[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1.
SECTION - A
The capacitor of capacitance 4 F and 6 F are
connected in series. A potential difference of 500
volts is applied to the outer plates of the two
capacitor system. Then the charge on each
capacitor is numerically-
5.
(1)
(1) 6000 C
(2) 1200 C
kQ 2
4 L2
(2) 0
(3) 1200 C
2.
Two small balls having equal charges Q, are
suspended from a hook with two insulating threads
each of length L. This arrangement is carried in the
space, where there is no gravitation. The tension in
each string will be-
(4) 6000 C
(3)
In a region where E = 0, the potential (V) varies
with distance r as-
(4)
kQ
4 L2
kQ 2
L2
(1) V  1/r
(2) V  r
6.
(3) V  1/r2
(4) V = constant
3.
Three capacitors are connected to D.C. source of
100 volts as shown in the adjoining figure. If the
charge accumulated on plates of C1, C2 and C3 are
qa, qb, qc, qd, qe and qf respectively, then-
Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii (r1)
and (r2) (r2 > r1) are placed concentrically in air. A1
is given a charge +Q while A2 is earthed. Then the
capacitance of the system is(1) 40
r1  r2
r2 − r1
(2) 40 (r2 − r1 )
(1) qb + qd + qf =
(3) 40 . r2
100
C
2
(2) qb + qd + qf = 0
r2
(4) 40 2
r2 − r1
(3) qa + qc + qe = 50 C
(4) qb = qd = qf
4.
One quantum of charge should be at least be equal
to the charge in coulomb-
7.
If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight-
(1) 1.6 × 10–17 C
(1) Always decreases slightly
(2) 1.6 × 10–19 C
(2) Always increases slightly
(3) 1.6 × 10–10 C
(3) May increase slightly or may decrease slightly
(4) 4.8 × 10–10 C
(4) Remains precisely the same
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[2]
8.
9.
Six charges +Q each are placed at the corners of a
regular hexagon of side (a), the electric field at the
centre of hexagon is(1) Zero
(2)
1
6Q2
 2
40 a
(3)
1
Q2
 2
40 a
(4)
1
6Q 2

40 a 2
11.
A small circular ring has a uniform charge
distribution. On a far-off axial point distance x
from the centre of the ring, the electric field is
proportional to(1) x–1
(2) x–3/2
(3) x– 2
(4) x5/4
13.
An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges
each of magnitude 1 × 10–6 C separated by a
distance 2 cm. The dipole is placed in an external
field of 10 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque on the
dipole is (1) 0.2 × 10–3 N-m
(2) 1.0 × 10–3 N-m
(3) 2 × 10–2 N-m
(4) 4 × 10–3 N-m
14.
The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1 F.
If the spacing between the two spheres is 1 mm,
then the radius of the outer sphere is(1) 30 cm
(2) 6 m
(3) 5 cm
(4) 3.5 m
15.
A capacitor having capacitance C is charged to a
voltage V. It is then removed and connected in
parallel with another identical capacitor which is
uncharged. The new charge on each capacitor is
now(1) CV
(2) CV/2
(3) 2 CV
(4) CV/4
16.
Two charges 4q and q are placed 30 cm. apart. At
what point the value of electric field will be zero(1) 10 cm. away from q and between the charge
(2) 20 cm. away from q and between the charge
(3) 10 cm. away from q and out side the line
joining the charge.
(4) 10 cm. away from 4q and out side the line
joining them.
In the circuit diagram shown in the adjoining
figure, the resultant capacitance between P and Q
is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10.
12.
47 F
3 F
60 F
10 F
Two particles A and B having masses equal and
charges q and 4q. If these are accelerated from rest
through same potential difference, then what will
be the ratio in their speeds?
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
In a conductor the charges reside on the (1) Outer surface of the charged conductor
(2) Inner surface of the charged conductor
(3) Inner as well as outer surface of the charged
conductor
(4) None of the above
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[3]
17.
18.
The dimensions of potential difference are(1) ML2T–3A–1
(2) MLT–2A–1
(3) MT–2A–2
(4) ML2T–1A–1
The force between two point charges in vacuum is
15 N, if a brass plate is introduced between the two
charges, then force between them will(1) Becomes zero
(2) Remains the same
(3) Becomes 30 N
(4) Becomes 60 N
22.
Four capacitors of each capacity 3 F are
connected as shown in the adjoining figure. The
ratio of equivalent capacitance between A and B
and between A and C will be-
2400 ergs
1800ergs
3600 ergs
5400 ergs
A square of side ‘a’ has equal charge ‘q’ at its
corners. The magnitude of force at B will be(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
1 kq 2
(1 + 2 2)
2 a2
(2)
1 k 2q2
2 a2
(3)
An electron falls a distance of 4 cm in a uniform
electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 N/C. The time
taken by electron in falling will be
(1) 2.99 × 10–7 s
(2) 2.99 × 10–8 s
(3) 2.99 × 10–9 s
(4) 2.99 × 10–10 s
24.
An electric field can deflect
(1) X-rays
(2) Neutrons
(3) -particles
(4) -rays
4kq 2
A capacitor 4 F charged to 50 V is connected to
another capacitor of 2 F charged to 100 V with
plates of like charges connected together. The total
energy before and after connection in multiples of
(10–2 J) is-
4:3
3:4
2:3
3:2
23.
a2
(4) None of these
20.
1.5 and 1.33
1.33 and 1.5
3.0 and 2.67
2.67 and 3.0
21.
Four condensers each capacity 4 F are connected
as shown in figure VP – VQ = 15 volts. The energy
stored in the system is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
19.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[4]
25.
