Dropper (NEET)
City Test-04/03
DURATION : 200 Minutes
DATE: 22/10/2023
Phase-3/4
M.MARKS:720
Topic Covered
Physics
Chemistry
:
:
Botany
:
Motion of System of Particle and COM Rotation Motion
“Classification of Elements & Periodicity in Properties (Periodic table)”
Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology
:
Neural Control and Coordination, Chemical Coordination and Integration
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1.
Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2.
The test is 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3.
The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4.
There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in
each Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all
questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5.
There is only one correct response for each question.
6.
Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7.
No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8.
On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in
the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
1
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1.
2.
3.
SECTION – A
The mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of
length L varies as m = x where  is constant. The
centre of mass of the rod will be at:
2
3
L
L
(1)
(2)
3
2
1
4
L
L
(3)
(4)
2
3
In a head-on collision between two objects of
equal mass and equal velocity, what can be said
about the direction of the final velocity after the
collision?
(1) Both objects will move with same velocity
(2) Both objects will continue moving in the
same direction (without collision)
(3) The direction of the final velocities cannot be
determined
(4) Both objects will come to rest
5.
The rotational analogue of force is often referred
to as a:
(1) Torque
(2) Momentum
(3) Speed
(4) Energy
7.
A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is
rotating about its axis with constant angular
velocity . The objects each of mass m are
attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter
of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular
velocity given by:
2m
( M + 2m) 
(3)
M
Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B: (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with
the same angular speed  about their own
symmetry axes. The amount of work (W) required
to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation
(1) WB > WA > WC
(2) WA > WB > WC
(3) WC > WB > WA
(4) WA > WC > WB
(2)
2M 
M + 2m
(4)
M
M + 2m
8.
A body of mass M while falling vertically
downwards under gravity breaks into two parts; a
1
2
body B of mass M and a body C of mass M .
3
3
The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken
together shifts compared to that of body A towards
(1) Body C
(2) Body B
(3) Depends on height of breaking
(4) Does not shift
9.
Which of collision exhibits the highest degree of
kinetic energy loss?
(1) Perfectly elastic collision
(2) Perfectly elastic collision
(3) Partially elastic collision
(4) Completely inelastic collision
10.
If the position vector of a particle is r = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj
inside A
inside B
at the point of contact
None of these
In what situations can real bodies be treated as
rigid despite being non-rigid?
(1) When they have a liquid-like consistency
(2) When they are made of steel beams
(3) When deformations are negligible
(4) When they vibrate continuously
( M + 2m) 
(1)
Two spheres A and B of masses m and 2m and
radii 2R and R respectively are placed in contact
as shown. The COM of the system lies
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4.
6.
(
)
meter and it and its angular velocity is
 = ˆj + 2kˆ rad/sec then its linear velocity is
(
)
(in m/s)
(1) 8iˆ − 6 ˆj + 3kˆ
(2)
(3)
(4)
11.
(
)
(3iˆ + 6 ˆj + 8kˆ )
− ( 3iˆ + 6 ˆj + 8kˆ )
( 6iˆ + 8 ˆj + 3kˆ )
A system consists of three particles, each of mass
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(1) (1, 1)
(2) (2, 2)
(3) (3, 3)
(4) (6, 6)
2
12.
A 2000 kg car traveling at 36 m/s collides with a
stationary 3000 kg truck. After the collision, the
car and truck move together with a velocity of 10
m/s. What is the kinetic energy before and after
the collision?
(1) 1.28 × 106J
(2) 1.44 × 106J
(3) 1.60 × 106J
(4) 1.76 × 106J
13.
Four particles of mass a m1, m2, m3 and m4 placed
at the vertices A, B, C and D as respectively of a
square shown. The COM of the system will lie at
diagonal AC if
17.
(1) g/L
2g
(3)
3L
18.
(1) m1 = m3
(3) m1 = m2
14.
15.
16.
(2) m2 = m4
(4) m3 = m4
The objects, A and B, of masses 2 kg and 3kg,
respectively, collide and move together after the
collision. If the velocity of object A before the
collision was 5 m/s and the velocity of object B
was 2 m/s, what will be their common velocity
after collision?
(1) 3.2 m/s
(2) 3.3 m/s
(3) 3.4 m/s
(4) 3.5 m/s
Three point masses each of mass m are placed at
the coreners of an equilateral triangle of side a.
Then the moment of inertia of this system about
an axis passing along one side of the triangle is
(1) ma2
(2) 3ma2
3 2
2
(3)
ma
(4)
ma2
4
4
A metal sheet 14 cm × 2 cm of uniform thickness
is cut into two pieces of width 2 cm. The two
pieces are joined and laid along XY plane as
shown. The centre of mass has the coordinates.
(1) (1, 1)
(3) (13/4, 9/4)
(2) (7/2, 7/2)
(4) (14/7, 8/7)
A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end
P the rod is kept horizontal by a massless string
tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is
cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is
(2) 2g/L
3g
(4)
2L
A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass
bx
density ( x) = a + , where x is measured from
L
A. If the CM of the rod lies at a distance of
7
 12  L from A, then a and b are related as:
 
(1) a = 2b
(2) 2a = b
(3) a = b
(4) 3a = 2b
19.
