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Auditing and Assurance- Concepts and Applications Test
Bank 1
BS Accountancy (New Era University)
Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
1. Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to not accept a
new audit engagement?
a. The CPA lacks a thorough understanding of the prospective client's
operations and industry.
b. The prospective client has fired its prior auditor.
c. The prospective client is unwilling to make financial records available to
the CPA.
d. The CPA is unable to review the predecessor auditor's working papers.
The correct answer is: The prospective client is unwilling to make financial
records available to the CPA
2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the auditor's
determination of materiality?
a. The amount used for the planning should equal that used for evaluation.
b. The auditors' planning level of materiality may be disaggregated into
smaller "tolerable misstatements" for the various accounts.
c. The planning level of materiality should normally be the larger of the
amount considered for the balance sheet versus the income statement.
d. Auditors may use various rules of thumb to arrive at an evaluation level of
materiality, but not for determining the planning level of materiality.
The correct answer is: The auditors' planning level of materiality may be
disaggregated into smaller "tolerable misstatements" for the various accounts
3. Which of the following is an example of fraudulent financial reporting?
a. An employee steals small tools from the company and neglects to return
them; the cost is reported as a miscellaneous operating expense.
b. Company management changes inventory count tags and overstates
ending inventory, while understating cost of goods sold.
c. The treasurer diverts customer payments to his personal due, concealing
his actions by debiting an expense account, thus overstating expenses.
The correct answer is: Company management changes inventory count tags and
overstates ending inventory, while understating cost of goods sold
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
4. When planning an audit, an auditor should:
a. Conclude whether changes in compliance with prescribed control
procedures justifies reliance on them.
b. Make preliminary judgments about materiality levels for audit purposes.
c. Consider whether the extent of substantive procedures may be reduced
based on the results of the internal control questionnaire.
d. Prepare a preliminary draft of the management representation letter.
The correct answer is: Make preliminary judgments about materiality levels for
audit purposes
5. When performing a financial statement audit, auditors are required to explicitly
assess the risk of material misstatement due to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Errors.
Fraud.
Business risk.
Illegal acts.
The correct answer is: Fraud
6. Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor
communications about fraud?
a. Fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should ordinarily be
disclosed by the auditor through use of an "emphasis of a matter" paragraph
added to the audit report.
b. b. The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under
any circumstances.
c. All fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should be reported
directly by the auditor to the Securities and Exchange Commission.
d. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the
audit committee regardless of the amount involved.
The correct answer is: Fraud that involves senior management should be reported
directly to the audit committee regardless of the amount involved.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
7. The auditor faces a risk that the audit will not detect material misstatements in
the financial statements. In regard to minimizing this risk, the auditor primarily
relies on:
a. Internal control.
b. Tests of controls.
c. Substantive procedures.
d. Statistical analysis.
The correct answer is: Substantive procedures
8. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect is fraud based on
a.
b.
c.
d.
The over recording of transactions.
Related-party receivables.
Recorded transactions in subsidiaries.
The nonrecording of transactions.
The correct answer is: The nonrecording of transactions
9. Which of the following conditions identified during the audit increases the risk
of employee fraud?
a. Inventory items of small size, but high value.
b. Existence of a mandatory vacation policy for employees performing key
functions.
c. Presence of reconciling items on a client prepared year-end proof of cash.
d. Large amounts of cash in the bank.
The correct answer is: Inventory items of small size, but high value
10. The development of a general strategy and a detailed approach for the
expected nature, timing, and extent of audit refers to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Planning
Directing
Audit procedures
Supervision
The correct answer is: Planning
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
11. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might suggest the need for
extended audit procedures for sales and inventories would most likely be
identified in the planning phase of the audit by the use of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Analytical procedures.
Tests of transactions and balances.
Specialized audit programs.
An assessment of internal control.
The correct answer is: Analytical procedures.
12.
Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
a. Materiality judgments are made in light of surrounding circumstances and
necessarily involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments.
b. An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the largest
aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the
financial statements.
c. The concept of materiality recognizes that some matters are important for
fair presentation of financial statements in conformity with GAAP, while other
matters are not important.
The correct answer is: An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in
terms of the largest aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to
any one of the financial statements
13. Preliminary arrangements agreed to by the auditors and the client should
be reduced to writing by the auditors. The best place to set forth these
arrangements is in:
a. A memorandum to be placed in the permanent section of the auditing
working papers.
b. A client representation letter.
c. An engagement letter.
d. A confirmation letter attached to the constructive services letter.
The correct answer is: An engagement letter.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
14. The risk that the auditors' procedures will lead them to conclude that a
material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when in fact such
a misstatement does exist is referred to as:
a. Detection risk.
b. Account risk.
c. Control risk.
d. Inherent risk.
The correct answer is: Detection risk
15. Which of the following is not a financial statement assertion relating to
account balances?
a. Completeness.
b. Existence.
c. Valuation and competence.
d. Rights and obligations.
The correct answer is: Valuation and competence
16. Which of the following factors would most likely cause a CPA to decide not
to accept a new audit engagement?
a. Management's attempt to meet earnings per share growth rate goals.
b. Lack of understanding of the potential client's internal auditors' computerassisted audit techniques.
c. Management's disregard for internal control.
d. The existence of related party transactions.
The correct answer is: Management's disregard for internal control
17. Which of the following procedures is not performed as a part of planning an
audit engagement?
a. Reviewing the working papers of the prior year.
b. Confirmation of all major accounts.
c. Designing an audit program.
d. Performing analytical procedures.
The correct answer is: Confirmation of all major accounts.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
18. Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor
communications about fraud?
a. Fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should be reported
directly by the auditor to the Securities and Exchange Commission.
b. The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under
any circumstances.
c. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the
audit committee regardless of the amount involved.
The correct answer is: Fraud that involves senior management should be
reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amount involved.
19. The auditor should consider the nature, extent, and timing of the work to be
performed and should prepare a written audit program for every audit. Which
audit standard is most closely related to this requirement?
a. Due professional care is to be exercised in the planning and performance of
the audit and preparation of the report.
b. The work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if any, are to be
properly supervised.
c. In all matters relating to the assignment, an independent mental attitude is
to be maintained by the auditor(s).
d. The audit is to be performed by a person or persons having adequate
technical training and proficiency as an auditor.
The correct answer is: The work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if
any, are to be properly supervised.
20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is most likely to be an example of fraud?
Defalcations occurring due to invalid electronic approvals.
Unreasonable accounting estimates arising from oversight.
Mistakes in the application of accounting principles.
Mistakes in processing data.
The correct answer is: Defalcations occurring due to invalid electronic approvals.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
21. The risk that an auditor will conclude, based on substantive tests, that a
material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when, in fact,
such misstatement does exist is referred to as
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inherent risk.
