# Hospital-acquired pneumonia develops: (choose 1 answer)
+ after 48 hours.
- after 2 hours.
- after 24 hours.
- after 12 hours.
- after 36 hours.
# Select the main auscultative sign of aortic stenosis:
+ systolic murmur in the II intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- diastolic murmur in the II intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- accent of the second tone over the pulmonary artery
- systolic murmur at the apex
- systolic murmur at the Botkin point
# Select 1 characteristic auscultative extra-cardiac sign of aortic insufficiency:
+ Double tone Traube
- systolic murmur over the renal artery
- systolic murmur over the iliac artery
- diastolic murmur on the radial artery
- diastolic murmur over the renal artery
# Select a characteristic auscultative extra-cardiac sign of aortic insufficiency:
+ double durosier noise
- systolic murmur over the renal artery
- systolic murmur over the iliac artery
- diastolic murmur on the radial artery
- diastolic murmur over the renal artery
# List 1 of the most common causes of sudden death in cardiomyopathies:
+ ventricular fibrillation.
- moderate heart failure.
- atrial fibrillation
- hypovolemic shock
- acute renal failure
# In the treatment of Dressler's syndrome is used (1 answer):
+ glucocorticosteroids
- sedatives
- antibiotics
- cardiac glycosides
- antiarrhythmic drugs
# Name 1 indication for the use of glucocorticosteroids in UC:
+ severe form
- easy form
- absence of systemic manifestations
- average process activity
- diarrhea up to 6 times a day
# Choose 1 of the signs that characterize diarrhea in UC:
+ blood diarrhea
- smudge-like feces
- feces in the form of sheep balls
- feces in the form of rice broth
- feces in the form of "raspberry jelly"
# Select 1 typical system change in the event of a UC:
+ reactive arthritis
- toxic intestinal dilatation
- intestinal perforation
- rectal bleeding
- intestinal strictures
# Which drug belongs to the aminoquinoline series?
+ delagil
- azathioprine
- kuprenil
- colchicine
- sulfasalazine
# The following medication is used to treat anemia in patients with CKD:
+ recordon
- folic acid
- ascorbic acid
- vitamin B12
- decoction of rosehip
# Treatment of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis:
+ pulse therapy + 4-component scheme
- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- immunomodulators
- 4-aminoquinoline
- antiplatelet agents
#For which disease glucocorticosteroids are indicated:
+ chronic glomerulonephritis nephrotic form
- chronic renal failure
- amyloidosis
- diabetic glomerulosclerosis
- renal artery thrombosis
#A characteristic feature of chronic glomerulonephritis of the nephrotic form:
- increased alkaline phosphatase activity
- hyperalbuminemia
+ hypercholesterolemia
- hypoglobulinemia
- hyperproteinemia
#Which disease is characterized by this urinalysis: protein 3.3%, white blood cells 3-4 / 1. Red blood cells
unchanged 2-3 / 1, red blood cells changed in large numbers, hyaline cylinders 5-6 / 1:
+ chronic glomerulonephritis
- urolithiasis
- chronic pyelonephritis
- interstitial nephritis
- amyloidosis of the kidneys
# What drugs are used in the pathogenetic therapy of the nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis:
- Imuran, clofelin, 5-nok, furosemide
- Delagil, nikoshpan, retabolil, kurantil
- heparin orthophen penicillin immunran
+ prednisone, heparin, delagil, curantil
- curantil, gentamicin, phytolysin, azathioprine
# Diet for nephrotic form of cron.glomerulonephritis should be:
- with a normal salt content and protein restriction
+ with limited salt and protein
- no salt limit
- salt-free with a physiological protein quota
- with carbohydrate restriction
# Choose a drug to treat uremic osteodystrophy:
+ calcium carbonate
- indomethacin
- rumolon
- lidaza
- Panangin
# What is the clinical manifestation of seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
+ eye inflammation
- damage to the proximal interphalangeal joints
- positive rheumatoid factor
- flying joint pain
- atrophy of interosseous muscles
# Choose one of the ways to transmit chlamydia infection:
+ sexual
- with intravenous administration
- air-drop mode
- food grade
- lymphogenic
# Choose 1 X-ray feature that is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis?
+ vertebral squaring
- there are no changes
- the "puncher"symptom
- multiple usurps
- osteophytes
# Select 1 additional criteria for dermatomyositis:
+ calcification
- dystrophy
- paraorbital edema and erythema in open areas of the body
- damage to the muscles of the proximal extremities
- pathomorphological changes in the muscles during biopsy
# Which of these diseases increases the frequency of HLA - B 27 carriage?
+ ankylosing spondylitis
- Marfan syndrome
- gouty polyarthritis
- rheumatic polyarthritis
- deforming osteoarthritis
# For stage II functional joint failure in rheumatoid arthritis:
- lost the ability to self-serve
- professional ability to work is preserved
- professional ability to work is lost
+ professional working capacity is limited
- self-service capability is limited
# Choose a basic medication for rheumatoid arthritis:
- prednisone
+ delagil
- orthophene
- rumalon
- colchicine
#At what stage of myocardial infarction is the formation of a pathological Q wave characteristic:
- the sharpest one
+ acute
- subacute
- scar tissue
- prodromal
# Which of the biochemical parameters changes in the first hours of a myocardial infarction:
+ ALT AST
- thymol test
- reduction of fibrinogen
- increase of CPK
- increase in LDH
#Early complications of myocardial infarction do not include
- pulmonary edema
- cardiogenic shock
- cardiac tamponade
+ Dressler's syndrome
- acute heart aneurysm
#What does the scissors symptom mean in myocardial infarction:
- reduced ALT and increased LDH-1
- decrease in LDH-1 and increase in ALT during the first week
+ reduced leukocytosis and increased ESR during the first week
- decrease in ESR and increase in leukocytosis during the first week
- decrease in CPK and increase in ALT during the first week
# Precancerous diseases include all of the following, except :
- chronic atrophic gastritis with secretory insufficiency
- wide-based stomach polyps
- polypous gastritis
+ erosive gastritis
- rigid antral gastritis
# Pain in the upper half of the abdomen, depending on food intake, increased acidity of gastric juice, the
presence of hidden blood in the feces, the "niche" symptom are characteristic of:
+ peptic ulcer of the stomach and duodenum 12
- chronic gastritis with normal secretory function
- chronic gastritis with increased secretory function
- chronic pancreatitis
- pancreatic cancer
# Specify the group of drugs with a pronounced ulcerogenic effect:
+ nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- antibiotics
- antihistamines
- ganglioblockers
- cardiac glucosides
# Chronic enterocolitis in the acute phase is characterized by all the listed symptoms, except:
- diarrhea
- violations of the electrolyte composition of the blood
- weight loss
+ ascites
- dehydration of the body
#The most common cause of colitis:
- intestinal infection
+ alimentary errors in nutrition
- exogenous intoxications
- immune disorders
- endogenous intoxications
# What symptoms are important for early diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis:
- rheumatoid nodules
- lesions of the cervical spine
- ulnar deviation of the hand
+ morning stiffness
- atrophy of the interosseous muscles of the hands
Stage I radiological examination for rheumatoid arthritis is accompanied by:
- by single usurs
- multiple usurs
- narrowing of the joint gap
+ periarticular osteoporosis
- osteoporosis narrowing of the joint gap
# Rheumatoid nodules are:
- dense, painless whitish formations on the auricles
- dense immobile bone growths on the proximal interphalangeal joints
- dense immobile bone growths on the distal interphalangeal joints
+ dense mobile formations on the extensor surface in the vicinity of the joints up to 0.5-2 cm
- small nodules along the vessels
# Osteoarthritis is ... :
+ degenerative disease of joints cartilage and their surfaces
- autoimmune disease of the joint tissue
- autoimmune bone disease
- inflammatory suppurative disease of the articular cartilage and their surfaces
- inflammatory suppurative bone disease
# What is the name of distal interphalangeal bone growth:
+ Goeberden's nodules
- rosary symptom
- bracelet symptom
- Bouchard's nodules
- rheumatoid nodules
# What laboratory parameters are most informative in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus:
- lymphocytosis
- leukocytosis
- hemolytic anemia
- hyperfermentemia
+ pancytopenia, antinuclear antibodies
# What changes in the blood test are characteristic of grade III activity of systemic lupus erythematosus:
- Hb 120 g / l ESR 20 mm / h
- Hb 116 g / l ESR 24 mm / h
- Hb 110 g / l ESR 38 mm / h
+ Hb 96 g / l ESR 52 mm / h
- Hb 96 g / l ESR 35 mm / h
#What hematological disorder is not included in the diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus:
- anemia
- leukopenia less than 4000 /ml
+ leukocytosis
- thrombocytopenia less than 150 thousand/ml
- lymphopenia less than 1500/ml
#Which of the following laboratory disorders are not considered diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus
erythematosus:
- antinuclear antibodies
- antibodies to DNA
+ accelerated ESR
- leukopenia
- thrombocytopenia
# Note non-characteristic cutaneous manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus:
- allopecia
- erythematous rashes
- discoid changes
+ ring-shaped erythema
- photodermatitis
#The following groups of medications are used to treat systemic lupus erythematosus:
- cytostatics, antibiotics, anticoagulants
- antibiotics, sulfonamides, glucocorticoids
- antibiotics, cytostatics, antiplatelet agents
- NSAIDs, angioprotectors, immunosuppressants
+ glucocorticoids, 4-aminoquinoline drugs, cytostatics, NSAIDs
#LE cells are:
- autoaggressive lymphocytes
- immature neutrophils
- neutrophils that phagocytize rheumatoid factor
+ mature neutrophils, phagocytic nuclear proteins of blood cells
- foam cells
# Mark the pains that are characteristic of stomach ulcers:
+ immediately after eating
- hunger pains
- 2 hours after eating
- night pains
- 1 hour after eating
# Indicate a direct radiographic sign of a stomach ulcer:
- regional spasm
- deformity of the bulb of the duodenum 12
- increased peristalsis of the duodenum 12
- irritated duodenal bulb 12
+ the"niche" symptom
# Name a variant of the SLE course:
+ acute, subacute, chronic
- slow-progressive
- lightning fast
- fast-progressing
- recurrent
# Clinical and morphological skin lesions in lupus dermatitis:
+ lupus butterfly, exudative erythema
- purpura, vitiligo
- exfoliation
- hyperpigmentation
- papiloma
# Variant of joint damage in SLE:
+ non-erosive arthritis
- monoarthritis
- erosive arthritis
- mutating arthritis
- purulent arthritis
# Name a heart lesion in SLE:
+ myocarditis
- heart aneurysm
- subendocardial ischemia
- subarthal stenosis
- stenosis of the mouth of the pulmonary artery
# Name the lung lesion in SLE:
+ pneumonitis
- emphysema
- bronchiectasis
- pneumonia
- pneumosclerosis
# The classic diagnostic triad for systemic lupus erythematosus is
+ dermatitis, arthritis, polyserositis
- arthritis, pericarditis, endocarditis
- arthritis, pneumonitis, vasculitis
- dermatitis, alveolitis, nephritis
- dermatitis, pneumonitis, arthritis
# In rheumatoid arthritis, the joint syndrome is characterized by
+ symmetrical defeat
- damage to one large joint
- not a symmetrical defeat
- volatile nature of pain
- damage to the distal interphalangeal joints
#Early localization of the pathological process in rheumatoid arthritis
+ proximal interphalangeal joints
- shoulder joints
- hip joints
- distal interphalangeal joints
- sacroileal joints
#What radiological changes characterize rheumatoid arthritis
+ erosive and destructive process
- osteolysis of the terminal phalanges of the hands
- the presence of osteophytes
- osteosclerosis
- sacroileite
# Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute kidney disease with a predominant lesion:
- interstitium
- kanaltsev
+ glomeruli
- cups
- pelvis
# Acute glomerulonephritis is ... a glomerular lesion:
+ immune complex treatment
- autoimmune
- bacterial
- viral content
- allergic
# The main etiological factor of acute glomerulonephritis:
- enterococcus
- pneumococcus
- Staphylococcus
+ Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
- klebsiella
#At what time after an infection is acute glomerulonephritis more likely to develop after:
- 2-3 days
- 4-6 days
+ 8-14 days
- 1 month
- 1.5 months
# Clinical variants of chronic glomerulonephritis include all but:
- latent, hematuric
+ white blood cells.
- hypertensive
- nephritic
- nephrotic .
# The classic triad of CHF symptoms is:
- Chest pain with deep breathing, cough and shortness of breath.
- Feeling of heaviness behind the sternum, shortness of breath and palpitation.
+ Shortness of breath, weakness and swelling of the legs
- Hepatomegaly, ascites and portal hypertension.
- Attacks of shortness of breath at night, coughing and palpitations.
# Signs of stage I CHF:
+ Latent circulatory insufficiency, which manifests itself only during physical exertion
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory failure in the small circle.
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory failure in a large circle.
- Dystrophic stage with severe hemodynamic disorders and irreversible structural changes in the organs.
- At rest, there are signs of stagnation in the small and large circulatory system.
# Signs of stage IIA CHF:
- Latent circulatory insufficiency, which manifests itself only during physical exertion.
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency in the small and large circle.
- With a small load, there are signs of circulatory failure in a large circle.
+ At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency in either a small or large circle
- Dystrophic stage with severe hemodynamic disorders and irreversible structural changes in the organs.
# Signs of stage IIB CHF:
- Latent circulatory insufficiency, which manifests itself only during physical exertion.
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency either in a small or large circle.
- With a small load, there are signs of circulatory failure in a large circle.
+ At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency in the small and large circle
- Dystrophic stage with severe hemodynamic disorders and irreversible structural changes in the organs.
# Signs of stage III CHF:
- Latent circulatory insufficiency, which manifests itself only during physical exertion.
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency in the small and large circle.
- With a small load, there are signs of circulatory failure in a large circle.
- At rest, there are signs of circulatory insufficiency in the small and large circle.
+ Dystrophic stage with severe hemodynamic disorders and irreversible structural changes in the organs
# Manifestations of CHF corresponding to functional class I (FC):
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath with a small physical exertion.
- The appearance of edema during physical exertion, exceeding the usual.
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath during normal physical activity.
- The appearance of pain in the legs with little physical exertion.
+ Fatigue, palpitations, and / or shortness of breath when exerting more than the patient's usual amount of
exercise
# Manifestations of CHF corresponding to FC II:
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath with a small physical exertion.
- Development of syncope during normal physical exertion.
+ The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath during normal physical activity
- The appearance of pain in the legs with little physical exertion.
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath when exerting more than usual for
the patient.
# Manifestations of CHF corresponding to FC III:
+ The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath with little exercise
- Development of syncope during normal physical exertion.
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath during normal physical activity.
- The appearance of pain in the legs with little physical exertion.
- The appearance of edema with little physical exertion.
# Manifestations of CHF corresponding to FC IV:
- The appearance of fatigue, palpitations and / or shortness of breath with a small physical exertion.
+ Presence of CHF symptoms at rest
- Development of syncope with little physical exertion.
- The appearance of pain in the legs with little physical exertion.
- The appearance of edema with little physical exertion.
