ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test booklet contains 100 test questions.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will
invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet set.
2. Write the subject title on your box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A, Set B if your test booklet is
Set B.
1. Of the following, this sport has been found to encourage eating disorders MOST, due to its emphasis
on weight:
A. Volleyball
B. High jumping
C. Cycling
D. Wrestling
E. Gymnastics
2. Which of the following dissociative disorders is now considered a specifier in the DSM-5?
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Dissociative fugue
C. Dissociative identity disorder
D. Depersonalization
E. Derealization
3. Which of the following is a recognized exception to the clinician’s confidentiality obligation and does
not require patient consent to release information?
A. Providing information to a patient’s employer
B. Providing information to a patient’s attorney
C. Providing information to a deceased patient’s spouse
D. Discovering that a patient may be abusing a child and reporting the abuse to a social service
agency
E. Providing information to an insurance company
4. Exposure and response prevention therapy works most effectively for this disorder:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Specific phobia
C. Panic disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
E. Posttraumatic stress disorder
5. Treatment forms such as object relations, attachment-based approaches, and self-psychology have
developed out of this model/perspective of abnormality.
A. Cognitive
B. Psychodynamic
C. Humanistic
D. Behavioral
E. Biological
6. This theory of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) suggests that both conscious and unconscious
thoughts of people with GAD are focused of threat:
A. Humanistic
B. Psychodynamic
C. Existential
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D. Behavioral
E. Cognitive
7. The applied tension technique is most appropriately utilized in what type of specific phobia?
A. Natural environment
B. Blood-injection-injury
C. Animal
D. Situational
8. A patient displays periods of mood disturbance with psychosis and psychosis without mood
disturbance over the past three years.
A. Brief psychotic disorder
B. Delusional disorder
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Schizophreniform disorder
9. What is common/normal experience involving dissociation?
A. Remembering the past so vividly one seems to be reliving it
B. Being so involved in fantasy that it seems real
C. Seeing oneself as if looking at another person
D. Feeling as though the person himself/herself were two different people
E. All of the above
10. Patients with this personality disorder exude a sense of entitlement with the expectation of special
favors but without assuming reciprocal responsibilities:
A. Antisocial
B. Borderline
C. Narcissistic
D. Paranoid
E. Schizoid
11. Of the substances associated with the onset of intellectual disability, the one which has the most
well-documented negative effects is:
A. Cocaine
B. Heroin
C. Alcohol
D. Nicotine
E. Marijuana
12. Which of the following theories has been proposed to explain the cause of schizophrenia?
A. Schizophrenogenic caregivers
B. Expressed-emotion
C. Double-bind
D. Communication deviance
E. All of the above
13. A significant percentage of those with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and oppositional
defiant disorder will eventually be diagnosed with this disorder:
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Conduct disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Substance use disorder
E. Bipolar disorder
14. Cognitive theorists suggest that people with this personality disorder harbor beliefs such as “people
with flaws, defects or mistakes are intolerable:”
A. Schiziod p.d.
B. Dependent p.d.
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C. Narcissistic p.d.
D. Obsessive-compulsive p.d.
E. Avoidant p.d.
15. The theory of schizophrenia currently with the MOST research support is:
A. Expressed-emotion
B. Double-mind
C. Schizophrenogenic mothers
D. Communication deviance
E. None of the above
16. Although using psychotherapeutic techniques for treatment have not been previously successful for
personality disorders, a number of therapies have been developed and found to have made significant
improvements in behaviors of people with the disorder:
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Avoidant personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
E. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
17. Cognitive theories regarding this disorder view patients as rigid and moralistic in their thinking, and
who view intrusive thoughts as unacceptable and feel guilty about them:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Posttraumatic stress disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Separation anxiety disorder
E. Panic disorder
18. From a socio-cultural perspective, the following disorders can be greatly influenced by low
socio-economic status except:
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Depressive disorder
C. Mental retardation/intellectual disability
D. Schizophrenia
E. Antisocial personality disorder
19. The following statements are true of malingering except:
A. There is conscious intent to deceive others.
B. Patients deliberately fake their illness.
C. It has medical treatment.
D. True malingering rarely is seen.
E. They may have antisocial personality disorder.
20. A 40-year-old is referred from his workplace for a psychiatric evaluation. His colleagues noted him to
be “bizarre” and “eccentric, suspicious, of others.” On assessment, it appears this individual has some
ideas of reference and believes in therapy. His speech was over-elaborate and circumstantial. His affect
was constricted and his behavior peculiar. He remained anxious and uncomfortable throughout the
interview. A detailed mental status assessment does not reveal any evidence of schizophrenia, mood
disorders with psychotic features, or any psychotic disorders. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Schizoid personality disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Paranoid personality disorder
E. Avoidant personality disorder
21. In this personality disorder, patients believe they are social inept, personality unappealing, or inferior
to others:
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A. Antisocial p.d.
B. Avoidant p.d.
C. Histrionic p.d.
D. Paranoid p.d.
E. Schizotypal p.d.
22. What is the most common defense mechanism in patients with paranoid personality disorder?
A. Regression
B. Repression
C. Denial
D. Projection
E. Reaction formation
23. Which of the following are possible theories for the cause(s) of paranoid PD?
A. Modeling from the family.
B. Cultural groupings have no effect.
C. It has been definitively linked to childhood sexual abuse.
D. A defect in chromosome pair 6.
24. In this category of disorders, children are thought to display deficits in a “theory of mind:”
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Intellectual disability
C. Motor disorder
D. Specific learning disorder
E. Communication disorder
25. Patients with this type of specific phobia are more prone to fainting spells:
A. Natural environment
B. Blood-injection-injury
C. Animal
D. Situational
26. Interpersonal social rhythm therapy (ISRT) has been found to be effective for people with this
disorder:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Autism spectrum disorder
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
E. Intellectual disability
27. Token economies can benefit patients with which category of disorders?
A. Neurodevelopmental disorders
B. Neurocognitive disorders
C. Schizophrenic spectrum disorder
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C
28. Males are more prone to the following problem/conditions related to mental disorders except:
A. Problems with sustaining attention
B. Obsessive-compulsive behavior
C. Suicidality in old age
D. Concerns about weight gain
E. Earlier onset of schizophrenia
29. Genes are biological factors in feeding and eating disorders carry a specific risk for which disorder?
A. Binge-eating disorder
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Rumination disorder
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E. None of the above
30. This pair of disorders typically occurs after a traumatic experience:
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorders and posttraumatic stress disorder
B. Acute stress disorder and dissociative amnesia
C. Social anxiety disorder and panic stress disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder
E. Acute stress disorder and generalized anxiety disorder
31. In a particular personality disorder, this therapy/intervention is conducted in a group setting:
A. Mentalization-based treatment
B. Dialectical behavior therapy
C. STEPPS
D. Transference-focused therapy
E. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
32. In this neurodevelopmental disorder, behaviors such as body rocking, self-biting, and hitting one’s
own body are typical behaviors:
A. Tourette’s disorder
B. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. Developmental coordination disorder
D. Intellectual disability
E. Stereotypic movement disorder
33. The following are predatory paraphilic disorders except:
A. Frotteuristic disorder
B. Pedophilic disorder
C. Exhibitionistic disorder
D. Fetishistic disorder
E. Voyeuristic disorder
34. The following are psychological factors that lead to sexual dysfunction except:
A. Presence of an anxiety disorder
B. Performance anxiety
C. Spectatoring
D. Belief that sex is beneficial to health
E. Alcohol consumption
35. In this theory of schizophrenia, families are simultaneously overprotective and critical of a family
member with the mental illness:
A. Expressed-emotion
B. Double-mind
C. Schizophrenogenic mothers
D. Communication deviance
E. None of the above
36. Mr. P. comes to the ER intoxicated, and the resident learns he has a long history of alcohol and drug
abuse. What personality disorder would he probably have if he were diagnosed as having one?
