CRIMINOLOGY (20%)
INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
1. What kind of crime is committed when there is a violation of the
criminal law by a person of respectability and high social status in the
course of his or her occupation?
A. White collar crime
C. Upper world crime
B. Blue collar crime
D. Underworld crime
2. The leading theorists in criminology history started with the advocacies
of the classical school of criminology through –
A. Marx and Engel
C. Lombroso- Ferri- Garofalo
B. Howard and Freud D. Beccaria and Bentham
3. Section 1 of Republic Act 11131 provides that the law regulating the
Criminology profession in the Philippines shall be known as –
A. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018
B. The Criminology Profession Act of the Philippines
C. The 2018 Philippine Criminology Profession
D. The Criminology Modernization Act of the 2018
4. Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as
a public order crime or –
A. crimes against person
C. violent crime
B. physical crime
D. victimless crime
5. Positivist School considered him a “Forerunner in Criminology”. He
founded the school of human physiognomy which is the study of facial
features and their relation to human behavior. Who is he?
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Giambattista Dela Porta
D. Ernest Kretchmer
6. Which is TRUE about public order crimes?
A. These are crimes defined by legislative bodies in response to
changing social conditions, public opinion, and custom
B. These are acts considered illegal because they threaten general wellbeing of society and challenge its accepted moral principles
C. These are crimes that violate the moral order but there is no actual
victim or target.
D. These are illegal acts that capitalize on a person’s status in the
market place
7. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of
other sciences and field of study which makes the study of criminology:
A. Dynamic
C. Social science
B. Nationalistic
D. An applied science
8. Criminal __________refers to the study of the relationship between
criminality and the inhabitants of a certain locality:
A. ecology
C. epidiomology
B. demography
D. physical anthropology
9. Which deals primarily with the study of crime commission?
A. Criminology
C. Victimology
B. Criminal Etiology
`
D. Criminal Sociology
10.
Pedro Tatlongbayan, a victim of robbery, was able to identify his
assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on the way to the hospital where he
was declared dead on arrival, This crime is called –
A. complex crime
C. instant crime
B. simple crime
D. situational crime
11.
Brigida is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal
communication. She had committed estafa to several persons through
illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did she committed?
A. Acquisitive crime
C. Instant crime
B. Extinctive crime
D. Situational crime
12.
Man’s external manifestation in relation to criminality is studied
using science known as –
A. Atavistic criminology
C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychology
D. Physical anthropology
13.
What crimes according to the time or period of the commission are
those which are committed only when the circumstances or situation is
conducive to its commission like for instance, committing theft in a
crowded place?
A. Seasonal
C. Situational
B. Instant
D. Continuing
14.
There are crimes that are committed within a certain length of
time. What crime is committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of
time?
A. Static
C. Situational
B. Instant
D. Episoidal
15.
Theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to maintain
one’s livelihood or as a means for living are classified as –
A. rational crimes
C. blue-collar crimes
B. irrational crimes
D. white collar crimes
16.
One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What
kind of criminal is that whose action arises from the intra-psychic
conflict between the social and anti-social components of his
personality?
A. Acute
C. Chronic
B. Neurotic
D. Normal
17.
On the basis of activities what type of criminals who commit a
crime as a way of living, hence they make it a means of livelihood?
A. Situational
C. Accidental
B. Habitual
D. Professional
18.
During the prehistoric times, there was no formal criminal justice
system, and crimes where punished based on –
A. formal laws
C. conscience
B. customs
D. The Bible
19.
Which classification of criminal whose actions arise from intrapsychic conflict between social and anti-social components of his
personality?
A. Neurotic
C. Criminaloids
B. Abnormal
D. Psychotic
20.
He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study
of society, which to him passes through stages divided on the basis of
how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational
scientific understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive
stage and those who followed his writings were called –
A. Positivism
C. Sociologists
B. Positivists
D. Scientists
21.
In the book “On Crimes and Punishment”, what was said to be the
most effective means of controlling crime?
A. Death penalty
C. Certainty of punishment
B. Monetary fine
D. Life imprisonment
22.
Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he
concluded that the main difference between a criminal and a noncriminal is that each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
A. Emile Durkheim
B. Thorsten Sellin
C. Andre Michael Guerry
D. Abraham Maslow
23.
This school of thought in criminology states that although
individuals have self-rule, there are other factors that affect the exercise
of their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
A. Neo-classical
C. Utilitarianism
B. Classical
D. Positivist
24.
This refers to an individual’s physical features that resemble those
of apes and are said to be factors as to whether a person will become a
criminal or not:
A. Atavistic stigmata
C. Ape-like peculiarities
B. Ape-like features
D. Physical deviation
25.
Frustration can be manifested by the presence of anxiety,
irritability and –
A. state of fear
C. self fulfillment
B. satisfaction
D. peace
26.
Standard of behavior or conduct accepted in a given society
which expected of an individual living in that society is –
A. culture
C. norms
B. principles
D. laws
27.
Breakdown of social order as a result of the loss of order in a
society is known as –
A. Synomie
C. Anarchy
B. Anomie
D. Chaos
28.
He introduced the “Theory of Imitation” which states that
individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and that those
with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with
stronger personalities. Who is he?
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Gabriel Tarde
D. Enrico Ferri
29.
In Biological Theory, the following can lead to criminal behavior,
EXCEPT:
A. Physical Defects
C. Abnormal Brain Activity
B. Chromosome Irregularity
D. Inferior body construction
30.
This theory presented the view that individuals tend to commit
crime because of the irregularities in the functions of their brain.
A. Biological
C. Psychoanalytical
B. Sociological
D. Psychological
31.
This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:
A. Nature Nurture
C. Psychological
B. Strain
D. Labeling
32.
Which theory that states that attachment, connection and link to
society will determine whether a person shall commit a crime or not?
A. Social control
C. Social disorganization
B. Social bond
D. Social learning
33.
Physiognomy as a factor in crime causation refers to the:
A. Study of the body built of a person in relation to his personality
behavior and the type of offense he or she is most prone to commit
B. Study of the external formation of the skull and brain formation
C. Study of the facial features of man and its relation to human
behavior
D. Study of human mind
34.
Among the different body types Sheldon presented in his study, he
considered this ONE to be the most likely to become criminal is A. the endomorph
C. the mesomorph
B. the ectomorph
D. the dysplastic
35.
A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and
goals in life both as an officer of the law, and as a private citizen, can
push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
A. Disorganization
C. Differential Association
B. Culture Conflict
D. Strain
36.
A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of delinquent
behaviors as socially learned and transferred from one generation to the
next taking place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
A. Cultural Transmission
C. Social Phenomenon
B. Crime
D. Delinquent behavior
37.
This theory manifests an individual’s frustration and
disappointments over his inability to reach a set goal, in spite of hard
works, that eventually pushed a person to a life of crime.
A. Conflict
C. Sociological
B. Strain
D. Social Structure
38.
Regarded as the “Dean of Criminology” is A. Cesare Beccaria
C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Cesare Lombroso
D. Augusto Comte
39.
Tax evasion, embezzlement of money, insurance and bank fraud
are examples ofA. Corporation crime
C. Occupational crime
B. Corporate crime
D. white-collar crime
40.
Which is TRUE about Enrico Ferri’s explanation about the cause
of crime?
A. Environmental conditions is the main reason for people committing
crimes
B. People commit crimes because of free will motivated by pleasure
C. There is no such things as a physical criminal type
D. Criminals had organic inferiorities
41.
Emile Durkheim argued that crime is a normal part of the society
as birth and death, and –
A. should be prevented before it destroys society
B. criminal acts should be punished in order to deter others from
doing the same
C. should be controlled but due process must be strictly observed
D. criminal acts reflected society’s dominant values
42.
Considered to be of noteworthy importance in the
Hammurabi is –
A. An assertion of the power of the state
B. Protection of the weaker from stronger
C. Restoration of equity between the offender and the victim
D. Its concern in the rights of the victim
Code of
43.
What is considered to be the basis of many of the laws in modern
society that especially prohibit murder, perjury, and theft?
A. Code of Hammurabi
C. Mosaic Code
B. Code of Ur Nammu
D Code of Twelve Tables
44.
Beccaria is responsible for the contemporary belief that criminals
have control over their behavior, that they choose to commit crimes, and
that they can be deterred by the threat of punishment which should be
certain, swift and –
A. death
C. painful
B. severe
D. public
45.
An advocate of “Utilitarian Hedonism”, Jeremy Bentham modified
the classical doctrine calling it Neoclassical admitting environmental,
psychological, and other mitigating circumstances
that
conditions in the –
A. determination of right or wrong C. decision making
B. exercise of freedom and intelligence
D. exercise of freewill
modify
46. In his work, “Treatise on Man and the Developlment of his Faculties”,
he found impact of group factors and characteristics, with which crimes
appeared annually and varied with respect to age, sex and economic
conditions.
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Robert Merton
D. Emile Durkhiem
47.
In his Theory of Dialectical Materialism, he argued that resolution
of social problems such as crime would be achieved by the creation of a
socialist society characterized by communal ownership of the means of
production and an equal distribution of the fruits of these labors.
A. Karl Marx
C. Willem Bonger
B. Robert Merton
D. Adolf Hitler
48.
Which is NOT an elements of the positivistic approach in the
study of crime phenomenon?
A. Application of the scientific method
B. The discovery and diagnosis of pathology
C. Determination of the cause
D. Treatment
49.
Other than discovering the basic cause of crime, through its
systematic application of the scientific method, the positivist seeks toA. measure the extent of crime
B. prescribe appropriate treatment in order to cure the individual
criminal
C. determine appropriate punishment for a crime based on the principle
of proportionality.
D. present a more credible theories of crime causation
50.
Prior to and competing with emergent positivism were various
popular pseudo-sciences, one of which phrenology introduced by an
Austrian anatomist Franz Gall which attempted to –
A. determine intelligence and personality on the basis of the size and
shape of the skull.
B. predict fate of human behavior in terms of the alignment of stars.
C. explain human personality through measurement of facial and
other body
characteristics
D. Predict future behavior through reading and interpreting lines on
the
palm
51.
Genetic make-up contributes significantly to human behavior,
and as a human race evolved, traits and characteristics have become
ingrained, some of which make people aggressive and predisposed to
commit crime. What theory of crime causation is described?
A. Trait
C. Evolution
B. Positivist
D. Atavism
52. He proposed a Multiple-Factor approach to crime causation, admitting
both individual and environmental factors. Who is he?
A. Rafaeli Garofalo
C. Earnest Hooton
B. Enrico Ferri
D. William Sheldon
53.
In his work, “The English Convict”, ______________ discovered that
criminals were shorter and weighted less and most importantly,
mentally defective, refuting Lombroso’s physical stigmata.
A. Charles Goring
C. Robert Dugdale
B. Antonio Moniz
D. Edward Wilson
54.
Biological roots of criminal behavior adhere to the principle that
the basic determinants of human behavior, including criminality, are
constitutionally or physiologically based and inherited. Which theory
does weather, hypoglycemia, vitamins, food allergies and seratonin
belong?
A. Positivism
C. Body Chemistry
B. Chemical Criminology
D. Sociobiology
55.
Disappointment is a natural consequence of living and criminal
behavior is a form of adaptation when it results to stress reduction.
Which theory of crime causation is outlined?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
C. Behavioral Conflict
B. Psychoanalytic Criminology
D. Frustration-Aggression
56.
Social structure theories emphasize the role of poverty, lack of
education, absence of marketable skills, and subcultural values as
fundamental causes of crime. It portray crime as a result of an
individual’s location within the structure of society and focus onA. the social change, conflict and the lack of consensus
B. the socially approved success goals
C. a clash of values among variously socialized groups
D. the social and economic conditions of life.
57.
What is the primary emphasis of Social Learning Theories in the
acquisition of learned patterns of criminal behavior and the values that
support that behavior?
A. Communication and socialization
B. Strength of the bond that people share with the institutions and
individuals around them
C. Society’s response to the criminal
D. Management of impressions
58.
Differential Association-Reinforcement Theory suggests that
criminality, like any other form of behavior, is learned through the
process of __________ with others who communicate criminal values
A. identifying
C. learning
B. association
D. teaching and learning
59.
The following are component of Social Bond, according to Travis
Hirschi, which, if weakened or broken, delinquency or crime may
occurs, EXCEPT one.
A. Attachment to family, friends and community
B. Commitment to future goals, career and success
C. Involvement in community organizations, religious groups and
social clubs
D. Self-esteem which is a strong belief to one’s potential to succeed
in life
60.
Developmental Theory seeks to identify, describe, and understand
the developmental factors that explain the onset and continuation of
criminal career. It is consists of the following factors, EXCEPT,
A. Income, neighborhood and socialization
B. Situational factors
C. Cognitive factors
D. Latent trait and life course
61.
Which is NOT one of the theories of violent crimes according to
Konrad Lorenz and Robert Ardrey?
A. Humans have a killer instinct and violence or aggression are
inherently human traits that can affect any person at any time
B. Humans are inherently violent which is precipitated by a violent
environment
C. Violence-prone individuals may themselves have been the victims of
physical or psychological abnormalities
D. Violence-prone subcultures within society whose members value force
and consider violence to have an acceptable place in social
interaction.
62.
According to Criminologist John Conrad, a criminally violent
offenders are those who A. live in subculture in which violence is and acceptable problem solving
mechanism.
B. use violence as a means of accomplishing criminal act, such as in
robbery.
C. suffer mental illness or brain damage characterizes the pathologically
violent
offenders.
D. commit acts of violence on rare occasions, often under provocation.
101. The study of criminology encompasses all body of knowledge
regarding crimes, criminals and_______
A. The scientific method of punishment
B. Efforts of society to prevent and repress them
C. Effective method of penalty to deter criminal behavior
D. Remedy of the government to stop tem
102. The term “criminology” was derived from the Italian term
“criminologia” coined by :
A. Cesare Lombroso, a physician and known as the Father of
Crimiology
B. Cesare Becarria, the founder of Classical School of Criminology
and author of “On Crimes and Punishment
C. Raffaelle Garofalo, an Italian law professor
D. Edwin Sutherland, an American sociology professor who is
populary regarded as the Dean of American Criminology
103. As registered criminologist, you may classify crimes into mala inse
and mala prohibita. Which of the following crimes in the Philippines
that you may NOT classify as mala inse?
A. Rape
C. Drug trafficking
B. Murder
D. Robbery
104. Criminologists classified crimes according to its results, time or
period of commission, length of time, place of commission, type of
offender and mental faculties of the offender. Crime is classified as
extinctive when:
A. the offender acquires something as a consequence of crime
B. the consequence of the criminal act is destructive
C. the crime is committed only during a certain period of the year
D. the crime committed only when the situation is conducive
105. As Criminologist how will you classify crime committed by a
burglar and witty swindler?
A. Rational crime
B. Irrational crime
C. White-collar Crime
D. Blue-collar Crime
106. As to the length of time that crimes are committed, Criminologist
classified it instant and episoidal crimes. Crimes are episoidal if___.
A. committed in the shortest possible time
B. committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of time
C. committed in only one place
D. committed in several places
107. Johnny and Clarence kidnapped Denise in Paranaque, brought
and ravish her in Alabang and, killed and dumped her body in Naic
Cavite. As Criminoogist you can classify this crime as_____.
A. Heineous crime
C. Continuing crime
B. Hate crime
D. Static crime
108. Which type of crime that a experiences a loss of some quality
relative to his her present standing such as when he was a victim of
robbery or theft or his dignity is stripped from him?
A. Crime of attrition
C. Crimes of Repression
B. Crime of reduction
D. Extinctive Crime
109. Crime that has no purpose except to accomplish the behavior at
hand such as shooting someone without any reason is categorized
as______.
A. Expressive crime
C. Mission hate Crime
B. Hate Crimes
D. Inchoate Crimes
110. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to public order crimes?
A. These are crimes defined by legislative bodies in response to
changing social conditions, public opinion, and custom
B. These are acts considered illegal because they threaten general
well-being of society and challenge its accepted moral principles
C. These are crimes that violate the moral order but there is no
actual victim or target.
D. These are illegal acts that capitalize on a person’s status in the
market place
111. Criminals are classified based on their etiology, behavioral system
and their activities. On the basis of etiology, criminals may be
classified into:
A. Acute and chronic criminals
B. Ordinary, organized, and professional criminals
C. Professional, accidental, habitual, situational criminals
D. Neurotic and normal criminals
144. On July 27, 2015, Republic Act 10912 was enacted by Philippine
congress and approved by President Benigno S. Aquino, III. This
pertains to –
A. the law formalizing that the professional labelling of Registered
Criminologist shall be RCrim
B. the law mandating the continuing professional development
program for all regulated professions in the Philippines including
the Criminology profession
C. the implementing rules and regulations of the Continuing
Professional Development Act of 2016
D. the guidelines that Criminologist shall undergo 45 CPD credit
units for every 3 years of renewal of his/her professional licence
THEORIES OF CRIME CAUSATION
145.
Set of assumptions, propositions, or accepted facts that
attempts to provide a rational explanation of cause and effect (causal)
relationships among a group of observed phenomenon such as crime
or delinquency is known asA. criminology
C. hypothesis
B. theory
D. theoretical framework
146.
It refers to a proposition that attempts to explain criminal
behavior, and behaviors of key actors such as the police, prosecutors,
judges, victims, witnesses, accused etc in the criminal justice
system. What is it?
A. Criminal justice system
C. phenomenology
B. Criminal etiology
D. Criminological theory
147.
Basically, theories about the causes of crime are based on
religion, philosophy, biology, politics, economy, and –
A. social forces
C. free-will
B. economic condition
D. family relation
148.
Which criminological theory that is based on religious
beliefs?
A. Classical
C. Divine Right
B. Anomie
D. Demonology
149.
What perspective on crime causation that holds that
criminality is the result of conscious choice? It predicts that
individuals will choose to commit crime when the benefits of doing so
outweigh the cost of disobeying the law.
A. Radical Theory
C. Endangered Species Theory
B. Rational Choice Theory
D. Freewill
150.
One of the ideas of the Classical Criminology is that
punishment should be limited (less harsher) to only that necessary to
deter people from ever committing it again. This is the principle
involved in the –
A. Doctrine of Deterrence
C. Doctrine of Determinism
B. Doctrine of Capital Punishment
D. Doctrine of Enlightenment
151.
A Conflict perspective in Criminology that sees crime as
engendered by the unequal distribution of wealth, power, and other
resources, which adherents believe is especially characteristics of
capitalist societies. It is also called Critical Criminology or Marxist
Criminology.
A. Radical Criminology
C. Applied Criminology
B. Reformative Criminology
D. Green Criminology
152.
