SAS#1
1. These are primary goals of maternal and child health nursing except:
A. Provision of nursing care of women throughout pregnancy, birth, and postpartum period
B. Provision of nursing care of children from birth through adolescence
C. Provision of quality education
D. Provision of nursing care to families in all settings
2. Maternal and child health nursing is:
A. Patient-centered
B. Family-centered
C. Evidence-based
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
3. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?
A. Improve maternal health
B. Enhance child mortality
C. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
D. Combat HIV, AIDS, malaria and other diseases
4. Which of the Millennium Development Goals does this graphic image represent?
A. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
B. Improve maternal health
C. Combat HIV, AIDS, malaria and other diseases
D. Achieve universal primary education
5. Fill in the blank. MDG6 is to combat HIV-AIDS, __________ and other diseases
A. Tuberculosis
B. Malaria
C. Diarrhea
D. Cholera
6. Group of people who choose to live together as an extended family and their relationship is motivated by
social or religious rather than kinship
A. Nuclear family
B. Communal Family
C. Adoptive Family
D. Multigenerational family
7. The family that loosens ties to allow freedom and prepares the children to lead their own lives is in the life
cycle stage of:
A. Stage 8: The Family in Retirement or Old Age
B. Stage 5: The Family with an Adolescent
C. Stage 5: The Family of Middle Years
D. Stage 6: The Launching Stage Family
8. The family task that helps maintain a sense of unity and pride in the family is:
A. socialization of family members
B. maintenance of order
C. division of labor
D. motivation and morale
9. <Empty Nest Syndrome= is:
A. When young adults return home to live with their family after college or a failed relationship until they can afford
their own apartment or form a new relationship.
B. A family that is squeezed into taking care of both aging parents and a returning young adult .
C. A feeling of boredom or grief and loneliness parents may feel when their children leave home for the first time,
such as to live on their own or to form families of their own
D. All of the above
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10. The family is:
A. A group of people related by blood, marriage, or adoption living together.
B. Two or more people who live in the same household (usually), share a common emotional bond, and perform
certain interrelated social tasks
C. A couple perhaps with children who live together but remain unmarried
D. A and B
E. All of the above
11. What type of family does this image represent?
A. Multigenerational Family
B. Nuclear Family
C. Single-Parent Family
D. LGBT Family
12. The stage in the family life cycle wherein the nurse serves as a counsellor to a family with teenagers, a step
in family growth:
A. Family with an adolescent
B. Family with young adult
C. Family in the middle years
D. Family with a Preschool child
13. A Family assessment tool that consists of a Diagram of family history
A. EcoMap
B. Genogram
C. Family APGAR
D. A and B
E. A and C
14. The family task that establishes family rules and regulations:
A. Physical maintenance
B. Reproduction, recruitment and release of family members
C. Allocation of resources
D. Maintenance of order
15. It refers to the family one is born into (e.g., oneself, mother, father, and siblings, if any)
A. Family of Orientation
B. Family of Procreation
C. Nuclear family
D. Adoptive family
SAS#2
1. Which term refers to the externally visible structures of the female reproductive system extending from the
symphysis pubis to the perineum?
A. Mons pubis
B. Vulva
C. Labia majora
D. Clitoris
2. Which principal factors causes vaginal pH to be acidic?
A. Cervical mucus
B. Secretions from the Skene?s glands
C. The action of Doderlein bacilli on the vagina
D. Secretions from the Bartholin?s glands
3. This is the period of life at which no functioning oocytes or ova remain in the uterus
A. Puberty
B. Andropause
C. Menarche
D. Menopause
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4. These are structures located bilateral to the urinary meatus of females and serve to lubricate the external
genitalia and protect the sperm
A. Prostate gland
B. Cowper?s gland
C. Bartholin?s gland
D. Skene’s Gland
5. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red, swollen area on the right side of the client ’s
orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of the following?
A. Clitoris
B. Parotid Gland
C. Skene?s Gland
D. Bartholin’s Gland
6. Which of the following is not a function of the vagina?
A. It receives the penis during intercourse
B. It houses the products of conception
C. It is the passageway for menstrual discharges
D. It is part of the birth canal during delivery
7. All are functions of the oviduct, EXCEPT:
A. Transports ovum from the ovary to the uterus
B. The site of fertilization
C. Responsible for oogenesis
D. Provides nourishment to the ovum during its journey
8. It is a long, tightly coiled tube about 20 feet long which is the site of spermatozoa maturation
A. Epididymis
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Vas deferens
D. Seminiferous tubules
9. The basal body temperature drops slightly before ovulation and rises by 1F after ovulation. This change in
the temperature is due to the influence of what hormone?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Luteinizing Hormone
10. These are oval-shaped glands lying within the scrotal sacs and are considered as the male gonads
A. Testes
B. Prostate gland
C. Ovary
D. Ejaculatory duct
SAS#3
1. It is the endocrine gland responsible for secreting gonadotropin releasing hormone in response to low levels
of estrogen and progesterone Mons pubis
A. Ovary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior Pituitary Gland
D. Posterior Pituitary Gland
2. The basal body temperature drops slightly before ovulation and rises by 1F after ovulation. This change in the
temperature is due to the influence of what hormone?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone
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3. Which of the following hormones stimulates the ovary to produce estrogen during the menstrual cycle?
A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
B. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
C. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
D. Progesterone
4. It is the phase in the uterine cycle wherein the uterus will thicken, glands become corkscrew and capillaries
form:
A. Menstrual Phase
B. Proliferative Phase
C. Secretory Phase
D. Ischemic Phase
5. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation generally occurs at which of the following time?
A. 7 days after the last day of menstruation
B. 14 days after the last day of menstrual cycle
C. 14 days before the beginning of the next menstrual cycle
D. 14 days after the last day of menstrual flow
6. The menstrual cycle prepares the uterus for pregnancy. When pregnancy does not occur, which of the
following phenomena will follow?
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilization
C. Nidation or Implantation
D. Menstruation
7. Once a month, from puberty until menopause, a Graafian follicle ruptures and expels a mature ovum. This
process is called:
A. Menstruation
B. Fertilization
C. Ovulation
D. Nidation
8. Which of the following is not a function of progesterone?
A. It prepares the endometrium for pregnancy
B. It is responsible for the development of distinctive female characteristics
C. It maintains the endometrium during pregnancy
D. It is responsible for the growth and development of acinar cells of the mammary gland
9. An adolescent client asked what body structure is responsible for the production of Follicle Stimulating
Hormone (FSH). Your appropriate response is:
A. Testes
B. Hypothalamus
C. Ovary
D. Anterior Pituitary Gland
10. The increased activity of the endometrial glands during the luteal phase of the female reproductive cycle is
stimulated by:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Prolactin
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
SAS#4
1. Which of the following couples would benefit most from genetic counseling?
A. Tom, age 50, and Alice age 42, who have discovered they are going to have a baby
B. Mel & Rose, who have just had a child with cystic fibrosis
C. Jon and Jan, who want to have a male child
D. Leo, who has hemophilia, and Sara, married for a year and want to have a child
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2. The genetic disorder does not occur unless 2 genes for the disease are present
A. Heterozygous Dominant
B. Heterozygous Recessive
C. Homozygous Dominant
D. Homozygous Recessive
3. It refers to a person’s actual genetic composition
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genome
D. Karyotype
4. All are typical symptoms of Down syndrome (Trisomy 21), EXCEPT:
A. Brushfield spots
B. Simian crease
C. weak, shrill cry
D. short palpebral fissure
5. This is a type of disorder that has the ability to be passed from 1 generation to another:
A. Lifestyle Disorder
B. Degenerative Disorder
C. Idiopathic Disorder
D. Genetic Disorder
7. When paired with other genes, this gene is always expressed:
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Autosomal
D. X-linked
8. What is the most appropriate role for the nurse involved in genetic counseling?
A. Assess the options available to a couple and select the best ones to present for the couple to choose from.
B. Instruct the couple on the need for an immediate abortion if both parents have the trait for a dominant disease.
C. Limit the information provided to the couple about the genetic defect to avoid influencing their decision.
D. Inform the couple of the procedures they may undergo in genetic screening and in genetic counseling.
9. To determine if a disorder occurred by chance or is carried by family members, the nurse should collect which
of the following data?
A. Complete family history of infant deaths or abnormalities
B. Prenatal history of nausea and reports of ankle edema in the third trimester
C. History of the couple?s sexual pattern during the time of conception
D. Physical assessment of the infant?s eye and hair color
10. If blonde hair color is a recessive trait and one parent is heterozygous for the trait and the other parent is
heterozygous for the trait, what ae the chances that their offspring will have blonde hair?
A. 25% (one in four)
B 50% (two in four)
C. 75% (three in four)
D. 100% (four in four)
SAS#5
1. Which is an example of a culture-specific value or norm?
A. The expectation that communication between the woman and the healthcare provider will be understood by both
parties
B. The expectation to have only the spouse present during the delivery
C. The desire to have healthy family communication
D. The desire for the family to have enough basic necessities in life
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2. In performing a family assessment, what is the best way to handle the situation of an English-speaking
healthcare provider and parents who do not speak English?
A. Assure that a translator from the healthcare organization is present
B. Enlist the help of a neighbor visiting the home who speaks English
C. Ask the oldest child in the family who has learned English to translate
D. Ask the family to bring a friend who speaks English with them for the next visit.
3. The nurse is assessing a laboring woman for pain. Which is most important for the nurse to remember?
A. Pain threshold sensation can vary widely from one culture to another
B. Communication of pain is acceptable in all cultures, so she will readily tell you if she is in pain.
C. Ways of expressing pain is fairly universal
D. Use of a 0 (no pain) to 10 (the most pain) scale is an objective way of assessing pain.
4. Which of the following phrases best describes assimilation as related to sociocultural differences?
A. An adoption of the most dominant culture’s values and influences
B. A loss of cultural expression as the customs of a dominant culture are taken on
C. A family tradition practiced in future generations
D. Placement of <labels= placed on groups of people according to their ethnic backgrounds
5. You overhear a group of nurses talking. One of the group states, <Men are never any good at diapering
babies.= You interpret this as an example of
A. Discrimination
B. Stereotyping
C. Acculturation
D. Ethnocentrism
6. In the 1800’s, large numbers of immigrants came to the U.S. from many different countries and gave up their
native country’s traditions and values. Which of the following is the common explanation for the actions of these
immigrants?
A. The immigrants found the American culture and beliefs to be equal or superior to their own
B. The immigrants feared the Americans and participated in the American culture to avoid cruelty and punishment
C. The immigrants joined the giant American <melting pot.=
D. Immigrants who did not take on the American culture were placed in lower socioeconomic groups.
7. It is the care of patients that is guided by cultural aspects and respects individual dif ferences.
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Transcultural Nursing
C. Ethnicity
D. Stereotyping.
8. It is the Individual perception that one’s own culture is superior to all others
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Transcultural Nursing
C. Ethnicity
D. Stereotyping
9. Sarah, a 14-year-old female, openly declares that she is attracted to Jenna, a 17-year-old female. Sarah can be
classified as:
A. Heterosexual
B. Asexual
C. Lesbian
D. Gay
10. This refers to a person’ s deeply felt internal and individual experience of gender, which may or may not
correspond with the sex assigned at birth
A. Sex
B. Sex role
C. Gender identity
D. Gender expression
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SAS#6
1.Conception occurs in the fallopian tube, the most common site of which is the:
A. Ampulla
B. Fundus
C. Uterine isthmus
D. Corpus
2. The most common site of implantation is which part of the uterus?
A. Uterine fundus, posterior portion
B. Uterine isthmus
C. Uterine corpus
D. Outer portion of the uterine tube
3. The period from two weeks to two months following fertilization is the stage of the:
A. Fetus
B. Ovum
C. Embryo
D. Neonate
4. The following characteristics are true of the male gamete sperm except:
A. lifespan: 72 hours
B. with 23 chromosomes, 22 autosomes and a Y sex chromosome
C. produced by the testes
D. has 2 types: androsperm carries the Y-sex chromosome and the gynosperm which carries the X-sex
chromosome
5. Callie, 18 years of age, asks how much longer her nurse will refer to the baby inside her as an embryo. The
nurse is correct in saying that the conceptus is classified as an embryo:
A. At the time of fertilization
B. When the placenta forms
C. From implantation until 20 weeks
D. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks
6. The pregnant client during the first trimester is susceptible to teratogens because it is the period of
organogenesis. If she was exposed to a teratogen with affinity for the ectoderm primary germ layer, the organs
listed below might be affected, EXCEPT:
A. Brain
B. ears (sense of hearing)
C. cataracts
D. heart
7. Arianna tells the nurse that she is worried her baby will be born with a congenital heart disease. What
assessment of the umbilical cord at birth would be most important to detect congenital heart defects?
A. Assessing whether the ph of the Wharton?s jelly is higher than 7.2
B. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has 2 arteries and 1 vein
C. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain it is longer than 3 feet
D. Determining that the umbilical cord is neither green nor yellow stained
8. Karla asks why her nurse is concerned whether the lungs of her fetus are producing surfactant. The nurse ’s
best answer would be:
A. <Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at birth, so it aids newborn breathing. =
B. <Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver; so its presence reveals liver maturity. =
C. <Surfactant is necessary for antibody production, so it helps prevent infection. =
D. <Surfactant reveals mature kidney function, as it is important for fetal growth. =
9. Which of the following statements is not true about the placenta?
A. It provides exchange of wastes and nutrients between the mother and the fetus.
B. It develops by the third month of gestation.
C. It allows transfer of maternal immunoglobulin
D. It allows passage of bacteria and virus.
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10. Which of the following are correct about the amniotic fluid EXCEPT?
A. The normal volume at the end of pregnancy is 800 to 1200 ml
B. It surrounds, cushions and protects the fetus and allows for fetal movement.
C. It maintains the body temperature of the fetus.
D. The pH of amniotic fluid is acidic, below 7.0
SAS#7
1. Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy?
A. Accepting the pregnancy
B. Accepting a coming child
C. Making plans for the baby
D. Sharing time with a significant other
2. As a pregnant woman lies on the examining table, she grows very short of breath and dizzy. The nurse
recognizes which as the probable cause
A. Her cerebral arteries are growing congested with blood.
B. The uterus requires more blood in a supine position.
C, Blood is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position.
D. Sympathetic nerve responses cause dyspnea when a woman lies supine.
3. Blood volume normally increases during pregnancy. The extent of this increase is what percentage of pre pregnancy volume?
A. 1% to 10%
B. 20% to 30%
C. 30% to 50%
D. 70% to 90%
4. A woman during her first trimester questions how much longer she will have urinary frequency. Which should
the nurse advise her regarding urinary frequency?
A. It is a common complaint during the first trimester and again later in the third trimester.
B. It is a common concern reported during the entire pregnancy.
C. It will subside after the first trimester.
D. It is a concern until the last trimester of pregnancy.
5.Which of the following assessment data is a most accurate indication that a woman is pregnant?
A. A positive pregnancy test
B. Presence of fetal heartbeat
C. Absence of menstruation
D. Quickening
6. The nurse performs an assessment of a primigravida who is on her second trimester. Which of the following
findings should be reported by the nurse to the physician?
A. Consistent increase in fundal height
B. Braxton Hicks contractions
C. Fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
D. Bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes of the vagina, vulva and the cervix
7. Which is the following measures assist in reducing breast tenderness?
A. Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry.
B. Avoid wearing bra
C. Wash the nipples and the areola with soap and water.
D. Wear tight-fitting clothes to support the breasts.
8. The pregnant patient informs the nurse that she has been having leg cramps. Which if the following
exercises should be recommended by the nurse?
A. Pelvic rocking and abdominal breathing exercises
B. Squatting exercises
C. Tailor-sitting exercises
D. Dorsiflexing the feet with the legs extended.
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9. Which of the following assessments of the pregnant woman indicates a danger sign?
A. An increase in urinary output
B. Blood pressure reading is 140/90 mm Hg
C. Dependent edema is 1+
D. The patient complains of headache and blurred vision
10. A primigravid client at 37 weeks’ gestation tells you, <My lower back has really been bothering me lately.=
Which of these exercises would be most helpful?
A. Tailor sitting
B. Pelvic rocking
C. Squatting
D. Dep breathing
SAS#8
1. Raisa is scheduled to have an ultrasound examination. To ensure that she understands and is prepared for
the procedure, what instruction should the nurse give her?
A. <Use the restroom immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.=
B. <The intravenous fluid used to dilate your uterus will not harm the baby. =
C. <You will need to drink at least 3 glasses of water before the procedure. =
D. <You can have the medicine for the pain of any contractions caused by the test. =
2. Nina is scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. What instruction is best to give her
prior to the procedure?
A. <Void immediately before the procedure to reduce the size of your bladder. =
B. <The X-ray that will be used to reveal the fetal position will have no long-term fetal effects.=
C. <The IV fluid that is used to dilate your uterus is isotonic saline so it will not hurt your fetus. =
D. <Your fetus will have less amniotic fluid for the rest of pregnancy.==
3. The client will undergo maternal serum-alphafetoprotein (MSAFP) determination. Which of the following
specimens are required?
A. Maternal blood sample
B. Blood from the chorionic villi
C. Amniotic fluid
D. Cervical secretions
4. The nurse is performing Leopold’s Maneuver. During the first maneuver, the fetal part palpated is hard, round
and movable. The nurse concludes that the fetal presentation is:
A. Cephalic
B. Breech
C. Shoulder
D. Footling
5. Which of the following statements are correct about amniotic fluid?
A. The normal volume by the end of pregnancy is from 800 to 1200.
B. It surrounds, cushions and protects the fetus and allows for fetal movement
C. It maintains the body temperature of the fetus
D. The pH of the amniotic fluid is acidic, below 7.0
6. The nurse measures the fundal height of a client who is at her 20th week of pregnancy. The nurse expects to
note uterine height to be
A. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
B. At the level of the umbilicus
C. At the level of the xiphoid process
D. Slightly below the xiphoid process
7. Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing a Non-stress test to a pregnant client?
A. To determine fetal well-being
B. To see if the fetus can handle the stress of labor and that medicine is given to make the uterus contract.
C. To assess slowing of fetal heart rate during uterine contractions
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D. To count the fetal kicks for a period of time.
8. Which of the following nursing actions is not included when fetal kick counts will be done to a pregnant client.
A. Instruct the patient to sit or lie down on her side and count fetal kicks for a period of time.
B. Instruct the patient to report to the nurse or physician if there are fewer than 10 kicks in a 12-hour period
C. Secure written consent from the patient before the procedure.
D. Tell the patient that a hard, round, plastic disk called an ultrasound transducer picks up and marks and marks the
fetal heart activity on the paper and is secured over the abdomen.
9. During the prenatal visit, the nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. Which of the following rates in bpm is an
expected outcome?
A. 60 to 100
B. 100 to 140
C. 120 to 160
D. 170 to 190
10. After a non-stress test is completed, the nurse is looking at the results on a test strip. The nurse observes
that the fetal heart accelerated 15 bpm for every movement. The accelerations lasted 20 seconds and occurred 3
times during the 20-minute test. The nurse is correct in interpreting the test as a:
A. reactive
B. Non-reactive
C. Positive
D. Negative
SAS#9
1. What lunar month is considered the age of gestation when sex (gender) of the fetus can be determined?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fifth
D. Fourth
2. At what age of gestation does bone ossification centers starts forming?
A. 4th week
B. 8th week
C. 12th week
D. 16th week
3. At what age of gestation can you recommend the mother to play classical music for the fetus?
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
4. What is the fetal structure that serves as a bypass or shunt connecting the left and right atria of the heart?
A. Ductus venosus
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. umbilical arteries
5. The clinical instructor is having a discussion with her students on fetal circulation. Which of the following
statements indicate understanding of the umbilical cord?
