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Comptia
(SY0-601)
CompTIA Security+ 2021
Total: 849
Questions
Link: https://certyiq.com/papers?provider=comptia&exam=sy0-601
Question: 1
CertyIQ
A user is attempting to navigate to a website from inside the company network using a desktop. When the user
types in the URL, https://www.site.com, the user is presented with a certificate mismatch warning from the
browser. The user does not receive a warning when visiting http://www.anothersite.com. Which of the following
describes this attack?
A. On-path
B. Domain hijacking
C. DNS poisoning
D. Evil twin
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. By the way, there is a course in north Carolina and they are receiving $4000 in
advance and showing you 6-hour pre-recorded videos every Saturday. There is no human intervention and no
update over time. They are lying and giving you fake promises before signing up to course and then there is no
contact after you became member. Be careful because they are completely SCAMMER.
Question: 2
CertyIQ
Which of the following tools is effective in preventing a user from accessing unauthorized removable media?
A. USB data blocker
B. Faraday cage
C. Proximity reader
D. Cable lock
Answer: A
Explanation:
A USB data blocker, also known as a “USB condom” (really, no kidding!), is a device that allows you to plug
into USB charging ports including charging kiosks, and USB ports on gadgets owned by other people.
The main purpose of using one is to eliminate the risk of infecting your phone or tablet with malware, and even
prevent hackers to install/execute any malicious code to access your data.
Question: 3
CertyIQ
A Chief Security Officer is looking for a solution that can provide increased scalability and flexibility for back-end
infrastructure, allowing it to be updated and modified without disruption to services. The security architect would
like the solution selected to reduce the back-end server resources and has highlighted that session persistence is
not important for the applications running on the back-end servers. Which of the following would BEST meet the
requirements?
A. Reverse proxy
B. Automated patch management
C. Snapshots
D. NIC teaming
Answer: A
Explanation:
its the way to distribute load across different servers, at the same time you can remove from the cluster each
server that you want to update.
In computer networks, a reverse proxy is the application that sits in front of back-end applications and
forwards client requests to those applications. Reverse proxies help increase scalability, performance,
resilience and security
Question: 4
CertyIQ
Which of the following describes a social engineering technique that seeks to exploit a person's sense of urgency?
A. A phishing email stating a cash settlement has been awarded but will expire soon
B. A smishing message stating a package is scheduled for pickup
C. A vishing call that requests a donation be made to a local charity
D. A SPIM notification claiming to be undercover law enforcement investigating a cybercrime
Answer: A
Explanation:
Keyword is "will expire" which is something that creates a sense of urgency.
Question: 5
CertyIQ
A security analyst is reviewing application logs to determine the source of a breach and locates the following log:
https://www.comptia.com/login.php?id='%20or%20'1'1='1
Which of the following has been observed?
A. DLL Injection
B. API attack
C. SQLi
D. XSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL Injection (SQLi) is a type of an injection attack that makes it possible to execute malicious SQL
statements. These statements control a database server behind a web application. Attackers can use SQL
Injection vulnerabilities to bypass application security measures.
Question: 6
CertyIQ
An audit identified PII being utilized in the development environment of a critical application. The Chief Privacy
Officer (CPO) is adamant that this data must be removed; however, the developers are concerned that without real
data they cannot perform functionality tests and search for specific data. Which of the following should a security
professional implement to BEST satisfy both the CPO's and the development team's requirements?
A. Data anonymization
B. Data encryption
C. Data masking
D. Data tokenization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data anonymization is the alteration process of personally identifiable information (PII) in a dataset, to protect
individual identification. This way the data can be used and still be protected.
Question: 7
CertyIQ
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers
in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all
on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the
engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal
Answer: AC
Explanation:
WiFi heatmap is a map of wireless signal coverage and strength. Typically, a WiFi heatmap shows a real map
of a room, floor, or even a city overlaid by a graphical representation of a wireless signal.
Heat map and site survey will provide the wifi strength and identify the weakness areas..this will give the
opportunity if we need to increase WiFI strength or give suggestion to the forklift drivers about the movement
Question: 8
CertyIQ
A forensics investigator is examining a number of unauthorized payments that were reported on the company's
website. Some unusual log entries show users received an email for an unwanted mailing list and clicked on a link
to attempt to unsubscribe. One of the users reported the email to the phishing team, and the forwarded email
revealed the link to be:
<a href="https://www.company.com/payto.do?routing=00001111&acct=22223334&amount=250">Click here to
unsubscribe</a>
Which of the following will the forensics investigator MOST likely determine has occurred?
A. SQL injection
B. Broken authentication
C. XSS
D. XSRF
Answer: D
Explanation:
Funds out of a bank account in most cases indicates CSRF.
An attacker crafts code to create an HTTP request that, if it were run in the browser of a logged in user, would
do something dangerous such as transfer money or delete data. The attacker then finds a way—typically
through email—to get the malicious code into a victim’s browser. Depending on your definition of "Broken
Authentication" that could work, I just don't see this as the authentication as broken as the attacker never
logged in. Ref: https://www.stackhawk.com/blog/what-is-cross-site-request-forgery-csrf/
Question: 9
CertyIQ
A report delivered to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) shows that some user credentials could be
exfiltrated. The report also indicates that users tend to choose the same credentials on different systems and
applications. Which of the following policies should the CISO use to prevent someone from using the exfiltrated
credentials?
