Essentials Of Human Anatomy & Physiology
-11th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb – Test
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Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology -11th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb – Test Bank
Sample Questions
Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb)
Chapter 5 The Skeletal System
5.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions
Using Figure 5.1, identify the following:
1) The proximal epiphysis is represented by ________.
1. A) Label H
2. B) Label C
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label B
5. E) Label F
Answer: D
Page Ref: 162
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2) The area that causes the lengthwise growth of a long bone is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label F
2. B) Label D
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label E
5. E) Label C
Answer: D
Page Ref: 161, 162
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
3) The area that serves as a storage area for fat in adults is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label H
2. B) Label F
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label G
5. E) Label B
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161, 162
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
4) The diaphysis is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label D
2. B) Label C
3. C) Label G
4. D) Label A
5. E) Label H
Answer: B
Page Ref: 161, 162
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) The periosteum, a connective tissue covering on the diaphysis, is represented by ________.
1. A) Label C
2. B) Label A
3. C) Label G
4. D) Label B
5. E) Label F
Answer: E
Page Ref: 161, 162
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
6) The area that contains glassy hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth slippery surface which
decreases friction is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label D
2. B) Label H
3. C) Label E
4. D) Label B
5. E) Label A
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161, 162
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
7) Blood cell formation is called ________.
1. A) ossification
2. B) hematopoiesis
3. C) homeostasis
4. D) metabolism
Answer: B
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) What bones protect the spinal cord?
1. A) ribs
2. B) sternum
3. C) vertebrae
4. D) coxal bones
Answer: C
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones.
1. A) flat
2. B) long
3. C) short
4. D) irregular
Answer: C
Page Ref: 160
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
10) Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as
________.
1. A) canaliculi
2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
3. C) central (Haversian) canals
4. D) perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
11) The process of bone formation is known as ________.
1. A) hematopoiesis
2. B) hemostasis
3. C) metabolism
4. D) ossification
Answer: D
Page Ref: 165
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
12) Bone-destroying cells known as osteoclasts are activated by the hormone ________.
1. A) calcitonin
2. B) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
3. C) insulin
4. D) growth hormone
Answer: B
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
13) The first step in bone healing involves the formation of a blood-filled swelling known as a(n)
________.
1. A) epiphyseal line
2. B) bony callus
3. C) hematoma
4. D) fibrocartilage callus
Answer: C
Page Ref: 169
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) An incomplete bone break, known as a(n) ________ fracture, is commonly seen in children.
1. A) spiral
2. B) greenstick
3. C) impacted
4. D) comminuted
Answer: B
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
15) The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton.
1. A) appendicular
2. B) central
3. C) axial
4. D) main
Answer: C
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
16) The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain
to connect is the ________.
1. A) occipital condyle
2. B) vertebral foramen
3. C) intervertebral foramen
4. D) foramen magnum
Answer: D
Page Ref: 172
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures.
1. A) coronal
2. B) sagittal
3. C) squamous
4. D) lambdoid
Answer: C
Page Ref: 171
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
18) The shin bone is called the ________.
1. A) tibia
2. B) fibula
3. C) femur
4. D) radius
Answer: A
Page Ref: 189
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
19) The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.
1. A) acromion process
2. B) glenoid cavity
3. C) suprascapula notch
4. D) coracoid process
Answer: B
Page Ref: 182
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
20) Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________.
1. A) fracture
2. B) hematoma
3. C) articulation (joint)
4. D) marrow cavity
Answer: C
Page Ref: 190
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) Immovable joints are functionally classified as ________.
1. A) diarthroses
2. B) synarthroses
3. C) amphiarthroses
4. D) symphyses
Answer: B
Page Ref: 190
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Using Figure 5.2, identify the following:
22) The parietal bone is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label M
2. B) Label O
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label H
5. E) Label P
Answer: C
Page Ref: 171
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
23) The fibula is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label Q
2. B) Label X
3. C) Label R
4. D) Label T
5. E) Label W
Answer: B
Page Ref: 188, 189
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
24) The patella is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label E
2. B) Label G
3. C) Label I
4. D) Label U
5. E) Label A
Answer: C
Page Ref: 189
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) The manubrium and xiphoid process are markings on the bone indicated by ________.
1. A) Label O
2. B) Label N
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label K
5. E) Label B
Answer: A
Page Ref: 181
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
26) The radius bone is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label T
2. B) Label R
3. C) Label F
4. D) Label S
5. E) Label Q
Answer: E
Page Ref: 184, 185
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
27) The mandible is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label N
2. B) Label W
3. C) Label M
4. D) Label C
5. E) Label B
Answer: A
Page Ref: 174, 175
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
28) The carpals are indicated by ________.
1. A) Label N
2. B) Label X
3. C) Label J
4. D) Label I
5. E) Label T
Answer: E
Page Ref: 185
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
29) The greater tubercle and trochlea are bone markings situated on the bone marked by
________.
1. A) Label O
2. B) Label I
3. C) Label E
4. D) Label Y
5. E) Label A
Answer: C
Page Ref: 184
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
30) The ilium, pubis, and ischium fuse to form the bone marked by ________.
1. A) Label F
2. B) Label G
3. C) Label T
4. D) Label H
5. E) Label I
Answer: B
Page Ref: 186
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
5.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions
1) The most important minerals stored in bones are ________.
1. A) calcium and iron
2. B) sodium and phosphorus
3. C) sodium and potassium
4. D) calcium and phosphorus
5. E) calcium and potassium
Answer: D
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2)
The arrangement of bone tissue shown in Figure 5.3 consists of ________.
1. A) osteons (Haversian systems)
2. B) yellow marrow
3. C) trabeculae
4. D) neurons
5. E) red marrow
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
3) Where does hematopoiesis occur?
1. A) marrow cavity
2. B) epiphyseal plate
3. C) articular cartilage
4. D) periosteum
5. E) endosteum
Answer: A
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
4) The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as ________.
1. A) compact bones
2. B) irregular bones
3. C) flat bones
4. D) long bones
5. E) sesamoid bones
Answer: D
Page Ref: 160
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
5) What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints?
1. A) yellow marrow
2. B) endosteum
3. C) spongy bone
4. D) periosteum
5. E) articular cartilage
Answer: E
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
6) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to ________.
1. A) store adipose tissue
2. B) form blood cells
3. C) store calcium and phosphorus
4. D) promote lengthwise growth in long bones
5. E) decrease friction at joint surfaces
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
7) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that ________.
