on what's going
on around them. Campuses can be like little worlds of their own. There are few
children or older people and everyone is focused on education. Getting to know
neighbors who aren't students is good for students coming from different places. It's a
chance to find out what other people think and feel. I think a combination of two years
on-campus and two years off-campus is a winning combination for most students.
Sample 7
Question :
Schools should ask students to evaluate their teachers. Do you agree or disagree?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
I agree that school should ask students evaluate their teachers. There are
three reasons: The first, the education is a activity that communicate each other. The
information that students evaluate is given to their teacher. The teacher can improve
their education skill by this information. If there are no evaluated information by
student, the education activity become unilateral activity. The teacher spread their
information to students, but the students' informations reflects back to teacher are
very few. The evaluation can help teacher improve the their skill from time to time.
The second, the evaluation is favor to school management. The management
of school evaluates the education of teacher by students' evaluation. The
management may prize the good teacher and criticize the bad, and lay the
disquligicational teacher. Finally, the evaluation is in favor to protect rights of students
and parents. Students and parents are consumers, they hope that their children will
receive good education certainly, they should protect their rights for themselves.
When they find the educational skill of the teacher is bad, they may have school
changed the teacher immediately. In a word, I agree this point that students evaluate
their teacher.
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Question :
Students at universities often have a choice of places to live. They may choose to live
in university dormitories, or they may choose to live in apartments in the community.
Compare the advantages of living in university housing with the advantages of living in
an apartment in the community. Where would you prefer to live? Give reasons for
your preference.
Appendix
Sample 8
Artists and scientists both make valuable contributions to our society. It may seem
sometimes that artists are more valued. That's because those artists who are famous
make a lot of money. However, they are relatively few. The fact is that scientists are
more valued. They get more respect from society for the work they do.
Artists reflect their times and their culture. A painter or a writer shows us in
pictures and words what we're like as a people. They record our culture for future
generations. Actors and other performers, like singers and dancers, entertain us. They
take our minds off our troubles, and remind us how beautiful and exciting our
imaginations can be. Artists also help keep their societies mentally and emotionally
healthy. For example, children that participate in the arts, such as painting or music, in
school do better in their other studies. Art of all types is necessary to the human spirit.
The contributions scientists make to society are more obvious. They include
the cars we drive, the computers we use at home and at work, and the appliances that
help us cook our meals and clean our houses. All of these come from the ideas and
hard work of scientists. Because of scientific discoveries, we're living longer and more
healthful lives. Scientists also contribute to the arts.
Movies are the result of science. So are television, radio, and the recording of
music on CDs. Generally, scientists don't make as much money as famous artists like
film stars, opera singers or successful painters. However, our society gives them more
respect, and they generally make a good living. Scientists are considered to be
serious professionals, while artists are sometimes viewed as flaky, irresponsible
people. So overall, I'd have to conclude that we value scientists more.
Question :
In your opinion, what is the most important characteristic (for example, honesty,
intelligence, a sense of humor) that a person can have to be successful in life? Use
specific reasons and examples from your experience to explain your answer. When
you write your answer, you are not limited to the examples listed in the prompt.
Although honesty, intelligence, and a sense of humor are all worthwhile
characteristics, I feel the most important one in life to have is sensitivity. A sensitive
person is aware of him/herself and the way their actions affect others. A sensitive
person knows the place of honesty, intelligence, and a sense of humor.
Sample 8
Test of English Written (TWE)
Question :
When you write your answer, you are not limited to the examples listed in the
question. It is generally agreed that society benefits from the work of its members.
Compare the contributions of artists to society with the contributions of scientists to
society. Which type of contribution do you think is valued more by your society? Give
specific reasons to support your answer.
Honesty is not always the best policy. There is such a thing as a white lie.
You don't want to insult someone by saying that their new dress doesn't fit properly or
that you wouldn't live in their new house if they paid you. You must be sensitive to
when it is necessary to tell the truth and when it is better to tell a white lie.