A. Dependent
B. Antisocial
C. Schizoid
D. Paranoid
E. Schizotypal
37. A 45-year-old male is seen by a neurologist for “severe tension headaches.” The neurologist finds the
patient to be anxious and has a tightened grip. The patient further mentions that he was involved in a
bus accident and was trapped in the bus for several hours before he was rescued. This happened 5
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months ago, and since then, he has not been able to ride public transportation because he is ‘scared’
and has nightmares about the accident. He also complains of difficulty in sleeping, inability to
concentrate at work, and feels nervous and on edge all the time and cannot relax his muscles. He avoids
watching news programs on television that feature vehicular accidents. What is the patient’s most likely
diagnosis?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. PTSD
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Panic disorder
38. When patients with schizophrenia are viewed as attributing internal phenomena (e.g., hallucinations)
to external experiences, this is related to which type of theory?
A. Behavioral
B. Sociocultural
C. Expressed emotion
D. Cognitive
E. Family systems
39. Self-talk, repeating phrases to help avoid reacting negatively to situations, is an effective
cognitive-behavioral therapeutic technique for?
A. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder
B. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and conduct disorder
C. Oppositional defiant disorder and attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
D. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and autism spectrum disorder
E. Autism spectrum disorder and conduct disorder
40. All of the following are true of schizophrenia except:
A. Stressful life events appear to trigger schizophrenia at an earlier age in vulnerable individuals
B. Equally prevalent in both men and women
C. Males have an later age of onset compared to females
D. Substance abuse is common in patients with schizophrenia
41. All of the following are characteristic features of conversion disorder except:
A. Patients are usually suggestible
B. Symptoms appear or are worsened following severe stress
C. Patients believe that they have serious underlying illness
D. Usually occurs between the age of 10 to 15 years
42. This therapeutic technique emphasizes the patient’s need to recognize bodily processes such as “gut”
feelings that have been blocked off from awareness:
A. Client-centered therapy
B. Rational-emotive behavior therapy
C. Motivational interviewing
D. Gestalt therapy
E. Behavioral therapy
43. Phenylketonuria, an inability to break down as essential amino acid found in milk and milk products,
is a typical biological factor in:
A. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B. Autism spectrum disorder
C. Tic disorder
D. Intellectual disability
E. Specific learning disorder
44. According to cognitive theorists, certain people tend to process information about social interactions
in ways that promote aggressive reactions/behavior; this is true for what disorder?
A. Intermittent explosive disorder
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B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
45. From a cognitive standpoint, people with depressive disorders think or perceive in the following ways
except:
A. They view the world through a negative cognitive triad.
B. They view uncontrollable events more accurately than those who are not depressed.
C. They explain negative events in terms of internal, stable and global causal attributions.
D. They perceive events beyond their control less accurately than those without depression.
E. Instead of doing something about their problems, they tend to ruminate on them.
46. Which of the following are usually found in patients with persistent depressive disorder?
A. Disturbed appetite and libido
B. Psychomotor retardation of agitation
C. Low energy and low self-esteem
D. Anxiety
E. Nihilistic psychotic features
47. It is the most common type of delusional disorder:
A. Jealous
B. Grandiose
C. Erotomanic
D. Persecutory
E. Somatic
48. Patients who have a defective capacity to form social relationships are mainly diagnosed as
displaying:
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Narcissistic personality disorder
D. Paranoid personality disorder
E. Schizoid personality disorder
49. At what age is it common to see normal separation anxiety?
A. 5 months
B. 9 months
C. 18 months
D. 2 years
E. 5 years
50. A 30-year-old male comes in reluctantly to see a psychiatrist because his family believes he has
mental illness. The patient, however, thinks he is fine. The family members report that as far as they can
remember, the patient has little interest in meeting others, pleasurable activities, or having
girlfriends/sexual relationships. He often appears detached, prefers solitary activities, and does not have
a desire for close relationships. A detailed mental status assessment does not reveal any evidence of
schizophrenia, mood disorders with psychotic features, or any psychotic disorders. What is the patient’s
most likely diagnosis?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Schizoid personality disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Dependent personality disorder
E. Obsessive- compulsive personality disorder
51. Using the drug Ant abuse to treat alcohol use disorder is an example of this form of behavior
therapy:
A. Systematic desensitization
B. Response shaping
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C. Flooding
D. Aversion therapy
E. In vivo exposure
52. Habit reversal therapy has been found to be effective in this category of neurodevelopmental
disorders:
A. Intellectual disability
B. Tic disorders
C. Autism spectrum disorder
D. Communication disorder
E. Specific learning disorder
53. This therapeutic technique often involves rationally disputing or confronting a person’s false beliefs
A. Client-centered therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Motivational therapy
D. Psychodynamic therapy
E. Rational-emotive behavior therapy
54. While Freud suggested this personality disorder is a result of fixation on an earlier phase of
psychosexual development, Horney saw it as a reaction formation against the problem of self-worth:
A. Antisocial p.d.
B. Borderline p.d.
C. Obsessive-compulsive p.d.
D. Narcissistic p.d.
E. Dependent p.d.
55. The following defense mechanism is involved in dramatic-emotional-erratic personality disorders:
A. Acting out
B. Splitting
C. Denial
D. Dissociation
E. All of the above
56. Which is a diagnostic symptom of histrionic PD?
A. Auditory hallucination
B. Anhedonia
C. Recurrent self-mutilating behavior
D. Pressured speech
E. Inappropriately sexually seductive or provocative behavior
57. All of the following are considered as negative symptoms of schizophrenia except:
A. Apathy
B. Affect flattening
C. Delusions
D. Anhedonia
58. An example of a skill in the practical domain among patients with the intellectual disability:
A. Understanding others’ experiences
B. Problem solving
C. Making social judgments
D. Regulating own social interactions
E. Managing personal care
59. Which of the following treatments requires that a clinician obtain written informed consent from a
patient?
A. Behavior therapy
B. Group therapy
C. Supportive psychotherapy
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D. Making the patient join a self-help group
E. Use of medication
60. Severe amphetamine intoxication can produce all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Hypervigilance
C. Constricted pupils
D. Elevated pulse
E. Hypertension
61. Which of the following conditions are associated with a higher risk of depression?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Stroke
D. All of the above
62. Which of the following is correct about those suffering from body dysmorphic disorder?
A. Sudden onset of symptoms
B. They conceptualize the problem as only physical in nature
C. Surgery usually is successful
D. Surgery does not affect the development of psychiatric symptoms
E. Patients rarely retain bodily preoccupations even after treatment
63. Obsessions regarding contamination are associated with which compulsive behavior?
A. Checking behavior
B. Counting behavior
C. Hand washing
D. Arranging and rearranging objects
64. The cognitive perspective suggests that this diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia arises from
expectations that social interactions will be aversive, resulting in the need to conserve scarce cognitive
resources:
A. Disorganized behavior
B. Delusions
C. Hallucinations
D. Negative symptoms
65. Theoretically, the cognitive explanation for this personality disorder is that is a result of a basic belief
that others are malevolent and deceptive, but one is not confident in defending oneself against them:
A. Antisocial p.d.
B. Paranoid p.d.
C. Borderline p.d.
D. Schizoid p.d.
E. Avoidant p.d.
66. Cognitive theorists suggest that people catastrophize their symptoms in this category of disorders:
A. Factitious
B. Anxiety
C. Eating
D. Bipolar
E. Personality
67. In this anxiety disorder, patients in therapy are given role-playing and relaxation exercises, and are
coached by a therapist, often in a group setting for modeling and feedback purposes:
A. Panic disorder
B. Agoraphobia
C. Separation anxiety disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
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E. Generalized anxiety disorder
68. What do patients with dissociative identity disorder and borderline personality disorder have in
common?
A. Chronic feelings of emptiness
B. Self-mutilating behavior
C. They engage in frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment
D. Two or more personalities alternate control over the individual’s behavior
E. Difficulty controlling anger
69. An acutely psychotic woman with schizophrenia is voluntarily admitted to the hospital. After a history
and physical examination are completed, the clinician recommends medication, which the patient
promptly refuses. Which of the following steps would the clinician take next?
A. Contact a family member and discuss one’s recommendations to get consent.
B. Insist that the medication be given without the patient’s consent.
C. Consider the patient competent and convene an administrative panel to determine the need
for involuntary medication.