The position of a particle is given by :
r = iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ and momentum
(
)
P = ( 3iˆ + 4 ˆj − 2kˆ ) . The angular momentum is
perpendicular to
(1) X- axis
(2) Y-axis
(3) Z-axis
(4) Line at equal angles to all the three axes
20.
The change of momentum in each ball of mass
60gm, moving in opposite directions with speeds
4m/s collide and rebound with the same speed, is
(1) 0.98 kg m/s
(2) 0.73 kg m/s
(3) 0.48 kg m/s
(4) 0.22 kg m/s
21.
A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0
radian/sec2. If the wheel starts from rest, the
number of revolutions it makes in the first ten
seconds will be approximately
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 32
22.
The instantaneous angular position of a point on a
rotating wheel is given by the equation (t) = 2t3 –
6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes zero at
(1) t = 1s
(2) t = 0.5s
(3) t = 0.25s
(4) t = 2s
3
23.
24.
25.
When a stick is released (as shown in fig.) its free
end velocity when it strikes the ground is:
(1) 4.2 m/s
(2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 2.8 m/s
(4)
A wheel of radius 0. l𝑚 (wheel A) is attached by a
non-stretching belt to a wheel of radius 0.2 𝑚
(wheel B). The belt does not slip. By the time
wheel 𝐵 turns through 1 revolution, wheel A will
rotate through
26.
revolution
(2) 1 revolution
(3) 2 revolution
(4) 4 revolution
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing
from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is
(1) 𝑀𝑅 2
(2)
(3)
(4)
27.
28.
1
2
1
𝑀𝑅 2
2
3
𝑀𝑅 2
2
3
𝑀𝑅 2
5
Moment of inertia does not depend upon
(1) distribution of mass
(2) axis of rotation
(3) point of application of force
(4) None of these
Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass 𝑀
and radius 𝑅 about its diameter is
(1)
𝑀𝑅2
2
(2) MR2
(3) 2MR2
(4)
𝑀𝑅2
4
Assertion: When a rigid body rotates about a
fixed axis, every particle of the body undergoes
circular motion.
Reason: In rotational motion, all particles moves
through the same angular displacement in the
same time interval.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
30.
Which of the following has the highest moment of
inertia when each of them has the same mass and
the same outer radius
(1) a ring about its axis, perpendicular to the
plane of the ring
(2) a disc about its axis, perpendicular to the
plane of the ring
(3) a solid sphere about one of its diameters
(4) a spherical shell about one of its diameters
31.
Radius of gyration of a body depends upon
(1) axis of rotation
(2) translational motion
(3) shape of the body
(4) area of the body
32.
If Ixy is the moment of inertia of a ring about a
tangent in the plane of the ring and Ix'y' is the
moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent
perpendicular to the plane of the ring then
1
(1) 𝐼𝑥𝑦 = 𝐼𝑥′ 𝑦′
(2) 𝐼𝑥𝑦 = 2 𝐼𝑥 ′ 𝑦′
6 m/s
A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on a
planet where the acceleration due to gravity is not
known. On bouncing, it rises to 1.8 m. The ball
loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of
(1) 16/25
(2) 2/5
(3) 3/5
(4) 9/5
(1)
29.
3
(3) 𝐼𝑥 ′ 𝑦′ = 4 𝐼𝑥𝑦
33.
3
(4) 𝐼𝑥𝑦 = 4 𝐼𝑥 ′ 𝑦′
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
(figure) is maximum about an axis a perpendicular
to the disc and passing through
(1) B
(3) D
(2) C
(4) A
34. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are
of same mass and same outer radii. Their moments
of inertia about their diameters are respectively IA
and IB such that (Here ρA and ρB represent their
densities.)
(1) IA = IB
(2) IA > IB
(3) IA < IB
I

(4) A = A
I B B
4
35. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
 cm (as shown in the figure). The moment of
41.
inertia of the system about a line AX perpendicular
to AB and in the plane of ABC, (in gram-cm2 units
will be)
There is a flat uniform triangular A plate ABC
such that AB = 4 cm, BC = 3cm and angle abc =
90°. The moment of inertia of the plate about AB,
BC and CA as axis is respectively I1, I2 and I3.
Which one of the following is true?
(1) I3 > I2
(3) I3 > I1
(1)
3
𝑚ℓ2
2
2
(3) 2𝑚ℓ
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
(2)
(4)
42.
A fly wheel rotating about a fixed axis has a
kinetic energy of 360 joule when its angular speed
is 30 radian/sec. The moment of inertia of the
wheel about the axis of rotation is
(1) 0.6 kg/m2
(2) 0.15 kg/m2
2
(3) 0.8 kg/m
(4) 0.75 kg/m2
43.
Which of the following statements are correct
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides
with the centre of gravity of the body.
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at
which the total gravitational torque on the
body is zero
(c) A couple on a body produce both
translational and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than on means
that effort can be used to lift a large load.