1. A) bone is dead
2. B) bone length is no longer increasing
3. C) bone diameter is increasing
4. D) bone diameter is decreasing
5. E) bone length is increasing
Answer: E
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 3) Application
8) Each complex of central canal and matrix rings in compact bone is known as ________.
1. A) a perforating (Volkmann’s) canal
2. B) the epiphysis
3. C) a canaliculus
4. D) a central (Haversian) canal
5. E) an osteon (Haversian system)
Answer: E
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
9) The bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH) to destroy bone matrix and release
calcium into the blood are called ________.
1. A) osteocytes
2. B) chondrocytes
3. C) erythrocytes
4. D) osteoclasts
5. E) osteoblasts
Answer: D
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
10) Which of the following is only found associated with a child’s bone?
1. A) diaphysis
2. B) marrow cavity
3. C) epiphyseal plate
4. D) periosteum
5. E) articular cartilage
Answer: C
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 3) Application
11) Which of these bone markings is a projection that serves as a site for muscle or ligament
attachment?
1. A) meatus
2. B) fossa
3. C) foramen
4. D) fissure
5. E) tubercle
Answer: E
Page Ref: 164
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
12) Which of the following bones is considered part of the axial skeleton?
1. A) femur
2. B) sternum
3. C) radius
4. D) metatarsals
5. E) scapula
Answer: B
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 3) Application
13) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian system) contains ________.
1. A) cartilage and lamellae
2. B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts
3. C) yellow marrow and perforating, or Sharpey’s, fibers
4. D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
5. E) red marrow
Answer: D
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called ________.
1. A) lacunae
2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
3. C) central (Haversian) canals
4. D) trabeculae
5. E) lamellae
Answer: A
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
15) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
1. A) elastic connective tissue
2. B) dense fibrous connective tissue
3. C) fibrocartilage
4. D) hyaline cartilage
5. E) loose fibrous connective tissue
Answer: D
Page Ref: 165
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
16) What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs?
1. A) osteocyte
2. B) erythrocyte
3. C) chondrocyte
4. D) osteoblast
5. E) osteoclast
Answer: D
Page Ref: 165
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
17) The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are) ________.
1. A) sex hormones
2. B) growth hormone
3. C) stress of gravity and pull of muscles on the skeleton
4. D) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
5. E) calcium level of the blood
Answer: C
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 3) Application
18) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates
the sequence of these stages?
1. bony callus formation 3. fibrocartilage callus formation
2. bone remodeling 4. hematoma formation
3. A) 4, 3, 2, 1
4. B) 4, 3, 1, 2
5. C) 1, 2, 3, 4
6. D) 1, 3, 4, 2
7. E) 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer: B
Page Ref: 169
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
19) Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely ________.
1. A) endochondrial growth
2. B) none since bones do not grow after adolescence
3. C) appositional growth
4. D) occurring at the epiphyseal lines
5. E) occurring at the epiphyseal plates
Answer: C
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 3) Application
20) An open, or compound, fracture can be described as when ________.
1. A) the bone is crushed
2. B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other
3. C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
4. D) the bone is broken into many fragments
5. E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
Answer: C
Page Ref: 169
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
21) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a ________.
1. A) compound fracture
2. B) simple fracture
3. C) comminuted fracture
4. D) compression fracture
5. E) greenstick fracture
Answer: C
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
22) The physician knew her patient was most likely a child before she walked into the
examination room because the X-ray revealed a(n) ________.
1. A) impacted fracture
2. B) compression fracture
3. C) comminuted fracture
4. D) greenstick fracture
5. E) open fracture
Answer: D
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 3) Application
23) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n) ________.
1. A) impacted fracture
2. B) compression fracture
3. C) spiral fracture
4. D) depressed fracture
5. E) simple fracture
Answer: B
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
24) The axial skeleton contains ________.
1. skull
2. scapula
3. true and false ribs
4. vertebrae
5. phalanges
6. A) 1, 3, 4, 5
7. B) 1, 3, 4
8. C) 2, 5
9. D) 2, 3, 4, 5
10. E) 1, 2, 3, 5
Answer: B
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
25) The suture situated anteriorly between the parietal bones and occipital bone is the ________.
1. A) squamous suture
2. B) lambdoid suture
3. C) sagittal suture
4. D) coronal suture
5. E) both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture
Answer: B
Page Ref: 172
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
26) Identify the bones that do NOT house a paranasal sinus ________.
1. A) frontal bones
2. B) maxillary bones
3. C) ethmoid bones
4. D) sphenoid bones
5. E) zygomatic bones
Answer: E
Page Ref: 172-175
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
27) The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are ________.
1. A) alveolar margins
2. B) sinuses
3. C) palates
4. D) crista galli
5. E) fontanels
Answer: E
Page Ref: 176
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
28) Which of these bones is associated with the hand?
1. A) talus
2. B) calcaneus
3. C) metatarsals
4. D) tarsals
5. E) metacarpals
Answer: E
Page Ref: 185
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
29) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
1. A) is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
2. B) is an irregular bone
3. C) belongs to both the axial and appendicular skeletons
4. D) has no specific function
5. E) largely consists of cartilage
Answer: A
Page Ref: 175
Bloom’s: 3) Application
30) What feature is uniquely associated with cervical vertebrae?
1. A) spinous processes
2. B) transverse processes
3. C) vertebral foramina
4. D) transverse foramina
5. E) pedicles
Answer: D
Page Ref: 180
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
31) How many true ribs do humans have?
1. A) three
2. B) five
3. C) seven
4. D) twelve
5. E) fifteen
Answer: C
Page Ref: 181, 182
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
32) The dens is a process projecting from the ________.
1. A) sacrum
2. B) coccyx
3. C) intervertebral discs
4. D) atlas
5. E) axis
Answer: E
Page Ref: 178
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
33) The atlas is the ________.
1. A) last lumbar vertebra
2. B) first thoracic vertebra
3. C) part of the sacrum
4. D) second cervical vertebra
5. E) first cervical vertebra
Answer: E
Page Ref: 178
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
34) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior?
1. A) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
2. B) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
3. C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
4. D) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
5. E) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
Answer: C
Page Ref: 181, 182
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
35) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the ________.
1. A) ischium, ilium, coccyx
2. B) pubis, ischium, ilium
3. C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process
4. D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
5. E) true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
Answer: C
Page Ref: 181
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
36) Which two bones constitute the forearm?