# What is the most common cause of chronic heart failure currently?
- rheumatic heart disease
+ CHD
- arterial hypertension
- cardiomyopathy
- myocarditis and cardiodystrophy
#For chronic gastritis type B, a more characteristic type of secretion is:
+ advanced
- ahilia
- reduced
- normal
- hyposecretion
#On Helicobacter Pylori has the effect of:
- gastrotsepin
- gastropharm
- almagel
+ trichopolum
- maalox
# A histamine H-2 receptor blocker applies.:
- de-nol
- platifillin
- festal
+ kvamatel
- maalox
# Choose 1 basic medicine used to treat Ankylosing spondylitis:
+ sulfasalazine
- indomethacin
- aspirin
- kurantil
- imodium
# Select normal blood uric acid values:
+ for men
-0.3-0.42 mmol / l
- for women -0.6 – 0.8 mmol / l
- for men-0.5-0.6 mmol / l
- 0for women-0.4-0.5 mmol / l
- for men-0.56-0.65 mmol / l
# Choose the leading pathogenetic mechanism for the development of systemic scleroderma:
+ activation of collagen synthesis and fibrillation
- reduced collagen synthesis and fibrillation
- drug intoxication
- alcohol intoxication
- occupational hazards
# In the etiology of systemic scleroderma, a suggested role is played by (1response):
+ genetic predisposition
- injury
- bacteria
- insolation
- hypothermia
# Choose the characteristic type of kidney damage in systemic scleroderma:
+ "true scleroderma" kidney
- pyelonephritis
- urolithiasis
- amyloidosis of the kidneys
- interstitial nephritis
# For a " true scleroderma kidney ", the most characteristic 1 sign is:
+ rapid development of kidney failure
- urinary tract infection
- isolated urinary syndrome
- slow development of kidney failure
- normal blood pressure
# Which of these drugs is not a basic treatment for systemic scleroderma?
+ indomethacin
- cyclophosphamide
- azathioprine
- colchicine
- D-Penicillamine
# Pathogenetic therapy for systemic scleroderma is carried out with the goal ( 1 answer) :
+ reduced collagen synthesis
- treatment of secondary synovitis
- improve cartilage metabolism
- increased urate excretion
- decongestant effect
# Select 1 characteristic change of hands and fingers during SSc:
+ osteolysis of the terminal phalanges
- no changes
- the presence of Goeberden's nodules
- presence of Bouchard nodules
- tophusa
# The most common type of skin lesion in dermatomyositis :
+ purplish-purple erythema on the face and neck
- erythema nodosum
- ring-shaped erythema
- rashes on the lower extremities
- Angioedema
# Select 1 additional criteria for dermatomyositis:
+ muscle calcification
- damage to the muscles of the extremities
- paraorbital edema
- increase the level of transminases by 50% or more
- polyarthritis
# Choose 1 of the prednisone doses to treat acute dermatomyositis:
+ 80 mg / day.
- 10 mg/day.
- 30 mg/day.
- 20 mg/day.
- 50 mg / day
# UP is characterized by vascular damage of the following type:
+ medium and small-caliber arteries
- the aorta and its branches
- veins of the lower extremities
- large-caliber arteries
- capillaries
# The following factor plays an important role in the development of PAN:
+ genetically determined change in immune reactivity
- bacteria
- hypothermia
- stress issues
- occupational hazards
# The most typical variant of cardiovascular system damage in PAN:
+ coronariitis
- diffuse myocarditis
- tank. endocarditis
- focal myocarditis
- pericarditis
# 1 characteristic difference of fever in UP :
+ decreases rapidly when prescribed corticosteroids
- lends itself well to the action of antibiotics
- correct type of temperature
- does not decrease after taking prednisone
- decreases rapidly after taking indomethacin
# Choose 1 main drug for the treatment of nodular periarteritis:
+ glucocorticosteroids
- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- preparations of the 4-aminoquinoline series
- vitamins
- antihistamines
# 1 a characteristic feature of polyneuritis in PAN :
+ asymmetry of the lesion
- tetraparezes
- rapid development
- symmetry of the lesion
- reversible character
# Choose 1 of the pathogenetic links of non-specific aortoarteritis:
+ formation of immune complexes
- cytokine overproduction
- sepsis
- hyperproduction of paraproteins
- dysproteinemia
# Intermittent claudication syndrome of the extremities is characteristic of the following disease:
+ non-specific aortoarteritis
- Wegener's granulomatosis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Horton's disease
- Reiter's disease
# Damage to the nervous system in non-specific aortoarteritis is manifested (1 answer):
+ memory loss, dizziness
- psychoemotional lability
- convulsions
- retrograde amnesia
- polyneuropathy
# In the diagnosis of non-specific aortoarteritis, the following study is crucial:
+ angiography of affected arteries
- ECG
- Echocardiography
- chest radiography
- Ultrasound of the kidneys
# Select 1 change in the blood test that is characteristic of focal pneumonia :
+ neutrophilic leukocytosis
- ESR is not changed
- hyperchromic anemia;
- leukopenia.
- agranulocytosis.
# Select 1 indicator that characterizes respiratory failure:
+ number of breathing movements 24 in 1 min
- attacks of suffocation;
- hyperemia of the face
- cough.
- swelling of the face
# Viral pneumonia is characterized by (1 response):
+ pronounced intoxication phenomena
- the beginning is gradual
- normal temperature
- thrombocytosis
- leukocytosis
# For focal pneumonia, in contrast to croup, the following symptom is characteristic:
+ locally heard sonorous wet wheezes
- diffuse dimming of the entire lobe
- stages of development
- bronchial respiration
- crepitation
# Choose 1 cause of acute pulmonary heart disease:
+ valvular pneumothorax
- community-acquired pneumonia
- pulmonary tuberculosis
- chronic bronchitis
- acute bronchitis
# Choose 1 drug to treat acute pulmonary heart disease:
+ streptokinase
- nitrates
- bromhexine
- strophanthin
- lazolvan
# Choose 1 medication used in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ metoprolol
- nitroglycerin
- eufillin
- papaverine
- strophanthin
# Select 1 characteristic feature for mitral stenosis:
+ amplification of the I tone at the apex, the tone ("click") of the mitral valve opening
- attenuation of the I tone at the top
- systolic murmur at the apex
- diastolic murmur at the Botkin point
- weakening of the II tone in the aorta
# Select 1 ECG sign that is characteristic of sinus node weakness syndrome:
+ persistent sinus bradycardia and sinoatrial block
- shortening the PQ interval
- ventricular extrasystole
- the presence of a full compensatory pause
- deformation of the QRS complex
# Select 1 ECG sign of atrial fibrillation:
+ the P wave is missing and the presence of f waves
- presence of the CA blockade
- presence of a P wave, absence of an f wave
- the R - R intervals are the same
- deformation of the QRS complex
# Select 1 ECG sign of an acute period of myocardial infarction:
+ elevation of the S - T segment above the contour line and discordance in leads
- lengthening of the PQ interval
- missing P-wave
- expansion of the ORS complex
- negative T wave
# Which of these indicators is not a risk factor for hypertension?
+ a rational diet
- smoking
- diabetes mellitus
- obesity
- sedentary lifestyle
# Which of these symptoms is characteristic of left ventricular failure:
+ wet, congestive wheezing in the lungs
- anorexia
- ascites
- swelling of the cervical veins
- liver enlargement
# Which of these symptoms is characteristic of left ventricular failure?:
+ orthopnea
- edema of the lower extremities
- suffocation attacks
- pain under the right hypochondrium
- liver enlargement
# Arteriosclerosis of the renal artery is characterized by:
+ arterial hypertension with high blood renin levels
- hypokalemia
- exophthalmos
- hyperglycemia
- moon-shaped face
# Choose the most effective antiarrhythmic drug for the treatment of ventricular extrasystole:
+ amiodarone
- digoxin
- isoptin
- verapamil
- strophanthin
# Select 1 indicator on the ECG that is characteristic of hypertension :
+ left ventricular hypertrophy.
- increase the amplitude of the "U" wave.
- slowing of atrioventricular conduction.
- presence of a delta wave.
- shortening the PQ segment.
# For cardiogenic shock, the following medication is used:
+ dopamine
- strophanthin
- riboxin
- polyglyukin
- cocarboxylase
# Select 1 symptom that is characteristic of pulmonary edema :
+ overload of the left heart
- overload of the right parts of the heart.
- scattered dry wheezing sounds
- swelling of the cervical veins
- ascites
# Pancreatitis is characterized by an increase in the following indicator in the blood:
+ amylases in the blood
- creatine phosphokinase in the blood
- alkaline phosphotase
- bilirubin in the blood
- cholesterol in the blood
# Specify 1 diagnostic sign of chronic pancreatitis:
+ pain in the epigastric region and in the left hypochondrium of a shingling nature
- copious vomiting, relieving the condition
- stable decorated chair
- heartburn
- burp
# The diet of patients with UC should limit (1):
+ fats
- squirrels
- salt
- liquid
- vitamins
# Which of the following systemic complications is rare in UC?
+ nephrotic syndrome
- autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
- reactive arthritis
- uveitis, episcleritis
- erythema nodosum.
# Choose 1 of the main functions of the pancreas:
+ excretory.
- exchange rate.
- detoxification system
- regulatory information
- substitution service
# To relieve pain in pancreatitis, use the following drug:
+ baralgin
- valokardin.
- morphine,
- analgin
- trimol
# Select 1 symptom that is characteristic of cholestatic syndrome in cirrhosis of the liver:
+ increased alkaline phosphatase.
- increase in unbound bilirubin.
- decrease in blood prothrombin.
- increase in the thymol test
- increase in total blood protein.
# Select 1 symptom that is characteristic of cholestatic syndrome in cirrhosis of the liver:
+ increase in bound bilirubin
- increase in unbound bilirubin.
- decrease in blood prothrombin.
- increase in the thymol test
- increase in total blood protein.
# Which of the clinical syndromes is typical for cirrhosis of the liver?:
+ cytolytic
- hypertensive
- nephrotic
- urinary tract infection
- coarctation
# Choose one of the characteristic complications of cirrhosis of the liver:
+ bleeding from varicose veins of the esophagus
- fatty degeneration.
- amyloidosis.
- chronic pancreatitis.
- anemia
# Choose one of the main metabolic products whose elimination is impaired in CKD:
+ creatinine
- dipoproteins
- ammonia
- lipids
- carbohydrates
# Choose one of the treatment options for patients with end-stage CKD:
+ hemodialysis
- plentiful drinking
- high protein diet
- hemosorption
- blood transfusions
# Choose one of the causes of acute pulmonary heart disease:
+ asthmatic status
- community-acquired pneumonia
- pulmonary tuberculosis
- chronic bronchitis
- acute bronchitis
# Choose one of the causes of developing chronic pulmonary heart disease:
+ emphysema of the lungs
- focal pneumonia
- pulmonary embolism
- valvular pneumothorax
- severe asthma attack
# Choose one of the ECG signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ diffuse myocardial changes
- increased voltage of the teeth
- raising the ST interval
- appearance of the U-wave
- high pointed prong T
# Choose one auscultative sign of mitral insufficiency:
+ I-tone attenuation and systolic noise at the apex
- gain I tone at the top
- diastolic murmur at the apex
- diastolic murmur at the Botkin point
- systolic murmur at the Botkin point
# Choose the most informative method for diagnosing the presence of mitral insufficiency:
+ Echocardiography
- spirography
- pneumotachometry
- heart scanning
- x-ray cymography of the heart
# Choose one clinical sign of right ventricular failure:
+ cervical vein swelling and acrocyanosis
- enlargement of the spleen
- pulsation of the cervical arteries
- small bubbly wheezes not sonorous in the lungs
- an attack of cardiac asthma
# Select one specific complaint from patients with aortic stenosis:
+ dizziness and tendency to faint
- expiratory dyspnea
- pain in the knee joints
- pain in the right hypochondrium
- pain in the left hypochondrium
# Choose one of the physical symptoms of aortic insufficiency:
+ shift of the apical push to the left and down
- displacement of the apical push to the right
- shifting the left border of the heart to the right
- systolic tremor in the region of the apex of the heart
- diastolic tremor at the apex
# The following medication should not be used in the treatment of obstructive GCM:
+ nitroglycerin
- concor
- cordaron
- verapamil
- obzidan
# Choose one of the groups of medications used in the treatment of heart failure in CHD:
+ ACE inhibitors
- beta-blockers
- glucocorticosteroids
- NSAIDs
- calcium antagonists
# Choose one of the main atypical variants of myocardial infarction:
+ gastralgic
- latent
- mixed
- painful
- cholestatic
# Choose one absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction:
+ acute bleeding
- patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction
- duration of myocardial infarction up to 12 hours
- ST segment elevation of 2 mm or more in 2 adjacent precardial leads
- acute coronary syndrome with ST segment elevation
# The following diseases lead to "remodeling" of the heart:
+ heart defects
- neurocircular dystonia
- arterial hypotension
- chronic bronchitis
- myocardial dystrophy
# Choose one of the characteristic signs of cardiogenic shock in myocardial infarction:
+ reduction of systolic blood pressure to 80 mmHg.
- cold sweat
- increase in pulse blood pressure
- polyuria
- pulse celler et altus
# Choose one of the characteristic ECG signs of aortic stenosis:
+ blockage of the left leg of the Gis bundle
- sinus arrhythmia
- sinus tachycardia
- right atrial hypertrophy
- right ventricular hypertrophy
# Choose one medication to stop supraventricular tachycardia paroxysm:
+ isoptin
- atropine
- quinidine
- lidocaine
- platifillin
# Name one of the diseases that need to be differentiated from UC:
+ infectious diseases: dysentery
- cholecystitis
- hepatitis
- spastic colitis
- enteritis
# Select a complaint that is specific to patients with chronic pancreatitis:
+ pain in the left hypochondrium radiating to the back
- pain in the right hypochondrium
- a single vomiting that brings relief
- constipation
- heartburn
# Choose one of the laboratory parameters that are characteristic of the nephrotic stage of amyloidosis:
+ massive daily proteinuria
- no edema
- hyperproteinemia
- hyperfermentemia
- leukocyturia
# Choose one indication for hemodialysis:
+ EC reduction of less than 10 ml / min
- reduction of CF less than 25 ml / min
- stable reduction in daily diuresis of less than 1000 ml
- an increase in creatinine of more than 0.12 mmol / l
# Choose one of the characteristic symptoms of CKD:
+ uremic encephalopathy
- hyperemia of the face
- obesity
- enuresis
- moisture of the skin
# Choose one of the complications of corticosteroid therapy:
+ arterial hypertension
- arterial hypotension
- hypoglycemia
- diabetes insipidus
- dyskinesia of the gallbladder
# Choose one of the complications of corticosteroid therapy:
+ diabetes mellitus
- arterial hypotension
- hyperproteinemia
- enteritis
- anemia
# Select 1 concept that characterizes systemic scleroderma:
+ this is a systemic disease of connective tissue and small vessels
- a systemic disease with a predominant lesion of the joints
- characterized by an erosive and destructive process in the joints
- characterized by symptoms of nodular periarthritis
- mainly affects muscle tissue
# Select 1 concept that characterizes systemic scleroderma:
+ characterized by fibro-sclerotic changes in the skin, stroma and internal organs
- a systemic disease with a predominant lesion of the joints
- characterized by an erosive and destructive process in the joints
- characterized by symptoms of nodular periarthritis
- mainly affects muscle tissue
# Choose one of the following medications to treat reactive arthritis:
+ macrolides
- gentamicin
- penicillin
- cephalosporins
- sulfonamides
# Choose 1 group of drugs for the treatment of dermatomyositis:
+ corticosteroids
- antibiotics
- anticholinergics
- antispasmodics
- antacids
# Choose one of the following risk factors for developing gout:
+ systematic use of alcohol
- following a diet
- low physical activity
- fatty hepatosis
- excessive consumption of carbohydrates
# Choose one of the side effects of prednisone :
+ ulcerogenic effect
- hypoglycemia
- lowering blood pressure
- conjunctivitis
- leukopenia
# Choose one of the drugs for pathogenetic treatment of nodular periarteritis:
+ azathioprine
- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- antibiotics
- vitamins
- antihistamines
# Choose one X-ray characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis:
+ formation of syndesmophytes, spine in the form of a "bamboo stick"
