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Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) CCZT Exam
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT)
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1.ZTA utilizes which of the following to improve the network's security posture?
A. Micro-segmentation and encryption
B. Compliance analytics and network communication
C. Network communication and micro-segmentation
D. Encryption and compliance analytics
Answer: A
Explanation:
A) Micro-segmentation and encryption Very Short Explanation = ZTA uses micro-segmentation to divide
the network into smaller, isolated segments that can prevent unauthorized access and contain lateral
movement. ZTA also uses encryption to protect data in transit and at rest from eavesdropping and
tampering. Reference = 1, 2, 3, 4
2.Scenario: A multinational org uses ZTA to enhance security. They collaborate with third-party service
providers for remote access to specific resources.
How can ZTA policies authenticate third-party users and devices for accessing resources?
A. ZTA policies can implement robust encryption and secure access controls to prevent access to
services from stolen devices, ensuring that only legitimate users can access mobile services.
B. ZTA policies should prioritize securing remote users through technologies like virtual desktop
infrastructure (VDI) and corporate cloud workstation resources to reduce the risk of lateral movement via
compromised access controls.
C. ZTA policies can be configured to authenticate third-party users and their devices, determining the
necessary access privileges for resources while concealing all other assets to minimize the attack
surface.
D. ZTA policies should primarily educate users about secure practices and promote strong authentication
for services accessed via mobile devices to prevent data compromise.
Answer: C
Explanation:
ZTA is based on the principle of never trusting any user or device by default, regardless of their location or
ownership. ZTA policies can use various methods to verify the identity and context of third-party users and
devices, such as tokens, certificates, multifactor authentication, device posture assessment, etc. ZTA
policies can also enforce granular and dynamic access policies that grant the minimum necessary
privileges to third-party users and devices for accessing specific resources, while hiding all other assets
from their view. This reduces the attack surface and prevents unauthorized access and lateral movement
within the network.
3.Which ZT tenet is based on the notion that malicious actors reside inside and outside the network?
A. Assume breach
B. Assume a hostile environment
C. Scrutinize explicitly
D. Requiring continuous monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ZT tenet of assume breach is based on the notion that malicious actors reside inside and outside the
network, and that any user, device, or service can be compromised at any time. Therefore, ZT requires
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continuous verification and validation of all entities and transactions, and does not rely on implicit trust or
perimeter-based defenses
4.During ZT planning, which of the following determines the scope of the target state definition? Select the
best answer.
A. Risk appetite
B. Risk assessment
C. Service level agreements
D. Risk register
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that an organization
faces in achieving its objectives. Risk assessment helps to determine the scope of the target state
definition for ZT planning, as it identifies the critical assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that need
to be addressed by ZT capabilities and activities. Risk assessment also helps to prioritize and align the ZT
planning with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels.
5.Of the following options, which risk/threat does SDP mitigate by mandating micro-segmentation and
implementing least privilege?
A. Identification and authentication failures
B. Injection
C. Security logging and monitoring failures
D. Broken access control
Answer: D
Explanation:
SDP mitigates the risk of broken access control by mandating micro-segmentation and implementing
least privilege. Micro-segmentation divides the network into smaller, isolated segments that can prevent
unauthorized access and contain lateral movement. Least privilege grants the minimum necessary
access to users and devices for specific resources, while hiding all other assets from their view. This
reduces the attack surface and prevents attackers from exploiting weak or misconfigured access controls
6.What should an organization's data and asset classification be based on?
A. Location of data
B. History of data
C. Sensitivity of data
D. Recovery of data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data and asset classification should be based on the sensitivity of data, which is the degree to which the
data requires protection from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure. Data sensitivity is
determined by the potential impact of data loss, theft, or corruption on the organization, its customers, and
its partners. Data sensitivity can also be influenced by legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations.
Reference =
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) prepkit, page 10, section 2.1.1
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Identify and protect sensitive business data with Zero Trust, section 1
Secure data with Zero Trust, section 1
SP 800-207, Zero Trust Architecture, page 9, section 3.2.1
7.Which security tools or capabilities can be utilized to automate the response to security events and
incidents?
A. Single packet authorization (SPA)
B. Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)
C. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
D. Security information and event management (SIEM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
SOAR is a collection of software programs developed to bolster an organization’s cybersecurity posture.
SOAR tools can automate the response to security events and incidents by executing predefined
workflows or playbooks, which can include tasks such as alert triage, threat detection, containment,
mitigation, and remediation. SOAR tools can also orchestrate the integration of various security tools and
data sources, and provide centralized dashboards and reporting for security operations.
Reference =
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) prepkit, page 23, section 3.2.2 Security Orchestration,
Automation and Response (SOAR) - Gartner
Security Automation: Tools, Process and Best Practices - Cynet, section “What are the different types of
security automation tools?”
Introduction to automation in Microsoft Sentinel
8.Network architects should consider__________ before selecting an SDP model.
A. leadership buy-in
B. gateways
C. their use case
D. cost
Answer: C
Explanation:
Different SDP deployment models have different advantages and disadvantages depending on the
organization’s use case, such as the type of resources to be protected, the location of the clients and
servers, the network topology, the scalability, the performance, and the security requirements.
Network architects should consider their use case before selecting an SDP model that best suits their
needs and goals.
Reference =
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) prepkit, page 21, section 3.1.2
6 SDP Deployment Models to Achieve Zero Trust | CSA, section “Deployment Models Explained”
Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP) and Zero Trust | CSA, page 7, section 3.1 Why SDP Matters in Zero
Trust | SonicWall, section “SDP Deployment Models”
9.Which component in a ZTA is responsible for deciding whether to grant access to a resource?
A. The policy enforcement point (PEP)
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B. The policy administrator (PA)
C. The policy engine (PE)
D. The policy component
Answer: C
Explanation:
The policy engine (PE) is the component in a ZTA that is responsible for deciding whether to grant access
to a resource. The PE evaluates the policies and the contextual data collected from various sources, such
as the user identity, the device posture, the network location, the resource attributes, and the
environmental factors, and then generates an access decision. The PE communicates the access
decision to the policy enforcement point (PEP), which enforces the decision on the resource.
Reference =
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) prepkit, page 14, section 2.2.2 What Is Zero Trust
Architecture (ZTA)? - F5, section “Policy Engine”
What is Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA)? | NextLabs, section “Core Components” [SP 800-207, Zero Trust
Architecture], page 11, section 3.3.1
10.What is the function of the rule-based security policies configured on the policy decision point (PDP)?
A. Define rules that specify how information can flow
B. Define rules that specify multi-factor authentication (MFA) requirements
C. Define rules that map roles to users
D. Define rules that control the entitlements to assets
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rule-based security policies are a type of attribute-based access control (ABAC) policies that define rules
that control the entitlements to assets, such as data, applications, or devices, based on the attributes of
the subjects, objects, and environment. The policy decision point (PDP) is the component in a zero trust
architecture (ZTA) that evaluates the rule-based security policies and generates an access decision for
each request.
Reference =
Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) prepkit, page 14, section 2.2.2 A Zero Trust Policy Model
| SpringerLink, section “Rule-Based Policies”
Zero Trust architecture: a paradigm shift in cybersecurity - PwC, section “Security policy and control
framework”
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