1. A) radius and humerus
2. B) humerus and scapula
3. C) fibula and tibia
4. D) ulna and radius
5. E) femur and fibula
Answer: D
Page Ref: 185
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
37) The tailbone is the ________.
1. A) ischium
2. B) sacrum
3. C) pubis
4. D) coccyx
5. E) patella
Answer: D
Page Ref: 180
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
38) You examine an articulated skeleton in the laboratory and determine the skeleton to be a
female since ________.
1. A) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller than in a male
2. B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater than in a male
3. C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less than in a male
4. D) the female iliac bones are less flared than in a male
5. E) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker than in a male
Answer: B
Page Ref: 186
Bloom’s: 3) Application
39)
The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is ________.
1. A) a suture
2. B) a fibrous joint
3. C) an amphiarthrotic joint
4. D) a cartilaginous joint
5. E) a synovial joint
Answer: E
Page Ref: 194
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
40) A structure found on the femur is the ________.
1. A) anterior crest
2. B) trochlea
3. C) lateral malleolus
4. D) intercondylar fossa
5. E) medial malleolus
Answer: D
Page Ref: 188-189
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
41) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________, whereas
articulations permitting no movement are called ________.
1. A) amphiarthroses; synarthroses
2. B) synarthroses; amphiarthroses
3. C) diarthroses; amphiarthroses
4. D) amphiarthroses; diarthroses
5. E) diarthroses; synarthroses
Answer: A
Page Ref: 190
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
42) The wrist bones are actually ________.
1. A) tarsals
2. B) metacarpals
3. C) phalanges
4. D) metatarsals
5. E) carpals
Answer: E
Page Ref: 185
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
43) Which of these bones articulates with the acetabulum of the coxal bone?
1. A) femur
2. B) patella
3. C) fibula
4. D) sacrum
5. E) tibia
Answer: A
Page Ref: 188
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
44) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the
exception.
1. A) humerus
2. B) radius
3. C) scapula
4. D) fibula
5. E) clavicle
Answer: D
Page Ref: 182-184
Bloom’s: 3) Application
45) The elbow is classified as a(n) ________.
1. A) plane joint
2. B) hinge joint
3. C) pivot joint
4. D) saddle joint
5. E) condylar joint
Answer: B
Page Ref: 194
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
5.3 True/False Questions
1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain
bones.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
2) Articular cartilage covers the diaphysis of long bones.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
3) The arrangement of lamellae around central (Haversian) canals forms osteons (Haversian
systems).
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
4) Hypercalcemia promotes the deposition of calcium to bones.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
5) A closed, or simple, fracture is one that penetrates through the skin’s surface.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 169
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
6) The last two pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they have no anterior attachments.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 182
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
7) Teeth are anchored in the maxillary bones and the mandible.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 173, 175
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 178
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) The intervertebral discs that cushion the spine and absorb shock are composed of
fibrocartilage.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 193
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
10) In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 189
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
11) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 176-177
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
12) A newborn baby has an S-shaped spinal curvature known as a primary curvature.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 177
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
13) Diarthroses have a greater degree of mobility and flexibility than synarthroses.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 190-191
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
14) Joint inflammation is known as ankylosis.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 196
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5.4 Matching Questions
Match the following:
1. A) greenstick fracture
2. B) depression fracture
3. C) impacted fracture
4. D) comminuted fracture
5. E) spiral fracture
1) Incomplete bone break
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2) Broken bone portion is pushed inward
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
3) Ragged bone break resulting from twisting forces
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) Bone breaks into many fragments
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) Broken bone ends are forced into each other
Page Ref: 168
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C
Match the following:
1. A) osteoclasts
2. B) epiphyseal plate
3. C) lamellae
4. D) osteoblasts
5. E) canaliculi
6) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7) Layers or rings of calcification that are found in compact bone
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of compact bone
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) Cells that can build bony matrix
Page Ref: 165
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
10) Area where bone growth takes place in a long bone
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) B
Match the following:
1. A) ball-and-socket joint
2. B) pivot joint
3. C) plane joint
4. D) hinge joint
5. E) condylar joint
11) Wrist joint
Page Ref: 194
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
12) Shoulder joint
Page Ref: 196
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
13) Ankle joint
Page Ref: 194
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) Knuckle joints
Page Ref: 196
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
15) Joint between atlas and axis
Page Ref: 194
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) B
Match the following:
1. A) appendicular skeleton
2. B) axial skeleton
16) Tarsals
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) Femur
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
18) Phalanges
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
19) Ulna
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
20) Atlas
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) Sternum
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
22) Fibula
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
23) Coxal bone
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
24) True ribs
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) Parietal bones
Page Ref: 170
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) B
5.5 Essay Questions
1) Explain the five functions of the skeletal system.
Answer:
1. Support—the skeletal system forms the body’s internal structural framework. The bones of the
legs act as pillars to support the body trunk when we stand, and the rib cage supports the
thoracic wall.
2. Movement—the skeletal muscles, attached to bones by tendons, use the bones as levers to
move the body and its parts.
3. Protection—bones, such as the skull, thorax, and pelvis, protect the enclosed soft body organs.
4. Storage—fat is stored in the internal cavities of bones. Bones also serve as a storehouse for
minerals, the most important being calcium and phosphorus.
5. Hematopoiesis—blood cell formation occurs within the red marrow of certain bones.
Page Ref: 159
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
2) Differentiate between the functions of yellow marrow and red marrow.
Answer: Yellow or red marrow may be found in the medullary (marrow) cavity of a long bone,
depending on the age of the individual. Yellow marrow is adipose tissue that stores energy. Red
marrow functions in blood cell production, a process known as hematopoiesis.
Page Ref: 161
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
3) List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.
Answer:
Step 1 is hematoma formation. A hematoma, or blood-filled swelling, forms when bone breaks
and blood vessels rupture. Bone cells are deprived of nutrition and die.
Step 2 is fibrocartilage callus formation. The site of damage experiences growth of new
capillaries into the clotted blood and disposal of dead tissue by phagocytes. Connective tissue
cells of various types form a mass of repair tissue called fibrocartilage callus. This fibrocartilage
callus contains several elements: some cartilage matrix, some bony matrix, and collagen fibers.
This fibrocartilage callus acts to splint the broken bone, closing the gap.
Step 3 is bony callus formation. As more osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate into the area and
multiply, fibrocartilage is gradually replaced by a callus of spongy bone (the bony callus).