The K.E. in electron Volt gained by an -particle
when it moves from rest at point where its potential
is 70 to a point where potential is
50 volts, is
(1) 20 eV
(2) 20 MeV
(3) 40 eV
(4) 40 MeV
(1) Pressure v/s temperature of a given gas
(constant volume)
(2) Kinetic energy v/s velocity of a particle
(3) Capacitance v/s charge at a constant potential
(4) Potential v/s capacitance at a constant charge
29.
The surface of a conductor
(1) Is a non-equipotential surface
26.
Four plates of the same area A of cross-section are
joined as shown in the figure. The distance between
each plate is d. The equivalent capacity across AB
will be
(2) Has all the points at the same potential
(3) Has different points at different potential
(4) Has at least two points at the same potential
30.
A glass slab is put with in the plates of a charged
parallel plate condenser. Which of the following
quantities does not change?
(1) Energy of the condenser
2 0 A
d
3 0 A
(2)
d
3 0 A
(3)
2d
0 A
(4)
d
(2) Capacity
(1)
27.
28.
(3) Intensity of electric field
(4) Charge
31.
Charge 2q, –q & –q lies at the vertices of a
equilateral triangle. The value of E and V at the
centroid of the triangle will be(1) E  0 and V  0
The force between an -particle and an electron
separated by a distance of 1 Å is
(1) 2.3 × 10–8 N attractive
(2) 2.3 × 10–8 N repulsive
(3) 4.6 × 10–8 N attractive
(4) 4.6 × 10–8 N repulsive
What physical quantities may X and Y represent?
(2) E = 0 and V = 0
(3) E  0 and V = 0
(4) E = 0 and V  0
32.
Two-point charges in air at a distance of 20 cm.
from each other interact with a certain force. At
what distance from each other should these charges
be placed in oil of relative permittivity
5 to obtain the same force of interaction –
(1) 8.94 × 10–2 m
(2) 0.894 × 10–2 m
(3) 89.4 × 10–2 m
(4) 8.94 × 102 m
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[5]
33.
In the connection shown in the adjoining figure. the
equivalent capacity between A and B will be-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34.
The energy of a charged capacitor resides in (1) The electric field only
(2) The magnetic field only
(3) Both the electric and magnetic fields
(4) Neither in electric nor magnetic field
37.
A charge Q is divided in two parts Q1 and Q2 and
these charges are placed at distance R. there will be
maximum repulsion between them, when(1) Q2 = (Q/R), Q1 = Q – (Q/R)
(2) Q2 = (Q/3), Q1 = (2Q/3)
(3) Q2 = (Q/4), Q1 = (3Q/4)
(4) Q1 = Q2 = Q/2
38.
A proton is first placed at A and then at B between
the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged
to a P.D. of V volt as shown. Then force on proton
at A is
8 F
12 F
20 F
10 F
In the fig. given below, the potential energy of the
system will be
(
kq 2
2 −4
a
kq 2
(2)
a
(3) 0
kq
(4)
2 −4
a
(1)
(
35.
36.
)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
)
Two condensers of capacities 2 C and C are joined
in parallel and charged upto potential V. The
battery is removed and the condenser of capacity C
is filled completely with a medium of dielectric
constant K. The p.d. across the capacitors will now
be 3V
(1)
K +2
3V
(2)
K
V
(3)
K +2
V
(4)
K
39.
More than at B
Less than at B
Equal to that at B
Nothing can be said
Two similar charge of +Q, as shown in figure are
placed at A and B. –q charge is placed at point C
midway between A and B. –q charge will oscillate
if
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
It is moved towards A
It is moved towards B
It is moved upwards AB
Distance between A and B is reduced
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[6]
40.
41.
A parallel plate condenser has plates of area
200 cm2 and separation 0.05 cm has been filled
with a dielectric having K = 8 and then charged to
300 volts. The final energy of condenser is
(1) 1.6 × 10–5 J
(2) 2.0 × 10–6 J
(3) 12.8 × 10–5 J
(4) 64 × 10–5 J
(1)
(2)
(3)
Seven capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are to
be so connected to have total capacity
10
µF. Which will be the necessary figure as
11
shown
(1)
(4)
44.
A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is
surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting
hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference
between the surface of the solid sphere and that of
the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the
shell is now given a charge of 3 Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is
(1) V
(2) 2 V
(3) 4 V
(4) –2 V
45.
In fig. shown the electric lines of force emerging
from a charged body. If the electric fields at A and
B are EA and EB are respectively and the distance
between A and B is r then
(2)
(3)
(4)
42.
The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in
space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field
E (in V/m) at the point (1, 0, 2) is
(1) +8 in x direction
(2) 8 in –x direction
(3) 16 in +x direction
(4) 16 in –x direction
43.
Separation between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor is d and the area of each plate is A. When
a slab of material of dielectric constant K and
thickness t (t < d) is introduced between the plates,
its capacitance becomes.
0 A
1

d + t 1 − 
 K
0 A
1

d + t 1 + 
K

0 A
1

d − t 1 − 
 K
0 A
1

d − t 1 + 
K

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
EA > EB
EA < EB
EA = EB
EA = (EB)/r2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[7]
46.
The flux emerging out from any one face of the
cube when a point charge q is placed at its centre
(1)
q
60
(2)
q
30
(3)
q
0
(4)
q
4 0
(1) 0
(2) Er
(3) Er/2
47.
The capacitance of a capacitor, filled with two
dielectrics of same dimensions but of dielectric
constants K1 and K2 respectively as shown will be
(4) Er/4
49.
A RC series circuit is connected to a battery of
e.m.f E. The time required by the capacitor to
acquire maximum charge, depends upon
(1) R only
(2) C only
(3) R C
(1)
0 A
( K1 + K 2 )
2d
(2)
0 A
( K1 + K 2 )
d
(3)
0 A  K1K2 


2d  K1 + K2 
(4)
0 A  K1K2 


d  K1 + K2 
(4) Applied potential difference
50.