Detection risk.
Sampling risk.
Non-sampling risk.
The correct answer is: Detection risk
22. The auditor should document the understanding established with a client
through a
a. Completely detailed audit plan.
b. Written communication with the client.
c. Oral communication with the client.
d. Written or oral communication with the client.
The correct answer is: Written communication with the client
23. In designing written audit programs, an auditor should establish specific
audit objectives that relate primarily to the
a. Timing of audit procedures.
b. Cost-benefit of gathering evidence.
c. Selected audit techniques.
d. Financial statement assertions.
The correct answer is: Financial statement assertions
24. Which of the following topics is not normally included in an engagement
letter?
a. The auditors' estimate of the fee for the engagement.
b. Limitations on the scope of the engagement.
c. A description of responsibility for the detection of fraud.
d. The auditors' preliminary assessment of internal control.
The correct answer is: The auditors' preliminary assessment of internal control.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
25. Which of the following statements is correct concerning analytical
procedures?
a. Analytical procedures can replace tests of controls in gathering evidence to
support the assessed level of control risk.
b. Analytical procedures are more efficient, but not more effective, than tests
of details and transactions.
c. Analytical procedures usually involve comparisons of ratios developed from
recorded amounts to assertions developed by management.
d. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit generally use data
aggregated at a high level.
The correct answer is: Analytical procedures used in planning an audit generally
use data aggregated at a high-level
26. As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, the assurance directly
provided from
a.
b.
c.
d.
Substantive tests should decrease.
Tests of controls should increase.
Tests of controls should decrease.
Substantive tests should increase.
The correct answer is: Substantive tests should increase
27. After issuing a report, an auditor has no obligation to make continuing
inquiries or perform other procedures concerning the audited financial
statements, unless
a. The control environment changes after issuance of the report.
b. Final determinations or resolutions are made of contingencies that had been
disclosed in the financial statements.
c. Information about an event that occurred after the date of the auditor’s report
comes to the auditor’s attention.
d. Information, which existed at the report date and may affect the report,
comes to the auditor’s attention.
The correct answer is: Information, which existed at the report date and may affect
the report, comes to the auditor’s attention
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
28.
a.
b.
c.
Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk in that they
May be assessed in either quantitative or nonquantitative terms.
Exist independently of the financial statement audit.
Arise from the misapplication of auditing procedures.
The correct answer is: Exist independently of the financial statement audit.
29. Which of the following matters is generally included in an auditor's
engagement letter?
a. Limitations of the engagement.
b. Factors to be considered in establishing preliminary judgments about
materiality.
c. The auditor's responsibility to obtain negative assurance relating to the
occurrence of illegal acts.
d. Management's liability for illegal acts committed by its employees.
The correct answer is: Limitations of the engagement.
30. An auditor desired to test credit approval on 10,000 sales invoices
processed during the year. The auditor designed a statistical sample that would
provide 1% risk assessing control risk too low (99% confidence) that not more
than 7% of the sales invoices lacked approval. The auditor estimated from
previous experience that about 2½ % of the sales invoices lacked approval. A
sample of 200 invoices was examined and seven of them were lacking
approval. The auditor then determined the achieved upper precision limit to be
8%. In the evaluation of this sample, the auditor decided to increase the level
of the preliminary assessment of control risk because the
a. Expected deviation rate (2 ½ %) was less than the tolerable rate (7%).
b. Achieved upper precision limit (8%) was more than the percentage of
errors in the sample (3 ½ %).
c. Expected deviation rate (7%) was more than the percentage of errors in
the sample (3 ½ %).
d. Tolerable rate (75%) was less than the achieved upper precision limit
(8%).
The correct answer is: Tolerable rate (75%) was less than the achieved upper
precision limit (8%).
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
31. After determining that a related party transaction has, in fact, occurred, an
auditor should
a. Obtain an understanding of the business purpose of the transaction.
b. Perform analytical procedure to verify whether similar transactions occurred,
but were not recorded.
c. Substantive that the transaction was consummated on terms equivalent to
an arm’s-length transaction.
d. Add separate paragraph to the auditor’s report to explain the transaction.
The correct answer is: Obtain an understanding of the business purpose of the
transaction
32. An advantage of statistical over nonstatistical sampling methods in test of
controls is that the statistical methods
a. Eliminate the need top used judgment in determining appropriate sample
sizes.
b. Can more easily convert the sample into a dual-purpose test useful for
substantive testing.
c. Afford greater assurance than a nonstatistical sample of equal size.
d. Provide an objective basis for quantitatively evaluating sample risk.
The correct answer is: Provide an objective basis for quantitatively evaluating
sample risk
33. An auditor desired to test credit approval on 10,000 sales invoices
processed during the year. The auditor designed a statistical sample that would
provide 1% risk assessing control risk too low (99% confidence) that not more
than 7% of the sales invoices lacked approval. The auditor estimated from
previous experience that about 2½ % of the sales invoices lacked approval. A
sample of 200 invoices was examined and seven of them were lacking
approval. The auditor then determined the achieved upper precision limit to be
8%.*. The allowance for sampling risk was
a. 4 ½ %.
b. 3 ½ %.
c. 1%.
d. 5 ½ %.
The correct answer is: 4 ½ %.
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An underlying feature of random-based selection of items is that each
Item in the accounting population should have an opportunity to be selected.
Item in the accounting population is randomly ordered.
Selected using replacement
Stratum of the accounting population is given equal representation in the
sample.
The correct answer is: Item in the accounting population should have an
opportunity to be selected.
35. An auditor is testing internal control procedures that are evidenced on an
entity’s vouchers by matching random numbers with voucher numbers. If a
random number matches the number of a voided voucher, that voucher
ordinarily should be replaced by another voucher in the random sample if the
voucher.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Represents an immaterial peso amount.
Has been properly voided.
Cannot be located.
Constitutes a deviation.
The correct answer is: Has been properly voided
36. An auditor plans to examine a sample of 20 purchase orders for proper
approvals as prescribed by the client’s internal control procedures. One of the
purchase orders in the chosen sample cannot be found, and the auditor is
unable to use alternative procedures to test whether that purchase was properly
approved. The auditor should
a. Choose another purchase order to replace the missing purchase order in
the sample.
b. Treat the missing purchase order has a deviation for the purpose of
evaluating the sample.
c. Select to a completely new set of 20 purchase orders.
d. Consider this test of control invalid and proceed with substantive test since
internal control cannot be relied upon.
The correct answer is: Treat the missing purchase order has a deviation for the
purpose of evaluating the sample
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
37. Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit
suggest that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of
these procedures most likely indicate that
a. The communication with the audit committee should be revised.
b. Additional substantive test of details is required.
c. Irregularities exist among the relevant account balances.
d. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.
