Chapter 4 MCQs: Density Quiz
MCQ: The mass of the jar containing air is 320 g, mass of evacuated jar is 305 g, mass of jar
with water is 1090 g and density of water is 1 g cm-3. What mass of water was nodded to fill the
jar
A) 785 g
B) 15 g
C) 309 g
D) 1.27 × 10-3 g cm-3
MCQ: The mass of the jar containing air is 320 g, mass of evacuated jar is 305 g, mass of jar
with water is 1090 g and density of water is 1 g cm-3. What is the density of the air?
A) 15 g
B) 785 g
C) 325 g
D) 1.27 × 10-3 g cm-3
MCQ: The mass of the jar containing air is 320 g, mass of evacuated jar is 305 g, mass of jar
with water is 1090 g and density of water is 1 g cm-3. What mass of air filled the bottle?
A) 258 g
B) 310 g
C) 15 g
D) 1.27 × 10-3 g cm-3
MCQ: The SI unit of density is
A) kg m-3
B) kg-1
C) kg m-2
D) kg-3
MCQ: The density of pure gold is
A) 19300 kg m-3
B) 1000 kg m-3
C) 920 kg m-3
D) 13600 kg m-3
Chapter 7 MCQs: Gas Pressure Quiz
MCQ: The natural pressure within our bodies is about
A) 2 atmosphere
B) 1 atmosphere
C) half atmosphere
D) 1.5 atmosphere
MCQ: The air pressure at high altitudes is
A) lower than 1 atmosphere
B) 1 atmosphere
C) more than 1 atmosphere
D) 2 atmosphere
MCQ: The value of the pressure exerted by the layer of air at sea level is commonly referred to
as
A) 2 atmosphere
B) 1 atmosphere
C) half atmosphere
D) 1.5 atmosphere
MCQ: If the density of water is 1000 kg m-3, atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 and
gravitational field strength is 10 N kg-1.What is the pressure acting on a scuba diver when he is at
the surface?
A) 3.01 × 105
B) 2.01 × 105
C) 1.01 × 105
D) 10.01 × 105
MCQ: The pressure exerted by the layer of air at sea level is
A) 1.013 × 105
B) 2.013 × 105
C) 0.013 × 105
D) 0.013 × 105
GED
he correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following information.
A group of agricultural researchers conducted an experiment to study the growth rates of plants
at various temperatures. In their laboratory, they divided primrose, cucumber, and corn plants
into a number of different groups. During the experiment, they kept the different groups of
primrose plants at different but constant temperatures for twenty-four hours every day. They did
the same for the corn and cucumber plants. The graph shows the growth rates that they recorded
for the different groups of plants.
1INCORRECT According to the graph, at what temperature did primroses grow best?
A)40 °F
B)50 °F
C)60 °F
D)70 °F
E)80 °F
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
Read the graph again, paying close attention to the data for primrose plants.
(Review pages 157–254 in your textbook.)
Judging from the data in the graph, what sort of climate would favor the
2INCORRECT growth of cucumbers?
A)cold nights, cold days
B)cold nights, warm days
C)very warm nights, very warm days
D)warm, rainy days
E)warm nights, cool days
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
The experiment did not take into account the plants’ need for water. (Review
pages 157–254 in your textbook.)
Question 3 refers to the following information.
The lightweight-materials content of the average car manufactured in the United States has
increased sharply since the mid-1970s. The data shown in the graph are for an average passenger
car produced by one major manufacturer and are typical of all U.S. automakers. Lightweight
materials are shown in blue. Heavy materials are indicated in yellow.
Which of the following statements is a conclusion about cars made during the
3INCORRECT 1980s that can be drawn from the graph?
A)Cars in the 1980s became increasingly expensive.
B)Cars made in the 1980s were more difficult to handle than those in
the 1970s.
C)Cars made during the 1980s required more fuel per mile than those
in the 1970s.
D)Cars made during the 1980s weighed less than cars made during the
1970s.
E)Cars in the 1980s could carry fewer and fewer passengers.
Feedback: (SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY; PHYSICAL SCIENCE)
This option is not supported by the data in the graph. (Review pages 95–114
and 255–336 in your textbook.)
Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following information.
In 1861 someone found a 150-million-year-old fossil of a pigeon-sized bird that resembled a
dinosaur with feathers. The ancient creature had a brain and a scaly head like a dinosaur but the
wishbone, wings, and feathers of a bird. Scientists named the animal Archaeopteryx and assumed
it was the ancestor from which all modern birds evolved.
For many years, scientists agreed that dinosaurs existed before birds. Although many dinosaurs
were large and heavy, some were very small. The small creatures ran quickly on two long back
legs and grasped food with short forelegs. Scientists hypothesized that over a span of 60 million
years, these dinosaurs evolved into birds. Their short forelegs became wings. Their scales
became feathers.
In August 1986 two newly discovered incomplete fossil skeletons caused scientists to change
their hypothesis. The newly found fossils have characteristics of modern birds that
Archaeopteryx lacked, but they are 75 million years older than Archaeopteryx. A large brain
case, wide eye sockets, and a breastbone anchoring the muscles used in flight are hallmarks of a
modern bird. The fossils found in 1986 show these characteristics; Archaeopteryx does not. If the
identification of the new fossils is correct, it appears now that birds evolved much earlier than
scientists had believed.
4INCORRECT Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the information above?
A)New fossil data suggest that birds did not develop from dinosaurs but
were present at the same time as the earliest dinosaurs.
B)Modern birds are very different from their earliest ancestors and are
still developing new traits.
C)Fossils are the only way scientists can study creatures that lived on
earth more than 60 million years ago.
D)Birds and dinosaurs evolved from reptiles more than 150 million
years ago.
E)Newly found fossils prove that birds developed from larger species
of dinosaurs than scientists had originally thought.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
This statement does not reflect information in the passage. (Review pages
157–254 in your textbook.)