Intelligence is a wonderful thing to have, but not all intelligent people use their
intelligence sensitively. You don't want to show off and make others feel stupid. You
must be sensitive to the reactions of the people around you. It might be appropriate
for you to admit that you have the right answer, but in some cases, you might have to
say, "I think this is the answer, but we might want to check it." A sensitive person
would not make someone else look dumb.
A sense of humor is always valued. Different people, however, laugh at
different things. You don't want to make someone feel uncomfortable by laughing at
his/her mistakes. A sensitive person would understand whether a person could be
teased or whether a person would appreciate a certain joke.
A sensitive person would make everyone feel comfortable. A sensitive person
understands that people are different and that the values of honesty, intelligence and
humor can be applied differently.
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Appendix
Topik dalam daftar berikut mungkin muncul dalam ujian Anda yang sebenarnya. Anda harus menjadi
akrab dengan daftar ini sebelum Anda mengambil tes TOEFL berbasis komputer. Ingatlah bahwa ketika
Anda mengambil tes Anda tidak akan memiliki pilihan topik. Anda harus menulis hanya pada topik yang
ditugaskan kepada Anda.
1. Some people prefer to spend their free time outdoors. Other people prefer to spend their leisure
time indoors. Would you prefer to be outside or would you prefer to be inside for your leisure
activities? Use specific reasons and examples to explain your choice.
Sebagian orang memilih untuk menghabiskan waktu di luar pada waktu senggang mereka.
Orang lain lebih memilih untuk menghabiskan waktu luang mereka di dalam ruangan. Apakah
Anda lebih suka berada di luar atau Anda lebih suka berada di dalam untuk kegiatan waktu luang
Anda? Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
2. Would you prefer to live in a traditional house or in a modern apartment building? Use specific
reasons and details to support your choice.
Mana yang Anda pilih, tinggal di rumah tradisional atau di gedung Apartment? Gunakan alasan
spesifik dan contoh untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
3. A gift (such as a camera, a soccer ball, or an animal) can contribute to a child's development.
What gift would you give to help a child develop? Why? Use reasons and specific examples to
support your choice.
Sebuah hadiah (seperti kamera, sepak bola atau hewan) berkontribusi terhadap perkembangan
anak. Hadiah mana yang akan Anda berikan untuk membantu perkembangan anak? Mengapa?
Gunakan alasan dan contoh spesifik untuk mendukung pilihan Anda.
4. If you could make one important change in a school that you attended, what change would you
make? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer.
Jika Anda bisa membuat satu perubahan penting dalam sebuah sekolah yang Anda hadiri,
perubahan apa yang akan Anda buat? Gunakan alasan dan contoh-contoh spesifik untuk
mendukung jawaban Anda.
5. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? It is better to be a member of a group
than to be the leader of a group. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Lebih baik untuk menjadi
anggota kelompok daripada menjadi pemimpin dari suatu kelompok. Gunakan alasan spesifik
dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
6. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Playing a game is fun only when you win.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Bermain permainan
menyenangkan hanya bila Anda menang. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung
jawaban Anda.
7. Some high schools require all students to wear school uniforms. Other high schools permit
students to decide what to wear to school. Which of these two school policies do you think is
better? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
Beberapa sekolah tinggi memerlukan semua siswa untuk mengenakan pakaian seragam
sekolah. Sekolah tinggi lain membebaskan siswa untuk memutuskan apa yang akan dikenakan
ke sekolah. Manakah dari kedua kebijakan sekolah menurut Anda lebih baik? Gunakan alasan
spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
8. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Children should be required to help with
household tasks as soon as they are able to do so. Use specific reasons and examples to
support your answer.
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Daftar Topik untuk TWE
Appendix
Test of English Written (TWE)
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Anak-anak harus diminta
untuk membantu tugas-tugas rumah tangga segera setelah mereka mampu melakukannya.
Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
9. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Only people who earn a lot of money are
successful. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Hanya orang-orang yang
mendapatkan banyak uang yang berhasil. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk
mendukung jawaban Anda.
10. Some young children spend a great amount of their time practicing sports. Discuss the
advantages and disadvantages of this. Use specific reasons and examples to support your
answer.