Franz Joseph Gall was the first theorist and codifier of this
science that deals with the study of the topography of the human
skull and correlates it with human behavior. Which term he used
that denotes in this study?
A. Skullogy
C. Physiognomy
B. Phrenology
D. Serology
153.
If the motive of the criminal act is based upon stress,
hassles and interpersonal relations, then the most applicable theory
would be –
A. differential association
C. anomie theory
B. theological theory
D. strain theory
154.
The leading theorists in criminology history started with the
advocacies of the classical school of criminology through –
C. Marx and Engel
C. Lombroso- Ferri- Garofalo
D. Howard and Freud
D. Beccaria and Bentham
155.
One of the earliest scientific work in Philippine criminology
was “Criminality in the Philippines: 1903- 1908” studied or initiated
by –
A. Vladimir Villasenor
C. Ignacio Villamor
B. Ramon Blanco
D. Daniel Folkmar
156.
When the study of crimes deals on the account of contextual
factors such as oppression of workers, class division, ethnic
minorities, women, sexism, and racism, then the perspective or
approach used is –
A. classical criminology
C. experimental criminology
B. critical criminology
D. comparative criminology
157.
What theory in crime causation which state that criminal
behavior is learned in interaction with people in the process of
communication?
A. Social Learning Theory
C. Social Culture Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
D. Conflict Theory
158.
This theory states that criminal behavior results when a
person’s individual bond to society is weakened or broken. Which
theory is referred to?
A. Social Process
C. Social Structure
B. Social Control
D. Social Reaction
159.
The prediction, prevention, and therapeutic intervention
which include psychoanalysis, group therapy, counselling, family
therapy, drug treatment and reconditioning falls under the concept of
–
A. socio- cultural theories
C. psychiatric theories
B. biological theories
D. psychological theories
160.
What criminological era originated the concept of deterrence
although they didn’t call it at that time? The concept of rationality
preventing crime by punishment (what they meant by deterrence at
the time_ was considered a great humanitarian reform, superior in
many ways to cruel and unusual medieval torture practices that
existed.
A. Classical Criminology
C. Neo-classical Criminology
B. Pre-classical Criminology
D. Positivistic Criminology
161.
It is the breakdown of social order caused by societal
disintegration and normlessness. This is known as –
A. anomie
C. conflict
B. civil apprising
D. riot
162.
This theory states that in order to cope with social isolation
and economic deprivation, members of the lower class create a
unique culture with its own set of rules and values. Which theory is
being described?
A. Culture Conflict
C. Social Learning
B. Culture Deviance
D. Social Disorganization
163.
Positivist School considered him a “Forerunner in
Criminology”. He founded the school of human physiognomy which is
the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior.
Who is he?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Giambattista Dela Porta
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Ernest Kretchmer
164.
Importance should be given to social, economic, and
political factors to the study of the causes of crimes and that society
needed protection against criminal acts which was the purpose of
criminal law and penal policy to provide the protection. This was the
premise of which among the Criminologists?
A. Raffaele Garofalo
C. Enrico Ferri
B. Emile Durkheim
D. Edwin Sutherland
165.
Dr. Gerona who is studying the relationship of physical
constitution of man to criminality
uses which Science as
contributory factor to crimes?
A. Etiology
C. Anthropology
B. Epidiomology
D. Ecology
166.
Crime is a function of competition for limited resources and
power. Class conflict produces crime. These are the forces that make
a criminal according to A. Social Structural theory
B. Conflict Theory
C. Social Process theory
D. Developmental or Multiple-factors theory
A.
B.
C.
D.
167.
Sutherland presented the following premises about
Differential Association Theory, EXCEPT:
Criminal behavior is learned
Criminal behavior can be learned through interaction with others in
the process of communication
The process of learning criminal behavior excludes law abiding
members of the community
The principal part of learning is within the most intimate personal
group.
168.
Labeling theory holds that people enter into law-violating
careers when they are labeled for their acts and organize their
personalities around the labels. This theory is also known asA. Social Learning
C. Social Reaction
B. Social Control
D. Social Process
169.
This theory is also known as the "labeling theory"
A. Social reaction
C. Cultural deviance
B. Social control
D. Strain
170.
It is the study that deals with the relationship between the
skull and human behavior.
A. Physiognomy
C. Phrenology
B. Physiology
D. Craniology
171.
This school of thought in criminology states that although
individuals have free will, there are other factors that affect the
exercise of their free will, which cause them commit crimes:
A. Neo-classical
C. Utilitarianism
B. Classical
D. Positivist
172.
Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a criminal
and a non-criminal is that each is responding to different sets of
conduct norms.
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Andre Michael Guerry
B. Thorsten Sellin
D. Abraham Maslow
173.
This refers to an individual’s physical features that resemble
those of apes and are said to be factors as to whether a person will
become a criminal or not:
A. Atavistic stigmata
C. Ape-like peculiarities
B. Ape-like features
D. Physical deviation
174.
He introduced the “Theory of Imitation” which states that
individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and that
those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those
with stronger personalities:
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Gabriel Tarde
D. Enrico Ferri
175.
In Biological Theory, the following can lead to criminal
behavior, EXCEPT:
A. Physical Defects
C. Abnormal Brain Activity
B. Chromosome Irregularity
D. Inferior body construction
176.
This theory presented the view that individuals tend to
commit crime because of the irregularities in the functions of their
brain.
A. Biological
C. Psychoanalytical
B. Sociological
D. Psychological
177.
Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is
focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not he will commit
a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment is
–
A. Restoration
B. Retribution
C. Treatment
D. Deterrence
178.
This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:
A. Nature Nurture
C. Psychological
B. Strain
D. Labeling
179.
He explained that individuals learn criminal behavior by
means of communication with persons who dwell in criminality:
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Charles Buckman Goring
D. Emile Durkheim
180.
The theory which states that attachment, connection and
link to society will determine whether a person shall commit a crime
or not:
A. Social control
C. Social disorganization
B. Social bond
D. Social learning
181.
Among the different body types Sheldon presented in his
study, he considered this ONE to be the most likely to become
criminal is A. the endomorph
C. the mesomorph
B. the ectomorph
D. the dysplastic
182.
A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law, and as a
private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this
particular theory.
A. Disorganization
C. Differential Association
B. Culture Conflict
D. Strain
183.
A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of
delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred from one
generation to the next taking place mostly among disorganized urban
areas.
A. Cultural Transmission
C. Social Phenomenon
B. Crime
D. Delinquent behavior
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND JUVENILE JUSTICE
184.
As a parent, the failure to provide for the needs of a child
can be considered by law as an act of –
A. neglect
B. abuse
C. cruelty
D. discrimination
185.
Recognizing children's right to and need for protection from
sexual abuse and exploitation. Which law that raised the Age of
Sexual Consent, hence increases the age of statutory rape from 12 to
16?
A. Republic Act 11648
C. Republic Act 7610
B. Republic Act 10630
D. Presidential Decree 603
186.
Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any
violation of Republic Act 7610?
1. Parents or guardians
2. Barangay Chairman
3. Ascendants
A. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
D. Any of the them
A.
B.
C.
D.
187.
Under the law, what is the duty of any head of public or
private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been treated
or suffered from abuse?
Report the incident to the family
Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
File a case in court in behalf of the child
188.
Placing a child above 15 years old but below 18 who acted
with discernment to diversion program is done, when?
A. During initial investigation by law enforcement officer
B. After initial investigation by law enforcement officer
C. Before initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
D. Before and after initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.
Which is NOT of the instances that the CICL subjected to
diversion be brought before the court for execution of judgment?
When the CICL and is parents refuses to pay civil indemnity
When the CICL is incorrigible and has not shown the capability of
becoming a useful member of society
When the CICL willfully failed to comply with the conditions of the
disposition or rehabilitation program
The CICL’ continued stay in the training institution is not in his best
interest
190.
What type of a delinquent child internalizes his conflicts
and becomes preoccupied with his feelings?
A. Social delinquent
B. Asocial delinquent
C. Neurotic delinquent
D. Accidental delinquent
191.
Which of the following delinquency factors refers to
inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one
unless there is a probability that a crime will be committed?
A. Predisposing factor
C. Precipitating factor
B. Biologic factor
D. Environmental factor
192.
Absence without cause for more than 20 school days may
be considered as –
A. vices
C. undesirable behavior
B. truancy
D. attractive nuisance
193.
The determination of the age of a child in conflict with law
shall be heard by a court in a summary proceeding and shall be
decided within _____ upon receipt of the court of the pleadings of all
interested parties.
A. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
194.
Offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an
adult does not suffer any penalty for committing similar acts, are
known as –
A. victimless crimes
C. status offenses
B. delinquencies
D. juvenile delinquencies
195.
When there is a shared parental authority to make decisions
over a child or a minor, then there is a –
A. rejoinder
C. parental jurisdiction
B. joint custody of the child
D. jury
A.
B.
C.
D.
196.
In acting for or against the minors, the State, through its
juvenile authorities should act in –
the best interests of the child
the manner that would benefit the child
utmost dispatch
coordination and cooperation of biological parents
197.
The mass of obligation which the parents have in relation to
the persons and property of their unemancipated child is legally
known as –
A. Parental authority
C. Parental obligation
B. Parent’s authority
D. Parental duty
198.
It focuses on repairing the harm done to victims and to the
community and stresses that offenders must contribute to the repair.
A. Restorative justice
C. Distributive justice
B. Retributive justice
D. Social justice
199.
Which law that strengthened the juvenile justice system in
the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 9344
C. Republic Act 7610
B. Republic Act 10630
D. Presidential Decree 603
200.
An alternative child-appropriate process of determining the
responsibility and treatment of CICL on the basis of his/her social,
cultural, economic, psychological of educational background without
resorting to formal court adjudication.
A. Diversion
C. Community intervention
B. Adjudication
D. Prosecution
C.
D.
201.
Views that “Parens Patriae Doctrine” adheres in justifying
State’s interference on family relations/ affairs when it sees that it is
prejudicial to the children’s well being.
Children are humans and their rights as human beings should be
protected
Minors who engage in criminal behavior are victims of improper care,
custody, and treatment at home.
Minors are the hope of the country hence they should be reformed
Children are the country’’s hope to greatness
A.
B.
C.
D.
202.
In acting for or against the minors, the State, through its
juvenile authorities should act in_________________.
The best interests of the child
The manner that would benefit the child
Utmost dispatch
Coordination and cooperation of biological parents
A.
B.
203.
Acts which that are not considered illegal if committed by
an adult, but legally condemn if committed by a minor?
1. Truancy, cursing, loitering or joining gangs
2. Smoking and drinking alcohol
3. Prostitution, stealing and involvement in a brawl
4. Disobedience and mendicancy
5 Mendicancy or begging in the streets
A. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5
204.
Which of the following should be EXCLUDED?
A. Wayward child
C. Neglected child
B. Status offender
D. Juvenile delinquent
205.
Who is a truant pursuant to Presidential Decree 798?
A. A child who run away from home
B. A pupil who disobey his teacher
C. A minor who smoke and drink alcohol
D. A pupil who is frequently absent from classes
206.
An asocial delinquent youth is the one who:
A. Is aggressive and resents authority or anyone who makes an effort to
control his behavior
B. Has internalized conflicts and is preoccupied with his own feelings
C. Acts with cold, brutal and vicious quality for which he feels no remorse
D. Is essentially sociable and law-abiding but happens to be at the wrong
time and place and becomes involved in delinquent acts not typical of
his general behavior
207.
The first institution that molds the child to learn to curb
his desires and to accept rules that define the time, place and
circumstances under which highly personal needs may be satisfied in
a socially acceptable ways is –
A. The school and the teachers
C. The church and the priests
B. The home and family
D. The father and the mother
208.
Which of the following factors in the home life that found to
be the prevailing cause of delinquency?
A. Faulty development of the child
B. Broken homes
C. Parental rejection
D. Too much leniency by either or both parents
209.
Which of the following may NOT be associated with
inadequate parenting practices considered by many authorities as
the most predictors of juvenile delinquency?
A. High level of parent-child conflict
B. Poor monitoring
C. Low level of positive involvement
D. Failure of parents in character building of their children
210.
Which of the following is considered to be an important
protective factor which can mitigate the impact of risk factors for
delinquency such as having delinquent peers?
A. Home discipline
C. Reasonable chastisement
B. Effective parenting
D. Setting good example
211.
Schools have responsibility over their students while the
latter is attending classes under the principle of ________________.
A. Parens patriae
C. Stare decisis
B. Patria potestas
D. Loco parentis
212.
Presidential Decree 603 refers to –
A. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
B. Special Protection of Children Against Child
Exploitation and Discrimination Act
C. Truancy Law
D. Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children
Abuse,
213.
Republic Acts 6809 is the law that:
A. Punish trafficking of persons
B. Punish child pornography
C. Lower the age of majority from 21 to 18
D. Created Family Courts
214.
What is the law that strengthen the juvenile justice system
in the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 9208
C. Republic Act 7658
B. Republic Act 10630
D. Republic Act 9344
A.
B.
C.
D.
215.
Parental authority over legitimate or adopted children in
the family is exercised by –
The father
The ascendants of the said children
The father and mother
Parents and grandparents
216.
In case of disagreement between the father and the mother
in their exercise of parental authority over their child, the father’s
decision shall prevail, unless:
A. The father gives way to the mother
B. The child is below 7 years old
C. There is a judicial order to the contrary
D. The mother sue the father
217.
A child conceived out of wedlock but born after his parents
got married is A. Legitimate
C. Legitimated
B. Illegitimate
D. Adopted
218.
Jessie, a 14-year old boy was conceived and born outside a
valid marriage of his father and mother, who got married when he
was three years old. Jessie would be a/an _________________ child.
A. Legitimate
C. Legitimated
B. Illegitimate
D. Adopted
219.
When does an illegitimate child may use the surname of his
father?
I. When the child is recognized by the father through the record of birth
appearing in the civil register
II. When the father is present during the child’s birth
III. When an admission in a public document or private handwritten
instrument is made by the father
IV. When the child is supported by the father
V. When the mother waive her rights for the use of her surname by the
child in favor of the father
A. I and III
C. I, II, III and IV
B. II and IV
D. I, II, III, IV and V
220.
What is the primary consideration in the determination of
an application for adoption?
A. Capacity of the adopter to support the adopted
B. Best interest of the adoptee
C. Relationship between the adopter and the adoptee
D. Any of them
221.
Persons who may be adopted:
1. Stranger
2. Sibling of the adopter
3. Wife of the adopter
4. Illegitimate child of the adopter
5. Parents of the adopter
A. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A.
B.
C.
D.
222.
The 16-year age difference between the adopter and the
adoptee may be waived when:
The adopter is in a position to support and care of his children in
keeping with the means of the family
The adopter is emotionally and psychologically capable of caring for
children
The adopter is in possession of full civil capacity and legal rights
The adopter is the biological parent of the adoptee or the spouse of the
adoptee’s parent
223.
Instances that joint adoption rule of husband and wife will
be dispensed:
i. When one spouse seeks to adopt the legitimate child of the other
ii. When one spouse seeks to adopt his/her own illegitimate child,
provided that the other spouse signified his/her consent
iii. When the spouses are legally separated from each other
iv. When one of the spouse is already deceased at the time of the
adoption
A. ii and iii
C. i, ii and iii
B. ii and iv
D. i, ii, iii and iv
224.
What is the nature of filiation of the adoptee to his adopter?
A. The adoptee is considered legitimated child of the adopter
B. The adoptee is a naturalized child of the adopter
C. The adoptee is considered legitimate child of the adopter
D. The adoptee is the child by adoption of the adopter
225.
Adoption may be rescinded by______________.
A. Department of Social Welfare Development
B. The adoptee
C. Department of Justice
D. The adopter
226.
The law authorizes renunciation of parental authority in the
following cases:
i. Parental neglect
ii. Adoption
iii. Abuse
iv. Guardianship
v. Civil interdiction
vi. Surrender of the child to orphanage
A. i, iii and v
C. i, ii, iii, iv and v
B. ii, iv and vi
D. i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi
227.
Parental authority over illegitimate children belongs to –
A. The mother
C. Either father or mother
B. The father and mother
D. None of them
228.
Under
the
“tender
age
presumption”,
no
child___________________ of age shall be separated from the mother,
unless the court finds compelling reason o order otherwise.
A. Under 7 years
C. Under 5 years
B. Under 15 years
D. Under 1 year
229.
John and Marcia died in a car accident. They survived by
their only child Dolf. Substitute parental authority to Dolf will be
exercised by his –
A.
B.
C.
D.
Actual custodian, grandparent and oldest brother or sister
Oldest brother or sister, grandparent and actual custodian
Grandparent, oldest brother or sister and actual custodian
Any order abovementioned
230.
A child who has no proper parental care or guardianship, or
whose parents have deserted him or her for a period of at least three
(3) continuous months is deemed to be –
A. Dependent
C. Neglected
B. Abandoned
D. Retarded
231.
“Children as Zones of Peace” means:
i. Children shall not be the object of attack in situations of armed
conflict Children shall be protected from any form of threat,
assault, torture or other cruel, inhumane or degrading
treatment
ii. Children shall not be recruited to become members of the
Armed Forces of the Philippines of its civilian units, nor be
allowed to take part in the fighting, or used as guides, couriers
or spies
iii. Children shall be given priority during evacuation as a result of
armed conflict
A. i, ii, iii and iv
C. I and ii
B. I, ii and iii
D. Only i
232.
When does the Child below fifteen (15) years of age allowed
to work pursuant to Republic Act 7658?
I. When a child works directly under sole responsibility of his
parents or legal guardian and where only members of the
employer’s family are employed
II. Where a child’s employment or participation in public
entertainment or information through cinema, theatre, radio or
television is essential, with the approval of the Department of
Labor and Employment (DOLE)
III. When his service is indispensable to the business of his employer
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. II, III
233.
The CICL enjoys the _____________________ until proven to be
18 years old or older at the time of the commission of an offense.
A. Presumption Of Minority
B. Privilege Of A Minor
C. Presumption Of Innocence
D. Discernment
234.
Which of the document is the best proof to establish the age
of the child in so far as the juvenile justice welfare system is
concerned?
A. Baptismal Certificate
C. Testimony Of The Child
B. School Records
D. Certificate Of Live Birth
A.
B.
C.
D.
235.
What will happen to CICL who committed an offense and
found to be above 15 but below 18 years old at the time of the
commission of an offense and the case has already been filed in
court?
Release to DSWD
Release at the sound discretion of the court and subject to its
supervision
Release to his parents in absence thereof to his guardian, DSWD or any
person responsible for his custody
A and C
236.
Who conducts the preliminary determination of discernment
of the CICL?