Below are five items that would interest a researcher studying fossils of the
5INCORRECT earliest birds.
A. how old the fossils are
B. how large the birds grew
C. how far the birds could fly
D. how the birds resembled dinosaurs
E. what the birds ate
Which points of information could the researcher establish through scientific
analysis?
A)A only
B)A and B only
C)A and E only
D)D and E only
E)A, B, and D only
Feedback: (SCIENCE AS INQUIRY; LIFE SCIENCE) The researcher
would not be able to determine what the birds ate. (Review pages 49–94 and
157–254 in your textbook.)
Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following weather map.
6CORRECT
For which area of the country is snow predicted?
A)Northwest
B)Rocky Mountains
C)Central Plains
D)Northeast
E)Mid-Atlantic Coast
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; EARTH AND
SPACE SCIENCE) The symbol for snow appears in the northeast region of
the country.
When two fronts meet, thunderstorms often result. Which area of the country
7INCORRECT might have thunderstorms within the next few days?
A)Northwest
B)Southwest
C)Central Plains
D)Northeast
E)Southeast
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; EARTH AND
SPACE SCIENCE) The Central Plains might have storms when the front
moving from the Northwest hits the front that is stationary over the Plains.
(Review pages 337–385 in your textbook.)
Questions 8 and 9 refer to the following table.
Sound Level Chart
Decibel Bel
0
Type of Sound
0 The least sound heard by a normal human ear
Times as Loud as 0
Decibels
1
10
1 The rustle of leaves in a light breeze
20
2 An average whisper 4 feet away from hearer
30
3
40
4 Night noises in a city
50
5 Average residence
1000,000
60
6 Normal conversation at 3 feet
1,000,000
70
7 An accounting office
80
8 A noisy city street
90
9 A moderate dance club
Broadcasting studio when no program is in
progress
100 10 A blender
110 11 A pneumatic drill
120 12 A jet engine
8CORRECT
10
100
1,000
10,000
10,000,000
100,000,000
1,000,000,000
10,000,000,000
100,000,000,000
1,000,000,000,000
A person wants to make a tape recording of the sounds of daily surroundings.
The tape will include leaves rustling in a summer breeze, whispered
conversation, printers and copy machines in a business office, and sounds of a
busy downtown area during lunch hour. Through what minimum decibel
range must the recording equipment be sensitive?
A)0–50
B)0–120
C)10–80
D)10–100
E)20–90
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) The sound of rustling leaves is rated at 10 decibels. The sound of
a noisy city street is rated at 80 decibels. These are the quietest and the
noisiest sounds to be recorded. The recording equipment must be sensitive
over the range of 10–80 decibels.
UNANSWERE A scientist could use the chart to obtain all EXCEPT which of the following
information?
D
9
A)the relationship of a decibel to a bel
B)how much louder 40 decibels is than 20 decibels
C)the sound level associated with different settings
D)the intensity level at which sounds become uncomfortable
E)how many times greater a sound at 9 bels is than a sound at 0
decibels
Question 10 refers to the following information.
Normally, immune responses help protect an organism's body. However, some immune
responses, such as allergies, do not seem to be protective. Allergies can occur in some people
when they eat certain foods, receive certain drugs, or come into contact with dust or pollens.
Allergies stem from several processes in the body. In some individuals, the body produces
allergy antibodies that stick to white blood cells called mast cells. When a person comes into
contact with a substance to which he or she is allergic, that substance reacts with the allergy
antibodies. The mast cells release histamine as a result of this reaction. Histamine is responsible
for the runny nose, itchy eyes, and difficult breathing associated with allergy.
10CORRECT
Based on the information above, what must happen for an allergic reaction to
occur?
A)The allergy antibody must attach itself to the mast cell.
B)Pollen in the air must trigger the production of disease-carrying
antibodies.
C)The allergy antibody must attack histamine.
D)The allergy-causing substance must attack histamine.
E)The body must be unable to produce antibodies to fight off diseases.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
The diagram shows that the allergy antibody must be attached to the mast cell
before histamine is released.
Questions 11 through 13 refer to the following information.
Boats float and rocks sink in a lake. These characteristics are due to the density of boats, rocks,
and water. Density is the weight of a substance divided by the volume it occupies. Different
substances may have different densities. If equal volumes of two liquids have different weights,
the heavier liquid has a greater density. A liquid that is less dense than water will float on water,
and a liquid that is more dense than water will sink.
If water, cooking oil, and corn syrup are very carefully poured into a glass,
one at a time, three distinct layers will form, as shown in the diagram.
11INCORRECT
What will happen if a drop of corn syrup is added to the glass containing the
three liquid layers of water, oil, and corn syrup?
A)The drop of corn syrup will float on the top layer.
B)The drop will pass through the oil and water and mix with the cornsyrup layer.
C)The drop will be trapped between the water and oil layers.
D)The drop will mix with the oil layer.
E)The drop will sink to the very bottom of the glass.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) This statement is incorrect based on the information supplied.
(Review pages 255–336 in your textbook.)
Blood is made primarily of red blood cells, white blood cells, and a liquid
called plasma. Medical laboratories often need to separate blood into its three
main parts. This separation can be easily done because each part has a
different density. Blood is carefully added to a test tube containing a medium
called Ficoll-Hypaque, as shown in A.
12INCORRECT
After A is processed, the blood separates into the three parts shown in B.
Which of the following statements about the densities of the three parts is
correct?
A)Plasma is the densest component.
B)White blood cells are more dense than red blood cells.
C)Red blood cells are denser than either white blood cells or plasma.
D)All blood cells are equally dense.
E)Red cells are less dense than whole blood.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) Review the diagram. Remember that liquids that are more dense
will sink; liquids that are less dense will float. (Review pages 255–336 in
your textbook.)