3
𝑚ℓ2
4
5
𝑚ℓ2
4
SECTION – B
Two particles which are initially at rest, move
towards each other under the action of their
internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v any
instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the
system will be:
(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) Zero
(4) 1.5v
The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc
about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and
of a circular ring of the radius about a tangential
axis in the plane of the ring is
(1) 1 : √2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) √5 : √6
The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of
mass M and length L about an axis passing
through its midpoint and perpendicular to its
length is I0 . Its moment of inertia about an axis
passing through one of its ends and perpendicular
to its length is
(1) I0 + ML2/2
(2) I0 + ML2/4
(3) I0 + 2ML2
(4) I0 + ML2
A rigid body is experiencing a total of 100 Nm. If
30 Nm of torque is perpendicular to the axis of
rotation, what is the torque that will cause the
body to rotate about the axis?
(1) 30 Nm
(2) 70 Nm
(3) 100 Nm
(4) 130 Nm
Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I
respectively about their axis of rotation. If their
kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their
angular momenta will be in the ratio
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) √2 ∶ 1
(4) 1 ∶ √2
(2) I2 > I1
(4) I1 > I2
(1) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b)
44.
The moment of the force, F = 4iˆ + 5 ˆj − 6kˆ at (2,
0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by
(1) −7iˆ − 8 ˆj − 4kˆ
(2) −4iˆ − ˆj − 8kˆ
(3) −8iˆ − 4 ˆj − 7kˆ
45.
(4) −7iˆ − 4 ˆj − 8kˆ
For a circular disc rotating about its diameter,
what is the value of k in terms of the radius of the
disc (R)?
R
(1) k = R
(2) k =
2
(3) k =
46.
(2) (b) and (d)
(4) (d) and (c)
R
2
(4) k =
R
12
Assertion: the position of centre of mass does not
depend upon the reference frame.
Reason: Centre of mass depends only upon the
mass of the body.
(1) both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation explanation of
assertion.
(2) both assertion and reason are reson are true
but reson is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) assertion is true but reason is flase
(4) both assertion and reason are false.
5
47.
O is the centre of an equilateral triangle ABC. F1,
F2 and F3 are three forces acting along the sides
AB, BC and AC as shown here. What should be
the magnitude of F3, so that the total torque about
O is zero?
49.
If a rigid body has n particles, what is the formula
for the moment of inertia (I) of the body?
1
(1) I =  mi ri
n
(2) I =  mi ri
(3) I =
(4) I =
50.
(1) (F1 + F2)/2
(3) (F1 + F2)
48.
(2) 2(F1 + F2)
(4) (F1 – F2)
A composite disc is to be made using equal
masses of aluminum and iron so that it has as high
a moment of inertia as possible. This is possible
when
(1) The surfaces of the discs are made of iron
with aluminum inside
(2) The whole of aluminum is kept in the core
and the iron at the outer rim of the disc
(3) The whole of the iron is kept in the core and
the aluminum at the outer rim of the disc
(4) The whole disc is made with thin alternate
sheets of iron and aluminum
1
mi ri 2

n
m r
2
i i
A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes
a block of mass M at rest and gets embedded into
it. The kinetic energy of the composite block will
be
1 2
m
(1)
mv 
2
(m + M )
(2)
1 2
M
mv 
2
m
( +M)
1 2 (m + M )
mv 
2
M
1 2
m
(4)
Mv 
2
(m + M )
(3)
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
51.
SECTION – A
In the P , S and Cl– ions, the increasing order
of size is
(1) S2– < Cl– < P3– (2) Cl– < S2 < P3–
(3) S2– < P3– < Cl– (4) P3– < S2– < Cl–
3–
2–
55.
The first ionisation enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si are
496, 737, 776 kJ/mol respectively. What will be
the first ionisation enthalpy potential of Al in kJ
mol?
(1) > 766 kJ/mol
52.
53.
54.
The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is
(1) Al(OH)3, LiOH
(2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
(3) Be(OH)2, Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Ionic radius is proportional to atomic
number.
(2) Ionic radius is inversely proportional to
atomic mass.
(3) Ionic radius is inversely proportional to
effective nuclear charge
(4) All are correct
Which of the following sequence contains atomic
number of only representative elements?
(1) 55,12,48,53
(2) 13,33,54,80
(3) 3,33,53,87
(4) 22,33,55,66
(2) > 496 and < 737 kJ
(3) > 737 and 766 kJ/mol
(4) > 496 kJ/mol
56.
The element, with atomic number 118, will be
(1) a transition element
(2) an alkali metal
(3) an alkaline earth metal
(4) a noble gas
57.
The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
number 119 would be
(1) unh
(2) uue
(3) uun
(4) une
6
58.
Statement I : F-atom has less negative electron
affinity than Cl-atom.
Statement II : Additional electrons are repelled
more effectively by 3 p-electrons in Cl-atom than
by 2 p-electrons in F-atom.
Read the following questions and answer as per
the direction given below:
(1) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
(2) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(3) Statement I true; Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
59.
Which of the following overlapping is strongest ?
(1) 1s – 1s
(2) 2p – 2p
(3) 2s – 2p
(4) 1s – 2p
60.
The electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order
(1) C, N, Si, P
(2) N, Si, C, P
(3) Si, P, C, N
(4) P, Si, N, C
61.
The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The
value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
(1) –2.55 eV
(2) –5.1 eV
(3) –10.2 eV
(4) +2.55 eV
62.