A. <The umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein.=
B. <The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and two veins. =
C. <The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and one vein. =
D. <The umbilical cord is composed of two veins. =
6. After 35 weeks’ gestation, fetal lung maturity is signified by a rise in the level of which surfactant?
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Lecithin
C. Alphafetoprotein
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D. Estriol
7. During a scheduled prenatal visit, primigravid Viola asks, <How does my baby breathe inside me?= The nurse
responds by explaining the fetal circulation, stating that circulation of oxygenated blood begins with which of the
following?
A. Umbilical Vein
B. Ductus venosus
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Umbilical arteries
8. To be able to hear the fetal heart tone as early as 14 weeks of gestation, the nurse should use a:
A. Fetoscope
B. Doppler device
C. Stethoscope
D. Internal fetal monitor
9. An obstetric client at 8 weeks’ gestation asked the nurse if her heart is already beating at this time. The
correct answer of the nurse is that:
A. Fetal heartbeat can first be heard at 12 weeks? gestation using a Doppler.
B. They have to perform an ultrasound to see if her baby?s heart is beating.
C. Fetal heart beats as early as one month.
D. At this time, the signs and symptoms of pregnancy that she experiences are the indicators that her baby is alive
10. Fetal structure that carries blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava:
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
D. Aorta
SAS#10
1. Hazel Cruz makes the following statements. Which one would the nurse rate as the safest practice?
A. <My brother takes medicine for heartburn. If I feel the need, I can borrow his. =
B. <I?m going to get a rubella vaccine. I don?t want rubella while I?m pregnant.=
C. <There are so many medicines for headache. I’ll ask my doctor what to take.=
D. <I know all over-the-counter medicine is safe; that?s why it?s over the counter.=
2. Mr. and Mrs. Dela Cruz visit the RHU and ask about the effects of teratogens on future pregnancies. Which
statement is inaccurate concerning the effects of teratogens?
A. Teratogens are equally harmful to each fetal system throughout pregnancy.
B. Fetal susceptibility to teratogens vary.
C. Teratogens are not equal in terms of their toxicity or their ability to cause harm.
D. The amount of teratogens and the duration of exposure influence the extent of fetal damage that occurs.
3. This substance is secreted by the growing fetus and is found in the amniotic fluid and maternal serum. It is
measured and used in detecting neural tube defects.
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
D. Luteinizing hormone
4. An adolescent primigravida who is 8 weeks pregnant asks you, <How much alcohol is safe to drink during
pregnancy?= Which of the following is your best response?
A. Up to 3 oz. daily
B. No alcohol
C. Social drinking only
D. Up to 0.5 oz. daily
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5. Of the following conditions, the one recognized as a known teratogen is:
A. coronary heart disease.
B. smoking.
C. scarlet fever
D. German measles
6. A primigravida, Mrs. Jose, tests positive for hepatitis B virus. The nurse determines that Mrs. Jose
understands about this infection when she says:
A. <I am glad I won?t transfer the virus to my baby.=
B. <I understand that my baby will stay in the nursery for a month. =
C. <So, my baby will receive eye prophylaxis to prevent blindness. =
D. <I am so glad I can breastfeed my baby after he has been vaccinated with immune serum globulin. =
7. In planning the care of a pregnant client with Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection, the clinic nurse would
include which of the following measures in the nursing care plan?
A. Sitz bath TID
B. Daily administration of Acyclovir (Zovirax) to effect cure.
C. Total abstinence from sexual intercourse
D. Preparation for a C-section if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor.
8. In early pregnancy, a serology test for syphilis is given to pregnant women. The nurse explains to the client
that the reason for this is:
A. The hormonal changes of pregnancy causes an exacerbation of latent syphilis
B. Syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4 months
C. The law requires the serology test for all pregnant women
D. syphilis may be passed to the infant during delivery and cause congenital syphilis
9. Which of the following interventions, if selected by the nurse, is appropriate for a pregnant client with AIDS
with the following nursing diagnosis of High Risk for Infection?
A. Offer spiritual support if desired
B. Enforce total bedrest
C. Provide information on safe sex practices
D. Administer ferrous sulfate
10. It is a protozoan infection spread through contact with cat stool, most commonly spread via contact with
uncooked meat.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Rubella
D. Herpes simplex virus
SAS#11
1. The exact cause of labor is unknown. Some of these theories that explain labor onset include:
A. Decreased estrogen level
B. Uterine stretch
C. Increased progesterone level
D. Oxytocin theory
2. The nurse should teach pregnant women the importance of conserving the <spurt= before labor because:
A. Fatigue may influence the need for pain medications
B. Energy helps to increase the progesterone level
C. Energy is needed to push during the first stage of labor
D. This energy will decrease the intensity of the uterine contractions
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3. Nurse Amy is teaching a small group of pregnant women who are in the third trimester. During the open
forum, Myrna, pregnant for the first time asks how she would know if labor is near. Nurse Amy’s response
should include the following EXCEPT:
A. weight gain and edema
B. decreased dyspnea, increased leg varicosities and frequency of voiding
C. lightening around 2 weeks before labor
D. increased maternal activity and abdominal muscle tightening
4. The nurse evaluates Mrs. Yap for true signs of labor, which include:
1. Uterine discomfort starting at the back radiating to the abdomen
2. cervical effacement and dilatation
3. Uterine contractions increasing in interval and decreasing in duration
4. Rupture of the bag of waters and passage of vaginal bleeding
A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 4
C. 2 & 3
D. 2 & 4
5. Which of the following assessment findings will confirm spontaneous rupture of membranes?
A. Negative ferning
B. Absence of fluid pooling at the cervix
C. Pain with fluid gushing
D. Bright blue nitrazine paper
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of Braxton Hicks contractions?
A. Primarily felt in the back
B. Irregular pattern?
C. Can be increased with activity and changing position
D. Moderate to strong intensity
7. The nurse is giving information on the difference between true and false labor to a gravida 1 patient who is
in her third trimester. Which of the following statements when made by the patient indicates that she
understands the sign of true labor.
A. <I will be in labor once the baby engages.=
B. <My contractions will be felt in the abdominal area. =
C. <My contractions will occur regularly, become stronger, last longer and may occur closer together. =
D. <My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around. =
8. The nurse is aware that a client at 40 weeks’ gestation is experiencing true labor if:
A. Cervical dilatation has occurred
B. Her membranes have ruptured
C. The pains become more noticeable.
D. The fetal heart rate baseline decreases
9. A client at 39 weeks’ gestation reports that she thinks her membranes have ruptured. When confirming it
the nurse should:
A. Test the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper and observe the color changes
B. Take the client?s temperature because ruptured membranes predispose to infection
C. Avoid performing vaginal inspection to prevent introduction of microorganisms
D. Have the client provide a clean catch urine specimen
10. All of the following are true to False Labor, EXCEPT:
A. Begin & remain irregular
B. Felt 1st abdominally & remain confined to the abdomen & groin
C. Often disappear with ambulation & sleep
D. Achieve cervical dilatation
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SAS#12
Which of the following factors affecting labor is associated with passageway?
A. Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to the maternal pelvis
B. The presentation of the fetus in relation to the maternal pelvis
C. The structure of the maternal pelvis
D. The frequency, duration and strength of the contraction
2. Which of the following pelvis is round in shape, the most common type of pelvis among females and allows
fetus to pass with ease?
A. Anthropoid
B. Gynecoid
C. Platypelloid
D. Android
3. Which of the following diameters will pose a problem for vaginal delivery?
A. True conjugate 11.5 cm or greater
B. Transverse diameter of inlet less than 12 cm.
C. Oblique diameter of the inlet is 12.7 cm or greater
D. Anteroposterior diameter of the outlet is 11.7 or greater
4. It is the measurement between the anterior surface of the sacral prominence (sacral promontory) and the
posterior surface (inferior margin) of the symphysis pubis
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. True conjugate
D. Bi-ischial conjugate
5. It refers to the route a fetus must travel from the uterus through the cervix & vagina to the external perineum
A. Passageway
B. Passenger
C. Powers
D. Psyche
6. It is the upper half of the pelvis which supports the uterus during the late months of pregnancy & aids in
directing the fetus into the true pelvis for birth
A. Inlet
B. Outlet
C. False pelvis
D. True pelvis
7. It is a landmark of the midpelvis and is important for determining engagement
A. symphysis pubis
B. iliac crest
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Ischial spines
8. These are functions of the pelvis except:
A. Support & protect the reproductive & other pelvic organs
B. Accommodation of the growing fetus
C. Anchorage of the pelvic support structures
D. Nourishment of the growing fetus
9. It is a the most reliable measurement of the outlet
A. Bi-ischial diameter
B. Diagonal conjugate
C. Obstetric conjugate
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D. True conjugate
10. It is the condition where the fetal head cannot fit into the diameters of the maternal pelvis; thus, necessitating
a C-section
A. Dystocia
B. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
C. False labor
D. second stage arrest
SAS#13
1. Which of the following attitudes refers to the <military= position?
A. Partial extension
B. Complete extension
C. Moderate flexion
D. Complete flexion
2. The nurse is reviewing the record of the patient in the labor room and notes that the fetus is in +2 station. The
nurse notes that the fetal presenting part is:
A. 2 cm above the ischial spine
B. 2 cm below the ischial spine
C. 2 inches below the ischial spine
D. 2 inches above the ischial spine
3. Which of the following measurements indicates that the fetal presenting part is engaged?
A. -2
B. 0
C. +2
D +4
4. Which of the following is an essential intrapartum fetal assessment?
A. Determination of the duration, frequency and intensity of contractions
B. Inspection of the maternal abdomen to determine lie
C. Examination of the vagina to assess effacement and cervical dilatation
D. Evaluation of the mother to determine knowledge about childbirth education.
5.The woman is in active labor. The position of the fetus is left occiput posterior. Which of the following
measures should be included when caring for the patient?
A. Provide food and fluids
B. assist the client to ambulate
C. Provide back massage
D. Allow the client to sleep.
6. When describing fetal position, the first letter in the series denotes:
A. Presenting part of the fetus
B. Side of the maternal pelvis
C. Size of the maternal pelvis
D. Type of fetal delivery
7. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which position with a face presentation?
A Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially flexed
D. Partially extended
8. With a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate to be most
audible in which of the following areas?
A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline
B. In the lower left maternal abdominal quadrant
C. In the lower right maternal abdominal quadrant
D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline
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9. When assisting a client in labor whose fetus is in breech presentation, it is important to assess initially for:
A. meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B. presence of early decelerations
C. cord prolapse right after rupture of membranes
D. cervical dilatation
10.At ultrasound, it was known that presentation was breech. The doctor will perform external cephalic version.
The client asked what a cephalic version is. What is the response of the nurse??
A. Apply fundal pressure
B. Prepare for an assisted forceps delivery
C. Obtain an order for oxytocin
D. Flex the client?s legs sharply against her abdomen
SAS#14
1. Which of the characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
A. Occurring at regular intervals
B. Starting mainly in the abdomen
C. Gradually increasing intervals
D. Increasing intensity with walking
2. When assessing frequency of contractions, the nurse should assess intervals of which of the following:
A. acme on one contraction to the beginning of the next
B. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the next
C. end of one contraction to the end of the next
D. beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
3. The partner of a woman in labor is having difficulty timing the frequency of contractions and asks the nurse to
review the procedure. The nurse instructs the partner to note the time from the:
A. End of one contraction to the beginning of the next
B. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the next
C. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
D. Beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
4. A woman who is having contractions is concerned whether she is in labor or not. She states, <How will you
know if I already am in labor?
A. A bloody show is rare with false labor
B. fetal movement is decreased in true labor
C. The cervix dilates and effaces in true labor
D. The membranes rupture when true labor begins
5.The head nurse checks for labor contractions in the monitoring sheet of Mrs. Lyra, who is in the active phase of
labor. Entered data include: <8 a.m.: contraction, moderate, lasts 45 sec.; 8:05 a.m. contraction, moderate, lasts
45 sec.= based on these data, what is Mrs. Lyra’s interval of contractions?
A. 45 secs.
B. every 5 minutes
C. 4 minutes 5 seconds
D. 30 seconds
6. What is the best position to assume by a low-risk parturient who is in early labor?
A. Supine
B. Lithotomy
C. Left lateral recumbent
D. Squatting
7. The decision is made to encourage a woman in early labor to ambulate around the unit fpr a while then to
reassess her status. What assessment distinguishes between true and false labor?
A. confirmation of spontaneous rupture of membranes
B. signs and symptoms of increasing discomfort
C. evidence of cervical dilatation
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D. presence of copious bloody vaginal discharge
8. The position that the nurse teaches the cl ient to avoid when experiencing back pain during labor would be
the:
A. Sitting position
B. Supine position
C. Right lateral position
D. Left-side-lying position
9. Which of the following is not true regarding duration of uterine contractions?
A. Duration of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B. Duration decreases as labor progresses
C. Duration increases as labor progresses
D. Duration should not exceed 70 seconds
10. When assessing a laboring woman’s uterine contractions, it is important for the nurse to:
A. Ask the client when her contractions started and how long they are occurring
B. Place the fingertips of one hand over the fundus pressing gently to measure uterine contractions
C. Use an electronic monitor to measure uterine contractions
D. Place client in dorsal recumbent position and perform Leopold?s maneuver
SAS#15
1. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements can occur?
A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation
2. After the baby’s head extends, which of these actions should be carried out first?
A. Suction the nose, then the mouth
B. Feel the nape for any cord coil
C. Promote internal rotation of the head
D. Stimulate cry
3. The cardinal movements of labor in proper sequence are:
A. Engagement, internal rotation, external rotation, expulsion and flexion
B. Engagement, descent, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
C. Extension, internal rotation, external rotation and expulsion
D. Expulsion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
4. Which of the following mechanisms of labor occurs when the widest diameter of the presenting part has
passed the pelvic inlet and usually corresponds to a 0 station?
A. Engagement
B. Restitution
C. Flexion
D. Descent
5.What is the physiologic advantage derived by flexion of the fetal head during labor?
A. Head presents the smallest diameter for delivery
B. Head is able to exert greater pressure against the cervix
C. Perineal pressure is less likely to be obstructed by secretions
D. Fetal nose and mouth are less likely to be obstructed by secretions
6. When crowning is observed during labor, you would take which of the following actions?
A. Position the woman on her left side
B. Have the woman hold her breath and push
C. Encourage the woman to pant
D. Prepare the woman to be transferred to the delivery room
7. The landmark used in determining station is:
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A. Ischial promontory
B. Ischial spine
C. Ischial tuberosity
D. Ischial prominence
8. Which would be appropriate teaching about the force that propels the fetus through the vagina during labor?
A. It is a combination of fundal and abdominal pressures.
B. Mainly gravitational from the superior fetal lie.
C. It is cervical contractions beginning with full dilation.
D. It is abdominal and perineal muscle contractions
9. It refers to the relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to the level of the ischial spines
A. Descent
B. Extension
C. Internal Rotation
D. Engagement
10. INTERNAL ROTATION begins:
A. at the level of the ischial tuberosity
B. Below the ischial spines
C. Within the false pelvis
D. At the level of the outlet
SAS#16
1. The pregnant client is in the latent phase of labor. Which of the following findings characterize this stage of
labor?
A. The client is helpless and restless
B. The client feels out of control
C. The client feels talkative and eager
D. The client is tired and anxious
2. During the transition phase of the first stage of labor, which of the following occurs?
A. Irregular short contractions
B. Feeling the urge to push
C. Onset of the first contractions
D. Cervical dilatation of 4 to 7 cm
3. Which of the following signs indicate that the placenta has separated and is ready to be delivered?
A. Sudden gush of vaginal fluid
B. Globular and irregular uterine shape
C. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
D. Cessation of contractions
4. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate that a patient in labor has progressed to the second stage
of labor?
A. The cervix is dilated completely
B. Increase in bloody show
C. Uterine contractions occur every 3 to 10 minutes, lasting 60 to 75 seconds, and are of strong intensity.
D. The patient feels the urge to bear down
E. Placental separation and expulsion
5.Nursing assessment of a woman in labor noted marked introspection, irritability and inability to focus. She is
diaphoretic, and cries, <I can’t take it anymore!= These behaviors are characteristic of which stage or phase of
labor?
A. Latent phase
B. Second phase
C. Active phase
D. Transitional phase
6. The management of a client in the transition phase of labor is primarily directed toward:
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A. helping the patient maintain control
B. decreasing intravenous fluid intake
C. reducing the client?s discomfort with medications
D. having the client follow simple breathing patterns during contractions
7. You received a client in the delivery room. On assessment, the baby’s head is crowning and she is bearing
down, and delivery appears imminent. The nurse should BEST:
A. Suction the nose and then the mouth
B. Feel the nape for any cord coil
C. Promote internal rotation of the head.
D. Stimulate cry.
8. A client delivers a healthy baby girl. An indication to the nurse that the placenta is beginning to separate from
the uterus and is ready to be delivered would be the:
A. presence of strong contractions
B. descent of the uterus
C. appearance of a sudden gush of blood
D. retraction of the umbilical cord into the vagina
9. After placental delivery, the nurse examines the cord and evaluates that it is normal with the identification of
which findings?
A. One umbilical vein and one umbilical artery
B. two umbilical veins and two umbilical arteries
C. One umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries
D. A placental weight of 1,000 g.
10. The nurse palpates the fundus and notes the character of the lochia in the fourth stage of labor. The
expected finding during this stage is:
A. white
B. brown
C. pink
D. dark red
SAS#17
1.A woman delivered a newborn 12 hours ago. Which of the following assessment would the nurse expect to
find?
A. Lochia alba
B. Soft, boggy fundus
C. Transient tachycardia
D. Complaints of hunger
2. Lochia serosa is characterized by which of the following?
A. Creamy yellow color
B. No odor
C. Serosanguinous appearance
D. White to colorless
3. During lecture of a childbirth class, the nurse explains that in the postpartum period the process whereby the
uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy state is called:
A. Involution
B. Puerperium
C. Uterine atony
D. Lochia rubra
4. The labor and delivery experience is frequently reviewed by the mother. During which of the following periods
according to Reva Rubin, is this commonly done?
A. Letting-down
B. Letting go
C. Taking hold
D. Taking in
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5.Nurse Mara is aware that periodic contraction and relaxation of the uterine muscles cause pains and cramping
after birth. Which of the following patients is more likely to experience severe pain after giving birth?
A. A gravida 1 para 1001 patient who is bottle feeding
B. A gravida 3 para 2002 patient who is breastfeeding
C. A gravida 3 para 1102 patient who is bottle feeding
D. A gravida 2 para 1001 patient who is breastfeeding
6. The nurse is assessing a patient in the fourth stage of labor. She notes that the fundus is firm, globular and
located midline of the abdomen. But she assessed that bleeding is excessive. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
C. Notify the physician
D. Document the findings
7. The nurse is assessing a patient in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates an early sign of excessive blood loss?