Step 4 is bone remodeling. Over the next few months, bony callus is remodeled in response to
the mechanical stresses placed on it, so that it forms a strong, permanent patch at the fracture
site.
Page Ref: 169
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) Explain how the anatomy of compact bone differs from that of spongy bone.
Answer: Compact bone is composed of osteons (Haversian systems). Concentric rings of matrix,
called lamellae, are situated around a central (Haversian) canal. The rings and central canal
constitute an osteon, or Haversian system. Other canals, called canaliculi, spread outward from
central canals to connect to lacunae which house osteocytes.
Spongy bone is open, airy, spiky and is composed of small, needlelike pieces of bone. Spongy
bone lacks osteons and a network of canals.
Page Ref: 159, 161-162
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
5) Explain how bones are remodeled in response to parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates bone-destroying cells called osteoclasts to break
down the bone’s matrix and release the stored calcium into the blood. PTH determines when
bone will be broken down in response to the level of calcium ions in the blood.
Page Ref: 166
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
6) List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.
Answer: The female pelvis:
1. has a larger and more circular inlet.
2. is shallower than the male pelvis.
3. has lighter and thinner bones.
4. has a shorter and less curved sacrum.
5. has a more rounded pubic arch.
6. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.
Page Ref: 186
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7) If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what
might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this
situation?
Answer: The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone.
Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and
has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky
for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur.
The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.
Page Ref: 161, 165-166
Bloom’s: 3) Application
8) Maria observes a patient in her clinic with a spinal curvature abnormality. She notices the
patient’s spine curves laterally from the midline. Determine the abnormality she observed and
explain how she differentiated it from the other two types of spinal abnormalities.
Answer: Maria observed a patient with scoliosis in which the spinal strays laterally from the
midline. Lordosis, or sway back, results in lumbar curvature exaggerated in the ventral (anterior)
direction. Kyphosis produces a humped back due to a thoracic curvature exaggerated in the
dorsal (posterior) direction.
Page Ref: 177-178
Bloom’s: 3) Application
9) Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in
the body.
Answer:
1. Unlike all other vertebra, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens.
2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side
to indicate “no.” The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.
Page Ref: 178, 180
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
10) Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classification.
Provide examples of each type of joint.
Answer:
1. Synarthroses are immovable joints. These joints are structurally classified as fibrous joints since
the bones are united by fibrous tissue. Skull sutures are one example of a fibrous joint.
2. Amphiarthroses are slightly movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as
cartilaginous joints since the bone ends are connected by cartilage. The pubic symphysis and
intervertebral joints are two examples.
3. Diathroses are freely movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as synovial joints
since the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid. There
are many examples of synovial joints, including the elbow, knee, and shoulder.
Page Ref: 190-191
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb)
Chapter 7 The Nervous System
7.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions
Using Figure 7.1, identify the following:
1) The neural processes that convey incoming messages toward the cell body are indicated by
________.
1. A) Label H
2. B) Label G
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label F
5. E) Label B
Answer: C
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
2) The metabolic center of the neuron is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label D
2. B) Label F
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label H
5. E) Label I
Answer: A
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
3) The axon terminals are indicated by ________.
1. A) Label I
2. B) Label G
3. C) Label B
4. D) Label A
5. E) Label C
Answer: E
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) The axon is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label B
2. B) Label F
3. C) Label H
4. D) Label I
5. E) Label A
Answer: A
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) The gaps between Schwann cells are indicated by ________.
1. A) Label D
2. B) Label H
3. C) Label B
4. D) Label F
5. E) Label A
Answer: B
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
6) The nucleus of the neuron is indicated by ________.
1. A) Label E
2. B) Label I
3. C) Label A
4. D) Label B
5. E) Label F
Answer: A
Page Ref: 253, 254
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7) The nervous system is structurally subdivided into two systems: ________ nervous system
and ________ nervous system.
1. A) central; peripheral
2. B) somatic; autonomic
3. C) parasympathetic; sympathetic
4. D) autonomic; sympathetic
Answer: A
Page Ref: 250-251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) ________ cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS.
1. A) Satellite
2. B) Ependymal
3. C) Schwann
4. D) Nerve
Answer: C
Page Ref: 253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________.
1. A) myelin sheaths
2. B) neuroglia
3. C) oligodendrocytes
4. D) microglia
Answer: B
Page Ref: 252
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
10) The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the
________.
1. A) dendrite
2. B) cell body
3. C) synaptic cleft
4. D) axon
Answer: D
Page Ref: 253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
11) The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are
called ________.
1. A) synaptic clefts
2. B) axon terminals
3. C) nodes of Ranvier
4. D) myelin sheaths
Answer: C
Page Ref: 255
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
12) Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________.
1. A) Meissner’s corpuscles
2. B) proprioceptors
3. C) lamellar corpuscles
4. D) association neurons
Answer: B
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
13) Bundles of nerve fibers (neuron processes) running through the CNS are called ________,
whereas in the PNS they are called ________.
1. A) tracts; nerves
2. B) gray matter; white matter
3. C) axons; dendrites
4. D) afferent neurons; efferent neurons
Answer: A
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) The cell bodies of the ________ neurons are always located within the CNS.
1. A) proprioceptor
2. B) afferent
3. C) motor
4. D) sensory
Answer: C
Page Ref: 257
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
15) Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________
matter.
1. A) sensory; motor
2. B) gray; white
3. C) motor; sensory
4. D) white; gray
Answer: D
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
16) ________ connect sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways and their cell bodies are
typically located in the central nervous system.
1. A) Interneurons (association neurons)
2. B) Afferent
3. C) Efferent
4. D) Proprioceptors
Answer: A
Page Ref: 257
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) During repolarization, ________ ions are pumped out of the cell.
1. A) sodium
2. B) potassium
3. C) both sodium and potassium
4. D) calcium
Answer: A
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
18) ________ reflexes include the secretion of saliva, changes in the size of our pupils, and
digestion involve the activities of smooth muscles.
1. A) Somatic
2. B) Voluntary
3. C) Autonomic
4. D) Sympathetic
Answer: C
Page Ref: 261
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
19) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus collectively constitute the ________.
1. A) cerebellum
2. B) dicephalon (interbrain)
3. C) brain stem
4. D) cerebrum
Answer: B
Page Ref: 265, 269
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
20) The brain dysfunction where blood supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is blocked and
vital brain tissue dies, as by a blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel, is called ________.