Which of the following option w.r.t increasing
bond order is correct?
(1) NO < C2 < O2– < He2+
(2) C2 < NO < He2+ < O2–
(3) He2+ < O2– < NO < C2
(4) He2+ < O2– < C2 < NO
63.
66.
In BF3, the B – F bond length is 1.30 Å, when BF3
is allowed to be treated with Me3N, it forms and
adduct, Me3N → BF3, the bond length of B – F in
the adduct is
(1) greater than 1.30Å
(2) Small than 1.30Å
(3) equal to 1.30 Å
(4) None of these
67.
Which of the following molecules has more than
one lone pair?
(1) SO2
(2) XeF2
(3) SiF4
(4) CH4
68.
Which of the following order is correct?
(1) AlCl3 < MgCl2 < NaCl: Polarising power
(2) CO > CO2 > > HCO2– > CO32–: Bond
(3) BeCl2 < NF3 < NH3 : Dipole moment
(4) H2S > NH3 > SiH4 > BF3 : Bond angle
69.
Assertion: Both π(2px) and π*(2px) MO’s have
one nodal plane each.
Reason: All MO’s formed by side way
overlapping of 2p-orbitals have one nodal plane.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
70.
Assertion : ClF3 has T-shape structure.
Reason: It has two lone pairs arranged at 180°
angle.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
71.
Total number of antibonding electrons present in
O2 will be
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2
72.
Which of the following have same hybridisation
but are not isostructural?
(1) ClF3, I3–
(2) BrF3 and NH3
+
(3) CH4 and NH4
(4) XeO3 and NH3
Maximum covalency of an element of atomic
number 7 is
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 3
64.
The ONO angle is maximum in
(1) NO3–
(2) NO2–
(3) NO2
(4) NO2+
65.
The molecules having the same hybridisation
shape and number of lone pairs of electrons are
(1) SeF4, XeO2F2
(2) SF4, XeF2
(3) XeOF4, TeF4
(4) SeCl4, XeF4
7
73.
Smallest internuclear distance is found in
(1) O2
(2) O22+
(3) O2–
(4) O22–
74.
The isoelectronic set of ions is
(1) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+
(2) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2–
(3) Li+, Na+, O2– and F–
(4) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+
75.
76.
Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing dipole moment, toluene (I) mdichlorobenzene (II), o-dichlorobenzene (III), pdichlorobenzene (IV)
(1) I < IV < II < III (2) IV < I < II < III
(3) IV < I < III < II (4) IV < II < I < III
The number and type of bonds between two
carbon atoms in CaC2 are
(1) one sigma (σ) and one pi (π) bonds
(2) one sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds
(3) one sigma (σ) and one half pi (π) bonds
(4) one sigma (σ) bond
77.
Which of the following compound is covalent?
(1) H2
(2) CaO
(3) KCl
(4) Na2S
78.
Statement I : LiCl is predominantly a covalent
compound.
Statement II : Electronegativity difference
between Li and Cl is too small.
(1) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
(2) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(3) Statement I true; Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
79.
Assertion: NH3 molecule is more polar than NF3
molecule.
Reason: NF3 is pyramidal while NH3 is trigonal
planar.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are True and
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) If the Assertion is True, but the Reason is
False.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
80.
Identify the least stable ion amongst the
following.
(1) Li+
(2) Be–
(3) B–
(4) C–
81.
Which of the following represents the correct
order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ?
(1) S < O < Cl < F (2) Cl < F < O < S
(3) O < S < F < Cl (4) F < S < O < Cl
82.
Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with
the highest boiling point is
(1) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
(2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
(3) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
(4) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
83.
The species having pyramidal shape is
(1) SO3
(2) BrF3
2–
(3) SiO3
(4) OSF2
84.
Among the following, the molecule with the
highest dipole moment is
(1) CH3Cl
(2) CH2Cl2
(3) CHCl3
(4) CCl4
85.
In the compound CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C 
CH, the C2 – C3 bonds is of
(1) sp – sp2
(2) sp3 – sp3
3
(3) sp – sp
(4) sp2 – sp3
86.
87.
SECTION – B
The maximum possible number of hydrogen
bonds a water molecule can form is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1
Match the following:
Oxide
Nature
(A) CO
(i) Basic
(B) BaO
(ii) Neutral
(C) Al2C3
(iii) Acidic
(D) Cl2O7
(iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option?
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
8
88.
For the second period elements the correct
94.
The correct order of C – O bond length among
CO, CO32, CO2 is
(1) CO < CO32– < CO2
(2) CO32– < CO2 < CO
(3) CO < CO2 < CO32–
(4) CO2 < CO32– < CO
95.
Which of the following species contains equal
number of σ and π-bond:
(1) XeO4
(2) (CN)2
(3) CH2(CN)2
(4) HCO3–
96.
Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(1) O2
(2) N2
(3) H2
(4) Li2
97.
The pair of species with the same bond order is:
(1) O22–, B2
(2) O2+, NO+
(3) NO, CO
(4) N2, O2
98.
Among the following the pair in which the two
species are not isostructural is
(1) SiF4 and SF4
(2) IO3– and XeO3
–
+
(3) BH4 and NH4 (4) PF6– and SF6
99.