The bob of a pendulum carries an electric charge of
39.2 × 10–10 coulomb in a horizontal electric field
of 20 × 103 V/m and it is at rest. The angle made
by the pendulum with the vertical will be, if the
mass of pendulum is 8 × 10–6 kg and
g = 9.8 m/s2
(1) 27°
(2) 45°
48.
In the adjacent fig. a unit positive charge moves
along the path ABC in an electric field E. The
potential difference between A & C will be
(3) 87°
(4) 127°
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[8]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
51.
SECTION - A
The packing efficiency of the two dimensional
square unit cell shown below is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
39.27%
68.02%
74.05%
78.54%
(4)
55.
52.
TiO2 is well known example of:
(1) Triclinic system
(2) Tetragonal system
(3) Monoclinic system
(4) None of these
53.
𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ≠ c,  = γ = 90o,   90° represents:
(1) Tetragonal system
(2) Orthorhombic system
(3) Monoclinic system
(4) Triclinic system
54.
(3)
N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2
When N2O5 decompose, its t12 does not change
with its changing pressure during the reaction, so
which one is the correct representation for
“pressure of 2NO2 vs time” during the reaction
when initial pressure of N2O5 is equals to Po.
56.
(1)
(2)
A graph between log t1/2 and log a (abscissa)
[a being the initial concentration of A in the
reaction] is given below for reaction A → 4B the
rate law is
(1)
−d[A]
=K
dt
(2)
−d[A]
= K[A]
dt
(3)
−d[A]
= K[A]2
dt
(4)
−d[A]
= K[A]3
dt
Compounds A and B react with a common reagent
with first order kinetics in both cases. If 99% of A
must react before 1% of B has reacted. What is the
minimum ratio for their respective rate constants?
(1)
916
(2)
229
(3) 500
(4) 458
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[9]
57.
The activity per ml of a solution of radioactive
substance is x. How much water be added to
200 ml of this solution so that the activity falls to
x/20 per ml after 4 half-lives?
(1) 100 ml
(2) 150 ml
(3) 80 ml
(4) 50 ml.
58.
The inversion of cane sugar proceeds with half life
of 600 minute at pH = 5 for any concentration of
sugar, However at pH = 6, the half life changes to
60 minute, The rate law expression for sugar
inversion can be written as
(1) r = k [sugar]2 [H+]°
(2) r = k [sugar]' [H+]°
(3) r = k [sugar]2 [H+]1
(4) r = k [sugar]°[H+]-1
59.
Consider a Body Centered Cubic(bcc)
arrangement. Let de, dfd, dbd be the distances
between successive atoms located along the edge,
the face-diagonal, the body diagonal respectively
in a unit cell.Their order is given by:
(1) de < dfd < dbd
(2) dfd > dbd > de
(3) dfd > de > dbd
(4) dbd > de > dfd,
62.
The shortest distance between I st and Vth layer of
HCP arrangement is:
→ 2NOBr follows the
The reaction 2NO + Br2 ⎯⎯
mechanism:
(1) NO + Br2
Fast
NOBr2
63.
Show
(2) NOBr2 + NO ⎯⎯⎯
→ 2NOBr
Which of the following is false regarding this:
(1) The order of the reaction with respect to NO
is two
(2) The molecularity of the steps (1) and (2) are
two each.
(3) The molecularity of the overall reaction is
three.
(4) The overall order of the reaction is three.
60.
61.
(1) 8
2
r
3
(2) 4
3
r
2
(3) 16
2
r
3
(4) 8
3
r
2
Which of the following shaded plane in fcc lattice
contains arrangement of atoms as shown by
circles:
Figure
(1)
In the following gaseous phase first order reaction
→ 2B(g) + C(g)
A(g) ⎯⎯
initial pressure was found to be 400 mm of Hg and
it changed to 1000 mm of Hg after 20 min. Then
Half life for A is:
(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min
(4) 50 min
(2)
(3)
(4)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[10]
64.
If the close packed structure of AB type solid have
cation radius of 75 pm, what would be the
maximum and minimum sizes of the anions which
form voids in unit cell ?
fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase
respectively) is linear with slope and y intercepts
respectively:
(1) r –minimum = 101.45, r –maximum = 303.3 pm
(1)
PAº
(2)
PAº
(3)
PBº
(2) r –minimum = 105.45, r –maximum = 300.3 pm
(3) r –minimum = 102.45, r –maximum = 333.3 pm
(4) r
65.
–
minimum
= 98.4, r
–
maximum
= 333.3 pm
In an FCC unit cell, atoms are numbered as shown
below. The pair of atoms not touching each other
are:
(Atom numbered 3 is face centre of front face).
(4)
68.
PBº
PBº
PAº
PBº
PAº
PAº − PBº )
(
and
PBº
PBº − PAº )
(
and
PBº
PAº − PBº )
(
and
PBº
PBº − PAº )
(
and
PBº
Two liquids A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1: 3 at a
(3) 1 & 2
certain temperature. If the mole fraction ratio of XA :
XB = 1:3, the mole fraction of A in vapour in
equilibrium with the solution at a given
temperature is:
(4) 2 & 4
(1) 0.1
(1) 3 & 4
(2) 1 & 3
(2) 0.2
66.
Analysis show that nickel oxide consist of nickel
ion with 96% ions having d8 configuration and 4%
having d7 configuration. Which amongst the
following best represents the formula of the oxide.
(1) Ni1.02O1.00
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.0
69.
(2) Ni0.96O1.00
(3) Ni0.96O0.98
(4) Ni0.98O1.00
Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous solution
of glucose is 2K. Find the depression in freezing
point of the same solution. (Kf = 1.86 K kg/mole
and Kb = 0.52 K kg/mole)
(1) 2.16 K
67.