The correct answer is: Additional substantive test of details is required.
38. Analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of the audit generally
include
a. Performing test of transactions to corroborate management’s financial
statement assertions.
b. Considering unusual or unexpected account balances that were not
previously identified.
c. Gathering evidence concerning account balances that have not changed
from the prior year.
d. Retesting controls that appeared to be ineffective during the assessment of
control risk.
The correct answer is: Considering unusual or unexpected account balances that
were not previously identified
39. Audit sampling involves the
a. Application of audit procedures to all items that comprise a class of
transactions or an account balance.
b. Selection of all items over a certain amount.
c. Application of audit procedures to all items over a certain amount and those
that are unusual or have a history of error.
d. Application of audit procedures to less than 100% of items within a class of
transactions or an account balance such that all items have a chance of
selection.
The correct answer is: Application of audit procedures to less than 100% of items
within a class of transactions or an account balance such that all items have a
chance of selection
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
40. Fraud involving one or more members of management or those charged
with governance is referred to as
a. Misappropriation of assets.
b. Management fraud.
c. Fraudulent financial reporting.
d. Employee fraud.
The correct answer is: Management fraud.
41. In designing audit procedures, the auditor required to determine appropriate
means of selecting items for testing to gather audit evidence. Which of the
following means is/are available to the auditor? I. Selecting all items (100%
examination) II. Selecting specific items III. Auditing sampling
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and III only
I, II and III
III only
d. And II only
The correct answer is: I, II and III
42. The likelihood of assessing control risk too high is the risk that the sample
selected to test controls.
a. Contains proportionately fewer deviations from prescribed internal controls
than exist in the balance or class as a whole.
b. Contains misstatement that could be material to the financial statement
when aggregated with misstatement in other account balances of
transactions classes.
c. Does not support the tolerable misstatement for some or all of
management’s assertions.
d. Does not support the auditor’s planned assessed level of control risk when
the true operating effectiveness of internal control justifies such an
assessment.
The correct answer is: Does not support the auditor’s planned assessed level of
control risk when the true operating effectiveness of internal control justifies such
an assessment
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
43. In which of the following circumstances would an auditor most likely meet
with the client’s legal counsel to discuss the likely outcome of the litigation and
claims? I. The auditor determines that the matter is a significant risk. II. There
is a disagreement between management and the entity’s legal counsel. III. The
subject matter of the litigation is complex.
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. I and III only
d. I, II and III
The correct answer is: I, II and III
44. The date of the management representation letter should coincide with the
date of the
a. Auditor’s report
b. Latest related party transaction
c. Balance sheet
d. Latest interim financial information
The correct answer is: Auditor’s report
45. The expected population deviation rate of client billing errors is 3%. The
auditor has established a tolerable rate of5%. In the review client invoices the
auditor should use
a. Stratified sampling
b. Attribute sampling
c. Variable sampling
d. Discovery sampling
The correct answer is: Attribute sampling
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The letter of audit inquiry should be
Prepared by management and sent by the auditor.
Prepared by the auditor and sent by the management.
Prepared and sent by the auditor.
Prepared and sent by management.
The correct answer is: Prepared by management and sent by the auditor
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
47. It will be appropriate to audit all of the items that make up class of
transactions or account balance (100%examination), except
a. When the class of transactions or account balance consist of a small number
of large value items.
b. When there is a significant risk of misstatement and other selection methods
do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
c. When the class of transactions or account balance consist of large number
of small value items.
d. When the repetitive nature of a calculation or other process performed
automatically by the client’s computer information system (CIS) makes a
100% examination cost effective.
The correct answer is: When the class of transactions or account balance consist
of large number of small value items
48. Nico Robin, CPA, believes there is substantial doubt about the ability of
Enies Lobby Co. to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time.
In evaluating Enies Lobby’s plans for dealing with the adverse effects of future
conditions and events, Nico Robin most likely would consider, as a mitigating
factor, Enies Lobby’s plans to
a. Discuss with lenders the terms of all debt and loan agreements.
b. Strengthen internal controls over cash disbursement.
c. Purchase production facilities currently being leased from related party.
d. Postpone expenditures for research and development projects.
The correct answer is: Postpone expenditures for research and development
projects
49. The auditor is concerned with the fraud that causes a material misstatement
in the financial statements. There are two types of intentional misstatement that
are relevant to the auditor: misstatement resulting from fraudulent financial
reporting and misstatements resulting from
a.
b.
c.
d.
Collusion within the entity or with third parties.
b. Misappropriation of assets.
Management fraud.
Employee fraud.
The correct answer is: Misappropriation of assets
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
50. The primary reason an auditor request that letters of inquiry be sent to a
client’s attorneys is to provide the auditor with
a. A description and evaluation of litigation, claims, and assessment that
existed at the balance sheet date.
b. The attorneys’ opinion of the client’s historical experiences in recent similar
litigation.
c. Corroboration of the information furnished by management about litigation,
claims, and assessments.
d. The probable outcome of asserted claims and pending or threatened
litigation.
The correct answer is: Corroboration of the information furnished by management
about litigation, claims, and assessments.
51. When performing a test of a control with respect to control over cash
receipts, an auditor may use a systematic sampling technique with a start at
any randomly selected item. The biggest disadvantage of this type of sampling
is that the items in the population
a.
b.
c.
d.
May systematically occur more than once in the sample.
May occur in a systematic pattern, thus destroying the sample randomness.
Must be recorded in a systematic pattern before the sample can be drawn.
Must be systematically replaced in the population after sampling.
The correct answer is: May occur in a systematic pattern, thus destroying the
sample randomness.
52. The risk of incorrect acceptance and the likelihood of assessing control risk
too low relate to the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Effectiveness to the audit
Preliminary estimates of materiality levels.
Efficiency of the audit
Tolerable misstatement.
The correct answer is: Effectiveness to the audit
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53. What is an auditor’s evaluation of a statistical sample for attributes when a
test of 50 documents results in three deviations if the tolerable rate is 7%, the
expected population deviation rate is 5%, and the allowance for sampling risk
is 2%?
a. Accept the sample results as support for the planned assessed level of
control risk because the tolerable rate minus the allowance for sampling risk
equals the expected population deviation rate.
b. Modify the planned assessed level of control risk because the tolerable rate
plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the expected population
deviation rate.
c. Accept the sample results as support for the planned assessed level of
control risk because the sample deviation rate plus the allowance for
sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate.
d. Modify the planned assessed level of control risk because the sample
deviation rate plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable
rate.
The correct answer is: Accept the sample results as support for the planned
assessed level of control risk because the sample deviation rate plus the allowance
for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate.