The relationship between the dissociation energy
of N2 and N2+ is:
(1) Dissociation energy of N2+ > dissociation
energy of N2
(2) Dissociation energy of N2+ = dissociation
energy of N2
(3) Dissociation energy of N2 > dissociation
energy of N2+
(4) Dissociation energy of N2 can either be lower
or higher than the dissociation energy of N2+
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
89.
One of the characteristics properties of non-metals
is that they
(1) Are reducing agents
(2) Form basic oxides
(3) Form cations by electron gain
(4) Are electronegative
90.
Which one of the following molecules will form a
linear polymeric structure due to hydrogen
bonding?
91.
(1) NH3
(2) H2O
(3) HCl
(4) HF
In which one of the following species the central
atom has the type of hybridization which is not the
same as that present in the other three?
(1) SF4
(3)
92.
SbCl52–
(2) I3–
(4) PCl5
Which statement is NOT correct?
(1) A sigma bond is weaker than a π-bond.
(2) A sigma bond is stronger than a π-bond.
(3) A double bond is stronger than a single bond.
(4) A double bond is shorter than a single bond.
93.
Which one of the following pairs is isostructural
(i.e. having the same shape and hybridization) :
(1) [NF3 and BF3]
−
(2) [BF4 and
NH4+ ]
(3) [BCl3 and BrCl3] (4) [NH3 and NO3− ]
100. The species with a Bond Angle of 120°.
(1) PH3
(2) NCl3
(3) BCl3
(4) CIF3
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A
101. Select the incorrect matching:
(1) Thorn ‒ Citrus, Bougainvillea
(2) Flattened stem ‒ Opuntia
(3) Underground stem ‒ Turmeric
(4) Stem tendril ‒ Colocasia
102. In which type of plants do slender lateral branches
arise from the base of the main axis and arch
downwards to touch the ground?
(1) Mint and Jasmine
(2) Grass and strawberry
(3) Gourds
(4) Banana and pineapple
9
103. Which of the following is incorrect about leaf?
(1) It is arranged in acropetal order
(2) It develops from node
(3) It is generally flattened in shape
(4) Young and small leaves are found near the
base and old and large leaves are found near
the tip
104. What is the term used to describe the pattern of
arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch?
(1) Phylloclade
(2) Phyllotaxy
(3) Aestivation
(4) Venation
105. Which type of leaves store food and are found in
plants like onion and garlic?
(1) Tendril leaves (2) Spine leaves
(3) Fleshy leaves
(4) Compound leaves
106. Select the correct matching:
Column I
Column II
1. Hypogynous
A. Gynoecium
occupies the
highest
position
2. Epigynous
B. Gynoecium
is sitated in the
centre
3. Perigynous
C. Margin of
thalamus
grows upward
enclosing
ovary
completely
(1) 1-A-X, 2-B-Y, 3-C-Z
(2) 1-A-X, 2-C-Z, 3-B-Y
(3) 1-B-Y, 2-A-X, 3-C-Z
(4) 1-A-X, 2-B-Z, 3-C-Y
Column III
X. Mustard,
Brinjal, china
rose
Y. Plum,
peach, rose
Z. Guava,
cucumber,
ray florets of
sunflower
107. Match the column:
Column I
Column II
A. Marginal
1. Pea
B. Parietal
2. Mustard and argemone
C. Axile
3. Dianthus and primrose
D. Central and 4. China rose, tomato, lemon
free central
E. Basal
5. Sunflower and marigold
(1) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5
(2) A-1, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-5, E-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-2, E-3
108. Mango fruit is developed from
(1) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
(2) Monocarpellary superior ovule
(3) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(4) Multicarpellary superior ovary
109. The following are monocots except
(1) Wheat
(2) Maize
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Gram
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) The hilum is a scar on the seed coat through
which the developing seeds were attached to
the fruit.
(2) Pneumatophores, help to get oxygen for
respiration
(3) Some plants of arid regions modify their
stems into flattened (Opuntia), or fleshy
cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures.
(4) A lateral branch with long internodes and
each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a
tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants
like Pistia and Eichhornia.
111. Which of the following are simple tissues?
(1) Parenchyma, xylem and phloem
(2) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
(3) Parenchyma, xylem and collenchymas
(4) Parenchyma, xylem and sclerenchyma
112. Which is present in the vascular bundles of
gymnosperms?
(1) Tracheids
(2) Vessels
(3) Companion cells (4) Sieve tubes
113. What are tracheids in the xylem?
(1) Living cells with protoplasm
(2) Dead cells without protoplasm
(3) Cells with lignified walls and chlorophyll
(4) Cells with thin walls and central lumens
114. Which part of the plant is responsible for
controlling the functions of sieve tube elements in
the phloem?
(1) Sieve tube elements themselves
(2) Companion cells
(3) Phloem fibres
(4) Xylem parenchyma
115. In dicot roots, the vascular cambium is derived
from
(1) Epidermis
(2) Hypodermis
(3) Cortex
(4) Pericycle
10
116. With respect to which factor, the pericycle of a
root differs from that of the stem?