A. MFA
B. Lockout
C. Time-based logins
D. Password history
Answer: A
Explanation:
MFA is the only one that obligate to have more info than a password to login in the system
Question: 10
CertyIQ
A company wants to simplify the certificate management process. The company has a single domain with several
dozen subdomains, all of which are publicly accessible on the internet. Which of the following BEST describes the
type of certificate the company should implement?
A. Subject alternative name
B. Wildcard
C. Self-signed
D. Domain validation
Answer: B
Explanation:
B- Wildcard SSL(Secure Sockets Layer) Certificate: Wildcard SSL certificates are for a single domain and all
its subdomains.
www.cloudfare.com
Question: 11
CertyIQ
Which of the following is an effective tool to stop or prevent the exfiltration of data from a network?
A. DLP
B. NIDS
C. TPM
D. FDE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) makes sure that users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the
corporate network.
Question: 12
CertyIQ
Several attempts have been made to pick the door lock of a secure facility. As a result, the security engineer has
been assigned to implement a stronger preventative access control. Which of the following would BEST complete
the engineer's assignment?
A. Replacing the traditional key with an RFID key
B. Installing and monitoring a camera facing the door
C. Setting motion-sensing lights to illuminate the door on activity
D. Surrounding the property with fencing and gates
Answer: A
Explanation:
The operative word is PREVENTIVE. B and C are deterrent and/or detective in nature, whereas A and D are the
only preventives. D could also be effective in this context, though I'm leaning towards A because it directly
addresses the door-lock concern in question.
Question: 13
CertyIQ
Which of the following can be used by a monitoring tool to compare values and detect password leaks without
providing the actual credentials?
A. Hashing
B. Tokenization
C. Masking
D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hashing, is the answer. Why? Because, with Hashing the tool can identify a credential without knowing the
exact credential , by a mathematical method (ex: multiply the credential by a number, and all different
credentials have different results). comparing the Hashing of the local credential with the Hashing of the web
credentials the tool can extrapolate if the credential was compromised.
Question: 14
CertyIQ
A security engineer is building a file transfer solution to send files to a business partner. The users would like to
drop off the files in a specific directory and have the server send the file to the business partner. The connection to
the business partner is over the internet and needs to be secure. Which of the following can be used?
A. S/MIME
B. LDAPS
C. SSH
D. SRTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
LDAP is used to provide a central place for directory service authentication.
S/MIME is an internet standard to digitally sign and encrypt email messages. It ensures the integrity of email
messages remains intact while being received.
SSH can be used with FTP which is called SFTP, file transfer over encrypted tunnel.
Question: 15
CertyIQ
An administrator needs to protect user passwords and has been advised to hash the passwords. Which of the
following BEST describes what the administrator is being advised to do?
A. Perform a mathematical operation on the passwords that will convert them into unique strings.
B. Add extra data to the passwords so their length is increased, making them harder to brute force.
C. Store all passwords in the system in a rainbow table that has a centralized location.
D. Enforce the use of one-time passwords that are changed for every login session.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Common uses of hashing algorithms are to store computer passwords and to ensure message integrity. The
idea is that hashing can produce a unique value that corresponds to the data entered, but the hash value is
also reproducible by anyone else running the same algorithm against the data.
Question: 16
Which of the following would be indicative of a hidden audio file found inside of a piece of source code?
A. Steganography
B. Homomorphic encryption
C. Cipher suite
D. Blockchain
Answer: A
CertyIQ
Explanation:
Steganography is the art of punting information inside of information. Is like hiding something in front of
everyone eyes.
Question: 17
CertyIQ
A user enters a username and a password at the login screen for a web portal. A few seconds later the following
message appears on the screen:
Please use a combination of numbers, special characters, and letters in the password field.
Which of the following concepts does this message describe?
A. Password complexity
B. Password reuse
C. Password history
D. Password age
Answer: A
Explanation:
Password complexity - is the method that obligate users to use passwords this some characteristics. (like
more than X characters, use numbers symbols and letters) .
Question: 18
CertyIQ
A company recently experienced an inside attack using a corporate machine that resulted in data compromise.
Analysis indicated an unauthorized change to the software circumvented technological protection measures. The
analyst was tasked with determining the best method to ensure the integrity of the systems remains intact and
local and remote boot attestation can take place. Which of the following would provide the BEST solution?
A. HIPS
B. FIM
C. TPM
D. DLP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key sentence in the question is: "The analyst was tasked with determining the best method to ensure the
integrity of the systems remains intact and local and remote boot attestation can take place"
The attack already happened. 'HIPS' looks out for attacks. But in the situation of trying to restore, TPM seems
like the best option.
Question: 19
Which of the following is a reason to publish files' hashes?
A. To validate the integrity of the files
CertyIQ
B. To verify if the software was digitally signed
C. To use the hash as a software activation key
D. To use the hash as a decryption passphrase
Answer: A
Explanation:
To validate the integrity of the files - Hash function algorithms compares the file's original and current hash
values. And if a byte or even a piece of the file's data has been changed, the original and current hash values
will be different, and therefore you will know whether it's the same file or not.
Question: 20
CertyIQ
A security manager has tasked the security operations center with locating all web servers that respond to an
unsecure protocol. Which of the following commands could an analyst run to find the requested servers?