- damage to the proximal interphalangeal joints
- damage to the big toe
- usuration of edges
- no changes
# Choose one X-ray characteristic of Ankylosing spondylitis:
+ formation of syndesmophytes
- osteophytes
- usuration of edges
- the "puncher"symptom
- no changes
# Choose one of the options for lung damage in dermatomyositis:
+ interstitial pneumonia
- croup pneumonia
- exudative pleurisy
- focal tuberculosis
- sarcoidosis of the lungs
# Choose one diagnostic criterion for nodular periarteritis :
+ coronariitis
- myocarditis
- bacterial endocarditis
- presence of LE cells
- sclerodactyly
# Which of these signs occurs in seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
+ conjunctivitis
- damage to the proximal interphalangeal joints
- positive rheumatoid factor
- flying joint pain
- atrophy of interosseous muscles
# Choose one of the additional criteria for Reiter's syndrome:
+ positive result of urethral or cervical scrapings
- evidence of persistent infection in the synovial membrane
- the presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
- the presence of rheumatoid factor in the synovial membrane
- the presence of sodium uric acid crystals in the synovial membrane
# Choose one radiographic sign that is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis?
+ vertebral squaring
- the "puncher"symptom
- multiple usurps
- osteophytes
- foci of myomalacia
# Choose one of the leading pathogenetic mechanisms of systemic scleroderma:
+ microcirculation disorders in the skin and internal organs
- reduced collagen synthesis and fibrillation
- drug intoxication
- alcohol intoxication
- occupational hazards
# Choose one of the options for kidney damage in systemic scleroderma:
+ chronic glomerulonephritis
- pyelonephritis
- urolithiasis
- amyloidosis of the kidneys
- polycystic kidney disease
# Choose a characteristic feature of a "true scleroderma kidney":
+ high arterial hypertension
- isolated urinary syndrome
- slow development of kidney failure
- normal blood pressure
- cholestatic syndrome
# Choose one basic treatment for systemic scleroderma?
+ D-Penicillamine
- indomethacin
- voltaren
- ibuprofen
- aspirin
# Pathogenetic therapy for systemic scleroderma is carried out with the goal (1 answer):
+ improved microcirculation
- treatment of secondary synovitis
- improve cartilage metabolism
- increased urate excretion
- decongestant effect
# Choose one of the types of skin lesions for dermatomyositis :
+ erythema of the upper eyelids (paraorbital edema)
- erythema nodosum
- ring-shaped erythema
- rashes on the lower extremities
- Lyell's syndrome
# Choose one of the pathogenetic links of non-specific aortoarteritis:
+ formation of antiendothelial antibodies
- cytokine overproduction
- sepsis
- hyperproduction of paraproteins
- dysproteinemia
# In the diagnosis of non-specific aortoarteritis, the crucial value is (1response)
+ ultrasound scanning of the neck vessels
- Ultrasound of the liver and pancreas
- general .blood and urine tests
- total protein and protein fractions of blood
- acute phase indicators
# Choose one of the characteristic signs of seronegative spondyloarthritis:
+ carrier of HLA-B27
- the presence of a rheumatoid factor
- morning stiffness
- damage to the proximal interphalangeal joints
- bone patterns
# Which of these signs is rare in ankylosing spondylitis?
+ female gender
- HLA-B27 carrier
- sacroileite
- male gender
- reduction of pain after physical activity
# Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by the following clinical signs:
+ stiffness of the lumbar spine
- flying joint pain
- "starting pains" in the joints
- damage to the interphalangeal joints
- Goeberden's nodules
# Choose one of the main atypical variants of myocardial infarction:
+ cerebral
- latent
- mixed
- nephrotic
- cholestatic
# Choose one of the absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction:
+ hemorrhagic diatheses
- patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction
- duration of myocardial infarction up to 12 hours
- lifting the ST segment by 3 mm or more
- acute coronary syndrome with ST segment elevation
# Choose one of the absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction:
+ a history of hemorrhagic stroke
- patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction
- duration of myocardial infarction up to 10 hours
- 2.5 mm ST segment lift
- acute coronary syndrome
# Choose one criterion for right ventricular hypertrophy:
+ R V1+ S V5> 10.5 mm
- Left ventricular overload
- High P wave in lead II
- High R wave in the I lead
- Positive Sokolov-Lyon index
# Crohn's disease, unlike UC, is characterized by the following symptom:
+ damage to the small and large intestines
- damage to the mucous and submucosal layers of the intestinal wall
- damage only to the large intestine
- sigma defeat
- absence of sarcoid-like granulomas
# Crohn's disease, unlike UC, is characterized by the following symptom:
+ transmural intestinal damage
- damage to the intestinal wall mucosa
- lesion of only 12 intestines
- lesion of the rectum
- presence of sarcoid-like granulomas
# Mark the characteristic clinical sign of liver failure:
+ hepatic bad breath
- constipation
- the appearance of suffocation attacks
- reduction of diuresis
- convulsions
# Mark the characteristic clinical sign of liver failure:
+ confusion
- tenesmus cells
- the appearance of palpitations
- increased diuresis
- cough
# Mark the characteristic clinical sign of chronic pancreatitis:
+ signs of diabetes
- splenomegaly
- hepatomegaly
- oliguria
- obesity
# Choose the etiological factor of chronic pancreatitis ( 1 answer):
+ diseases of the greater duodenal papilla zone
- drastic restriction of protein and fat in food
- hypothermia
- viral infection
- bacterial infection
# Choose 1 of the most common pathogens of community-acquired pneumonia:
+ pneumococcus
- Staphylococcus
- shigella
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- klebsiela
# Viral pneumonia is characterized by the following symptoms:
+ leukopenia and lymphocytopenia
- the beginning is gradual
- normal temperature
- thrombocytosis
- leukocytosis
# Indicate the characteristic radiographic sign of reactive arthritis:
+ asymmetric periarticular osteoporosis
- bilateral sacroiliitis
- multiple usurps
- "the puncher's symptom"
- osteophytes
# What disease is seronegative spondyloarthritis?
+ ankylosing spondylitis
- rheumatoid arthritis
- rheumatic polyarthritis
- Raynaud's syndrome
- deforming osteoarthritis
# Choose a disease that leads to secondary gout: :
+ leukemias
- fatty hepatosis
- acute renal failure
- chronic enteritis
- cholecystitis
# Select a sign of gouty arthritis:
+ sudden severe pain in the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint
- gradual onset of an attack
- mainly affects the joints of the hands
- "flying" joint pain
- morning stiffness of the joints
# Specify the provoking factor of gouty arthritis:
+ a meal rich in purines
- smoking
- limited physical activity
- bacterial infection
- viral infection
# Specify the manifestation of gouty nephropathy:
+ kidney stone disease
- amyloidosis
- polycystic kidney disease
- nephroptosis
- glomerulonephritis
# Indicate the characteristic radiographic sign of gout:
+ "the puncher's symptom"
- osteophytes
- ankylosis
- bone metastasis
- myeloid metaplasia
# Select the main diagnostic criterion for gout:
+ increased blood uric acid levels
- chronic polyarthritis
- gouty nephropathy
- fever
- dysuria
# Select the option that is not part of the "CREST" syndrome:
+ myocarditis
- Raynaud's syndrome
- calcification of soft tissues
- esophagitis
- sclerodactyly
# Choose a non-characteristic sign of liver failure:
+ constipation
- hepatic bad breath
- bleeding
- confusion of consciousness
- change of handwriting
# Choose a non-specific sign of chronic pancreatitis :
+ splenomegaly
- diarrhea
- signs of diabetes mellitus
- hyperglycemia
- increased blood amylase
# Not used in the treatment of obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ nitroglycerin
- concor
- cordaron
- isoptin
- anaprilin
# Specify a non-specific sign of chronic pulmonary heart disease:
+ left ventricular insufficiency
- pulmonary hypertension
- chronic obstructive bronchitis
- right ventricular hypertrophy
- hypertrophy of the left right atrium
# Not used in the treatment of liver failure:
+ diphenhydramine
- glucose
- vitamins
- lactulose
- ornithetil
# Specify a late complication of myocardial infarction:
+ Dressler's syndrome
- acute left ventricular failure
- cardiogenic shock
- ventricular fibrillation
- thrombembolic complication
# Select a characteristic sign of left ventricular failure:
+ suffocation attacks at night
- ascites
- swelling of the cervical veins
- swelling of the lower extremities
- hepatomegaly
# Indicate a non - characteristic ECG sign of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia:
+ not modified QRS complex
- missing P-wave
- heart rate 140 - 220 per minute
- deformation and expansion of the ORS complex
- sudden onset of an attack
# Specify the thrombolytic drug:
+ alteplaza
- trombonet
- dipyridamole
- clopidogrel
- kurantil
# Specify a medication for the treatment of ventricular extrasystole:
+ cordarone
- isoptin
- corinthar
- nitrosorbite
- papaverine
# Specify a characteristic feature for resorption-necrotic syndrome :
+ increase in ESR
- hypoproteinemia
- decrease in the prothrombin index
- hypercholesterolemia
- hyperbilirubinemia
# Highlight the proto-indications for ACE inhibitors:
+ hyperkalemia (greater than 5.5 mmol.)