(1) Sclerenchymatous
in
root
and
collenchymatous in stem.
(2) Collenchymatous
in
root
and
parenchymatous in stem.
(3) Parenchymatous
in
root
and
sclerenchymatous in stem.
(4) Parenchymatous in root and collenchymatous
in stem.
121. Which one of the following is not a lateral
meristem?
(1) Intrafascicular cambium
(2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Phellogen
(4) Intercalary meristem
117. How do the vascular bundles appear in a vertical
section of monocot leaves?
(1) Near similar in sizes of vascular bundles
(except in main veins)
(2) Arranged in a ring
(3) Irregularly scattered
(4) Absent
123. Lenticels are involved in:
(1) Guard Cell support
(2) Gaseous exchange
(3) Food transport
(4) Photosynthesis
118. What is the function of bulliform cells in grass
leaves?
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Water absorption
(3) Regulating leaf surface exposure
(4) Storing food
119. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) The epidermal tissue system is located in the
innermost part of the plant body.
(2) The epidermis is typically single-layered and
composed of elongated, compactly arranged
cells.
(3) Cuticle is absent in the epidermis of roots.
(4) Stomata are structures found in the epidermis
of leaves and regulate gaseous exchange.
120. How many of the below statements are correct
(a) The vascular system consists of complex
tissues, the phloem, and the xylem.
(b) Cambium is present between phloem and
xylem in monocotyledonous stems.
(c) Open vascular bundles have the ability to
form secondary xylem and phloem tissues.
(d) In radial vascular bundles, xylem and phloem
are arranged along the same radius.
(e) Conjoint vascular bundles are common in
roots.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
122. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other
epidermal cells in having
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Chloroplasts
(4) Cytoskeleton
124. Match the followings and choose the correct
option from below
a. Cuticle
(i) Guard cells
b. Bulliform cells (ii) Single layer
c. Stomatta
(iii) Waxy layer
d. Epidermis
(iv) Empty colourless cell
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
125. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular
wall thickening. They also provide mechanical
support. The tissue is
(1) Xylem
(2) Sclerenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Epidermis
126. How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be
present in a twig of a plant possessing 3 branches
and 26 leaves?
(1) 26
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 30
127. What is the fate of primary xylem in a dicot root
showing extensive secondary growth?
(1) It is retained in the centre of the axis.
(2) It gets crushed.
(3) May or may not get crushed.
(4) It gets surrounded by primary phloem.
128. Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
formed due to
(1) cell division
(2) cell differentiation
(3) cell dedifferentiation
(4) redifferentiation
11
129. Match the followings and choose the correct
option from below
(a) Meristem
(i) Photosynthesis, storage
(b) Parenchyma
(ii) Mechanical support
(c) Collenchyma
(iii) Actively dividing cells
(d) Sclerenchyma
(e) Epidermal tissue
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(iv) Stomata
(v) Sclereids
(a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(ii), (e)–(iv)
(a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(v)
(a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(v), (d)–(i), (e)–(iii)
(a)–(v), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i), (e)–(i).
130. What is the number of regions in which a root is
divided?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
131. Assertion (A): In Calotropis and Guava plants
opposite
type
of
phyllotaxy
present.
Reason (R): In opposite type, a single leaf arises
at each node in alternate manner.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion .
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
132. Which of the labelled structures in the given
figure is without nucleus?
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
135. Which wood has narrow vessels
(1) Late wood
(2) Early wood
(3) Sapwood
(4) Heart wood
SECTION – B
136. Periderm does not involve
(1) Secondary cortex
(2) Cork
(3) Cork-Cambium
(4) Secondary phloem
137. Statement-I: Phellogen cuts off cells on both
sides. The outer cells differentiate into cork or
phellem while the inner cells differentiate into
secondary cortex or phelloderm.
Statement-II: Secondary growth does not occur
in stems and roots of gymnosperms.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
138. Observe the given diagram. Match the columns
and choose the correct option.
(1) A
(3) C
(2) B
(4) D
133. Which of the following has dumb-bell shaped
guard cells?
(1) Pinus
(2) Mango
(3) Pea
(4) Grasses
134. Assertion: In the dicot root, the vascular
cambium is completely secondary in origin.
Reason: In the dicot root, the vascular cambium
originates from the tissue located just below the
phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue,
above the protoxylem
A.
B.
C.
D
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
i. Secondary tissue
ii. Redifferentiated
iii. Dedifferentiated
iv. Epidermis
A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i
12
139. Identify the monocot family :
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Brassicaceae
(4) Fabaceae
146. Mark the correct statements regarding the
structure given in the diagram.
140. Which of the following is representation of
epiphyllous condition?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
i.
Bulliform cells are present in E
ii.