54. Use of the ratio estimation sampling technique to estimated peso amounts
in appropriate when
a. The total book value is known and corresponds to the sum of all the
individual book values.
b. The audited values are nearly proportional to the book values.
c. A book value for each sample item is known.
d. There are some observed differences between audited values and book
values.
The correct answer is: A book value for each sample item is known
55. When using classical variables sampling for estimation, an auditor normally
evaluates the sampling results by calculating the possible misstatement in
either direction. This statistical concept is known as
a.
b.
c.
d.
Standard deviation.
Reliability.
Precision.
Projected misstatement.
The correct answer is: Precision
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A uditing & A ssur ance: Concepts & A pplications 1
56. Which of the following courses of action would an auditor most likely follow
in planning a sample of cash disbursement if the auditor is aware of several
unusually large cash disbursements?
a. Increase the sample size to reduce the effect of the unusually large
disbursement.
b. Set the tolerable rate of deviation at a lower level than originally planned.
c. Continue to draw new samples until all the large disbursements appear in
the sample.
d. Stratify the cash disbursement population so that the unusually large
disbursements are selected.
The correct answer is: Stratify the cash disbursement population so that the
unusually large disbursements are selected.
57. When an audit is made in accordance with generally accepted auditing
standards, the auditor should always
a. Obtain certain written representations from management.
b. Observe the taking of physical inventory on the balance sheet date.
c. Document the understanding of the client’s internal control and the basis for
all conclusions about the assessed level of control risk for financial
statement assertions.
d. Employ analytical procedures as substantive test to obtain evidence about
assertions related to account balances.
The correct answer is: Obtain certain written representations from management
58. Loony, CPA, has been engaged to review the financial statements of Filch
Company, a non-issuer company. The management of Filch Company has
refused to sign a representation letter for the engagement. What should be
Loony’s response?
a. Issue a review report modified for a scope restriction.
b. Not issue a review report.
c. Issue a standard review report providing all other review procedures were
performed.
d. Issue a review report modified for a possible departure from generally
accepted accounting principles.
The correct answer is: Not issue a review report.
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59. Which of the following conditions or events most likely would cause an
auditor to have substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going
concern?
a. Cash flows from operating activities are negative.
b. Research and development projects are postponed.
c. Significant related party transactions are pervasive.
d. Stock dividends replace annual cash dividends.
The correct answer is: Cash flows from operating activities are negative
60. Which of the following events most likely indicates the existence of related
parties?
a. Selling real estate at a price that differs significantly from its book value.
b. Making a loan without scheduled terms for payment of the funds.
c. Borrowing a large sum of money at a variable rate of interest.
d. Discussing merger terms with a company that is a major competitor.
The correct answer is: Making a loan without scheduled terms for payment of the
funds.
61. Which of the following sample planning factors would influence the sample
size for a substantive test of details for a specific account? I. Expected Error II.
Tolerable Error
a. Neither I nor II
b. II only
c. I only
d. Both I and II
The correct answer is: Both I and II
62. Which of the following statistical sampling plans does not use a fixed sample
size for tests of controls?
a. PPS sampling
b. Variables sampling
c. Sequential sampling
d. Attributes sampling
The correct answer is: Sequential sampling
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63. Which of the following statement is correct concerning statistical sampling
in test of controls?
a. The qualitative aspects of deviations are not considered by the auditor.
b. Deviations from control procedure at given rate usually result in
misstatements at a higher rate.
c. As the population size doubles, the sample size should also double.
d. There is an inverse relationship between the sample size and the tolerable
rate.
The correct answer is: There is an inverse relationship between the sample size
and the tolerable rate
64. Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility
concerning the appropriateness of the going concern assumption in the
preparation of the financial statements?
a. The auditor’s responsibility is to give a guarantee in the audit report that the
entity has the ability to continue as a going concern.
b. The auditor’s responsibility is to make a specific assessment of the entity’s
ability to continue as a going concern.
c. The auditor’s responsibility is to predict future events or conditions that may
cause the entity to cease to continue as going concern.
d. The auditor’s responsibility is to consider the appropriateness of
management’s use of the going concern assumption and consider whether
there are material uncertainties about the entity’s ability to continue as a
going concern that need to be disclosed in the financial statements.
The correct answer is: The auditor’s responsibility is to consider the
appropriateness of management’s use of the going concern assumption and
consider whether there are material uncertainties about the entity’s ability to
continue as a going concern that need to be disclosed in the financial statements
65. Which of the following statistical selection techniques is least desirable for
use by an auditor?
a. Block selection
b. Sequential selection
c. Stratified selection
d. Systematic selection
The correct answer is: Block selection
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66. Which of the following statements extracted from a client’s lawyer’s letter
concerning litigation, claims, and assessment most likely would cause the
auditor to request clarification?
a. = I believe that the company will be able to defend this action successfully.=
b. = I believe that the plaintiff’s case against the company is without merit.=
c. = I believe that the possible liability to the company is nominal in amount.=
d. = I believe that the action can be settled for less than the damages claimed.=
The correct answer is:= I believe that the action can be settled for less than the
damages claimed=
67. =Error= includes
a. An incorrect accounting estimate arising from oversight or misinterpretation
of facts.
b. Concealing, or not disclosing, facts that could affect the amounts recorded
in the financial statements.
c. Engaging in complex transactions that are structured to misinterpret the
financial position or financial performance of the entity.
d. Intentional misapplication of accounting policies relating to amounts,
classification, manner or presentation, or disclosure.
The correct answer is: An incorrect accounting estimate arising from oversight or
misinterpretation of facts.
68. Which of the following statements concerning management representations
is incorrect?
a. If a representation by management is contradicted by other audit evidence,
the auditor should investigate the circumstances and, when necessary,
reconsider the reliability of other representations by management.
b. If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence
regarding a matter, which has, or may have, a material effect on the financial
statements and such audit evidence is expected to be available; this will
constitute a limitation in the scope of the audit, even if a representation from
management has been received on the matter.
c. Representations by management can be a substitute for other audit
evidence that the auditor could reasonably expect to be available.
d. The auditor’s working papers would ordinarily include a summary of oral
discussions with management or written representations from management.
The correct answer is: Representations by management can be a substitute for
other audit evidence that the auditor could reasonably expect to be available
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69. Which of the following statements best describes the <date of the financial
statements?=
a. The date on which the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit
evidence on which to base the opinion on the financial statement.
b. The date of the end of the latest period covered by the financial statements,
which is normally the date of the most recent balance sheet in the financial
statement subject to audit.
c. The date on which those with the recognized authority assert that they have
prepared the entity’s complete set of financial statement, including the
related notes, and that they have taken responsibility for them.
d. The date that the auditor’s report and audited financial statements are made
available to third parties.