A. An increase in pulse rate from 78 to 106 bpm
B. A blood pressure change from128/88 to 118/80 mm Hg.
C. A body temperature of 37.4C
D. A respiratory rate of 24/min.
8. Which of the following 1-day postpartum patients should be given the highest priority by the nurse?
A. The patient with bright red lochia with blood clots greater than 1 cm.
B. The patient who complains of afterpains
C. The client with a pulse rate of 62 bpm
D. the patient with colostrum discharge from both breasts.
9. The nurse is providing postpartum instructions to a patient after delivery of a healthy newborn. Which of the
following instructions should be given by the nurse to the patient?
A. Breasts become distended with milk on the third day.
B. Normal bowel elimination returns by the 4th or 5th day
C. Temperature may be elevated after 2 days.
D. Pulse rate of 96 to 110 bpm is normal during the first week.
E. Depressed feelings for the first 4 weeks is to be expected.
10. The nurse is assessing Homan’s sign on a postpartum patient. Which statement of the student indicates an
understanding of this assessment technique?
A. <I will ask the patient to raise her extended leg and lower her legs slowly. =
B. <I will ask the patient to extend her legs flat on bed and dorsiflex her foot forward.=
C. <I will ask the patient to extend her legs flat on bed and sharply extend her foot backward. =
D. <I will ask the patient to raise her legs against pressure from my hand.=
SAS#18
1. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a goal of newborn care in the postpartum period?
A. To facilitate development of a close parent-newborn relationship
B. To assist parents in developing healthy attitudes about childbearing practices
C. To identify actual or potential problems requiring immediate or emergency attention
D. To provide the parents of the newborn with information about well-baby programs
2. After birth, which of the following structures receives blood only from the left ventricle?
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Ductus arteriosus
3. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following would be considered normal if the baby were
sleeping?
A. 80 bpm
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3. Nurse Amy is teaching a small group of pregnant women who are in the third trimester. During the open
forum, Myrna, pregnant for the first time asks how she would know if labor is near. Nurse Amy’s response
should include the following EXCEPT:
A. weight gain and edema
B. decreased dyspnea, increased leg varicosities and frequency of voiding
C. lightening around 2 weeks before labor
D. increased maternal activity and abdominal muscle tightening
4. The nurse evaluates Mrs. Yap for true signs of labor, which include:
1. Uterine discomfort starting at the back radiating to the abdomen
2. cervical effacement and dilatation
3. Uterine contractions increasing in interval and decreasing in duration
4. Rupture of the bag of waters and passage of vaginal bleeding
A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 4
C. 2 & 3
D. 2 & 4
5. Which of the following assessment findings will confirm spontaneous rupture of membranes?
A. Negative ferning
B. Absence of fluid pooling at the cervix
C. Pain with fluid gushing
D. Bright blue nitrazine paper
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of Braxton Hicks contractions?
A. Primarily felt in the back
B. Irregular pattern?
C. Can be increased with activity and changing position
D. Moderate to strong intensity
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7. The nurse is giving information on the difference between true and false labor to a gravida 1 patient who is
in her third trimester. Which of the following statements when made by the patient indicates that she
understands the sign of true labor.
A. <I will be in labor once the baby engages.=
B. <My contractions will be felt in the abdominal area. =
C. <My contractions will occur regularly, become stronger, last longer and may occur closer together. =
D. <My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around. =
8. The nurse is aware that a client at 40 weeks’ gestation is experiencing true labor if:
A. Cervical dilatation has occurred
B. Her membranes have ruptured
C. The pains become more noticeable.
D. The fetal heart rate baseline decreases
9. A client at 39 weeks’ gestation reports that she thinks her membranes have ruptured. When confirming it
the nurse should:
A. Test the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper and observe the color changes
B. Take the client?s temperature because ruptured membranes predispose to infection
C. Avoid performing vaginal inspection to prevent introduction of microorganisms
D. Have the client provide a clean catch urine specimen
10. All of the following are true to False Labor, EXCEPT:
A. Begin & remain irregular
B. Felt 1st abdominally & remain confined to the abdomen & groin
C. Often disappear with ambulation & sleep
D. Achieve cervical dilatation
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SAS#12
Which of the following factors affecting labor is associated with passageway?
A. Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to the maternal pelvis
B. The presentation of the fetus in relation to the maternal pelvis
C. The structure of the maternal pelvis
D. The frequency, duration and strength of the contraction
2. Which of the following pelvis is round in shape, the most common type of pelvis among females and allows
fetus to pass with ease?
A. Anthropoid
B. Gynecoid
C. Platypelloid
D. Android
3. Which of the following diameters will pose a problem for vaginal delivery?
A. True conjugate 11.5 cm or greater
B. Transverse diameter of inlet less than 12 cm.
C. Oblique diameter of the inlet is 12.7 cm or greater
D. Anteroposterior diameter of the outlet is 11.7 or greater
4. It is the measurement between the anterior surface of the sacral prominence (sacral promontory) and the
posterior surface (inferior margin) of the symphysis pubis
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Obstetric conjugate
C. True conjugate
D. Bi-ischial conjugate
5. It refers to the route a fetus must travel from the uterus through the cervix & vagina to the external perineum
A. Passageway
B. Passenger
C. Powers
D. Psyche
6. It is the upper half of the pelvis which supports the uterus during the late months of pregnancy & aids in
directing the fetus into the true pelvis for birth
A. Inlet
B. Outlet
C. False pelvis
D. True pelvis
7. It is a landmark of the midpelvis and is important for determining engagement
A. symphysis pubis
B. iliac crest
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Ischial spines
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8. These are functions of the pelvis except:
A. Support & protect the reproductive & other pelvic organs
B. Accommodation of the growing fetus
C. Anchorage of the pelvic support structures
D. Nourishment of the growing fetus
9. It is a the most reliable measurement of the outlet
A. Bi-ischial diameter
B. Diagonal conjugate
C. Obstetric conjugate
D. True conjugate
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10. It is the condition where the fetal head cannot fit into the diameters of the maternal pelvis; thus, necessitat
a C-section
A. Dystocia
B. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
C. False labor
D. second stage arrest
SAS#13
1. Which of the following attitudes refers to the <military= position?
A. Partial extension
B. Complete extension
C. Moderate flexion
D. Complete flexion
2. The nurse is reviewing the record of the patient in the labor room and notes that the fetus is in +2 station. Th
nurse notes that the fetal presenting part is:
A. 2 cm above the ischial spine
B. 2 cm below the ischial spine
C. 2 inches below the ischial spine
D. 2 inches above the ischial spine
3. Which of the following measurements indicates that the fetal presenting part is engaged?
A. -2
B. 0
C. +2
D +4
4. Which of the following is an essential intrapartum fetal assessment?
A. Determination of the duration, frequency and intensity of contractions
B. Inspection of the maternal abdomen to determine lie
C. Examination of the vagina to assess effacement and cervical dilatation
D. Evaluation of the mother to determine knowledge about childbirth education.
5.The woman is in active labor. The position of the fetus is left occiput posterior. Which of the following
measures should be included when caring for the patient?
A. Provide food and fluids
B. assist the client to ambulate
C. Provide back massage
D. Allow the client to sleep.
6. When describing fetal position, the first letter in the series denotes:
A. Presenting part of the fetus
B. Side of the maternal pelvis
C. Size of the maternal pelvis
D. Type of fetal delivery
7. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which position with a face presentation?
A Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially flexed
D. Partially extended
8. With a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate to be most
audible in which of the following areas?
A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline
B. In the lower left maternal abdominal quadrant
C. In the lower right maternal abdominal quadrant
D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline
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9. When assisting a client in labor whose fetus is in breech presentation, it is important to assess initially for:
A. meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B. presence of early decelerations
C. cord prolapse right after rupture of membranes
D. cervical dilatation
10.At ultrasound, it was known that presentation was breech. The doctor will perform external cephalic version
The client asked what a cephalic version is. What is the response of the nurse??
A. Apply fundal pressure
B. Prepare for an assisted forceps delivery
C. Obtain an order for oxytocin
D. Flex the client?s legs sharply against her abdomen
SAS#14
1. Which of the characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labo
A. Occurring at regular intervals
B. Starting mainly in the abdomen
C. Gradually increasing intervals
D. Increasing intensity with walking
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2. When assessing frequency of contractions, the nurse should assess intervals of which of the following:
A. acme on one contraction to the beginning of the next
B. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the next
C. end of one contraction to the end of the next
D. beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
3. The partner of a woman in labor is having difficulty timing the frequency of contractions and asks the nurse
review the procedure. The nurse instructs the partner to note the time from the:
A. End of one contraction to the beginning of the next
B. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the next
C. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
D. Beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
4. A woman who is having contractions is concerned whether she is in labor or not. She states, <How will you
know if I already am in labor?
A. A bloody show is rare with false labor
B. fetal movement is decreased in true labor
C. The cervix dilates and effaces in true labor
D. The membranes rupture when true labor begins
5.The head nurse checks for labor contractions in the monitoring sheet of Mrs. Lyra, who is in the active phas
labor. Entered data include: <8 a.m.: contraction, moderate, lasts 45 sec.; 8:05 a.m. contraction, moderate, lasts
45 sec.= based on these data, what is Mrs. Lyra’s interval of contractions?
A. 45 secs.
B. every 5 minutes
C. 4 minutes 5 seconds
D. 30 seconds
6. What is the best position to assume by a low-risk parturient who is in early labor?
A. Supine
B. Lithotomy
C. Left lateral recumbent
D. Squatting
7. The decision is made to encourage a woman in early labor to ambulate around the unit fpr a while then to
reassess her status. What assessment distinguishes between true and false labor?
A. confirmation of spontaneous rupture of membranes
B. signs and symptoms of increasing discomfort
C. evidence of cervical dilatation
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D. presence of copious bloody vaginal discharge
8. The position that the nurse teaches the cl ient to avoid when experiencing back pain during labor would be
the:
A. Sitting position
B. Supine position
C. Right lateral position
D. Left-side-lying position
9. Which of the following is not true regarding duration of uterine contractions?
A. Duration of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B. Duration decreases as labor progresses
C. Duration increases as labor progresses
D. Duration should not exceed 70 seconds
10. When assessing a laboring woman’s uterine contractions, it is important for the nurse to:
A. Ask the client when her contractions started and how long they are occurring
B. Place the fingertips of one hand over the fundus pressing gently to measure uterine contractions
C. Use an electronic monitor to measure uterine contractions
D. Place client in dorsal recumbent position and perform Leopold?s maneuver
SAS#15
1. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements can occur?
A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation
2. After the baby’s head extends, which of these actions should be carried out first?
A. Suction the nose, then the mouth
B. Feel the nape for any cord coil
C. Promote internal rotation of the head
D. Stimulate cry
3. The cardinal movements of labor in proper sequence are:
A. Engagement, internal rotation, external rotation, expulsion and flexion
B. Engagement, descent, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
C. Extension, internal rotation, external rotation and expulsion
D. Expulsion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
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4. Which of the following mechanisms of labor occurs when the widest diameter of the presenting part has
passed the pelvic inlet and usually corresponds to a 0 station?
A. Engagement
B. Restitution
C. Flexion
D. Descent
5.What is the physiologic advantage derived by flexion of the fetal head during labor?
A. Head presents the smallest diameter for delivery
B. Head is able to exert greater pressure against the cervix
C. Perineal pressure is less likely to be obstructed by secretions
D. Fetal nose and mouth are less likely to be obstructed by secretions
6. When crowning is observed during labor, you would take which of the following actions?
A. Position the woman on her left side
B. Have the woman hold her breath and push
C. Encourage the woman to pant
D. Prepare the woman to be transferred to the delivery room
7. The landmark used in determining station is:
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A. Ischial promontory
B. Ischial spine
C. Ischial tuberosity
D. Ischial prominence
8. Which would be appropriate teaching about the force that propels the fetus through the vagina during labor
A. It is a combination of fundal and abdominal pressures.
B. Mainly gravitational from the superior fetal lie.
C. It is cervical contractions beginning with full dilation.
D. It is abdominal and perineal muscle contractions
9. It refers to the relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to the level of the ischial spines
A. Descent
B. Extension
C. Internal Rotation
D. Engagement
10. INTERNAL ROTATION begins:
A. at the level of the ischial tuberosity
B. Below the ischial spines
C. Within the false pelvis
D. At the level of the outlet
SAS#16
1. The pregnant client is in the latent phase of labor. Which of the following findings characterize this stage of
labor?
A. The client is helpless and restless
B. The client feels out of control
C. The client feels talkative and eager
D. The client is tired and anxious
2. During the transition phase of the first stage of labor, which of the following occurs?
A. Irregular short contractions
B. Feeling the urge to push
C. Onset of the first contractions
D. Cervical dilatation of 4 to 7 cm
3. Which of the following signs indicate that the placenta has separated and is ready to be delivered?
A. Sudden gush of vaginal fluid
B. Globular and irregular uterine shape
C. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
D. Cessation of contractions
4. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate that a patient in labor has progressed to the second sta
of labor?
A. The cervix is dilated completely
B. Increase in bloody show
C. Uterine contractions occur every 3 to 10 minutes, lasting 60 to 75 seconds, and are of strong intensity.
D. The patient feels the urge to bear down
E. Placental separation and expulsion
5.Nursing assessment of a woman in labor noted marked introspection, irritability and inability to focus. She is
diaphoretic, and cries, <I can’t take it anymore!= These behaviors are characteristic of which stage or phase of
labor?
A. Latent phase
B. Second phase
C. Active phase
D. Transitional phase
6. The management of a client in the transition phase
of
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A. helping the patient maintain control
B. decreasing intravenous fluid intake
C. reducing the client?s discomfort with medications
D. having the client follow simple breathing patterns during contractions
7. You received a client in the delivery room. On assessment, the baby’s head is crowning and she is bearing
down, and delivery appears imminent. The nurse should BEST:
A. Suction the nose and then the mouth
B. Feel the nape for any cord coil
C. Promote internal rotation of the head.
D. Stimulate cry.
8. A client delivers a healthy baby girl. An indication to the nurse that the placenta is beginning to separate fro
the uterus and is ready to be delivered would be7the: 0
A. presence of strong contractions
B. descent of the uterus
C. appearance of a sudden gush of blood
D. retraction of the umbilical cord into the vagina
9. After placental delivery, the nurse examines the cord and evaluates that it is normal with the identification o
which findings?
A. One umbilical vein and one umbilical artery
B. two umbilical veins and two umbilical arteries
C. One umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries
D. A placental weight of 1,000 g.
10. The nurse palpates the fundus and notes the character of the lochia in the fourth stage of labor. The
expected finding during this stage is:
A. white
B. brown
C. pink
D. dark red
SAS#17
1.A woman delivered a newborn 12 hours ago. Which of the following assessment would the nurse expect to
find?
A. Lochia alba
B. Soft, boggy fundus
C. Transient tachycardia
D. Complaints of hunger
2. Lochia serosa is characterized by which of the following?
A. Creamy yellow color
B. No odor
C. Serosanguinous appearance
D. White to colorless
3. During lecture of a childbirth class, the nurse explains that in the postpartum period the process whereby th
uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy state is called:
A. Involution
B. Puerperium
C. Uterine atony
D. Lochia rubra
4. The labor and delivery experience is frequently reviewed by the mother. During which of the following perio
according to Reva Rubin, is this commonly done?
A. Letting-down
B. Letting go
C. Taking hold
D. Taking in
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5.Nurse Mara is aware that periodic contraction and relaxation of the uterine muscles cause pains and crampin
after birth. Which of the following patients is more likely to experience severe pain after giving birth?
A. A gravida 1 para 1001 patient who is bottle feeding
B. A gravida 3 para 2002 patient who is breastfeeding
C. A gravida 3 para 1102 patient who is bottle feeding
D. A gravida 2 para 1001 patient who is breastfeeding
6. The nurse is assessing a patient in the fourth stage of labor. She notes that the fundus is firm, globular and
located midline of the abdomen. But she assessed that bleeding is excessive. Which of the following is the mo
appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
C. Notify the physician
D. Document the findings
7. The nurse is assessing a patient in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates an early sign of excessive blood loss?
A. An increase in pulse rate from 78 to 106 bpm
B. A blood pressure change from128/88 to 118/80 mm Hg.
C. A body temperature of 37.4C
D. A respiratory rate of 24/min.
8. Which of the following 1-day postpartum patients should be given the highest priority by the nurse?
A. The patient with bright red lochia with blood clots greater than 1 cm.
B. The patient who complains of afterpains
C. The client with a pulse rate of 62 bpm
D. the patient with colostrum discharge from both breasts.
9. The nurse is providing postpartum instructions to a patient after delivery of a healthy newborn. Which of the
following instructions should be given by the nurse to the patient?
A. Breasts become distended with milk on the third day.
B. Normal bowel elimination returns by the 4th or 5th day
C. Temperature may be elevated after 2 days.
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D. Pulse rate of 96 to 110 bpm is normal during the first week.
E. Depressed feelings for the first 4 weeks is to be expected.
10. The nurse is assessing Homan’s sign on a postpartum patient. Which statement of the student indicates an
understanding of this assessment technique?
A. <I will ask the patient to raise her extended leg and lower her legs slowly. =
B. <I will ask the patient to extend her legs flat on bed and dorsiflex her foot forward.=
C. <I will ask the patient to extend her legs flat on bed and sharply extend her foot backward. =
D. <I will ask the patient to raise her legs against pressure from my hand.=
SAS#18
1. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a goal of newborn care in the postpartum period?
A. To facilitate development of a close parent-newborn relationship
B. To assist parents in developing healthy attitudes about childbearing practices
C. To identify actual or potential problems requiring immediate or emergency attention
D. To provide the parents of the newborn with information about well-baby programs
2. After birth, which of the following structures receives blood only from the left ventricle?
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Ductus arteriosus
3. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following would be considered normal if the baby we
sleeping?
A. 80 bpm
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B. 100 bpm
C. 120 bpm
D. 140 bpm
4. The initial respirations of the newborn are a result from which of the following?
A. A rise in temperature
B. A change in pressure gradients
C. Increased blood pH
D. Decreased blood CO2 level
5.Which of the following would the nurse identify as correct about the newborn’s immune system?
A. The risk of infection in the newborn is relatively low
B. Phagocytosis occurs fairly rapidly in the newborn
C. The newborn is unable to limit the invading organisms at their point of entry.
D. Immunoglobulin A is present in their GI and respiratory tract.
6. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?
A. The anterior is triangle-shaped, the posterior is diamond-shaped
B. The posterior closes at 18 months, the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks
C. The anterior is larger in size when compared to the posterior.
D. The anterior is bulging and the posterior is sunken
7. The first period of reactivity begins at birth. Which of the following is characteristic of this period?
A. This period lasts about 30 minutes
B. The infant is asleep.
C. A poor suck is present.
D. Respirations may be increased to 110cpm
8. Which of the following groups of reflexes are present at birth and remains unchanged through adulthood?
A. Blink, cough, rooting and gag
B. Blink, cough, sneeze and gag
C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing and cough
D. Stepping, blink, cough and sneeze
9. Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?
A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess iron
10. Before birth, which of the following structures connects the left and right atria of the heart?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus
SAS#19
1. You’re caring for children in a day-care center. According to the theorist Jean Piaget, an infant who learns
about objects by placing them in his mouth is in which stage of development?
A. Preoperational
B. Sensorimotor
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C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
2. When preparing to teach a class in child development, you review the work of a theorist who postulated that
the personality is a structure with three parts, called the id, ego and superego. The theorist is:
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Erik Erikson
C. Jean Piaget
D. Lawrence Kohlberg
3. Directional trends in growth and development are easily seen in the neonate. Which term describes
development in the head-to-tail direction?