Beberapa anak muda menghabiskan sejumlah besar waktu mereka berlatih olahraga. Diskusikan
keuntungan dan kerugian dari ini. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung
jawaban Anda.
11. Some people say that physical exercise should be a required part of every school day. Other
people believe that students should spend the whole school day on academic studies. Which
opinion do you agree with? Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.
Beberapa orang mengatakan bahwa latihan fisik harus menjadi bagian yang diperlukan dari
setiap hari di sekolah. Orang lain percaya bahwa siswa harus menghabiskan seluruh hari di
sekolah pada studi akademis. Mana pendapat apakah Anda setuju dengan? Gunakan alasan
yang spesifik dan detail untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
12. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Reading fiction (such as novels and short
stories) is more enjoyable than watching movies. Use specific reasons and examples to explain
your position.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Membaca fiksi (seperti novel
dan cerita pendek) lebih menyenangkan daripada menonton film. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan
contoh untuk menjelaskan posisi Anda.
13. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? It is more important for students to study
history and literature than it is for them to study science and mathematics. Use specific reasons
and examples to support your opinion.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Lebih penting bagi siswa
untuk mempelajari sejarah dan sastra bagi mereka daripada mempelajari ilmu pengetahuan dan
matematika. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
14. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? People should read only those books that
are about real events, real people, and established facts. Use specific reasons and details to
support your opinion.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Orang harus membaca hanya
buku-buku yang tentang peristiwa nyata, orang yang nyata, dan fakta mapan. Gunakan alasan
yang spesifik dan detail untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
15. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? People are never satisfied with what they
have; they always want something more or something different. Use specific reasons to support
your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Orang-orang tidak pernah
puas dengan apa yang mereka miliki, mereka selalu menginginkan sesuatu yang lebih atau
sesuatu yang berbeda. Gunakan alasan spesifik untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
16. Decisions can be made quickly, or they can be made after careful thought. Do you agree or
disagree with the following statement? The decisions that people make quickly are always wrong.
Use reasons and specific examples to support your opinion.
Keputusan dapat dibuat dengan cepat, atau mereka dapat dibuat setelah berpikir hati-hati.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Keputusan yang orang
146
Appendix
17. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? People behave differently when they
wear different clothes. Do you agree that different clothes influence the way people behave? Use
specific examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Orang-orang berperilaku
berbeda ketika mereka memakai pakaian yang berbeda. Apakah Anda setuju bahwa pakaian
yang berbeda mempengaruhi cara orang berperilaku? Gunakan contoh-contoh spesifik untuk
mendukung jawaban Anda.
18. Some people enjoy change, and they look forward to new experiences. Others like their lives to
stay the same, and they do not change their usual habits. Compare these two approaches to life.
Which approach do you prefer? Explain why.
Beberapa orang menikmati perubahan, dan mereka berharap untuk pengalaman baru.
Sedangkan yang lainnya suka terhadap kehidupan mereka yang selalu sama, dan mereka tidak
mengubah kebiasaan yang biasa mereka. Bandingkan dua pendekatan untuk kehidupan.
Pendekatan mana yang Anda suka? Jelaskan mengapa.
19. Some people choose friends who are different from themselves. Others choose friends who are
similar to themselves. Compare the advantages of having friends who are different from you with
the advantages of having friends who are similar to you. Which kind of friend do you prefer for
yourself? Why?
Beberapa orang memilih teman yang berbeda dari diri mereka sendiri. Lainnya memilih teman
yang mirip dengan diri mereka sendiri. Bandingkan keuntungan memiliki teman yang berbeda
dari Anda dengan keuntungan memiliki teman yang mirip dengan Anda. Yang jenis teman yang
Anda inginkan untuk diri Anda sendiri? Mengapa?
20. Some people say that advertising encourages us to buy things that we really do not need. Others
say that advertisements tell us about new products that may improve our lives. Which viewpoint
do you agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Beberapa orang mengatakan bahwa iklan mendorong kita untuk membeli hal-hal yang kita
benar-benar tidak perlu. Yang lain mengatakan bahwa iklan memberitahu kami tentang produk
baru yang dapat memperbaiki kehidupan kita. Pernyataan mana yang Anda setujui? Gunakan
alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk menjelaskan jawaban Anda.