D. Conduct an interview to determine if a patient is competent to consent or refuse medication.
70. Which of the following disorders is characterized by obsessive-compulsive symptoms?
A. Trichotillomania
B. Gambling disorder
C. Pyromania
D. Kleptomania
71. You are asked to assess a 28-year-old woman who is waiting for stitches for a wrist laceration. She
has been in the hospital ER seven times previously for self-inflicted wrist lacerations. She reports rapid
mood swings, impulsivity, a chronic feeling of emptiness, and periods in which she feels paranoid when
under stress. Which diagnosis seems most appropriate?
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Paranoid personality disorder
E. Schizoid personality disorder
72. Which of the following is used in the first line treatment of OCD?
A. Avoidance of stressful stimuli
B. Neurosurgery
C. In vivo exposure therapy
D. Lithium
73. Cognitive theorists view patients with this disorder as people who experience bodily symptoms more
intensely than other people:
A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Factitious disorder
D. Body dysmorphic disorder
E. Generalized anxiety disorder
74. Which of the following is a primary defense mechanism in anxious and fearful personality disorders?
A. Isolation
B. Denial
C. Fantasy
D. Projection
E. Dissociation
75. Object-relations theorists suggest that this personality disorder stems from a “poorly developed and
integrated view of the self” mainly due to poor early relationships with caregivers:
A. Schizotypal p.d.
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B. Schizoid p.d.
C. Obsessive-compulsive p.d.
D. Borderline p.d.
E. Antisocial p.d.
76. This theory / model for explaining panic disorder suggests that those with the disorder are born with
an overactive fight-or-flight response, but don’t develop it unless something triggers such an overactive
reaction:
A. Humanistic
B. Cognitive
C. Vulnerability-stress
D. Behavioral
E. Psychodynamic
77. Which of the following symptoms has to be present to diagnose major depressive disorder?
A. Depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure
B. Lack of energy or motivation
C. Lack of appetite
D. Hopelessness
E. Guilt or worthlessness
78. A 65-year-old attorney is spending time with his family and his 18-month-old granddaughter. When
the child is given to him, he holds her at arm’s length, obviously uncomfortable, and at dinner when she
is crying, he snaps, “Act like a young lady.” He prides himself in his accounting skills and the fact that he
has never made a mistake on any forms. When confronted with clients who contest wills by their family
members, he advises, “You should relate to your family more,” without explaining further. He is stubborn
and cold, but not mean. His symptoms are most characteristic of what disorder?
A. Narcissistic PD
B. Obsessive-compulsive PD
C. Intermittent explosive disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
E. Schizotypal PD
79. Which pair of therapeutic techniques is effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder?
A. Aversion therapy and modeling
B. Systematic desensitization and imaginal exposure
C. Aversion therapy and flooding
D. Systematic desensitization and in vivo exposure
E. Token economy and modeling
80. Primary gain and secondary gain and usually associated with this disorder:
A. Panic disorder
B. Somatic symptom disorder
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Conversion disorder
E. Dissociative amnesia
81. One effective therapeutic technique for this disorder involves keeping the caregiver and the patient
apart for increasing periods of time until the patient is able to manage without the caregiver being
around all the time:
A. Panic disorder
B. Agoraphobia
C. Separation anxiety disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
E. Generalized anxiety disorder
82. Mr. H. is a 45-year-old criminal with a diagnosis of antisocial PD. What is the primary behavioral
pathology of patients with this disorder?
A. Mistrust of the motives of others
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B. Social anxiety
C. Overly deliberate planning
D. Disregard and violation of others’ rights
E. Constricted affect
83. In factitious disorder:
A. Symptoms are not under the patient’s control
B. The primary goal of the symptoms is secondary gain (e.g., in this case, financial gain)
C. The physician may become the perpetual object of transference
D. Substance addiction is rare
E. None of the above
84. Persons who experience others as either ‘all good’ or ‘all bad’ and cannot experience an ambivalent
relationship are exhibiting which of the following mechanisms?