A. Sequential trend
B. Proximodistal pattern
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C. Cephalocaudal trend
D. Mass to specific pattern
4. According to Erikson, infancy is the age for developing which psychosocial task?
A. Sense of initiative vs. guilt
B. Sense of trust vs. mistrust
C. Sense of identity vs. role diffusion
D. Sense of industry vs. inferiority
5. To stimulate the senses of infants and provide early mental feeding is to meet the needs of this cognitive sta
of infancy. According to Piaget, which stage is this?
A. preoperational stage
B. sensorimotor stage
C. formal operations
D. concrete operations stage
6. The most significant person to in infant is ___
A. parents
B. mother
C. father
D. basic family
7. In order to foster trust in infants, which of the following measures is most important?
A. The mother should always be at home
B. The infant should be fen whenever he cries.
C. The infant’s needs should be met consistently.
D. All of the above
8. According to Sigmund Freud, the age of infancy corresponds to the _______.
A. Oral stage
B. Pre-Conceptual Stage
C. Stage for development of the self
D. Anal Stage
9. According to Erikson, 2-year-old Peter, is in which stage of development?
A. Anal
B. Autonomy
C. Pre-conceptual
D. all of the above
10. Which of the following stages of separation occurs last?
A. Protest
B. Denial
C. Despair
D. Recovery
SAS#20
1. The clinic nurse evaluates a 7-month-old infant for eruption of primary teeth and finds a normal eruption
schedule. At this stage, how many primary teeth are expected?
A. A pair of upper central incisors
B. A pair of lower central incisors
C. A pair of molars
D. two pairs on incisors
2. During a well-baby check-up, the nurse weighs Baby Ron, 6 months of age, and identifies that he is growing
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normally, because his present weight, compared to his birth weight has ____
A. tripled
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. decreased
3. Food allergy is one of the problems in infant feeding. Which of these food items is considered the most
allergenic food?
A. fruits
B. vegetables
C. milk
D. meats
4. The clinic nurse instruct the mother on the introduction of solid food to her baby. Which if the following is t
correct sequence of introducing solids?
A. vegetable, fruit, cereal, meat, egg
B. fruit, meat, cereal vegetable, egg
C. cereal, vegetable, fruit, meat, egg
D. cereal, meat, fruit, vegetable, egg
5.The following are feeding problems in infancy. Which is the most common?
A. Colic
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. Aspiration
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6. An infant’s mother asks you, <When should I expect my daughter to begin to walk?= Which of the following is
an appropriate response?
A. <Probably by 9 months.=
B. <Most children walk around 12 months.=
C. <It varies so much I couldn?t even guess.=
D. <Try not to worry. When she?s ready, she?ll walk.=
7. An appropriate toy that the nurse should offer to a 3-month-old infant would be a:
A. Push-pull toy
B. Stuffed animal
C. Metallic mirror
D. Large plastic ball
8. The nurse is aware that the play of a 5-month-old infant would probably consist of:
A. Picking up a rattle or toy and putting it in the mouth
B. Exploratory searching when a cuddly toy is hidden from view
C. Simultaneously kicking the legs and batting the hands in the air.
D. Waving and clenching fists and dropping toys placed in the hands
9. A mother tells the nurse that her 7-month-old child has just started sitting without support. The nurse shoul
inform the mother that this:
A. Its an expected developmental behavior at this stage
B. Activity signifies the upper 10% of physical development
C. Could be a developmental delay that requires further evaluation
D. Behavior is early and indicates that the baby will be walking soon
10. The nurse’s developmental assessment of a 9-month-old infant would be expected to reveal:
A. A 2 to 3-word vocabulary
B. An ability to feed self with a spoon
C. The ability to sit steadily without support
D. Closure of both anterior and posterior fontanels
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SAS#21
1. A toddler seems unable to remain dry despite toilet training. Which patient teaching should be included in h
plan of care?
A. He probably is not yet physically ready for toilet training.
B. He is reacting to his emotional outbursts, responsible for delaying toilet training.
C. He may need to be examined by a child psychologist to solve this problem.
D. He must be under undue stress to be behaving this way.
2. A toddler’s mother is concerned because her toddler takes her blanket everywhere. Which advice would be
most appropriate for her regarding this?
A. Have her daughter evaluated by a child psychologist.
B. Understand that this is probably a normal event.
C. Make subtle efforts to remove the blanket.
D. Destroy the blanket by cutting off a strip from it every day.
3. While evaluating nursing care in a community clinic, you find that toddlers are at high risk for injuries becau
of their increasing curiosity, advancement in cognition, and improved motor skills. All these hazards are a
concern for this age group except:
A. burns
B. poisoning
C. sports injury
D. falls
4. The public health nurse is conducting a class for mothers of 1-3 years. Which of these characteristics are
least likely to be observed in toddlers?
A. negativistic
B. dawdling
C. exhibits temper tantrums
D. cooperative
5. In explaining to parents about parallel play in toddlers, which should be excluded by the nurse?
A. It is normal for toddlers not to share.
B. Parents need not encourage their toddlers to share during parallel play.
C. Parallel play is when two toddlers are seated together or side by side, each playing with his toy.
D. Parents should encourage toddlers to cooperate and share during play.
6. A previously toilet trained 4-year-old child has many episodes of urinary incontinence while in the hospital f
a fractured femur. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
A. Awaken the child every 2 hours through the night to try to use the bedpan.
B. Explain that children will usually quickly regain control over a previously mastered skill once home again.
C. Send a urine specimen for analysis.
D. Limit consumption of fluids between meals.
7 his sister.
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7. A 4-year-old boy will not stop throwing sand at
Which of the following punishments would be mos
effective with this child?
A. Send him to his room for 15 minutes.
Placement of <labels= placed on groups of people according to their ethnic backgrounds
A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic during her
second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal physical finding
necessitating further testing? *
1/1
A Braxton hicks contractions
B Fetal heart rate of above 180 BPM
C Quickening
D Consistent increase in fundal height
A client at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine ultrasound prior to amniocentesis. After
teaching the client about the purpose of the ultrasound, which of the following client statements
would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction? *
1/1
A. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta.
B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord.
C. The test will determine where to insert the needle.
D. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid.
When a female egg or ova is fertilized by a male sperm to form a zygote. *
0/1
Gestation
Conception
Pregnancy
FERTILIZATION
Which of the following statements is true concerning true genetic chimeras? *
1/1
They may be hermaphrodites.
They began as two separate zygotes
They are always females.
a and b
none of the above
The basal body temperature drops slightly before ovulation and rises by 1F after ovulation. This
change in the temperature is due to the influence of what hormone? *
1/1
Estrogen
Progesterone
Testosterone
Luteinizing Hormone
Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy? *
1/1
A. Accepting the pregnancy
B. Accepting a coming child
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C. Making plans for the baby
D. Sharing time with a significant other
ANSWER: A
The egg can be fertilized until about _______ after ovulation. *
1/1
6 hours
24 hours
72 hours
1 week
During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse determines
that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is noted? *
1/1
150 BPM
100 BPM
80 BPM
180 BPM
It is a long, tightly coiled tube about 20 feet long which is the site of spermatozoa maturation *
1/1
Epididymis
Ejaculatory duct
Vas deferens
Seminiferous tubules
This is a type of disorder that has the ability to be passed from 1 generation to another: *
1/1
A. Lifestyle Disorder
B. Degenerative Disorder
C. Idiopathic Disorder
D. Genetic Disorder
The nurse is performing Leopold?s Maneuver. During the first maneuver, the fetal part palpated is
hard, round and movable. The nurse concludes that the fetal presentation is: *
0/1
A. Cephalic
B. Breech
C. Shoulder
D. Footling
A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive.
The physician has documented the presence of a Goodell?s sign. The nurse determines this sign
indicates: *
1/1
The presence of hCG in the urine
A softening of the cervix
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A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus.
The presence of fetal movement
Oöcytes are: *
1/1
ova that have not yet completed the oögenesis process
the locations on chromosomes where ova are produced
the male equivalent of ova
the female equivalents of ova
The nurse should teach pregnant women the importance of conserving the <spurt= before labor
because: *
1/1
A. Fatigue may influence the need for pain medications
B. Energy helps to increase the progesterone level
C. Energy is needed to push during the first stage of labor
D. This energy will decrease the intensity of the uterine contractions
Nina is scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. What instruction is best to give
her prior to the procedure? *
1/1
A. <Void immediately before the procedure to reduce the size of your bladder.=
B. <The X-ray that will be used to reveal the fetal position will have no long-term fetal effects.=
C. <The IV fluid that is used to dilate your uterus is isotonic saline so it will not hurt your fetus.=
D. <Your fetus will have less amniotic fluid for the rest of pregnancy.==
In early pregnancy, a serology test for syphilis is given to pregnant women. The nurse explains to
the client that the reason for this is: *
0/1
A. The hormonal changes of pregnancy causes an exacerbation of latent syphilis
B. Syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4 months
C. The law requires the serology test for all pregnant women
D. syphilis may be passed to the infant during delivery and cause congenital syphilis
It refers to the family one is born into (e.g., oneself, mother, father, and siblings, if any) *
1/1
Family of Orientation
Family of Procreation
Nuclear family
Adoptive family
It is the Individual perception that one?s own culture is superior to all others *
1/1
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Transcultural Nursing
C. Ethnicity
D. Stereotyping
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Human gametes normally have _____ chromosomes. *
1/1
23
46
47
48
A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, the nurse
tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the following? *
1/1
A. Activity limited to bed rest.
B. Platelet infusion.
C. Immediate cesarean delivery.
D. Labor induction with oxytocin.
After 35 weeks? gestation, fetal lung maturity is signified by a rise in the level of which surfactant? *
1/1
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Lecithin
C. Alphafetoprotein
D. Estriol
The pregnant client during the first trimester is susceptible to teratogens because it is the period of
organogenesis. If she was exposed to a teratogen with affinity for the ectoderm primary germ layer,
the organs listed below might be affected, EXCEPT: *
1/1
A. Brain
B. ears (sense of hearing)
C. cataracts
D. heart
The period from two weeks to two months following fertilization is the stage of the: *
1/1
A. Fetus
B. Ovum
C. Embryo
D. Neonate
After the first four months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is the: *
1/1
A Corpus luteum
B Adrenal cortex
C Placenta
D Anterior hypophysis
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Nurse Amy is teaching a small group of pregnant women who are in the third trimester. During the
open forum, Myrna, pregnant for the first time asks how she would know if labor is near. Nurse
Amy?s response should include the following EXCEPT: *
1/1
A. weight gain and edema
B. decreased dyspnea, increased leg varicosities and frequency of voiding
C. lightening around 2 weeks before labor
D. increased maternal activity and abdominal muscle tightening
Which of the following statements about human reproduction is true? *
1/1
Mitosis in males is also known as spermatogenesis.
Sperm and ova are zygotes.
Oögenesis takes place in the ovaries of females.
the locations on chromosomes where ova are produced
For purposes of conception, the best position for intercourse is: *
1/1
a. woman-on-top
b. man-on-top
c. rear entry
d. side-to-side
P1 LONG EXAM - CHUA
During the 22nd week of pregnancy, the woman is expected to:
A. accept the fact that she is pregnant
B. explain why morning sickness occurs
C. prepare sleeping arrangement for the baby
D. baby sit the newborn of her neighbor every morning
It gives the cord body and prevents pressure on the blood vessels, that contains gelatinous
mucopolysaccharide:
A. Wharton's jelly
B. Umbilical vein
C. Umbilical artery
D. Placenta
Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur
during first trimester?
A. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
B. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
C. Introversion, clumsiness, narcissism
D. Awkwardness, clumsiness, unattractiveness
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Home pregnancy is done in early in the morning because:
A. low concentration of HCG is found in the first- morning urine
B. high concentration of HCG is found in the first - morning urine
C. low concentration of progesterone is found in the first - morning urine
D. high concentration of progesterone is found in the first - morning urine
Which of the following statement is CORRECT about presumptive sign of pregnancy? *
A. It is felt by the woman but cannot be documented by the examiner
B. It is felt by the examiner but cannot be documented by the woman.
C. It is experienced by the examiner and more reliable than probable sign.
D. It is experienced by the woman and can be documented by the examiner
A nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that the contraction stress test
(CST): *
A. sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation
B. is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated
C. is considered to have a negative result if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions
D. is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured
The normal ratio of lung surfactant is:
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 2:3
During the pre-natal visit of Linda at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse
determines that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is noted?
A. 80 BPM
B. 100 BPM
C. 150 BPM
D. 180 BPM
What type of immunity that will develop during fetal life?
A. Artificial immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Acquired immunity
D. Active immunity
What best describes the pattern of genetic transmission known as autosomal recessive
inheritance? *
A. disorder in which the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed even when the other member of the pair is
normal
B. disorder in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed
C. disorder in which a single gene controls the particular trait
D. disorders in which the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome
Blood volume normally increases during pregnancy. The extent of this increase is what percentage
of pre-pregnancy volume?
A. 1% - 10 %
B. 20% - 30%
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C. 30% - 50%
D. 70% - 90%
This theory describes that the presence of this hormone causes the initiation of contraction of
smooth muscles of the body. The uterus is composed of smooth muscles *
A. Prostaglandin theory
B. Oxytocin theory
C. Uterine stretch theory
D. Placental degeneration teory
A protozoan infection spread through contact with cat stool, most commonly spread via contact with
uncooked meat. *
A. Herpes simplex
B. Rubella
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Cytomegalovirus
This is a uterine deviation wherein the fundus is tipped forward. *
A. Retroversion
B. Anteversion
C. Anteflexion
D. Retroflexion
Fetal structure that carries blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
D. Aorta
If the menstrual cycle of a woman is a 32-day cycle, when do you expect her to ovulate? *
A. 14th day counting from the 1st day of menses
B. 14th day counting from the 5th day of menses
C.18th day counting from the 1st day of menses
D. 18th day counting from the 5th day of menses
A fertilized ovum is known as: *
A. zygote
B. embryo
C. neonate
D. decidua
After 35 weeks gestation, fetal lung maturity is signified by a rise in the level of which surfactant? *
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Lecithin
C. Alphafetoprotein
D. Estriol
A nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that she is pregnant and
is checking the client the probable signs of pregnancy. These are the following signs: Select all that
applies. *
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A. uterine enlargement
B. Fetal heart rate detected by nonelectric device
C. outline of the fetus via ultrasound
D. Chadwick's sign
E. Braxton Hicks contraction
F. Ballottement
Ovulation is the process of: *
A. Maturity of the female reproductive function
B. Monthly release of mature ovum.
C. Rupture of the ovary followed by the release of an immature follicle
D. Rupture of the primordial follicle followed by the release of an immature follicle.
Which of the following statement is TRUE about amniocentesis? *
A. Antiseptic and anesthetic solution is not needed.
B. It requires aspiration of a 50 ml amniotic fluid for accuracy.
C. An ultrasound is done prior to the procedure to ensure safety and position of fetus.
D. The patient is placed in moderate high back rest to facilitate drainage.
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? *
A. Fetal movement felt by the mother.
B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. positive pregnancy test
D. positive in the ultrasound
Which of the following is TRUE about Braxton Hick's contraction? *
A. It disappears 8-10 weeks after delivery.
B. It is experienced during the last trimester.
C. It is present throughout the rest of pregnancy.
D. It is felt by the woman as tightening across the lumbar area.
A condition in which amniotic membranes contains 3000 ml of amniotic fluid is known as:
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Hydramnios
C. Polygohydramnios
D. Monohydramnios
Pregnant women may awaken on the day of labor full of energy, this is due to: *
A. excitement
B. increase in epinephrine
C increase in progesterone
D. decrease estrogen
The developing cells are called a fetus from the : *
A. time the fetal heart is heard
B. eight week to the time of birth
C. implantation of the fertilized ovum
D. end of the second week to the onset of labor
On the 8th week of pregnancy, it is expected that:
A. fetal pupils are reactive to light
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B. Fetal movement are spontaneous
C. fetal heart tone is heard with stethoscope
D. fetal body organs are complete
During a scheduled prenatal visit, a primigravida woman asks, "How does the baby breathe inside
me?". The nurse responds by explaining fetal circulation, stating that circulation of oxygenated
blood from the placenta begins with which of the following? *
A. Umbilical artery
B. Umbilical vein
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus
Sense of hearing is develop on the:
A. 24th week of pregnancy
B. 20th week of pregnancy
C. 16th week of pregnancy
D. 10th week of pregnancy
An older woman is asking the nurse about her husband's sexual functioning. Which statement by
the nurse is most accurate?
A. " Men his age tend to have a rapid decline in sexual abilities".
B. " His testosterone levels will decrease only slightly until he is quite old
C. " Changes in testosterone levels do not affect sexual performance".
D. " You are lucky your husband is healthy enough for sexual activity
The chief function of the progesterone is the:
A. Development of the female reproductive system
B. Stimulation of the follicles for ovulation to occur
C. Preparation of the uterus to receive a fertilized egg
D. Establishment of secondary male sex characteristics
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is present in the urine:
A. 6-9 days after the missed period
B. 6-9 days before missed period
C. 10-14 days after the missed period
D. 10-14 days before the missed period
A mature placenta has how many cotyledons? *
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
As a pregnant woman lies on the examining table, she goes very short of breath and dizzy. The
nurse recognizes which of the following as the probable cause? *
A. Her cerebral arteries are growing congested with blood
B. the uterus requires more blood in a supine position
C. blood is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position
D. sympathetic nerve responses cause dyspnea when a woman lies supine
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During pelvic examination, the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents
this as which of the following?
A. Braxton-Hicks sign
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Goodell's sign
D. McDonalds sign
A placenta that weighs 250grams indicates: *
A. good placental perfusion
B. excellent gas exchange
C. poor fetal circulation
D. inadequate maternal blood
A body of organ that produces the cells necessary for reproduction is known as; *
A. estrogen
B. gonad
C. progesterone
D. genes
False contraction often disappear with ambulation and sleep while true contraction continue no
matter what the woman's level of activity. This statement is: *
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. None of the above
Option 4
Flor is on her 20th week of pregnancy. It is expected that the fundus as at the level of:
A. symphysis pubis
B. xiphoid process
C. umbilicus
D. diaphragm
Fertilization is the : *
A. Transportation of egg cells into the ovary
B. Union of an ovum and spermatozoa
C. Implantation of zygote in the uterine wall
D. Migration of the embryo in the fallopian tube
Left-side lying promotes efficient uterine perfusion and placental circulation because it: *
A. Lifts the uterus away from the inferior vena cave, preventing blood from being trapped in the lower
extremity
B. Lifts the uterus towards the inferior vena cava, preventing blood from being trapped in the lower extremities
C. Lifts the uterus away from the superior vena cava, preventing blood from being trapped in the upper
extremities
D. Lifts the uterus towards the superior vena cava, preventing blood from being trapped in the upper extremities
Gia's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly . Gia ask the nurse when such
anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. " We don't really know such defects occur"
B. " It depends on what cause the defect".
C. They occur between the third and fifth week of development".
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D. They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development".
By the end of 32nd week of pregnancy, the following are develop. Select all that applies. *
A. Male reproductive organs
B. Female reproductive organs
C. Active Moro Reflex
D. Weighs 1,600grams
E. Meconium is present
F. Fetus responds by movement to sound
All of these are presumptive signs of pregnancy: *
A. soft cervix. linea nigra, fatigue
B. amenorrhea, enlarged breast, quickening
C. striae gravidarum, soft uterus, nausea and vomiting
D. melasma, periodic uterine contraction, deep violet vagina
A probable sign of pregnancy wherein there is softening of the cervix.