Number of stomata are almost similar in B
141. Before fertilization seed is known as
(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Placenta
(4) Carpel
iii. Chloroplasts are absent in B
142. Below aestivation is present in
(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) i and iii
and E
iv. Chloroplasts are present in E
147. Asymmetric flower is found in
(1) Chin arose
(3) Cotton
(2) Cassia
(4) Okra (Bhindi)
143. Epipetalous condition is formed in the flower of
(1) Brinjal
(2) Mustard
(3) Lily
(4) Pea
144. Mark the tissue which are primary meristems.
i. Intercalary meristem
ii. Interfascicular cambium
iii. Fascicular cambium
iv. Conjunctive tissue
v. Cork cambium
(1) i and ii
(2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) iv and v
145. Identify the parts of A to E in the below figure?
(1) Pea
(2) Datura
(3) Bean
(4) Canna
148. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has
(1) Many xylem bundles
(2) Inconspicuous annual rings
(3) Relatively thicker periderm
(4) More abundant secondary xylem
149. The following are live components of phloem
except
(1) Sieve tube
(2) Companion cell
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Phloem fibre (bast fibre)
150. Select the incorrect statement for liliaceae from
(1) A–Leaf base, B–Petiole, C–Stipule, D–
Lamina, E–Axillary bud
(2) A–Stipule, B–Axillary bud, C–Leaf base, D–
Petiole, E–Lamina
(3) A–Lamina, B–Stipule, C–Petiole, D–Leaf
base, E–Axillary bud
(4) A–Stipule, B–Leaf base, C–Axillary bud, D–
Lamina, E–Petiole
the following:
(1) Bisexual, zygomorphic flower
(2) Bisexual, actinomorphic flower
(3) Leaves are mostly basal, exstipulate with
parallel venation
(4) Tepal shows valvate aestivation
13
SECTION-IV (Zoology)
SECTION – A
151. Choose the correct statement from the following?
(1) Hormones are always produced in large
quantities.
(2) Invertebrates have more complex endocrine
systems than vertebrates.
(3) Endocrine glands have ducts to transport their
secretions.
(4) Hormones can act as intercellular messengers
and are produced in trace amounts.
159. In a man being pursued by a dog, which of these
hormones would be released quickly?
(1) Somatostatin
(2) Somatotropin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Prolactin
160. Which one of these is not a result of the release of
catecholamines?
(1) Piloerection,
(2) Dilated pupils,
152. Which gland produces insulin hormone?
(1) Kidney
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Heart
153. Which gland is often referred to as the "master
gland" of the endocrine system?
(1) Thyroid
(2) Liver
(3) Pituitary
(4) Heart
154. Which type of nerve fibers transmit impulses from
tissues/organs to the CNS?
(1) Efferent fibers
(2) Afferent fibers
(3) Motor fibers
(4) Autonomic fibers
(3) Production of glycogen,
(4) Increase in heart rate.
161. One of the functions of the Neuroglial cells is to
protect and support _________
(1) Nephrons
(2) Myoid cells
(3) Neurons
(4) heart
162. Which of the following is the key coordination
center for sensory and motor signals in the brain?
(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Corpora quadrigemina
155. Which part of the neural system relays impulses
from the CNS to skeletal muscles?
(1) Autonomic neural system
(4) Amygdala
163. In adult women, what can hypothyroidism lead to?
(2) Sympathetic neural system
(1) Increased fertility
(3) Parasympathetic neural system
(2) Irregular menstrual cycles
(4) Somatic neural system
156. Which part of the pituitary gland is under direct
neural regulation by the hypothalamus?
(1) Anterior pituitary
(2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Pars distalis
(4) Pars intermedia
(3) Enhanced athletic performance
(4) Stronger bones
164. The resting membrane potential is established
primarily due to:
(1) Sodium-potassium pump
157. Which type of neurons are found in the cerebral
cortex?
(1) Bipolar neurons
(2) Multipolar neurons
(3) Unipolar neurons
(4) Myelinated neurons
158. Which part of the brain contains the hypothalamus?
(2) Efflux of potassium
(3) Influx of sodium
(4) Influx of chloride
165. ________is a hormone that plays a pivotal role in
social bonding, sexual reproduction and childbirth.
(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Melatonin
(3) Hindbrain
(4) Brainstem
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Thyroxine
14
166. Which of the following claims regarding the
thymus is not correct?
(1) T-lymphocyte differentiation occurs here.
(2) It releases thymosin.
172. What is the outermost layer of the cranial meninges
called?
(1) Arachnoid
(2) Pia mater
(3) Dura mater
(4) Cerebral cortex
(3) It remains healthy in people of all ages.
(4) Encourages the development of antibodies
167. Which of these is not a thyroid hormone function?
(1) Controlling the basal metabolic rate
(2) Controlling erythropoiesis
(3) Preserving electrolyte balance
(4) Controlling the diurnal cycle
168. What is the function of Schwann cells in the
nervous system?
(1) Produce electrical impulses
(2) Form myelin sheaths around axons
(3) Store neurotransmitters
(4) Generate dendrites
169. What happens when a stimulus is applied to a
polarized membrane at a specific site?
(1) The membrane becomes freely permeable to
K+ ions.
(2) The inner surface of the membrane becomes
negatively charged.
(3) Na+ ions rapidly enter the membrane, causing a
reversal of polarity at that site.
(4) The resting potential is immediately restored.
170. What is the key distinction between electrical
synapses and chemical synapses?
(1) Electrical synapses involve the release of
neurotransmitters.
(2) Electrical synapses have a fluid-filled space
called a synaptic cleft.
(3) Electrical synapses allow direct electrical
current flow between neurons.