A. The Police
C. The Social Worker
B. The Judge
D. The Prosecutor
A.
B.
C.
D.
237.
Within how many hours that the law enforcement officer
who has initial contact with the CICL turn over the latter to the
LSWDO?
Not later than 8 hours after apprehension
Within 24 hours after apprehension
Within 36 hours after arrest
Not later than 18 hours after apprehension
A.
B.
C.
D.
238.
What should a police officer do if a CICL alleges that he in
under 15 but has no evidence of his true age?
The child shall be considered and treated as minor
The age shall be resolved in a manner that the child will be favoured
The age of minority will be presumed
The age shall be resolved in the child’s favour
239.
Statement 1. Minors may be detained, but not imprisoned,
and only if absolutely necessary and for the shortest possible time;
Statement 2. If detained, minors must be placed in youth detention
homes, not jails.
A. Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is untrue
B. Statement 1 is untrue while statement 2 is true
C. Both statements 1 and 2 are true
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are untrue
A.
B.
C.
D.
240.
Who develops the intervention plan?
The Court
The police, LSWDO and prosecutors
LSWDO, Police, Prosecutors and Court
LSWDO, CICL and his family
241.
The placement of CICL under suspended sentence does not
need application. It is –
a. Discretionary
c. Automatic
b. Mandatory
d. Optional
A.
B.
C.
D.
242.
Initial investigation of the child shall be conducted in the
presence of:
Relative of the child
Local Social Welfare Development Officer
Representative of a non-government organization
Parent of the child
243.
Within how many days that arraignment of CICL be
conducted from the date of receipt of the complaint or information by
the court?
a. 15
c. 5
b. 3
d. 10
244.
Where the arraignment of CICL held?
a. Open
c. Chamber of the Judge
b. DSWD Office
d. Any of the above
245.
If the CICL is found guilty of the offense charged, the court
instead of executing the judgment of conviction, shall placed him
(CICL) under –
a. Suspended sentence
b. Probation
c. Reprieve
d. Commutation of sentence
246.
What is the policy concerning the detention of the CICL
pending trial?
A. Detention is a measure of last resort for the shortest possible period of
time
B. Detention is a last resort until the the CICL is remorseful
C. Detention is a measure of last resort unless the CICL is found to be
dangerous to the community
D. CICL will always be detained in youth detention home established by the
local government
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICAL STANDARDS
247.
Which branch of ethics that concerned with
practical moral problems of the profession?
A. Metaethics
C. Applied
B. Normative
D. Moral
solving
248.
Which refers to moral judgments about what is right or
wrong, good or bad?
A. Morality
C. Virtue
B. Moral psychology
D. Ethics
249.
Rule or standard of behavior shared by members of a social
group is known as –
A. Norm
C. Customs
B. Ethics
D. Values
250.
Pursuant to ______ all professions are equal and, therefore,
every one shall treat one other professionals with respect and
fairness.
A. Executive Order 220
C. Republic Act 11131
B. Republic Act 10912
D. Republic Act 10968
251.
Under the Code of Good Governance for the
Professions in the Philippines, professionals are required not
only to have an ethical commitment, a personal resolve to act
ethically, but also have both ethical awareness and ethical A. Competency
C. Standards
B. Values
D. Adherence
252.
The Code of Good Governance for the Professions in
the Philippines provides that professionals are required not only
to have an ethical commitment, a personal resolve to act ethically,
but also have both ethical awareness and ethical competency. What
do you mean by ETHICAL COMPETENCY?
A. Ability to discern between right and wrong
B. Ability to engage in sound moral reasoning and consider carefully
the implications of alternative actions.
C. Ability to apply the code of professional conduct of his/her profession
D. Ability understand and apply the professional conduct and ethics
standards of his/her profession in dealing with the public
253.
To serve others as mandated by the Code of Good
Governance for the Professions in the Philippines, it means
that the professional –
I. shall be prepared for heroic sacrifice and genuine selflessness in
carrying out their professional duties
II. shall be committed to a life of service to others.
III. shall give preference to protect life, property, and public welfare that
personal interest or gain
A. I, II, III
C. I, III
B. I, II
D. I
A.
B.
C.
D.
254.
The Code of Good Governance for the Professions in
the Philippines provides that, “To maintain and broaden public
confidence, professionals shall perform their responsibilities with
the highest sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and
spiritual values.” Which act that a professional will NOT carry out
this mandate?
In the performance of his/her service, he/she shall at all times
maintain objectivity
Must be free of conflicts of interest
Engaging in any activity that would prejudice his/her abilities to
carry out their duties ethically.
Avoid making any representation that would likely cause a
reasonable person to misunderstand or be deceived.
255.
Which principle of professional conduct is applicable when a
Registered Criminologist (RCrim.) undertakes only those professional
services that he/she can reasonably deliver with professional
competence.
A. Professional Competence
C. Professional integrity
B. Service to others
D. Professional excellence
256.
To maintain his/her professional competence a Registered
Criminologist (RCrim.) has an express obligation to keep up with
new knowledge and techniques in the field, continually improve skills
and upgrade level of competence, and take part in a –
A. Professional activities
B. Social activities
C. Lifelong continuing education program
D. Formal education like Masters and Doctorate degree programs
257.
Which principle of professional conduct directing that each
profession shall nurture and support one organization for all its
members?
A. Solidarity and teamwork
C. Spirit of brotherhood
B. Social responsibility
D. Camaraderie
258.
Through a deep ___________, each member of the
professional organization should put the broader interest of the
profession above one's personal ambition and preference.
A. spirit of solidarity
C. spirit of brotherhood
B. camaraderie
D. esprit de corps
A.
B.
C.
D.
259.
Through teamwork within a cohesive professional
organization, each professional organization member is mandated to
effectively observe ethical practices and pursue continuing
professional development as well as deepen one's –
social and civic responsibility
nationalism and patriotism
social awareness
love of country
A.
B.
C.
D.
260.
Which principle of professional conduct directing that
professionals shall always carry out their professional duties with
due consideration of the broader interest of the publics?
Social responsibility
Social awareness
Social and civic responsibility
Civil and professional responsibility
A.
B.
C.
D.
261.
Which principle of professional conduct mandating that
every professional shall remain open to the challenges of a more
dynamic and interconnected world, hence he/she shall rise up to
global standards and maintain levels of professional practices fully
aligned with global best practices?
Global competitiveness
Global standard of professional practice
International competitiveness
Global excellence
A.
B.
C.
D.
262.
Which statement is FALSE about specific principles of
professional conduct in the Philippines?
All professionals shall treat their colleagues with respect and shall
strive to be fair in their dealings with one another.
Not all professions are equal. One group of professionals may be
superior or above others.
All professions perform an equally important, yet distinct, service to
society.
In the eyes of the PRC, all professions are equal and, therefore, every
one shall treat other professionals with respect and fairness.
263.
Under Republic Act 6713 public officials and employees
shall always uphold the public interest over and above –
A. personal interest
C. personal convenience
B. personal gain
D. family benefits
264.
Which norms of conduct for public official providing that all
government resources and powers of respective offices must be
employed and used efficiently, effectively, honestly and economically,
particularly to avoid wastage in public funds and revenues?
A. Professionalism
C. Orderliness
B. Commitment to public interest
D. Efficiency and excellence
265.
In requiring public officials and employees to perform and
discharge their duties with the highest degree of excellence,
professionalism, intelligence and skill, the code of conduct and
ethical standards for public officials aim to achieve which norms in
public service?
A. Excellence
C. Orderliness
B. Efficiency
D. Professionalism
266.
In requiring public officials and employees to provide service
to everyone without unfair discrimination and regardless of party
affiliation or preference, the code of conduct and ethical standards for
public officials aims to instill _____________ in the civil service.
A. Justness and sincerity
C. nationalism and patriotism
B. Responsiveness to the public
D. political neutrality
267.
All official papers and documents must be processed and
completed within a reasonable time from the preparation thereof and
must contain, as far as practicable, not more than ______ signatories
therein.
A. five
C. one
B. two
D. three
268.
Upon receipt of letters or request from the public, a
government official or employee should respond to that request
within how many working days?
A. 10
C. 30
B. 5
D. 15
A.
B.
C.
D.
269.
Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of policecommunity relations?
Develop awareness among the citizenry of the criminality and
insurgency problems on basic of crime prevention and penal laws
Develop positive perceptions, attitudes and opinions towards the PNP
and its personnel
Develop a motivated public willing to actively participate and support
police programs and projects within their respective communities
Develop obedience to laws by the community in recognition of the
power of the police
270.
Police-Community Relations is the unit of the Philippine
National Police which aims to win the trust, confidence and support
of the people and focuses on the concept of –
A. “Doing good and telling people about it”
B. “Making good and expecting people to appreciate it”
C. “Telling people of the good intention of the police”
D. “Involving people to do police work”
271.
Which of the following standards demand of every PNP
member as the embodiment of the core values and principles which a
police officer is sworn to uphold to win the hearts and minds of the
people, which is the ultimate objective of police-community relations?
A. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
B. PNP Police Ethics Manual
C. Code of Conduct for Government Employees
D. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
A.
B.
C.
D.
272.
One of the following is NOT among the activities of policecommunity relations?
Police-Media Relations
Public Relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
Civil Assistance and Development
Community Organization and Mobilization
273.
The police have the responsibility to recognize that the test
of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder,
not the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with
them. Which of the following supports the preceding statement?
A. That the police must enhance its competence and skills in forensic
investigation
B. That the police must observe maxim tolerance in dealing with public
disorder
C. That the police must strive hard to enhance its crime solution
efficiency
D. That the police must focus and concentrate on crime prevention
274.
The police service is a noble profession which demands from
its member’s specialized knowledge and skills, as well as high
standards of ethics and morality. Hence, the police must adhere to
and internalize the core values of love of God, respect for authority,
selfless love and service to people, sanctity of marriage, responsible
dominion and stewardship over material things and –
A. trustworthiness
C. prudence
B. truthfulness
D. industry
275.
The reflection of any organization affects the esprit de corps,
morale and welfare of members and sense of pride to the
organization. Hence, all members of the PNP should act in a manner
that would reflect best on the PNP and live by the PNP core values to
enhance the PNP –
A. acceptability
C. efficiency
B. credibility
D. image
276.
In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity
in the PNP, all members must have the moral courage to sacrifice
self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of A. delicadeza
C. fidelity
B. pakikisama
D. honesty
277.
The PNP shall promote, lead and maintain a modest life for
its members which the public will find respectable. The public
expects a police officer to live a simple yet dignified life. They must
be free from greed, corruption and exploitation. This is simply known
as Police –
A. lifestyle
C. social Life
B. living
D. dignity
278.
PNP members are expected by the public not to seek
political influence on matters pertaining to assignment, award,
training and promotion. This means that all PNP members are
discouraged to resort to –
A. political patronage
C. political corruption
B. partisan politics
D. influence peddling
279.
Uniformed members of the PNP shall commit themselves to
the democratic way of life and values and maintain the principle of
accountability. They shall at all times uphold the Constitution and
be loyal to our country. This police professional conduct is known as
–
A. commitment to democracy
C. devotion to duty
B. commitment to country
D. love of country
280.
PNP members shall provide services to everyone without
discrimination regardless of party affiliation in accordance with
existing laws and regulations. Hence, all PNP members are expected
by the public to be –
A. politically-neutral
C. non-political
B. non-commital
D. non-partisan
281.
PNP members and their immediate family members shall be
encouraged to actively get involved in religious, social and civic
activities to enhance the image of the organization without affecting
their official duties. This commitment to police professional conduct
is –
A. social awareness
C. social responsibility
B. socialization
D. social dignity
282.
PNP members shall help in the development and
conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and
posterity, as these are the heritage of our people. This is ____.
A. conservation of natural environment
B. conservation of natural resources
C. environmental protection
D. ecological balance
283.
A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty
responsibility that unites a disciplined group of people is –
A. solidarity
C. camaraderie
B. unity
D. esprit de corps
and
284.
PNP members shall follow logical procedures in
accomplishing tasks assigned to them to minimize waste in the use of
time, money and effort. This police ethical standards is known as –
A. effectiveness
C. discipline
B. orderliness
D. efficiency
285.
Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate
means to achieve the goal even in the face of internal or external
difficulties and despite anything which might weaken their resolve in
the course of time. This police ethical standard is –
A. perseverance
C. prudence
B. diligence
D. patience
286.
PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public
servants and not the masters of the people and toward this end, they
should perform their duties without being conceited and arrogance.
This is –
A. sincerity
C. humility
B. honesty
D. charity
287.
It is a formal act or set of formal acts established by custom
or authority as proper to special occasions. Which of these?
A. Traditions
C. Social Decorum
B. Customs
D. Ceremony
288.
PNP members are upright in character, gentle in manners,
dignified in appearance and sincere in their concern for others. This
is the PNP tradition of –
A. humility
C. gentlemanliness
B. valor
D. camaraderie
289.
It is the bestowal of patronage by public officers in
appointing others to positions by reason of blood or marital
relationships to appointing authority. Which is being referred?
A. Marital privilege
C. Filial preference
B. Nepotism
D. Jus Sanguinis
290.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It means courage to endure without yielding.
C. fortitude
D. justice
291.
rights.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It is the virtue that inclines the will to give to each one his
C. fortitude
D. justice
292.
A. endurance
B. perseverance
It is the ability to last.
C. patience
D. fortitude
293.
It is the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of
reason and sound judgment.
A. prudence
C. fortitude
B. temperance
D. justice
294.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.
C. fortitude
D. justice
295.
A. patience
B. endurance
It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.
C. perseverance
D. prudence
296.
A. patience
B. endurance
The ability to go on despite obstacles or oppositions.
C. perseverance
D. prudence
297.
All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice
self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of ____.
A. Delicadeza
C. Amor propio
B. Pride
D. Pakikisama
298.
It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to
perform an act or duty which is the police officer’s legal obligation to
perform.
A. nonfeasance
C. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
D. corruption
299.
Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution,
domination or excessive use of authority.
A. dishonesty
C. disloyalty
B. incompetency
D. oppression
300.
It is the misuse of authority for personal gain committed by
a person who enforces the law.
A. corruption
C. immorality
B. police corruption
D. police immorality
301.
It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and excessive use of
force in the conduct of police operations which does not support a
legitimate police function.
A. brutality
C. torture
B. police brutality
D. police torture
302.
No PNP member shall engage in any activity which shall be
in conflict with their duties as public servant.
A. malingering
C. moonlighting
B. loyalty to the service
D. delicadeza
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY
303.
An aggregate observable responses of an organism to
internal and external stimuli.
A. human behavior
c. behavior
B. personality
d. attribute
304.
Personality disorder is defined as the aberration in the
development process leading to maladaptive behavior. Maladaptive
behavior means:
A. False sensory perception
B. The person has a false belief
C. Deviation from morality or acceptable normality
D. Delusional thinking
305.
Human behavior is a man’s reaction to his environment
which includes his response to the interpretation of the internal and
external_______.
A. Beliefs
C. Perception
B. Inclination
D. Stimulus
306.
Part of the natural development of an adolescent:
1. Learning
2. Playing
3. Maturation
4. Working
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
307.
Defense mechanism is a form of self-deception that shields
an individual from____.
A. Pleasure
C. Emotional pain
B. Anger
D. Fear
308.
Behavior pattern which a person returns to a state of former
adjustment and tries to experience them again in memory.
A. Frustration
C. phobia
B. Anger
D. Regression
309.
Sustained frustration may be characterized by:
1. Anxiety
2. Irritability
3. Fatigue
4. Depression and emotional tension
5. Anti-social behavior
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3and 4
D. 1, 3 and 5
310.
This personality disorder is characterized by infantile level
of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others
and aggression to environment and other people.
A. Neurotic Personality
B. Psychopathic Personality
C. Compulsive Neurosis
D. Schizophrenic Personality
311.
Necrophilia is a sexual disorder characterized by____.
A. Having sex with a child
B. having sex with a corpse
C. Having sex with old people
D. having sex with an animal
312.
The only normal sexual relationship between members of
the opposite sex and could lead to reproduction is referred to as:
A. Homosexuality
C. Sensuality
B. Pornography
D. Heterosexuality or
sexuality
313.
When does frustration occurs?
A. When goal achievement is blocked
B. When people have to make difficult decisions
C. When people have to choose two or more competing
motives, behaviors, or impulses.
D. When a person needs to react to situations that pose
demands, constraints, or opportunities
314.
Which personality disorder characterized by a lack of
interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle,
secretiveness, and emotional coldness?
A. Schizoid Personality Disorder
B. Avoidant Personality Disorder
C. Obsession
D. Dependent Personality Disorder
315.
This conflict occurs when the two desirable but mutually
exclusive goals exist.
A. avoidance-avoidance
C. approach-approach
B. approach-avoidance
D. multiple
316.
An excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a
perfectly natural situation or object is known as__.
A. melancholia
C. phobia
B. exaltation
D. mania
317.
In this sexual deviance, animals are the object of achieving
of sexual excitation and gratification.
A. exhibitionism
C. fetishism
B. pedophilia
D. bestiality
318.
The achievement of pleasure in this sexual perversion is
through clandestine peeping.
A. voyeurism
C. heterosexuality
B. incest
D. bestiality
319.
Jude, who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification
with another man manifests what deviant sexual behavior?
A. lesbianism
C. homosexuality
B. pedophilia
D. incest
320.
It is a personality disorder characterized by a pattern of
excessive emotionality and attention-seeking, including an excessive
need for approval and inappropriate seductiveness, usually beginning
in early adulthood.
A. Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
321.
A disorder and its derivatives can be caused by excessive
praise and criticism in childhood, particularly that from parental
figures. It is frequently mistaken for self-centered.
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Paranoid Personality Disorder
C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D. Anti-social Personality Disorder
322.
Which abnormal behaviour that is generally characterized
by anxiety, depression and phobia?
A. Psychoses
C. Neuroses
B. Paraphilia
D. Psychopathy
323.
When person’s reality
is distorted such as, he is
experiencing
delusion, hallucination and regression, he is
suffering__________.
A. Psychoses
C. Neuroses
B. Abnormality
D. Psychopathy
324.
When a person is hallucinating he has__________.
A. False belief
B. False sensory perception
C. maybe aware but could not
D. deviation from morality or acceptable normality
325.
Delusion is manifested by a person who_____.
A. Deviates from morality or acceptable normality
B. Has false sensory perception
C. Has false belief
D. Psychophysiological disorder
326.
What personality disorder is suffered by a woman who does
not want to have a heterosexual relationship but seek to have a basic
attention or love, and when she gets it, she fainted?
A. Passive-aggressive disorder
B. Compulsive personality
C. Hysterical personality disorder
D. Depressive neuroses
327.