A. Ballotement
B. Chadwick sign
C. Goodell's sign
D. Lightening
Placenta produces human chorionic gonadotropin to:
A. suppress immunologic response
B. reduce uterine contraction
C. regulate maternal glucose
D. promote lactation
By the end of 4th gestational week of fetal growth and development, which of the following
milestone is present? *
A. Spinal cord formed and fused at midpoint
B. Organogenesis is complete
C. Arms and legs develop
D. Liver and pancreas functioning
On the following conditions, the one recognized as a known teratogen is:
A. Scarlet fever
B. German measles
C. smoking
D. Coronary heart disease
Which of the following statement is TRUE about theories of labor onset?
A. Oxytocin theory
B. Decreased estrogen level
C. Decreased fetal cortisol level
D. Unstretching of the uterine muscles
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A woman who is 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement indicates her
CORRECT understanding of the test? *
A. "I will need to have full bladder for the test to be done accurately."
B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I maybe nauseated."
C. "The test will help to determine whether the baby has Down's syndrome or a neural tube defect."
D. "This test observes for fetal activity and acceleration of the fetal heart rate to determine the well being
of the baby."
P1 LONG EXAM – LOU VILLAFLOR
The family task that establishes family rules and regulations: *
Physical maintenance
Reproduction, recruitment and release of family members
Allocation of resources
Maintenance of order
A Family assessment tool that consists of a Diagram of family history . *
Genogram
Family APGAR score
EcoMap
None of the above
It refers to the family one is born into (e.g., oneself, mother, father, and siblings, if any) *
Family of Procreation
Family of Orientation
Nuclear Family
Adaptive Family
Sustainable Development Goal number 1 is about poverty. What is the aim of this goal? *
Help each nation make progress in ending poverty
Cut poverty in half by 2030
Reduce poverty by 75% in 2030
End poverty in all its forms everywhere
Sustainable Development Goal 17 is about strengthening the <means of implementation= and
revitalizing the <Global Partnership= for realizing all the other Goals. Which of the following is not
part of Goal 17? *
for reporting on progress.
Helping developing countries build the capacities they need in areas such as technology, public policy and data
Creating international sports tournaments and festivals to meet the goal.
Mobilizing the financial resources to achieve the goal
Enhancing trade, especially to help developing countries increase their exports and grow their economies.
Which of the following is not part of the Sustainable Development Goals? *
Provision of free internet services for all
Access to sustainable energy for all
Promotion of decent jobs for all
Availability of water and sanitation for all.
The nurse?s role is to help patients adapt to change caused by illnesses or other stressors. This is a
theory by: *
Patricia Benner
Dorothea Orem
Florence Nightingale
Callista Roy
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These are all competencies necessary for quality care except: *
Safety
Experience-based practice
Patient-centered care
Teamwork and collaboration
Maternal and child health nursing is: *
Evidence-based
Family-centered
Patient-centered
All of the choices
Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal? *
Improve maternal health
Enhance child mortality
Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Combat HIV, AIDS, malaria and other diseases
Which principal factors causes vaginal pH to be acidic? *
Secretions from the Bartholin?s glands
Secretions from the Skene?s glands
Cervical mucus
The action of Doderlein bacilli on the vagina
These are structures located bilateral to the urinary meatus of females and serve to lubricate the
external genitalia and protect the sperm *
Prostate gland
Skene's gland
Bartholin's gland
Cowper's gland
Which of the following is not a function of the vagina? *
It is part of the birth canal during delivery
It is the passageway for menstrual discharges
It receives the penis during intercourse
It houses the products of conception
It is a long, tightly coiled tube about 20 feet long which is the site of spermatozoa maturation. *
Seminiferous tubules
Vas deferens
Epididymis
Ejaculatory duct
The basal body temperature drops slightly before ovulation and rises by 1F after ovulation. This
change in the temperature is due to the influence of what hormone? *
Testosterone
Luteinizing Hormone
Progesterone
Estrogen
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These are oval-shaped glands lying within the scrotal sacs and are considered as the male
gonads. *
Prostate gland
Ejaculatory duct
Ovary
Testes
The basal body temperature drops slightly before ovulation and rises by 1F after ovulation. This
change in the temperature is due to the influence of what hormone? *
Follicle stimulating hormone
Testosterone
Estrogen
Progesterone
Which of the following hormones stimulates the ovary to produce estrogen during the menstrual
cycle? *
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Progesterone
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
During the menstrual cycle, ovulation generally occurs at which of the following time? *
14 days before the beginning of the next menstrual cycle
7 days after the last day of menstruation
14 days after the last day of menstrual flow
14 days after the last day of menstrual cycle
Once a month, from puberty until menopause, a Graafian follicle ruptures and expels a mature
ovum. This process is called: *
Ovulation
Oxygination
Fertilization
Menstruation
Which of the following is not a function of progesterone? *
It maintains the endometrium during pregnancy
It is responsible for the development of distinctive female characteristics
It is responsible for the growth and development of acinar cells of the mammary gland
It prepares the endometrium for pregnancy
The increased activity of the endometrial glands during the luteal phase of the female reproductive
cycle is stimulated by: *
Progesterone
Estrogen
FSH
Prolactin
All are typical symptoms of Down syndrome (Trisomy 21), EXCEPT: *
weak, shrill cry
Brushfield spots
Simian crease
short palpebral fissure
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To determine if a disorder occurred by chance or is carried by family members, the nurse should
collect which of the following data? *
Prenatal history of nausea and reports of ankle edema in the third trimester
Complete family history of infant deaths or abnormalities
Physical assessment of the infant?s eye and hair color
History of the couple?s sexual pattern during the time of conception
If blonde hair color is a recessive trait and one parent is heterozygous for the trait and the other
parent is heterozygous for the trait, what ae the chances that their offspring will have blonde hair? *
100% (four in four)
75% (three in four)
50% (two in four)
25% (one in four)
The nurse is assessing a laboring woman for pain. Which is most important for the nurse to
remember? *
Communication of pain is acceptable in all cultures, so she will readily tell you if she is in pain.
Use of a 0 (no pain) to 10 (the most pain) scale is an objective way of assessing pain.
Pain threshold sensation can vary widely from one culture to another
Ways of expressing pain is fairly universal
You overhear a group of nurses talking. One of the group states, <Men are never any good at
diapering babies.= You interpret this as an example of : *
Discrimination
Acculturation
Ethnocentrism
Steriotyping
It is the care of patients that is guided by cultural aspects and respects individual differences. *
Ethnocentrism
Stereotyping
Transcultural Nursing
Ethnicity
Karen, a 14-year-old female, openly declares that she is attracted to Jenna, a 17-year old female.
Karen can be classified as: *
Gay
Asexual
Heterosexual
Lesbian
This refers to a person? s deeply felt internal and individual experience of gender, which may or may
not correspond with the sex assigned at birth *
Sex role
Gender identity
Sex
Gender expression
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It is a contractions that is barely noticeable, aid in maintaining pressure in the intervillous spaces by
closing off the veins during contraction. *
Uterine Perfusion
Villi
FSH
Braxton Hicks
It is a gelatinous mucopolysaccharide which gives the cord body & prevents pressure on the Blood
volume. *
Wharton's Jelly
Amniotic fluid
Whaleton's Jelly
Bartholin's gland
The most common site of implantation is which part of the uterus? *
Uterine isthmus
Uterine fundus, posterior portion
Uterine corpus
Outer portion of the uterine tube
The following characteristics are true of the male gamete sperm except: *
produced by the testes
with 23 chromosomes, 22 autosomes and a Y sex chromosome
has 2 types: androsperm carries the Y-sex chromosome and the gynosperm which carries the X-sex
chromosome lifespan: 72 hours
The pregnant client during the first trimester is susceptible to teratogens because it is the period of
organogenesis. If she was exposed to a teratogen with affinity for the ectoderm primary germ layer,
the organs listed below might be affected, EXCEPT: *
Cataracts
Heart
Ears
Brain
Karla asks why her nurse is concerned whether the lungs of her fetus are producing surfactant. The
nurse ?s best answer would be: *
"Surfactant is necessary for antibody production, so it helps prevent infection.=
"Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at birth, so it aids newborn breathing.=
<Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver; so its presence reveals liver maturity.=
<Surfactant reveals mature kidney function, as it is important for fetal growth.=
Which of the following are correct about the amniotic fluid EXCEPT? *
It maintains the body temperature of the fetus.
The pH of amniotic fluid is acidic, below 7.0
It surrounds, cushions and protects the fetus and allows for fetal movement.
The normal volume at the end of pregnancy is 800 to 1200 ml
There is an increase in frequency of urination or sciatic pain(pain across her buttock radiating down
her leg) from the lowered fetal position. *
Uterine contractions
Lightening
Show
Rupture of Membranes
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It is when true labor starts in the back & sweep forward across the abdomen like the tightening of a
band *
Lightening
Rupture of membranes
Uterine contractions
Show
This consists of a mucous, often blood-streaked vaginal discharge & indicates the beginning of
cervical dilatation *
Lightening
Show
Uterine contractions
Rupture of membranes
Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy? *
Accepting a coming child
Making plans for the baby
Sharing time with a significant other
Accepting the pregnancy
A woman during her first trimester questions how much longer she will have urinary frequency.
Which should the nurse advise her regarding urinary frequency? *
It is a common complaint during the first trimester and again later in the third trimester.
It will subside after the first trimester.
It is a concern until the last trimester of pregnancy.
It is a common concern reported during the entire pregnancy.
The nurse performs an assessment of a primigravida who is on her second trimester. Which of the
following findings should be reported by the nurse to the physician? *
Fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
Bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes of the vagina, vulva and the cervix
Braxton Hicks contractions
Consistent increase in fundal height
Which is the following measures assist in reducing breast tenderness? *
Wear tight-fitting clothes to support the breasts.
Avoid wearing bra
Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry.
Wash the nipples and the areola with soap and water.
Which of the following assessments of the pregnant woman indicates a danger sign? *
Blood pressure reading is 140/90 mm Hg
The patient complains of headache and blurred vision
Dependent edema is 1+
An increase in urinary output
This is to determine the length of fetus in cm. *
Rule of thumb
Haase's Rule
Hasae's Rule
Ninth Rule
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This helps determine vascular resistance in women with Diabetes Mellitus and Hypertension of
pregnancy and whether placental insufficiency occurred *
Doppler spirometry
Doppler umbilical Velocimetry
Amniotic fluid assessment
Placental grading
This used to measure the response of the FHR to fetal movement *
Fetal heart rate
Non-stress test
Sandovsky method
Cardiff method
Yola is scheduled to have an ultrasound examination. To ensure that she understands and is
prepared for the procedure, what instruction should the nurse give her? *
<You can have the medicine for the pain of any contractions caused by the test.=
<The intravenous fluid used to dilate your uterus will not harm the baby.=
<You will need to drink at least 3 glasses of water before the procedure.=
<Use the restroom immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.=
The client will undergo maternal serum-alphafetoprotein (MSAFP) determination. Which of the
following specimens are required? *
Blood from the chorionic villi
Amniotic fluid
Cervical secretions
Maternal blood sample
Which of the following statements are correct about amniotic fluid? *
It surrounds, cushions and protects the fetus and allows for fetal movement.
The normal volume by the end of pregnancy is from 800 to 1200.
The pH of the amniotic fluid is acidic, below 7.0
It maintains the body temperature of the fetus.
Which of the following nursing actions is not included when fetal kick counts will be done to a
pregnant client. *
Tell the patient that a hard, round, plastic disk called an ultrasound transducer picks up and marks and marks
the
Secure written consent from the patient before the procedure.
Instruct the patient to report to the nurse or physician if there are fewer than 10 kicks in a 12-hour period
Instruct the patient to sit or lie down on her side and count fetal kicks for a period of time.
fetal heart activity on the paper and is secured over the abdomen.
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After a non-stress test is completed, the nurse is looking at the results on a test strip. The nurse
observes that the fetal heart accelerated 15 bpm for every movement. The accelerations lasted 20
seconds and occurred 3 times during the 20-minute test. The nurse is correct in interpreting the test
as a: *
Reactive
Negative
Non-negative
Non-reactive
At this point in time the fetal heart sounds is already audible with the use of an ordinary
stethoscope. *
End of 2oth gestation week
End of pregnancy
End of 16th gestational week
End of the month
This time when lanugo begins to diminish. *
End of time
End of 36th gestational week
End of 46th gestational week
End of 4oth gestational week
It is when vernix caseosa is fully formed and fingernails extend over fingertips. *
End of 36th gestational week
End of 42nd gestational week
End of 4oth gestational week
End of 32nd gestational week
At what age of gestation does bone ossification centers starts forming? *
4th week
8th week
12th week
16th week
At what age of gestation can you recommend the mother to play classical music for the fetus? *
24 weeks
16 weeks
22 weeks
12 weeks
The clinical instructor is having a discussion with her students on fetal circulation. Which of the
following statements indicate understanding of the umbilical cord? *
<The umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein.=
"The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and two veins.=
"The umbilical cord is composed of one artery and one vein.=
"The umbilical cord is composed of two veins.=
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To be able to hear the fetal heart tone as early as 14 weeks of gestation, the nurse should use a: *
Stethoscope
Internal fetal monitor
Fetoscope
Doppler device
An obstetric client at 8 weeks? gestation asked the nurse if her heart is already beating at this time.
The correct answer of the nurse is that: *
At this time, the signs and symptoms of pregnancy that she experiences are the indicators that her baby is alive
Fetal heart beats as early as one month.
They have to perform an ultrasound to see if her baby?s heart is beating.
Fetal heartbeat can first be heard at 12 weeks? gestation using a Doppler
This refers to any factor, chemical or physical that adversely affects the fertilized ovum, embryo or
fetus. *
HIV
Tetratogen
Rubella
Teratogen
This refers to a disease that results from infection with the toxoplasma gondii parasite. *
Rubella
Toxoplasmosis
HIV
Cytomegalovirus
This refers to a kind of herpesvirus. *
Cytoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Toxoplasmosis
Mr. and Mrs. Santos visit the RHU and ask about the effects of teratogens on future pregnancies.
Which statement is inaccurate concerning the effects of teratogens? *
Teratogens are not equal in terms of their toxicity or their ability to cause harm.
Teratogens are equally harmful to each fetal system throughout pregnancy.
The amount of teratogens and the duration of exposure influence the extent of fetal damage that occurs.
Fetal susceptibility to teratogens vary.
An adolescent primigravida who is 8 weeks pregnant asks you, <How much alcohol is safe to drink
during pregnancy?= Which of the following is your best response? *
Up to 0.5 oz. daily
Up to 3 oz. daily
Social drinking only
No alcohol
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A primigravida, Mrs. Jose, tests positive for hepatitis B virus. The nurse determines that Mrs. Jose
understands about this infection when she says: *
<So, my baby will receive eye prophylaxis to prevent blindness.=
<I understand that my baby will stay in the nursery for a month.=
"I am so glad I can breastfeed my baby after he has been vaccinated with immune serum globulin.=
<I am glad I won?t transfer the virus to my baby.=
In early pregnancy, a serology test for syphilis is given to pregnant women. The nurse explains to
the client that the reason for this is: *
Syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4 months.
Syphilis may be passed to the infant during delivery and cause congenital syphilis.
The hormonal changes of pregnancy causes an exacerbation of latent syphilis
The law requires the serology test for all pregnant women.
The exact cause of labor is unknown. Some of these theories that explain labor onset include: *
Uterine stretch
Oxytocin theory
Decreased estrogen level
Increased progesterone level
Nurse Amy is teaching a small group of pregnant women who are in the third trimester. During the
open forum, Myrna, pregnant for the first time asks how she would know if labor is near. Nurse
Amy?s response should include the following EXCEPT: *
Decreased dyspnea, increased leg varicosities and frequency of voiding
Increased maternal activity and abdominal muscle tightening
Lightening around 2 weeks before labor
Weight gain and edema
Which of the following assessment findings will confirm spontaneous rupture of membranes? *
Negative ferning
Pain with fluid gushing
Absence of fluid pooling at the cervix
Bright blue nitrazine paper
Which of the following is a characteristic of Braxton Hicks contractions? *
Can be increased with activity and changing position
Irregular pattern?
Primarily felt in the back
Moderate to strong intensity
The nurse is giving information on the difference between true and false labor to a gravida 1 patient
who is in her third trimester. Which of the following statements when made by the patient indicates
that she understands the sign of true labor. *
<My contractions will occur regularly, become stronger, last longer and may occur closer together.=
<My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around.=
<I will be in labor once the baby engages.=
<My contractions will be felt in the abdominal area.=
The nurse is aware that a client at 40 weeks? gestation is experiencing true labor if: *
The pains become more noticeable.
Her membranes have ruptured
The fetal heart rate baseline decreases.
Cervical dilatation has occurred.
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All of the following are true to False Labor, EXCEPT: *
Begin & remain irregular
Felt 1st abdominally & remain confined to the abdomen & groin
Achieve cervical dilatation
Often disappear with ambulation & sleep
P2 -
EXAMINATION
P2 LONG EXAM – BELINDA
Which of the following does not belong to Second Level Assessment *
1/1
Inability to recognize the absence of condition or problem due to:
Inability to make decisions with respect to taking appropriate health actions due to:
Inability to provide adequate nursing care to the sick, disabled, dependent or vulnerable /at risk member of the
family due to:
Inability to provide home a home environment conducive to health maintenance and personal development due
to:
Failure to utilize community resources for health care due to:
A statement of health condition or problems, either wellness states, health threats, health deficit and
foreseeable crisis situations or stress points. *
1/1
first-level assessment
second –level assessment
Nursing assessment
Physical assessment
A statement of the family nursing problems. *
0/1
first-level assessment
second –level assessment
Nursing assessment
Physical assessment
Evaluate the family?s perception ad evaluation of the problem in terms of seriousness and urgency
of attention needed. *
1/1
Nature of the problem
Modifiability of the problem
Preventive potentials
Salience
It is designed upon completion of the assessment and the analysis and health diagnosis of the *
1/1
assessment
diagnosis
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plan of intervention
implementation
The purpose of the plan is to *
0/1
Eliciting behavioral change in the family that will promote health/ or prevent dysfunction.
Determining the order of priority of existing or potential problems
Identifying problems that can be handled by the community health nurse and the family, and those that maybe
referred to others for assistance.
Setting goals and objectives to resolve the problems
Predicting actions and expected outcomes
To guide the nurse in priority setting, the following factors need to be considered but one *
1/1
Family safety
Family perception
Practicality
Projected expenses
The following are good points for an effective health educator except *
1/1
Is clearly heard and understood in what she /he taught
Use simple attire
Use visual aid
summarized the main points.
With regards to illness prevention activities as part of nursing care, which of the following will help
clients most? *
1/1
Maintain maximum functions
Identify disease symptoms
Reduce the cost of health care
Promote health habits
A Community Health Nurse is scheduled for a home visit to achieve the best of health care in the
home. The first step during a home visit is one of the following: *
1/1
Count the available appliances
Explain purpose of the visit
Greet client and introduce self
Wash hands and perform procedures
Which one of the following is an important principle during a home visit? *
1/1
Inquiry about health and welfare
Performance for health assessment
Use of available information about the client
Evaluation of past services to the family
The frequency of a home visit is determined by which one of the following? *
1/1
Administration of medication
Need for health teaching
Result of health studied
Acceptance of the family
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Which of the following personnel do not have the <right to know= medical information? *
1/1
The facility?s Performance Improvement Director who is not a healthcare person and has no direct contact with
clients.