A. nslookup 10.10.10.0
B. nmap -p 80 10.10.10.0/24
C. pathping 10.10.10.0 -p 80
D. ne -l -p 80
Answer: B
Explanation:
nmap is looking for the unsecure port 80 (http), pathping only shows packet drops and latency.
Question: 21
CertyIQ
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?
A. False acceptance
B. False entrance
C. False rejection
D. False denial
Answer: A
Explanation:
FAR ( False Acceptance Rate ) ->
where an interloper is accepted (Type II error or false match rate [FMR]). FAR is measured as a percentage.
False rejection cause inconvenience to users, but false acceptance can lead to security breaches, and so is
usually considered the most important metric
Question: 22
CertyIQ
A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers' personal information is handled. Which of the
following should the company consult?
A. GDPR
B. ISO
C. NIST
D. PCI DSS
Answer: A
Explanation:
GDPR - Privacy law for Europeans citizens
Question: 23
CertyIQ
Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Choose two.)
A. SPIM
B. Vishing
C. Hopping
D. Phishing
E. Credential harvesting
F. Tailgating
Answer: BE
Explanation:
after heavy consideration and reading through multiple sec+ books, i m kinda going with B & E
vishing and credential harvesting as being the most common attacks, as hopping doesnt ever seem to come
up in the material. https://fitsmallbusiness.com/voip-security-threats/
Question: 24
CertyIQ
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas?
A. Persistence
B. Buffer overflow
C. Privilege escalation
D. Pharming
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exploitation of interactive process is the commandline from where exploits can be run to gain root
permissions in a system
Question: 25
CertyIQ
An organization is planning to open other data centers to sustain operations in the event of a natural disaster.
Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization's resiliency?
A. Geographic dispersal
B. Generator power
C. Fire suppression
D. Facility automation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Placing that datacenter far away, maybe in another country can help protect against disasters like an
earthquake
Question: 26
CertyIQ
A security engineer is deploying a new wireless network for a company. The company shares office space with
multiple tenants. Which of the following should the engineer configure on the wireless network to ensure that
confidential data is not exposed to unauthorized users?
A. EAP
B. TLS
C. HTTPS
D. AES
Answer: D
Explanation:
EAP has to be incorrect. EAP is an AUTHENTICATION protocol, and authentication does not provide
confidentiality. Authentication encompasses processes that allows systems and networks to determine if a
user is who they say they are. That provides integrity, not confidentiality. Confidentiality ensures that secret
information is protected from UNAUTHORIZED disclosure. The question also ends with "unauthorized users".
HTTPS is just HTTP that uses TLS to encrypt network traffic that is in-transit. A stated above, TLS encrypts intransit data. This question specifically states preventing exposed data to unauthorized users. TLS and HTTPS
only encrypt in-transit data. Data-at-rest in a network is insecure, though.
Only AES meets the criteria of providing confidentiality to both data-at-rest and data-in-transit, preventing
unauthorized users from seeing either.
Question: 27
CertyIQ
The Chief Compliance Officer from a bank has approved a background check policy for all new hires. Which of the
following is the policy MOST likely protecting against?
A. Preventing any current employees' siblings from working at the bank to prevent nepotism
B. Hiring an employee who has been convicted of theft to adhere to industry compliance
C. Filtering applicants who have added false information to resumes so they appear better qualified
D. Ensuring no new hires have worked at other banks that may be trying to steal customer information
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. BSource: https://www.pcicomplianceguide.org/what-does-the-pci-dss-say-about-employee-backgroundchecks/PCI DSS requires background checks for employees handling credit card holder data.
2. In general, background checks for employment typically cover seven years of criminal and court records,
but may go back further depending on federal and state laws and what is being searched.What is the
background verification process in HR?Background verification is a process many organizations carry out in
order to verify the information provided by the candidate during hiring. It involves various checks in which the
employer will go through your education records, past employer details, identity checks, resume checks and
address checks.
Question: 28
CertyIQ
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. Per the security policy, all webserver ports except 443 should be disabled.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this task?
A. Application allow list
B. SWG
C. Host-based firewall
D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Not A or D. Was not sure whether it should be B or C until I read the definition of SWGs in the official guide
from CompTIA. "An on-premises SWG is a proxy-based firewall, content filter, and intrusion
detection/prevention system that mediates user access to Internet sites and services"
Question: 29
CertyIQ
A technician was dispatched to complete repairs on a server in a data center. While locating the server, the
technician entered a restricted area without authorization. Which of the following security controls would BEST
prevent this in the future?
A. Use appropriate signage to mark all areas.
B. Utilize cameras monitored by guards.
C. Implement access control vestibules.
D. Enforce escorts to monitor all visitors.
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. How would the guard know every individual and their access rights?The access control vestibule (AKA
Mantrap) seems to be more appropriate to me.
2. access control mechanism
Question: 30
CertyIQ
Which of the following would BEST provide a systems administrator with the ability to more efficiently identify
systems and manage permissions and policies based on location, role, and service level?
A. Standard naming conventions
B. Domain services
C. Baseline configurations
D. Diagrams
Answer: A
Explanation:
A standard naming convention for hardware assets, and for digital assets such as accounts and virtual
machines, makes the environment more consistent. This means that errors are easier to spot and that it is
easier to automate through scripting. The naming strategy should allow administrators to identify the type
and function of any particular resource or location at any point in the CMDB or network directory. Each label
should conform to rules for host and DNS names.