Many scientists believe that the ocean floors float on top of Earth’s mantle—a
thick layer of very dense rock—and that the continents float on top of the
ocean floors.
13INCORRECT
Which of the following statements describes a discovery that best explains the
observation that the continents rise above the ocean floors?
A)The continents are smaller than the ocean floors, so the continents
are less dense.
B)The ocean floors are held down by the density of the water on top of
them.
C)The continents consist of granite, which is less dense than the rock
that forms the ocean floors.
D)The mantle is made of very dense rock.
E)The material in the earth’s mantle is more dense than the rock in the
ocean floors.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) This statement does not address why continents rise above ocean
floors. (Review pages 255–336 in your textbook.)
Questions 14 and 15 refer to the following information.
A person visiting Mexico was frightened when a snake crossed his path and then turned toward
him. The man grabbed a stick and clubbed the snake. When he was sure the reptile was dead, he
sat down and examined it. He made the following observations. The rings around the body
formed the following pattern: black, red, black, yellow; black, red, black, yellow. The scales
were smooth, all about the same size, and cycloid in shape. No other markings were seen.
Later, he found a book about snakes and used the following key to identify the snake he had
killed.
14CORRECT
Which of the following statements best summarizes the information on the
key?
A)Smooth scales of similar size and shape are characteristic of blind
snakes.
B)The size of the scales on a snake’s head distinguishes colubrids from
true boas.
C)Colored rings and their arrangement separate elapids from blind
snakes
D)Snakes are best distinguished by their coloration, their scales, and the
presence of a pit.
E)Pit vipers have a deep pit between their nostrils and eyes, but
colubrids and true boas do not.
Feedback: (UNIFYING CONCEPTS AND PROCESSES; LIFE
SCIENCE) The key is arranged as follows: Section 1 describes the rings
around the body. Section 2 describes the scales on the body. Section 3
describes the presence of a pit. Section 4 describes the scales on the head.
This option summarizes these identifying markings.
15INCORRECT What assumption did the man most likely make when he killed the snake?
A)Most snakes feed on rats and mice.
B)Snakes are dangerous.
C)Snakes feed very infrequently.
D)Some types of nonpoisonous snakes very closely resemble poisonous
ones.
E)Some snakes that appear ferocious are actually quite harmless.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
There is nothing in the man’s behavior to indicate that he made this
assumption. (Review pages 157–254 in your textbook.)
Question 16 refers to the following graph.
Two cars, A and B, were tested to determine how they accelerate in second gear. The results are
shown below.
16INCORRECT
Which of the following CANNOT be determined from the information in the
graph?
A)engine RPM when the test ended
B)engine RPM at zero seconds
C)how long it took each engine to reach 6,000 RPM after the test
started
D)final speed of each car
E)speed of each car at four seconds
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) The test ended when engine RPM reached 6,000; the time at
which the test ended for each car can be read directly from the graph.
(Review pages 255–336 in your textbook.)
Questions 17 and 18 refer to the following information.
Five physical properties of waves are defined below.
A. amplitude—the height of a wave, directly related to the energy carried by that wave
B. frequency—the number of waves that pass a point each second
C. speed—how fast a light wave moves
D. vibration—repeated movement back and forth or up and down
E. wavelength—the distance from one wave crest to the next
As a dimmer switch is turned, the light in a lamp becomes brighter. How are
the light waves emitted by the light changing?
17INCORRECT
They are increasing in
A)amplitude
B)frequency
C)speed
D)vibration
E)wavelength
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) If the number of waves that pass a point in a certain length of
time (frequency) increases, the color of visible light changes. The intensity
does not change. (Review pages 255–336 in your textbook.)
18INCORRECT What property of a light wave determines the time it takes sunlight to travel
the 93 million miles from the Sun to Earth?
A)amplitude
B)frequency
C)speed
D)vibration
E)wavelength
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; PHYSICAL
SCIENCE) Only the speed of light and the distance that the light must travel
determine the length of transit time. (Review pages 255–336 in your
textbook.)
Question 19 is based on the following information.
Cockroaches and owls are most active at night. Robins wake with the first light of day. Bean
plants lift and lower their leaves at a regular time each day. Such biological cycles occur
approximately every 24 hours and are called circadian rhythms. They seem to be linked to the
cycle of the sun. The sunlight resets the cycles each day to keep them synchronized with the
environment. However, when plants or animals are kept under conditions of constant light, their
biological activities continue to cycle, though they may speed up or slow down.
The biological nature of these rhythms is not understood, but some facts are known. For
example, there are usually several circadian rhythms going on at the same time. The rhythms
stem from specific regions in the body. These regions are called clocks, and one clock can
control several rhythms. A clock is located in the eyes of squids and snails, and in the brains of
lizards, birds, and mammals.
As many as four circadian rhythms have been identified in algae. If fighting conditions change,
the clock also changes, but all four rhythms maintain their time relationship to each other. The
following diagram shows three of the four circadian rhythms of algae.
Biological clocks also exist in humans. Sleeping, waking, and eating are mainly circadian
rhythms. Less apparent rhythms include changes in body temperature and in the release of
certain hormones at particular times each day.
Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the information given
19INCORRECT in the graph about the algae?
A)Several distinct processes in the algae are controlled by circadian
rhythms.
B)Many biological processes occur in the algae.
C)Photosynthesis in algae controls many of the organism’s other
processes.
D)Photosynthesis occurs once a day in algae.
E)The circadian rhythms in algae will reset if the biological clock is
disturbed.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
This may be accurate but is not a summary of the information given about
algae. (Review pages 157–254 in your textbook.)
A food chain is a group or organisms related to each other in their feeding
habits. One organism is eaten by a second one, which in turn is fed upon by a
20INCORRECT
third one. The food chain starts with energy from the Sun. As each organism
grows and is eaten, only about 10 percent of the Sun's energy is transferred at
each step. People who live in areas of the world where food is scarce eat very
little meat and depend on grains and other plants. Based on the ideas
presented, which of the following statements best supports such eating habits?