Which abnormal behaviour characterized by the general loss
of interest to environment, which include his home, family, work or
schooling and a tendency to be more critical without justification or
apparent reason?
A. General anxiety
B. Depressive neuroses
C. Anxiety neuroses
D. Maladaptive behavior
328.
Person who is experiencing a delusion of persecution or
grandeur or auditory hallucination suffers_______.
A. Simple schizophrenia
B. Dissociative Neuroses
C. Paranoid schizophrenia
D. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
329.
This behavior
is characterized by high level of anxiety,
suspiciousness, distrust are core elements; seclusive, don't confide to
others, if he does, expect betrayal, if there is a laughter suspect that
it is directed to him.
A. Paranoid
C. Neurotic
B. Psychotic
D. Psychopathic
330.
Which personality dimension a person has if he is highly
adaptive to living and deriving satisfaction from external world; he is
interested in people and things than ideas, values and theories?
A. Self centered individual
C. Conceited
B. Extrovert
D. Exhibitionist
331.
A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits,
tendency to disease, etc. form parents offspring.
A. Heredity
C. Environment
B. Inheritance
D. Introvert
332.
A person who has uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal
stealing is called_______.
A. Kleptomaniac
C. Thief
B. Larcenist
D. Pyromaniac
333.
Mania fanatica is characterized by____.
A. Deep and morbid sense of religious feeling
B. Deep sense of righteousness
C. Uncontrollable feeling to set things on fire
D. Uncontrollable feelings of love to oneself
334.
Necrophilism is ____
A. An obsession with and usually erotic interest in or stimulation
by corpses
B. Morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead animals
C. An obsession to kill a person
D. An uncontrollable fear to a dead body
335.
A term applied to a specialist in the study of mental
disorders; sometimes interchangely used with psychiatrist.
A. Anthropologist
C. Psychologist
B. Alienist
D. Behaviorist
336.
Sexually perverted person who derives pleasure from being
demented or cruelly treated.
A. Pedophile
C. Sadist
B. Masochist
D. Maniac
337.
Phallic stage of human development occurs___.
A. At birth
B. During the first year of life when the child attains pleasure by
sucking and biting
C. During the second and third years of life
D. When children focus their attention on their genitals
338.
The most basic human drive present at birth, the instinct to
preserve and create life, expressed sexually is___.
A. Eros
C. Id
B. Thanatos
D. Chromosome
339.
This begins at the age of six . Feelings of sexuality are
expressed until the genital stage begins at puberty; this marks the
beginning of adult sexuality. Which stage of human psychosexual
development is it?
A. Oral stage
C. Sexual stage
B. Anal stage
D. Latency stage
340.
A person who exhibit behavior traits characteristics of those
encountered during infantile sexual development e.g. an infant who
does not received enough oral gratification during the first year of life
is likely as an adult engage in such oral behavior as smoking,
drinking, or drug abuse and others.
A. Fixated person
C. Insecure person
B. Unhappy person D. Person with psychological disability
341.
Person who has
everybody else, suffers____.
A. Delusion
B. Delusions Of Grandeur
false belief that he is greater than
C. Hallucination
D. Delusions Of Persecution
342.
Out of anger to his girlfriend, Johnny boxed a nearby tree.
What defense mechanism does Johnny manifested?
A. repression
C. sublimation
B. displacement
D. projection
343.
A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the
bank together with their hostages; their demand is geared
towards____.
A. revenge
C. economic gain
B. escape
D. vindication
344.
A person who attempts to exclude from his consciousness a
thought or feeling that cause him pain, shame or guilt is using what
defense mechanism?
A. identification
C. regression
B. repression
D. fixation
345.
This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or
undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
A. rationalization
C. sublimation
B. compensation
D. projection
346.
This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the
male or an inability to achieve it.
A. masturbation
C. prostitution
B. exhibitionism
D. frigidity
347.
The study of the role of the victim-in a criminal event.
A. Victimology
C. Crime victimization
B. Criminology
D. Victimization
348.
The theory that those who experienced violence or abuses
during childhood will also be violent or abuser when they become
adults.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Cycle of abuse
B. Cycle of violence
D. Violence and crime
349.
A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in
their lives.
A. Fear of Victimization
C. Altruistic fear
B. Altruism
D. Fear
350.
Effects of crime victimization: 1. Economic loss; 2. Suffering
and fear; 3. Trauma; 4. Antisocial behavior; and 5. Anger and loss of
trust to the government
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4
D. 3, 4, and 5
351.
Based on this theory of crime victimization, some people
become victims because of personal and social characteristics that
make them attractive targets for predatory criminals. Which of these?
A. Active precipitation
C. Routine Activity
B. Passive Precipitation
D. High-risk Lifestyle
352.
A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in
their lives is known as -.
A. Active precipitation
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Precipitation Theory
D. Passive Precipitation
353.
Which humanistic non-punitive strategies to a hate crime,
real or perceive that stresses remedies and restoration rather than
prison, punishment and victim neglect?
A. Social justice
C. Restorative justice
B. Distributive justice
D. Mediatory justice
354.
A target for a crime that is valuable, easily transportable,
and not capably guarded is called A. Lifestyle Theory
C. Routine activities theory
B. Suitable target D. Predictable target
355.
A theory that the victim's behavior was the spark that
ignited the subsequent offense, as when the victim abused the
offender verbally or physically.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Active precipitation
B. Passive precipitation
D. Routine activities
356.
Which of the following social status of a person that would
likely made him a victim?
A. Lowest income category
B. Middle class
C. Affluent class
D. All of them because crime does not distinguish
357.
Residents of poor areas have a much greater risk of
becoming victims because they live in areas with many motivated
offenders.
A. Routine Activities Theory
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place Theory
D. Victim Precipitation
358.
Presence of these components such as availability of
suitable targets, absence of capable guardian, and presence of
motivated offender increases the likelihood of victimization.
A. Deviant Place Theory
B. Lifestyle theory
C. Routine Activities Theory
D. Victim precipitation Theory
359.
Victimization risk is increased by such behavior as
associating with violent and police character person, going out in
public places at right, and living in an urban area.
A. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place Theory
C. Routine activities theory
D. Victim Precipitation Theory
360.
This theory shows victim behavior can influence criminal
opportunity. It suggests that victimization can be reduced by
increasing guardianship and/or reducing target vulnerability.
A. Routine Activities
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place
D. Victim Precipitation
361.
People who live in deviant places are at high risk for crime,
and victim's behavior has little influence over the criminal act.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Deviant Place Theory
B. Lifestyle theory
D. Routine Activities
362.
Stages of the cycle of violence.
1. Honeymoon (Period of calm)
2. Tension-building (Escalation period)
3. Acute battering episode ( Uncontrollable attack)
A. 3,2,1
C. 2,3,1
B. 1,2,3
D. 1,3,2
363.
Elements of routine activities theory of victimization:
1. Desire, opportunity and instruments
2. Availability of suitable targets
3. Absence of Capable Guardians
4. Presence of motivated offenders
A. 1,2,3, and 4
C. 1 and 3
B. 2,3, and 4
D. 2 and 4
DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND INCIDENT MANAGEMENT
364.
What process that deals with resolving disputes between
conflicting parties?
A. Problem resolution
C. Conflict resolution
B. Dispute fixing
D. Dispute arbitration
365.
Which is NOT one of the methods of dispute resolution
A. Arbitration
C. Conciliation
B. Mediation
D. Resolution
366.
Which is NOT type of conflict resolution that could NOT be
classified as consensual processes?
A. Litigation
B. Negotiation
C. Conciliation
D. Mediation
367.
What major type of dispute resolution that the judge or
arbitrator is the one who determine the outcomes of the conflict?
A. Adjudicative process
C. Adversarial process
B. Consensual process
D. Inquisitorial process
368.
In consensual processes of settling disputes, parties attempt
to reach agreement. Which of the following is NOT one its types?
A. Collaborative law
C. Conciliation or negotiation
B. Mediation
D. Litigation
369.
Which form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) decided
by one or more persons who render decision that is legally binding?
A. Arbitration
C. Litigation
B. Mediation
D. Adjudication
370.
Which form of dispute resolution that a third party who
facilitates rather than directs the process and help them reach an
agreement?
A. Arbitration
C. Adjudication
B. Conciliation
D. Mediation
371.
Which form of alternative dispute resolution process that
aims to lower tensions, improve communications, interpret issues,
encourage parties to explore potential solutions and assist them in
finding a mutually acceptable outcome?
A. Negotiation
C. Mediation
B. Conciliation
D. Arbitration
372.
Negotiation is a form of dispute resolution by means of a
dialogue between two or more parties to reach the desired outcome
regarding one or more issues of conflict. What is the main goal of
negotiation?
A. To interact between and among entities who aspire to agree on
matters of mutual interest.
B. To agree on matters that can be beneficial for all or some of the
parties involved.
C. To establish own needs and wants while seeking to understand
the wants and needs of others involved.
D. To resolve points of difference, gain an advantage for an individual
or group or craft outcomes to satisfy various interests.
373.
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) was legally
institutionalized in the Philippine through which statute?
A. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004
B. Republic Act No. 9825
C. Alternative Dispute Resolution System Act of 2009
D. Republic Act No. 9258
374.
The first step in hostage taking crisis is______.
A. crowd control
C. negotiation
B. assault
D. traffic control
375.
Stages in hostage taking situations are:
1. Initial stage
4. Termination stage
2. Negotiation stage
5. Evaluation stage
3. Fulfillment stage
A. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5
376.
In a hostage taking situation, there are four courses of
action that might be taken. Which of the following is NOT one of
them?
A. Use of chemical agents or direct assault on the hostage-position
B. Use of sharpshooter to shoot and maim the hostage taker
C. Granting of the hostage takers’, especially terrorists’ demand in
exchange for the release of the hostages
D. Negotiation
377.
In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when
trapped they expand a great deal of emotional, physical and psychic
energy, hence:
A. Swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
B. Shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
C. Prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
D. Aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
378.
Calm attitude of a negotiator who deals with a hostage
taking situation EXCEPT:
A. Avoid words/ actions that could have the appearance of ego threat
B. Firm and avoid indecision or ambivalence
C. Build a rapport with the hostage taker
D. Give the hostage taker of their demands which are negotiable
379.
When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage
takers asked non- negotiable demands, they were left with three
options:
I. Choose martyrdom by killing hostages and commit suicide
II. Lessen demands to more realistic proportions
III. surrender
A. I, III
C. II
B. I, II, III
D. I
380.
When a highly trained and motivated terrorists choose
martyrdom and kill hostages, which is the useful action that the CMT
Team should undertake?
A. Attack them swiftly with precision
B. Give all of their demands
C. Withhold the media from terrorist
D. Let the hostages killed
381.
Which term that refers to a phenomenon where strong
attachment of the hostage victims to their captors developed after a
long period of captivity by which the former become a sympathizer of
the latter?
A. Hostage Victim Syndrome
C. Stockhlom Syndrome
B. Hostage Trauma Syndrome
D. Attachment Syndrome
382.
In a hostage taking situation, non-verbal communication
which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown by
A. A posture of a folded arms in a dominant position
B. Calmly repeating words of comfort or assurance
C. By not attempting to trick or lie
D. Keeping arms open and with other gesture that indicates that you are
willing to negotiate
383.
A crisis imposes certain problems on the Crisis Management
Team (CMT) and to its members as enumerated, EXCEPT:
A. Emotional strain due to the responsibility for human life
B. The knowledge that the government is not giving full support to the
operation
C. Insufficient data for making important decision
D. The need to consider strategic implications of seemingly out-of-this
world elements of crisis
384.
The BEST approach in negotiating with
Schizophrenic hostage taker is
A. To accept their beliefs as being true
B. To try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
C. To show them that they are just crazy
D. To try to bluff or trick them
a
Paranoid
385.
The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy
to negotiate EXCEPT:
A. Fears of police assault and punishment
B. Criminals are usually rational thinkers
C. They are familiar with police operations and tactics
D. Their ultimate desire is to surrender and their possible
punishment could be mitigated
1.
2.
3.
4.
386.
Dealing with the terrorist hostage takers is difficult because:
Terrorists are usually highly-trained combatants who have been
politically and ideologically indoctrinated
Terrorists acts as part of a group, and their behavior will be
pressured by group dynamics.
The terrorist hostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts
of principles that are not easy to resolve
Most of the terrorist groups receive training in the techniques that
will be used against them in the country chosen for the attack.
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4
387.
To control the hostage-taking situation it means the
following conditions are present:
1. Absolute containment of the perpetuator
2. Trust and confidence between the hostage taker and hostage
negotiator exists
3. Evaluation and isolation of the target area
4. Effective command and control activities for coordination and
proper decision- making
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
388.
The negotiators in hostage-taking incident should strive
to_______.
A. Be mediators not arbitrators
B. Refute all views of the terrorists
C. Promise that all their demands be met
D. Set the pace, mood and topic of conversation be themselves
389.
A negotiation team should always have a/an_____.
A. A. Officer in charge
C. Sharpshooter
B. B. Media men
D. Photographer
390.
Which of the following is NOT one of the terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing
C. Assassination
B. Hostage-taking
D. Serial murder
A.
B.
C.
D.
391.
Which of the following is NOT a terrorist’s goal?
Worldwide/ local recognition
Harassment, embarrassment weakening of government
Disruption of community and mobility
Understanding of social environment
392.
There are three categories of terrorists. Which of the
following does NOT belong to its classification?
A. Crusaders
C. Criminals
B. Crazies
D. Preachers
393.
An effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures
and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists is
known as___.
A. Crisis Management
C. Stress Management
B. Hostage negotiation
D. Police Analysis
394.
Kidnappers may _____their kidnap victims, due to attritional
factors, use of negotiations, and use of force by law enforcement
authority.
A. Kill
C. Ransom
B. Keep
D. Release
395.
Tactical procedures in hostage- taking situation are____.
1. Containment of the hostage position
2. Communication and surveillance
3. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
4. Assault alternative
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
396.
In the conduct of hostage rescue operations, the Ground
Commander’s main objectives shall be any of the following EXCEPTEnsure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free
Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of
the hostage takers
Hostage-takers desist from his threats
Hostage-takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be
incapable of causing harm
397.
In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it
is a “CARDINAL RULE”
A. to bear a weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face-to-face.
B. to seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
C. not to agitate the hostage-taker
D. never say "NO" to the demands of the hostage taker
398.
Hostage situations happen everywhere and almost every
time but whatever or whoever the hostage maybe, when there is a
threat to life, then it is a crisis situation and it must be managed for
the purpose of no other but "SALVARI VITAS", which means____.
A. To save lives
C. to kill the hostage-taker
B. To neutralize the hostage taker
D. to free the hostage
399.
Considered as a "MORTAL SIN" in hostage negotiation
is_______.
A. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
B. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
C. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
D. Saying "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
1.
2.
3.
4.
400.
PNP Operational Procedures Manual ‘s 3S PRINCIPLE in
dealing with hostage-taking situations are______.
Single Command
Single Commander and Negotiator
Single Negotiating Party
Single Access to Communication
A. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
401.
Which of the following is NOT one of the tactical procedures
in hostage- taking situation?
A. Containment of the hostage position
B. Communication and surveillance
C. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
D. Assault alternative
402.
“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
hostages –
A. by reason of mental illness
B. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
C. for personal reason
D. because of political and ideological belief
403.
You are a Criminologist-Police Officer belongs to the first
responders in a hostage-taking situation in a downtown area in
Metro Manila. Your group’s first action in said crisis is –
A. control the crowd
B. start to negotiate
C. launch an assault
D. gather information
404.
The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is –
C. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
D. open the communication at once
E. negotiate
F. ask for demands
405.
Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to –
A. police handling of the situation
B. contact
C. negotiation
D. control of area and people
406.
Approaches in crisis management is both proactive and
reactive. One of which is NOT proactive?
A. Prediction
C. Performance
B. Prevention
D. Preparation
A.
B.
C.
D.
407.
You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is
found at the scene of the crime with several onlookers. As a rule, you
are not allowed to express opinion. Why?
No useful purpose will be served
You do not know the cause of death
The killer may be around
Your opinion may influence the negotiator
408.
As first responder in the hostage taking situation, which is
NOT one of the approach you may use?
A. Isolate
C. Evaluate
B. Negotiate
D. Report
CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH 1 & 2
409.
The primary goal of research in any field of inquiry is to add
to what is known about the phenomenon under investigation through
the application of __________ methods.
A. theoretical
C. logical
B. scientific
D. systematic
410.
Taking of someone else's words, work, or ideas, and passing
them off as a product of own’s efforts is known in the research
parlance as –
A. usurpation
C. plagiarism
B. intellectual dishonesty
D. copyright infringement
411.
Research may be defined as scientific investigation of
phenomena, which includes collection, presentation, analysis, and
interpretation of facts that links man’sA. knowledge to practice
C. imagination to writing
B. idea to written matter
D. speculation with reality.
412.
Research is said to be a systematic, controlled, _________
and critical investigation of hypothetical proposition about the
presumed relations among natural phenomena.
A. empirical
C. tangible
B. manipulated
D. visible
413.
Good research must have its purposes ________ and
unambiguously defined.
A. clearly
C. empirically
B. specifically
D. legibly
414.
A specialized type of research that focuses on issues related
to the causes and consequences of crime and delinquency is –
A. criminological research
C. social research
B. crime research
D. phenomenological research
415.
Research evidence is very important to the development
of criminal justice –
A. system
C. administration
B. evaluation
D. decision-making
416.
The methods employed in criminological and criminal
justice research are identical to those in the –
A. education
C. law
B. behavioral and social sciences
D. medicine
417.
Pieces of information
during the course of research,
quantitative in form is known as
A. data
B. information
that are gathered and examined
which may be either qualitative or
–
C. findings
D. conclusion
418.
What form of data that are recorded by researchers as
verbal statements that describe particular processes and outcomes?
A. qualitative
C. numerical
B. quantitative
D. textual
419.
Term that used to describe a form of data that are consist of
pieces of information recorded in numerical form is –
A. quantitative
C. tabular
B. numerical
D. graphical
424. Research is intended to all bodies of scientific knowledge in order
to discover the basic truths or principles is_____.
A. Applied research
C. Field research
B. Action research
D. Pure research
425.
A decision oriented research which involves the application
of the steps of scientific method in response to an immediate need
for improvement of existing practices is what type of research?
A. Action research
C. Pure research
B. applied research
D. Laboratory
426.
The purpose of this research is to present a picture of the
specific details of a situation, social setting or relationship. Which
is being referred?
A. Exploratory
C. Explanatory
B. Descriptive
D. Quantitative
427.