Question: 31
CertyIQ
Which of the following would detect intrusions at the perimeter of an airport?
A. Signage
B. Fencing
C. Motion sensors
D. Lighting
E. Bollards
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bollards -> Sites where there is a risk of a terrorist attack will use barricades such as bollards and security
posts to prevent vehicles from approaching closely to a building at speed
Question: 32
CertyIQ
A security analyst is concerned about critical vulnerabilities that have been detected on some applications running
inside containers. Which of the following is the
BEST remediation strategy?
A. Update the base container Image and redeploy the environment.
B. Include the containers in the regular patching schedule for servers.
C. Patch each running container individually and test the application.
D. Update the host in which the containers are running.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The only thing container shares with host machine is kernel so if we patch and upgrade the kernel version
doesnt necessarily it will eliminate the vulnerabilities associated with other packages in repos of that
container so best way to patch a container must be followed. and that is only possible when someone update
the base container image and redeploy it. so correct answer is A here
Question: 33
CertyIQ
An organization has decided to purchase an insurance policy because a risk assessment determined that the cost
to remediate the risk is greater than the five- year cost of the insurance policy. The organization is enabling risk:
A. avoidance.
B. acceptance.
C. mitigation.
D. transference.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer is D:transference.
Question: 34
CertyIQ
A security analyst receives an alert from the company's SIEM that anomalous activity is coming from a local
source IP address of 192.168.34.26. The Chief
Information Security Officer asks the analyst to block the originating source. Several days later, another employee
opens an internal ticket stating that vulnerability scans are no longer being performed properly. The IP address the
employee provides is 192.168.34.26. Which of the following describes this type of alert?
A. True negative
B. True positive
C. False positive
D. False negative
Answer: C
Explanation:
True Positive: A legitimate attack which triggers to produce an alarm. You have a brute force alert, and it
triggers. You investigate the alert and find out that somebody was indeed trying to break into one of your
systems via brute force methods.
False Positive: An event signalling to produce an alarm when no attack has taken place. You investigate
another of these brute force alerts and find out that it was just some user who mistyped their password a
bunch of times, not a real attack.
False Negative: When no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place. Someone was trying to break into
your system, but they did so below the threshold of your brute force attack logic. For example, you set your
rule to look for ten failed login in a minute, and the attacker did only 9. The attack occurred, but your control
was unable to detect it.
​True Negative: An event when no attack has taken place and no detection is made. No attack occurred, and
your rule didn’t make fire.
Question: 35
CertyIQ
A security analyst wants to reference a standard to develop a risk management program. Which of the following is
the BEST source for the analyst to use?
A. SSAE SOC 2
B. ISO 31000
C. NIST CSF
D. GDPR
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. ISO 31000 The ISO 31000 Risk Management framework is an international standard that provides
businesses with guidelines and principles for risk management from the International Organization for
Standardization. Regulatory compliance initiatives are usually specific to a particular country and applicable
to certain sized businesses or businesses in specific industries. However, ISO 31000 is designed to be used in
organizations of any size. Its concepts work equally well in the public and the private sector, in large or small
businesses and nonprofit organizations.
2. ISO 31000 addresses all forms of risk and management, not just cybersecurity risks. Exactly what the
question asks. The question doesn't mention cyber security in particular.
Question: 36
CertyIQ
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) requested a report on potential areas of improvement following a
security incident. Which of the following incident response processes is the CISO requesting?
A. Lessons learned
B. Preparation
C. Detection
D. Containment
E. Root cause analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
What are lessons learned ? The Project Management Institute (PMI) defined as “the learning gained from the
process of performing the project”. In the context of security incidents, they usually take place after a
security incident has occurred and has been mitigated
Question: 37
CertyIQ
A company is providing security awareness training regarding the importance of not forwarding social media
messages from unverified sources. Which of the following risks would this training help to prevent?
A. Hoaxes
B. SPIMs
C. Identity fraud
D. Credential harvesting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hoaxes is fake news, company is asking employees to not share messages which are not from a reputed
source or a trust worthy news organization for example, not your mom's facebook group about anti vax.
Question: 38
CertyIQ
A security analyst is receiving numerous alerts reporting that the response time of an internet-facing application
has been degraded. However, the internal network performance was not degraded. Which of the following MOST
likely explains this behavior?
A. DNS poisoning
B. MAC flooding
C. DDoS attack
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Most denial of service (DoS) attacks against websites and gateways are distributed DoS (DDoS). This means
that the attack is launched from multiple hosts simultaneously. Typically, a threat actor will compromise
machines to use as handlers in a command and control network. The handlers are used to compromise
hundreds or thousands or millions of hosts with DoS tools (bots) forming a botnet. The internal network has
not been affected by the attack
Question: 39
CertyIQ
Which of the following will increase cryptographic security?
A. High data entropy
B. Algorithms that require less computing power
C. Longer key longevity
D. Hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Entropy is a measure of disorder. A plaintext will usually exhibit low entropy as it represents a message in a
human language or programming language or data structure. The plaintext must be ordered for it to be
intelligible to a person, computer processor, or database. One of the requirements of a strong cryptographic
algorithm is to produce a disordered ciphertext. Put another way, the ciphertext must exhibit a high level of
entropy. If any elements of order from the plaintext persist, it will make the ciphertext vulnerable to
cryptanalysis, and the algorithm can be shown to be weak
Question: 40
CertyIQ
Which of the following statements BEST describes zero-day exploits?