A nursing student who is caring for a client under the supervision of the nursing instructor.
The facility?s Safety Officer who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients
A department supervisor with no direct or indirect care duties
The nurse is talking with the family of an 18 months-old newly diagnosed with retinoblastoma. A
priority in communicating with the parents is for recording and reporting to the respective health
professional *
1/1
Discuss the need for genetic counseling
Inform them that combined therapy is seldom effective
Prepare for the child's permanent disfigurement
Suggest that total blindness may follow surgery
The community health nurse monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the MultiDrug Therapy, which component will be most useful? *
1/1
Tally report
Output report
Target/client list
Individual health record
Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health? *
1/1
Health for all Filipinos
Ensure the accessibility of recording and reporting the result of health care delivery system.
Improve the general health status of the population
Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020
All parents are entitled to a birthing environment in which breastfeeding is promoted and supported.
The Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative endorsed by WHO and UNICEF was founded to encourage
institutions to offer optimal levels of care for lactating mothers. Which instruction is not included in
the "Ten Steps to Successful Breastfeeding for Hospitals"? *
1/1
Give newborns no food or drink other than breast milk.
Have a written breastfeeding policy that is communicated to all staff.
Help mothers initiate breastfeeding within one half hour of birth.
Give artificial teats or pacifiers as necessary.
Nutrition is an alterable and important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such
as low birth weight and prematurity. While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant
client, the nurse is able to evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical
signs. Which physical sign indicates to the nurse that the client has unmet nutritional needs? *
1/1
Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure
Bright, clear, and shiny eyes
Alert and responsive with good endurance
Edema, tender calves, and tingling
What deficiencies to be aware of during the complementary feeding stage? *
1/1
Vitamin A and iron
A
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E
Vit D
With regard to the nutrient needs of breastfed and formula-fed infants, nurses should understand
that: *
1/1
Breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates.
During the first 3 months breastfed infants consumes more energy than do formula -fed infants.
Breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily at least during the first 2 months.
Vitamin K injections at birth are not needed for infants fed on specially enriched formula.
Which of the following vaccines are used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) that must be
stored in the freezer? *
1/1
DPT
Tetanus toxoid
Measles vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
A community nurse is aware that an unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after
reconstitution? *
1/1
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day
In immunizing children less than eight years of age with BCG, as a nurse, you are not obliged to
secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document? *
1/1
P.D. 996
R.A. 7846
Presidential Proclamation No. 6
Presidential Proclamation No. 46
Holly, a senior nurse is aware that this type of immunization will produce a permanent scar. *
1/1
DPT
BCG
Measles vaccination
Hepatitis B vaccination
If the child has wheezing and either fast breathing or chest indrawing present, the nurse should: *
1/1
Refer URGENTLY to hospital
Give a trial acting inhaled bronchodilator for up to 3 times
Assess vital signs
Give Vitamin A
Dysentery is classified if: *
1/1
There is Dehydration
Stools are watery
Fast breathing is present
There is blood in the stool
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All are signs of severe dehydration except *
1/1
Restlessness
Sunken eyes
Skin pinch goes back very slowly
Abnormally sleepy
Which type of plan would the nurse instruct to a child who was classified with severe dehydration? *
1/1
Plan
Plan
Plan
Plan
A
B
C
D
What specific enzyme deficiency accounts for 95% of all cases of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? *
1/1
21-hydroxylase deficiency
Estrogen synthetase deficiency
Beta-glucuronidase deficiency
7-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency
Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which
muscle site? *
1/1
Deltoid
Triceps
Vastus lateralis
Biceps
A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the
nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by: *
1/1
Warming the crib pad
Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
Closing the doors to the room
Drying the infant in a warm blanket
Soon after delivery a neonate is admitted to the central nursery. The nursery nurse begins the initial
assessment by *
1/1
Auscultate bowel sounds.
Determining chest circumference.
Inspecting the posture, color, and respiratory effort.
Checking for identifying birthmarks.
Clean Air Act has been clearly defined in what Republic Act? *
1/1
R.A. 8749
R.A. 9003
R.A. 8746
All of the above
Barangay health workers called for a barangay assembly meeting. The topic mentioned about
>Clean Air Act?. One of the citizens asked about, what are some of their Rights in accordance to
Clean Air Act. The RHU staff enumerated the rights except: *
1/1
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Right to
Right to
Right to
Right to
breath
utilize and enjoy all-natural resources according to principles of sustainable development.
discard non- hazardous household, commercial, institutional waste.
access to public records which a citizen may need to exercise his/her rights effective under this act.
A foodborne outbreak of salmonellosis has twice occurred at a day-treatment program. The
environmental health worker has requested that an advanced public health nurse be included in the
next inspection of the program's kitchen. During the visit, the nurse?s primary concern is to: *
1/1
Educate kitchen workers about safe and food preparation.
Ensure the workers understanding of various microorganism.
Identify other resources for providing various microorganism.
Promote the health of clients affected by the previous outbreak.
A resident in one of the communities complained of unacceptable smell on their areas which lead to
lots of fleas on their surroundings. To whom does the rural health nurse approach? *
1/1
Municipal health officer
Rural health midwife
Rural sanitation inspector
Barangay health workers.
The company nurse is caring for a patient who had an attack of vertigo while working inside the
company. The nurse knows that the most important consideration in regard for patient safety is to: *
1/1
Offer the patient alternative meal choices from the cafeteria.
Ask the nursing assistant to walk with the patient when she needs to use the bathroom.
Raise the side rails on the patient?s bed.
Remind the patient to wash her hands frequently, especially after voiding or before meal times.
The occupational nurse is correctly implementing the prescribed transmission-based precaution
when she does throat/mouth swab to every company worker. Which of the following is the correct
method? *
1/1
The nurse placed a supply of clean masks in the child?s room.
The nurse sends specimens to the laboratory in a zip-closure biohazard bag.
The nurse assigned the child in a semi-private room.
The nurse wipes the thermometer with alcohol every after use.
A nurse working in an occupational health setting will most likely work as a nurse *
1/1
Guardian
Clinician/Practitioner
Public health nurse
Physical therapist
Which is the best method an occupational health nurse can use when assessing workplace
hazards? *
1/1
Stay in the clinic
Wait for the worker to approach the nurse
Walk through the work site
Work with the workers
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A nurse who organizes and establishes a political action committee (PAC) in their local community
to address issues relating to the accessibility and affordability of healthcare resources in the
community is serving in which capacity and role of the registered nurse? *
1/1
Client advocate
Collaborator
Politician
Entrepreneur
Which of these statements related to information technology is accurate? *
1/1
Social networks and cell phone cameras pose low risk in terms of information technology security and
confidentiality.
The security of technological data and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by those
who work there.
The security of technological data and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by computer
hackers.
Computer data deletion destroys all evidence of the data.
Because several disciplines support the foundation of informatics nursing, it is important for the
informatics nurse to understand that: *
1/1
Informatics nursing differs from other disciplines, as it focuses on supporting the process of obtaining data.
Informatics nursing uses the concepts, tools, and methods of various disciplines to facilitate nursing process.
Information technology and nursing technology are synonymous, as they have the same goal.
The boundaries between the various disciplines are clearly defined.
Adherence to a standardized nursing language will lead to: *
1/1
A barrier in national interoperability.
A larger database of interventions.
Improved evaluation of nursing outcomes.
Increased nursing competencies.
An individual who provides labor to a company or another person. *
1/1
Employer
Owner
Employee
None of the above
Entrepreneur nurse does the work such as *
1/1
Uses his or her background in professional nursing to start their own business within the healthcare industry
The day-to-day responsibilities of a nurse entrepreneur depends upon the specific venture, but usually includes
activities related to running a business including accounting, marketing or sales, and developing a customer
base in the healthcare field.
Both A and B
None of the above
What is the business side of health care? *
1/1
Gender issues
Personal and ethical conflicts
The healthcare field also needs people with expertise in areas like policy analysis, finance and accounting,
budgeting, human resources, marketing, and information technology.
Athletic trainer
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How do you become a health care entrepreneur? *
1/1
Salesgirl
Most healthcare entrepreneurs either have a professional degree or have an excellent background in sales
Factory worker
Student
The scope of public health entrepreneurship is the following except: *
1/1
Public health insurance / benefits schemes
Health product production establishment
Public health consultancy agencies
Lack of technical support
What are the identified entrepreneurship barriers in nursing business? *
1/1
Job career culture
Social values
Medical-centered model
All of the above
Health problems are categorized according to factors affecting priority status except *
0/1
Health Threat - condition
Health Deficit- may lead to illness
Foreseeable crisis
Stress factor
To be an effective educator, one must start with a *
1/1
Educational plan
Teaching plan
Life plan
Health plan
Health Education Principles are but one *
1/1
It considers the health status of the people
It is a process whereby people learn to improve their personal habits and attitudes
To work responsibly for the improvement of business conditions of the family
It should be recognized as the basic function of all health workers.
Purposes of writing reports are except *
0/1
To show the kind and quantity of service rendered over to a specific period.
To show the progress in reaching goals.
As an aid in studying course
As an aid in planning.
Energy requirements in pregnancy and lactation *
1/1
350 kcal day
300kcal/day
400kcal/day
200kcal/day
Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (HPV) is given *
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1/1
subcutaneously
intramuscularly
intradermally
parenteral
If the Child have an Ear Problem expect? *
1/1
Give first dose of appropriate antibiotic
Give paracetamol for pain
Refer URGENTLY
Give antibiotic for 5 days
It is designed to screen infants shortly after birth for a list of conditions that are treatable but not
clinically evident in newborn period. *
1/1
New born test
Apgar scoring
Newborn Screening
Newborn monitoring
Health problems of school children are except *
0/1
Malnutrition
Infectious diseases
Intestinal parasites
Disease of the eyes
eHealth Vision By 2020 *
1/1
Will enable widespread access to health care services, health information, and securely share and exchange
patients ? information in support to a safer
Provides a systematic way to manage patient records and generates standardized reporting requirements both
at the local and national level.
To overcome geographical barriers, connecting users who are not on the same physical location
Improved ability to monitor compliance to medications and other treatment regimes
P2 LONG EXAM – CHUA
The clinic nurse instructs the mother on the introduction of solid foods to her baby. Which of the
following is the correct sequence? *
1/1
vegetable, fruit ,cereal meat, egg
fruit, meat ,cereal, vegetable , egg
cereal, vegetable, fruit, meat ,egg
cereal, meat ,fruit, vegetable, egg
A nurse is preparing to care for a 5-year-old who has been placed in traction following a fracture of
the femur. The nurse plans care, knowing that which of the following is the most appropriate activity
for this child?
1/1
Large picture books
A radio
Crayons and coloring book
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A sports video
The nurse is assessing a patient in the postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the
following assessment findings indicate an early sign of excessive blood loss? *
1/1
An increase in pulse rate from 78 to 106 bpm
A blood pressure change from 128/83 to 118/80 mmHg
A body temperature of 37.4C
A respiratory rate of 24/min.
Which of the following 1-day postpartum patients should be given the highest priority by the
nurse? *
1/1
The patient with bright red lochia with blot clots greater then 1cm
The patients who complaints of afterpains
The client with a pulse rate of 62 bpm
The patient with colostrum discharge from both breast
A one-year old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic for the first time. While assessing the infant?s
physical and social skills, the nurse suspects there is a developmental problem because of the
inability to: *
0/1
Say six words
Stand without support
Respond to peek-a-boo
Build a tower of two blocks
The woman is in active labor. The position of the fetus is left occiput posterior. Which of the
following measures should be included when caring for patients? *
Provide food and fluids
Assist the client to ambulate
Provide back massage
Allow the client to sleep
It is the condition where the fetal head cannot fit into the diameters of the maternal pelvis; thus
necessitating a C-section:
Dystocia
Cephalopelvic disproportion
False labor
Second stage arrest
Which would be appropriate teaching about the force that propels the fetus through the vagina
during labor? *
1/1
It is a combination of fundal and abdominal pressure
Mainly gravitational from the superior fetal lie
It is cervical contractions beginning with full dilatation
It is abdominal and perineal muscle contraction
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During the fourth stage of labor, the nurse encourages the mother to void because a full bladder
may:
1/1
A. interfere with cervical dilatation
B. obstruct the passage of the placenta
C. put the mother at risk for uterine hemorrage
D. obstruct progress of the infant through the birth canal
Which of the following toys is best for school age? *
0/1
tricycle
sorting games
painting
balls
The nurse attempts tp elicit the Moro reflex by:
1/1
A. Audible grunting sound
B. loudly tapping the bassinet
C. Brushing or stroking the cheek's near the corner of the mouth
D. Stroking the side of the feet in an attempt to have the toes spread in a "fan" fashion.
Which of the following factors affecting labor is associated with passageway? *
1/1
Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to maternal pelvis
The presentation of the fetus in relation to the maternal pelvis
The structure of the maternal pelvis
The frequency, duration and strength of the contraction
According to Erickson 2 year old John, is in which stage of development? *
1/1
Anal
Autonomy
Pre-conceptual
Concrete
When crowning is observed during labor, you would take which of the following actions? *
0/1
Position the woman on her left side
Have the woman hold her breath and push
Encourage the woman to pant
Prepare the woman to be transferred to the delivery room
On the first post partum day, the primiparous client complaints of perineal pain that was unrelieved
by Ibuprofen 400mg given 2 hours ago. The nurse would assess for which of the following?
0/1
A. Puerperal infection
B. Vaginal laceration
C. Perineal hematoma
D. History of drug abuse
A nurse is evaluating the developmental level of a 2-year-old. Which of the following does the nurse
expect to observe in this child? *
1/1
Uses a fork to eat
Uses a cup to drink
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Uses a knife for cutting food
Pours own milk into a cup
A woman who is having contractions is concerned whether she is in labor or not. She states "How
will you know if I am already in labor"? *
1/1
A bloody show is rare with false labor
Fetal movement ids decreased in true labor
The cervix dilates and effaces in true labor
The membranes rupture when true labor begins
Immediately, after episiotomy repair, the nurse would do which of the following?
1/1
A. Palpate the uterine fundus for size, consistency, and position and take vital signs to obtain the baseline data.
B. Remove all coverings except a clean, light hospital gown to prevent the development of post partal fever.
C. Cleanse the woman anal area, then perineum and vulva, to remove ant fecal incontinence or vaginal
secretions
D. Monitor the woman for shaking and complaints of chill sensation, which may indicate an adverse reaction to
medications.
Which of the following signs indicate that the placenta has separated and is ready to be delivered? *
0/1
Sudden gush of vaginal fluid
Globular and irregular uterine shape
Lengthening of umbilical cord
Cessation of contractions
When caring for a term neonate during the first hour after birth, the nurse expects to assess the
neonate's blood glucose level, obtaining the blood sample from the neonate's foot near which of the
following area?
0/1
A. Base of the toes
B. Middle of the foot
C. Middle of the heel
D. Lateral aspect of the heel
The public health nurse is conducting a class for mothers of 1-3 years. Which of these
characteristics are least likely to be observe in toddlers?
1/1
negativistic
dawdling
exhibits temper tantrums
cooperative
When a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate to
be most audible in which of the following areas? *
1/1
Above the maternal umbilicus
In the lower left maternal abdominal quadrant
In the lower right maternal abdominal quadrant
Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left midline
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A woman delivered a newborn 12 hours ago. Which of the following assessment would the nurse
expect to find? *
1/1
Lochia alba
Soft boggy fundus
Transient tachycardia
Complaints of hunger
In taking -in phase , the major role of the nurse is to: *
0/1
A. provide instruction for breastfeeding
B. implement mother-infant initial bonding
C. allow the mother to assume newborn care
D. encourage mother to talk about birth experiences
In the delivery room, after ensuring that the newborn has established respiration, what is the next
priority of the nurse? *
0/1
A. perform Apgar Score
B. place plastic clamp on the cord
C,. dry infant and provide warmth
D. ensure correct identification
The mother asks the nurse for advice about discipline for her 18-month-old. Which of the following
should the nurse suggest that the mother use? *
1/1
Structured interactions.
Spanking.
Reasoning.
Time out.
Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate that a patient in labor has progressed to the
second stage of labor? *
0/1
The cervix is dilated completely
Increase in body show
Uterine contractions occur every 3 to minutes, lasting 60 to 75 seconds, and are of strong intensity
Placental separation and expulsion
The nurse delegates the care of a multipara client who delivered a viable term neonate vaginally 30
hours ago and is preparing to be discharge to a nursing aide. The nurse expects to be notified by
the nursing if the client exhibits which of the following?
1/1
A. Pulse rate of 100bpm
B. Frequent voiding in large amount
C. Body temperature of 36.8 degree celsius
D. Excessive perspiration during assessment
When describing fetal position, the first letter in the series denotes:
1/1
Presenting part of the fetus
Side of maternal pelvis
Size of maternal pelvis
Type of fetal delivery
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After instructing a mother about normal reflexes of term neonates, the nurse determines that the
mother understands the instruction when she describes the tonic neck reflex as occurring when the
neonate does which of the following?
1/1
A. steps briskly when held upright near a frim, hard surface
B. extends and abducts the arms and legs with the toes fanning open
C. Turns head to the left, extends left extremities, and flexes right extremities
D. Pulls both arms and does not move the chin beyond the point of the elbow.
A nurse in the delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery of
the newborn, the nurse assist in delivering the placenta. Which observation would indicate that the
placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready for delivery? *
0/1
A. a soft and boggy uterus
B. changes in the shape of the uterus
C. maternal complaints of severe uterine cramping
D. the umbilical cord shortens and changes in color
In order to foster trust, which of the following measures is important? *
1/1
The mother should always be at home
The infant should be fed whenever he cries
The infant's needs should be met consistently
All of the above
A primipara calls the birthing unit 3 days after vaginal delivery. She tells the nurse that she is bottle feeding and her breast are swollen and painful. Which of the following instruction would be most
appropriate?
0/1
A. Wear a tight breast binder for the next 24 hours
B. Use ice packs for 20 minutes every 3 to 4 hours
C. Refrain from taking a shower with the water on the breast
D. Avoid wearing a bra to allow the engorgement to subside
The initial respiration of the newborn are a result from which of the following? *
1/1
A rise in temperature
A change in pressure gradients
Increased blood ph
Decreased blood CO2 level
The management of a client in the transition phase of labor is primarily directed towards: *
0/1
Helping the patient maintain control
Decreasing intravenous fluid intake
Reducing the client's discomfort
Having the client follow simple breathing patterns during contractions
The nurse is teaching the parents of an 8-month-old about what the child should eat. The nurse
should include which of the following points in the teaching plan? *
0/1
Items from all four food groups should be introduced to the infant by the time the child is 10 months old.
Solid foods should not be introduced until the infant is 10 months old.
Iron deficiency rarely deficient
The infant?s diet can be changed from formula to whole milk when the infant is 12 months old.