(4) Electrical synapses are more common in the
nervous system.
171. Which part of the brain is responsible for
processing vision, hearing, speech, memory,
intelligence, emotions, and thoughts?
(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(3) Hindbrain
(4) Brainstem
173. Why is the cerebral cortex often referred to as the
"grey matter"?
(1) Because it contains a high concentration of
sensory neurons
(2) Because it contains a dense network of blood
vessels
(3) Because of the presence of neuron cell bodies
(4) Because it is the site of memory storage
174. What complex structure in the brain is involved in
the regulation of sexual behavior, emotional
expressions, and motivation?
(1) Corpus callosum
(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Thalamus
(4) Limbic lobe or limbic system
175. What is the common term used for adrenaline and
noradrenaline?
(1) Corticoids
(2) Catecholamines
(3) Glucocorticoids
(4) Mineralocorticoids
176. Which layer of the adrenal cortex is responsible for
secreting glucocorticoids?
(1) Zona reticularis
(2) Zona fasciculata
(3) Zona glomerulosa
(4) Adrenal medulla
177. Which cells in the body are the primary targets of
glucagon's action?
(1) Adipocytes and muscle cells
(2) Hepatocytes (liver cells)
(3) Red blood cells
(4) Pancreatic beta cells
178. What complex disorder is associated with
prolonged hyperglycemia, characterized by the loss
of glucose through urine and the formation of
harmful compounds known as ketone bodies?
(1) Hypertension
(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Obesity
179. What is the name of the canal that passes through
the midbrain?
(1) Corpus callosum
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Cerebral aqueduct
(4) Dura mater
15
180. Which region of the brain is responsible for
controlling respiration, cardiovascular reflexes, and
gastric secretions?
(1) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(2) Cerebellum
(4) Midbrain
188. How does PTH affect bones?
(1) Promotes bone growth
(2) Inhibits bone formation
(3) Stimulates bone resorption
(4) Strengthens bone structure
181. Why does the cerebellum have a convoluted
surface?
(1) To provide additional space for sensory organs
(2) To accommodate more neurons
(3) To enhance visual perception
(4) To support the sense of taste
189. What does the neural system in insects include in
addition to a network of neurons?
(1) Ganglia and neural tissues
(2) spinal cord
(3) Pons
182. What is the primary connection between the
forebrain and the spinal cord?
(1) Spinal cord nerves
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Cerebral aqueduct
(4) Brain stem
183. Which part of the brain is responsible for memory
and learning?
(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Amygdala
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Pons
(4) Mid Brain
190. How do thymosins affect the production of
antibodies?
(1) They suppress antibody production.
(2) They promote the production of antibodies for
humoral immunity
(3) They have no effect on antibody production..
(4) They only affect the production of T-
184. What is the structure that connects the two lobes of
the thyroid gland?
(1) Isthmus
(2) Follicular cells
(3) Stromal tissues
(4) Cavity
lymphocytes
191. Which group of hormones primarily interact with
membrane-bound receptors?
SECTION – B
185. What type of cells, found in the intertubular spaces
of the testis, are responsible for producing
androgens, primarily testosterone?
(1) Steroids
(2) Iodothyronines
(3) Peptide, polypeptide, and protein hormones
(4) Androgenic steroids
(1) Germ cells
(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Leydig cells or interstitial cells
(4) All of the above
192. Assertion: Major groups of steroid hormones
secreted by ovary are estradiols and progesterones.
186. After ovulation, what structure does the ruptured
ovarian follicle transform into?
(1) Uterus
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Ovarian cyst
Reason: Progesterone has a stimulatory effect on
mammary glands and formation of alveoli.
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion
187. What is the primary function of erythropoietin in
the body?
(1) Stimulating the secretion of hydrochloric acid
(2) Regulating blood glucose levels
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
(3) Promoting the synthesis of white blood cells
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Stimulating the formation of red blood cells
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false
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193. Statement-I: Melatonin influences various
functions such as the menstrual cycle, pigmentation
and defense capability.
Statement-II: It regulates the diurnal rhythm of our
body.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
194. Assertion (A): The membrane of a neuron remains
in polarized state.
Reason (R): Ion channels on the neural membrane
are selectively permeable to different ions.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
195. Atrial natriuretic hormone/factor (ANF) secreted by
atrial wall has exactly the opposite function to a
hormone secreted by zona glomerulosa i.e.,
(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Angiotensin
(4) Corticosterone
196. Resting potential of a nerve is: (in milli volt)
(1) +70
(2) +30
(3) –30
(4) –70
197. A steroid hormone typically alters the activity of its
target cells by _________
(1) Making holes in the membrane of the target
cells
(2) Passing through the cell membrane and
altering gene expression
(3) Making holes by the means of lysosome of
target cells
(4) Activation of cAMP
198. When the neuron is resting, the axonal membrane is
________ to negatively charged proteins present in
the axoplasm
(1) Permeable
(2) Partially permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) Selectively permeable
199. Statement-I: Androgens act on PNS and influence
male libido.
Statement-II: High levels of androgens make the
males aggressive.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
200. A man is suffering from abnormally low body
temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His
brain scan is liable to show tumor in
(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Hypothalamus

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