21. Some people believe that students should be given one long vacation each year. Others believe
that students should have several short vacations throughout the year. Which viewpoint do you
agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to support your choice.
Beberapa orang percaya bahwa pelajar seharusnya mendapatkan satu liburan panjang tiap
tahunnya. Yang lainnya percaya bahwa pelajar seharusnya mendapat libur yang singkat tiap
tahun. Pilihan mana yang Anda setujui? Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung
pilihan Anda.
22. Some items (such as clothes or furniture) can be made by hand or by machine. Which do you
prefer - items made by hand or items made by machine? Use reasons and specific examples to
explain your choice.
Beberapa item (seperti pakaian atau perabot) dapat dibuat dengan tangan atau dengan mesin.
Mana yang Anda suka, barang yang terbuat dengan tangan atau yang dibuat oleh mesin?
Gunakan alasan dan contoh-contoh spesifik untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
23. What do you consider to be the most important room in a house? Why is this room more
important to you than any other room? Use specific reasons and examples to support your
opinion.
Apa yang Anda anggap sebagai ruangan yang paling penting dalam sebuah rumah? Mengapa
ruangan ini lebih penting bagi Anda daripada ruangan lain? Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh
untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
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Test of English Written (TWE)
membuat cepat selalu salah. Gunakan alasan dan contoh-contoh spesifik untuk mendukung
pendapat Anda.
Appendix
Test of English Written (TWE)
24. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? High schools should allow students to
study the courses that students want to study. Use specific reasons and examples to support
your opinion.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Sekolah tinggi harus
mengijinkan siswa untuk mempelajari program yang ingin dipelajari siswa. Gunakan alasan
spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
25. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? A person's childhood years (the time from
birth to twelve years of age) are the most important years of a person's life. Use specific reasons
and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Masa kanak-kanak seseorang
(waktu dari lahir sampai usia dua belas tahun) adalah tahun yang paling penting dari kehidupan
seseorang. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
26. If you could invent something new, what product would you develop? Use specific details to
explain why this invention is needed.
Jika Anda bisa menciptakan sesuatu yang baru, produk apa yang akan Anda kembangkan?
Gunakan rincian spesifik untuk menjelaskan mengapa penemuan ini diperlukan.
27. A university plans to develop a new research center in your country. Some people want a center
for business research. Other people want a center for research in agriculture (farming). Which of
these two kinds of research centers do you recommend for your country? Use specific reasons in
your recommendation.
Sebuah universitas berencana untuk mengembangkan sebuah pusat penelitian baru di negara
Anda. Beberapa orang ingin pusat untuk penelitian bisnis. Orang lain ingin pusat untuk penelitian
di bidang pertanian (pertanian). Manakah dari kedua jenis pusat penelitian yang anda
rekomendasikan untuk negara Anda? Gunakan alasan tertentu dalam rekomendasi Anda.
28. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? There is nothing that young people can
teach older people. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Tidak ada yang orang muda
dapat mengajar orang tua. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung posisi Anda.
29. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? All students should be required to study
art and music in secondary school. Use specific reasons to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Semua siswa harus diminta
untuk belajar seni dan musik di sekolah menengah. Gunakan alasan spesifik untuk mendukung
jawaban Anda.
30. Some people trust their first impressions about a person's character because they believe these
judgments are generally correct. Other people do not judge a person's character quickly because
they believe first impressions are often wrong. Compare these two attitudes. Which attitude do
you agree with? Support your choice with specific examples.
Beberapa orang percaya kesan pertama mereka tentang karakter seseorang karena mereka
percaya bahwa penilaian ini umumnya benar. Orang lain tidak menilai karakter seseorang
dengan cepat karena mereka percaya bahwa kesan pertama sering salah. Bandingkan dua sikap
tersebut. Mana sikap apakah Anda setuju? Dukungan pilihan Anda dengan contoh-contoh
spesifik.
31. People learn in different ways. Some people learn by doing things; other people learn by reading
about things; others learn by listening to people talk about things. Which of these methods of
learning is best for you? Use specific examples to support your choice.