A. When a zero-day exploit is discovered, the system cannot be protected by any means.
B. Zero-day exploits have their own scoring category in CVSS.
C. A zero-day exploit is initially undetectable, and no patch for it exists.
D. Discovering zero-day exploits is always performed via bug bounty programs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A says it can be protected by ANY means which is not true, sure the exploit itself doesn't have a patch yet but
we can isolate the effected system or have some kind of compensating control in place
Question: 41
CertyIQ
A company wants to restrict emailing of PHI documents. The company is implementing a DLP solution. In order to
restrict PHI documents, which of the following should be performed FIRST?
A. Retention
B. Governance
C. Classification
D. Change management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data Classification: Category based on the value to the organization and the sensitivity of the information if it
were to be disclosed
Question: 42
A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles
www.comptia.org. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization:
CertyIQ
Which of the following attacks has taken place?
A. Domain reputation
B. Domain hijacking
C. Disassociation
D. DNS poisoning
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. DNS server cache poisoning aims to corrupt the records held by the DNS server itself. This can be
accomplished by performing DoS against the server that holds the authorized records for the domain, and
then spoofing replies to requests from other name servers. Another attack involves getting the victim name
server to respond to a recursive query from the attacking host. A recursive query compels the DNS server to
query the authoritative server for the answer on behalf of the client.
2. Question gave you the answer “Redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org“ DNS
Poisoning it is.
Question: 43
CertyIQ
Which of the following describes the continuous delivery software development methodology?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. V-shaped
D. Agile
Answer: D
Explanation:
Agile approach to software development is to ensure customer satisfaction via early and continuous delivery
of software
Question: 44
CertyIQ
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB removable media
restriction policy?
A. Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting the
ports
B. Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly verifying that
it is enforced
C. Placing systems into locked, key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports
D. Installing an endpoint agent to detect connectivity of USB and removable media
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting
the ports
Explanation:
The question is asking for two specific requirements for the solution:
1. A solution that's cost-effective
2. A solution that's a physical control
The option to implement a GPO (B) and installing an endpoint agent (D) are software-based implementations,
while in the case of the GPO being cost-effective, they do not address the physical control requirement for the
solution.
Option C would address the requirement as a physical control by preventing users from physically access the
USB port and likely the best out all of the given options, however, this option is not cheapest so it's not
addressing the cost-effectiveness required for the solution.
Only option A would address each requirement of the solution being a cost-effective physical control that can
be implemented.
Question: 45
CertyIQ
A company suspects that some corporate accounts were compromised. The number of suspicious logins from
locations not recognized by the users is increasing.
Employees who travel need their accounts protected without the risk of blocking legitimate login requests that
may be made over new sign-in properties. Which of the following security controls can be implemented?
A. Enforce MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold.
B. Implement geofencing to only allow access from headquarters.
C. Enforce time-based login requests that align with business hours.
D. Shift the access control scheme to a discretionary access control.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enforce MFA is the most convenient way
Question: 46
CertyIQ
An organization wants to participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups. Which of the
following would MOST likely meet the organization's requirement?
A. Perform OSINT investigations.
B. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds.
C. Submit RFCs.
D. Implement a TAXII server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A TAXII server is a client that exchanges standardized and anonymized cyber threat intelligence among users.
It works as a venue for sharing and collecting Indicators of compromise, which have been anonymized to
protect privacy
Question: 47
CertyIQ
Which of the following is the MOST effective control against zero-day vulnerabilities?
A. Network segmentation
B. Patch management
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Multiple vulnerability scanners
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPS can only protect against known host and application-based attacks and exploits. IPS inspects traffic
against signatures and anomalies, it does cover a broad spectrum of attack types, most of them signaturebased, and signatures alone cannot protect against zero-day attacks. (www.rawcode7.medium.com) However,
with network segmentation, you're able to isolate critical assets into different segments. And when a zero-day
attack occurs, you're not at risk of losing all and are able to isolate the attack's effect to one segment
Question: 48
CertyIQ
Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern when outsourcing code development to third-party
contractors for an internet-facing application?
A. Intellectual property theft
B. Elevated privileges
C. Unknown backdoor
D. Quality assurance
Answer: C
Explanation:
GREATEST security concern would be unknown backdoor
Question: 49
CertyIQ
An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security posture. Which of the following will the
blue team do after detecting an IoC?
A. Reimage the impacted workstations.
B. Activate runbooks for incident response.
C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system.
D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Incident is detected, now incident response has to happen. Runbook describes everyone's roles during
incident response.
2. B is correct
Question: 50
CertyIQ
An amusement park is implementing a biometric system that validates customers' fingerprints to ensure they are
not sharing tickets. The park's owner values customers above all and would prefer customers' convenience over
security. For this reason, which of the following features should the security team prioritize
FIRST?
A. Low FAR
B. Low efficacy
C. Low FRR
D. Low CER
Answer: C
Explanation:
FAR (False Acceptance Rate)
FRR (False Rejection Rate)
CER (Crossover Error Rate)
AKA ERR (Equal Error Rate)
since he is willing to sacrifice Security for Customer Service, Best way to understand this is.