A)It is easier to grow plants than raise animals.
B)Plants taste better than meat from animals.
C)Plants take up less space than grazing animals.
D)More than 90 percent of the energy in plants never reaches people
who eat the animals raised on the plants.
E)Plants store energy in sugar molecules.
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; LIFE SCIENCE)
This choice is not a summary of the information given about algae. (Review
pages 157–254 in your textbook.)
Questions 21 and 22 are based on the following graph.
The graph shows how two anticancer drugs compare in their ability to kill tumor cells. The
killing effect of the drugs on both tumor cells and normal cells is measured at several doses of
each drug.
21INCORRECT Which one of the following statements CANNOT be verified from the graph?
A)the percentage of tumor cells killed by drug A at a dose of 30 mg/ml
B)whether normal cells are killed by certain doses of either drug
C)whether any dose of drug B will kill both normal and tumor cells
D)which drug kills more tumor cells at a certain dosage
E)how many kinds of tumor cells each drug will kill
Feedback: (SCIENCE IN PERSONAL AND SOCIAL PERSPECTIVES;
LIFE SCIENCE) Comparing the line graphs of each drug will tell which
drug kills more tumor cells at a certain drug dosage. (Review pages 115–138
and 157–254 in your textbook.)
A physician discovers that he has cancer. His family urges him to begin drug
therapy. The physician knows that cancer drugs act by killing cells that are
dividing. He is reluctant to undergo treatment. His family does not understand
22INCORRECT why.
Which one of the following statements indicates that his family may not fully
understand how cancer drugs work?
A)Drug therapy works against some types of cancers.
B)Many drugs used in cancer therapy cause cells to die when they
divide.
C)The drugs kill cancer cells because they rarely stop dividing.
D)Cancer drugs kill all dividing cells, including normal ones.
E)A cell that divides often is more likely to be killed by the cancer
drug.
Feedback: (SCIENCE IN PERSONAL AND SOCIAL PERSPECTIVES;
LIFE SCIENCE) This statement does not reveal why a doctor might refuse
drug therapy. (Review pages 115–138 and 157–254 in your textbook.)
Questions 23 through 25 refer to the following information.
The time line below shows the occurrence of earthquakes in Kaoiki, a small area located between
two very active volcanoes in Hawaii. The black dots mark the dates on which earthquakes that
originated in Kaoiki occurred. The white circle indicates an earthquake that occurred somewhere
in the area, but not enough evidence was available to conclude that the quake originated in
Kaoiki.
23INCORRECT According to the time line, earthquakes occur at very regular intervals. In
which of the following years, covered by the time line above, would an
earthquake also have been expected at Kaoike, Hawaii?
A)1987
B)1989
C)1991
D)1994
E)1999
Feedback: (FUNDAMENTAL UNDERSTANDINGS; EARTH AND
SPACE SCIENCE) The time line shows that earthquakes occurred every ten
to eleven years since 1941. Because the last known quake occurred in 1984,
the next one would be predicted for 1994 or 1995. (Review pages 337–385 in
your textbook.)
24INCORRECT Which of the following statements represents a hypothesis rather than a fact?
A)An earthquake occurred in Kaoiki in 1941.
B)Five earthquakes occurred during a 43-year period.
C)The location of the 1930 earthquake in Hawaii is not definitely
known.
D)An earthquake should have occurred at Kaoiki about 1920.
E)Six earthquakes have been recorded in or near Kaoiki.
Feedback: (SCIENCE AS INQUIRY; EARTH AND SPACE SCIENCE)
This is a fact that can be learned from the time line. (Review pages 49–94 and
337–385 in your textbook.)
Which of the following events follows a predictable pattern in a way similar
25INCORRECT to earthquakes in Kaoike, Hawaii?
A)Mount St. Helens erupted in Washington in 1980.
B)Tornadoes are common in the Midwest but not the Northeast.
C)The number of sunspots peaks about every eleven years.
D)Heavy snowfall is more characteristic of northern latitudes.
E)Mudslides can be a problem in California.
It is generally known
that a compass needle
will point north. It
does not point to the
geographical North
Pole, but to the
magnetic north pole.
The Chinese tell
stories of their
seagoing ancestors
whose compasses
pointed south. For a
long time, no one
believed these stories.
Then scientists
discovered that
periodically the
magnetic poles of
Earth reverse
themselves.
What assumption
made scientists
unwilling to believe
the stories about the
ancient Chinese
sailors?
A)Compasses are a very old invention.
B)Magnets have two poles: a north pole and a south pole.
C)Local iron deposits in the earth can affect the direction in
which the compass needle points.
D)Earth’s magnetic poles cannot change.
E)Compasses always line up with Earth’s north and south poles.
Feedback: Until researchers discovered that Earth’s magnetic poles could
reverse themselves, there was no reasonable explanation for compasses
pointing south.
Questions 2 through 5 refer to the following information.
Scientists sometimes group elements according to their properties. Below are descriptions of five
physical properties that help identify different elements.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
luster—degree to which an element shines
ductility—ability to be drawn into wire
malleability—ability to be hammered, rolled, or shaped
heat conductivity—ability to transfer heat
electrical conductivity—ability to carry electricity
INCORRE A camper wraps aluminum foil around fresh fish to store it. The camper
CT
is making use of which property of foil?
A)luster
B)ductility
C)malleability
2
D)heat conductivity
E)electrical conductivity
Feedback: Foil’s ability to wrap around packages is not related to its
luster.
INCORRE Ancient Romans polished silver for use as mirrors. The Ancient Romans
CT
made use of which property of silver?