The correct answer is: The date of the end of the latest period covered by the
financial statements, which is normally the date of the most recent balance sheet
in the financial statement subject to audit
70. A note to the financial statements of the Gringotts Bank indicates that all of
the records relating to the bank’s business operations are stored on magnetic
disks, and that there are no emergency back-up systems or duplicate disks
stored since the Gringotts Bank and their auditors consider the occurrence of a
catastrophe to be remote. Based upon this, one would expect the auditor’s
report to express
a. An <except for= opinion.
b. An adverse opinion.
c. An unmodified (unqualified) opinion.
d. A qualified opinion.
The correct answer is: An unmodified (unqualified) opinion.
71. A company has changed its method of inventory valuation from an
unacceptable one to one in conformity with generally accepted accounting
principles. The auditor’s report on the financial statements of the year of the
change should include
a. An emphasis-of-matter paragraph explaining the change.
b. No reference to consistency.
c. A justification for making the change and the impact of the change on
reported net income.
d. A reference to a prior period adjustment in the opinion paragraph.
The correct answer is: An emphasis-of-matter paragraph explaining the change.
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72. A CPA who is not independent and is associated with financial statements
should disclaim an opinion with respect to those financial statements. The
disclaimer should:
a. not mention any reason for the disclaimer other than that the CPA was
unable to conduct the examination in accordance with generally accepted
auditing standards.
b. clearly state the specific reasons for lack of independence.
c. include a middle paragraph clearly describing the CPA’s association with the
client and explaining why the CPA was unable to gather sufficient competent
evidential matter to warrant the expression of an opinion.
d. not describe the reason for lack of independence but should state
specifically that the CPA is not independent.
The correct answer is: not describe the reason for lack of independence but should
state specifically that the CPA is not independent.
73. A modification of the CPA’s report on a review of the interim financial
statements of a publicly-held company would be necessitated by which of the
following?
a. Reference to another accountant
b. Inadequate disclosure
c. An uncertainty
d. Lack of consistency
The correct answer is: An uncertainty
74. Correspondence is established between the random number table and the
population by
a. Selecting a random starting point on the table
b. Deciding the number of digits to use in the random number table and their
association with the population numbering system
c. Defining which digits the auditor uses in a column and the method of reading
the table
d. Identifying each item in the population with a unique number
The correct answer is: Deciding the number of digits to use in the random number
table and their association with the population numbering system
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75. When the audited financial statements of the prior year are presented
together with those of the current year, the continuing auditor’s report should
cover
a. Both years.
b. Only the current year, but the prior year’s report should be presented.
c. Only the current year, but the prior year’s report should be referred to.
d. Only the current year.
The correct answer is: Both years.
76. An auditor was unable to obtain audited financial statements or other
evidence supporting an entity’s investment in a foreign subsidiary. Between
which of the following opinions should the entity’s auditor choose?
a. Qualified and adverse.
b. Adverse and unmodified (unqualified) with an emphasis-of-matter
paragraph added.
c. Disclaimer and unmodified (unqualified) with an emphasis-of-matter
paragraph added.
d. Qualified and disclaimer.
The correct answer is: Qualified and disclaimer.
77. A sample in which the characteristics of the sample are the same as those
of the population is a/an
a. Random sample
b. Representative sample
c. Attributes sample
d. Variables sample
The correct answer is: Representative sample
78. A statistical method used to estimate the proportion of items in a population
containing a characteristic of interest is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Estimation sampling
Attributes sampling
Variables sampling
Population proportional to size sampling
The correct answer is: Attributes sampling
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79. The auditor’s best course of action with respect to <other financial
information= included in an annual report containing the auditor’s report is to:
a. indicate in the auditor’s report that the <other financial information= is
unaudited.
b. consider whether the <other financial information= is accurate by performing
a limited review.
c. obtain written representations from management as to the accuracy of the
<other financial information.=
d. read and consider the manner of presentation of the <other financial
information.=
The correct answer is: read and consider the manner of presentation of the <other
financial information.=
80. Unqualified financial statements for the prior year presented in comparative
form with audited financial statements for the current year should be clearly
marked to indicate their status and
I. The report on the prior period should be reissued to accompany the
current period report
II. II. The report on the current period should include as a separate
paragraph description of the responsibility
III. assumed for the prior period’s financial statements
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both I and II
I only
Either I or II
II only
The correct answer is: Either I or II
81. When an auditor reissues in 20X7 the auditor’s report on the 20X5 financial
statements at the request of the client without revising the 20X5 wording, the
auditor should
a. Use the date of the original report.
b. Dual date the report.
c. Use the date of the current period report.
d. Use the date of the client’s request.
The correct answer is: Use the date of the original report.
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82. Attribute sampling would be an appropriate method to use on which of the
following procedures in an audit program?
a. Observe whether the duties of the accounts receivable clerk are separate
from handling cash
b. Review the aged schedule of accounts receivable to determine if receivables
from officers are included
c. Review sales transactions for large and unreasonable amounts
d. Examine a sample of duplicate sales invoices for credit approval by the
credit manager
The correct answer is: Examine a sample of duplicate sales invoices for credit
approval by the credit manager
83.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The advantage of systematic sample selection is that
There is limited possibility of it being biased.
It is easy to use.
It is unnecessary to determine if the population is arranged randomly.
All of the choices are correct
The correct answer is: It is easy to use
84. If an auditor, without statistical sampling, selects a sample of one hundred
items from a population and finds two exceptions, the auditor
a.
b.
c.
d.
Can calculate the highest exception rate expected in the population
Cannot make any conclusions about either the sample or the population
Can conclude that the sample exception rate is 2%
Can conclude that the population exception rate is 2%
The correct answer is: Can conclude that the sample exception rate is 2%
85. If the auditor decides to assess control risk at the maximum level, tests of
controls are
a. Unchanged from prior planned settings
b. Reduced in number
c. Increased in number
d. Not performed
The correct answer is: Not performed
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86.
a.
b.
c.
d.
For which of the following audit procedures is audit sampling inappropriate?
Audit sampling is appropriate for each of the choices
Examine a sample of duplicate sales invoices for credit approval
Review sales transactions for large and unusual amounts
Compare the quantity on duplicate sales invoices with the quantity on related
shipping documents
The correct answer is: Review sales transactions for large and unusual amounts
87. The appropriate assumption to make regarding the overall percent of error
in those population items containing an error is
a. Determined using random number tables
b. Set after a quantitative analysis of client’s internal control system
c. Based on statistical analysis using confidence limits
d. Based on the auditor’s personal judgment in the circumstances
The correct answer is: Based on the auditor’s personal judgment in the
circumstances
88. The deviation rate the auditor will permit in the population and still be
willing to reduce the assessed level of control risk is called the
a. Sample deviation rate
b. Acceptable sampling risk
c. Estimated population deviation rate
d. Tolerable deviation rate
The correct answer is: Tolerable deviation rate
89.