- heart failure
- left ventricular hypertrophy
- post-infarction cardiosclerosis
- arterial hypertension
# Indicate the characteristic ECG sign of AV block II degree Mobitz I :
+ gradual lengthening of the PQ interval with subsequent loss of the QRS complex
- permanent loss of the ventricular complex
- two-phase prong P
- unchanged PQ interval
- availability of the wave delta
# Indicate the characteristic ECG sign of AV block II degree Mobitz II :
+ unchanged PQ interval and non-constant loss of the QRS complex
- expansion of the QRS complex
- gradual lengthening of the PQ interval
- availability of f are free
- permanent loss of the ventricular complex
# Indicate the characteristic ECG sign of AV block II degree Mobitz III :
+ unchanged PQ interval and constant loss of the QRS complex
- shortening the PQ interval
- non-permanent loss of the QRS complex
- P-prong changed
- availability of F are free
# What research confirms the diagnosis of pyelonephritis ?
+ excretory urography
- determination of blood protein
- determination of uric acid in the blood
- ECG
- daily blood pressure monitoring
# Specify the Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:
+ novocainamide
- atenolol
- amiodarone
- verapamil
- propranolol
# Specify an IC-class antiarrhythmic drug:
+ allapenin
- amiodarone
- diltiazem
- novocainamide
- lidocaine
# Specify a cardioselective beta-blocker:
+ bisoprolol
- anaprilin
- propafenone
- allapenin
- amiodarone
# What medication is used to treat permanent atrial fibrillation ?
+ atenolol
- etacizin
- aimalin
- analgin
- novocainamide
# Specify the characteristic sign of biliary cirrhosis of the liver:
+ itchy skin
- bilirubin is normal
- edema of the lower extremities
- the skin is pale
- hypoproteinemia
# Which disease is differentiated from non-specific ulcerative colitis (UC):
+ Crohn's disease
- cholecystitis
- enteritis
- hepatitis
- spastic colitis
# Select a basic drug for the treatment of non-specific ulcerative colitis:
+ derivatives of 5-aminosalicylic acid
- антибиотиклар
- eubiotics
- antispasmodics
- anticholinergics
# Specify the characteristic sign of cirrhosis of the liver:
+ development of regenerative units
- liver function is not impaired
- hepatomegaly
- edema of the lower extremities
- cholecystitis
# Early sign of portal hypertension:
+ flatulence
- hepatomegaly
- constipation
- burp
- heartburn
# Indicate a sign that is characteristic of hepatic cell failure:
+ hemorrhagic diathesis
- hepatomegaly
- hypofermentemia
- hypercholesterolemia
- portal hypotension
# Specify the characteristic sign of cholestasis:
+ increase in bound bilirubin
- increase in the thymol test
- hypocholesterolemia
- thrombocytosis
- increased AST activity
# To reduce the activity of pancreatic enzymes, use :
+ kontrikal
- mezim forte
- creon
- panzinorm
- trizim
# For replacement therapy in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis, the following is used :
+ mezim forte
- aminocaproic acid
- kontrikal
- trasilol
- gordox
# Specify the characteristic feature for liver cirrhosis during decompensation:
+ severe ascites
- palmar hyperemia
- increased liver size
- bitterness in the mouth
- swelling of the upper extremities
# Specify a characteristic feature for liver cirrhosis during decompensation :
+ signs of encephalopathy
- pallor of the skin
- hepatomegaly
- puffiness of the face
- cyanosis
# Specify the characteristic syndrome for cirrhosis of the liver:
+ dyspeptic syndrome
- nephrotic
- malabsorption syndromes
- uretic syndrome
- hypotensive
# Specify a characteristic feature for mesenchymal-inflammatory syndrome in cirrhosis of the liver:
+ increase in ESR
- increase in ALT
- increase in AST
- leukopenia
- hypoproteinemia
# Specify a characteristic feature for non-specific ulcerative colitis:
+ diarrhea
- headaches
- vomiting
- constipation
- flatulence
# Select a hepatoprotective drug:
+ heptral
- retabolil
- cholestyramine
- allochol
- festal
# Indicate the characteristic sign of liver failure:
+ bleeding
- constipation
- shortness of breath
- increased diuresis
- dizziness
# Indicate the characteristic sign of liver failure:
+ impaired consciousness
- heartburn
- burp
- polyuria
- flatulence
# What enzyme increases in chronic pancreatitis?
+ diastasis
- AST
- ALT
- alkaline phosphatase
- aldolase
# Specify a developmental factor for portal hypertension:
+ increased portal vein pressure greater than 30 mmHg
- reduction of portal vein pressure less than 30 mmHg
- hyperglycemia
- reduction of pulmonary artery pressure
- presence of polyuria
# Specify the treatment method for end-stage chronic kidney failure:
+ kidney transplantation
- low-protein diet
- taking vitamins
- blood transfusion
- bowel lavage
# For the treatment of anemia in chronic renal failure, use:
+ use of iron preparations
- reception of saline solutions
- appointment of plasma substitutes
- antispasmodics
- reopoliglyukin
# Select the diagnostic criteria for gout:
+ availability of topuses
- morning stiffness in the joints
- erythema palmarum
- ring-shaped erythema
- the presence of Goeberden's nodules
# Select the diagnostic criteria for gout:
+ increased uric acid in the blood
- uric acid in the blood is normal
- eosinophilia
- hypocholesterolemia
- hypoalbuminemia
# Select a manifestation of gouty nephropathy :
+ Kidney stone diseases
- acute pyelonephritis
- polycystic kidney disease
- tuberculosis of the kidneys
- acute glomerulonephritis
# Select the diagnostic criteria for gout:
+ acute arthritis plus-phalangeal joints
- absence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
- "starting" joint pain
- erythema nodosum
- morning stiffness in the joints
# Select uricodepressant medication for gout treatment :
+ allopurinol
- ethamide
- indomethacin
- kryzanol
- kuprenil
# Select a uricosuric drug to treat gout:
+ ethamide
- voltaren
- thiopurinol
- penicillin
- colchicine
# For Reiter's disease, the characteristic lesion is :
+ urethritis
- bronchitis
- glomerulonephritis
- myocarditis
- pleurisy
# For Reiter's disease, the characteristic lesion is :
+ conjunctivitis
- pericarditis
- peritonitis
- myasthenia gravis
- myalgia
# Specify the characteristic joint damage in Reiter's disease:
+ reactive oligo or monoarthritis
- symmetrical joint damage
- "flying" joint pain
- "starting" joint pain
- morning stiffness in the joints
# Select an antibiotic to treat reactive arthritis:
+ clarithromycin
- cefatoxime
- gentamicin
- penicillin
- oleandomycin
# Select an antibiotic to treat reactive arthritis:
+ sumamed
- cefatoxime
- gentamicin
- penicillin
- oleandomycin
# Characteristic skin changes in dermatomyositis :
+ erythematous rash on the upper eyelid of the eyes
- erythema on the face
- discoid-like rash
- urticaria
- hemorrhagic rash on the lower extremities
# Dermatomyositis is characterized by the following symptom:
+ paraorbital edema
- erythema nodosum
- keratitis
- tophus
- compaction
# Dermatomyositis is characterized by the following symptom:
+ choking
- diarrhea
- obesity
- heartburn
- polyneuropathy
# Characteristic skin changes in dermatomyositis :
+ "symptom glasses" around the eyeball
- ring-shaped erythema
- erythema nodosum
- papular rash
- dense edema
# For the treatment of dermatomyositis apply :
+ cytostatics
- nitrates
- analgesics
- anabolics
- diuretics
# Specify the causative agent of reactive arthritis :
+ ureoplasma
- gonococcus
- pneumococcus
- candida
- klebsiella
# At low activity of Ankylosing spondylitis apply:
+ nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- steroids
- cytostatics
- vitamins
- gold preparations
# Select an X-ray sign of Ankylosing spondylitis:
+ presence of syndesmophytes
- subchondral osteosclerosis
- osteophytes
- joint cysts
- osteoporosis
# Select an X-ray sign of Ankylosing spondylitis:
+ bilateral sacroiliitis
- subchondral osteosclerosis
- osteophytes
- presence of cysts
- osteoporosis
# Select a characteristic feature of Ankylosing spondylitis:
+ mainly affects the lumbosacral joint
- large blood vessels are affected
- interphalangeal joints are affected
- symmetry of the lesion
- the presence of Heberden nodules
# Who is more likely to get gout?
+ over 35-40 years old men
- young women
- young people
- children
- teenagers
# Specify the characteristic sign of blood changes in gout:
+ hyperuricemia
- hypereosinophilia
- hypoglycemia
- hyperfibrinogenemia
- hyperlipidemia
# A characteristic sign of synovial fluid in gout:
+ presence of uric acid crystals
- the presence of red blood cells
- the presence of white blood cells
- the presence of cholesterol
- the presence of lipids
# Select a medication to stop a gout attack:
+ colchicine
- aspirin
- delagil
- kryzanol
- methotrexate
# Select a uricosuric drug to treat gout:
+ ethamide
- voltaren
- thiopurinol
- penicillin
- colchicine
# Choose a characteristic cirrhosis syndrome:
+ portal hypertension
- nephrotic
- hypertensive
- angina pectoris
- disuric
# Name an objective clinical sign of cirrhosis of the liver:
+ vascular asterisks
- rose-like rashes
- keratoderma
- Bouchard's nodules
- swelling of the face
# Select a feature that is part of the CREST syndrome for systemic scleroderma:
+ calcification
- pneumonia
- duodenitis
- cholecystitis
- hepatitis
# Select a feature that is part of the CREST syndrome in systemic scleroderma
+ Raynaud's syndrome
- Reiter's syndrome
- Dressler's syndrome
- Marfan syndrome
- Pickwick's syndrome
# Name the features that are included in the concept of the "gold standard" in the diagnosis of pneumonia:
+ fever
- ESR acceleration
- ESR deceleration
- eosinophilia
- anemia
# Name the features that are included in the concept of the "gold standard" in the diagnosis of pneumonia:
+ cough
- thrombocytosis
- leukopenia
- lymphocytosis
- obesity
# For the treatment of anemia in chronic renal failure, use:
+ erythropoietin preparations
- thiamine chloride
- ascorbic acid
- pyridoxine hydrochloride
- nicotinic acid
# Indicate the clinical symptom of uremia in chronic renal failure:
+ itchy skin,dry mouth
- dry wheezing in the lungs
- wet wheezing in the lungs
- shortness of breath
- sweating
# Specify the change in the skin caused by scleroderma :
+ skin compaction
- soft leather
- ulceration
- calcification
- hemorrhagic rashes
# Specify the stages of skin changes in scleroderma :
+ induration stages
- dystrophic stage
- hemorrhagic stage
- nephrotic stage
- terminal stage
# Indicate a non - characteristic ECG sign of myocardial infarction in the acute period:
+ missing P-wave
- discordance of leads
- single-phase curve
- the presence of a pathological Q wave
- segment S-T above the contour line
# Indicate a non-specific sign of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ splenomegaly
- cardiomegaly
- violation of coronary blood circulation
- - rhythm and conduction disorders
- thromboembolism
# In the etiology of bacterial endocarditis, the following factors play a role:
+ gram"+ " - bacteria
- Coxsackie viruses
- herpes virus
- campylobacter pylori
- E. coli
# Manifestations of infectious endocarditis can be represented by the following syndrome:
+ inflammatory changes
- nephrotic
- asthenic-neurotic
- uremic
- metabolic
# List the echocardiographic signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ diffuse dilation of the heart cavities
- reduction of the left ventricular cavity
- local myocardial hypokinesia of the left ventricle of the myocardium
- significant thickening of the interventricular septum
- reduction of the left atrial cavity
# Name the diseases that lead to the development of secondary forms of restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ primary amyloidosis
- endomyocardial fibrosis
- fibroplastic endocarditis
- infectious endocarditis
- myocarditis
# Choose one of the criteria for right ventricular hypertrophy:
+ RV1 > 7 mm
- overload of the right atrium
- high P wave in lead III
- high R wave in the second lead
- high R wave in the I standard lead
# Name the main complication of UC:
+ profuse bleeding
- mesenteric artery thrombosis
- diverticulosis
- rectal prolapse
- intracavitary fistulas
# Name specific changes in the intestinal mucosa in UC:
+ ulcers of various sizes and shapes
- pseudodiverticle
- strengthening of vascular pattern
- atrophy of the colon mucosa
- damage to all layers of the intestine
# Select a feature that is specific to mild UA:
+ diarrhea with blood up to 4 times a day
- diarrhea up to 5-6 times
- ESR up to 26-30 mm / h
- systemic manifestations may include
- diarrhea more than 10-15 times
# Choose one of the signs that are typical for moderate UA:
+ defecation 5-6 times a day with a significant amount of blood
- defecation up to 4 times a day with streaks of blood
- there are no systemic manifestations
- diarrhea per day 10-15 times
- the temperature is normal
# Specify one of the signs that characterize the chronic course of SSD:
+ progressive vasomotor disorders such as Raynaud's syndrome
- rapidly progressing changes in internal organs
- frequent kidney damage of the type of true scleroderma kidney
- rapid development of kidney failure
- coronary insufficiency
# Choose one of the big criteria for nodular periarteritis:
+ bronchial asthma with eosinophilia
- fever
- myalgic syndrome
- weight loss
- epigastric pain
# Manifestations of infectious endocarditis can be represented by the following syndrome:
+ development of heart disease
- nephrotic
- asthenic-neurotic
- uremic
- coarctation
# Choose 2 medications to treat pneumococcal pneumonia:
+ penicillins
+ I-generation cephalosporins
- macrolides
- aminoglycosides
# Developing hospital-acquired pneumonia: (choose 2 answers)
+ after 48 hours.
+ after 72 hours.
- after 24 hours.
- after 12 hours.
# Choose 2 expectorant medications:
+ bromhexine
+ lazolvan
- tusuprex
- libexin
# Choose 2 medications used in the treatment of acute pulmonary heart disease:
+ heparin
+ streptokinase
- bromhexine
- strophanthin
# Respiratory failure is characterized by the following 2 symptoms:
+ hypoxia
+ hypercapture
- hypertension
- hyperproteinemia
# For focal pneumonia, in contrast to chronic bronchitis, the following 2 symptoms are characteristic:
+ locally heard sonorous moist rales
+ X-ray shows focal darkening with unclear contours
- boxed sound during percussion
- pulmonary fields of increased transparency
# Select 2 drugs related to anticholinergics:
+ atrovent
+ Troventol
- salbutamol
- isadrin
# Select the optimal complex of 2 drugs for the treatment of stage 1 heart failure:
+ diuretics
+ ACE inhibitors
- cardiac glycosides
- dobutamine
# People most often suffer from infective endocarditis (choose 2 answers):
+ old people
+ young men
- women
- children
# List 2 diseases united by the concept of primary restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ endomyocardial fibrosis
+ Loeffler's fibroplastic endocarditis
- idiopathic Fiedler's myocarditis
- restrictive pericarditis
#2 direct auscultatory signs. characteristic of mitral insufficiency:
+ weakening of the first tone at the apex
+ systolic murmur at the apex
- strengthening of the first tone
- diastolic murmur at the apex
# Mitral stenosis is a consequence of 2 reasons:
+ rheumatism
+ atherosclerosis
- thyrotoxicosis
- rheumatoid arthritis
# Specify 2 main auscultatory signs of aortic stenosis:
+ systolic murmur in the 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum
+ weakening of the second tone over the aorta
- diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- accent of the II tone over the pulmonary artery
# Select 2 auscultatory noncardiac signs of aortic insufficiency:
+ double Traube tone
+ double Durosier noise
- systolic murmur over the renal artery
- systolic murmur over the iliac artery
# Specify the 2 most common causes of sudden death in cardiomyopathies:
+ ventricular fibrillation
+ thromboembolic complications
- moderate heart failure.
- atrial fibrillation
# .With combined stenosis of the mitral and aortic orifices, 2 symptoms are not typical:
+ systolic murmur at the apex
+ diastolic murmur on the aorta
- diastolic murmur at the apex
- systolic murmur in the aorta
# Specify 2 ECG signs of Frederick's syndrome:
+ complete atrioventricular block
+ atrial fibrillation (or flutter)
- incomplete AV block
- atrial extrasystole
# Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome is characterized by 2 signs:
+ complete A-B blockade (distal form)
+ heart rate less than 40 per minute
- R-R intervals are the same
- incomplete A-B blockade 1st degree
# In the treatment of Dressler syndrome, 2 groups of drugs are used:
+ NSAIDs
+ GKS
- sedatives
- antibiotics
# Select 2 late complications of myocardial infarction:
+ Dressler syndrome
+ chronic heart failure
- heartbreak
- pulmonary edema
# In the treatment of cardiac asthma during MI, the following 2 groups of drugs are used:
+ diuretics
+ nitrates
- electropulse therapy
- antibiotics
# Select 2 signs that distinguish left ventricular failure from right ventricular failure:
+ congestion in the lungs
+ increased diastolic pressure in the left atrium
- ascites
- increased levels of liver enzymes
# In patients with hypertrophic cardiomyotia, the following 2 drugs increase obstruction:
+ digoxin
+ nitroglycerin
- lasix
- obzidan
# Select 2 research methods to differentiate cardiomyopathy and ischemic heart disease:
+ EchoCG
+ Coronography
- Holter monitoring
- ECG
# Select 2 causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ Loeffler's endocarditis
+ amyloidosis
- long-term hypertension
- bronchitis
# Select 2 physical signs of restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ small heart size
+ swelling of the neck veins on inspiration
- paradoxical splitting of the second t on inspiration
- diastolic murmur at the apex
# When treating obstructive HCM, the following 2 drugs should not be used:
+ nitrosorbitol
+ korglucon
- verapamil
- obzidan
# Select 2 methods to clarify the diagnosis of restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ echocardiography
+ myocardial biopsy
- electrocardiography
- radiography
# Select 2 direct diagnostic signs of IE:
+ presence of vegetations on heart valves
+ positive blood culture
- low-grade fever
- negative blood culture
# Electropulse therapy is used in the following 2 cases:
+ atrial fibrillation
+ ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
- weakness of the sinus node
- supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
# Select the 2 most common arrhythmias accompanying Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome:
+ supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
+ paroxysms of atrial fibrillation
- ventricular fibrillation
- a- v blockade
# Select the 2 most effective drugs for the treatment of ventricular extrasystole:
+ amiodarone
+ allapenine
- isoptin
- quinidine
# Which 2 diseases are the most common cause of combined mitral heart disease?
+ rheumatism
+ infective endocarditis
- pericarditis
- Marfan's disease
# Highlight 2 true statements regarding combined mitral disease:
+ the defect develops against the background of rheumatism
+ pulmonary hypertension develops
- no left ventricular hypertrophy observed
- atrial fibrillation rarely develops
# Name 2 absolute contraindications for aortic valve replacement for combined aortic disease:
+ stage III valve calcification
+ circulatory failure stage III.
- circulatory failure stage I
- secondary infective endocarditis in remission
# Select 2 complications characteristic of mitral stenosis:
+ atrial fibrillation
+ hemoptysis
- myocardial infarction
- chord separation
# Systolic murmur on the aorta is heard with the following 2 heart defects:
+ coarctation of the aorta
+ aortic stenosis
- mitro-aortic insufficiency
- aortic insufficiency
#2 stages of pulmonary edema:
- fibrosis
+ interstitial
- complex changes
+alveolar
-calcinosis
#Which of the following laboratory abnormalities are included in the diagnostic criteria for systemic
lupus erythematosus? (3):
+ antibodies to DNA
+ antibodies to Sm antigen
- thrombocytosis
- leukocytosis
#Options for joint damage in SLE (2):
+ arthralgia without arthritis
+ polyarthritis
- erosive arthritis
- arthritis mutilans
#Clinical and morphological lesions of the lungs in SLE (2):
+ pneumonitis
+ pneumosclerosis
- emphysema
- bronchiectasis
#Which laboratory parameters are most informative in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (2):
+ pancytopenia
+ antinuclear antibodies
- thrombocytosis
- hemolytic anemia
# Select 2 mechanisms of arterial hypertension in nonspecific aortoarteritis:
+ damage to the renal arteries.
+ activation of the RAAS.
- hyperproduction of corticosteroids.
- low renin activity
# 2 main ways to treat stage I circulatory failure are:
+ normalization of body weight and limiting salt intake
+ prescription of ACE inhibitors
- prescription of peripheral vasodilators.
- prescription of beta-blockers
# Select 2 ECG criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy:
+ Sokolov-Lyon criterion S V1- 2+ RV5- 6 > 35 mm
+ Cornell Voltage Index
- complete block of the left bundle branch
- incomplete blockade of the left bundle branch
# Name 2 drugs to relieve paroxysm of atrial fibrillation:
+ propafenone
+ amiodarone
- isaptin
- panangin
# Which 2 medications are classified as cardio-nonselective beta-blockers?
+ propranolol
+ nadolol
- metoprolol
- propafenone
# Select 2 groups of drugs to reduce the secretion of gastric juice:
+ antacids
+ histamine H2 receptor blockers
- antibiotics
- neuroleptanalgesia
# .Select 2 indications for prescribing glucocorticosteroids for UC:
+ severe form
+ presence of systemic manifestations
- light form
- absence of systemic manifestations
# Systemic manifestations of UC do not include the following 2:
+ pleurisy
+ Raynaud's syndrome
- erythema nodosum
- polyarthritis
# Select 2 complications characteristic of ulcerative colitis:
+ toxic intestinal dilatation
+ intestinal bleeding
- liver failure
- thromboembolic syndrome
# Select 2 morphological features characteristic of UC:
+ damage to the intestinal mucosa
+ localization mainly in the rectum
- sarcoid-like granulomas
- transmural intestinal lesions
# The following 2 foods should be limited in the diet of patients with UC:
+ fiber
+ fats
- proteins
- amino acids
# Characteristic 2 signs of mild UC:
+ weight loss up to 10%
+ diarrhea less than 4 times a day
- diarrhea more than 8 times per day
- presence of systemic complications
# Specify the 2 most common intestinal complications in UC:
+ rectal bleeding
+ intestinal strictures
- dolichosigma
- formation of external and internal fistulas
# Specify 2 characteristic signs of chronic pancreatitis:
+ diarrhea
+ signs of diabetes
- oliguria
- obesity
# Name 2 main indicators characterizing the stage of CKD:
+ blood creatinine
+ glomerular filtration
- blood uric acid
- state of acid-base balance
# List the 2 main symptoms of dystrophic syndrome in chronic renal failure:
+ weight loss
+ dry skin
- hypertrichosis
- hyperemia of the skin
# Select 2 main pathophysiological components of nephrotic crisis?
+ hypovolemia
+ severe hypoalbuminemia
- infection
- hypervolemia
# Which 2 changes play a key role in the pathogenesis of SSc:
+ functional disorders of collagen-forming cells
+ functional disorders of fibroblasts
- functional disorders of neutrophils and other leukocytes
- functional disorders of myelocytes
# Name the 2 parts of the body where skin changes are most often localized in SSc:
+ brushes
+ face
- shoulders
- torso
# Name 2 early signs of SSD:
+ esophagitis
+ Raynaud's syndrome
- skin ulcerations
- calcinosis
# Identify 2 diseases included in the group of seronegative spondyloarthritis
+ ankylosing spondylitis
+ Reiter's syndrome
- rheumatoid arthritis
- deforming osteoarthritis
# Atypical pneumonia is most often caused by the following 3 pathogens:
+ legionella
+ mycoplasma
+ chlamydia
- staphylococcus
- pneumococcus
- Escherichia coli
# Viral pneumonia is characterized by the following 3 signs:
+ pronounced symptoms of intoxication
+ predominantly interstitial lesion
+ leukopenia and lymphocytopenia
- gradual onset
- normal temperature
- thrombocytosis
# When auscultating chronic pulmonary heart disease, 3 symptoms are characteristic:
+ accent 2 tones on the pulmonary artery
+ dry, scattered wheezing
+ Graham-Still noise
- accent of 2 tones above the aorta
- Vinogradov noise
- diastolic murmur at the apex
# There are 3 types of ventilation violations:
+ obstructive
+ restrictive
+ mixed
- bronchospastic
- asthmatic
- cardiac
# For focal pneumonia, in contrast to lobar pneumonia, the following 3 symptoms are characteristic:
+ locally heard sonorous moist rales
+ focal darkening with unclear contours
+ weakened vesicular breathing
- bronchial breathing
- crepitus
- intense darkening with clear contours
# Name 3 antibiotics from the macrolide group:
+ erythromycin
+ azithromycin
+ clarithromycin
- abaktal
- gentamicin
- imipinem
# List 3 pulmonary complications of pneumonia:
+ respiratory failure
+ lung abscess
+ gangrene of the lung
- pulmonary tuberculosis
- hydrothorax
- bronchial asthma
# Highlight 3 signs that distinguish lobar pneumonia from focal pneumonia:
+ increased vocal tremors
+ bronchial breathing
+ increased bronchophony
- weakening of vocal tremors
- weakening of bronchophony
- moist, sonorous rales in a limited area of the lung
# Highlight 3 signs that characterize cor pulmonale:
+ enlargement of the right ventricle
+ pulmonary hypertension
+ respiratory failure
- enlargement of the left ventricle
- left atrium enlargement
- left ventricular failure
# Select 3 options for the development of cor pulmonale:
+ spicy
+ subacute
+ chronic
- protracted
- continuously-recurrent
- lightning fast
# Name the 3 stages of cor pulmonale:
+ compensated pulmonary heart
+ subcompensated cor pulmonale
+ decompensated cor pulmonale
- progressive
- latent
- terminal
# A full-blown pulmonary heart clinic is characterized by 3 signs:
+ average pressure in the pulmonary artery above 25 mm Hg.