Consider two liquids A & B having pure vapour
(2) 7.14 K
pressures PA0 & PB0 forming an ideal solution. The
(3) 3.38 K
1
1
(where XA and YA are the mole
v/s
XA
YA
(4) 6.28 K
plot of
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[11]
70.
When FeCl3 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous
solution, blue colour of ferri ferrocyanide,
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 is obtained. There are 0.1 M FeCl3
and 0.01 M K4[Fe(CN)6] solution separated by a
semi-permeable membrane as shown and osmosis
occurs then
73.
H2O2 solution used for hair bleaching is sold as a
solution of approximately 5.0 g H2O2 per 100 mL
of the solution. The molecular mass of H2O2 is 34.
The molarity of this solution is approximately:
(1) 0.15 M
(2) 1.5 M
(3) 3.0 M
(4) 3.4 M
74.
A radioactive substance decays 20% in 10 minutes.
In how much time, number of atoms are reduced
from 5 × 1020 to 1018 atoms.
(1) 6.6 hr
(2) 4.65 hr
(3) 2.77 hr
(4) 3.6 hr
75.
Two compounds A[half life = 54min] and
B[half life = 18min] kept in same flask, decay by
first order Kinetics. Initially [A] = [B] then in how
many minutes, Concentration of A become 4
times that of B?
(1) 54
(2) 18
(3) 27
(4) 36
76.
A solution containing 10 g/dm3 of urea is isotonic
with 5% (%w/v) solution of a non-volatile solute.
What is molar mass of that solute?
(1) 250
(2) 200
(3) 350
(4) 300
77.
Molar mass of AB [rock salt structure] = 6.023 Y
amu; Observed density = 20 kg/m3; the edge =
2(y)1/3 nm What type of defect crystal is expected
to have?
(1) Frenkel defect
(2) Schottky defect
(3) Metal deficiency defect
(4) Metal excess defect
(1) blue colour is seen in side-B
(2) blue colour is seen in side-A
(3) blue colour is seen in both sides A and B.
(4) no blue colour is seen in either side.
71.
5 g of urea is dissolved in one kg of water. Up to
what temperature, the solution may be cooled
before ice starts crystallizing out?
(Kf of water = 1.86)
(1) –0.310°C
(2) –0.240°C
(3) –0.195°C
(4) –0.155°C
72.
Benzene and toluene form an ideal solution.
The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 55°C is
400 mm Hg while the vapour pressure of pure
toluene at 55°C is 130 mm Hg. What is the vapour
pressure of a solution consisting of 0.5 mole
fraction of benzene and 0.5 mole fraction of
toluene at 55°C?
(1) Lower than 130 mm Hg
(2) Between 130 and 400 mm Hg
(3) Exactly 400 mm Hg
(4) Greater than 400 mm Hg
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[12]
78.
Four gases like H2, He, CH4 and CO2 has Henry’s
constant values (KH) 69.16, 144.979, 0.413 and
1.67. The gas which is more soluble in liquid is
(1) He
(2) CH4
(3) H2
(4) CO2
79.
A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol,
CH3OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution?
(1) 1.100
(2) 0.190
(3) 0.086
(4) 0.050
80.
82.
A first order reaction is carried out starting with
10 mol L–1 of the reactant. It is 40% complete in
1 h. If the same reaction is carried out with an
initial concentration of 5 mol L–1, the percentage
of the reaction that is completed in 1 h will be
(1) 40%
(2) 80%
(3) 20%
(4) 60%
83.
In which of the following pairs of solutions, will
the values of the vant Hoff factor be the same?
(1) 0.05 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4
(2) 0.20 M KCl and
0.05 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4. 6H20
(3) 0.20 M NaCI and 0.10 M BaCl2
(4) 0.05 M FeSO4 (NH4)2SO4 6H20 and
0.02 M KCI. MgC12. 6H20
84.
For the reaction, 3A → 2B,
For a solution of chloroform and acetone, if ps
(actual) is compared with p s (Raoult), then which
of the following is false?
(1) ps(actual) < ps(Raoult)
(2)
(3)
limit
X acelone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→0
chloroform
limit
X acelone ⎯⎯
→0
(
(
0
Pacetone
0
Pchloroform
)
− Ps ( actual ) = 0
3 d[A]
2 dt
2 d[A]
(2) −
3 dt
1 d[A]
(3) −
3 dt
d[A]
(4) +2
dt
)
(1) −
− Ps ( actual ) = 0
(4) P0acetone  P0chloroform near room temperature
81.
For the reaction
1
N 2O5 ( g ) ⎯⎯
→ 2NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )
2
the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given
as 6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of formation of
NO2 and O2 is given respectively as:
(1) 1.25  10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and
6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and
6.25  10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.25  10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and
3.125  10–3 mol L–1 s–1
–3
–1 –1
(4) 6.25  10 mol L s and
3.125  10–3 mol L–1 s–1
+ d[B]
is equal to
dt
85.
The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g) is an
elementary process. In an experiment, the initial
partial pressure of A and B are pA = 0.60 and
pB = 0.80 atm. When p C = 0.2 atm, the rate of
reaction relative to the initial rate is
(1) 1/48
(2) 1/24
(3) 9/16
(4) 1/6
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[13]
86.
87.
88.
SECTION - B
In a cubic structure, A atoms are present on
alternate corners, B atoms are present on alternate
faces, and C atoms are present on alternate edges
and body centred of the cube. The simplest
formula of the compound is
(1) A2BC4
(2) AB2C4
(3) ABC4
(4) ABC2
Statement-1: When ‘a’ mL of a 0.1 molal urea
solution is mixed with another ‘b’ mL of 0.1 molal
glucose solution, the boiling point of the solution
is no different from the boiling points of the
samples prior to mixing but if ‘a’ mL of 0.1 molal
urea is mixed with ‘b’ mL of 0.1 molal HF the
boiling point of the mixture is different from the
boiling points of the separate samples.