FAR has to go up in order for FRR to go down. typical business practice is in the middle of both which would
be near the CER
Question: 51
CertyIQ
Which of the following organizations sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems?
A. ISO
B. GDPR
C. PCI DSS
D. NIST
Answer: D
Explanation:
ISO is for all standards, not only security, whereas NIST is only related to security
Question: 52
CertyIQ
An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted. The files have been recovered
from backup, but every time the Chief Financial
Officer logs in to the file server, the same files are deleted again. No other users are experiencing this issue. Which
of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this behavior?
A. Logic bomb
B. Cryptomalware
C. Spyware
D. Remote access Trojan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Logic bomb: a set of instructions secretly incorporated into a program so that if a particular condition is
satisfied they will be carried out, usually with harmful effects
Question: 53
CertyIQ
A security analyst has identified malware spreading through the corporate network and has activated the CSIRT.
Which of the following should the analyst do
NEXT?
A. Review how the malware was introduced to the network.
B. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.
C. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged.
D. Update all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response cycle, step 2 identification > step 3 containment
Question: 54
CertyIQ
During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and implemented
ACLs on each critical server. Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still vulnerable because
outbound traffic is not restricted, and the adversary is able to maintain a presence in the network.
In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Actions on objective
D. Exploitation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Command and control (C2)—establishment of outbound communications from a victim system for secure
communications between victim and adversary systems. Compromised hosts typically beacon out and await
further instruction or exploit when higher order interaction or data exchange is required. This is the hallmark
of advanced persistent threat (APT) attacks and data exfiltration
Question: 55
CertyIQ
A recent security breach exploited software vulnerabilities in the firewall and within the network management
solution. Which of the following will MOST likely be used to identify when the breach occurred through each
device?
A. SIEM correlation dashboards
B. Firewall syslog event logs
C. Network management solution login audit logs
D. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors
Answer: A
Explanation:
SIEM could tell when the breach occurred in firewall AND in network management solution
Question: 56
CertyIQ
Which of the following is the FIRST environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced?
A. Stage
B. Development
C. Production
D. Test
Answer: B
Explanation:
Development
The developer has to start writing secure code from beginning itself. Which will then be tested, staged and
finally production
Question: 57
CertyIQ
A cloud service provider has created an environment where customers can connect existing local networks to the
cloud for additional computing resources and block internal HR applications from reaching the cloud. Which of the
following cloud models is being used?
A. Public
B. Community
C. Hybrid
D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hybrid cloud since internal network and cloud computing is combined
Question: 58
CertyIQ
An organization has developed an application that needs a patch to fix a critical vulnerability. In which of the
following environments should the patch be deployed
LAST?
A. Test
B. Staging
C. Development
D. Production
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. LAST place to deploy the patch is production
2. answer (D.Producation ) The production environment is the live system. Software,patches, and other
changes that have been tested andapproved move to production.reference : CompTIA® Security+®Study
GuideExam SY0-601Eighth Edition by Mike ChappleDavid Seidl
Question: 59
CertyIQ
An organization is building backup server rooms in geographically diverse locations. The Chief Information
Security Officer implemented a requirement on the project that states the new hardware cannot be susceptible to
the same vulnerabilities in the existing server room. Which of the following should the systems engineer consider?
A. Purchasing hardware from different vendors
B. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure
C. Implementing a robust patch management solution
D. Designing new detective security controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. "....that states the new hardware cannot be susceptible to the same vulnerabilities..." emphasis on the new
hardware!
2. different vendors, different products, different vulns on the devices. if you have all cisco equipment the
vulns on the switches are the same.
Question: 60
CertyIQ
A security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications and
provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected.
Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely implementing?
A. Vulnerability scans
B. User behavior analysis
C. Security orchestration, automation, and response
D. Threat hunting
Answer: B
Explanation:
User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA), or user behavior analytics (UBA), is a type of cybersecurity solution
or feature that discovers threats by identifying activity that deviates from a normal baseline. While UEBA can
be used for a variety of reasons, it is most commonly used to monitor and detect unusual traffic patterns,
unauthorized data access and movement, or suspicious or malicious activity on a computer network or
endpoints.
Question: 61
CertyIQ
Data exfiltration analysis indicates that an attacker managed to download system configuration notes from a web
server. The web-server logs have been deleted, but analysts have determined that the system configuration notes
were stored in the database administrator's folder on the web server. Which of the following attacks explains what
occurred? (Choose two.)
A. Pass-the-hash
B. Directory traversal
C. SQL injection
D. Privilege escalation
E. Cross-site scripting
F. Request forgery
Answer: BD
Explanation:
The simplest example of a directory traversal attack is when an application displays or allows the user to
download a file via a URL parameter
Question: 62
CertyIQ
A junior security analyst is conducting an analysis after passwords were changed on multiple accounts without
users' interaction. The SIEM have multiple login entries with the following text: suspicious event - user:
scheduledtasks successfully authenticate on AD on abnormal time suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed
to execute c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks
failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh suspicious event - user:
scheduledtasks successfully executed c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py
Which of the following is the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment?