+ pronounced hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
+ right ventricular failure
- average pressure in the pulmonary artery is above 15 mm Hg.
- pronounced hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
- left ventricular failure
# Name 3 groups of drugs for the correction of pulmonary arterial hypoxemia during the development of
cor pulmonale:
+ oxygen inhalation
+ use of bronchodilators
+ use of antibiotics
- expectorants
- diuretics
- ACE inhibitors
# Select 3 drugs related to beta-adrenergic receptor stimulants:
+ salbutamol
+ berotek
+ isadrin
- atenolol
- atrovent
- theophylline
# Select 3 drugs related to methylxanthines:
+ theophylline
+ teopek
+ theodur
- Berotek
- isadrin
- atenolol
# Identify 3 groups of drugs for the treatment of right ventricular failure:
+ diuretics
+ cardiac glycosides
+ ACE inhibitors
- nitrates
- alpha-blockers
- antibiotics
# In the pathogenesis of bacterial endocarditis, the following 3 phases are distinguished:
+ infectious-toxic
+ immune-inflammatory
+ dystrophic
- infectious-allergic
- uremic
- necrotic
# List 3 forms of cardiomyopathies:
+ dilation
+ hypertrophic
+ restrictive
- eosinophilic
- inflammatory
- thromboembolic
# Specify 3 morphological signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ the heart cavities are significantly expanded
+ endocardial thickening
+ myocardial hypertrophy
- on x-ray the heart is spherical
- reduction of the endocardium
- on x-ray the size of the heart is reduced
# Specify 3 clinical signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ cardiomegaly
+ circulatory failure
+ rhythm and conduction disorders
- myocardial dystrophy
- cerebrovascular accidents
- splenomegaly
# Name 3 drugs most commonly used in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ propranolol
+ cordarone
+ anaprilin
- nitroglycerin
- strophanthin
- papaverine
# What 3 factors increase outflow tract obstruction in HCM?
+ physical activity
+ decrease in blood pressure
+ decrease in venous blood flow to the heart (intake of nitrates)
- bed rest
- increased blood pressure
- increased venous blood flow
# Mitral regurgitation can be caused mainly by 3 reasons:
+ rheumatism
+ infective endocarditis
+ atherosclerosis
- infectious-allergic myocarditis
- thyrotoxic myocardial dystrophy
- arterial hypertension
# During mitral heart disease, 3 periods can be distinguished:
+ I - period of compensation for valve defect
+ II – period of development of “passive” pulmonary hypertension
+ III- period of right ventricular failure
- I - period of right ventricular failure
- II - period of compensation for valve defect
- III - period of compensation for valve defect
# Name the 3 main complications of mitral regurgitation:
+ hemoptysis and pulmonary edema
+ heart rhythm disturbances in the form of extrasystole or atrial fibrillation
+ thromboembolic complications
- glaucoma
- cirrhosis of the liver
- uremia
# Auscultation for mitral stenosis is characterized by 3 main signs:
+ strengthening of the 1st tone ("clapping" 1st tone)
+ diastolic (presystolic) murmur
+ tone (“click”) of mitral valve opening
- weakening of the first tone
- systolic murmur at the apex
- systolic click at the apex
# The course of mitral orifice stenosis has 3 stages of development:
+ I- period of compensation for the stenotic A-V hole
+ II- period of development of pulmonary hypertension
+ III- period of right ventricular failure
- III- period of compensation for the stenotic A-V hole
- I - period of development of pulmonary hypertension
- II- period of right ventricular failure
# List 3 indirect signs of pulmonary hypertension:
+ cyanosis
+ accent of the II tone over the pulmonary artery
+ Graham-Still murmur over the pulmonary artery
- palmar erythema
- accent of the II tone over the aorta
- diastolic murmur at the apex
# There are 3 forms of aortic stenosis:
+ valve
+ supravalvular
+ subvalvular
- membranous
- pseudomembranous
- aortic arch
# Name the 3 main causes of aortic stenosis:
+ rheumatism
+ congenital heart defects
+ atherosclerosis
- infective endocarditis
- syphilis
- arterial hypertension
# List 3 “vascular” signs characteristic of aortic stenosis:
+ pale skin
+ decrease in systolic blood pressure
+ small slow pulse
- facial hyperemia
- increased pulse pressure
- fast rapid pulse
# List the 3 main periods during aortic stenosis:
+ I - period of compensation of the defect by increased work of the left ventricle
+ II- period of passive pulmonary hypertension
+ III- period of right ventricular failure
- III- period of compensation of the defect by increased work of the left ventricle
- I - period of passive pulmonary hypertension
- II- period of right ventricular failure
# List 3 characteristic changes in blood pressure in aortic insufficiency:
+ high systolic pressure
+ low diastolic pressure
+ high pulse pressure
- low systolic pressure
- high diastolic pressure
- low pulse pressure
# Specify 3 ECG signs of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome:
+ widened, deformed QRS
+ shortening PQ interval
+ the presence of an additional delta wave in the ventricular complex
- prolongation of the PQ interval
- unchanged QRS
- number of heartbeats 140-220 per minute
# The following 3 diseases lead to “remodeling” of the heart:
+ myocardial infarction
+ heart defects
+ cardiomyopathy
- neurocircular dystonia
- arterial hypotension
- Chronical bronchitis
# The main criteria for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis include the following 3:
+ Lukin spots
+ Osler's nodes
+ arterial thromboembolism
- presence of rheumatoid factor
- rapid weight loss
- Heberden's nodes
# Specify 3 ECG signs characteristic of sick sinus syndrome:
+ persistent sinus bradycardia
+ sinoatrial blockade
+ bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome (Short's syndrome)
- shortening of the PQ interval
- presence of ventricular extrasystole
- presence of a complete compensatory pause
# Specify 3 ECG signs of ventricular extrasystole:
+ premature extraordinary appearance of an altered ventricular QRS complex on the ECG
+ the presence of a complete compensatory pause after extrasystole
+ absence of P wave before the extraordinary complex
- shortening of the R-R interval
- presence of SA blockade
- the presence of an incomplete compensatory pause after extrasystole
# Specify 3 ECG signs of supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia:
+ number of heartbeats 140-250 per minute
+ unchanged QRS complex
+ correct regular rhythm
- deformation of the QRS complex
- number of heartbeats 100-120 per minute
- prolongation of the R-R interval
# Specify 3 ECG signs of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia:
+ no P wave, heart rate 140-220 per minute
+ deformation and expansion of the ORS complex
+ sudden onset of attack
- unchanged QRS complex
- P wave is present, heart rate is 140-220 per minute.
- presence of SA blockade
# Specify 3 ECG signs of atrial fibrillation:
+ No P wave
+ presence of f waves
+ distance R- R different
- presence of P wave, absence of f wave
- R-R intervals are the same
- deformation of the QRS complex
# Specify 3 ECG signs of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome:
+ widened, deformed QRS
+ shortening PQ interval
+ paroxysms of supraventricular arrhythmias
- prolongation of the PQ interval
- unchanged QRS
- number of heartbeats 140-220 per minute
# Specify 3 ECG signs of the acute period of myocardial infarction:
+ presence of pathological Q wave
+ rise of the S-T segment above the isoline
+ discordance in leads
- prolongation of the PQ interval
- absence of P wave
- expansion of the ORS complex
# Indicate the most common 3 early complications of myocardial infarction:
+ acute left ventricular failure
+ cardiogenic shock
+ ventricular fibrillation
- Dressler's syndrome
- erosive gastritis
- chronic heart failure
# What 3 symptoms are characteristic of left ventricular failure?
+ orthopnea
+ shortness of breath
+ suffocation at night
- ascites
- swelling of the neck veins
- swelling in the legs
# Drugs that improve cardiac contractility include the following 3 drugs:
+ dopamine
+ strophanthin
+ dobutamine
- obzidan
- verapamil
- furosemide
# The following 3 signs are characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ reduction of outflow tract obstruction in a horizontal position
+ systolic murmur in the III-IV intercostal space to the left of the sternum
+ increased noise after physical activity
- increase in the left border of the heart to the left axillary line
- diastolic murmur along the left sternal border
- dilatation of all cavities of the heart
# Outlet obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is relieved by the following 3 factors:
+ taking B-blockers
+ in horizontal position
+ exposure to cold
- taking cardiac glycosides
- taking nitrosorbitol
- taking validol
# In the clinic of infective endocarditis, 3 syndromes are important:
+ syndrome of inflammatory changes and septicemia
+ valve syndrome
+ syndrome of thromboembolic complications
- Raynaud's syndrome
- Reiter's syndrome
- Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
# In the diagnosis of infective endocarditis in a patient with heart disease, the presence of the following 3
symptoms plays an important role:
+ additional heart murmurs
+ enlarged spleen
+ bacterial vegetation
- hepatomegaly
- chronic pyelonephritis
- mitral flush
# Select 3 predisposing factors for the development of infective endocarditis:
+ heart surgery
+ congenital and acquired heart defects
+ drug addiction
- heredity
- frequent colds
- smoking
# In a general blood test for infective endocarditis, the following 3 types of changes are observed:
+ deukocytosis with a shift to the left
+ increase in ESR
+ anemia
- leukocytosis with a shift to the right
- ESR does not increase
- thrombocytosis
# Select 3 types of skin changes characteristic of infective endocarditis:
+ appearance of petechiae
+ Jay Nuey spots
+ Osler's nodes
- roseola rashes
- phenomenon of pemphigus
- skin hyperemia
# Select 3 drugs for the etiological and pathogenetic treatment of infective endocarditis:
+ penicillin
+ heparin
+ prednisolone
- indomethacin
- furosemide
- digoxin
# Select 3 characteristic signs of post-infarction Dressler syndrome:
+ this is a late complication of myocardial infarction
+ pericarditis, pleurisy, pneumonitis
+ effective GCS therapy
- pericarditis, bronchitis, gastritis
- antibiotic therapy is effective
- the appearance of swelling in the legs
# What 3 drugs are used first for cardiogenic shock?
+ dopamine
+ dobutamine + norepinephrine
- lasix
- dibazole
- strophanthin
# What 3 drugs are indicated for patients with arterial hypertension and sinus bradycardia?
+ apressin
+ captopril
+ nifedipine
- verapamil
- egilok
- atenolol
# Beta blockers are absolutely contraindicated in the following 3 cases
+ sick sinus syndrome
+ sinus bradycardia
+ broncho-obstructive syndrome
- hypertension
- symptomatic arterial hypertension
- tachyarrhythmias
# Select 3 mechanisms of action of ACE inhibitors:
+ reduce pre- and afterload
+ reduce myocardial oxygen consumption
+ reduce endothelial dysfunction
- increase coronary vascular resistance
- reduce diuresis
- increase myocardial oxygen consumption
# Select 3 signs characteristic of post-infarction Dressler syndrome
+ pleurisy
+ pericarditis
+ pneumonitis
- effectiveness of antibiotic therapy
- effectiveness of nitrates
- thrombocytosis
# Select 3 groups of drugs recommended in the treatment of systolic heart failure:
+ diuretics
+ ACE inhibitors
+ cardiac glycosides
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs
- antispasmodic
# Which 3 drugs are thrombolytics?
+ streptokinase
+ alteplase
+ urokinase
- dipyridamole
- clopidogrel
- chimes
# What 3 drugs are used to treat ventricular extrasystoles?
+ atenolol
+ amiodarone
+ propafenone
- nifedipine
- isoptin
- panangin
# Select 3 drugs related to non-selective beta-blockers:
+ propranolol
+ oxprenolol
+ carvedilol
- atenolol
- bisoprolol
- metoprolol
# Select 3 characteristic signs of resorption-necrotic syndrome during myocardial infarction:
+ neutrophilic leukocytosis
+ increase in ESR
+ hyperenzymemia
- decrease in prothrombin index
- hypercholesterolemia
- hyperbilirubinemia
# Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction:
+ acute bleeding
+ history of hemorrhagic stroke
+ hemorrhagic diathesis
- patients with suspected myocardial infarction
- duration of myocardial infarction 12 hours
- 2 or more precordial ST segment elevation leads
# Select 3 contraindications to the use of ACE inhibitors:
+ pregnancy
+ hyperkalemia (more than 5.5 mmol)
+ bilateral renal artery stenosis
- left ventricular hypertrophy with hypertension
- post-infarction cardiosclerosis
- heart failure
# Name 3 side effects of calcium antagonists:
+ vasodilation (headaches, facial redness, peripheral edema)
+ worsening heart failure
+ atrioventricular conduction disorder
- hyperkalemia
- bronchospasm
- dry cough
# Select 3 characteristic ECG signs of incomplete AV block type Mobitz I:
+ gradual lengthening of the PQ interval
+ periodic loss of the ventricular complex
+ ventricular complex is not changed
- PQ interval is not changed
- presence of delta waves
- regular loss of the ventricular complex
# Select 3 characteristic ECG signs of incomplete AV block of the second degree, type Mobitz II:
+ PQ interval not changed
+ after the next P wave the ventricular complex falls out
+ irregular prolapse of the ventricular complex
- gradual lengthening of the PQ interval
- presence of delta waves
- regular loss of the ventricular complex
# Select 3 characteristic signs of incomplete AV block II degree Mobitz type III:
+ PQ interval not changed
+ regular loss of ventricular complex
+ dizziness, fainting
- presence of delta waves
- change in the P wave
- irregular prolapse of the ventricular complex
# Select 3 urinary signs that allow you to associate increased blood pressure with pyelonephritis:
+ “true” bacteriuria”
+ moderate proteinuria
+ hypoisosthenuria
- massive proteinuria
- uric acid crystals
- oxaluria
# What 3 methods allow you to diagnose pyelonephritis?
+ excretory urography
+ bacteriological urine culture
+ ultrasound examination of the kidneys
- uric acid test
- ECG
- 24-hour blood pressure monitoring
# What 3 urinary symptoms suggest a connection between increased blood pressure and
glomerulonephritis?