Statement-2: HF is an electrolyte (weak) whereas
glucose is a non electrolyte.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Insulin(C12H10O5)n is dissolved in a suitable
solvent and the osmotic pressure of solutions of
various concentrations(g/cc) is measured at 293K.
The slope of a plot of osmotic pressure against
concentration is found to be 0.00465. The molar
mass of the insulin is
(1) 4.8 × 105
(2) 9 × 105
(3) 3 × 105
(4) 51.7 × 105
89.
For the reaction R – X + OH– → ROH + X–. The
Rate is given as Rate = 5.0 × 10–5 [R – X] [OH–] +
0.20 × 10–5 [R – X] What percentage of R – X react
by SN2 mechanism when [OH-–] = 1.0x 10-2 M
(1) 96.1 %
(2) 3.9 %
(3) 80 %
(4) 20%
90.
A reaction takes place in three steps; the rate
constants are k1, k2 and k3. The overall rate
kk
constant K = 1 3 . If energies of activation are
k2
40, 30 and 20 kJ/mol, the overall energy of
activation
(in kJ/mol) is (assuming ‘A’ to be constant for all)
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 30
(4) 60
91.
H2S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If
solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195m, what
is the value of KH? (pressure of STP = 0.987 bar)
(1) 0.0263 bar
(2) 69.16 bar
(3) 192 bar
(4) 282 bar
92.
Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an
aqueous
solution
containing
2
moles
[Cu(NH3Cl]3Cl in
3 moles H20 is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO3, this
solution will form (assuming no change in degree
of ionisation of substance on adding AgNO3)
(1) 1 mol AgCl
(2) 0.25 mol AgCl
(3) 0.5 mol AgCl
(4) 0.40 mol AgCl
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[14]
93.
The number of unit cells in 58.5 g of NaCl is
approximately
(1) 6 × 1020
(2) 1.5 × 1023
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 0.5 × 1024
94.
For CCP, what is the maximum number of layers
of atoms completely lying within two imaginary
2
parallel planes separated by 13   r ?
3
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7.
95.
Incorrect is
(1) CN ratio in Na2O is 4:8
(2) In CaF2, all TV are occupied by anions
(3) F-centers are formed due to trapping of an
electron in the lattice
(4) Solids with Schottky defects are electrical
insulators
96.
Incorrect is
(1) In case of schottky defect in an ionic solid,
cation and anion vacancies are present in
same number
(2) In case of schottky defect in an ionic solid,
cation and anion vacancies are present in
stoichiometric ratio
(3) CsCl structure can be thought of as two SC
lattice, one of Cs+ and other of Cl- embedded
halfway into each other
(4) NaCl structure can be thought of as two CCP
lattice, one of Na+ and other of Cl- embedded
halfway into each other
97.
Which does exist in end-centered lattice?
(1) Triclinic
(2) Monoclinic
(3) Cubic
(4) Tetragonal
98.
Statement-1: If the order of reaction is zero than
degree of dissociation will be independent upon
initial concentration.
Statement-2: The degree of dissociation of Zero
kt
order reaction is given by  =
c0
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
99.
At the intersection point of two curves nA → mB
shown in Fig., the concentration of B can be given
by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
m
[A]0
m+n
m
[A]0
n
m
[A]0
m−n
n
[A]0
m+n
100. For an elementary reaction 2A
k1
k2
B. The
rate of disappearance of A is equal to
2k1
(1)
[A]2
k2
(2) –2k1[A]2 + 2k2[B]
(3) 2k1[A]2 – 2k2[B]
(4) (2k1 – k2)[A]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[15]
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
106. State true (T) or false (F) for the following
statements.
SECTION - A
101. Gynoecium of Michelia is
P. Multicellular organisms are immortal.
Q. Endothecium layer helps in dehiscence of
anther.
(1) Monocarpellary syncarpous
(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous
(3) Monocarpellary apocarpous
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpous
102. Select the feature which is not true for asexual
reproduction.
(1) Involvement of only one parent
(2) It can occur with or without gametic fusion
(3) It is simple and quick method of reproduction
(4) It occurs through specialised or unspecialised
parts of parent
103. Select the true statement for Eichhornia.
P
Q
(1) T
T
(2) F
T
(3) T
F
(4) F
F
107. Arrange the following organisms in the ascending
order of their life span.
I.
Banyan tree
II.
Parrot
III. Fruit fly
IV. Peepal tree
(1) I < II < III < IV
(2) III < II < IV < I
(1) It grows in running water
(3) III < II < I < IV
(2) It is pollinated by water
(4) III < I < II < IV
(3) It propagates vegetatively by offset
(4) It supplies O2 to the water and promotes growth
of fishes
104. The type of pollination which do not bring
genetically same types of pollens on stigma is:
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
108. Embryogenesis is absent in the plant group like:
(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Algae
(4) Gymnosperms
109. Vital link between two successive generations in a
diploid plant
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Xenogamy
P.
Is always diploid
Q. Is single celled structure
105. Vegetative propagation in Agave occurs by:
(1) Runner
(2) Sucker
R.
Is zygote
(1) Only R
(2) Only P and Q
(3) Offset
(3) Only P
(4) Bulbils
(4) All P, Q and R
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[16]
110. How many of the given plants are pollinated by
wind?
Hydrilla, Maize, Zostera, Yucca, Sugarcane,
Amorphophallus.
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five
111. Coconut water considered as:
(1) Persistent nucellus
(2) Endosperm
(3) Testa
(4) Triploid embryo
112. During artificial hybridisation, emasculation is
needed in:
(1) Unisexual pistillate flower
(2) Unisexual staminate flower
(3) Bisexual flower
(4) All of the above
113. Which of the following do not act as floral reward
provided by plants to pollinators?