1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke
2. B) Parkinson’s disease
3. C) Huntington’s disease
4. D) multiple sclerosis
Answer: A
Page Ref: 275
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) The brain and spinal cord are protected and cushioned by three connective tissue membranes
that are collectively called ________.
1. A) ventricles
2. B) arachnoid villi
3. C) meninges
4. D) sinuses
Answer: C
Page Ref: 271
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
22) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain known as
________.
1. A) choroid plexuses
2. B) arachnoid villi
3. C) ventricles
4. D) sinuses
Answer: A
Page Ref: 272
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
23) The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the ________ lobe of the cerebrum.
1. A) parietal
2. B) frontal
3. C) temporal
4. D) occipital
Answer: A
Page Ref: 264
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
24) The blood-brain barrier is formed by ________ junctions that nearly seamlessly bind
capillaries in the brain.
1. A) gap
2. B) intercalated
3. C) desmosome
4. D) tight
Answer: D
Page Ref: 274
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) One of the major functions of the pons is to control ________.
1. A) breathing
2. B) hunger
3. C) thirst
4. D) consciousness
Answer: A
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
26) The fissure in the brain that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________.
1. A) transverse fissure
2. B) longitudinal fissure
3. C) sagittal fissure
4. D) tentorium cerebelli
Answer: B
Page Ref: 263
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
27) The hypothalamus regulates the ________.
1. A) pineal gland
2. B) pituitary gland
3. C) pons
4. D) thalamus
Answer: B
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
28) The large fiber tract that allows communication between the two cerebral hemispheres is
called the ________.
1. A) corpus callosum
2. B) fornix
3. C) pons
4. D) thalamus
Answer: A
Page Ref: 268
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
29) The portion of the diencephalon that acts as a relay station for sensory impulses traveling to
the sensory cortex is the ________.
1. A) pons
2. B) pituitary gland
3. C) thalamus
4. D) hypothalamus
Answer: C
Page Ref: 265, 269
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
30) The delicate innermost membrane, or meningeal layer, that clings to the surface of the brain
and spinal cord is known as the ________ mater.
1. A) dura
2. B) arachnoid
3. C) periosteal
4. D) pia
Answer: D
Page Ref: 271
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
31) Hemiplegia and aphasia characterize those patients who have experienced a ________.
1. A) concussion
2. B) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke
3. C) contusion
4. D) cerebral edema
Answer: B
Page Ref: 275
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
32) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves in the
peripheral nervous system.
1. A) 5; 7
2. B) 18; 34
3. C) 12; 31
4. D) 15; 25
Answer: C
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
33) ________ disease results from a degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the
substantia nigra.
1. A) Parkinson’s
2. B) Alzheimer’s
3. C) Huntington’s
4. D) Autoimmune
Answer: A
Page Ref: 276
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
34) The ________ is a connective tissue wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers.
1. A) epineurium
2. B) endoneurium
3. C) perineurium
4. D) perimysium
Answer: C
Page Ref: 280
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
35) Sweat glands that produce perspiration when stimulated are innervated only by the ________
fibers.
1. A) sympathetic
2. B) parasympathetic
3. C) somatic
4. D) afferent
Answer: A
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
36) The only pair of cranial nerves to extend to the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the
________ nerves.
1. A) glossopharyngeal
2. B) oculomotor
3. C) vestibulocochlear
4. D) vagus
Answer: D
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
37) Cranial nerve III is known as the ________ nerve.
1. A) optic
2. B) olfactory
3. C) oculomotor
4. D) trochlear
Answer: C
Page Ref: 282
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
38) The number of neurons involved in transmission of impulses in the autonomic nervous
system is ________.
1. A) one
2. B) two
3. C) four
4. D) eight
Answer: B
Page Ref: 289
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
39) One of the last areas of the CNS to mature is the ________, which regulates body
temperature.
1. A) hypothalamus
2. B) thalamus
3. C) cerebellum
4. D) cerebrum
Answer: A
Page Ref: 293
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
40) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve plexus.
1. A) lumbar
2. B) sacral
3. C) brachial
4. D) cervical
Answer: B
Page Ref: 286
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
41) Each spinal nerve divides into a dorsal and a ventral ________.
1. A) ramus
2. B) tract
3. C) ganglion
4. D) plexus
Answer: A
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
42) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is often called the “rest-and-digest”
division.
1. A) somatic
2. B) sympathetic
3. C) parasympathetic
4. D) afferent
Answer: C
Page Ref: 291
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions
1) The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
1. A) autonomic and peripheral nervous systems
2. B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
3. C) brain and cranial nerves
4. D) spinal cord and spinal nerves
5. E) brain and spinal cord
Answer: E
Page Ref: 250, 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2) Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous
system are ________.
1. A) motor
2. B) visceral sensory
3. C) somatic sensory
4. D) interneurons (association neurons)
5. E) parasympathetic
Answer: C
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
3) Which of these neuroglial cells forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?
1. A) astrocytes
2. B) oligodendrocytes
3. C) Schwann cells
4. D) ependymal cells
5. E) satellite cells
Answer: B
Page Ref: 253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the ________.
1. A) dendrites
2. B) cell body
3. C) nucleus
4. D) axon
5. E) nodes of Ranvier
Answer: D
Page Ref: 253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called ________.
1. A) axons
2. B) dendrites
3. C) neurolemmas
4. D) Schwann cells
5. E) satellite cells
Answer: B
Page Ref: 253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
6) Unmyelinated nerve fibers are known as ________.
1. A) white matter
2. B) sensors
3. C) myelin sheaths
4. D) receptors
5. E) gray matter
Answer: E
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7) The major role of the interneuron (association neuron) is to ________.
1. A) carry information from the central nervous system to muscles and/or the viscera
2. B) form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons
3. C) transmit nerve impulses from the skin and organs to the central nervous system
4. D) connect motor and sensory neurons in their pathways
5. E) detect the amount of stretch in skeletal muscles or tendons and their joints
Answer: D
Page Ref: 257
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
8) Neurons with several processes branching off the cell body, such as motor neurons and
interneurons (association neurons), are structurally classified as ________.
1. A) efferent
2. B) multipolar
3. C) afferent
4. D) bipolar
5. E) unipolar
Answer: B
Page Ref: 258
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
9) The two major functional properties of neurons are ________.
1. A) cover and line body surfaces
2. B) contraction and movements
3. C) irritability and conductivity
4. D) connect and protect
5. E) lubricate and secrete
Answer: C
Page Ref: 258
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
10) Ganglia are collections of ________.