+ proteinuria
+ microhematuria
+ cylindruria
- leukocyturia
- urate crystals
- bacteriuria
# Which 3 drugs belong to class IA antiarrhythmic drugs?
+ quinidine
+ procainamide
+ ajmaline
- amiodarone
- verapamil
- propranolol
# Which 3 medications belong to class IB antiarrhythmic drugs?
+ lidocaine
+ trimecaine
+ mexilitine
- amiodarone
- verapamil
- propranolol
# Which 3 drugs belong to class IC antiarrhythmic drugs?
+ propafenone
+ allapinin
+ moracizine
- amiodarone
- verapamil
- propranolol
# Which 3 medications are classified as cardioselective beta-blockers?
+ atenolol
+ bisoprolol
+ metoprolol
- propafenone
- allapinin
- amiodarone
# What 3 drugs are used to slow down the ventricular rhythm with a permanent form of atrial fibrillation?
+ atenolol
+ digoxin
+ verapamil
- ajmaline
- allapinin
- novocainamide
# Select 3 signs of primary biliary cirrhosis:
+ jaundice
+ bone pain
+ skin itching
- bilirubin is normal
- swelling in the legs
- pale skin
# Name 3 pathogenetic mechanisms of UC:
+ untimely treatment of intestinal infections
+ change in immunological reactivity
+ dysbacteriosis
- shigillosis
- salmonellosis
- amoebiasis
# Name the 3 main forms of UC:
+ lightning fast
+ spicy
+ chronic (recurrent and continuous)
- subacute
- latent
- sluggish
# Name the 3 most common variants of the onset of UC disease:
+ gradual onset with diarrhea, after a few days mucus and blood in the stool
+ the disease debuts with rectal bleeding with formed or mushy stools
+ acute appearance of diarrhea with blood and mucus, pain and intoxication
- latent onset, the disease is manifested by its complications
- lightning-fast beginning ending in death
- sluggish onset, manifested by persistent constipation
# Name the 3 main diseases with which UC must be differentiated:
+ infectious diseases: dysentery
+ amoebiasis
+ Crohn's disease
- cholecystitis
- hepatitis
- spastic colitis
- enteritis
# The following 3 groups of drugs affect intestinal motility and flora:
+ M-anticholinergics
+ antidiarrheals
+ eubiotics
- M-cholinomimetics
- B-blockers
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
# Select 3 drugs for basic therapy for UC:
+ derivatives of 5-aminosalicylic acid
+ glucocorticoids
+ immunosuppressants
- antibiotics
- eubiotics
- antispasmodics
# List the 3 main signs of liver cirrhosis:
+ proliferation of connective tissue inside the lobules
+ formation of regeneration nodes
+ severe impairment of all liver functions
- hepatomegaly
- swelling in the legs
- pericholecystitis
# Specify the 3 main types of liver cirrhosis according to morphological characteristics:
+ large-knot
+ small knot
+ mixed
- scalariform necrosis of hepatocytes
- cobblestone necrosis of hepatocytes
- hepatofibrosis
# Specify the 3 main reasons for the development of splenomegaly:
+ portal hypertension
+ proliferation of connective tissue
+ hyperplasia of reticulohistiolymphocytic elements
- portal hypotension
- hypoalbuminemia
- hyposplenism
# List 3 early symptoms of portal hypertension:
+ flatulence
+ dyspeptic disorders
+ expansion of the veins of the abdominal wall
- constipation
- belching
- heartburn
# Specify the 3 main symptoms of liver cell failure:
+ hemorrhagic diathesis
+ jaundice
+ hepatic encephalopathy
- hyperenzymemia
- hemolytic syndrome
- portal hypertension
# List 3 main signs characterizing the course of liver cirrhosis
+ activity of the pathological process in the liver
+ severity of liver cell failure
+ development of portal hypertension
- activity of the pathological process in the spleen
- severity of splenic cell failure
- development of hyposplenism
# Specify 3 main signs of morphological changes in liver biopsy in micronodular (portal) cirrhosis:
+ fatty degeneration of hepatocytes
+ small nodular lesion
+ hepatocellular fibrosis
- large nodular lesion
- hyaline degeneration of hepatocytes
- hemosiderosis of liver cells
# Name the 3 main clinical syndromes of biliary cirrhosis:
+ pronounced cholestatic syndrome
+ mild portal hypertension syndrome
+ late manifestations of signs of liver cell failure
- absence of cholestasis
- severe portal hypertension syndrome
- early signs of liver cell failure
# List 3 main laboratory signs of cholestasis:
+ hyperbilirubinemia
+ significant increase in total lipids, phospholipids and cholesterol levels
+ increased alkaline phosphatase activity
- hypocholesterolemia
- HBsAgemia
- decreased transaminase activity
# Select 3 main histological signs of biliary cirrhosis:
+ destructive changes in the interlobular bile ducts
+ cholestasis, mainly on the periphery of the lobules
+ expansion of intrahepatic bile ducts
- scalariform necrosis of hepatocytes
- cobblestone necrosis of hepatocytes
- periportal sclerosis
# Select 3 morphological signs of hepatic coma:
+ massive necrosis of liver cells
+ extensive fibrosis
+ impaired microcirculation with thrombus formation
- focal degeneration of hepatocytes
- proliferation of Kupffer cells
- fatty degeneration
# Specify the 3 stages of hepatic coma:
+ Stage I – darkening of consciousness
+ Stage II – “stupor”
+ Stage III – “true coma”
- Stage I – “true coma”
- Stage II – “blackout”
- Stage III – “stupor”
# To suppress the activity of pancreatic enzymes, the following 3 drugs are used:
+ kontrikal
+ trasylol
+ gordox
- mezim forte
- Creon
- panzinorm
# The following 3 drugs are used for replacement purposes for chronic pancreatitis:
+ mezim forte
+ creon
+ panzinorm
- kontrikal
- Trasylol
- gordox
# The following 3 signs are characteristic of intrasecretory dysfunction in chronic pancreatitis:
+ hyperglycemia
+ decreased insulin secretion
+ development of diabetes mellitus
- hypocholesterolemia
- hyperbilirubinemia
- hypoalbuminemia
# Select 3 drugs related to protease inhibitors
+ gordox
+ trasylol
+ kontrikal
- fibrinolysin
- novocaine
- pancreatin
# Crohn's disease, unlike UC, is characterized by the following 3 signs:
+ damage to the small and large intestines
+ transmural intestinal lesions
+ formation of external and internal fistulas
- damage to the mucous and submucosal layers of the intestinal wall
- affects only the large intestine
- absence of sarcoid-like granulomas
# Select 3 side effects of sulfasalazine:
+ dyspepsia
+ headaches
+ agranulocytosis
- fluid retention
- constipation
- retinopathy
# Select 3 clinical syndromes characteristic of liver cirrhosis?
+ astheno-vegetative
+ liver cell failure
+ portal hypertension
- nephrotic
- malabsorption syndrome
- urinary syndrome
# Check 3 markers of mesenchymal-inflammatory syndrome in liver cirrhosis:
+ ESR
+ gammaglobulin
+ thymol test
- ALT
- AST
- alkaline phosphatase
# Specify 3 signs of decompensation of liver cirrhosis?
+ pronounced ascites
+ bleeding from the veins of the esophagus
+ signs of encephalopathy
- palmar hyperemia
- enlarged liver
- nausea and bitterness in the mouth
# Select 3 main clinical symptoms of UC:
+ diarrhea
+ abdominal pain
+ feces with mucus and blood
- headache
- nausea and vomiting
- constipation
# Select 3 options for the course of UC:
+ spicy
+ lightning fast
+ chronic
- abortifacient
- persistent
- rapidly progressive
# Select 3 side effects of sulfasalazine:
+ increased dyspepsia
+ oligospermia
+ hepatitis
- obesity
- constipation
- thrombocytosis
# 3 signs that are not typical for severe UC:
+ no local complications
+ diarrhea up to 6 times
+ body temperature is normal
- there are local complications
- increase in body temperature 39 C
- diarrhea more than 10 times a day
# Select 3 hepatoprotectors:
+ essentiale
+ karsil
+ heptral
- retabolil
- cholestyramine
- allohol
# Specify 3 possible reasons for the development of liver failure in a patient with liver cirrhosis:
+ bleeding from the veins of the esophagus
+ overdose of diuretics
+ paracentesis with evacuation of large amounts of fluid
- taking prednisolone
- long-term intake of vitamins
- taking lactulose
# Check 3 clinical signs of liver failure:
+ liver odor from the mouth
+ bleeding
+ confusion
- constipation
- occurrence of asthma attacks
- decrease in diuresis
# Select 3 drugs to relieve pain in chronic pancreatitis:
+ baralgin
+ analgin
+ promedol
- morphine
- indomethacin
- aspirin
# What 3 enzymes increase in the blood during chronic pancreatitis?
+ amylase
+ lipase
+ trypsin
- KFC
- aldolase
- alkaline phosphatase
# Name 3 factors involved in the pathogenesis of portal hypertension:
+ compression of the branches of the portal vein by regenerative nodes
+ increase in pressure in the portal vein more than 30 mmHg. Art.
+ portocaval shunting
- hyperproteinemia
- increased pressure in the portal vein less than 30 mmHg. Art.
- severe cholestasis
# Name 3 morphological changes in the kidneys during the development of renal failure:
+ sclerotic processes
+ desolation of glomeruli
+ hypertrophy of the remaining nephrons
- dystrophic processes
- focal lymphocytic infiltration
- giant multinucleated cells
# List the 3 main products of protein metabolism, the excretion of which is impaired in chronic renal
failure:
+ urea
+ creatinine
+ uric acid
- dipoproteins
- ammonia
- essential amino acids
# Select 3 methods of treatment for patients with end-stage CKD:
+ peritoneal dialysis
+ hemodialysis
+ kidney transplant
- high protein diet
- hemosorption
- blood transfusions
# List 3 directions in the treatment of electrolyte metabolism disorders in CKD:
+ Na limitation to 3-5 g/day (in the presence of edema and ascites)
+ restriction in food intake of foods rich in K
+ potassium-sparing diuretics are contraindicated
- restriction of carbohydrates
- restriction in food intake of foods rich in vitamins
- prescription of potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone, triampur)
# Name the 3 main areas of treatment for anemia in CKD:
+ prescription of iron supplements
+ erythropoietin preparations
+ androgen drugs
- saline solutions
- plasma replacement drugs
- vitamins
# Select 3 characteristic complications of glucocorticosteroid therapy:
+ diabetes mellitus
+ stomach ulcers
+ arterial hypertension
- weight loss
- arterial hypotension
- hypoglycemia
# Specify 3 reasons for the development of CKD:
+ chronic glomerulonephritis
+ lupus nephritis
+ diabetes mellitus
- acute glomerulonephritis
- acute pyelonephritis
- rheumatism
# What 3 products of nitrogen metabolism are retained in the body during CKD?
+ urea
+ creatinine
+ uric acid
- lactic acid
- cholesterol
- calcium
# List 3 symptoms associated with retention of uremic toxins:
+ nausea and vomiting
+ itchy skin
+ thirst and dry mouth
- cough without sputum
- cough with sputum
- chills
# What 3 signs characterize damage to the cardiovascular system in CKD?
+ expansion of the borders of the heart to the left
+ pericardial friction noise
+ increased blood pressure
- normal blood pressure
- expanding the boundaries of the heart upward
- focal myocarditis
# Select 3 indicators characteristic of end-stage CKD:
+ glomerular filtration 10 ml/min
+ kalemia level 7 mmol/l
+ blood creatinine 1.2 mmol/l
- glomerular filtration 25 ml/min
- blood urea – 10 mmol/l
- blood creatinine – 0.3 mmol/l
# Select 3 methods of active treatment of end-stage CKD:
+ hemodialysis
+ peritoneal dialysis
+ kidney transplant
- correction of acidosis
- cleansing enemas
- intestinal dialysis
# Select 3 indications for hemodialysis:
+ glomerular filtration rate - 10 ml/min
+ blood creatinine level more than 1.2 mmol/l
+ blood potassium level – 6.7 mmol/l
- glomerular filtration rate - 40 mmol/l
- blood urea level - 10 mmol/l
- blood creatinine - 0.3 mmol/l
# Select 3 absolute contraindications to hemodialysis:
+ tuberculosis
+ oncological diseases
+ mental illness
- gastroduodenitis
- hepatitis
- diabetes
# Select 3 concepts that characterize systemic scleroderma:
+ this is a systemic disease of connective tissue and small vessels
+ widespread fibrosclerotic changes in the skin, stroma of internal organs
+ symptoms of obliterating endarteritis
- systemic disease with predominant damage to the joints
- characterized by an erosive-destructive process in the joints
- characterized by symptoms of periarthritis nodosa
# Name 3 variants of the course of SSD according to the classification of N.G. Guseva:
+ spicy
+ subacute
+ chronic
- lightning fast
- slowly progressive
- rapidly progressive
# Name 3 main signs characterizing the acute course of SSD:
+ rapidly progressing course
+ severe fibrous peripheral and visceral lesions already in the first year of illness
+ frequent kidney damage of the “true scleroderma kidney” type
- slowly progressive course
- peripheral and systemic lesions in the fifth year of illness
- rare kidney damage similar to true scleroderma kidney
# Specify 3 variants of the course and their characteristics of SSD according to the classification of N.G.
Guseva:
+ Stage I – initial (mainly joint damage)
+ Stage II – generalized lesion (polysyndromic lesion)
+ Stage III – irreversible (terminal stage)
- Stage II - initial (mainly joint damage)
- Stage III - generalized lesion (polysyndromic lesion)
- Stage I - initial (mainly joint damage)
# Select 3 phases of the vasospastic reaction in Raynaud's syndrome:
+ paleness
+ cyanosis
+ hyperemia
- paresthesia
- ulcerations
- calcinosis
- stage of loose edema
- ulceration stage
- stages of calcification
# Name 3 signs characteristic of the stage of skin induration in SSc:
+ change in skin color
+ clarity of vascular pattern
+ presence of telangiectasia on the face and chest
- roseola rashes
- lack of vascular pattern
- hemorrhagic rashes on the legs
# Name 3 diagnostic criteria for gout:
+ acute arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint
+ presence of tophi
+ hyperuricemia
- presence of RF in the blood
- "starting" pain in the joints
- erythema nodosum
# The combination of which 3 symptoms characterizes Reiter:
+ damage to the genitourinary organs
+ reactive oligo or monoarthritis
+ eye damage (conjunctivitis)
- liver damage
- glomerulonephritis
- myocarditis
# Select 3 main criteria for Reiter's syndrome:
+ asymmetric mono- or oligoarthritis
+ damage to the joints of the lower extremities
+ previous urethritis or enteritis
- symmetric polyarthritis
- predominant damage to the joints of the hands
- presence of streptococcal infection at the onset of the disease
# Select 3 methods of treating reactive arthritis:
+ macrolides
+ fluoroquinolones
+ local treatment of the source of infection of the genitourinary system
- cephalosporins
- gentamicin
- penicillin
# Select 3 types of characteristic skin changes with dermatomyositis:
+ erythematous macular rash in the upper eyelids
+ paraorbital syndrome, “spectacles” symptom
+ Gortron's sign
- erythema on the face
- discoid lupus
- urticaria
# Select 3 groups of drugs for the treatment of dermatomyositis:
+ corticosteroids
+ cytostatics
+ antiplatelet agents
- antibiotics
- anticholinergics
- antispasmodics
# Name 3 causative agents of reactive arthritis of urogenic etiology:
+ ureoplasma
+ chlamydia
+ trichomanas
- gonococci
- streptococci
- shigella
# Specify 3 forms of ankylosing spondylitis:
+ peripheral form
+ rhizomyelic form
+ central shape
- latent
- mixed
- progressive
# Name 3 functional tests for ankylosing spondylitis:
+ Otto's test
+ Schober sample
+ Thomayer's test
- Valsalva maneuver
- Rivolta test
- Kveim's test
# Select 3 areas of treatment for low activity of ankylosing spondylitis:
+ non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
+ exercise therapy
+ massage
- prednisolone
- azathioprine
- chime
# Select 3 signs characteristic of gout:
+ increase in serum uric acid levels
+ loss of urate in the tissues of joints, kidneys and blood vessels
+ acute arthritis
- increase in ASLO titer
- presence of genitourinary infection
- positive rheumatoid factor
# Name 3 pathogenetic forms of primary gout:
+ metabolic
+ renal
+ mixed
- latent
- progressive
- subacute
# Indicate 3 groups of people most susceptible to gout:
+ men over 35-40 years old
+ women in menopause
+ people of mental work
- young boys
- women under 45 years old
- teenagers
# Name 3 diseases that most often accompany gout:
+ obesity
+ diabetes mellitus
+ coronary heart disease
- myocardial dystrophy
- cholecystitis
- bronchitis
# Name 3 laboratory indicators characteristic of gout
+ hyperuricemia
+ hypercholesterolemia
+ hyperglycemia
- hypoproteinemia
- hypofibrinogenemia
- hypoalbuminemia
# Stage IIB of circulatory failure according to Strazhesko-Vasilenko is characterized by 3 symptoms:
+ congestion in the pulmonary and systemic circulation
+ enlarged (congestive) liver peripheral edema
+ symptoms of circulatory failure decrease with treatment
- the appearance of shortness of breath, fatigue only during exertion
- heart palpitations only during exercise