Which characteristic of a good criminological research that
any conclusion drawn is based upon hard evidence gathered from
information collected from real life experience or observation?
A. Rigorous
C. Systematic
B. Empirical
D. Critical
428.
Considered as the most fundamental part of the research
is___.
A. Identification of a problem
B. Reviewing related literature
C. Formulation of Conceptual Framework
D. Constructing/ Framing of the research title
429.
The research title must have the following attributes,
EXCEPT –
A. Brief
B. Specific
C. Relevant to the researcher, his work and the community
D. Will solve specific problem which research attempted to solve
430.
The so called 4M’s are needed in conducting research, they
are: man, money, materials and __.
A. Machinery
C. Magnanimity
B. Mastery
D. Method
431.
This refers to a systematic, controlled, empirical and critical
investigation to answer existing and future problems of man.
Which of these?
A. Research
C. Biology
B. Sociology
D. Criminology
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
432.
Which of the following are considered best source of
research problem?
Problems encountered in the field
Suggestions from experienced researchers
Technical expertise or line of specialization
Advise of the designated adviser
Problems that were previously solved to test its applicability
A. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
433.
Which hypothesis is presented in negative form?
A. Null hypothesis
C. Research hypothesis
B. Hypothesis
D. Alternative hypothesis
434.
Type of applied research that is a discipline process of
inquiry conducted by and for those taking the action is –
A. Impact assessment research
C. Evaluation research
B. Action research
D. Basic research
435.
When a terminology used in the study is defined as it is
used in the study, it is called________.
A. Conceptual definition
C. Operational definition
B. Dictionary definition
D. Lexical definition
436.
The opposite of hypothesis is____.
A. Alternative hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
B. Assumptions
D. Synthesis
437.
You conduct a study on the age of discernment of Filipino
children for the purpose of establishing the age of criminal
responsibility.
After framing the title and statement of the
problem of your study, your next step is___.
A. Preparation of research instrument
B. Data analysis
C. Identification of respondents and sampling procedures
D. interview with people involved in the study
438.
Which of the following is NOT a source of review of
literature?
A. Thesis
C. Relics
B. Documents
D. Reporter’s accounts
439.
Which of the following that refer to the population of the
study?
1. Respondents
2. Representative of the study
3. Participants
4. Subjects of the study
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3
440.
In the related literature and studies, published materials
are classified as____.
A. Related literature
C. Professional literature
B. Literature
D. Experts’ Writings
441.
Unpublished materials like theses and dissertations are
known as______.
A. Related literature
C. Professional literature
B. Related studies
D. Scholarly works
442.
The review of literature is arranged according to the
important variables of the study and both
published
and unpublished literatures are stated accordingly. This refers to
what approach of presenting review of related literature and
studies?
A. Professional literature
C. General to specific
B. Thematic Approach
D.
Professional
and
related
literature
443.
Type of descriptive research which seeks to answer
questions to the real facts relating to existing conditions
is________.
A. Descriptive- status
C. Descriptive- normative
B. Descriptive- survey
D. Descriptive- analysis
444.
A systematic critical inquiry of the whole truth of past
events using critical method in the understanding and
interpretation of facts are applicable to the current issues and
problem is_____.
A. Case Study
C. Historical
B. Experimental
D. Descriptive
445.
Which
research design that the study focuses at the
present conditions or events?
A. Historical
C. Case Study
B. Experimental
D. Descriptive
446.
Research design the focus of which are the past, present,
and future?
A. Historical
C. Experimental
B. Descriptive
D. Case study
447.
Which descriptive research design that will determine the
extent of relationships of two variables ( X and Y), whether it is
perfect, very high, high, moderate or marked, slight or negligible?
A. Descriptive- comparative
C. Correlational- survey
B. Longitudinal- survey
D. Descriptive- survey
448.
If the purpose of the study is to ascertain the normal or
typical condition and compare them with the national standard,
research design to be used is______.
A. Descriptive- comparative
C. Descriptive- normative
B. Descriptive- Evaluation
D. Descriptive- status
449.
When the purpose of evaluating the research instrument is
to determine the extent which the topic or substance of a
research instrument is truly a representative of the substance of
the course. You seeks to adjudge its_____.
A. Construct validity
C. Concurrent validity
B. Predicted validity
D. Content validity
450.
When research instrument measures what it purports to
measure, such instrument is______.
A. Reliabile
C. Objective
B. Valid
D. Usable
451.
Sampling design in which all individuals in the population
is arranged in methodical manner either in alphabetical or
chronological order and the nth name may be chosen in the
construction of the sample is_______.
A. Systematic sampling
C. Unrestricted random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling D. Restricted random sampling
452.
Which sampling design intended to improve the validity of
the sample and is applicable when the population being studied is
homogeneous?
A. Unrestricted random sampling
C. Stratified random sampling
B. Restricted random sampling
D. Systematic random sampling
453.
Which sampling design that is based on the selection of the
individuals as samples according to the criteria of the researcher
which serve as control?
A. Quota sampling
C. Purposive sampling
B. Incidental sampling
D. Cluster sampling
454.
Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
A. Quota sampling
C. Incidental sampling
B. Purposive sampling
D. Cluster sampling
455.
Population is grouped into small units such as blocks or
districts. This refers to which sampling design?
A. Purposive sampling
C. Cluster sampling
B. Quota sampling
D. Multistage sampling
456.
You
are a researcher who simply takes the closest
individuals as subjects of your
study because they are most
available. Which sampling design you are using?
A. Quota sampling
C. Cluster sampling
B. Purposive sampling
D. Incidental sampling
457.
If your study involves field of opinion research. You will use
which sampling design?
A. Incidental research
C. Quota sampling
B. Cluster sampling
D. Purposive sampling
458.
Conversion of information either manually or machine into
qualitative forms and has shelf-life and access for future use is
known as_______.
A. Data matrix
C. Data processing
B. Tabulation of data
D. Categorization of data
459.
Tallying and counting of raw data to arrive at frequency
distribution and organizing them in a systematic order in a table
or tables is called_______.
A. Tabulation of data
C. Data matrix
B. Dummy table
D. Categorization of data
460.
In this preliminary section of a research paper, the
investigator recognizes and appreciates the selfless effort and wise
counsel extended by his adviser. This refers to_______.
A. Title page
C. Table of contents
B. Approval sheet
D. Acknowledgment
461.
In ethnographic research, it is the qualitative crossvalidation of data using multiple data sources or multiple data
collection procedures. This refers to_____.
A. Case study
C. Multivariate
B. Descriptive research
D. Triangulation
462.
The preliminary section of a research paper, thesis, or
dissertation where the full name and signature of adviser, panel of
examiners and dean are indicated is____.
A. Table of Content
C. Acknowledgement
B. Title Page
D. Approval Sheet
463.
If the researcher wishes to determine the magnitude of
association between the educational background and performance
in the police service, he is trying to determine the_____.
A. Experimental
C. Correlation
B. Descriptive
D. Historical
464.
When the researcher directly witnesses the events, the data
is considered as_____.
A. Secondary data
C. Internal data
B. Primary data
D. Witness account data
465.
This type of qualitative research describes experiences as
they are live. Which of these?
A. Ethnography
C. Historical
B. Phenomenology
D. Case study
466.
Since a study involves people, special care is taken into
consideration to ensure that respondents are treated ethically in
all aspects.
A. Open coding
C. Benchmarking
B. Ethical consideration
D. Bracketing
467.
This means that research starts with the problem and ends
with a problem.
A. Critical
C. Unending
B. Analytical
D. Cyclical
468.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main parts of
research paper?
A. Appendices
C. Preliminaries
B. Reference materials
D. Text
469.
Which of the following that refers to conceptual paradigm?
A. Illustration depicting what the concept of the study is all about
B. Explanation on how one or more variables are related to other
variables
C. Systems of concept, assumptions, expectations, and beliefs that
support a research study
D. General and specific purposes of the study
470.
In this section of the research study, the researcher states
the type of research, its meaning, and how it is applicable to the
study. This refers to____.
A. Method of research used
C. Sampling design
B. Methods and procedures
D.
Data
gathering
procedures
471.
Which chapter of the research paper that data gathered are
presented in tabulated and textual forms, analyzed and
interpreted substantially?
A. CHAPTER 3
C. CHAPTER 5
B. CHAPTER 4
D. CHAPTER 6
472.
The following acts constitute plagiarism, EXCEPT:
Owning someone else's paper.
Using another person's ideas without acknowledgment.
Reading a book and failed to cite it as a source of information.
Copying an author's exact words and putting them in the paper
without quotation marks.
5. Rephrasing an author's words and failing to cite the source.
A. 4 and 5 only
C. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
D. 5 only
1.
2.
3.
4.
473.
Criminological research involves an effort to connect theory
and empirical data. Hence, in formulating research problems,
Criminologists use _____________ reasoning.
A. logical
C. deductive
B. inductive and deductive
D. systematic
474.
Reasoning that moves from a set of particular observations
to the discovery of pattern that represent some degree of order
among the varied events under examination.
A. Inductive
C. Empirical
B. Deductive
D. Scientific
475.
The brief descriptive summary of a theses or dissertations is
known as –
A. Abstract
C. findings
B. research paradigm
D. conceptual framework
476.
Part of the population, carefully selected to represent
that population is known as –
A. Respondents
C. participants
B. Universe
D. sample
477.
The most common means for collecting quantitative
data is the structured interview called –
A. Surveys
C. observation
B. Interviews
D. focus observation
478.
It is generally developed based on a literature review
of existing studies and theories about the research topic.
Which of these?
A. Conceptual framework
C. Paradigm of the study
B. Theoretical framework
D. Hypothesis
479.
Which type of hypothesis used to answer relationship
or differences of data obtained in descriptive questions?
A. Null
C. Statistical
B. Alternative
D. Descriptive
480.
Literature review is organized around a topic or issue
is known as –
A. Methodological
C. chronological
B. Thematic
D. progression
481.
Which component of thesis or dissertation that
provides the reader with the information on how was the
data collected and analyzed?
A. Methods
B. Design
C. Review of related literature
D. Result, discussion and recommendation
482.
Researcher who seeks to determine the relationship
between low IQ and delinquency shall use which research
design?
A. Quasi-experimental
C. Descriptive
B. Correlational
D. Phenomenological
483.
In this research design, researcher conducts a
detailed study of the culture of a specific community or
group which data is collected by extended immersion and
close observation.
A. Case study
C. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
D. Grounded Theory
484.
You seek to describe the lives of a drug pushers; what
research design will you utilize?
A. Grounded theory
C. Descriptive
B. Case study
D. Phenomenology
485.
In your research, you combined quantitative and
qualitative design in your collection and analysis of data,
giving priority to quantitative. This research design is
known as –
A. sequential explanatory
C. concurrent triangulation
B. sequential exploratory
D. concurrent nested
486.
In this design only one data collection phase is used,
during which quantitative and qualitative data collection
and analysis are conducted separately yet concurrently and
equal priority is given to both types of research.
A. Mixed method
C. Concurrent triangulation
B. Sequential exploratory
D. Concurrent nested
487.
If a sample in your research constitutes 200 persons,
each person in the sample is considered as a –
A. sampling unit
C. sampling frame
B. sample size
D. respondent
488.
Selecting or drawing of every nth item or person from
a pre-determined list to be one of the respondent of the
study is known as –
A. systematic sampling
C. stratified sampling
B. simple random sampling
D. cluster sampling
489.
Known as network, chain referral or reputation
sampling method, wherein the researcher starts collection of
data from the person known to him. At the end of the data
collection he/she will ask the respondent to provide a
contact information of another who can give relevant
information regarding the area of the study.
A. Convenient sampling
C. Purposive sampling
B. Quota sampling
D. Snowball sampling
490.
If the research questionnaire actually measures the
concept that he/she intends to measure his/her
questionnaire is deemed to be –
A. Feasible
C. reliable
B. Valid
D. useful
491.
The totality of all values in a collection of numbers
divided by the number of numbers in a collection is known
as the –
A. Mean
C. Mode
B. Median
D. Range
492.
Pearson Product Moment Coefficient of Correlation
(Pearson r) is used toA. measure the degree of relationship between the two variable
B. measure the degree of association between two variables.
C. measure of the strength and direction of association that exists
between two variables measured on at least an ordinal scale
D.measure the strength of association or co-occurrence between two
variables.
493.
Which inferential statistical tool is used to determine
significant difference between the means of two (2) groups,
which may be related in certain feature?
A. t-test
C. Analysis of Variance
B. f-test
D. x-test
494.
In what verb tense presentation, analysis
interpretation of data be written?
A. Past tense
C. Present tense
B. Future tense
D. Past future tense
and
495.
Textual Presentation of data is presented in __________
form.
A. Paragraph
C. bar graph
B. columns and rows
D. line graph
496.
Findings of the research study should be written in
which verb tense?
A. Past
C. Future
B. Present
D. Past perfect
497.
Conclusions of the study must be derived from the
_________ of the study and in the present verb tense
A. statement of the problem
C. findings
B. hypothesis
D. result
-END-
CRIMINOLOGY (20%)
INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
63.
What kind of crime is committed when there is a violation of the
criminal law by a person of respectability and high social status in the
course of his or her occupation?
C. White collar crime
C. Upper world crime
D. Blue collar crime
D. Underworld crime
64.
The leading theorists in criminology history started with the
advocacies of the classical school of criminology through –
E. Marx and Engel
C. Lombroso- Ferri- Garofalo
F. Howard and Freud D. Beccaria and Bentham
65.
Section 1 of Republic Act 11131 provides that the law regulating
the Criminology profession in the Philippines shall be known as –
A. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018
B. The Criminology Profession Act of the Philippines
C. The 2018 Philippine Criminology Profession
D. The Criminology Modernization Act of the 2018
66.
Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is
classified as a public order crime or –
A. crimes against person
C. violent crime
B. physical crime
D. victimless crime
67.
Positivist School considered him a “Forerunner in Criminology”.
He founded the school of human physiognomy which is the study of
facial features and their relation to human behavior. Who is he?
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Giambattista Dela Porta
D. Ernest Kretchmer
68.
Which is TRUE about public order crimes?
E. These are crimes defined by legislative bodies in response to
changing social conditions, public opinion, and custom
F. These are acts considered illegal because they threaten general wellbeing of society and challenge its accepted moral principles
G. These are crimes that violate the moral order but there is no actual
victim or target.
H. These are illegal acts that capitalize on a person’s status in the
market place
69.
The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and
concept of other sciences and field of study which makes the study of
criminology:
A. Dynamic
C. Social science
B. Nationalistic
D. An applied science
70.
Criminal __________refers to the study of the relationship between
criminality and the inhabitants of a certain locality:
A. ecology
C. epidiomology
B. demography
D. physical anthropology
71.
Which deals primarily with the study of crime commission?
A. Criminology
C. Victimology
B. Criminal Etiology
`
D. Criminal Sociology
72.
Pedro Tatlongbayan, a victim of robbery, was able to identify his
assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on the way to the hospital where he
was declared dead on arrival, This crime is called –
A. complex crime
C. instant crime
B. simple crime
D. situational crime
73.
Brigida is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal
communication. She had committed estafa to several persons through
illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did she committed?
A. Acquisitive crime
C. Instant crime
B. Extinctive crime
D. Situational crime
74.
Man’s external manifestation in relation to criminality is studied
using science known as –
A. Atavistic criminology
C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychology
D. Physical anthropology
75.
What crimes according to the time or period of the commission are
those which are committed only when the circumstances or situation is
conducive to its commission like for instance, committing theft in a
crowded place?
A. Seasonal
C. Situational
B. Instant
D. Continuing
76.
There are crimes that are committed within a certain length of
time. What crime is committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of
time?
A. Static
C. Situational
B. Instant
D. Episoidal
77.
Theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to maintain
one’s livelihood or as a means for living are classified as –
A. rational crimes
C. blue-collar crimes
B. irrational crimes
D. white collar crimes
78.
One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What
kind of criminal is that whose action arises from the intra-psychic
conflict between the social and anti-social components of his
personality?
A. Acute
C. Chronic
B. Neurotic
D. Normal
79.
On the basis of activities what type of criminals who commit a
crime as a way of living, hence they make it a means of livelihood?
A. Situational
C. Accidental
B. Habitual
D. Professional
80.
During the prehistoric times, there was no formal criminal justice
system, and crimes where punished based on –
A. formal laws
C. conscience
B. customs
D. The Bible
81.
Which classification of criminal whose actions arise from intrapsychic conflict between social and anti-social components of his
personality?
A. Neurotic
C. Criminaloids
B. Abnormal
D. Psychotic
82.
He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study
of society, which to him passes through stages divided on the basis of
how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational
scientific understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive
stage and those who followed his writings were called –
A. Positivism
C. Sociologists
B. Positivists
D. Scientists
83.
In the book “On Crimes and Punishment”, what was said to be the
most effective means of controlling crime?
A. Death penalty
C. Certainty of punishment
B. Monetary fine
D. Life imprisonment
84.
Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he
concluded that the main difference between a criminal and a noncriminal is that each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Andre Michael Guerry
B. Thorsten Sellin
D. Abraham Maslow
85.
This school of thought in criminology states that although
individuals have self-rule, there are other factors that affect the exercise
of their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
A. Neo-classical
C. Utilitarianism
B. Classical
D. Positivist
86.
This refers to an individual’s physical features that resemble those
of apes and are said to be factors as to whether a person will become a
criminal or not:
A. Atavistic stigmata
C. Ape-like peculiarities
B. Ape-like features
D. Physical deviation
87.
Frustration can be manifested by the presence of anxiety,
irritability and –
A. state of fear
C. self fulfillment
B. satisfaction
D. peace
88.
Standard of behavior or conduct accepted in a given society
which expected of an individual living in that society is –
A. culture
C. norms
B. principles
D. laws
89.
Breakdown of social order as a result of the loss of order in a
society is known as –
A. Synomie
C. Anarchy
B. Anomie
D. Chaos
90.
He introduced the “Theory of Imitation” which states that
individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and that those
with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with
stronger personalities. Who is he?
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Gabriel Tarde
D. Enrico Ferri
91.
In Biological Theory, the following can lead to criminal behavior,
EXCEPT:
A. Physical Defects
C. Abnormal Brain Activity
B. Chromosome Irregularity
D. Inferior body construction
92.
This theory presented the view that individuals tend to commit
crime because of the irregularities in the functions of their brain.
A. Biological
C. Psychoanalytical
B. Sociological
D. Psychological
93.
This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:
A. Nature Nurture
C. Psychological
B. Strain
D. Labeling
94.
Which theory that states that attachment, connection and link to
society will determine whether a person shall commit a crime or not?
A. Social control
C. Social disorganization
B. Social bond
D. Social learning
95.