1. A) nuclei
2. B) dendrites
3. C) cell bodies
4. D) axons
5. E) axon terminals
Answer: C
Page Ref: 255
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
11) Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are ________.
1. A) myelinated
2. B) unmyelinated
3. C) sensory
4. D) motor
5. E) cerebral
Answer: A
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
12) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
1. A) motor neurons
2. B) called neuroglia
3. C) found in ganglia
4. D) found in the eye and nose
5. E) more abundant in adults than in children
Answer: D
Page Ref: 258
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
13) During the resting state, a neuron is ________.
1. A) polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell
2. B) propagating the action potential
3. C) depolarizing and generating an action potential
4. D) restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium-potassium pump
5. E) repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell
Answer: A
Page Ref: 258
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
14) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly
diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid ________.
1. A) sodium
2. B) chloride
3. C) calcium
4. D) potassium
5. E) magnesium
Answer: D
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
15) An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell ________.
1. A) potassium
2. B) sodium
3. C) calcium
4. D) magnesium
5. E) both potassium and sodium
Answer: B
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
16) Nerve impulse transmissions occurring along myelinated neurons are called ________.
1. A) saltatory conduction
2. B) threshold
3. C) graded potential
4. D) sodium-potassium pump
5. E) all-or-none response
Answer: A
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) Neurons either conduct action potentials along the length of their axons, or they remain at
rest. This statement best describes ________.
1. A) a reflex arc
2. B) the all-or-none response
3. C) repolarization
4. D) saltatory conduction
5. E) graded potential
Answer: B
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
18) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that correlates to the sequence
of events of a nerve impulse?
1. the membrane becomes depolarized
2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward
3. the membrane becomes repolarized
4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively
transported out of the cell
5. A) 3, 2, 4, 1
6. B) 2, 1, 4, 3
7. C) 2, 1, 3, 4
8. D) 1, 2, 4, 3
9. E) 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer: B
Page Ref: 259
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter vesicles to fuse with the axon’s membrane during the
conduction of a nerve impulse from one neuron to the next?
1. A) chlorine
2. B) sodium
3. C) potassium
4. D) calcium
5. E) magnesium
Answer: D
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
20) The gap between two communicating neurons is termed ________.
1. A) synaptic cleft
2. B) cell body
3. C) effector
4. D) Schwann cell
5. E) node of Ranvier
Answer: A
Page Ref: 253, 263
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called
________.
1. A) an ion
2. B) nerve glue
3. C) a neurotransmitter
4. D) the sodium-potassium pump
5. E) an action potential
Answer: C
Page Ref: 253, 260
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
22) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc?
1. A) effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor
2. B) receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
3. C) effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor
4. D) receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, effector
5. E) receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, integration center, effector
Answer: B
Page Ref: 261, 262
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
23) Rick quickly pulled his hand away from the hot stove. This reflex is best known as a(n)
________.
1. A) two-neuron reflex
2. B) patellar reflex
3. C) knee-jerk reflex
4. D) withdrawal reflex
5. E) autonomic reflex
Answer: D
Page Ref: 263
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
24) Which type of reflex involves skeletal muscles?
1. A) parasympathetic
2. B) sympathetic
3. C) autonomic
4. D) somatic
5. E) visceral
Answer: D
Page Ref: 261
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) The sensory homunculus is located in the primary somatic sensory area in the ________.
1. A) parietal lobe
2. B) occipital lobe
3. C) frontal lobe
4. D) temporal lobe
5. E) cerebellum
Answer: A
Page Ref: 264
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
26) A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles
on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged?
1. A) occipital lobe
2. B) temporal lobe
3. C) frontal lobe
4. D) parietal lobe
5. E) pyramidal tract
Answer: C
Page Ref: 264
Bloom’s: 3) Application
27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can’t vocalize the words. The
part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the ________.
1. A) longitudinal fissure
2. B) gyrus
3. C) central sulcus
4. D) Broca’s area
5. E) primary motor area
Answer: D
Page Ref: 264
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the ________.
1. A) diencephalon
2. B) hypothalamus
3. C) brain stem
4. D) pineal gland
5. E) cerebellum
Answer: C
Page Ref: 265, 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
29) What part of the brain stem houses reflex centers for vision and hearing?
1. A) pons
2. B) corpora quadrigemina
3. C) fourth ventricle
4. D) medulla oblongata
5. E) reticular formation
Answer: B
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
30) The hypothalamus is the “emotional-visceral” center of the brain and, thus, is an important
part of the ________.
1. A) posterior association area
2. B) reticular activating system
3. C) limbic system
4. D) Broca’s area
5. E) anterior association area
Answer: C
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
31) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through all of the following EXCEPT ________.
1. A) subarachnoid space
2. B) corpus callosum
3. C) cerebral aqueduct
4. D) fourth ventricle
5. E) lateral ventricles
Answer: B
Page Ref: 271-274
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
32) A special group of neurons in the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the
awake/sleep cycles is the ________.
1. A) thalamus
2. B) reticular activating system (RAS)
3. C) pineal gland
4. D) limbic system
5. E) cerebellum
Answer: B
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
33) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated
with the ________.
1. A) medulla oblongata
2. B) cerebellum
3. C) hypothalamus
4. D) thalamus
5. E) cerebrum
Answer: C
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
34) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood
pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the ________.
1. A) pons
2. B) medulla oblongata
3. C) midbrain
4. D) cerebrum
5. E) hypothalamus
Answer: B
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
35) Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the ________.
1. A) cerebrum
2. B) hypothalamus
3. C) cerebellum
4. D) thalamus
5. E) midbrain
Answer: C
Page Ref: 270-271
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
36) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost
layers of the meninges?
1. A) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
2. B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
3. C) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
4. D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
5. E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
Answer: E
Page Ref: 271
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
37) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into venous blood in the dural sinuses via the ________.
1. A) cerebral aqueduct
2. B) hypothalamus
3. C) arachnoid villus
4. D) choroid plexus
5. E) pons
Answer: C
Page Ref: 271
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
38) The cerebrospinal fluid ________.
1. A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi
2. B) enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space
3. C) is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
4. D) is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
5. E) is identical in composition to whole blood
Answer: D
Page Ref: 272
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
39) The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of ________.