- There is myocardial hypertrophy
#3 medications used to relieve pulmonary edema:
+ nitroglycerin
- obzidan
+ furosemide
- aminophylline
+ morphine
- omeprazole
# 3 drugs for basic treatment of chronic heart failure
+ ACE inhibitors
+ Diuretics
+ Cardiac glycosides
-Nondihydropyridine slow tubular channel blockers
- Nitrates
- Sympathomimetics
# A characteristic sign of ARF that makes it possible to make a diagnosis is (3):
+ connection of the disease with a previous nasopharyngeal infection
+ presence of a latent period lasting 2-4 weeks
+ appearance of the first signs of the disease in childhood
- lack of connection with infection
- presence of a latent period lasting 4-6 weeks
- appearance of the first signs in adulthood
# Pulse therapy with metipred is indicated for systemic lupus erythematosus in the following 3 cases:
+ for lupus glomerulonephritis
+ for lupus lesions of the central nervous system
+ in severe multisystem form of the disease
- in all cases of systemic lupus erythematosus
- only in childhood
- with joint damage
# List 3 groups of the most common basic drugs:
+ gold preparations (krizanol, myocrisin, auronafin)
+ derivatives of the 4-aminoquinoline series (delagil, plaquinil)
+ cytostatics (metatrexate, chlorobutin)
- glucocorticoids (prednisolone, triamcinolone)
- 5-hydroxyquinoline derivatives (nitroxoline, 5-NOK)
- NSAIDs
# List 3 clinical signs of rheumatoid arthritis:
+ pain when pressing, detected by a doctor
+ subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules
+ muscle atrophy around affected joints
- volatility of joint damage
- Heberden's nodes
- Bouchard's nodes
# List 3 clinical signs of rheumatoid arthritis:
+ morning stiffness for at least 1 hour
+ persistent symmetrical arthritis of the hands
+ pain when moving
- morning stiffness up to 30 minutes
- volatility of joint damage
- ring-shaped erythema
# Name 3 signs of a local inflammatory reaction in the area of affected joints in patients with RA:
+ swelling and pain
+ hyperemia and hyperthermia
+ dysfunction
- exudation
- proliferation
- hypermobility
# Name 3 clinical manifestations of the body’s general inflammatory response in RA:
+ increase in body temperature
+ weakness
+ sweating
- hectic temperature
- chills
- shortness of breath
# Name 3 clinical manifestations of the body’s general inflammatory response in RA:
+ decreased appetite
+ weight loss
+ muscle amyotrophy
- dizziness
- headache
- hectic temperature
# Name 3 changes in synovial fluid analysis characteristic of acute gouty arthritis:
+ low viscosity
+ high cytosis
+ presence of sodium urate crystals
- high viscosity
- presence of bacteria
- presence of lipids
# Skin changes with systemic scleroderma occur in 3 stages:
+ dense swelling
+ induration
+ atrophy
- erythema on the face
- discoid erythema
- hemorrhagic rash
# List 3 symptoms included in "CREST" syndrome:
+ Raynaud's syndrome
+ soft tissue calcification
+ telangiectasia
- myocarditis
- polyarthritis
- dermatitis
# Select 3 side effects of prednisolone:
+ steroid diabetes
+ increased blood pressure
+ ulcerogenic effect
- hypoglycemia
- lowering blood pressure
- cholestasis
# The development of pneumonia with dermatomyositis is caused by 3 factors:
+ as a result of damage to the intercostal muscles
+ as a result of damage to the diaphragm muscles
+ as a result of aspiration of the tracheobronchial trunk
- as a result of microcirculation disorders
- contact infection
- damage to the throat muscles
# 3 most common signs of the onset of the disease in UP:
+ fever
+ progressive weight loss
+ headaches
- dizziness
- arthralgia
- stomach ache
# Select 3 minor criteria for periarteritis nodosa:
+ fever
+ myalgic syndrome
+ weight loss
- kidney damage
- abdominal syndrome
- bronchial asthma with eosnophilia
# The triad of symptoms of Reiter's disease includes the following 3 symptoms:
+ arthritis
+ urethritis
+ conjunctivitis
- pneumonitis
- pleurisy
- myocarditis
# Select 3 options for lung damage with dermatomyositis:
+ interstitial pneumonia
+ fibrosing alveolitis
+ basal pneumosclerosis
- lobar pneumonia
- exudative pleurisy
- focal tuberculosis
# Select 3 options for heart damage in dermatomyositis:
+ myocarditis
+ myocardiofibrosis
+ pericarditis
- mitral stenosis
- mitral valve prolapse
- aortic valve insufficiency
# Select 4 options for pneumonia:
+ community-acquired pneumonia
+ nosocomial pneumonia
+ immunodeficiency pneumonia
+ aspiration
- toxic
- subacute pneumonia
- bullous
- mixed
# Select 4 antibiotics for the treatment of mild community-acquired pneumonia:
+ benzylpenicillin
+ amoxicillin
+ clarithromycin
+ 1st generation cephalosporins
- gentamicin
- fluoroquinolones
- carbapinems
- 4th generation cephalosporins
# Select 4 groups of antibiotics for the treatment of aspiration pneumonia:
+ fluoroquinolones
+ aminoglycosides
+ carbapenems
+ 3rd generation cephalosporins
- benzylpenicillin
- sulfonamides
- macrolides
- amoxicillin
# List 4 reasons for the development of acute cor pulmonale:
+ pulmonary embolism
+ valvular pneumothorax
+ severe attack of bronchial asthma
+ severe total pneumonia
- acute bronchitis
- pulmonary tuberculosis
- Chronical bronchitis
- focal pneumonia
# Highlight 4 reasons for the development of chronic pulmonary heart disease:
+ chronic obstructive bronchitis
+ emphysema
+ bronchiectasis
+ idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
- pulmonary embolism
- valvular pneumothorax
- arterial hypertension
- severe total pneumonia
# Highlight 4 characteristic clinical signs of chronic pulmonary heart disease:
+ swelling of the neck veins on inhalation and exhalation
+ hepatomegaly
+ peripheral edema
+ pulsation in the epigastric region
- left ventricular hypertrophy
- accent of 2 tones on the aorta
- diastolic murmur at the apex
- systolic murmur in the aorta
# List 4 extrapulmonary complications of severe pneumonia:
+ myocardial dystrophy
+ infective endocarditis
+ septic shock
+ acute cor pulmonale
- respiratory failure
- lung abscess
- gangrene of the lung
- pleural empyema
# Identify 4 signs of right ventricular failure:
+ pronounced cyanosis
+ swelling of the lower extremities
+ swelling of the neck veins
+ hepatojugular reflux
- pale skin
- swelling on the face and hands
- apical impulse shifted to the left
- cold cyanosis
# Select 4 groups of drugs used to reduce pulmonary vascular resistance in patients with chronic cor
pulmonale:
+ calcium antagonists
+ ACE inhibitors
+ nitrates
- alpha-blockers
- antibiotics
- metabolism
- beta-blocker
- cardiac glycosides
# Select 4 reasons for the development of chronic pulmonary heart disease:
+ chronic obstructive bronchitis
+ fibrosis due to tuberculosis
+ kyphoscoliosis
+ Pickwick syndrome
- thromboembolism of the branches of the pulmonary artery
- valvular pneumothorax
- status asthmaticus
- total pneumonia
# Stage I of bacterial endocarditis is characterized by the following 4 laboratory signs:
+ increase in ESR
+ leukocytosis with a shift to the left
+ increase in fibrinogen content
+ increase in alpha 2 and gamma globulins
- slowing down the ESR
- leukopenia
- lymphocytosis
- hyperuricemia
# Stage II of bacterial endocarditis is characterized by the following 4 laboratory signs:
+ leukopenia
+ anemia
+ thrombocytopenia
+ sharp increase in gamma globulin levels
- leukocytosis
- erythrocytosis
- thrombocytosis
- hyperproteinemia
# Name 4 ECG signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ reduction in tooth voltage
+ diffuse changes in the myocardium
+ T wave inversion
+ appearance of Q or QS waves
- increased voltage of the teeth
- rise in ST interval
- appearance of a U wave
- tall pointed T wave
# List 4 morphological signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ hypertrophy of the interventricular septum
+ hypertrophy of the walls of the left ventricle
+ reduction of the left ventricular cavity
+ obstruction of the outflow tract
- dilatation of the left ventricular cavity
- sclerosis of the mitral valve
- vegetations on heart valves
- aortic regurgitation
# Name the 4 main physical symptoms of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ expansion of the apical impulse
+ expansion of the borders of the heart slightly to the left
+ systolic murmur along the left sternal border
+ accent 2 tones on the pulmonary artery
- weakening of the apical impulse
- expansion of the borders of the heart to the right
- diastolic murmur over the aorta
- diastolic murmur at the apex
# What 4 factors reduce outflow tract obstruction in HCM?
+ horizontal position of the patient
+ decrease in myocardial contractility
+ taking beta-blockers
+ increased blood pressure
- exercise stress
- decrease in blood pressure
- reduction of venous blood flow to the heart (intake of nitrates)
- taking cardiac glycosides
# To confirm the presence of mitral insufficiency, the following 4 research methods are required:
+ ECG
+ FKG
+ EchoCG
- R-research
- spirography
- pneumotachometry
- heart scan
- X-ray kymography of the heart
# To confirm the diagnosis of mitral stenosis, the following 4 research methods are necessary:
+ ECG
+ FKG
+ EchoCG
- R – research
- heart scintigraphy
- pneumotachometry
- heart scan
- X-ray kymography of the heart
# List the 4 main clinical signs of right ventricular failure:
+ liver enlargement
+ swelling of the neck veins
+ acrocyanosis
+ swelling of the lower extremities
- enlarged spleen
- pulsation of the cervical arteries
- small bubbling rales that are not sonorous in the lungs
- attack of cardiac asthma
# List 4 signs caused by vascular pulsation in a patient with aortic insufficiency:
+ capillary pulse" - determined by light pressure on the nail bed
+ pulsation of the uvula when examining the throat
- involuntary twitching of the upper limbs
- fast blinking
- increased tendon reflexes
- facial hyperemia
# Select 4 diseases complicated by chronic systolic heart failure:
+ coronary heart disease
+ dilated cardiomyopathy
+ myocarditis
- arterial hypertension
- myocardial dystrophy
- cardiopsychoneurosis
- pulmonary embolism
- restrictive cardiomyopathy
# Name 4 groups of drugs used in the treatment of heart failure:
+ diuretics
+ ACE inhibitors
+ cardiac glycosides
+ beta blockers
- glucocorticosteroids
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- calcium antagonists
- metabolism
# Highlight 4 main atypical variants of myocardial infarction:
+ gastralgic
+ asthmatic
+ cerebral
+ arrhythmic
- latent
- mixed
- cholestatic
- crisis
# Highlight 4 side effects when taking ACE inhibitors:
+ hyperkalemia
+ dry cough
+ worsening renal failure
+ angioedema
- bradycardia less than 50 beats per minute
- worsening heart failure
- disturbance of atrioventricular conduction
- hemorrhagic diathesis
# Name 4 side effects of ACE inhibitors:
+ cough
+ angioedema
+ hyperkalemia
# ACE inhibitörlerinin 4 ta nojo'ya ta'sirini ko'rsating:
+ yo'tal
+ angioedema
+ giperkalemiya
+ increased blood creatinine levels
- bronchospasm
- Raynaud's syndrome
- myalgia
- bradycardia
# Select 4 drugs for the treatment of chronic heart failure:
+ furosemide
+ digoxin
+ captopril
+ concor
- allopurinol
- penicillin
- allapinin
- mildronate
# Name the 4 leading clinical symptoms of UC:
+ diarrhea
+ increased stool frequency with mucus and blood
+ cramping abdominal pain
+ tenesmus
- heartburn
- vomit
- headache
- belching
# Name 4 clinical extraintestinal manifestations of UC:
+ articular syndrome
+ erythema nodosum
+ uveitis, episcleritis
+ fatty hepatosis
- erythema on the face
- increased blood pressure
- angina pectoris
- dizziness
# Name 4 laboratory and instrumental signs characteristic of UC:
+ anemia, hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia
+ liquid, unformed feces with mucus, pus and blood
+ on x-ray: absence of haustra (symptom of “water pipe”)
+ irrigoscopy: mucosal granularity, contact bleeding, erosions and ulcers
- changes in stool: persistent constipation
- no changes during scatological examination
- catarrhal changes in the mucous membrane during colonoscopy
- increased haustration during irrigoscopy
# Name 4 types of changes in the intestine during irrigoscopy in patients with UC:
+ shortening of the intestine
+ narrowing of the intestine
+ lack of haustration
+ intestine in the form of a water pipe
- dolichosigma
- expansion of the lumen of the colon
- increased haustration
- gut in the form of a string
# Rapid elimination of the acute phase of UC involves the following 4 types of measures:
+ creating physical and mental peace
+ parenteral correction of metabolic
+ impact on intestinal motility and flora
+ anti-inflammatory therapy
- rejection of bad habits
- long-term antibacterial therapy
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory therapy
- taking laxatives
# Name the 4 main side effects of sulfasalazine:
+ anorexia, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain
+ headache, joint pain
+ fever
+ agranulocytosis, pancytopenia, anemia
- hemorrhages
- depression
- alopecia
- withdrawal syndrome
# Name 4 indications for surgical treatment of UC:
+ suspicion of perforation
+ acute toxic dilatation of the colon, unresponsive to therapy within 6-24 hours
+ profuse intestinal bleeding
+ acute and severe forms
- good remission after conservative treatment
- elderly age
- male
- dystrophic changes according to ECG
# Name the 4 main etiological factors of liver cirrhosis:
+ viral hepatitis
+ chronic alcoholism
+ diseases of the biliary tract
+ toxins and drugs
- diabetes
- hr. gastritis
- hr. enteritis
- hr. colitis
# List the 4 main morphological signs of liver cirrhosis:
+ necrosis of hepatocytes
+ activation of connective tissue
+ regeneration of liver cells
+ formation of regenerative nodes
- hepatocyte dystrophy
- dystrophy of Kupffer cells
- hypotrophy of liver cells
- sclerosis of Glisson's capsule
# Identify 4 reasons for the development of ascites:
+ portal hypertension
+ hypoalbuminemia
+ hyperaldosteronism
+ renal dysfunction
- portal hypotension
- hyperalbuminemia
- hypoaldosteronism
- left ventricular failure
# List the 4 main signs of hypersplenism:
+ anemia
+ leukopenia
+ thrombocytopenia
+ pancytopenia
- erythrocytosis
- leukocytosis
- thrombocytosis
- accelerated ESR
# Describe the 4 clinical symptoms of portal hypertension:
+ splenomegaly
+ ascites
+ varicose veins of the esophagus, stomach
+ bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract
- swelling of the eyelids
- swelling in the lower extremities
- Varicose veins
- nosebleeds
# Name the 4 main clinical forms of liver cirrhosis:
+ portal
+ postnecrotic
+ biliary
+ mixed
- periportal
- splenomegalic
- hypercholesterolemic
- combined
# List the 4 main complaints of patients with biliary cirrhosis:
+ jaundice
+ skin itching
+ bleeding
+ bone pain
- pallor
- roseola rash
- candilomas
- haemorrhoids
# Check 4 unusual clinical signs of liver failure:
+ constipation
+ the appearance of asthma attacks
+ decrease in diuresis
+ convulsions
- liver odor from the mouth
- bleeding
- confusion
- change in handwriting
# Select 4 etiological factors of chronic pancreatitis:
+ alcohol
+ diseases of the biliary tract
+ diseases of the area of the major duodenal papilla
+ sharp restriction of protein and fats in food
- hypothermia
- viral infection
- bacterial infection
- constipation
# Select 4 characteristic morphological features for UC:
+ localization in the mucous and submucosal layers
+ infiltrates of lymphocytes, plasma cells
+ process starts from the rectum
+ full-blooded mucosa with erosions and ulcers
- the beginning of the process from the esophagus
- damage to the entire intestinal wall
- presence of sarcoid granulomas
- presence of Pirogov-Langhans cells
# List the 4 main symptoms of gastroenterological syndrome in CKD:
+ nausea
+ vomiting
+ loss of appetite
+ diarrhea (less often constipation)
- girdle pain
- pain in the lower abdomen
- bitterness in the mouth
- stool with mucus and blood
# Specify the 4 main symptoms of anemic-hemorrhagic syndrome in CKD:
+ decrease in hemoglobin and red blood cell count
+ pale yellowish color of the skin
+ subcutaneous hemorrhages
+ uterine bleeding
- increase in hemoglobin and red blood cell count
- icteric sclera and yellowness of the skin
- subcutaneous lipomas
- strokes and heart attacks
# List 4 clinical and laboratory indications for hemodialysis:
+ decrease in EF less than 10 ml/min
+ stable decrease in daily urine output less than 500 ml
+ increase in blood creatinine more than 1.2 mmol/l
+ pericarditis, encephalopathy and neuropathy
- decrease in EF less than 25 ml/min
- stable decrease in daily diuresis less than 1000 ml
- increase in creatinine more than 0.12 mmol/l
- hypokalemia