A)luster
B)ductility
C)malleability
D)heat conductivity
E)electrical conductivity
Feedback: Whether silver can be rolled or shaped is not related to its
ability to shine.
3
INCORRE A large cast-iron skillet cooks food quickly and evenly. The makers of
CT
the skillet are making use of which property in the iron?
A)luster
B)ductility
C)malleability
D)heat conductivity
E)electrical conductivity
Feedback: Whether iron can be made into thin wire has little effect on
whether it makes good cookware.
4
5CORRECT
A jeweler makes a fine, thin bracelet from platinum. The jeweler is
making use of which quality of platinum?
A)luster
B)ductility
C)malleability
D)heat conductivity
E)electrical conductivity
Feedback: A substance that can be drawn into thin wires without
snapping or breaking is described as ductile. Platinum is ductile enough
to be made into extremely fine wire for jewelry.
Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following diagram and information.
Various scientists have proposed models of the atom. The model that is used today is the electron
cloud model shown above. In this model an electron moves rapidly through the atom. Its position
is described as a cloud rather than a precise point. The outer ring represents the distance from the
nucleus where electrons are most likely to be found.
INCORRE According to the model, how do electrons move?
CT
A)along straight lines away from the nucleus
B)orbiting around the nucleus
C)in figure eights
D)along straight lines toward the nucleus
E)around each other in orbits
Feedback: The model indicates that electrons may travel in some kind of
orbit, but they do not travel in orbits around one another.
6
Which of the following conclusions about the scientific study of the
INCORRE
structure of the atom is supported by evidence in the diagram and
CT
paragraph?
A)Scientists use different atomic models depending on their
reason for their study.
B)Scientists now know exactly what an atom looks like.
C)It is impossible for a scientist to know exactly where each
electron is at any one instant.
D)Scientists do not know how the electrons produce clouds in an
atom.
E)Scientists cannot study the nucleus of an atom because an
electron cloud surrounds it.
Feedback: This statement is false.
7
Question 8 refers to the following diagram and information.
Gravity is a force of attraction that exists among all objects. Every object attracts every other
object. Most objects are too small for their gravitational force to be measured or even noticed.
Because the earth is large, its gravitational force is very strong. Gravity holds things on Earth's
surface as it draws everything toward the center of the planet.
Suppose that a very narrow tunnel has been drilled straight through
INCORRE
8
Earth’s center as shown in the diagram. What will the marble MOST
CT
LIKELY do if it is dropped into the tunnel?
A)The speed of the marble will continually decrease as the
marble moves towards Earth's center.
B)The speed of the marble will not change as the marble moves
towards Earth's center.
C)The speed of the marble will continually increase as the
marble moves towards Earth's center.
D)The speed of the marble will be zero at the time when the
marble reaches Earth's center.
E)The speed of the marble will continually increase as the
marble goes from one side of Earth to the other.
Feedback: Until the marble reaches Earth's center, gravitational force will
continue to accelerate it. As it passes Earth's center, gravitational force
will start to slow its motion and it will head toward the other side. If this
experiment could actually be done, the marble would oscillate from one
side of Earth to the other with the marble reaching its maximum speed at
Earth's center and having practically no speed as it reached each surface
point.
Homeostasis is a state of equilibrium. Every living thing tries to achieve
INCORRE
9
homeostasis by regulating its processes. To achieve homeostasis, a cell
CT
that has taken in food would also need to do which of the following?
A)use less energy
B)take in still more food
C)stop all other functions
D)release waste materials
E)divide into two cells
Feedback: This option will not help the cell achieve balance, or
homeostasis.
Camels, like all animals, need water to live. Yet they are able to go up to
ten days without eating or drinking. Many people believe that camels
INCORRE store water in their humps, but others disagree.
10
CT
Which of the following statements would help prove that water is NOT
stored in a camel’s hump?
A)The hump becomes smaller when there is nothing to eat or
drink.
B)The hump gets smaller when there is no food but water is
available.
C)A camel can live for months on green grass and no water.
D)A camel’s hump may contain up to fifty pounds of fat.
E)The hump becomes larger when the camel eats and drinks.
Humans developed
almost all rosebushes
sold today. Some roses
might have very
desirable characteristics,
such as color, disease
resistance, or flower
size, but they do not
grow well because they
have very weak root
systems. Other rose
plants have very strong
roots but bloom poorly.
So buds from the
attractive roses are
grafted onto the healthy
roots of another bush.
The rosebush that results
has all the good qualities
of both plants.
Which of the following
statements best
summarizes the
information in the above
paragraph?
A)Today’s rosebushes have shallow roots.
B)Today’s rosebushes are resistant to disease.
C)Rosebushes available today have a strong root system but
lack appealing color and flower size.
D)Most of today’s commercially available rosebushes are
grafted plants and have characteristics of beauty and color as
well as a strong root system.
E)Nearly all rosebushes do not grow well.
Feedback: This statement is not true about today’s commercially
available rosebushes.
Questions 2 through 4 refer to the following chart and information.
Trichinosis is a disease caused by the parasite Trichinella spiralis. The diagram above shows the
life cycle of the parasite and the pathway it follows in nature to cause infection.
2INCORRECT
3INCORRECT
According to the diagram, in which one of the following ways could
a human become infected with Trichinella?
A)handling pork products
B)eating poorly cooked pork that contains Trichinella larvae
C)being bitten by a hog
D)eating meat that contains mature parasites
E)spreading infection from person to person
Feedback: Meat, which is muscle tissue from animals, does not
contain mature parasites.
Below are five suggestions for eliminating trichinosis. Which of the
five would NOT be an effective means of preventing infection?
A)Cook pork thoroughly.
B)Adopt a meat inspection program for pork products.
C)Stop sales of meat from any herds in which Trichinella is
found.
D)Wash hands thoroughly before eating pork.
E)Use only thoroughly cooked scraps of pork as feed for pigs.