Physiognomy as a factor in crime causation refers to the:
E. Study of the body built of a person in relation to his personality
behavior and the type of offense he or she is most prone to commit
F. Study of the external formation of the skull and brain formation
G. Study of the facial features of man and its relation to human
behavior
H. Study of human mind
96.
Among the different body types Sheldon presented in his study, he
considered this ONE to be the most likely to become criminal is A. the endomorph
C. the mesomorph
B. the ectomorph
D. the dysplastic
97.
A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and
goals in life both as an officer of the law, and as a private citizen, can
push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
A. Disorganization
C. Differential Association
B. Culture Conflict
D. Strain
98.
A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of delinquent
behaviors as socially learned and transferred from one generation to the
next taking place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
A. Cultural Transmission
C. Social Phenomenon
B. Crime
D. Delinquent behavior
99.
This theory manifests an individual’s frustration and
disappointments over his inability to reach a set goal, in spite of hard
works, that eventually pushed a person to a life of crime.
A. Conflict
C. Sociological
B. Strain
D. Social Structure
100.
Regarded as the “Dean of Criminology” is A. Cesare Beccaria
C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Cesare Lombroso
D. Augusto Comte
101.
Tax evasion, embezzlement of money, insurance and bank fraud
are examples ofA. Corporation crime
C. Occupational crime
B. Corporate crime
D. white-collar crime
102.
Which is TRUE about Enrico Ferri’s explanation about the cause
of crime?
C. Environmental conditions is the main reason for people committing
crimes
D. People commit crimes because of free will motivated by pleasure
C. There is no such things as a physical criminal type
D. Criminals had organic inferiorities
103.
Emile Durkheim argued that crime is a normal part of the society
as birth and death, and –
E. should be prevented before it destroys society
F. criminal acts should be punished in order to deter others from
doing the same
G. should be controlled but due process must be strictly observed
H. criminal acts reflected society’s dominant values
104.
Considered to be of noteworthy importance in the
Hammurabi is –
A. An assertion of the power of the state
B. Protection of the weaker from stronger
C. Restoration of equity between the offender and the victim
D. Its concern in the rights of the victim
Code of
105.
What is considered to be the basis of many of the laws in modern
society that especially prohibit murder, perjury, and theft?
A. Code of Hammurabi
C. Mosaic Code
B. Code of Ur Nammu
D Code of Twelve Tables
106.
Beccaria is responsible for the contemporary belief that criminals
have control over their behavior, that they choose to commit crimes, and
that they can be deterred by the threat of punishment which should be
certain, swift and –
A. death
C. painful
B. severe
D. public
107.
An advocate of “Utilitarian Hedonism”, Jeremy Bentham modified
the classical doctrine calling it Neoclassical admitting environmental,
psychological, and other mitigating circumstances
that modify
conditions in the –
C. determination of right or wrong C. decision making
D. exercise of freedom and intelligence
D. exercise of freewill
108.
In his work, “Treatise on Man and the Developlment of his
Faculties”, he found impact of group factors and characteristics, with
which crimes appeared annually and varied with respect to age, sex and
economic conditions.
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Robert Merton
D. Emile Durkhiem
109.
In his Theory of Dialectical Materialism, he argued that resolution
of social problems such as crime would be achieved by the creation of a
socialist society characterized by communal ownership of the means of
production and an equal distribution of the fruits of these labors.
A. Karl Marx
C. Willem Bonger
B. Robert Merton
D. Adolf Hitler
110.
Which is NOT an elements of the positivistic approach in the
study of crime phenomenon?
A. Application of the scientific method
B. The discovery and diagnosis of pathology
C. Determination of the cause
D. Treatment
111.
Other than discovering the basic cause of crime, through its
systematic application of the scientific method, the positivist seeks toE. measure the extent of crime
F. prescribe appropriate treatment in order to cure the individual
criminal
G. determine appropriate punishment for a crime based on the principle
of proportionality.
H. present a more credible theories of crime causation
112.
Prior to and competing with emergent positivism were various
popular pseudo-sciences, one of which phrenology introduced by an
Austrian anatomist Franz Gall which attempted to –
E. determine intelligence and personality on the basis of the size and
shape of the skull.
F. predict fate of human behavior in terms of the alignment of stars.
G. explain human personality through measurement of facial and
other body
characteristics
H. Predict future behavior through reading and interpreting lines on
the
palm
113.
Genetic make-up contributes significantly to human behavior,
and as a human race evolved, traits and characteristics have become
ingrained, some of which make people aggressive and predisposed to
commit crime. What theory of crime causation is described?
A. Trait
C. Evolution
B. Positivist
D. Atavism
114.
He proposed a Multiple-Factor approach to crime causation,
admitting both individual and environmental factors. Who is he?
A. Rafaeli Garofalo
C. Earnest Hooton
B. Enrico Ferri
D. William Sheldon
115.
In his work, “The English Convict”, ______________ discovered that
criminals were shorter and weighted less and most importantly,
mentally defective, refuting Lombroso’s physical stigmata.
C. Charles Goring
C. Robert Dugdale
D. Antonio Moniz
D. Edward Wilson
116.
Biological roots of criminal behavior adhere to the principle that
the basic determinants of human behavior, including criminality, are
constitutionally or physiologically based and inherited. Which theory
does weather, hypoglycemia, vitamins, food allergies and seratonin
belong?
C. Positivism
C. Body Chemistry
D. Chemical Criminology
D. Sociobiology
117.
Disappointment is a natural consequence of living and criminal
behavior is a form of adaptation when it results to stress reduction.
Which theory of crime causation is outlined?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
C. Behavioral Conflict
B. Psychoanalytic Criminology
D. Frustration-Aggression
118.
Social structure theories emphasize the role of poverty, lack of
education, absence of marketable skills, and subcultural values as
fundamental causes of crime. It portray crime as a result of an
individual’s location within the structure of society and focus onE. the social change, conflict and the lack of consensus
F. the socially approved success goals
G. a clash of values among variously socialized groups
H. the social and economic conditions of life.
119.
What is the primary emphasis of Social Learning Theories in the
acquisition of learned patterns of criminal behavior and the values that
support that behavior?
E. Communication and socialization
F. Strength of the bond that people share with the institutions and
individuals around them
G. Society’s response to the criminal
H. Management of impressions
120.
Differential Association-Reinforcement Theory suggests that
criminality, like any other form of behavior, is learned through the
process of __________ with others who communicate criminal values
C. identifying
C. learning
D. association
D. teaching and learning
121.
The following are component of Social Bond, according to Travis
Hirschi, which, if weakened or broken, delinquency or crime may
occurs, EXCEPT one.
E. Attachment to family, friends and community
F. Commitment to future goals, career and success
G. Involvement in community organizations, religious groups and
social clubs
H. Self-esteem which is a strong belief to one’s potential to succeed
in life
122.
Developmental Theory seeks to identify, describe, and understand
the developmental factors that explain the onset and continuation of
criminal career. It is consists of the following factors, EXCEPT,
E. Income, neighborhood and socialization
F. Situational factors
G. Cognitive factors
H. Latent trait and life course
123.
Which is NOT one of the theories of violent crimes according to
Konrad Lorenz and Robert Ardrey?
E. Humans have a killer instinct and violence or aggression are
inherently human traits that can affect any person at any time
F. Humans are inherently violent which is precipitated by a violent
environment
G. Violence-prone individuals may themselves have been the victims of
physical or psychological abnormalities
H. Violence-prone subcultures within society whose members value force
and consider violence to have an acceptable place in social
interaction.
124.
According to Criminologist John Conrad, a criminally violent
offenders are those who E. live in subculture in which violence is and acceptable problem solving
mechanism.
F. use violence as a means of accomplishing criminal act, such as in
robbery.
G. suffer mental illness or brain damage characterizes the pathologically
violent
offenders.
H. commit acts of violence on rare occasions, often under provocation.
112. The study of criminology encompasses all body of knowledge
regarding crimes, criminals and_______
E. The scientific method of punishment
F. Efforts of society to prevent and repress them
G. Effective method of penalty to deter criminal behavior
H. Remedy of the government to stop tem
113. The term “criminology” was derived from the Italian term
“criminologia” coined by :
E. Cesare Lombroso, a physician and known as the Father of
Crimiology
F. Cesare Becarria, the founder of Classical School of Criminology
and author of “On Crimes and Punishment
G. Raffaelle Garofalo, an Italian law professor
H. Edwin Sutherland, an American sociology professor who is
populary regarded as the Dean of American Criminology
114. As registered criminologist, you may classify crimes into mala inse
and mala prohibita. Which of the following crimes in the Philippines
that you may NOT classify as mala inse?
A. Rape
C. Drug trafficking
B. Murder
D. Robbery
115. Criminologists classified crimes according to its results, time or
period of commission, length of time, place of commission, type of
offender and mental faculties of the offender. Crime is classified as
extinctive when:
E. the offender acquires something as a consequence of crime
F. the consequence of the criminal act is destructive
G. the crime is committed only during a certain period of the year
H. the crime committed only when the situation is conducive
116. As Criminologist how will you classify crime committed by a
burglar and witty swindler?
C. Rational crime
C. White-collar Crime
D. Irrational crime
D. Blue-collar Crime
117. As to the length of time that crimes are committed, Criminologist
classified it instant and episoidal crimes. Crimes are episoidal if___.
E. committed in the shortest possible time
F. committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of time
G. committed in only one place
H. committed in several places
118. Johnny and Clarence kidnapped Denise in Paranaque, brought
and ravish her in Alabang and, killed and dumped her body in Naic
Cavite. As Criminoogist you can classify this crime as_____.
C. Heineous crime
C. Continuing crime
D. Hate crime
D. Static crime
119. Which type of crime that a experiences a loss of some quality
relative to his her present standing such as when he was a victim of
robbery or theft or his dignity is stripped from him?
C. Crime of attrition
C. Crimes of Repression
D. Crime of reduction
D. Extinctive Crime
120. Crime that has no purpose except to accomplish the behavior at
hand such as shooting someone without any reason is categorized
as______.
C. Expressive crime
C. Mission hate Crime
D. Hate Crimes
D. Inchoate Crimes
121. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to public order crimes?
E. These are crimes defined by legislative bodies in response to
changing social conditions, public opinion, and custom
F. These are acts considered illegal because they threaten general
well-being of society and challenge its accepted moral principles
G. These are crimes that violate the moral order but there is no
actual victim or target.
H. These are illegal acts that capitalize on a person’s status in the
market place
122. Criminals are classified based on their etiology, behavioral system
and their activities. On the basis of etiology, criminals may be
classified into:
E. Acute and chronic criminals
F. Ordinary, organized, and professional criminals
G. Professional, accidental, habitual, situational criminals
H. Neurotic and normal criminals
145. On July 27, 2015, Republic Act 10912 was enacted by Philippine
congress and approved by President Benigno S. Aquino, III. This
pertains to –
E. the law formalizing that the professional labelling of Registered
Criminologist shall be RCrim
F. the law mandating the continuing professional development
program for all regulated professions in the Philippines including
the Criminology profession
G. the implementing rules and regulations of the Continuing
Professional Development Act of 2016
H. the guidelines that Criminologist shall undergo 45 CPD credit
units for every 3 years of renewal of his/her professional licence
THEORIES OF CRIME CAUSATION
420.
Set of assumptions, propositions, or accepted facts that
attempts to provide a rational explanation of cause and effect (causal)
relationships among a group of observed phenomenon such as crime
or delinquency is known asC. criminology
C. hypothesis
D. theory
D. theoretical framework
421.
It refers to a proposition that attempts to explain criminal
behavior, and behaviors of key actors such as the police, prosecutors,
judges, victims, witnesses, accused etc in the criminal justice
system. What is it?
C. Criminal justice system
C. phenomenology
D. Criminal etiology
D. Criminological theory
422.
Basically, theories about the causes of crime are based on
religion, philosophy, biology, politics, economy, and –
C. social forces
C. free-will
D. economic condition
D. family relation
423.
Which criminological theory that is based on religious
beliefs?
C. Classical
C. Divine Right
D. Anomie
D. Demonology
424.
What perspective on crime causation that holds that
criminality is the result of conscious choice? It predicts that
individuals will choose to commit crime when the benefits of doing so
outweigh the cost of disobeying the law.
B. Radical Theory
C. Endangered Species Theory
B. Rational Choice Theory
D. Freewill
425.
One of the ideas of the Classical Criminology is that
punishment should be limited (less harsher) to only that necessary to
deter people from ever committing it again. This is the principle
involved in the –
C. Doctrine of Deterrence
C. Doctrine of Determinism
D. Doctrine of Capital Punishment
D. Doctrine of Enlightenment
426.
A Conflict perspective in Criminology that sees crime as
engendered by the unequal distribution of wealth, power, and other
resources, which adherents believe is especially characteristics of
capitalist societies. It is also called Critical Criminology or Marxist
Criminology.
C. Radical Criminology
C. Applied Criminology
D. Reformative Criminology
D. Green Criminology
427.
Franz Joseph Gall was the first theorist and codifier of this
science that deals with the study of the topography of the human
skull and correlates it with human behavior. Which term he used
that denotes in this study?
C. Skullogy
C. Physiognomy
D. Phrenology
D. Serology
428.
If the motive of the criminal act is based upon stress,
hassles and interpersonal relations, then the most applicable theory
would be –
C. differential association
C. anomie theory
D. theological theory
D. strain theory
429.
The leading theorists in criminology history started with the
advocacies of the classical school of criminology through –
G. Marx and Engel
C. Lombroso- Ferri- Garofalo
H. Howard and Freud
D. Beccaria and Bentham
430.
One of the earliest scientific work in Philippine criminology
was “Criminality in the Philippines: 1903- 1908” studied or initiated
by –
C. Vladimir Villasenor
C. Ignacio Villamor
D. Ramon Blanco
D. Daniel Folkmar
431.
When the study of crimes deals on the account of contextual
factors such as oppression of workers, class division, ethnic
minorities, women, sexism, and racism, then the perspective or
approach used is –
C. classical criminology
C. experimental criminology
D. critical criminology
D. comparative criminology
432.
What theory in crime causation which state that criminal
behavior is learned in interaction with people in the process of
communication?
A. Social Learning Theory
C. Social Culture Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
D. Conflict Theory
433.
This theory states that criminal behavior results when a
person’s individual bond to society is weakened or broken. Which
theory is referred to?
A. Social Process
C. Social Structure
B. Social Control
D. Social Reaction
434.
The prediction, prevention, and therapeutic intervention
which include psychoanalysis, group therapy, counselling, family
therapy, drug treatment and reconditioning falls under the concept of
–
C. socio- cultural theories
C. psychiatric theories
D. biological theories
D. psychological theories
435.
What criminological era originated the concept of deterrence
although they didn’t call it at that time? The concept of rationality
preventing crime by punishment (what they meant by deterrence at
the time_ was considered a great humanitarian reform, superior in
many ways to cruel and unusual medieval torture practices that
existed.
C. Classical Criminology
C. Neo-classical Criminology
D. Pre-classical Criminology
D. Positivistic Criminology
436.
It is the breakdown of social order caused by societal
disintegration and normlessness. This is known as –
A. anomie
C. conflict
B. civil apprising
D. riot
437.
This theory states that in order to cope with social isolation
and economic deprivation, members of the lower class create a
unique culture with its own set of rules and values. Which theory is
being described?
A. Culture Conflict
C. Social Learning
B. Culture Deviance
D. Social Disorganization
438.
Positivist School considered him a “Forerunner in
Criminology”. He founded the school of human physiognomy which is
the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior.
Who is he?
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Giambattista Dela Porta
D. Ernest Kretchmer
439.
Importance should be given to social, economic, and
political factors to the study of the causes of crimes and that society
needed protection against criminal acts which was the purpose of
criminal law and penal policy to provide the protection. This was the
premise of which among the Criminologists?
A. Raffaele Garofalo
C. Enrico Ferri
B. Emile Durkheim
D. Edwin Sutherland
440.
Dr. Gerona who is studying the relationship of physical
constitution of man to criminality
uses which Science as
contributory factor to crimes?
A. Etiology
C. Anthropology
B. Epidiomology
D. Ecology
441.
Crime is a function of competition for limited resources and
power. Class conflict produces crime. These are the forces that make
a criminal according to A. Social Structural theory
B. Conflict Theory
C. Social Process theory
D. Developmental or Multiple-factors theory
E.
F.
G.
H.
442.
Sutherland presented the following premises about
Differential Association Theory, EXCEPT:
Criminal behavior is learned
Criminal behavior can be learned through interaction with others in
the process of communication
The process of learning criminal behavior excludes law abiding
members of the community
The principal part of learning is within the most intimate personal
group.
443.
Labeling theory holds that people enter into law-violating
careers when they are labeled for their acts and organize their
personalities around the labels. This theory is also known asA. Social Learning
C. Social Reaction
B. Social Control
D. Social Process
444.
This theory is also known as the "labeling theory"
A. Social reaction
C. Cultural deviance
B. Social control
D. Strain
445.
It is the study that deals with the relationship between the
skull and human behavior.
A. Physiognomy
C. Phrenology
B. Physiology
D. Craniology
446.
This school of thought in criminology states that although
individuals have free will, there are other factors that affect the
exercise of their free will, which cause them commit crimes:
A. Neo-classical
C. Utilitarianism
B. Classical
D. Positivist
447.
Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a criminal
and a non-criminal is that each is responding to different sets of
conduct norms.
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Andre Michael Guerry
B. Thorsten Sellin
D. Abraham Maslow
448.
This refers to an individual’s physical features that resemble
those of apes and are said to be factors as to whether a person will
become a criminal or not:
A. Atavistic stigmata
C. Ape-like peculiarities
B. Ape-like features
D. Physical deviation
449.
He introduced the “Theory of Imitation” which states that
individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and that
those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those
with stronger personalities:
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Adolphe Quetelet
B. Gabriel Tarde
D. Enrico Ferri
450.
In Biological Theory, the following can lead to criminal
behavior, EXCEPT:
A. Physical Defects
C. Abnormal Brain Activity
B. Chromosome Irregularity
D. Inferior body construction
451.
This theory presented the view that individuals tend to
commit crime because of the irregularities in the functions of their
brain.
A. Biological
C. Psychoanalytical
B. Sociological
D. Psychological
452.
Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is
focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not he will commit
a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment is
–
A. Restoration
C. Treatment
B. Retribution
D. Deterrence
453.
This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:
A. Nature Nurture
C. Psychological
B. Strain
D. Labeling
454.
He explained that individuals learn criminal behavior by
means of communication with persons who dwell in criminality:
A. Cesare Lombroso
C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Charles Buckman Goring
D. Emile Durkheim
455.