A. Malicious script
B. Privilege escalation
C. Domain hijacking
D. DNS poisoning
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is obviously A, malicious script. Look at the name of the script that is running: "amazing-3rdparty-domainassessment.py" I'm sure they used the word amazing in the file name so that the script appears as a malicious
script that is disguised as a 3rd party domain assessment script
Question: 63
CertyIQ
A customer service representative reported an unusual text message that was sent to the help desk. The message
contained an unrecognized invoice number with a large balance due and a link to click for more details. Which of
the following BEST describes this technique?
A. Vishing
B. Whaling
C. Phishing
D. Smishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pretty straightforward. Smishing, a portmanteau of SMS and phishing, is a specific type of phishing done via
text messaging, and it's commonly used to orchestrate invoice scams or otherwise harvest credentials
Question: 64
CertyIQ
Which of the following actions would be recommended to improve an incident response process?
A. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents.
B. Modify access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets.
C. Contact the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected.
D. Restrict communication surrounding the response to the IT team.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct. this training can help CSIRT to know whether to trigger IR mechanisms and reduce instances of
false alert. With B - I don't really see why giving the IT team access can be beneficial, as this could very likely
violate least privilege principle
Question: 65
CertyIQ
A cybersecurity administrator needs to implement a Layer 7 security control on a network and block potential
attacks. Which of the following can block an attack at
Layer 7? (Choose two.)
A. HIDS
B. NIPS
C. HSM
D. WAF
E. NAC
F. NIDS
Answer: BD
Explanation:
B & D seems correct, it has to BLOCK the traffic remember
Question: 66
CertyIQ
A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across all
locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random intervals,
typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day, impacting all
inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi network are not
impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected.
Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit the SIP
protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads. Which of the following BEST
describe this type of attack? (Choose two.)
A. DoS
B. SSL stripping
C. Memory leak
D. Race condition
E. Shimming
F. Refactoring
Answer: AC
Explanation:
1. A. DoS is correct, this is a denial of service attack.B. SSL stripping is incorrect, nothing to do with the issue
at handC. Memory leak is correct, with the information at hand, we know that the issue is occurring
“randomly”, randomly does not indicate a race condition, it indicates that the memory is being filled over as
voip traffic is initiated. D. Race condition is incorrect, there isn't enough information outlined to point to it
being a race condition.E. Shimming is incorrect, has nothing to do with credit cardsF. Refactoring is typically
found in drivers to make the malware look legitimate.
2. Pretty confident the answer is A and C Too little information for it to be race condition
Question: 67
CertyIQ
An organization has activated an incident response plan due to a malware outbreak on its network. The
organization has brought in a forensics team that has identified an internet-facing Windows server as the likely
point of initial compromise. The malware family that was detected is known to be distributed by manually logging
on to servers and running the malicious code. Which of the following actions would be BEST to prevent reinfection
from the infection vector?
A. Prevent connections over TFTP from the internal network.
B. Create a firewall rule that blocks a 22 from the internet to the server.
C. Disable file sharing over port 445 to the server.
D. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. The SMB Protocol (in all its version) doesn't provide functionality to execute files at the remote systems. Its
main objective is to support the sharing of file and print resource between machines.The only feasible option
left is loggin through RDP and manually executing the file.Correct me if I am wrong
2. Read carefully on "to be distributed by manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code" it's
mean using RDP. simple way to prevent is by blocked the RDP port
Question: 68
CertyIQ
Which of the following uses SAML for authentication?
A. TOTP
B. Federation
C. Kerberos
D. HOTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: B: Federation, or identity federation, defines policies, protocols, and practices to manage identities
across systems and organizations. Federation’s ultimate goal is to allow users to seamlessly access data or
systems across domains. Federation is enabled through the use of industry standards such as Security
Assertion Markup Language (SAML
Question: 69
CertyIQ
The SOC for a large MSSP is meeting to discuss the lessons learned from a recent incident that took much too
long to resolve. This type of incident has become more common in recent weeks and is consuming large amounts
of the analysts' time due to manual tasks being performed. Which of the following solutions should the SOC
consider to BEST improve its response time?
A. Configure a NIDS appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer.
B. Collect OSINT and catalog the artifacts in a central repository.
C. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks.
D. Install a SIEM with community-driven threat intelligence.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) Can use either playbook or runbook. It assists in
collecting threat related data from a range of sources and automate responses to low level threats. (frees up
some of the CSIRT time)
Question: 70
CertyIQ
Business partners are working on a security mechanism to validate transactions securely. The requirement is for
one company to be responsible for deploying a trusted solution that will register and issue artifacts used to sign,
encrypt, and decrypt transaction files. Which of the following is the BEST solution to adopt?
A. PKI
B. Blockchain
C. SAML
D. OAuth
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer is PKI. PKI involves one trusted third-party or middleman which is the company. Blockchain is a
decentralized or distributed system. I think some people lean towards Blockchian as the answer due to "valid
transaction" being mentioned which I understand but I will go with "A - PKI"
Question: 71
CertyIQ
A security analyst has been asked by the Chief Information Security Officer to:
✑ develop a secure method of providing centralized management of infrastructure
✑ reduce the need to constantly replace aging end user machines
✑ provide a consistent user desktop experience
Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
A. BYOD
B. Mobile device management
C. VDI
D. Containerization
Answer: C
Explanation:
C VDI - "consistent user desktop experience
Question: 72
CertyIQ
Which of the following terms describes a broad range of information that is sensitive to a specific organization?