Feedback: Thorough cooking will kill the infectious larvae.
4CORRECT
5INCORRECT
One of the symptoms of trichinosis is muscle pain and loss of muscle
function. Based on the chart, which of the following statements
would support this medical finding?
A)Large numbers of larvae lodge in muscle.
B)Eating poorly cooked muscle tissue from infected hogs
transmits the disease.
C)Many diseases affect muscles.
D)Muscles are penetrated by the adult parasite.
E)Muscle is the only tissue of the body that is exposed to the
parasite.
Feedback: Huge numbers of the larvae accumulate in muscle tissues,
where they penetrate the spaces between the muscle fibers. The fibers
can no longer move freely and pain occurs.
Aspirin and acetaminophen are the chemicals that reduce pain in
some pain-relief products for children. Although these chemicals
appear to be equally effective, many doctors now recommend
products that contain acetaminophen and not aspirin. What does this
fact suggest?
A)Acetaminophen works better than aspirin.
B)Aspirin may cause side effects that do not occur with
acetaminophen.
C)Aspirin is an addictive drug.
D)Aspirin and acetaminophen actually are the same chemical
under different names.
E)Children should not be given products containing chemicals.
Feedback: There is no information in the passage to support this
statement.
Questions 6 through 10 refer to the following information.
Immunity is the ability of the body to resist disease. Below are five terms that are related to
immunity and disease.
1. acquired immunity—resistance to a disease that results from having had the disease
2. immunization—introduction of a weak or dead disease-causing organism into the body
for the purpose of developing resistance
3. immunodeficiency—inability of the body to resist disease
4. infection—invasion of the body by disease-causing microorganisms
5. inflammation—redness, swelling, heat, and pain that occur when the body responds to
injury, irritation, or microorganisms
Each of the following questions is an example of one of the terms defined above. For each
question, choose the term that best fits the example. Any term may be used more than once or
not at all.
A woman had chicken pox as a child. She never gets the disease
again.
6INCORRECT
Which of the terms above BEST describes this example?
A)acquired immunity
B)immunization
C)immunodeficiency
D)infection
E)inflammation
Feedback: The woman is successfully warding off the disease.
7CORRECT
Some children have had to live inside large plastic bubbles that are
germ-free. If they come out of these special chambers, death will
occur in a short time.
These children probably suffer from which problem?
A)acquired immunity
B)immunization
C)immunodeficiency
D)infection
E)inflammation
Feedback: These immunodeficient children must live in germ-free
bubbles because they have no ability to develop resistance to diseasecausing organisms. They can die from just a cold.
8CORRECT
The number of cases of tetanus in this country decreased to almost
zero once the injection of killed tetanus bacteria became a routine
public health practice.
What is the injection of these bacteria is called?
A)acquired immunity
B)immunization
C)immunodeficiency
D)infection
E)inflammation
Feedback: The injection of killed bacteria fits only the definition of
immunization. Resistance did develop because the number of cases
of disease decreased greatly.
9INCORRECT
People who receive transplants of hearts or kidneys must continually
take drugs to keep them from rejecting the new organs. Because of
these drugs, however, people with transplants may die from common
diseases such as colds.
What condition can these drugs cause?
A)acquired immunity
B)immunization
C)immunodeficiency
D)infection
E)inflammation
Feedback: The passage indicates that patients are susceptible to
disease, not resistant to it.
10INCORRECT
A sitter forgets to change a baby’s diaper. Later, the baby screams
when his parents clean the diaper area.
What probably caused the baby to cry?
A)acquired immunity
B)immunization
C)immunodeficiency
D)infection
E)inflammation
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a
1CORRECT
2INCORRECT
.
Below are five statements about these newly available meats. Which represents
an opinion rather than a fact?
A)Chianina averages 36 percent fewer calories than regular beef.
B)Zebu has a more pleasant flavor than pure beef.
C)Beefalo is produced by crossing bison with cattle.
D)Chianina and regular beef have about the same amount of
cholesterol.
E)Brae contains less fat than regular beef.
Feedback: Flavor is a matter of opinion.
According to the information given, what factor is MOST responsible for
Americans’ switch to chicken?
A)the desire for a change
B)the low cost of chicken
C)the delicious taste of chicken
D)difficulty in cooking beef
E)concern for their health
Feedback: This statement is not part of the given information.
Scientists sometimes try to produce rain in dry regions through cloud seeding.
They use airplanes to spray chemicals into clouds or release chemicals on the
ground so that wind drafts carry them upward to the clouds. The chemicals
3INCORRECT
cause moisture in the clouds to condense and fall to the ground as precipitation.
For cloud seeding to work, which of the following factors must be assumed?
A)The land area is excessively dry and parched.
B)There is already enough moisture in the clouds to condense and fall.
C)The air is warmer than the land region over which it lies.
D)The chemicals released into the clouds will speed up molecular
action.
E)The force of gravity in that region is too weak to allow rain to fall
without help.
Feedback: This statement provides a reason for cloud seeding but implies
nothing about whether the seeding will work.
Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following illustration.
4INCORRECT
5INCORRECT
If a radio communications satellite is working correctly, it may be assumed that
it is in which layer of the atmosphere?
A)exosphere only
B)troposphere and stratosphere only
C)stratosphere and ionosphere only
D)stratosphere only
E)ionosphere only
Feedback: The illustration indicates that radio waves pass beyond the
stratosphere before being reflected back to Earth in the ionosphere.
Most commercial airliners fly at an altitude of between 30 and 35 thousand
feet. Based on the diagram, in which layer Earth’s atmosphere would you
MOST LIKELY be traveling during a flight across the country?
A)troposphere
B)stratosphere
C)ionosphere
D)exosphere
E)above the exosphere
Feedback: 35 thousand feet equals approximately 7 miles, so it is safe to
assume that a plane flying across the country would fly in the troposphere.