(1) Pollens
(2) Nectar
(3) Fragrance
(4) Providing safe place to lay eggs
114. The 'Eyes' of the potato tuber are :
(1) Axillary buds
(2) Root buds
(3) Flower buds
(4) Shoot buds
115. Select the correct statement about cleistogamy.
(1) It ensures seed formation
(2) It promotes xenogamy
(3) It produces genetic variations
(4) It is an adaptation to ensure cross pollination
116. The ploidy level of egg apparatus is:
(1) (2 n + n)
(2) (2 n + 2n)
(3) (n + n + n)
(4) (2n + 3n)
117. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
attachment of scutellum is called:
(1) Coleoptile
(2) Epicotyl
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Epiblast
118. In the formation of endosperm of wheat, which of
the following cell is involved?
(1) Antipodal cell
(2) Synergid cell
(3) Central cell
(4) Egg cell
119. The event which is unique to angiosperms is:
(1) Fusion of male and female gametes
(2) Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus
(3) Formation of zygote
(4) Presence of female gametophyte
120. Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac takes place
from
P. Chalazal end
Q. Micropylar end
R. Integuments
(1) Only P
(2) Only Q
(3) Only Q and R
(4) All P, Q and R
121. The parenchymatous mass of tissue enclosed within
the integuments and forms the body of ovule is:
(1) Called female gametophyte
(2) Diploid
(3) Known as microsporangium
(4) Absent in beet seeds
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[17]
122. Assertion: Artificial hybridisation involves
emasculation and bagging.
Reason: Emasculated flowers are covered by
butter paper bags.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.
123. Minimum number of meiotic divisions require to
form 100 seeds, when all seeds are products of
fertilization:
(1) 125
(2) 200
(3) 250
(4) 400
126. An angiospermic plant has following characteristics.
Identify the type of pollination in it.
P. The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
Q. Presence of feathery stigma
R. Nectaries absent
S. Flowers have well exposed stamens
(1) Entomophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Anemophily
(4) Ornithophily
127. Select the true statements about apomitic seeds.
P. These seeds are produced from fertilized
ovules.
Q. They contain diploid embryos in diploid plants
R. 'Zygotic embryo' is genetically identical to the
apomictic embryo hence these two embryos
can be called clones.
(1) Only P
(2) Only P and Q
(3) Only Q and R
(4) Only Q
124. Pollen grains are shed at two-celled stage in
angiosperms.
Find the correct statement related to the above
mentioned sentence.
(1) If this happens then pollen tube carries two
male gametes from the beginning
(2) This happens only in 20% of angiosperms
(3) If this happens then generative cell divides and
forms two male gametes after post-pollination
during the growth of the pollen tube
(4) If this happens then pollen grains become
motile.
128. Seedless fruits:
(1) Develop from fertilised ovary
(2) Are parthenocarpic
(3) Are apple and cashewnut
(4) Develop from other parts of fertilised ovary
except its wall
125. An aquatic plant which is pollinated by water is:
(1) Water hyacinth
(2) Water lily
(3) Zostera
(4) Rice
130. Persistent nucellus in the seeds of black pepper is
called
(1) Tegmen
(2) Endosperm
(3) Perisperm
(4) Cotyledon
129. A typical angiospermic seed consists of all, except
(1) Embryo
(2) Seed coat
(3) Endosperm
(4) Pericarp
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[18]
131. Autogamy as well as geitonogamy is prevented in
(1) Castor
(2) Maize
(3) Vallisneria
(4) Coconut
137. Male gametes require water to reach the female
gamete in
(1) Algae
(2) Flowering plants
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Both (1) and (3)
132. Select the odd one w.r.t. the ploidy level of cells of
embryo sac.
(1) Helper cell
(2) synergid cell
(3) Central cell containing secondary nucleus
(4) Egg cell
138. Chromosome number in pollen grain of potato is:
(1) 38
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 48
139. Heterogametes are found in:
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Volvox
(4) Cladophora
133. Generative cell of pollen grain
(1) Has large irregularly shaped nucleus
(2) Is spindle shaped
(3) Is bigger in size than vegetative cell
(4) Has abundant food reserve
134. Adventitious buds at the margins of leaves help in
vegetative propagation of:
(1) Ananas
(2) Bryophyllum
(3) Grasses
(4) Pineapple
135. The innermost layer of anther wall whose cells
nourish the developing pollen grains is:
(1) Epidermis
(2) Endothecium
(3) Tapetum
(4) Middle layer
SECTION - B
136. If the chromosome number in a meiotically
produced gamete of a plant is 10, then the ploidy
level of that plant is:
(1) (n)
(2) (2n)
(3) (3n)
(4) (n + n)
140. In flowering plants, which of the following
structures is present before fertilisation?
(1) Seed
(2) Pericarp
(3) Ovule
(4) Endosperm
141. A maize plant has
(1) Both pistilate and staminate flowers
(2) Bisexual flowers
(3) Either pistilate or staminate flowers
(4) Only pistilate flowers
142. Syngamy does not occur outside the body of the
organism in:
(1) Algae
(2) Fishes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Amphibians
143. Male and female sex organs are present on separate
plant bodies in all, except
(1) Papaya
(2) Date palm
(3) Marchantia
(4) Cucurbits
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[19]
144. Select the incorrect match.
(Mode of reproduction) (Example)
(1) Bulb
:
Onion
(2) Rhizome
:
Banana
(3) Zoospores
:
Yeast
(4) Conidia
:
Penicillium
145. Which of the following plant flowers repeatedly at
intervals?
(1) Carrot
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Radish
146. Assertion : Endosperm in coconut is meant for
nourishing the embryo.
Reason : Coconut water is nothing but free nuclear
endosperm.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.
147. Assertion: Pollination by water is quite common in
flowering plants.
Reason : It is limited to about 30 genera, mostly
dicot.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.