A. Public
B. Top secret
C. Proprietary
D. Open-source
Answer: C
Explanation:
Professor Messer notes:
• Proprietary
– Data that is the property of an organization
– May also include trade secrets
– Often data unique to an organization
Question: 73
CertyIQ
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned that cloud-based services are not adequately protected from
advanced threats and malware. The CSO believes there is a high risk that a data breach could occur in the near
future due to the lack of detective and preventive controls. Which of the following should be implemented to BEST
address the CSO's concerns? (Choose two.)
A. A WAF
B. A CASB
C. An NG-SWG
D. Segmentation
E. Encryption
F. Containerization
Answer: BC
Explanation:
NG-SWG -> NG SWG) is designed to address the key cloud and web security use cases encompassing
granular policy controls, web filtering, threat protection, and data protection spanning managed and
unmanaged apps, cloud services, and web traffic. CASB The CASB serves as a policy enforcement center,
consolidating multiple types of security policy enforcement and applying them to everything your business
utilizes in the cloud—regardless of what sort of device is attempting to access it, including unmanaged
smartphones, IoT devices, or personal laptops
Question: 74
CertyIQ
An organization is planning to roll out a new mobile device policy and issue each employee a new laptop. These
laptops would access the users' corporate operating system remotely and allow them to use the laptops for
purposes outside of their job roles. Which of the following deployment models is being utilized?
A. MDM and application management
B. BYOD and containers
C. COPE and VDI
D. CYOD and VMs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bring your own device (BYOD)—the mobile device is owned by the employee. The mobile will have to meet
whatever profile is required by the company (in terms of OS version and functionality) and the employee will
have to agree on the installation of corporate apps and to some level of oversight and auditing. This model is
usually the most popular with employees but poses the most difficulties for security and network managers.
Corporate owned, business only (COBO)—the device is the property of the company and may only be used for
company business. Corporate owned, personally-enabled (COPE)—the device is chosen and supplied by the
company and remains its property. The employee may use it to access personal email and social media
accounts and for personal web browsing (subject to whatever acceptable use policies are in force). Choose
your own device (CYOD)—much the same as COPE but the employee is given a choice of device from a list
Question: 75
CertyIQ
Certain users are reporting their accounts are being used to send unauthorized emails and conduct suspicious
activities. After further investigation, a security analyst notices the following:
✑ All users share workstations throughout the day.
✑ Endpoint protection was disabled on several workstations throughout the network.
✑ Travel times on logins from the affected users are impossible.
✑ Sensitive data is being uploaded to external sites.
All user account passwords were forced to be reset and the issue continued.
Which of the following attacks is being used to compromise the user accounts?
A. Brute-force
B. Keylogger
C. Dictionary
D. Rainbow
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Keylogger would be the reason of why even after resetting the passwords the issue persisted. There is no
information about the password itself that would allows to determine if any brute force attack method is
being used
Question: 76
CertyIQ
A security forensics analyst is examining a virtual server. The analyst wants to preserve the present state of the
virtual server, including memory contents. Which of the following backup types should be used?
A. Snapshot
B. Differential
C. Cloud
D. Full
E. Incremental
Answer: A
Explanation:
A snapshot preserves the state and data of a virtual machine at a specific point in time. The state includes the
virtual machine’s power state (for example, powered-on, powered-off, suspended). The data includes all of the
files that make up the virtual machine. This includes disks, memory, and other devices, such as virtual network
interface cards. A virtual machine provides several operations for creating and managing snapshots and
snapshot chains. These operations let you create snapshots, revert to any snapshot in the chain, and remove
snapshots. You can create extensive snapshot trees
Question: 77
CertyIQ
After returning from a conference, a user's laptop has been operating slower than normal and overheating, and the
fans have been running constantly. During the diagnosis process, an unknown piece of hardware is found
connected to the laptop's motherboard. Which of the following attack vectors was exploited to install the
hardware?
A. Removable media
B. Spear phishing
C. Supply chain
D. Direct access
Answer: D
Explanation:
D because no hardware can be installed on the motherboard unless the perpetrator had direct access to the
machine
Question: 78
CertyIQ
After a recent security breach, a security analyst reports that several administrative usernames and passwords are
being sent via cleartext across the network to access network devices over port 23. Which of the following should
be implemented so all credentials sent over the network are encrypted when remotely accessing and configuring
network devices?
A. SSH
B. SNMPv3
C. SFTP
D. Telnet
E. FTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Telnet (port 23) is insecure and should be replaced with SSH (port 22)
Question: 79
CertyIQ
Which of the following provides a calculated value for known vulnerabilities so organizations can prioritize
mitigation steps?
A. CVSS
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. CVE
Answer: A
Explanation:
CVSS is maintained by the Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams (first.org/cvss). CVSS metrics
generate a score from 0 to 10 based on characteristics of the vulnerability, such as whether it can be triggered
remotely or needs local access, whether user intervention is required, and so on.
Question: 80
CertyIQ
Several universities are participating in a collaborative research project and need to share compute and storage
resources. Which of the following cloud deployment strategies would BEST meet this need?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Public
D. Hybrid
Answer: A
Explanation:
A - Community " share compute and storage resources”
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