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Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2 perineal pads highly saturated with blood
within 2 hours postpartum, PR= 80bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well define. The
appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
1/1
A. Hemorrhage related to uterine atony
B. pain related to presence of episiotomy
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to bleeding
D. Risk for infection related to abnormal blood loss.
Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2 perineal pads highly saturated with blood
within 2 hours postpartum, PR= 80bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well define. The
appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
0/1
A. Hemorrhage related to uterine atony
B. pain related to presence of episiotomy
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to bleeding
D. Risk for infection related to abnormal blood loss.
The first period of reactivity begins at birth. Which of the following is characteristics of this period? *
1/1
This period last s about 30 minutes
The infant is asleep
A poor suck is present
Respiration maybe increased to 110 cpm
Twelve hours after vaginal delivery, the nurse palpates the fundus of a primiparous client and finds
it to be firm, above the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. Which of the following would the nurse
do next?
1/1
A. Gently massage the fundus to expel clots
B. Contact the physician for order of methylergonovine
C. Document this as a normal finding in the client's record
D. Encourage the client to ambulate to the bathroom and void
Which of the following group reflexes are present at birth and remains unchanged through
adulthood? *
1/1
Blink, cough, rooting and gag
Blink, cough, sneeze and gag
Rooting, sneeze, swallowing and cough
Stepping, blink, cough and sneeze
When preparing for the preschool-aged child for surgery, the nurse should remember that
preschoolers: *
0/1
Have little awareness of their environment.
Fear the loss of body integrity.
Are able to conceptualize the surgery.
Will resist any explanation about the surgery.
What is the best position to assume by a low risk parturient who is in early labor? *
1/1
Supine
Lithotomy
Left lateral recumbent
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Squatting
The nurse evaluates a 7 month- old infant for eruption of primary teeth and finds a normal eruption
schedule. At this stage , how many primary teeth are expected? *
1/1
A pair of upper and central incisor
A pair of lower central incisor
A pair of molars
Two pairs of incisor
Which of the following is true about episiotomy?
0/1
A. causes severe pain
B. delay's wound healing
C. heals more easily
D. more blood loss
It is time to give 3-year-old David his medication. Which approach is most likely to receive a positive
response? *
1/1
"It's time for your medication now, David. Would you like water or apple juice afterward?"
"Wouldn't you like to take your medicine, David?"
"You must take your medicine, David, because the doctor says it will make you better."
"See how nicely John took his medicine? Now take yours."
Immediately, after episiotomy repair, the nurse would do which of the following?
0/1
A. Palpate the uterine fundus for size, consistency, and position and take vital signs to obtain the baseline data.
B. Remove all coverings except a clean, light hospital gown to prevent the development of post partal fever.
C. Cleanse the woman anal area, then perineum and vulva, to remove ant fecal incontinenc e or vaginal
secretions
D. Monitor the woman for shaking and complaints of chill sensation, which may indicate an adverse reaction to
medications.
A 16-year-old is admitted to the hospital for acute appendicitis, and an appendectomy is performed.
Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to facilitate normal growth and
development? *
1/1
Allow the family to bring in the child's favorite computer games
Encourage the parents to room-in with the child
Encourage the child to rest and read
Allow the child to participate in activities with other individuals in the same age group when the condition permits
On baby Peter 's second hospital day, the nurse performs her morning assessment. When
assessing the chest comparatively to the head, she would expect:
A. The head and chest circumference to be equal
B. The head circumference to be about 2 cm less than the chest circumference
C. The chest circumference to be about 2 cm less than the head circumference
D. The chest circumference to be about 2 cm greater than the head circumference
After the third stage of labor, the nurse may have which of the following responsibilities?
0/1
A. Administration of intramuscular oxytocin to facilitate uterine contractility
B. pushing down on the relaxed uterus to aid in the removal of the placenta.
C. Monitor the blood loss greater than 300ml, which would indicate gross hemorrhage
D. Noting if the placenta makes a Shultze presentation, which is a sign of gross complications.
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P2 LONG EXAM – LOU VILLAFLOR
1. In order for us to become an effective nurse educator in the community first, we need to prepare
which of the following? *
Classroom
Visual aides
Pictures
Teaching plan
2. Which of the following is an indicator that you are an effective health educator? (SATA) *
Summarized the topics presented
Used visual aid
Used simple language
Clearly heard and understood
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the method of teaching knowledge? *
Carefully plan activities for the client where they can apply what they have just learned.
Use visual aids, handouts, audiovisuals, tapes
Encourage them to learn more from their own experiences, books, role models and from other family members.
Teach only the facts that the client doesn't need.
4. Which of the following must be followed in implementing the procedure of the proper bag
technique in conducting a home visit? *
Replace supplies fully every visit
PHN bag is an indispensable equipment
Clean supplies ready for use
Avoid transfer of infection
5. Which of the following is an indicator that frequent home visit be possible? *
Acceptance of the family
Administration of medication
Result of health studied
Need for health teaching
6. Which of the following is your first step to do as a nurse in doing home visits to achieve the best
of health care in the home? *
Count the available appliances
Explain purpose of the visit
Greet client and introduce self
Wash hands and perform procedures
7. Which of the following will help clients most with regards to illness prevention activities as part of
nursing care? *
Maintain maximum functions
Reduce the cost of health care
Promote health habitS
Identify disease symptoms
8. This refers to the signs or indicators that would tell us that the objective has been achieved. *
Criteria
Evaluation
Assessment
Data gathering
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9. This refers to the desired level of performance corresponding with a criterion against in which
actual performance is compared. *
Objective
Evaluation
Standard
Criteria
10. These are actions performed to accomplish an objective. *
Objective
Outcome
Goal
Activities
11. Which of the following states the importance of evaluation? *
To
To
To
To
provide documentations of the results of nursing efforts and justification of the cost of nursing services.
eliminate or stop the continued performance of useless activities and interventions.
promote growth of the profession and refinement of nursing practice.
increase the efficiency of nursing interventions
12. Which of the following personnel do not hav e the <right to know= medical information? *
A department supervisor with no direct or indirect care duties.
The facility?s Safety Officer who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients
The facility?s Performance Improvement Director who is not a healthcare person and has no direct contact with
clients.
A nursing student who is caring for a client under the supervision of the nursing instructor.
13. This is very essential in the communication of the health workers and the fami lies where case
date are being documented. *
Evaluation
Health records
Home visits
14. Which of the following statement is incorrect on how useful the records are for the nurses? *
Provides a basis for analyzing needs.
Provides basic facts for services.
Helps the nurse to evaluate care and teaching.
Provides duplication of services and helps follow up effectively.
15. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health? *
Improve the general health status of the population
Ensure the accessibility of recording and reporting the result of health care delivery system.
Health for all Filipinos
Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2021
16. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic? *
Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease
Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic
Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases
Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease
17. Which of the following refers to an act providing for mandatory basic immunization services for
infants and children? *
RA #7173
RA # 8749
RA #10193
RA # 10152
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18. Complete the following preventable diseases that are included in the Expanded of Immunization
: Tuberculosis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, tetanus, measles and_____ *
Diarrhea
Pertussis
Fever
Dysentery
19. In a case that the baby of more than two months was unable to receive the BCG vaccine,
purified protein derivative test is recommended if the following are present. *
Clinical findings suggestive of TB and/or chest x-ray suggestive of TB
History of close contact to known or suspected infectious TB cases
None of the choices
Congenital TB
20. The following vaccines are given intramuscularly, except. *
Hepatitis B vaccine
IPV
DPT
OPV
21. Varicella vaccine is given to babies at what minimum age? *
12 mos.
18 mos.
21 mos.
2 mos.
22. Which of the following vaccine are given at a minimum age of 12 months? *
DPT, MMR, RV
Varicella Vaccine, MMR, HAV
Influenza Vaccine, HAV, Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine
Varicella Vac, RV, DPT
23. Which of the following vaccine that is give at a minimum age of 12 months and at maximum age
of 12 years? *
HAV
Varicella vaccine
MMRV
MMR
24. Which of the following vaccine are given subcutaneously? *
MMRV, HPV, Measles vaccine, OPV
OPV, BCG, MMR
MMRV, Varicella vaccine, MMR, Measles vaccine
DPT, OPV, BCG
25. Which of the following is correct in giving the Hemophilus Influenzae Type B Vaccine? *
Given in combination with MMRV
A booster dose is given between 12-15 months of age with an interval of 6 months from the 3rd dose.
Given Subcutaneously
Given as a 3-dose primary series with a minimum age of 6 weeks and a minimum interval of 4 weeks
26. Which of the following vaccine that is given to children 9 months to 17 years of age should
receive one primary dose followed by a booster dose 12-24 months after the primary dose? *
Measles-Mumps-Rubella Vaccine
HAV
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Varicella vaccine
Japanese Encephalitis vaccine
27. Which of the following vaccines are used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) that
must be stored in the freezer? *
Hep B vaccine
Measles vaccine
Tetanus Toxoid
DPT
28. Which of the following legal document states that a nurse does not need to secure any parental
consent in immunizing children with BCG who are less than eight year of age? *
Presidential Proclamation No. 6
Presidential Proclamation No. 46
R.A. 7846
P.D. 996
29. Which of the following vaccine that produces a permanent scar? *
Measles vaccination
BCG
DPT
Hepatitis B vaccination
30. A two year old child who has fast breathing can be classified thru a respiratory rate of.. *
none of the above
50 bpm or more
60 bpm or more
40 bpm or more
31. As a nurse, how are you going to assess a child having a cough or difficulty in breathing?
(SATA) *
Listen for any stridor
Check respiratory rate
Check the stool for any blood
Check for chest indrawing
32. The following are treatment of Pneumonia, except. *
Soothe the throat and relieve cough with a safe remedy
Give an appropriate antibiotic for 5 days
Follow up in 5 days if not improving
Advise mother when to return immediately
33. In order to classify a child with pneumonia, there must be a presence of which of the
following? *
Chest indrawing
Stridor in a calm child
There blood in the urine
There is blood in the stool
34. In order to classify a child with dysentery there must be a presence of which of the following? *
presence of blood upon coughing
presence of blood in the stool
presence of blood in the urine
dehydration is evident
35. The following are the treatment for a child with diarrhea with no signs of dehydration. *
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Give fluid and food to treat diarrhea at home
Treat for 5 days with an oral antibiotic
Give Vitamin a
Refer to hospital
36. In order to classify a child experiencing dysentery with severe dehydration, the following signs
must be evident. *
Abnormally sleepy
Sunken eyes
Presence of stridor
Chest indrawing
37. A positive blood smear is an indication of what disease? *
Malaria
Diarrhea
Pneumonia
Dysentery
38. A negative blood smear is an indication of what disease? *
Fever: no malaria
Malaria
Very severe febrile disease
Fever: Malaria unlikely
39. In severe complicated measles, the treatment of choice are the following, except. *
Give first dose of an appropriate antibiotic
Give Vitamin A
Give paracetamol 1 tab RTC
Apply tetracycline eye ointment
40. Pus draining from the eye is an indication of what disease? *
Dysentery
Malaria
Diarrhea
Measles with eye or mouth complications
41. The following are the early essential newborn care within 90 minutes to 6 hours of life. *
First dose of MMR is given
Firs dose of DPT is given
a single dose of TT is given
a single dose of vitamin K is given
42. Which of the following newborn care must be given to the baby before discharge? *
Keep the baby in skin-to-skin contact with the mother as much as possible.
Explain to the mother that keeping the baby in the hospital for a few more days would be better.
Ensure that the baby's room is airconditioned.
All of the choices
43. This refers to a public health program designed to screen infants shortly after birth for a list of
conditions that are treatable but not clinically evident in newborn period. *
Newborn screening
urine screening test
Hearing test
intradermal screening
44. Which of the following is a home remedy for a child with measles? *
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For follow-up after five days
Give vitamin A
Give paracetamol
Refer to the nearest hospital
45. A child with bleeding gums or nose, presence of blood in the stool, and vomiting are indications
that the child has.. *
Severe dehydration
Severe malaria
Severe dengue hemorrhagic fever
Fever
46. A child who has no signs of severe dengue hemorrhagic fever is classified as. *
Fever: dengue hemorrhagic unlikely
Ear infection
Severe dengue hemorrhagic fever
Fever: malaria unlikely
47. Which of the following is an indication that the child is experiencing mastoiditis? *
Presence of ear pain
Pus is draining and ear pain
Pus is draining from the ear
There is a tender swelling behind the ear
48. The following are the home management for a child with chronic ear infection. *
No treatment at all
Follow up in 5 days
Give antibiotics for seven days
Dry the ear by wicking
49. Which of the following are the drug of choice for dysentery? *
Cotrimoxazole
Choloroquine
Amoxycillin
Tetracycline
50. These are all possible treatments for severe pneumonia except: *
Give vitamin A
Soothe the throat and relieve the cough with a safe remedy
Giver first dose of an appropriate antibiotic
Treat the child to prevent low blood sugar
51. Nurses should review which of the following reports to determine what pollutants have been
found in the drinking water in a community? *
Point source report
Consumer confidence report
Material Safety Data Sheet
Environmental standards report
52. The clinical instructor asks her students the rationale for handwashing. The students are correct
if they answered that handwashing is expected to remove: *
Resident flora from the skin.
All microorganisms from the skin.
Media for bacterial growth.
Transient flora from the skin.
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53. What is the act of cleaning one?s hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap for the
purpose of removing dirt or microorganisms? *
Surgical Asepsis
Handwashing
Aseptic technique
Medical Asepsis
54. A 4-year-old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of severe diarrhea and
the passage of <rice water=. The client is most probably suffering from which condition? *
Amoeba
Giardiasis
Cholera
Dysentery
55. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health? *
Health for all Filipinos
Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020
Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
Improve the general health status of the population
56. A newly hired midwife assigned in a remote rural health unit as new RHM. The following are the
functions of the RHM except: *
Conducts patient?s assessment and diagnosis for referral or further management
Manages BHS and supervises, trains BHW
Organizes community and facilitates barangay planning and community health services
Check healthy physical environment
57. Barangay health workers called for a barangay assembly meeting. The topic mentioned about
>Clean Air Act?. One of the citizens asked about, what are some of their Rights in accordance to
Clean Air Act. The RHU staff enumerated the rights except: A. Right to breath *
Right to discard non- hazardous household, commercial, institutional waste.
Right to access to public records which a citizen may need to exercise his/her rights effective under this act.
Right to utilize and enjoy all-natural resources according to principles of sustainable development.
Right to breath
58. Clean Air Act has been clearly defined in what Republic Act? *
R.A. 9003
R.A. 8749
R.A. 8746
None of the above
59. A resident in one of the communities complained of unacceptable smell on their areas which
lead to lots of fleas on their surroundings. To whom does the rural health nurse approach? *
Barangay health workers.
Rural sanitation inspector
Rural health midwife
Municipal health officer
60. A foodborne outbreak of salmonellosis has twice occurred at a day-treatment program. The
environmental health worker has requested that an advanced public health nurse be included in the
next inspection of the program's kitchen. During the visit, the nurse?s primary concern is to: *
Ensure the workers understanding of various microorganism.
Promote the health of clients affected by the previous outbreak.
Educate kitchen workers about safe and food preparation.
Identify other resources for providing various microorganism
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61. Which of the following are the identified entrepreneurship barriers in nursing business? *
Social values
Medical-centered model
Job career culture
All of the above
62. The following are the scope of public health entrepreneurship is the following except: *
Public health consultancy agencies
Health product production establishment
Lack of technical support
Public health insurance / benefits schemes
63. The following are the reasons on how to become a health care entrepreneur? *
Most healthcare entrepreneurs either have a professional degree or have an excellent background in sales
Student
Factory worker
Salesgirl
64. Which of the following refers to the business side of health care? *
Personal and ethical conflicts
The healthcare field also needs people with expertise in areas like policy analysis, finance and accounting,
budgeting, human resources, marketing, and information technology.
Athletic trainer
Gender issues
65. Which of the following is the work of an Entrepreneur nurse? *
Uses his or her background in professional nursing to start their own business within the healthcare industry
Manager
Manage financial resources
None of the choices
66. Which of the following individual provides labor to a company or another person? *
None of the choices
Owner
Employee
Employer
67. Which of the following are the roles and duties of the entrepreneur nurse? *
Nursing educator
All of the choices
Provide health care products.
Promote business according to ordinance of the law
68. The following are the various role of entrepreneurship that contribute the socioeconomic
development in the society. *
Contributing to national income
All of the choices
Identifying existing opportunities in the market
Creating employment opportunities
69. Which of the following are an indicator of peoples success in community organizing about
healthcare business? *
Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
Identify the health problem as a common concern
Participate in community activities for the solution of accepting health care product with low cost.
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70. A person, firm or other entity which pays for or hires the services of another person. *
Co-employee
Employer
Patient
Nursing Orderlies
71. Which of the following is an indicator that the informatics nurse violates a patient's legal right to
privacy and confidentiality? *
discussing care-related information with the patient's physical therapist.
looking up a colleague's diagnosis and laboratory results while he or she is hospitalized.
discussing a patient's diagnosis with an authorized family member.
providing a handoff report containing patient information to another department
72. The use of parallel strategy for the roll-out of an electronic medication administration system
means that: *
Notebook computers and bar code scanners are positioned on the same surface.
Vital signs are entered on the same screen as is medication administration.
Data entries are cosigned by two health care team members.
Medications are documented using both the current method and the new system.
73. Integrating clinical practice guidelines with an electronic health record facilitates quality
improvement measurement by: *
Providing reference information to measurement staff.
Comparing guideline parameters to clinical outcomes.
Presenting patient acuity data.
Presenting results at the point of treatment decisions.
74. Adult learners most effectively learn about a new clinical information system when the
instructor: *
Begins the formal training as early as possible in the implementation process
Encourages the learner to use previous experience to interpret new learning.
Emphasizes the technical specifications of the structure of the system.
Assumes that the learner knows nothing about the system.
75. An adherence to a standardized nursing language will lead to: *
A barrier in national interoperability.
Increased nursing competencies.
Improved evaluation of nursing outcomes.
A larger database of interventions.
76. A nurse who organizes and establishes a political action committee (PAC) in their local
community to address issues relating to the accessibility and affordability of healthcare resources in
the community is serving in which capacity and role of the registered nurse? *
Politician
Client advocate
Entrepreneur
Collaborator
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RAD EXAM
1
ST
PART
1. The nurse has performed a nonstress test on a pregnant client and is reviewing the fetal monitor
strip. The nurse interprets the test as reactive. How should the nurse document this finding? *
The need for further evaluation
Abnormal
That findings were difficult to interpret.
Normal
2. Elevated alpha-fetoprotein is associated with which of the following conditions? *
Spinal cord defect
Fetal liver damage
Facial malformations
Down syndrome
3. This procedure entails the aspiration of amniotic fluid from the pregnant mother for examination. *
Alpha-fetoprotein
Chorionic villi sampling
Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
Amniocentesis
4. The nurse in the health care clinic is instructing a pregnant client how to perform <kick counts=.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? *
<If I count fewer than 10 kicks in a 2-hour period, I should walk around a little and count the kicks again over the
next 2-hour.=
<I should place my hands on the largest part of my abdomen and concentrate on the fetal movements to count
the kicks.=
<I will record the number of movements or kicks in an hour.=
<I need to lie flat on my back to perform the procedure for 3 hours.=
5. The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client who is scheduled for an amniocentesis.
What instruction should the nurse provide? *
An informed consent needs to be signed before the procedure.
A fever is expected after the procedure because of the trauma to the abdomen.
Hospitalization is necessary for 24 hours after the procedure.
Strict bed rest is required after the procedure.
6. The normal circulation differs from the fetal circulation because *
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None of the above
The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an organ and most of the blood in the fetal circulation is mixed blood.
The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is shunted to the right atrium to facilitate its passage to the lungs
The blood in the left side of the fetal heart contains oxygenated blood while the blood on the right side contains
unoxygenated blood.
7. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the prenatal client about the purpose of the
placenta? *
It
It
It
It
maintains the temperature of the baby
cushions and protects the baby
prevents all antibodies and viruses from passing to the baby
is the way the baby gets food and oxygen
8. The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a client in the
class asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days, what is the nurse's best
response? *
"It
"It
"It
"It
promotes
promotes
promotes
promotes
the
the
the
the
fertilized
fertilized
fertilized
fertilized
ovum's
ovum's
ovum's
ovum's
exposure to luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone"
normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus"
exposure to estrogen and progesterone"
chances of survival"
9. A pregnancy client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the gender of her baby as soon
as it can be determined. The nurse understands that the client should be able to find out the gender
at 12 weeks' gestation because of which factor. *
The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin
The internal differences in males and females become apparent
The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac
The appearance of the fetal external genitalia
10. A nursing student is assigned to care for a client in labor. The nursing instructor asks the
student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which statement is correct
regarding the ductus venosus? *
Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
Is an opening between the right and left atria
Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta
Connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava
11. The nursing student is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation. Which
statement should be included in the teaching plan? *
"Two arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus"
"Two veins carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the fetus to the
placenta"
"One artery carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus"
"Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta"
12. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? *
12 weeks gestation
20 weeks gestation
8 weeks gestation
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16 weeks gestation
13. After the first four months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is the: *
Placenta
Anterior hypophysis
Adrenal cortex
Corpus luteum
14. The developing cells are called a fetus from the: *
End of the send week to the onset of labor
Implantation of the fertilized ovum
Eighth week to the time of birth
Time the fetal heart is heard
15. During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse determines
that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is noted? *
100 BPM
80 BPM
150 BPM
180 BPM
16. A student nurse Roger is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during a prenatal
visit. The student nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation consists of: *
Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus
Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus
Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
17. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception? *
Zygote
Chromosome
Trophoblast
Blastocyst
18. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of
which of the following? *
Vernix
Meconium
Lanugo
Hydramnios
19. When measuring a client?s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct
method of measurement used by the nurse? *
From the fundus to the umbilicus
From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
20. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks? gestation, the nurse would use
which of the following? *
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Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
21. You are counseling an 11-year-old girl and her mother in the rural health unit. The mother is
communicating concerns to you about anticipatory guidance about menstruation. The family
appears receptive and interested about the importance of health care. You would know that
including menstruation as a part of health education on this visit would be important because: *
menarche should have occurred at age 9 years.
the patient is in jeopardy for experiencing regular cyclic hormonal changes.
menopausal changes that could be a threat to the patient?s health may be occurring.
menstruation is an initiation to sexuality and womanhood.
22. In the menstrual cycle, the proliferative phase which is characterized by the growth of
endometrium is under the influence of *
estrogen
corpus luteum
HCG
progesterone.
23. During the menstrual cycle, there is a hormone that causes a rise in the basal body
temperature. This hormone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation and is *
estrogen
LH
FSH
progesterone
24. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of menstrual cycle? *
Allows a woman to shed off dirty blood from the circulation.
Makes a woman achieve positive self-identity.
Initiates childbearing and childrearing.
Brings an ovum to maturity and renews intrauterine tissue.
25. Which of the following regarding menarche is CORRECT? *
All of the above.
It is a sign of puberty.
It is indicative of sexual maturity.
It occurs between the ages 11 – 18.
26. Clitoral erection during sexual arousal is due to the congestion of blood by the: *
Bulbocavernosus muscle
Levatorani muscle
Grafenberg spot
Ischiocavernosus muscle
27. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic? *
Secretions from Skene?s gland
Secretions from Bartholin?s glands
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The action of Doderlein bacillus
Cervical mucus changes
28. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the differentiation of male reproductive
organs during fetal life? *
Luteinizing hormone
Progesterone
Testosterone
Estrogen
29. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation? *
Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.
During menstruation the basal layer of the endometrium is shed, with the functional layer remaining intac t.
During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the basal layer remaining intact.
30. In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle when would you expect ovulation to take place? *
Day 12
Days 13
Days 14
Day 11
31. This family is described as cults or composed of group of people who follows a charismatic
leader. *
Blended
Communal
Remarriage
Reconstituted
32. The Malandi family was a single-parent family before Mrs. Malandi remarried. What is a
common concern of single-parent families? *
Children do not know any other family like theirs.
Reading disorders are common.
Finances are inadequate.
Children miss many days of school.
33. Which of the following is most likely the reason why couples cohabitate? *
c. Parents of both parties do not agree of their marriage.
d. It can serve as the mark of a wealthy man as wives cost money
a. It is their way of getting to know a potential life partner better before marriage.
b. No financial resources, because it means a lot of money to be married this day.
34. The DISADVANTAGE of polygamous family is? *
It provides other options when the need for sexual intercourse is felt.
Family resources, both financial and psychological, must be stretched to accommodate all members.
Problems that can arise are jealousy and rivalry between wives because of perceived favoritism.
Low income, difficulty with role modeling or clearly identifying their role in the family.
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35. Clarissa had been married for 5 years, and now has 3 children. Her husband is working in the
nearby town. The type of family that she establishes is known as. *
Family of origin
Family of orientation
Family of generation
Family of procreation
2
ND
PART
1. It is the transfer of body heat to a cooler solid object not in contact with the baby. *
Radiation
Convection
Evaporation
Conduction
2. Which is NOT true in the Schultz mechanism of placental expulsion? *
Most common type of placental separation.
Side showing the insertion of the cord.
Maternal surface appears first.
Fetal surface appears first.
3. It is the transfer of body heat to a cooler solid object in contact with a baby *
Evaporation
Radiation
Convection
Conduction
4. The nurse transfers Mrs. Melchor to the delivery room when: *
as soon as her cervix is 7 cm dilated.
when her bag of waters ruptures.
when on IE she is completely effaced and dilated.
when the client says she cannot control her urge to push.
5. It is the flow of heat from the newborn?s body surface to cooler surrounding air. *
Conduction
Radiation
Evaporation
Convection
6. Several factors affect labor. Which of the following factors refers to passageway? *
The distance of the presenting part from the ischial spines.
The structure of the maternal pelvis.
The fetal attitude and the relationship of fetal parts to one another.
Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to the maternal pelvis.
7. On palpation of the client?s uterus, you noticed that it is boggy and displaced to the right. With
this finding, it is important for you to: *
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check if the oxytocin is infusing properly.
assess if lochial flow is within normal limits.
check under the buttocks for pooling of blood.
assess if client has bladder distension.
8. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse
would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following? *
Thrombophlebitis
Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
9. Nurse Jane measures the head circumference of a newborn and it measures 38 cm. She would
suspect that the baby has. *
Acephaly
Hydrocephalus
Macrocephaly
Microcephaly
10. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? *
Presumptive signs
Diagnostic signs
Probable signs
Positive signs
11. Normal head circumference of the newborn ranges from? *
13 – 14 inches
33 – 37 cm
30 – 35 cm
10 – 13 inches
12. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal
development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition? *
Second trimester
Prepregnant period
Third trimester
First trimester
13. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is prescribed for a woman following delivery of a newborn
infant and the nurse provides information to the woman about the purpose of the medication. The
nurse determines that the woman understands the purpose of the medication if the woman states
that it will protect her next baby from which of the following? *
Having Rh positive blood
Being affected by Rh incompatibility
Developing a rubella infection
Developing physiological jaundice
14. At the end of the second stage of labor, the nurse administers oxytocin per doctor?s order. The
nurse understands that the desired effect of oxytocin is achieved when: *
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0
the
the
the
the
uterus is firm on palpation.
mother says that she feels comfortable now.
amount of lochial flow is not excessive.
mother complains of uterine cramping.
15. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is
positive. The physician has documented the presence of a Goodell?s sign. The nurse determines
this sign indicates: *
The presence of hCG in the urine
A softening of the cervix
A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus.
The presence of fetal movement
16. The nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that she is
pregnant and is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy. Select all probable signs of
pregnancy. i. Uterine enlargement ii. Fetal heart rate detected by nonelectric device iii. Outline of
the fetus via radiography or ultrasound iv. Chadwick?s sign v. Braxton Hicks contractions vi.
Ballottement *
Iii, v, vi
all of the above
iv, v, vi
I, ii, iii
17. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? *
Hegar?s sign
Nausea and vomiting
Positive serum pregnancy test
Skin pigmentation changes
18. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to
occur during the first trimester? *
Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
19. A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic during
her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal physical finding
necessitating further testing? *
Consistent increase in fundal height
Fetal heart rate of 180 BPM
Quickening
Braxton hicks? contractions
20. Which of the following terms is used to describe the thinning and shortening of the cervix that
occurs just before and during labor? *
Ballotement
Effacement
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Dilatation
Multiparous
21. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the assessment of a
pregnant client to describe the process of quickening. Which of the following statements if made by
the student indicates an understanding of this term? *
<It
<It
<It
<It
is
is
is
is
the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.=
the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.=
the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.=
the thinning of the lower uterine segment.=
22. Your client asks how long will she be in labor. All of the following factors will influence the length
of her labor, EXCEPT: *
mental attitude of the mother
position of the fetus inside the utero.
size of the placenta.
size of the baby.
23. A nurse midwife is performing an assessment of a pregnant client and is assessing the client for
the presence of ballottement. Which of the following would the nurse implement to test for the
presence of ballottement? *
Palpating the abdomen for fetal movement
Assessing the cervix for thinning
Initiating a gentle upward tap on the cervix
Auscultating for fetal heart sounds
24. Relationship to fetal parts to each other is called fetal attitude. In which fetal attitude the
presenting anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head is 9.5 cm? *
Extreme extension
Partial extension
Full flexion
Military position
25. The nurse?s action that has the highest priority for a client in the second stage of labor is to: *
check the fetal position.
help the client push effectively.
prepare the client to breastfeed on the delivery table.
administer medication for the pain.
26. Increasing intensity refers to which phase of uterine contraction? *
Acme
Decrement
Intervals
Increment
27. In the 12th week of gestation, a client completely expels the products of conception. Because
the client is Rh negative, the nurse must: *
Administer RhoGAM within 72 hours
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Not give RhoGAM, since it is not used with the birth of a stillborn
Make certain she receives RhoGAM on her first clinic visit
Make certain the client does not receive RhoGAM, since the gestation only lasted 12 weeks.
28. How will you interpret the partograph if the dilatation line does not cross the alert line after
several hours? *
Needs immediate referral.
Poor cervical dilatation.
Slow labor progression.
Good labor progression.
29. The nurse recognizes that an expected change in the hematologic system that occurs during
the 2nd trimester of pregnancy is: *
A decrease in sedimentation rate
In increase in hematocrit
An increase in blood volume
A decrease in WBC?s
30. The nurse is aware than an adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic
region that results in a purplish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa, which is known as: *
Hegar?s sign
Chadwick?s sign
Ladin?s sign
Goodell?s sign
SITUATION: Mrs. Mary Ann Melchor, G2P1 is in the labor room. She is becoming very quiet and
irritable. 31. Mrs. Melchor?s cervix is completely dilated but on IE, the nurse noted that the station
has not progressed. What is the next appropriate action of the nurse? *
Palpate if the client?s bladder is full.
Request for an ultrasound.
Document the finding in the client?s chart.
Notify the physician.
32. After the placenta separates, the nurse?s next action would be: *
inserting the entire fingers and manually evacuate retained fragments.
disposing immediately the placenta.
massaging the uterus immediately.
inserting vaginal speculum to assess retained placental fragments.
33. In the second stage of labor, the nurse places Mrs. Melchor in this position to facilitate
pushing. *
Sim?s position
Trendelenburg position
Semi-fowler?s position
High backrest
34. An expected cardiopulmonary adaptation experienced by most pregnant women is: *
Tachycardia
Dyspnea at rest
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Progression of dependent edema
Shortness of breath on exertion
35. As soon as the infant?s head is delivered, the nurse should do which of the following actions? *
Insert fingers to check for nuchal cord.
Facilitate delivery of the anterior shoulder.
Stimulate the infant to cry.
Cleanse the infant?s face.
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RD
PART
1. Beginning of verbal communication is one of the most important tasks that infants need to
achieve. The nurse teaches Jane?s mother that by 12 months of age she should display which
characteristics? *
<Children this age can usually say around two words, plus >ma -ma? and >da-da?=
<A 12-month-old child can express his or her basic needs verbally=
<One-year-olds can usually say more words than they are able to understand=
<An infant who is this age usually can?t understand spoken words.
2. On the third postpartum day, Mrs. Jessa tells the nurse that she sometimes has difficulty getting
the infant to suck. She describes the infant opening her mouth when the breast touches her face
but turning her head in the opposite direction. The nurse would explain that this behavior is related
to: *
the rooting reflex, which suggests improper technique when placing the infant on the breast.
turning neck reflex, which suggests that breastfed infants are most sensitive to tactile stimulation.
the infant?s immaturity and unfamiliarity with the technique of feeding.
the extrusion reflex, normal for newborns, and demonstrates the need for much assistance to endure adequate
nutrition.
3. You?re assessing the one-minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note
the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 101, cyanotic body and extremities, no
response to stimulation, no flexion of extremities, and strong cry. What is your patient?s APGAR
score? *
APGAR
APGAR
APGAR
APGAR
2
6
3
4
4. Which of the following data would alert that nurse that the infant is experiencing dehydration? *
Urine specific gravity 1.006.
Low serum sodium.
Sunken anterior fontanel.
Urine volume 2 mL/kg/hr.
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5. A newborn's five-minute APGAR score is 5Which of the following nursing interventions will you
provide to this newborn? *
Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score.
Routine post-delivery care
Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes.
Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby?s back and reassess APGAR score.
6. Based on the principles of growth and development, which of the following assessment findings
would lead you to determine that a child is developing normally? *
He has not gained weight for 3 months.
He pulled himself to his feet before he sat steadily
He can throw a large but not a small ball.
The left side of his chest is larger than the right.
7. According to Erikson?s theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense of trust
when *
they feel a sense of belonging and being accepted as part of the family.
they can identify and distinguish their mother and father.
they can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met.
nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis.
8. Keeping in mind the leading cause of accidents in infants, the nurse should advise parents to *
buy clothes for the infant with buttons rather than snaps.
check all toys for small, removable parts.
avoid finger foods before the age of 15 months.
provide round, cylinder-type toys.
9. Baby Ochua was hospitalized for several weeks. Her mother was not able to visit her frequently
than twice a month. To prevent emotional deprivation during this time, the most important measure
could be taken by a nurse is: *
assigning the same staff on duty to provide care for her each day.
giving her many toys to keep her occupied.
placing her crib near the entrance so that she will not be alone.
placing her each day in a playpen near other same age group of hers.
10. The mother of a 3-month-old is concerned because her daughter does not yet sit by herself.
Which of the following statements best reflects average sitting ability? *
Sitting ability and the age of first tooth eruption are correlated.
Most babies do not sit steadily until 8 months; she is normal.
Most babies sit steadily at 3 months; she is slightly delayed.
Most babies sit steadily at 4 months; she is normal.
11. The peripheral circulation of a newborn remains sluggish for at least the first 24 hours. It is
common to observe cyanosis in the infant?s feet and hands and termed as? *
Acrocyanosis
Central cyanosis
Differential cyanosis
Peripheral cyanosis
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12. You?re assessing the one-minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note
the following about your newborn patient: weak cry, some flexion of the arm and legs, active
movement and cries to stimulation, heart rate 145, and pallor all over the body and extremities.
What is your patient?s APGAR score? *
APGAR
APGAR
APGAR
APGAR
5
12
6
9
13. The nurse is discussing object permanence to Ramon?s mother. Which action by her infant best
illustrates that he understands object permanence? *
The child
The child
The child
The child
smiles when the mobile on the crib jingles
prefers a large yellow ball to a small red one.
looks for the mother after she walks away.
cries when either hungry or lonely.
14. Because bile pigments are not entering the intestinal tract, a newborn with bile duct obstruction
has. *
Tarry stools
Mucus-mixed stools
Blood-streaked stools
Clay colored stools
15. The nurse reviews infant safety. It is most important to teach his mother about preventing which
common injuries among infants? *
Aspiration and falls
Auto accidents and burns
Poisoning and suffocation
Drowning and hypersensitivities
16. At what age should and infant begin to locate an object hidden under a blanket? *
12 months
10 months
6 months
8 months
17. When assessing the visual ability of a 7-month-old boy, you should *
Observe the infant?s ability to follow hand motions
Use a mirror to observe the infant?s response to his image.
Use a brightly colored object and check the infant?s ability to follow object
Attempt to place a familiar object in the infant?s hand and observe his response
18. It is special tissue found in mature newborns, apparently helps to conserve or produce body
heat by increasing metabolism. *
Saturated fats
White fats
Brown fats
Adipose tissue
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19. Nurse is preparing to care for a 5-year-old who has been placed in traction following a fracture
of the femur. The nurse plans care, knowing that which of the following is the most appropriate
activity for this child? *
A sports video
Crayons and coloring book
Large picture books
A radio
20. Which of the following types of play is primarily demonstrated by preschoolers? *
Cooperative
Solitary
Parallel
Imaginary
21. When preparing a preschooler for hospitalization, you would plan interventions to address which
fear? *
Fear of
Fear of
Fear of
Fear of
loving
losing control
the dark
abandonment
22. Which action would be most appropriate to help lessen the feelings of rivalry among siblings? *
Allow the older siblings to practice adult roles to comfort him or her.
Separate siblings and give individual attention separately
Interact with younger and older siblings together
Punish for unacceptable behavior
23. You admitted a preschooler in the hospital the day before scheduled surgery. This is the child?s
first hospitalization. Which action will best help the child?s anxiety about the upcoming surgery? *
Explain that the child will be put to sleep during surgery and won?t feel anything
Begin preoperative teaching immediately
Give the child dolls and medical equipment to play out the experience
Describe preoperative and postoperative procedures in detail
24. The following are methods to prevent cold stress. Except. *
Place them under a radiant heat source
Skin-to-skin contact
Place the baby near the wall
Dry and wrap the baby
26. A mother arrives at a clinic with her preschooler and tells the nurse that she has a difficult time
getting the child to go to bed at night. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest
to the mother? *
Allow the child to set bedtime limits
Avoid a nap during the day
Allow the child to have temper and tantrums
Inform the child of bedtime a few minutes before it is time for bed
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26. A child is always talking about her teacher. She always sees to it that all her actions are in
accordance with what her teacher says. As a nurse, you will conclude that the child is under what
stage of the Psychosexual Theory? *
Anal stage
Genital stage
Phallic stage
Latency stage
27. The school age child is causing concern because he lacks manners at mealtime. You suggest: *
Deprive him of his favorite foods until his manner improves
Minimize the problem and it will go away
Setting an example is better than continual scolding
Send the child away from the table each time he forgets his manner
28. The mother of a 16-year-old tells the nurse that she is concerned because the child sleeps
about 8 hours every night until noontime every weekend. The appropriate nursing response is
which of the following? *
<The child should not be staying up so late at night.=
<If the child eats properly, that should not be happening.=
<The child probably is anemic and should not eat more foods containing iron.=
<Adolescents need that amount of sleep every night.=
29. They are the greatest determinants or influencing factors of an adolescent?s behavior: *
Parents
Teachers
Peers
Siblings
30. In assessing the newborn?s RR the nurse must observe primarily the. *
Diaphragm
Mouth
Nostrils
Abdomen
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