A. Denial
B. Identification
C. Projection
D. Regression
E. Splitting
85. Psychodynamic theorists attribute this act to repressed rage, leading to self-destruction
A. Drug abuse
B. Homicide
C. Suicide
D. Abuse of children
E. Theft
86. This defense mechanism is said to be involved in the development of specific phobias:
A. Intellectualization
B. Identification
C. Displacement
D. Reaction-formation
E. Isolation
87. All of the following features predict a good prognosis in patients with schizophrenia except:
A. Acute onset
B. Later age of onset
C. Negative symptoms
D. Female gender
E. Good social support
88. While riding the train, a 35-year-old man experiences intense and vivid mental images of ripping the
blouse of the elderly woman across from him. Though recognizing he would never act on such thoughts,
he becomes visibly anxious and turns away from her. This symptom is an example of a(n):
A. Intrusive image/thought
B. Delusion
C. Visual hallucination
D. Thought insertion
E. Dissociative experience
89. The following are true of motivational interviewing except:
A. Often used in treating substance use disorders or addiction
B. Influenced by Fritz Perls’ therapeutic technique
C. Brief form of therapy
D. Helps people resolve their commitment to treatment
E. Employs a direct approach exploring the client’s own reasons for wanting to change
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90. Patients with general anxiety disorder commonly seek initial psychiatric treatment for their:
A. Excessive worry
B. Muscle tension
C. Dysphoric mood
D. Insomnia
E. Phobic symptoms
91. Which of the following psychoactive substances can cause symptoms similar to depression?
A. Ecstasy
B. Opiates
C. Phencyclidine
D. LSD
E. Amphetamines
92. Mr. G. is a 19-year-old male who was just admitted to a psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of
schizophreniform disorder. The resident is taking a detailed history from the family about his premorbid
symptoms and functioning. The prodromal phase of schizophrenia commonly includes:
A. Strange ideations
B. Hallucinations
C. Delusions
D. Disorganized speech
E. Suicidal thoughts
93. A 38-year-old man is evaluated for psychiatric illness after being held hostage in a bank robbery in
which he was a customer. He feels too upset to return to work , and he is on paid leave from his job. His
request to remain on leave is an example of which of the following?
A. Phobic reaction
B Malingering
C. Perceptual distortion
D. Psychotic distortion
E. Secondary gain
94. This psychological theory for specific phobia explains the disorder in the light of fear being an
adaptive or survival mechanism
A. Negative reinforcement
B. Prepared classical conditioning
C. Observational learning
D. Catastrophizing
E. Operant conditioning
95. Cognitive theorists suggest people with this personality disorder have beliefs such as “I am needy
and weak,” which drive their behavior:
A. Schizoid p.d.
B. Dependent p.d.
C. Narcissistic p.d.
D. Obsessive-compulsive p.d.
E. Avoidant p.d.
96. The notion of a “wandering uterus” was once considered an explanation for this disorder:
A. Female orgasmic disorder
B. Gender dysphoria
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Genito-pelvic pain/ penetration disorder
E. Conversion disorder
97. A 34-year-old male is brought for a psychiatric evaluation by his wife because she believes her
husband is a very nice and caring individual but has a lot of social inhibitions and avoids activities that
involve interpersonal contacts. He is preoccupied with being criticized by others and feels inadequate.
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Although he is a good-looking intelligent man, he believes he is socially inept and will not get involved
with people unless he is certain of being liked. A detailed mental status assessment does not reveal any
evidence of schizophrenia, mood disorders with psychotic features, or any other psychotic disorders.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this subject?
A. Paranoid personality disorder
B. Avoidant personality disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
E. Histrionic personality disorder
98. If somebody is causing his viral infection in order to be the center of medical attention, the diagnosis
is:
A. Conversion disorder
B. Malingering
C. Factitious disorder
D. Somatic symptom disorder
99. The following are socio-cultural explanations as to why women are more prone to anxiety disorders
than men except:
A. They are in greater danger of physical abuse.
B. They are socially punished for exhibiting signs of anxiety.
C. They fear separation from others.
D. They are tolerated when they show signs of anxiety.
100. Which of the following types of problems do interpersonal therapists look for when treating
depressive disorders?
A. Role transitions
B. Grief / loss of loved ones
C. Deficits in interpersonal skills
D. Interpersonal role disputes
E. All of the above
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