Orang belajar dengan cara yang berbeda. Beberapa orang belajar dengan melakukan hal-hal;
orang lain belajar dengan membaca tentang hal-hal yang lainnya belajar dengan mendengarkan
orang berbicara tentang hal-hal. Mana dari metode pembelajaran yang terbaik untuk Anda?
Gunakan contoh-contoh spesifik untuk mendukung pilihan Anda.
32. Some people prefer to plan activities for their free time very carefully. Others choose not to make
any plans at all for their free time. Compare the benefits of planning free-time activities with the
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33. When people need to complain about a product or poor service, some prefer to complain in
writing and others prefer to complain in person. Which way do you prefer? Use specific reasons
and examples to support your answer.
Ketika orang perlu mengeluh tentang suatu produk atau pelayanan yang buruk, beberapa lebih
suka untuk mengeluh secara tertulis dan yang lain lebih suka untuk mengeluh secara pribadi.
Mana yang Anda suka? Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
34. The twentieth century saw great change. In your opinion, what is one change that should be
remembered about the twentieth century? Use specific reasons and details to explain your
choice.
Abad kedua puluh ada perubahan besar. Menurut pendapat Anda, apa satu perubahan yang
harus diingat sekitar abad kedua puluh? Gunakan alasan yang spesifik dan detail untuk
menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
35. When famous people such as actors, athletes and rock stars give their opinions, many people
listen. Do you think we should pay attention to these opinions? Use specific reasons and
examples to support your answer.
Ketika orang-orang terkenal seperti aktor, atlet dan bintang rock memberikan pendapat mereka,
banyak orang mendengarkan. Apakah Anda pikir kita harus memperhatikan pendapat-pendapat
ini? Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
36. In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as
computers or television or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? Use
reasons and specific details to explain your choice.
Di masa depan, siswa dapat memiliki pilihan belajar di rumah dengan menggunakan teknologi
seperti komputer atau televisi atau belajar di sekolah tradisional. Mana yang akan Anda pilih?
Gunakan alasan dan rincian spesifik untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
37. You have the opportunity to visit a foreign country for two weeks. Which country would you like to
visit? Use specific reasons and details to explain your choice.
Anda memiliki kesempatan untuk mengunjungi negara asing selama dua minggu. Negara mana
yang ingin Anda kunjungi? Gunakan alasan yang spesifik dan detail untuk menjelaskan pilihan
Anda.
38. Plants can provide food, shelter, clothing, or medicine. What is one kind of plant that is important
to you or the people in your country? Use specific reasons and details to explain your choice.
Tanaman dapat menyediakan makanan, tempat tinggal, pakaian, atau obat. Apa satu jenis
tanaman yang penting untuk Anda atau orang-orang di negara Anda? Gunakan alasan yang
spesifik dan detail untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
39. In some countries, people are no longer allowed to smoke in many public places and office
buildings. Do you think this is a good rule or a bad rule? Use specific reasons and details to
support your position.
Di beberapa negara, orang tidak lagi diizinkan untuk merokok di tempat umum dan gedung
perkantoran. Apakah Anda pikir ini adalah aturan yang baik atau aturan yang buruk? Gunakan
alasan yang spesifik dan detail untuk mendukung posisi Anda.
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benefits of not making plans. Which do you prefer - planning or not planning for your leisure time?
Use specific reasons and examples to explain your choice.
Sebagian orang memilih untuk merencanakan kegiatan untuk waktu luang mereka sangat hatihati. Lainnya memilih untuk tidak membuat rencana sama sekali untuk waktu luang mereka.
Bandingkan manfaat perencanaan kegiatan waktu luang daripada tidak membuat rencana. Mana
yang Anda suka - perencanaan atau tidak berencana untuk waktu luang Anda? Gunakan alasan
spesifik dan contoh untuk menjelaskan pilihan Anda.
Appendix
Test of English Written (TWE)
40. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? A zoo has no useful purpose. Use
specific reasons and examples to explain your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Sebuah kebun binatang tidak
memiliki tujuan yang berguna. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk menjelaskan jawaban
Anda.