148. In which of the following plants cleistogamous
flowers are not found?
(1) Common pansy
(2) Oxalis
(3) Calotropis
(4) Commelina
149. The most common type of ovule found in flowering
plants is
(1) Orthotropous
(2) Amphitropus
(3) Anatropous
(4) Hemianatropous
150. Which is probably correct statement?
(1) Strobilanthus is monocarpic and bamboo is
bicarpic
(2) In papaya inbreeding depression absent
(3) Homothallic are used to denote unisexual
condition
(4) Phoenix dactylifera seed remains viable
for few hours only
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
152. The reproductive program RCH stands for
SECTION - A
151. Humans are ____ and ____ organisms.
(1) Sexually reproducing, oviparous
(2) Asexually reproducing, ovoviviparous
(3) Asexually reproducing, viviparous
(4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous
(1) Reproductive and Community Health Care
(2) Restorative and Communal Health Care
(3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(4) Reproductive and Congenital Health Care
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[20]
153. The formation of gametes is termed as
158. The best way to decrease population of a country is
(1) To educate people
(2) To have better houses
(3) To kill people on large scale
(4) To practice and implement family planning
(1) Gametogamy
(2) Syngamy
(3) Gametogenesis
(4) Gestation
159. The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature
____ lower than the internal body temperature.
(1) 1 to 1.5°C
(2) 2 to 2.5°C
(3) 3 to 3.5°C
(4) 4 to 4.5°C
154. Lactational amenorrhea is
(1) Absence of menses in adult age
(2) Absence of menses in elderly age
(3) Absence of menses during lactation
(4) No menses during pregnancy
155. The correct chronological order of the following
events is
(1) Gametogenesis → Fertilisation → Insemination
→ Gestation → Implantation → Parturition
(2) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilisation
→ Implantation → Parturition → Gestation
(3) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilisation
→ Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(4) Parturition → Insemination → Fertilisation →
Implantation → Gestation → Gametogenesis
156. National level approach to build up a reproductively
healthy society was taken up in our country in
(1) 1991
(2) 1969
(3) 1951
(4) 1989
157. The testes are situated _______ the abdominal
cavity within a pouch called _______.
(1) inside, testicular lobules
(2) outside, scrotum
(3) outside, vas deferens
(4) inside, scrotum
160. Saheli is an/a
(1) Oral contraceptive pill for female
(2) Surgical/sterilisation method for females
(3) Diaphragm for females
(4) Surgical/sterilisation method for males
161. An adult testes is oval in shape. Its width is about
____ and length is about ____ respectively.
(1) 4 to 5 cm, 2 to 3 cm
(2) 2 to 5 cm, 1 to 3 cm
(3) 2 to 3 cm, 4 to 5 cm
(4) 2 to 5 cm, 4 to 7 cm
162. From the sexually transmitted diseases, mentioned
below. Identify the one which does not specifically
affect the sex organs
(1) Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) AIDS
(4) Genital warts
163. An adult testes bear ____ compartments called
testicular lobules.
(1) 150
(2) 250
(3) 350
(4) 500
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[21]
164. Identify the structure X
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
169. Select the correct anatomical sequence.
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(4) Epididymis → Seminiferous tubules → Vasa
efferentia → Rete testis → Vas deferens
Urinary Bladder
Rectum
Uterus
Vagina
165. Seminiferous tubules contain ____ cells for
providing nutrition to sperm cells.
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Interstitial cell
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Germ cells
166. Oral contraceptive pill “Saheli” was developed by
(1) NBRI
(2) WHO
(3) IITR
(4) CDRI
167. The cells which secrete androgens are
(1) Spermatozoa
(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Germ cells
168. A wise way to encourage small families is by
raising marriageable age of female to _____ years
and that of male to ____ years to respectively
(1) 16 : 18
(2) 18 : 20
(3) 18 : 21
(4) 17 : 22
170. The longest accessory duct in male reproductive
system is
(1) Vas deferens
(2) Epididymis
(3) Urethra
(4) Rete Testis
171. The difference between primary and secondary
spermatocytes lies in ____.
(1) Presence/absence of a tail
(2) Number of chromosomes
(3) Being hormone producing/non-hormone
producing
(4) Primary gamete/secondary gamete in males
172. A bacterial infection that
inflammation and discharge is
(1) Treponema
(2) E.coli
(3) Urethritis
(4) Gonorrhoea
causes
genital
173. Find the false statement.
(1) A pair of seminal vesicles is present in human
males.
(2) A pair of prostates is present in human males.
(3) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin
called foreskin.
(4) Each fallopian tube is about 10 to 12 cm long
in a human female.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[22]
174. Which one of the following is a natural method of
family planning?
(1) Basal body temperature
(2) Tracing changes in cervical mucous
(3) BBT and Tracing changes in cervical mucous
(4) IUDs
175. The process of delivery of foetus is called
(1) Parturition
(2) Gestation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Capacitation
176. Which of the following is hormone releasing
IUDs?
(1) LNG-20
(2) Cu-7
(3) Lippes loop
(4) Multiload 375
177. Acrosome is a modified
(1) Golgi body
(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv)
178. Following are signs which indicate improved
reproductive health of the society
(a) Better awareness about sex-related problem
(b) Better detection and cure of STDs
(c) Better postnatal care
(d) Increased number of couples with large
families
(a) and (d)
(b), (c) and (d)
(a) and (b)
(a), (b) and (c)
180. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option
Column-I
Column-II
(a) Population
is (i)
B+I>D+E
stable
(b) Population
is (ii) B + I = D + E
increasing
(c) Population
is (iii) B + I < D + E
decreasing
(iv) B + E > D + I
Where, B = Birth rate; D = Death Rate; E =
Emigration; I = Immigration
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Vacuole
(4) Ribosome
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
179. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
(1) The sperms are transported into vagina just
after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
(2) The ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to the ampullary–isthmic
junction of the fallopian tube.