The theory which states that attachment, connection and
link to society will determine whether a person shall commit a crime
or not:
A. Social control
C. Social disorganization
B. Social bond
D. Social learning
456.
Among the different body types Sheldon presented in his
study, he considered this ONE to be the most likely to become
criminal is A. the endomorph
C. the mesomorph
B. the ectomorph
D. the dysplastic
457.
A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law, and as a
private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this
particular theory.
A. Disorganization
C. Differential Association
B. Culture Conflict
D. Strain
458.
A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of
delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred from one
generation to the next taking place mostly among disorganized urban
areas.
A. Cultural Transmission
C. Social Phenomenon
B. Crime
D. Delinquent behavior
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND JUVENILE JUSTICE
459.
As a parent, the failure to provide for the needs of a child
can be considered by law as an act of –
C. neglect
C. cruelty
D. abuse
D. discrimination
460.
Recognizing children's right to and need for protection from
sexual abuse and exploitation. Which law that raised the Age of
Sexual Consent, hence increases the age of statutory rape from 12 to
16?
C. Republic Act 11648
C. Republic Act 7610
D. Republic Act 10630
D. Presidential Decree 603
461.
Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any
violation of Republic Act 7610?
4. Parents or guardians
5. Barangay Chairman
6. Ascendants
C. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
D. Any of the them
E.
F.
G.
H.
462.
Under the law, what is the duty of any head of public or
private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been treated
or suffered from abuse?
Report the incident to the family
Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
File a case in court in behalf of the child
463.
Placing a child above 15 years old but below 18 who acted
with discernment to diversion program is done, when?
A. During initial investigation by law enforcement officer
B. After initial investigation by law enforcement officer
C. Before initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
D. Before and after initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
464.
Which is NOT of the instances that the CICL subjected to
diversion be brought before the court for execution of judgment?
E. When the CICL and is parents refuses to pay civil indemnity
F. When the CICL is incorrigible and has not shown the capability of
becoming a useful member of society
G. When the CICL willfully failed to comply with the conditions of the
disposition or rehabilitation program
H. The CICL’ continued stay in the training institution is not in his best
interest
465.
What type of a delinquent child internalizes his conflicts
and becomes preoccupied with his feelings?
C. Social delinquent
C. Neurotic delinquent
D. Asocial delinquent
D. Accidental delinquent
466.
Which of the following delinquency factors refers to
inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one
unless there is a probability that a crime will be committed?
C. Predisposing factor
C. Precipitating factor
D. Biologic factor
D. Environmental factor
467.
Absence without cause for more than 20 school days may
be considered as –
C. vices
C. undesirable behavior
D. truancy
D. attractive nuisance
468.
The determination of the age of a child in conflict with law
shall be heard by a court in a summary proceeding and shall be
decided within _____ upon receipt of the court of the pleadings of all
interested parties.
C. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
469.
Offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an
adult does not suffer any penalty for committing similar acts, are
known as –
C. victimless crimes
C. status offenses
D. delinquencies
D. juvenile delinquencies
470.
When there is a shared parental authority to make decisions
over a child or a minor, then there is a –
C. rejoinder
C. parental jurisdiction
D. joint custody of the child
D. jury
E.
F.
G.
H.
471.
In acting for or against the minors, the State, through its
juvenile authorities should act in –
the best interests of the child
the manner that would benefit the child
utmost dispatch
coordination and cooperation of biological parents
472.
The mass of obligation which the parents have in relation to
the persons and property of their unemancipated child is legally
known as –
A. Parental authority
C. Parental obligation
B. Parent’s authority
D. Parental duty
473.
It focuses on repairing the harm done to victims and to the
community and stresses that offenders must contribute to the repair.
A. Restorative justice
C. Distributive justice
B. Retributive justice
D. Social justice
474.
Which law that strengthened the juvenile justice system in
the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 9344
C. Republic Act 7610
B. Republic Act 10630
D. Presidential Decree 603
475.
An alternative child-appropriate process of determining the
responsibility and treatment of CICL on the basis of his/her social,
cultural, economic, psychological of educational background without
resorting to formal court adjudication.
A. Diversion
C. Community intervention
B. Adjudication
D. Prosecution
G.
H.
476.
Views that “Parens Patriae Doctrine” adheres in justifying
State’s interference on family relations/ affairs when it sees that it is
prejudicial to the children’s well being.
Children are humans and their rights as human beings should be
protected
Minors who engage in criminal behavior are victims of improper care,
custody, and treatment at home.
Minors are the hope of the country hence they should be reformed
Children are the country’’s hope to greatness
E.
F.
G.
H.
477.
In acting for or against the minors, the State, through its
juvenile authorities should act in_________________.
The best interests of the child
The manner that would benefit the child
Utmost dispatch
Coordination and cooperation of biological parents
E.
F.
478.
Acts which that are not considered illegal if committed by
an adult, but legally condemn if committed by a minor?
1. Truancy, cursing, loitering or joining gangs
2. Smoking and drinking alcohol
3. Prostitution, stealing and involvement in a brawl
4. Disobedience and mendicancy
5 Mendicancy or begging in the streets
C. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5
479.
Which of the following should be EXCLUDED?
A. Wayward child
C. Neglected child
B. Status offender
D. Juvenile delinquent
480.
Who is a truant pursuant to Presidential Decree 798?
A. A child who run away from home
B. A pupil who disobey his teacher
C. A minor who smoke and drink alcohol
D. A pupil who is frequently absent from classes
481.
An asocial delinquent youth is the one who:
E. Is aggressive and resents authority or anyone who makes an effort to
control his behavior
F. Has internalized conflicts and is preoccupied with his own feelings
G. Acts with cold, brutal and vicious quality for which he feels no remorse
H. Is essentially sociable and law-abiding but happens to be at the wrong
time and place and becomes involved in delinquent acts not typical of
his general behavior
482.
The first institution that molds the child to learn to curb
his desires and to accept rules that define the time, place and
circumstances under which highly personal needs may be satisfied in
a socially acceptable ways is –
A. The school and the teachers
C. The church and the priests
B. The home and family
D. The father and the mother
483.
Which of the following factors in the home life that found to
be the prevailing cause of delinquency?
A. Faulty development of the child
B. Broken homes
C. Parental rejection
D. Too much leniency by either or both parents
484.
Which of the following may NOT be associated with
inadequate parenting practices considered by many authorities as
the most predictors of juvenile delinquency?
E. High level of parent-child conflict
F. Poor monitoring
G. Low level of positive involvement
H. Failure of parents in character building of their children
485.
Which of the following is considered to be an important
protective factor which can mitigate the impact of risk factors for
delinquency such as having delinquent peers?
A. Home discipline
C. Reasonable chastisement
B. Effective parenting
D. Setting good example
486.
Schools have responsibility over their students while the
latter is attending classes under the principle of ________________.
C. Parens patriae
C. Stare decisis
D. Patria potestas
D. Loco parentis
487.
Presidential Decree 603 refers to –
E. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
F. Special Protection of Children Against Child
Exploitation and Discrimination Act
G. Truancy Law
H. Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children
Abuse,
488.
Republic Acts 6809 is the law that:
A. Punish trafficking of persons
B. Punish child pornography
C. Lower the age of majority from 21 to 18
D. Created Family Courts
489.
What is the law that strengthen the juvenile justice system
in the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 9208
C. Republic Act 7658
B. Republic Act 10630
D. Republic Act 9344
E.
F.
G.
H.
490.
Parental authority over legitimate or adopted children in
the family is exercised by –
The father
The ascendants of the said children
The father and mother
Parents and grandparents
491.
In case of disagreement between the father and the mother
in their exercise of parental authority over their child, the father’s
decision shall prevail, unless:
A. The father gives way to the mother
B. The child is below 7 years old
C. There is a judicial order to the contrary
D. The mother sue the father
492.
A child conceived out of wedlock but born after his parents
got married is A. Legitimate
C. Legitimated
B. Illegitimate
D. Adopted
493.
Jessie, a 14-year old boy was conceived and born outside a
valid marriage of his father and mother, who got married when he
was three years old. Jessie would be a/an _________________ child.
A. Legitimate
C. Legitimated
B. Illegitimate
D. Adopted
494.
When does an illegitimate child may use the surname of his
father?
VI. When the child is recognized by the father through the record of birth
appearing in the civil register
VII.
When the father is present during the child’s birth
VIII.
When an admission in a public document or private handwritten
instrument is made by the father
IX. When the child is supported by the father
X. When the mother waive her rights for the use of her surname by the
child in favor of the father
C. I and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II and IV
D. I, II, III, IV and V
495.
What is the primary consideration in the determination of
an application for adoption?
A. Capacity of the adopter to support the adopted
B. Best interest of the adoptee
C. Relationship between the adopter and the adoptee
D. Any of them
496.
Persons who may be adopted:
1. Stranger
2. Sibling of the adopter
3. Wife of the adopter
4. Illegitimate child of the adopter
5. Parents of the adopter
A. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
497.
The 16-year age difference between the adopter and the
adoptee may be waived when:
E. The adopter is in a position to support and care of his children in
keeping with the means of the family
F. The adopter is emotionally and psychologically capable of caring for
children
G. The adopter is in possession of full civil capacity and legal rights
H. The adopter is the biological parent of the adoptee or the spouse of the
adoptee’s parent
v.
vi.
vii.
viii.
498.
Instances that joint adoption rule of husband and wife will
be dispensed:
When one spouse seeks to adopt the legitimate child of the other
When one spouse seeks to adopt his/her own illegitimate child,
provided that the other spouse signified his/her consent
When the spouses are legally separated from each other
When one of the spouse is already deceased at the time of the
adoption
C. ii and iii
C. i, ii and iii
D. ii and iv
D. i, ii, iii and iv
499.
What is the nature of filiation of the adoptee to his adopter?
A. The adoptee is considered legitimated child of the adopter
B. The adoptee is a naturalized child of the adopter
C. The adoptee is considered legitimate child of the adopter
D. The adoptee is the child by adoption of the adopter
500.
Adoption may be rescinded by______________.
A. Department of Social Welfare Development
B. The adoptee
C. Department of Justice
D. The adopter
501.
The law authorizes renunciation of parental authority in the
following cases:
i. Parental neglect
ii. Adoption
iii. Abuse
iv. Guardianship
v. Civil interdiction
vi. Surrender of the child to orphanage
C. i, iii and v
C. i, ii, iii, iv and v
D. ii, iv and vi
D. i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi
502.
Parental authority over illegitimate children belongs to –
A. The mother
C. Either father or mother
B. The father and mother
D. None of them
503.
Under
the
“tender
age
presumption”,
no
child___________________ of age shall be separated from the mother,
unless the court finds compelling reason o order otherwise.
A. Under 7 years
B. Under 15 years
E.
F.
G.
H.
C. Under 5 years
D. Under 1 year
504.
John and Marcia died in a car accident. They survived by
their only child Dolf. Substitute parental authority to Dolf will be
exercised by his –
Actual custodian, grandparent and oldest brother or sister
Oldest brother or sister, grandparent and actual custodian
Grandparent, oldest brother or sister and actual custodian
Any order abovementioned
505.
A child who has no proper parental care or guardianship, or
whose parents have deserted him or her for a period of at least three
(3) continuous months is deemed to be –
C. Dependent
C. Neglected
D. Abandoned
D. Retarded
506.
“Children as Zones of Peace” means:
iv. Children shall not be the object of attack in situations of armed
conflict Children shall be protected from any form of threat,
assault, torture or other cruel, inhumane or degrading
treatment
v. Children shall not be recruited to become members of the
Armed Forces of the Philippines of its civilian units, nor be
allowed to take part in the fighting, or used as guides, couriers
or spies
vi. Children shall be given priority during evacuation as a result of
armed conflict
C. i, ii, iii and iv
C. I and ii
D. I, ii and iii
D. Only i
507.
When does the Child below fifteen (15) years of age allowed
to work pursuant to Republic Act 7658?
IV. When a child works directly under sole responsibility of his
parents or legal guardian and where only members of the
employer’s family are employed
V. Where a child’s employment or participation in public
entertainment or information through cinema, theatre, radio or
television is essential, with the approval of the Department of
Labor and Employment (DOLE)
VI. When his service is indispensable to the business of his employer
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. II, III
508.
The CICL enjoys the _____________________ until proven to be
18 years old or older at the time of the commission of an offense.
C. Presumption Of Minority
D. Privilege Of A Minor
C. Presumption Of Innocence
D. Discernment
509.
Which of the document is the best proof to establish the age
of the child in so far as the juvenile justice welfare system is
concerned?
A. Baptismal Certificate
C. Testimony Of The Child
B. School Records
D. Certificate Of Live Birth
E.
F.
G.
H.
510.
What will happen to CICL who committed an offense and
found to be above 15 but below 18 years old at the time of the
commission of an offense and the case has already been filed in
court?
Release to DSWD
Release at the sound discretion of the court and subject to its
supervision
Release to his parents in absence thereof to his guardian, DSWD or any
person responsible for his custody
A and C
511.
Who conducts the preliminary determination of discernment
of the CICL?
A. The Police
C. The Social Worker
B. The Judge
D. The Prosecutor
E.
F.
G.
H.
512.
Within how many hours that the law enforcement officer
who has initial contact with the CICL turn over the latter to the
LSWDO?
Not later than 8 hours after apprehension
Within 24 hours after apprehension
Within 36 hours after arrest
Not later than 18 hours after apprehension
E.
F.
G.
H.
513.
What should a police officer do if a CICL alleges that he in
under 15 but has no evidence of his true age?
The child shall be considered and treated as minor
The age shall be resolved in a manner that the child will be favoured
The age of minority will be presumed
The age shall be resolved in the child’s favour
E.
F.
G.
H.
514.
Statement 1. Minors may be detained, but not imprisoned,
and only if absolutely necessary and for the shortest possible time;
Statement 2. If detained, minors must be placed in youth detention
homes, not jails.
Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is untrue
Statement 1 is untrue while statement 2 is true
Both statements 1 and 2 are true
Both statements 1 and 2 are untrue
E.
F.
G.
H.
515.
Who develops the intervention plan?
The Court
The police, LSWDO and prosecutors
LSWDO, Police, Prosecutors and Court
LSWDO, CICL and his family
516.
The placement of CICL under suspended sentence does not
need application. It is –
a. Discretionary
c. Automatic
b. Mandatory
d. Optional
E.
F.
G.
H.
517.
Initial investigation of the child shall be conducted in the
presence of:
Relative of the child
Local Social Welfare Development Officer
Representative of a non-government organization
Parent of the child
518.
Within how many days that arraignment of CICL be
conducted from the date of receipt of the complaint or information by
the court?
a. 15
c. 5
b. 3
d. 10
519.
Where the arraignment of CICL held?
a. Open
c. Chamber of the Judge
b. DSWD Office
d. Any of the above
520.
If the CICL is found guilty of the offense charged, the court
instead of executing the judgment of conviction, shall placed him
(CICL) under –
a. Suspended sentence
c. Reprieve
b. Probation
E.
F.
G.
H.
d. Commutation of sentence
521.
What is the policy concerning the detention of the CICL
pending trial?
Detention is a measure of last resort for the shortest possible period of
time
Detention is a last resort until the the CICL is remorseful
Detention is a measure of last resort unless the CICL is found to be
dangerous to the community
CICL will always be detained in youth detention home established by the
local government
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICAL STANDARDS
522.
Which branch of ethics that concerned with
practical moral problems of the profession?
C. Metaethics
C. Applied
D. Normative
D. Moral
solving
523.
Which refers to moral judgments about what is right or
wrong, good or bad?
C. Morality
C. Virtue
D. Moral psychology
D. Ethics
524.
Rule or standard of behavior shared by members of a social
group is known as –
C. Norm
C. Customs
D. Ethics
D. Values
525.
Pursuant to ______ all professions are equal and, therefore,
every one shall treat one other professionals with respect and
fairness.
C. Executive Order 220
C. Republic Act 11131
D. Republic Act 10912
D. Republic Act 10968
526.
Under the Code of Good Governance for the
Professions in the Philippines, professionals are required not
only to have an ethical commitment, a personal resolve to act
ethically, but also have both ethical awareness and ethical C. Competency
C. Standards
D. Values
D. Adherence
E.
F.
G.
H.
527.
The Code of Good Governance for the Professions in
the Philippines provides that professionals are required not only
to have an ethical commitment, a personal resolve to act ethically,
but also have both ethical awareness and ethical competency. What
do you mean by ETHICAL COMPETENCY?
Ability to discern between right and wrong
Ability to engage in sound moral reasoning and consider carefully
the implications of alternative actions.
Ability to apply the code of professional conduct of his/her profession
Ability understand and apply the professional conduct and ethics
standards of his/her profession in dealing with the public
528.
To serve others as mandated by the Code of Good
Governance for the Professions in the Philippines, it means
that the professional –
IV. shall be prepared for heroic sacrifice and genuine selflessness in
carrying out their professional duties
V. shall be committed to a life of service to others.
VI. shall give preference to protect life, property, and public welfare that
personal interest or gain
C. I, II, III
C. I, III
D. I, II
D. I
E.
F.
G.
H.
529.
The Code of Good Governance for the Professions in
the Philippines provides that, “To maintain and broaden public
confidence, professionals shall perform their responsibilities with
the highest sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and
spiritual values.” Which act that a professional will NOT carry out
this mandate?
In the performance of his/her service, he/she shall at all times
maintain objectivity
Must be free of conflicts of interest
Engaging in any activity that would prejudice his/her abilities to
carry out their duties ethically.
Avoid making any representation that would likely cause a
reasonable person to misunderstand or be deceived.
530.
Which principle of professional conduct is applicable when a
Registered Criminologist (RCrim.) undertakes only those professional
services that he/she can reasonably deliver with professional
competence.
C. Professional Competence
C. Professional integrity
D. Service to others
D. Professional excellence
E.
F.
G.
H.
531.
To maintain his/her professional competence a Registered
Criminologist (RCrim.) has an express obligation to keep up with
new knowledge and techniques in the field, continually improve skills
and upgrade level of competence, and take part in a –
Professional activities
Social activities
Lifelong continuing education program
Formal education like Masters and Doctorate degree programs
532.
Which principle of professional conduct directing that each
profession shall nurture and support one organization for all its
members?
C. Solidarity and teamwork
C. Spirit of brotherhood
D. Social responsibility
D. Camaraderie
533.
Through a deep ___________, each member of the
professional organization should put the broader interest of the
profession above one's personal ambition and preference.
C. spirit of solidarity
C. spirit of brotherhood
D. camaraderie
D. esprit de corps
E.
F.
G.
H.
E.
F.
G.
H.
534.