41. Many parts of the world are losing important natural resources, such as forests, animals, or clean
water. Choose one resource that is disappearing and explain why it needs to be saved. Use
specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
Banyak bagian dunia kehilangan sumber daya alam yang penting, seperti hutan, hewan, atau air
bersih. Pilih salah satu sumber daya yang menghilang dan menjelaskan mengapa perlu
disimpan. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung pendapat Anda.
42. What is the most important animal in your country? Why is the animal important? Use reasons
and specific details to explain your answer.
Apa binatang yang paling penting di negara Anda? Mengapa hewan tersebut penting? Gunakan
alasan dan rincian spesifik untuk menjelaskan jawaban Anda.
43. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Watching television is bad for children.
Use specific details and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Menonton televisi adalah
buruk bagi anak-anak. Gunakan rincian spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
44. Imagine that you have received some land to use as you wish. How would you use this land? Use
specific details to explain your answer.
Bayangkan bahwa Anda menerima lahan untuk digunakan sesuai keinginan Anda. Bagaimana
Anda akan menggunakan lahan ini? Gunakan rincian spesifik untuk menjelaskan jawaban Anda.
45. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Playing games teaches us about life. Use
specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Apakah Anda setuju atau tidak setuju dengan pernyataan berikut? Bermain game mengajarkan
kita tentang kehidupan. Gunakan alasan spesifik dan contoh untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
46. Your school has received a gift of money. What do you think is the best way for your school to
spend this money? Use specific reasons and details to support your choice.
Sekolah Anda telah menerima hadiah uang. Apa yang Anda pikirkan sebagai cara terbaik untuk
sekolah Anda untuk menghabiskan uang ini? Gunakan alasan yang spesifik dan detail untuk
mendukung pilihan Anda.
47. Some people think that the family is the most important influence on young adults. Other people
think that friends are the most important influence on young adults. Which view do you agree
with? Use examples to support your position.
Beberapa orang berpikir bahwa keluarga adalah pengaruh yang paling penting pada orang
dewasa muda. Orang lain berpikir bahwa teman adalah pengaruh yang paling penting pada
orang dewasa muda. Yang manakah yang Anda setujui? Gunakan contoh-contoh untuk
mendukung posisi Anda.
48. Some people think that your community would be a good place to locate the university. Compare
the advantages and disadvantages of establishing a new university in your community. Use
specific details in your discussion.
Beberapa orang berpikir bahwa komunitas Anda akan menjadi tempat yang baik untuk
menemukan universitas. Bandingkan keuntungan dan kerugian dari mendirikan sebuah
universitas baru di komunitas Anda. Gunakan rincian spesifik dalam diskusi Anda.
49. Some people think that children should begin their formal education at a very early age and
should spend most of their time on school studies. Others believe that young children should
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Appendix
50. Some people prefer to spend time with one or two close friends. Others choose to spend time
with a large number of friends. Compare the advantages of each choice. Which of these two
ways of spending time do you prefer? Use specific reasons to support your answer.
Sebagian orang memilih untuk menghabiskan waktu dengan satu atau dua teman dekat. Yang
lain memilih untuk menghabiskan waktu dengan sejumlah besar teman-teman. Bandingkan
keuntungan dari setiap pilihan. Manakah dari kedua cara menghabiskan waktu yang Anda suka?
Gunakan alasan spesifik untuk mendukung jawaban Anda.
Material:
Tim Avants (2007) Ace The TOEFL Essay (TWE), Sourcebook.Inc
Tai Lieu Du Hoc (2010) TWE: Topics And Model Essays
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Test of English Written (TWE)
spend most of their time playing. Compare these two views. Which view do you agree with?
Why?
Beberapa orang berpikir bahwa anak-anak harus memulai pendidikan formal mereka di usia yang
sangat dini dan harus menghabiskan sebagian besar waktu mereka pada studi sekolah. Lain
percaya bahwa anak-anak muda harus menghabiskan sebagian besar waktu mereka bermain.
Bandingkan dua pandangan tersebut. Yang manakah yang lebih Anda setujui? Mengapa?