(3) The ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary–isthmic junction
of the cervix.
(4) The sperms are transported into cervix within
48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
181. Match between the following representing parts of
the correct option.
A. Head
B. Middle piece
C. Acrosome
i. Enzymes
ii. Sperm motility
iii. Energy
D. Tail
iv. Genetic material
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
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182. India’s population grew from 350 million to the
billion in 2000. It is mainly due to
(a) Rapid decline in MMR & IMR
(b) Increase in number of people in reproducible
age
(c) Increase in number of people in post
reproductive phase
(1) Only (c)
(2) Both (a) and (c)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a)
185. Identify the true and false statements
(a) According to the 2001 census report, the
population growth rate was still around 1.7%
per year
(b) Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill
(c) Family planning programme was initiated in
1971
(d) Emergency IUDs should be implanted 72
hours before coitus
(1) (a) and (b) are true; (c) and (d) are false
(2) (a) is true; (b), (c) and (d) are false
(3) (a) and (c) are true; (b) and (d) are false
(4) All statements are false
SECTION-B
183. Select the incorrect statement about female
hormonal activity.
(1) The secretion of LH and FSH increases
gradually during the follicular phase
(2) LH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle
and thereby ovulation
(3) The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone
(4) Inhibin gives positive feedback to FSH
187. Match the following correctly.
184. Match the structure with their function
Column-I
(a)
Column-II
Uterus
(i)
Fertilisation
(b) Vagina
(ii)
Gamete
production
(c)
(iii)
Implantation
(iv)
Insemination
Oviducts
(d) Ovaries
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
186. The function of FSH in male is
(1) Act on leydig cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermiation.
(2) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermatogenesis.
(3) Act on interstitial cells and stimulates
secretion of factors responsible for
spermiogenesis.
(4) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of
factors responsible for spermiogenesis.
Column-I
(1) Gestation
(A)
(2)
(3)
Parturition
Gametogenesis
(B)
(C)
(4)
Implantation
(D)
(E)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Column-II
Fusion of male and
female gametes
Formation of gametes
Attachment to the
uterine wall
Delivery of the baby
Embryonic
development
1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
1-E, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
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188. Identify A, B, C and D correctly
191. For a normal male fertility, which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) 60 per cent sperm must have normal motility
and 40 per cent must have normal shape.
(2) 60 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
40 per cent must have acrosome.
(3) 60 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
40 per cent must have vigorous motility.
(4) 70 per cent sperm must have normal shape and
30 per cent must have vigorous motility.
(1) A – Ovary
B – Vagina
C – Infundibulum
D – Uterine fundus
(2) A – Ovary
B – Vagina
C – Fimbriae
D – Uterine fundus
(3) A – Ovary
B – Vagina
C – Fimbriae
D – Uterine cavity
(4) A – Ovary
B – Cervix
C – Fimbriae
D – Uterine fundus
192. Consider the following statements about male
sterilization
(a) Male sterilisation is also known as a
vasectomy
(b) The doctor or surgeon will make a small
incision in the vas deferens and cut the tube
and the cut ends are then tied off
(c) It causes weakness in males
(1) All are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) All are incorrect
189. The following statements are true except
(1) In an individual, reproductive changes occur
after puberty.
(2) Sperm formation occurs even in old men.
(3) Formation of ovum continues in women after
menopause.
(4) Humans are sexually producing and
viviparous.
190. Identify the correct sequence of the ducts and their
parts
(1) Infundibulum → Ampulla → Isthmus →
Uterus
(2) Vagina → Ampulla → Isthmus → Uterus
(3) Infundibulum → Uterus → Isthmus → Vagina
(4) Uterus → Ampulla → Isthmus →
Infundibulum
193. Which fact about the mammary glands in humans
is false?
(1) A non-functional mammary gland is the
characteristic of all male mammals.
(2) Mammary glands are paired structures.
(3) It is a glandular tissue containing a fixed
amount of fat.
(4) Glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
15 to 20 mammary lobes containing clusters
of cells called alveoli.
194. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Doctors use to inject oxytocin to induce
delivery.
Reason: Oxytocin causes uterine contraction
which helps in delivery
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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195. Match the following and choose the correct
options:
A.
Column-I
Trophoblast
i.
B.
Cleavage
ii.
C.
Inner cell mass
iii.
D.
Implantation
iv.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Column-II
Embedding
of
blastocyst
in
the
endometrium
Group of cells that
would differentiate as
embryo
Outer
layer
of
blastocyst attached to
the endometrium
Mitotic division of
zygote
A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
A-iii, B-I, C-ii, D-iv
A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
196. Which of the following statement is not correct
about oral contraceptive pills?
(1) They have to be taken daily for a period of 21
days, starting preferably within the first five
days of menstrual cycle
(2) They contain small doses of progesterone
estrogen combination
(3) They inhibit ovulation and implantation
(4) Ovum and sperms are prevented from
physically meeting with the help of barriers
197. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Lack of menstruation may be indicative
of pregnancy in the reproductive period of females.
Reason: Menstruation usually occurs if the
released ovum is not fertilised.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
198. One of the illegal methods of birth control is
(1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of
the menstrual cycle
(2) By having coitus at the time of day break
(3) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
(4) Abortion after determining the sex of the baby
199. Identify the correct statement from the following:
(1) High levels of oestrogen triggers the ovulatory
surge.
(2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise
to functional ova in regular cycles from
puberty onwards.
(3) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules
are highly motile.
(4) Progesterone level is high during the post
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
200. Match the following figures (given as A, B, C, D
and E) with their respective names given below as
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(i) Tubectomy
(ii) Vasectomy
(iii) Implants
(iv) Condoms
(v) Copper-T
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A-(iv), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Rough Work
Rough Work
Rough Work