An electron beam that sweeps rapidly back and forth across a screen produces
the picture that we see on a television set. In the United States, a total of 525
lines make up each image on a television screen.
6INCORRECT
A consumer comparing color TV sets in an appliance store observes that the
picture on a 9-inch screen is much sharper than the picture on a 26-inch screen.
Which of the following best explains this difference?
A)The electron beam is more focused on a large screen.
B)The 525 lines that make up the picture are farther apart on a larger
screen than on a smaller screen.
C)More than 525 lines are used with a smaller screen.
D)The electrons occupy less space on a large screen
E)The pictures are actually equally sharp, but the color is dimmer on
the larger screen.
Feedback: The electrons occupy the same amount of space in a large screen;
however, there is a greater amount of space to fill.
7CORRECT
Corals are tiny sea animals that live in colonies. They remain attached to rocky
seafloors in clear seawater that is no deeper than 46 meters and has a
temperature of 18–21°C. They make their shells from the chemicals in
seawater. When corals die, their shells remain attached to the rocks, and new
corals grow on top of them. These large deposits of the shells and skeletons of
many corals are called coral reefs.
Coral reefs have been found buried under thousands of feet of rock in western
Texas. What conclusion does this evidence help support?
A)Corals do not always grow in water.
B)Coral reefs are actually formed by mineral deposits rather than from
the growth of small animals.
C)At one time western Texas was covered by a shallow sea.
D)Corals can attach themselves to many different kinds of rock
surfaces.
E)Scientists do not understand very much about coral reefs.
Feedback: The coral reefs must have formed under the surface of shallow
seawater. Either the sea moved back or the reef lifted up to form part of the
land in Texas.
Bacteria in milk from a sick cow can cause severe diseases in people.
Pasteurization is a process that involves heating the milk to about 150 degrees
to kill these bacteria.
8CORRECT
A woman who knows what pasteurization is hears an advertisement on the
radio for natural unpasteurized milk. At the store she carefully avoids the brand
of milk that came from the dairy that did not pasteurize its product. Which of
the following assumptions is she MOST LIKELY making?
A)Pasteurization ruins the flavor of the milk.
B)Some of the nutritional value of the milk is lost during pasteurization
C)The dairy would not be aware that a cow is sick.
D)Dairy herds are routinely tested for disease-causing bacteria.
E)Pasteurization is a modern process.
Feedback: If the dairy is unaware that a cow is sick, the milk may contain
disease-causing organisms.
There are two types of foods that have many calories—foods high in sugars and
foods high in fats. Over the last few years, scientists have been going back and
forth over the assumption that eating too much sugar is a leading cause of
9INCORRECT obesity.
Which of the following observations would help to support the belief that the
assumption is probably wrong?
A)Sugar is very fattening.
B)Pies and cakes contain fattening substances other than sugar.
C)The body can store sugar for later use.
D)Overweight people tend to eat more high-calorie foods than people of
normal weight.
E)Some people of normal weight consume more sugar than overweight
people do.
Feedback: This statement neither supports nor disproves the assumption.
An amateur astronomer counts meteors each night during mid-August when the
Perseid Meteor Shower is known to occur each year. She then sends all her data
10INCORRECT to the American Meteor Society. Several of her reasons for doing this are listed
below. Which of the statements below indicates that values are involved in her
hobby?
A)The origin of a meteor shower can be determined most accurately if
it is observed from several different locations on earth.
B)When data gathered by amateurs at many different places are put
together, facts not apparent to an individual observer can be
determined.
C)An experienced amateur can determine the peak time of shower
activity.
D)An amateur’s reward is knowing that he or she has made a useful
contribution to science.
E)The hourly counts of meteors observed by amateurs indicates the
density of the meteor cloud.
he correct answer for each question is indicated by a
.
Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following information.
Until recently, aging has been associated with declining body functions. Decreased heart, kidney,
and brain functions were considered a natural part of the aging process. In the last decade,
scientists have begun to suspect that this decline is not an unavoidable part of growing old. As
more people live longer, one fact has become clear: Different people age at different rates.
Why do some people not age as fast as others? A few years ago, the best answer would have
been a combination of good luck, good habits, and good genes. But these answers were not
entirely accurate. After all, some athletes die young, while some heavy smokers live to old age.
The real answer is probably much more complicated. Biological, psychological, and
environmental factors all influence what happens to a person as he or she grows older. New
studies are concentrating on chemical pathways by which emotions and attitudes affect the body.
Feelings such as loneliness and a loss of control over one’s own life may play a very real part in
the decline associated with age.
This new emphasis in no way denies that physical changes occur as one ages. By fifty years of
age, some lung capacity is lost, and blood vessels are narrower. However, significant declines do
not occur in the absence of disease or damage.
1INCORRECT
Which of the following statements best summarizes the passage?
A)Scientists are learning that little can be done to halt the process of
aging.
B)Aging is probably due to emotional, biological, and
environmental factors that influence people differently.
C)Much of the biological decline of aging is probably due to a
lifetime of unhealthful habits.
D)Physical decline is probably not very important in aging.
E)Mental decline occurs faster than physical decline in the aging
process.
Feedback: Physical decline is only one of the factors responsible for aging.
2INCORRECT
Which of the following statements represents an opinion rather than a fact
about aging?
A)Lungs do not function quite as well after the age of fifty.
B)More people are living longer these days.
C)Decline in body functions is usually the result of disease or
damage, not aging.
D)Genetics, physical fitness, and emotional factors all contribute to
aging.
E)A 75-year-old person is too old to hold a position of
responsibility.
Feedback: This statement can be tested. This is not an opinion.
Many researchers believe that stress can trigger changes in the body.
Below are five statements about how people respond to stress.
3INCORRECT
I. Stress can trigger the release of hormones that affect blood pressure
and heart rate.