The highest estimated exception rate in the population at a
given acceptable risk of assessing control risk too low is
a.
b.
c.
d.
The tolerable exception rate
The computed upper exception rate
The upper exception rate
Estimated population exception rate
The correct answer is: The computed upper exception rate
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90. The possibility that the auditor’s conclusion based on a sample may be
different from the conclusion reached if the entire population were subjected to
the same procedure is called
a. Sampling risk
b. Audit risk
c. Detection risk
d. Non-sampling risk
The correct answer is: Sampling risk
91. When the auditor goes through a population and selects items for the
sample without regard to their size, source or other distinguishing
characteristics, it is called
a. Statistical selection
b. Systematic sample selection
c. Haphazard selection
d. Block sample selection
The correct answer is: Haphazard selection
92. The process which requires the calculation of an interval and then selects
the items based in the size of the interval is
a. Systematic selection
b. Statistical sampling
c. Random selectin
d. Computerized selection
The correct answer is: Systematic selection
93. The risk which the auditor is willing to take accepting a control as being
effective when it is not is the
a. Estimated population exception rate
b. Finite correction factor
c. Acceptable risk of assessing control risk too low
d. Tolerable exception rate
The correct answer is: Acceptable risk of assessing control risk too low
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94. The sample exception rate equals
a. The number of exceptions in the population divided by the sample size
b. The number of items in the population multiplied by the number of
exceptions in the sample
c. The number of exceptions in the sample divided by the sample size
d. The number of exceptions in the population divided by the population rate
The correct answer is: The number of exceptions in the sample divided by the
sample size
95. To determine an optimum sample size when sampling methods are used in
a substantive test, all of the following factors must be considered except
a. Risk levels the auditor is willing to accept
b. Variance in the population
c. Tolerable misstatement
d. Deviation occurrence rate the auditor expects to find in the population
The correct answer is: Deviation occurrence rate the auditor expects to find in the
population
96. Which of the following factors is generally not considered in determining
sample size for a test of controls?
a. Expected population deviation rate
b. Population size
c. Risk of assessing control risk too low
d. Tolerable rate
The correct answer is: Population size
97. Which of the following is not a type of statistical method that provides results
in peso terms?
a. Attributes sampling
b. Variables sampling
c. Monetary-unit sampling
d. Sampling with probability proportional to size
The correct answer is: Attributes sampling
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98. Which of the following statements best expresses the impact that the
performance of audit procedures has on statistical and non-statistical
sampling?
a. Audit procedures in the sample item will not vary as a result of using either
statistical or nonstatistical sampling.
b. Audit procedures on the sample item will vary as a result of using either
statistical or nonstatistical sampling.
c. Statistical sampling requires quantitative audit procedures, whereas
nonstatistical sampling requires judgmental audit procedures.
d. The audit procedures will be the same for either statistical or nonstatistical
sampling but they must be performed differently for each.
The correct answer is: Audit procedures in the sample item will not vary as a result
of using either statistical or nonstatistical sampling
99. To provide for the greatest degree of independence in performing internal
auditing functions, an internal auditor most likely should report to
a. Corporate Controller
b. Board of Directors
c. Vice-President for Finance
d. Corporate Stockholders
The correct answer is: Board of Directors
100. Which of the following is not required by the generally accepted auditing
standard that states that due professional care is to be exercised in the
performance of the audit?
a. Critical review of the audit work performed at every level of supervision
b. Responsibility for losses because of errors of judgment
c. Observance of the standards of field work and reporting
d. Degree of skill commonly possessed by others in the profession
The correct answer is: Responsibility for losses because of errors of judgment
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101. A procedure in which a quality control partner periodically tests the
application of quality control procedures is most directly related to which quality
control element?
a. Engagement performance
b. Monitoring
c. Leadership responsibilities for quality with the firm
d. Human resources
The correct answer is: Monitoring
102. Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of
Statements on Auditing Standards?
a. They are procedural outlines which are intended to narrow the areas of
inconsistency and divergence of auditor opinion
b. They are interpretations which may be useful guidance to auditors
c. They are authoritative statements, enforced through the Code of
Professional Conduct
d. They are guides intended to set forth auditing procedures which are
applicable to a variety of situations
The correct answer is: They are authoritative statements, enforced through the
Code of Professional Conduct
103. Within the context of quality control, the primary purpose of continuing
professional education and training activities is to enable a CPA firm to provide
personnel within the firm with:
a. Knowledge required in order to perform a peer review
b. Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and to progress within
the firm
c. Technical training that assures proficiency as an auditor
d. Professional education that is required in order to perform with due
professional care
The correct answer is: Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and
to progress within the firm
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104. A comprehensive examination of an operating unit or a complete
organization to evaluate its systems, controls, and performance, as measured
by management's objectives is called a(an):
a. Operational Audit
b. Compliance audit
c. Compilation
d. Consultation
The correct answer is: Operational Audit
105. In pursuing a CPA firm's quality control objectives, a CPA firm may maintain
records indicating which partners or employees of the CPA firm were previously
employed by the CPA firm's clients. Which quality control objective would this
be most likely to satisfy?
a. Relevant ethical requirements
b. Personnel management
c. Acceptance and continuance of clients and engagements
d. Engagement performance
The correct answer is: Relevant ethical requirements
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Internal auditing is considered to be part of an organization's
External controls
Accounting system
Control activities
Monitoring
The correct answer is: Monitoring
107. In an audit in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards, the
auditors must test compliance with those laws and regulations that
a. Have a direct and material effect on major federal programs
b. Have a material effect on major or non-major programs
c. Have a direct and material effect on the financial statements
d. Have a material direct or indirect effect on the financial statements
The correct answer is: Have a direct and material effect on the financial
statements
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108.
a.
b.
c.
Because an external auditor is paid a fee by a client company, he or she
May be sufficiently independent to conduct an audit
Is absolutely independent and may conduct an audit
Must receive approval of the Securities and Exchange Commission before
conducting an audit
d. Is never considered to be independent
The correct answer is: May be sufficiently independent to conduct an audit.