1. A) water
2. B) nutrients such as glucose
3. C) alcohol
4. D) anesthetics
5. E) metabolic waste such as urea
Answer: E
Page Ref: 274
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
40) Which of the following brain dysfunctions is also known as a stroke?
1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
2. B) Alzheimer’s disease
3. C) aphasia
4. D) cerebral edema
5. E) Parkinson’s disease
Answer: A
Page Ref: 275
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
41) The spinal cord terminates around vertebra ________.
1. A) C7
2. B) T2
3. C) T9
4. D) L3
5. E) S4
Answer: D
Page Ref: 277
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
42) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
1. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
2. B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
3. C) the thalamus
4. D) the hypothalamus
5. E) sympathetic ganglia
Answer: A
Page Ref: 278
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
43) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, from
superior to inferior?
1. A) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
2. B) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
3. C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
4. D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
5. E) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
Answer: E
Page Ref: 278, 285, 286
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
44) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from
outermost to innermost layer?
1. A) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
2. B) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
3. C) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
4. D) perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium
5. E) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium
Answer: B
Page Ref: 280
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
45) Each spinal nerve branches into a ventral and dorsal ________.
1. A) root
2. B) ganglion
3. C) plexus
4. D) ramus
5. E) tract
Answer: D
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
46) How many pairs of cranial nerves branch from the surface of the brain?
1. A) three
2. B) five
3. C) seven
4. D) twelve
5. E) eighteen
Answer: D
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
47) Which cranial nerves control eye movement?
1. A) cranial nerve II, IV, V
2. B) cranial nerve III, IV, VI
3. C) cranial nerve V, VI, VIII
4. D) cranial nerve VIII, X, XII
5. E) cranial nerve IX, X, XI
Answer: B
Page Ref: 282-283
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
48) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form complex networks of nerves known as a
________.
1. A) ganglion
2. B) reflex
3. C) plexus
4. D) tract
5. E) fascicle
Answer: C
Page Ref: 285
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
49) Which cranial nerve descends into the thoracic and abdominal cavities to regulate heart rate
and promote digestive activity?
1. A) oculomotor
2. B) vagus
3. C) hypoglossal
4. D) accessory
5. E) glossopharyngeal
Answer: B
Page Ref: 283
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
50) Which nervous system subdivision is a chain of two motor neurons consisting of a
preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron?
1. A) somatic
2. B) central
3. C) autonomic
4. D) skeletal
5. E) sensory
Answer: C
Page Ref: 289
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
51) Which of the following is NOT a major nerve of the brachial nerve plexus?
1. A) radial
2. B) axillary
3. C) musculocutaneous
4. D) median
5. E) phrenic
Answer: E
Page Ref: 286
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
52) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two
nerves?
1. A) pudendal and femoral nerves
2. B) femoral and tibial nerves
3. C) pudendal and common peroneal nerves
4. D) common fibular and tibial nerves
5. E) pudendal and tibial nerves
Answer: D
Page Ref: 286
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
53) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the ________.
1. A) central nervous system
2. B) voluntary nervous system
3. C) autonomic nervous system
4. D) somatic nervous system
5. E) peripheral nervous system
Answer: C
Page Ref: 251, 288
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
54) In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ________.
1. A) has a chain of two motor neurons
2. B) has a chain of two sensory neurons
3. C) stimulates its effector cells
4. D) has both sensory and motor fibers
5. E) is a subdivision of the central nervous system
Answer: A
Page Ref: 289
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
55) Which of the following is favored by the parasympathetic nervous system?
1. A) emergency
2. B) exercise
3. C) digestion
4. D) embarrassment
5. E) excitement
Answer: C
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
56) Preparing the body for the “fight-or-flight” response during threatening situations is the role
of the ________.
1. A) sympathetic nervous system
2. B) cerebrum
3. C) parasympathetic nervous system
4. D) somatic nervous system
5. E) afferent nervous system
Answer: A
Page Ref: 290
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
57) Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
1. A) decreased activity of the digestive system
2. B) stimulated sweat glands to produce perspiration
3. C) decreased urine output
4. D) increased metabolic rate
5. E) decreased heart rate
Answer: E
Page Ref: 290, 292
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the ________.
1. A) central nervous system
2. B) parasympathetic nervous system
3. C) autonomic nervous system
4. D) motor division
5. E) sensory division
Answer: B
Page Ref: 251, 290
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
59) Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________.
1. A) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
2. B) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
3. C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
4. D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
5. E) craniosacral region, and the preganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
Answer: D
Page Ref: 290
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
60) What congenital disorder results when the vertebrae fail to form completely around the
spinal cord, typically in the lumbosacral region?
1. A) cystic fibrosis
2. B) anencephaly
3. C) hydrocephaly
4. D) cerebral palsy
5. E) spina bifida
Answer: E
Page Ref: 293
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
61) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate?