# List 4 characteristic symptoms of CKD:
+ anemia
+ hyperphosphatemia
+ hyperazotemia
+ acidosis and disturbances of water and electrolyte metabolism
- facial hyperemia
- obesity
- enuresis
- stroke
# List 4 characteristic symptoms of CKD:
+ polyuria
+ nocturia
+ uremic encephalopathy
+ dyspepsia
- facial hyperemia
- obesity
- stroke
- skin moisture
# List 4 main directions in the treatment of CKD:
+ treatment of anemia
+ correction of water-electrolyte disturbances and acidosis
+ treatment of uremic dystrophy
+ treatment of arterial hypertension
- administration of large amounts of fluid
- introduction of protein hydrolysates
- consumption of abundant protein foods
- consumption of potassium-rich foods
# List 4 main directions in the treatment of CKD:
+ reduction in the formation and retention of protein metabolism products
+ adequate fluid intake
+ treatment of the underlying disease
+ antihypertensive therapy
- administration of large amounts of fluid
- introduction of protein hydrolysates
- consumption of abundant protein foods
- consumption of potassium-rich foods
# List the 4 main symptoms of developing uremic coma:
+ increase in signs of encephalopathy: drowsiness, lethargy, apathy
+ polyneuropathy: convulsive muscle twitching
+ increased ammonia odor from the mouth
+ Kussmaul breath
- agitation, hallucinations
- hemiparesis
- increased smell of rotten apples from the mouth
- Cheyne-Stokes breathing
# List the 4 main areas of antihypertensive therapy for CKD:
+ salt restriction
+ prescription of saluretics - hypothiazide and furosemide
+ methyldopa (dopegyt) or apressin
+ atenolol
- restriction of potassium in food
- prescription of osmotic diuretics (manitol, manit)
- papaverine
- dibazole
# Describe the 4 radiological stages of RA according to the classification:
+ Stage I - characterized by narrowing of the interarticular spaces and severe epiphyseal osteoporosis
+ Stage II - characterized by the addition of single usurs
+ Stage III - multiple disorders and subluxations of joints are added to changes in stages I-II
+ Stage IV - characterized by the appearance of ankylosis of the affected joints
- Stage IV - characterized by narrowing of the interarticular spaces and severe epiphyseal osteoporosis
- Stage III - characterized by the addition of single usurs
- Stage II - multiple disorders and subluxations of the joints are added to the changes of stage III-IV
- Stage I - characterized by the appearance of ankylosis of the affected joints
# Name 4 pathological changes in joints characteristic of RA:
+ subluxations
+ ankylosis
+ bursitis
+ contractures
- hypermobility
- proliferation
- tendovaginitis
- amyotrophy
#List the 4 main symptoms of ulcer:
+ pain associated with eating
+ heartburn, belching
+ vomiting, constipation
+ cyclical flow
- pain not associated with eating
- burping rotten
- diarrhea
- dizziness
#Forms of heart damage in SLE (4):
+ myocarditis
+ endocarditis with defects
+ cardiosclerosis
+ myocardial dystrophy
- amyloidosis
- subendocardial ischemia
- subaortic stenosis
- stenosis of the pulmonary artery
#Characteristic changes in peripheral blood in SLE (4):
+ leukopenia
+ thrombocytopenia
+ hypochromic anemia
+ increase in ESR
- leukocytosis
- thrombocytosis
- lymphocytosis
- erythrocytosis
#Laboratory parameters of direct diagnostic value for SLE (4):
+ LE cells
+ ANF
+ antibodies to native DNA
+ “rosette” phenomenon
- Russian Federation
- hemolytic anemia
- thrombocytopenia
- hypofibrinogenemia
#What hematological disorders are included in the diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus
(4);
+ hemolytic anemia
+ leukopenia less than 4 thousand / ml
+ thrombocytopenia less than 150 thousand/ml
+ lymphopenia less than 1500/ml
- thrombocytosis
- erythrocytosis
- eosinophilia
- leukocytosis
#For systemic lupus erythematosus of the third degree of activity it is typical (4):
+ lupus butterfly
+ increase in ESR more than 40 mm/h
+ hypergammaglobulinemia over 30%
+ increase in temperature to 39-40°C
- hypogammaglobulinemia
- body temperature up to 37oC
- change in transaminases
- discoid rashes
# Specify 4 signs characterizing the subacute course of SSc:
+ the presence of dense swelling of the skin with subsequent induration
+ recurrent polyarthritis
+ polyserositis
+ viscerites
- the presence of dense swelling of the skin with subsequent calcification
- recurrent arthralgias
- tenosynovitis
- telangiectasia
# Select 4 characteristic signs of joint damage in Reiter's syndrome:
+ asymmetric arthritis
+ mono- or oligoarthritis
+ damage to the joints of the lower extremities
+ achilles
- symmetrical joint damage
- presence of abnormalities on the radiograph
- “puncture” symptom on x-ray
- subchondral osteosclerosis
# Select 5 risk factors for drug allergies
+ contact with drugs
+ polypharmacy
+ hereditary burden
+ fungal skin diseases
+ food allergies
- frequent colds
- chronic tonsillitis
- weakened immunity
- exercise stress
- obesity
# Name 5 signs included in the concept of the “gold standard” in the diagnosis of pneumonia:
+ fever
+ cough
+ phlegm
+ leukocytosis
+ infiltrate on x-ray
- acceleration of ESR
- slowing down the ESR
- eosinophilia
- anemia
- thrombocytopenia
# In the etiology of bacterial endocarditis, 5 main groups of pathogens play a role:
+ gram"+ " – bacteria
+ gram"- " – bacteria
+ L-shape
+ mushrooms
+ rickettsia
- coxsackie viruses
- human immunodeficiency virus
- herpes virus
- campylobacter pylori
- Escherichia coli
# Manifestations of bacterial endocarditis can be represented by the following 5 syndromes:
+ inflammatory changes
+ intoxication syndrome
+ thromboembolic changes
+ valvular lesion
+ immune damage to organs and systems
- nephrotic
- astheno-neurotic
- uremic
- metabolic
# List 5 diagnostic criteria for the infectious-toxic stage of bacterial endocarditis:
+ febrile course of the disease
+ detection of valve defects
+ presence of thromboembolic syndrome
+ positive NBT test
+ repeated detection of "+" blood culture
- increase in ESR
- symptoms of uremia
- hemorrhages on the skin
- hyperemia of the palms
- telangiectasia
# List 5 diagnostic criteria for the immuno-inflammatory stage of bacterial endocarditis:
+ development of heart disease
+ vasculitis
+ systemic damage to internal organs
+ fever that improves with corticosteroids
+ laboratory signs of immune disorders
- enlarged liver
- normalization of temperature after antibiotics are prescribed
- hyperalbuminemia
- hyperproteinemia
- hypercholesterolemia
# List 5 echocardiographic signs of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ diffuse dilatation of the heart cavities
+ decreased myocardial contractility
+ “fish pharynx” symptom on echocardiogram
+ diffuse hypokinesis of the left ventricle
+ intracavitary thrombi
- reduction of the left ventricular cavity
- local hypokinesia of the myocardium of the left ventricle of the myocardium
- significant thickening of the interventricular septum
- aortic regurgitation
- reduction of the left atrium cavity
# List the 5 main groups of drugs used in the treatment of dilated cardiomyopathy:
+ cardiac glycosides
+ peripheral vasodilators
+ anticoagulants
+ ACE inhibitors
+ diuretics
- calcium antagonists
- B vitamins
- glucocorticoids
- anabolic steroids
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
# List the 5 main complaints in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ shortness of breath
+ pain in the heart area
+ dizziness
+ fainting
+ heartbeat
- cough with sputum
- epigastric pain
- belching
- pain in the right hypochondrium
- jaundice
# List 5 echocardiographic signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
+ reduction of the left ventricular cavity
+ asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum
+ abnormal upward systolic movement of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
+ thickening of the interventricular septum and limitation of its mobility
+ dilatation of the left atrium cavity
- dilatation of the left ventricular cavity
- “fish pharynx” symptom on echocardiography
- discordant movement of the mitral valve leaflets
- dilatation of the right ventricular cavity
- aortic regurgitation
# Name 5 clinical symptoms of restrictive cardiomyopathy:
+ increase in the borders of the heart to the right
+ appearance of the third tone at the apex and to the left of the sternum in the 4th and 5th intercostal
spaces
+ systolic murmur at the apex
+ increase in the borders of the heart up and to the right
+ increased heart rate
- appearance of a “quail rhythm” at the top
- diastolic murmur over the aorta
- weakening of the first tone over the aorta
- accent of the first tone over the pulmonary artery
- increase in the borders of the heart to the left
# Name 5 diseases that lead to the development of secondary forms of restrictive cardiomyopathy
+ primary amyloidosis
+ hemochromatosis
+ systemic scleroderma
+ sarcoidosis
- carcinoid heart disease
- endomyocardial fibrosis
- fibroplastic endocarditis
- bacterial endocarditis
- myocarditis
- cardiac ischemia
# List 5 etiological factors contributing to the development of aortic insufficiency:
+ rheumatism
+ infective endocarditis
+ syphilitic aortitis
+ diffuse connective tissue diseases
+ congenital malformations
- viral infection
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- dilated cardiomyopathy
- myocarditis
- pericarditis
# Name 5 absolute contraindications to the use of beta-blockers:
+ bronchial asthma
+ sick sinus syndrome
+ atrioventricular block II, III degree
+ bradycardia less than 50 beats per minute
+ arterial hypotension
- arterial hypertension
- heart failure
- tachycardia
- focal pneumonia
- acute bronchitis
# Name the 5 main complications of UC:
+ ulcer perforation
+ profuse bleeding
+ toxic dilatation of the large intestine
+ strictures
+ malignancy
- thrombosis of the mesenteric artery
- diverticulosis
- rectal prolapse
- hypotension
- intracavitary fistulas
# Name 5 specific changes in the intestinal mucosa in UC:
+ contact bleeding
+ absence of vascular pattern
+ millet-like abscesses
+ ulcers of various sizes and shapes
+ pseudopolyps
- bleeding of space-occupying formation
- strengthening of the vascular pattern
- atrophy of the colon mucosa
- pseudodiverticula
- damage to all layers of the intestine
# Select 5 characteristic syndromes of liver cirrhosis:
+ portal hypertension
+ asthenovegetative
+ dyspeptic
+ cytolytic
+ mesenchymal-inflammatory
- nephrotic
- hypertensive
- angina pectoris
- dysuric
- painful
# Describe 5 clinical manifestations of portal cirrhosis in the decompensation stage:
+ ascites
+ nosebleeds
+ swelling of the legs
+ bleeding from the esophagus, stomach or hemorrhoids
+ hepatic encephalopathy
- belly reduction
- Varicose veins
- varicocele
- polydepsia
- sweating
# Name 5 clinical signs of portal cirrhosis:
+ spider veins
+ palmar erythema
+ reduction in hair growth
+ gynecomastia
+ dark skin pigmentation
- roseola rashes
- hypercholesterolemia
- hyperalbuminemia
- hypoaldosteronemia
- swelling on the face
# Select 5 blood test changes for decompensated portal cirrhosis:
+ dysproteinemia
+ positive sediment samples
+ decrease in prothrombin content
+ hypocholesterolemia
+ increased aminotransferase activity
- hyperproteinemia
- negative sediment samples
- hyperfibrinogenemia
- hypercholesterolemia
- increase in blood fibrinogen
# Select 5 main signs of macronodular (postnecrotic) cirrhosis of the liver:
+ fever
+ asthenovegetative syndrome
+ dyspeptic syndrome
+ jaundice
+ cytolytic syndrome
- decrease in body temperature
- severe portal hypertension
- arterial hypertension
- renal failure
- coronary insufficiency
# List 5 laboratory signs of functional failure of hepatocytes in postnecrotic cirrhosis of the liver:
+ increase in bilirubin
+ hypocholesterolemia
+ decrease in prothrombin
+ hypoproteinemia
- increase in aminotransferases and LDH 4, LDH 5
- normal bilirubin content
- hypercholesterolemia
- hyperfibrinogenemia
- increased diatase in the blood
- hyperproteinemia
# Select 5 main reasons that provoke the development of hepatic coma:
+ taking hepatotoxic drugs
+ excessive use of diuretics
+ drinking alcohol
+ bleeding from dilated veins of the esophagus and stomach
+ excess protein intake from food
- exacerbation of chronic gastritis
- exacerbation of chronic colitis
- exacerbation of chronic enteritis
- exacerbation of chronic cholecystitis
- bacterial infection
# Select 5 signs characteristic of severe UC:
+ bowel movements more than 10 times a day
+ release of blood clots
+ loss of body weight more than 20%
+ there are systemic complications
+ there are local complications
- systemic manifestations may be
- no local complications
- defecation up to 4 times with blood
- ESR up to 26 mm/h
- temperature less than 37 degrees
# Select 5 methods of symptomatic therapy for UC:
+ astringents, antidiarrheal drugs
+ correction of anemia
+ eubiotics
+ correction of dysbiosis
+ detoxification therapy
- sulfasalazine
- salofalk
- prednisolone
- azathioprine
- cyclophosphamide
# List the 5 main clinical symptoms of CKD:
+ asthenia and weight loss
+ nausea and vomiting
+ nocturia
+ polyuria
+ convulsions and paresthesias
- fainting
- angina pectoris
- hypotension
- hallucinations
- cardiogenic shock
# Name 5 factors that provoke SSc:
+ vibration
+ contact with chemical influence
+ long cooling
+ mental stress
+ hereditary predisposition
- sedentary lifestyle
- heavy consumption of fatty foods
- abuse of table salt
- bacterial infection
- protozoal infection
# Select 5 signs combined into CREST syndrome in SSc:
+ calcinosis
+ Raynaud's syndrome
+ esophagitis
+ sclerodactyly
+ telangiectasia
- ulcerations
- duodenitis
- esophageal diverticulum
- pneumonitis
- Reiter's syndrome
# Select 5 main diagnostic criteria for dermatomyositis:
+ periorbital edema and erythema on exposed areas of the body
+ damage to the muscles of the proximal limbs
+ pathomorphological changes in muscles during biopsy
+ increased levels of CPK, aldolase, transaminases
+ characteristic electromyographic data
- polyarthritis
- esophagitis
- Raynaud's syndrome
- myocarditis
- cardiac asthma
# Dermatomyositis is characterized by the following 5 symptoms:
+ choking
+ dysphagia
+ food getting into the nasal passages
+ muscle weakness
+ paraorbital edema
- diarrhea
- obesity
- heartburn
- polyneuropathy
- convulsions
# Select 5 major criteria for periarteritis nodosa:
+ kidney damage
+ coronaryitis
+ abdominal syndrome
+ polyneuritis
+ bronchial asthma with eosinophilia
- fever
- myalgic syndrome
- weight loss
- epigastric pain
- constipation
# Name 5 generally accepted risk factors for the development of gout:
+ eating foods rich in purines
+ systematic alcohol consumption
+ overeating in general
+ little physical activity
+ hereditary predisposition
- fatty hepatosis
- atherosclerosis
- cholecystitis
- hepatitis
- eating foods rich in carbohydrates
#Highlight 5 main etiological factors leading to the development of peptic ulcer (PU):
+ heredity
+ neuropsychological factors
+ bad habits
+ medicinal effects
+ infection (Helicobacter pylori)
- blood group II (A)
- negative Rh factor
- reduction in the number of parietal cells of the gastric mucosa
- increased production of prostaglandin E
- decreased histamine production
#Indicate 5 protective factors for PU:
+ continuous epithelial layer
+ alkaline environment produced by epithelial cells
+ prostaglandins
+ immune protection
+ rapid regeneration of epithelial cells
- violation of the integrity of the epithelial layer
- reduction of alkaline buffer
- decreased production of prostaglandin E
- duodeno-gastric reflux
- pepsin
#Highlight 5 complications of PU:
+ bleeding
+ perforation
+ stenosis
+ malignancy
+ penetration
- pylorospasm
- deformation
- varicose veins of the esophagus
- portal hypertension
- cholestasis
#List the 5 main symptoms of gastric ulcer:
+ occurs more often in older people
+ early epigastric pain
+ belching
+ nausea
+ vomiting
- occurs more often in young people
- women get sick more often
- late epigastric pain
- vomiting that does not bring relief
- burping rotten
#List the 5 main symptoms of duodenal ulcer:
+ found predominantly in young people
+ late and hunger pains
+ vomiting, bringing relief
+ heartburn
+ constipation
- occurs mainly in the elderly
- early epigastric pain
- vomiting that does not bring relief
- belching rotten
- diarrhea
#List the 5 main methods of examining patients with ulcerative disease:
+ examination of gastric juice
+ feces for hidden bleeding
+ general blood test
+ EGDFS
+ R-scopy of the stomach
- study of duodenal juice
- feces on worm eggs
- blood enzymes (ALT, AST)
- CT scan
- Ultrasound