II. People who have friends and family to support them recover more
quickly from stressful situations.
III. In times of stress, the brain may release mood-altering chemicals.
IV. When people experience stress, the number of disease-fighting white
blood cells in their blood decreases.
V. People who are allowed to make their own decisions appear more
youthful.
Which of these statements support the conclusion that stress and emotions
can affect bodily functions in specific ways?
A)I only
B)V only
C)I and II only
D)II and III only
E)I, III, and IV only
Feedback: Statement III supports the conclusion, but statement I does not.
Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following information and diagram.
Ultraviolet light (UVL) in solar radiation can kill living organisms. However, not much UVL
reaches Earth’s surface because the gases oxygen and ozone in the upper atmosphere absorb it.
Oxygen absorbs a little UVL and in the process changes to ozone. The ozone then absorbs large
amounts of UVL.
There is evidence that the ozone in the atmosphere is disappearing, and some scientists believe
that pollution may be stopping the reaction that converts oxygen into ozone. This would mean
less ozone would be available to stop the UVL from reaching Earth. Overexposure to UVL can
lead to skin cancer, cataracts, and weakened immune systems in humans. Increased UVL can
also lead to reduced crop yield and disruptions in the marine food chain.
Some scientists suggest that the chemical chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)—used in air conditioners,
refrigerators, spray cans, and cleaning solutions—may be the main pollutant.
4CORRECT
5INCORRECT
What might be the effects of ozone disappearing from the upper
atmosphere?
A)There will be less ultraviolet light in the atmosphere.
B)The atmosphere will absorb more ultraviolet light.
C)Overexposure to UVL can lead to skin cancer, cataracts, and
weakened immune systems as well as reduced crop yield and
disruptions in the marine food chain.
D)Pollutants in the atmosphere will increase.
E)Less oxygen will form in the atmosphere.
Feedback: The passage lists these as some of the effects of increased
amounts of UVL reaching Earth’s surface.
Which of the following is a conclusion that CANNOT be drawn from the
passage?
A)Ultraviolet light can kill living organisms.
B)Ozone absorbs ultraviolet light.
C)Ozone is a form of oxygen.
D)Chemicals, such as CFCs, used on Earth are decreasing the
ozone.
E)There is evidence that the ozone in the atmosphere is
disappearing.
Feedback: This is a statement of fact from the passage.
6INCORRECT
"Ultrasound" is the name given to sounds so high that the human ear
cannot detect them. Ultrasound can be used in medicine to detect certain
ailments and can also be used to check the development of an unborn child.
Ultrasound waves sent into the mother’s womb bounce back and create an
outline of the baby’s image on a screen.
Which of the following would NOT be revealed by an ultrasound image?
A)the baby’s motions
B)the presence of twins
C)the baby’s weight
D)approximate body size
E)approximate head size
Feedback: The image created by ultrasound waves shows the outline of the
baby, so approximate body size would be visible.
Questions 7 and 8 refer to the following information.
Mining companies often scrape away layers of soil to obtain minerals lying below the earth’s
surface. Some companies store the removed soil in a pile. This means that surface soil ends up at
the bottom of the pile. When the mineral excavation is completed, the miners return the soil to its
original spot.
Such mining practices have created problems. Biologists know that certain organisms live at very
specific depths in the soil. Many of these organisms recycle nutrients and produce fertilizers for
plants. Turning the soil upside down during excavation destroys the environments of these soil
organisms, so they soon die. Although companies carefully replace the stored soil in the hole, the
organisms have already been killed. Nutrients are no longer recycled, and the land becomes
barren.
What assumption is made when mining companies replace the excavated
7INCORRECT
soil?
A)That replacement of the soil will restore the land to its original
fertile condition.
B)That microorganisms are extremely sensitive to their
environmental conditions.
C)That microorganisms are an essential part of land productivity.
D)That soil fertility is dependent on the nutrients and fertilizers
present.
E)That turning the soil upside down may interfere with the ability of
organisms to survive.
Feedback: This statement may be accurate, but it is not likely that is was
the assumption mining companies made.
8INCORRECT
A person who objects to mining methods that excavate soil would probably
place a high value on what?
A)the latest technology in mining
B)conservation of soil resources
C)underground metals and minerals
D)the use of artificial fertilizers
E)keeping fuel costs low
Feedback: There is no information in the passage to support this choice.
Questions 9 and 10 refer to the following information.
Nuclear power plants currently provide about 10 percent of the electricity used in the United
Sates. As the need for power continues to grow, so do problems connected with nuclear power
plants. A growing stock of nuclear wastes is one of the major problems.
At present, nuclear power companies are sealing and storing wastes directly on their power plant
sites. But they agree that this is just a temporary solution. In the 1970s, plans got underway to
reprocess nuclear assemblies so their parts could be used to make more power. Then in 1977 the
U.S. government banned the building of reprocessing plants. Political leaders feared that during
the shipping and recycling of the nuclear wastes, someone might steal enough radioactive
materials to manufacture an atomic bomb. In 1981 the government lifted the ban on
reprocessing. Still no companies have built reprocessing plants because they are so expensive.
What was the value behind public officials’ decision to ban nuclear
9INCORRECT
reprocessing centers?
A)concern for national security
B)interest in saving money
C)concerns for public health
D)determination to investigate radioactivity
E)desire for speed and efficiency
Feedback: Public health is not mentioned in the passage.
10INCORRECT
Which of the following actions would be based on a value for operating
nuclear power plants safely?
A)Electric companies switch from hydroelectric power plants to
nuclear plants.
B)Protesters picket an electric power company’s offices after a rate
increase.
C)Construction workers at a new power site go out on strike for
more benefits.
D)Power companies band together to finance research for new
waste storage methods.
E)Power companies using nuclear plants charge lower rates than
companies that burn coal.