109. Requirements for training, independence and due professional care are
included in which group of the generally accepted auditing standards?
a. Reporting
b. Quality control
c. Fieldwork
d. General
The correct answer is: General
110. Because an examination in accordance with generally accepted auditing
standards is influenced by the possibility of material errors, the auditor should
conduct the examination with an attitude of
a. Professional skepticism
b. Objective judgment
c. Professional responsiveness d
d. Conservative advocacy
The correct answer is: Professional skepticism
111. Certain fundamental beliefs called "postulates" underlie auditing theory.
Which of the following is not a postulate of auditing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The auditor acts exclusively as an auditor
An audit has a benefit only to the owners
Economic assertions can be verified
No long-term conflict exists between the auditor and the management of the
enterprise under audit
The correct answer is: An audit has a benefit only to the owners
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112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An audit can have a significant effect on
Business Risk
The risk-free interest rate
Information Risk
All of these
The correct answer is: Information Risk
113. The auditor communicates the results of his or her work through the medium
of the
a. Financial statements
b. Engagement letter
c. Audit report
d. Management letter
The correct answer is: Audit report
114. In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to assigning personnel
to engagements, a public accounting firm may use policies and procedures
such as
a. Allowing staff to select the assignments of their choice to promote better
client relationships
b. Rotating employees from assignment to assignment on a random basis to
aid in the staff training effort
c. Assigning a number of employees to each engagement in excess of the
number required so as not to overburden the staff and interfere with the
quality of the audit work performed
d. Requiring timely identification of the staffing requirements of specific
engagements so that enough qualified personnel can be made available
The correct answer is: Requiring timely identification of the staffing requirements
of specific engagements so that enough qualified personnel can be made available
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115. The criteria for evaluating quantitative information vary. For example, in the
audit of historical financial statements by CPA firms, the criteria are usually
a. Regulations of the Internal Revenue Service
b. Generally accepted auditing standards
c. Regulations of the Securities and Exchange Commission
d. Generally accepted accounting principles
The correct answer is: Generally accepted accounting principles
116.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The main way(s) to reduce information risk is to have
All of the above
The user share the information risk with management
Audited financial statements provided
The user verify the information
The correct answer is: All of the above
117. In all cases, audit reports must
a. Inform readers of the degree of correspondence between the quantifiable
information and the established criteria
b. Be signed by the individual who performed the audit procedures
c. Certify the accuracy of the quantitative information which was audited
The correct answer is: Inform readers of the degree of correspondence between
the quantifiable information andthe established criteria
118. Within the context of quality control, the primary purpose of continuing
professional education and training activities, is to enable a CPA firm to provide
personnel within the firm with
a. Professional education that is required in order to perform with due
professional care
b. Knowledge required in order to perform a peer review
c. Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and to progress
within the firm
d. Technical training that assures proficiency as an auditor
The correct answer is: Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and
to progress within the firm.
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119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Users of financial statements demand independent audit because
Management relies on the auditor to improve internal control
Users demand assurance that fraud does not exist
Management may not be objective in reporting d
Users expect auditors to correct management errors
The correct answer is: Management may not be objective in reporting
120. The subject matter of an assurance engagement may take many forms,
including
a. All of these
b. Behavior
c. Data
d. Systems and processes
The correct answer is: All of these
121. Which of the following is a correct statement relating to the theoretical
framework of auditing?
a. An audit has a benefit only to the owners
b. The financial data to be audited can be verified
c. Short-term conflicts do not exist between managers who prepare data and
auditors who examine data
d. Auditors do not necessarily need independence
The correct answer is: The financial data to be audited can be verified
122. What is the overriding reason why the auditor considers the professional
competence of assistants whom the work will be delegated?
a. All the audit assistants assigned to an engagement must be
independent in appearance
b. To have reasonable assurance that such work will be performed with
due care by the audit assistant
c. To eliminate audit risk d. To lessen the working paper preparation
The correct answer is: To have reasonable assurance that such work will be
performed with due care by the audit assistant
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123. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Philippine Standards on
Assurance Engagements (PSAE)?
a. It provides basic principles and essential procedures for engagements
intended to provide a moderate level of assurance
b. It provides an overall framework for assurance engagements intended to
provide either a high or moderate level of assurance
c. When a professional accountant is engaged to perform an assurance
engagement for which specific standards exist, those standards apply
d. If no specific standards exist for an assurance engagement, PSAE apply
The correct answer is: It provides basic principles and essential procedures for
engagements intended to provide a moderate level of assurance
124. Competence as a certified public accountant includes all of the following
except
a.
b.
c.
d.
Possessing the ability to supervise and evaluate the quality of staff work b
Having the technical qualifications to perform an engagement
c. Warranting the infallibility of the work performed
d. Consulting others if additional technical information is needed
The correct answer is: Warranting the infallibility of the work performed
125. The auditors must consider materiality in planning an audit engagement.
Materiality for planning purposes is:
a. An amount that cannot be quantitatively stated since it depends on the
nature of the item.
b. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the largest amount of misstatement
that would be material to any one of the client's financial statements.
c. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the amount of misstatement that would
be material to the client's balance sheet.
d. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the smallest amount of misstatement
that would be material to any one of the client's financial statements.
The correct answer is: The auditors' preliminary estimate of the smallest amount
of misstatement that would be material to any one of the client's financial
statements.
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126. The third general standard states due care is to be exercised in the
performance of an audit. This standard is generally interpreted to require
a. Thorough review of the existing internal control structure
b. Objective review of the adequacy of the technical training and proficiency of
firm personnel
c. Critical review of work done at every level of supervision
The correct answer is: Critical review of work done at every level of supervision
127. A requirement that working papers be reviewed by the supervisor, and any
deficiencies be discussed with the preparer is an example of a quality control
procedure in the area of
a. Relevant ethical requirements
b. Acceptance and continuance of
engagements c. Human resources
c. Engagement performance
client
relationships
and
specific
The correct answer is: Engagement performance
128. A CPA is most likely to refer to one or more of the three general auditing
standards in determining
a. Whether the CPA should undertake an audit engagement
b. Requirements for the review of internal control
The correct answer is: Whether the CPA should undertake an audit engagement
129. Which of the following is mandatory if the auditor is to comply with generally
accepted auditing standards?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Use of statistical sampling whenever feasible on an audit engagement
Possession by the auditor of adequate technical training
Confirmation by the auditor of material accounts receivable balances
Use of analytical review on audit engagements
The correct answer is: Possession by the auditor of adequate technical training
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130. A CPA should comply with applicable generally accepted auditing standards
on every engagement
a. Except in examinations of interim financial statements
b. Except in examinations that result in a qualified report
c. Except in engagements where the CPA is associated with unaudited
financial statements
d. Without exception
The correct answer is: Without exception
131.
a.
b.
c.
The standard of due audit care requires the auditor to
Ensure that the financial statements are free from error
Possess skills clearly above the average for the profession
Apply judgment in a conscientious manner, carefully weighing the relevant
factors before reaching a decision
d. Make perfect judgment decisions in all cases
The correct answer is: Apply judgment in a conscientious manner, carefully
weighing the relevant factors before reaching a decision
132. A CPA, while performing an audit, strives to achieve independence in
appearance in order to
a. Maintain public confidence in the profession.
b. Become independent in fact
c. Comply with the generally accepted standards of field work
d. Reduce risk and liability.