1. A) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life
2. B) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35
3. C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready
to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life
4. D) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation
5. E) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn
Answer: C
Page Ref: 294-295
Bloom’s: 3) Application
7.3 True/False Questions
1) The central nervous system includes the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 250
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2) The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic
nervous system.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 250, 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
3) Ependymal cells beat their cilia to help circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 252-253
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) Gaps between adjacent Schwann cells of a myelin sheath are known as nodes of Ranvier.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 255
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) A sensory neuron carries stimuli from the central nervous system to the effector.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
6) Gray matter contains collections of unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies in the central nervous
system.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 256
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
7) Neurons with two processes, an axon and a dendrite, are known as bipolar neurons.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 258
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) A graded potential is also known as a nerve impulse.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) Depolarization of neurons results from the entry of sodium ions into the cell.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
10) The withdrawal, or flexor, reflex is one of the only voluntary reflexes.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 263
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
11) The primary motor area allows us to consciously move our skeletal muscles.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 264
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
12) Difficulty in breathing may reflect damage to respiratory centers located in the cerebellum.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 3) Application
13) One of the major functions of the pons is to produce releasing factors that control the
function of the anterior pituitary.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) The thalamus plays a role in regulation of body temperature, metabolism, and water balance.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
15) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and also in the subarachnoid
space outside the brain.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 272, 273
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
16) The collection of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord is called the cauda
equina.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 277
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) There is no possibility of damaging the spinal cord below the third lumbar vertebra.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 277
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
18) The ventral and dorsi rami of each spinal nerve contain both sensory and motor nerves.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 281
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
19) Cranial nerve X is the vestibulocochlear nerve, its fibers carry sensations of hearing and
equilibrium to the brain.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 282-283
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
20) There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 277, 281
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) Complex networks of spinal nerves are termed nerve plexuses.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 285
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
22) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine and the preganglionic axon
releases acetylcholine.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 290
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
23) Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems operate with a chain of two
motor neurons.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 289
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
24) The parasympathetic division is also called the craniosacral division since the preganglionic
neurons originate in the brain and sacral region of the spinal cord.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 290
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) The usual cause of nervous system deterioration as we age is circulatory system problems.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 294
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
7.4 Matching Questions
Match the following:
1. A) Sensory (afferent) division
2. B) Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
3. C) Central nervous system (CNS)
4. D) Motor (efferent) division
5. E) Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of the brain and spinal cord
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
2) Functional nervous system subdivision that carries information toward the central nervous
system from receptors
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
3) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of spinal nerves and cranial nerves
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
4) Subdivision of the motor division responsible for controlling involuntary events
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
5) Functional nervous system division that carries information from the central nervous system
toward effectors
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D
Match the following:
1. A) cerebellum
2. B) brain stem
3. C) cerebrum
4. D) diencephalon
6) Thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
7) Primary somatic sensory area
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
8) Primary motor area
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
9) Pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
10) Reticular formation
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
11) Controls balance and equilibrium
Page Ref: 265
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) A
Match the following:
1. A) thalamus
2. B) pituitary gland
3. C) epithalamus
4. D) medulla oblongata
5. E) hypothalamus
6. F) midbrain
12) Includes the cerebral peduncles and the corpora quadrigemina
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
13) Contains centers that control heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
14) Gland that hangs from the hypothalamus
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
15) Regulates body temperature, water balance, and metabolism
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
16) Relay station for sensory impulses passing to the sensory cortex
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
17) Includes the pineal gland and choroid plexus of the third ventricle
Page Ref: 270
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 12) F 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) A 17) C
Match the following:
1. A) Parasympathetic nervous system
2. B) Sympathetic nervous system
18) Decreases heart rate
Page Ref: 290, 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
19) Stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
20) Decreases digestive system activities
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
21) Constricts bronchioles of respiratory passageways
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
22) No effect on most blood vessels
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
23) Decreases urine output of the kidneys
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
24) Increases metabolic rate
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
25) Increases the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
Page Ref: 292
Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge
Answers: 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) B
7.5 Essay Questions
1) List and explain the three general functions of the nervous system
Answer:
1. Sensory (input) function—the nervous system uses millions of sensory receptors to monitor
changes (stimuli) inside and outside the body; the gathered information is called the sensory
function.
2. Integrative function—the nervous system processes and interprets sensory input and makes
decisions about what should be done and the magnitude to which it should be done at each
moment.
3. Motor (output) function—the process of reaction to stimuli; the body responds by activating
muscles that can produce motion or glands that can produce and secrete hormones.
Page Ref: 249-250
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
2) Explain how neurons and neuroglia are functionally different.
Answer: In general, neuroglia are cells that support, insulate, and protect neurons. Neuroglia, or
glia, are not able to conduct nerve impulses, unlike neurons which are specialized to conduct
nerve impulses. Likewise, neuroglia never lose the ability to divide.
Page Ref: 251, 253
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
3) Explain the difference between a polarized neuron and a depolarized neuron.
Answer: A neuron is polarized when there are more positively charged ions located on the outer
surface of the membrane and less positively charged ions situated on the inner surface of the
membrane. A neuron is at rest when it is polarized. Depolarization occurs when the sodium ions,
normally located outside the neuron’s membrane, rush into the cell. Now, the interior surface of
the membrane carries a positive charge due to the presence of more positively charged ions while
the exterior surface of the membrane carries a negative charge due to the smaller number of
positively charged ions.
Page Ref: 258, 260
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
4) The family of Mr. Sanchez has learned that his cerebrovascular accident (CVA, or stroke)
impaired his ability to move the right side of his body. They were told the CVA involved the
primary somatic sensory area in the right cerebral hemisphere. Did they receive correct
information? Explain.
Answer: Mr. Sanchez’s family received two incorrect pieces of information. First, if Mr.
Sanchez cannot move the right side of his body, the left cerebral hemisphere is responsible for
controlling that movement. The motor pathway crosses to the opposite hemisphere of the brain.
Second, the primary motor area provides conscious motor control of skeletal muscles. By
contrast, the primary somatic sensory area receives information from the body’s sensory
receptors.
Page Ref: 264, 275
Bloom’s: 3) Application
5) An 18-wheeler just nearly missed hitting Sam head-on while driving. Exasperated, he pulls
over to the side of the road with his heart pounding. Which division of the autonomic nervous
system (ANS) is taking control right now? What other symptoms do you think he’s experiencing
Answer: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is controlling Sam. In
addition to his pounding heart, he is also likely experiencing deep breathing; cold, sweaty skin; a
prickly scalp; and dilated pupils of his eyes.
Page Ref: 290-291
Bloom’s: 3) Application
6) How does a transient ischemic attack (TIA) differ from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA or
stroke)?
Answer: Temporary restriction of blood flow to the brain results in a TIA; this even can last for
5 to 50 minutes and result in numbness, temporary paralysis, and impaired speech. When blood
flow to a particular brain area is blocked, a stroke has occurred. As a result, brain tissue dies.
Symptoms of a stroke may include paralysis on one side of the body.
Page Ref: 275-276
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis
7) List and describe the protective structures found in the CNS.
Answer:
1. The brain and spinal cord are protected by a bony skull and a bony vertebral column.
2. There are three layers of membranes (meninges) covering the structures in the CNS.
3. The outermost dura mater surround the brain. This double-layered membrane is a leathery
covering.
4. The middle membrane layer is the arachnoid mater, which has a cobweb appearance.
5. The pia mater is the innermost layer, which clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
6. Cerebrospinal fluid forms a water cushion that circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord.
The CSF protects the CNS from blows and other trauma. Also, remember from a previous
chapter that water has a high heat capacity that prevents changes in temperature.
Page Ref: 271
Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension
8) Compare and contrast the functions of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous
system.
Answer: Both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are subdivisions of the motor
(efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system, or voluntary
nervous system, allows us to consciously, or voluntarily, control our skeletal muscles. The
autonomic nervous system, or involuntary nervous system, regulates activity of smooth and
cardiac muscles and glands.
Page Ref: 251
Bloom’s: 4) Analysis