The correct answer is: Maintain public confidence in the profession
133. Which of the following relate to skills and competence as an objective of
quality control policies?
a. Advancement
b. Professional development
c. Hiring
d. All of these
The correct answer is: All of these
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134. The firm is to be staffed by personnel who have attained and maintained the
technical standards and professional competence required to enable them to
fulfill their responsibilities with due care is the objective of what quality control
policy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Skills and Competence
Assignment
Delegation
Professional Requirements
The correct answer is: Skills and Competence
135. Which of the following is not required by the Generally Accepted Auditing
Standards that states that due professional care is to be exercised in the
performance of the audit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Critical review of the audit work performed at every level of supervision
Observance of the standards of field work and reporting
Degree of skill commonly possessed by others in the profession
Responsibility for losses because of errors of judgment
The correct answer is: Responsibility for losses because of errors of judgment.
136. An audit performed in accordance with generally accepted auditing
standards generally should
a. Not be relied upon to provide absolute assurance that all illegal acts will be
detected
b. Be relied upon to disclose violations of truth in lending laws
c. Be expected to provide absolute assurance that illegal acts will be detected
where internal control is effective
d. Encompass a plan to actively search for all illegalities which relate to
operating aspects
The correct answer is: Not be relied upon to provide absolute assurance that all
illegal acts will be detected
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137. It involves informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of
the procedures they have to perform
a. Supervision
b. Consultation
c. Directing
d. Monitoring
The correct answer is: Directing
138. The body that issues international pronouncements providing auditing
procedural and reporting guidance is the
a. Multinational Reporting Commission
b. Auditing Standards Board
c. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board
d. International Federation of Auditors
The correct answer is: International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board
139. When the auditors express an opinion on financial statements their
responsibilities extend to:
a. The underlying wisdom of their client's management decisions
b. Active participation in the implementation of the advice given to their client
c. An ongoing responsibility for their client's solvency
d. Whether the results of their client's operating decisions are fairly presented
in the financial statements
The correct answer is: Whether the results of their client's operating decisions are
fairly presented in the financial statements.
140. Which of the following is not an example of a likely adjustment in the
auditors' overall audit approach when significant risk is found to exist?
a. Apply increased professional skepticism about material transactions.
b. Assign personnel with particular skill to areas of high risk.
c. Obtain increased evidence about the appropriateness of management's
selection of accounting principles.
d. Increase the assessed level of detection risk
The correct answer is: Increase the assessed level of detection risk
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141. An auditor is unable to obtain absolute assurance that misstatements due
to fraud will be detected for all of the following except
a. Need to apply professional judgment in evaluating fraud risk factors.
b. Falsified documentation.
c. Professional skepticism.
d. Employee collusion.
The correct answer is: Professional skepticism
142. When issuing an unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit
findings should be satisfied that the
a. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is less than a material amount.
b. Amount of known misstatement is acknowledged and recorded by the client.
c. Estimate of the total likely misstatement includes the adjusting entries
already recorded by the client.
d. Amount of known misstatement is documented in the management
representation letter.
The correct answer is: Estimate of the total likely misstatement is less than a
material amount
143. Holding other planning considerations equal, a decrease in the amount of
misstatement in a class of transactions that an auditor could tolerate most likely
would cause the auditor to
a. Decrease the extent of auditing procedures to be applied to the class of
transactions.
b. Apply the planned substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date.
c. Perform the planned auditing procedures closer to the balance sheet date.
d. Increase the assessed level of control risk for relevant financial statement
assertions.
The correct answer is: Perform the planned auditing procedures closer to the
balance sheet date
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144. The risk of a material misstatement occurring in an account, assuming an
absence of internal control, is referred to as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
. a. Detection risk.
Control risk.
Inherent risk.
Account risk.
The correct answer is: Inherent risk
145. Which of the following nonfinancial information would an auditor most likely
consider in performing analytical procedures during the planning phase of an
audit?
a. Objectivity of audit committee members.
b. Square footage of selling space.
c. Turnover of personnel in the accounting department.
The correct answer is: Square footage of selling space.
146. An auditor who accepts an audit engagement and does not possess the
industry expertise of the business entity, should:
a. First inform management that an unqualified opinion cannot be issued.
b. Obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of the entity's
business.
c. Engage financial experts familiar with the nature of the business entity.
d. Refer a substantial portion of the audit to another CPA who will act as the
principal auditor.
The correct answer is: Obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of
the entity's business.
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147. If the business environment is experiencing a recession, the auditor most likely
would focus increased attention on which of the following accounts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Allowance for doubtful accounts.
Purchase returns and allowances.
Common stock.
Noncontrolling interest of a subsidiary purchased during the year.
The correct answer is: Allowance for doubtful accounts
148. An auditor should design the written audit program so that
a. Each account balance will be tested under either test of controls or tests of
transactions.
b. The audit procedures selected will achieve specific audit objectives.
c. All material transactions will be selected for substantive testing.
d. Substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date will be minimized.
The correct answer is: The audit procedures selected will achieve specific audit
objectives.
149. While assessing the risks of material misstatement auditors identify risks, relate
risk to what could go wrong, consider the magnitude of risks and
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assess the risk of misstatements due to illegal acts.
Determine materiality levels.
Consider the likelihood that the risks could result in material misstatements.
Consider the complexity of the transactions involved.
The correct answer is: Consider the likelihood that the risks could result in material
misstatements
150. Tracing from source documents forward to ledgers is most likely to address which
assertion related to posted entries:
a. Valuation.
b. Existence.
c. Rights.
d. Completeness.
The correct answer is: Completeness
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151. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform in
planning a financial statement audit?
a. Comparing the financial statements to anticipated results.
b. Searching for unauthorized transactions that may aid in detecting
unrecorded liabilities.
c. Examining computer generated exception reports to verify the effectiveness
of internal control.
The correct answer is: Comparing the financial statements to anticipated results.
152. Which of the following elements underlies the application of generally
accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of fieldwork and
reporting?
a. Internal control.
b. Corroborating evidence.
c. Quality control.
d. Materiality and relative risk.
The correct answer is: Materiality and relative risk
153. On the basis of the audit evidence gathered and evaluated, an auditor
decides to increase the assessed l level of control risk from that originally
planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as
the planned audit risk level, the auditor would
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decrease detection risk.
Decrease substantive testing.
Increase inherent risk.
Increase materiality levels.
The correct answer is: Decrease detection risk
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