Through teamwork within a cohesive professional
organization, each professional organization member is mandated to
effectively observe ethical practices and pursue continuing
professional development as well as deepen one's –
social and civic responsibility
nationalism and patriotism
social awareness
love of country
535.
Which principle of professional conduct directing that
professionals shall always carry out their professional duties with
due consideration of the broader interest of the publics?
Social responsibility
Social awareness
Social and civic responsibility
Civil and professional responsibility
536.
Which principle of professional conduct mandating that
every professional shall remain open to the challenges of a more
dynamic and interconnected world, hence he/she shall rise up to
global standards and maintain levels of professional practices fully
aligned with global best practices?
E. Global competitiveness
F. Global standard of professional practice
G. International competitiveness
H. Global excellence
E.
F.
G.
H.
537.
Which statement is FALSE about specific principles of
professional conduct in the Philippines?
All professionals shall treat their colleagues with respect and shall
strive to be fair in their dealings with one another.
Not all professions are equal. One group of professionals may be
superior or above others.
All professions perform an equally important, yet distinct, service to
society.
In the eyes of the PRC, all professions are equal and, therefore, every
one shall treat other professionals with respect and fairness.
538.
Under Republic Act 6713 public officials and employees
shall always uphold the public interest over and above –
C. personal interest
C. personal convenience
D. personal gain
D. family benefits
539.
Which norms of conduct for public official providing that all
government resources and powers of respective offices must be
employed and used efficiently, effectively, honestly and economically,
particularly to avoid wastage in public funds and revenues?
C. Professionalism
C. Orderliness
D. Commitment to public interest
D. Efficiency and excellence
540.
In requiring public officials and employees to perform and
discharge their duties with the highest degree of excellence,
professionalism, intelligence and skill, the code of conduct and
ethical standards for public officials aim to achieve which norms in
public service?
C. Excellence
C. Orderliness
D. Efficiency
D. Professionalism
541.
In requiring public officials and employees to provide service
to everyone without unfair discrimination and regardless of party
affiliation or preference, the code of conduct and ethical standards for
public officials aims to instill _____________ in the civil service.
C. Justness and sincerity
C. nationalism and patriotism
D. Responsiveness to the public
D. political neutrality
542.
All official papers and documents must be processed and
completed within a reasonable time from the preparation thereof and
must contain, as far as practicable, not more than ______ signatories
therein.
C. five
D. two
C. one
D. three
543.
Upon receipt of letters or request from the public, a
government official or employee should respond to that request
within how many working days?
C. 10
C. 30
D. 5
D. 15
E.
F.
G.
H.
544.
Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of policecommunity relations?
Develop awareness among the citizenry of the criminality and
insurgency problems on basic of crime prevention and penal laws
Develop positive perceptions, attitudes and opinions towards the PNP
and its personnel
Develop a motivated public willing to actively participate and support
police programs and projects within their respective communities
Develop obedience to laws by the community in recognition of the
power of the police
545.
Police-Community Relations is the unit of the Philippine
National Police which aims to win the trust, confidence and support
of the people and focuses on the concept of –
A. “Doing good and telling people about it”
B. “Making good and expecting people to appreciate it”
C. “Telling people of the good intention of the police”
D. “Involving people to do police work”
546.
Which of the following standards demand of every PNP
member as the embodiment of the core values and principles which a
police officer is sworn to uphold to win the hearts and minds of the
people, which is the ultimate objective of police-community relations?
A. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
B. PNP Police Ethics Manual
C. Code of Conduct for Government Employees
D. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
E.
F.
G.
H.
547.
One of the following is NOT among the activities of policecommunity relations?
Police-Media Relations
Public Relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
Civil Assistance and Development
Community Organization and Mobilization
548.
The police have the responsibility to recognize that the test
of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder,
E.
F.
G.
H.
not the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with
them. Which of the following supports the preceding statement?
That the police must enhance its competence and skills in forensic
investigation
That the police must observe maxim tolerance in dealing with public
disorder
That the police must strive hard to enhance its crime solution
efficiency
That the police must focus and concentrate on crime prevention
549.
The police service is a noble profession which demands from
its member’s specialized knowledge and skills, as well as high
standards of ethics and morality. Hence, the police must adhere to
and internalize the core values of love of God, respect for authority,
selfless love and service to people, sanctity of marriage, responsible
dominion and stewardship over material things and –
A. trustworthiness
C. prudence
B. truthfulness
D. industry
550.
The reflection of any organization affects the esprit de corps,
morale and welfare of members and sense of pride to the
organization. Hence, all members of the PNP should act in a manner
that would reflect best on the PNP and live by the PNP core values to
enhance the PNP –
A. acceptability
C. efficiency
B. credibility
D. image
551.
In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity
in the PNP, all members must have the moral courage to sacrifice
self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of A. delicadeza
C. fidelity
B. pakikisama
D. honesty
552.
The PNP shall promote, lead and maintain a modest life for
its members which the public will find respectable. The public
expects a police officer to live a simple yet dignified life. They must
be free from greed, corruption and exploitation. This is simply known
as Police –
A. lifestyle
C. social Life
B. living
D. dignity
553.
PNP members are expected by the public not to seek
political influence on matters pertaining to assignment, award,
training and promotion. This means that all PNP members are
discouraged to resort to –
A. political patronage
C. political corruption
B. partisan politics
D. influence peddling
554.
Uniformed members of the PNP shall commit themselves to
the democratic way of life and values and maintain the principle of
accountability. They shall at all times uphold the Constitution and
be loyal to our country. This police professional conduct is known as
–
A. commitment to democracy
C. devotion to duty
B. commitment to country
D. love of country
555.
PNP members shall provide services to everyone without
discrimination regardless of party affiliation in accordance with
existing laws and regulations. Hence, all PNP members are expected
by the public to be –
A. politically-neutral
C. non-political
B. non-commital
D. non-partisan
556.
PNP members and their immediate family members shall be
encouraged to actively get involved in religious, social and civic
activities to enhance the image of the organization without affecting
their official duties. This commitment to police professional conduct
is –
A. social awareness
C. social responsibility
B. socialization
D. social dignity
557.
PNP members shall help in the development and
conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and
posterity, as these are the heritage of our people. This is ____.
A. conservation of natural environment
B. conservation of natural resources
C. environmental protection
D. ecological balance
558.
A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty
responsibility that unites a disciplined group of people is –
A. solidarity
C. camaraderie
B. unity
D. esprit de corps
and
559.
PNP members shall follow logical procedures in
accomplishing tasks assigned to them to minimize waste in the use of
time, money and effort. This police ethical standards is known as –
A. effectiveness
C. discipline
B. orderliness
D. efficiency
560.
Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate
means to achieve the goal even in the face of internal or external
difficulties and despite anything which might weaken their resolve in
the course of time. This police ethical standard is –
A. perseverance
C. prudence
B. diligence
D. patience
561.
PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public
servants and not the masters of the people and toward this end, they
should perform their duties without being conceited and arrogance.
This is –
A. sincerity
C. humility
B. honesty
D. charity
562.
It is a formal act or set of formal acts established by custom
or authority as proper to special occasions. Which of these?
A. Traditions
C. Social Decorum
B. Customs
D. Ceremony
563.
PNP members are upright in character, gentle in manners,
dignified in appearance and sincere in their concern for others. This
is the PNP tradition of –
A. humility
C. gentlemanliness
B. valor
D. camaraderie
564.
It is the bestowal of patronage by public officers in
appointing others to positions by reason of blood or marital
relationships to appointing authority. Which is being referred?
A. Marital privilege
C. Filial preference
B. Nepotism
D. Jus Sanguinis
565.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It means courage to endure without yielding.
C. fortitude
D. justice
566.
rights.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It is the virtue that inclines the will to give to each one his
C. fortitude
D. justice
567.
A. endurance
B. perseverance
It is the ability to last.
C. patience
D. fortitude
568.
It is the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of
reason and sound judgment.
A. prudence
C. fortitude
B. temperance
D. justice
569.
A. prudence
B. temperance
It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.
C. fortitude
D. justice
570.
A. patience
B. endurance
It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.
C. perseverance
D. prudence
571.
A. patience
B. endurance
The ability to go on despite obstacles or oppositions.
C. perseverance
D. prudence
572.
All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice
self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of ____.
A. Delicadeza
C. Amor propio
B. Pride
D. Pakikisama
573.
It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to
perform an act or duty which is the police officer’s legal obligation to
perform.
A. nonfeasance
C. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
D. corruption
574.
Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution,
domination or excessive use of authority.
A. dishonesty
C. disloyalty
B. incompetency
D. oppression
575.
It is the misuse of authority for personal gain committed by
a person who enforces the law.
A. corruption
C. immorality
B. police corruption
D. police immorality
576.
It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and excessive use of
force in the conduct of police operations which does not support a
legitimate police function.
A. brutality
C. torture
B. police brutality
D. police torture
577.
No PNP member shall engage in any activity which shall be
in conflict with their duties as public servant.
A. malingering
C. moonlighting
B. loyalty to the service
D. delicadeza
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY
578.
An aggregate observable responses of an organism to
internal and external stimuli.
C. human behavior
c. behavior
D. personality
d. attribute
579.
Personality disorder is defined as the aberration in the
development process leading to maladaptive behavior. Maladaptive
behavior means:
E. False sensory perception
F. The person has a false belief
G. Deviation from morality or acceptable normality
H. Delusional thinking
580.
Human behavior is a man’s reaction to his environment
which includes his response to the interpretation of the internal and
external_______.
A. Beliefs
C. Perception
B. Inclination
D. Stimulus
581.
Part of the natural development of an adolescent:
1. Learning
2. Playing
3. Maturation
4. Working
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
582.
Defense mechanism is a form of self-deception that shields
an individual from____.
A. Pleasure
C. Emotional pain
B. Anger
D. Fear
583.
Behavior pattern which a person returns to a state of former
adjustment and tries to experience them again in memory.
A. Frustration
C. phobia
B. Anger
D. Regression
584.
Sustained frustration may be characterized by:
6. Anxiety
7. Irritability
8. Fatigue
9. Depression and emotional tension
10.
Anti-social behavior
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3and 4
D. 1, 3 and 5
585.
This personality disorder is characterized by infantile level
of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others
and aggression to environment and other people.
A. Neurotic Personality
B. Psychopathic Personality
C. Compulsive Neurosis
D. Schizophrenic Personality
586.
Necrophilia is a sexual disorder characterized by____.
A. Having sex with a child
B. having sex with a corpse
C. Having sex with old people
D. having sex with an animal
587.
The only normal sexual relationship between members of
the opposite sex and could lead to reproduction is referred to as:
A. Homosexuality
C. Sensuality
B. Pornography
D. Heterosexuality or
sexuality
588.
When does frustration occurs?
E. When goal achievement is blocked
F. When people have to make difficult decisions
G. When people have to choose two or more competing
motives, behaviors, or impulses.
H. When a person needs to react to situations that pose
demands, constraints, or opportunities
589.
Which personality disorder characterized by a lack of
interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle,
secretiveness, and emotional coldness?
A. Schizoid Personality Disorder
B. Avoidant Personality Disorder
C. Obsession
D. Dependent Personality Disorder
590.
This conflict occurs when the two desirable but mutually
exclusive goals exist.
A. avoidance-avoidance
C. approach-approach
B. approach-avoidance
D. multiple
591.
An excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a
perfectly natural situation or object is known as__.
A. melancholia
C. phobia
B. exaltation
D. mania
592.
In this sexual deviance, animals are the object of achieving
of sexual excitation and gratification.
A. exhibitionism
C. fetishism
B. pedophilia
D. bestiality
593.
The achievement of pleasure in this sexual perversion is
through clandestine peeping.
A. voyeurism
C. heterosexuality
B. incest
D. bestiality
594.
Jude, who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification
with another man manifests what deviant sexual behavior?
A. lesbianism
C. homosexuality
B. pedophilia
D. incest
595.
It is a personality disorder characterized by a pattern of
excessive emotionality and attention-seeking, including an excessive
need for approval and inappropriate seductiveness, usually beginning
in early adulthood.
A. Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Borderline Personality Disorder
C. Histrionic Personality Disorder
D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
596.
A disorder and its derivatives can be caused by excessive
praise and criticism in childhood, particularly that from parental
figures. It is frequently mistaken for self-centered.
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Paranoid Personality Disorder
C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D. Anti-social Personality Disorder
597.
Which abnormal behaviour that is generally characterized
by anxiety, depression and phobia?
A. Psychoses
C. Neuroses
B. Paraphilia
D. Psychopathy
598.
When person’s reality
is distorted such as, he is
experiencing
delusion, hallucination and regression, he is
suffering__________.
A. Psychoses
C. Neuroses
B. Abnormality
D. Psychopathy
599.
When a person is hallucinating he has__________.
A. False belief
B. False sensory perception
C. maybe aware but could not
D. deviation from morality or acceptable normality
600.
Delusion is manifested by a person who_____.
A. Deviates from morality or acceptable normality
B. Has false sensory perception
C. Has false belief
D. Psychophysiological disorder
601.
What personality disorder is suffered by a woman who does
not want to have a heterosexual relationship but seek to have a basic
attention or love, and when she gets it, she fainted?
A. Passive-aggressive disorder
B. Compulsive personality
C. Hysterical personality disorder
D. Depressive neuroses
602.
Which abnormal behaviour characterized by the general loss
of interest to environment, which include his home, family, work or
schooling and a tendency to be more critical without justification or
apparent reason?
A. General anxiety
B. Depressive neuroses
C. Anxiety neuroses
D. Maladaptive behavior
603.
Person who is experiencing a delusion of persecution or
grandeur or auditory hallucination suffers_______.
A. Simple schizophrenia
B. Dissociative Neuroses
C. Paranoid schizophrenia
D. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
604.
This behavior
is characterized by high level of anxiety,
suspiciousness, distrust are core elements; seclusive, don't confide to
others, if he does, expect betrayal, if there is a laughter suspect that
it is directed to him.
A. Paranoid
C. Neurotic
B. Psychotic
D. Psychopathic
605.
Which personality dimension a person has if he is highly
adaptive to living and deriving satisfaction from external world; he is
interested in people and things than ideas, values and theories?
A. Self centered individual
C. Conceited
B. Extrovert
D. Exhibitionist
606.
A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits,
tendency to disease, etc. form parents offspring.
A. Heredity
C. Environment
B. Inheritance
D. Introvert
607.
A person who has uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal
stealing is called_______.
A. Kleptomaniac
C. Thief
B. Larcenist
D. Pyromaniac
608.
Mania fanatica is characterized by____.
E. Deep and morbid sense of religious feeling
F. Deep sense of righteousness
G. Uncontrollable feeling to set things on fire
H. Uncontrollable feelings of love to oneself
609.
Necrophilism is ____
E. An obsession with and usually erotic interest in or stimulation
by corpses
F. Morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead animals
G. An obsession to kill a person
H. An uncontrollable fear to a dead body
610.
A term applied to a specialist in the study of mental
disorders; sometimes interchangely used with psychiatrist.
A. Anthropologist
C. Psychologist
B. Alienist
D. Behaviorist
611.
Sexually perverted person who derives pleasure from being
demented or cruelly treated.
A. Pedophile
C. Sadist
B. Masochist
D. Maniac
612.
Phallic stage of human development occurs___.
E. At birth
F. During the first year of life when the child attains pleasure by
sucking and biting
G. During the second and third years of life
H. When children focus their attention on their genitals
613.
The most basic human drive present at birth, the instinct to
preserve and create life, expressed sexually is___.
C. Eros
C. Id
D. Thanatos
D. Chromosome
614.
This begins at the age of six . Feelings of sexuality are
expressed until the genital stage begins at puberty; this marks the
beginning of adult sexuality. Which stage of human psychosexual
development is it?
C. Oral stage
C. Sexual stage
D. Anal stage
D. Latency stage
615.
A person who exhibit behavior traits characteristics of those
encountered during infantile sexual development e.g. an infant who
does not received enough oral gratification during the first year of life
is likely as an adult engage in such oral behavior as smoking,
drinking, or drug abuse and others.
C. Fixated person
C. Insecure person
D. Unhappy person D. Person with psychological disability
616.
Person who has
everybody else, suffers____.
C. Delusion
D. Delusions Of Grandeur
false belief that he is greater than
C. Hallucination
D. Delusions Of Persecution
617.
Out of anger to his girlfriend, Johnny boxed a nearby tree.
What defense mechanism does Johnny manifested?
A. repression
C. sublimation
B. displacement
D. projection
618.
A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the
bank together with their hostages; their demand is geared
towards____.
A. revenge
C. economic gain
B. escape
D. vindication
619.
A person who attempts to exclude from his consciousness a
thought or feeling that cause him pain, shame or guilt is using what
defense mechanism?
A. identification
C. regression
B. repression
D. fixation
620.
This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or
undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
A. rationalization
C. sublimation
B. compensation
D. projection
621.
This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the
male or an inability to achieve it.
A. masturbation
C. prostitution
B. exhibitionism
D. frigidity
622.
The study of the role of the victim-in a criminal event.
C. Victimology
C. Crime victimization
D. Criminology
D. Victimization
623.
The theory that those who experienced violence or abuses
during childhood will also be violent or abuser when they become
adults.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Cycle of abuse
B. Cycle of violence
D. Violence and crime
624.
A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in
their lives.
A. Fear of Victimization
C. Altruistic fear
B. Altruism
D. Fear
625.
Effects of crime victimization: 1. Economic loss; 2. Suffering
and fear; 3. Trauma; 4. Antisocial behavior; and 5. Anger and loss of
trust to the government
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4
D. 3, 4, and 5
626.
Based on this theory of crime victimization, some people
become victims because of personal and social characteristics that
make them attractive targets for predatory criminals. Which of these?
A. Active precipitation
C. Routine Activity
B. Passive Precipitation
D. High-risk Lifestyle
627.
A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in
their lives is known as -.
A. Active precipitation
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Precipitation Theory
D. Passive Precipitation
628.
Which humanistic non-punitive strategies to a hate crime,
real or perceive that stresses remedies and restoration rather than
prison, punishment and victim neglect?
A. Social justice
C. Restorative justice
B. Distributive justice
D. Mediatory justice
629.
A target for a crime that is valuable, easily transportable,
and not capably guarded is called A. Lifestyle Theory
C. Routine activities theory
B. Suitable target D. Predictable target
630.
A theory that the victim's behavior was the spark that
ignited the subsequent offense, as when the victim abused the
offender verbally or physically.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Active precipitation
B. Passive precipitation
D. Routine activities
631.
Which of the following social status of a person that would
likely made him a victim?
A. Lowest income category
B. Middle class
C. Affluent class
D. All of them because crime does not distinguish
632.
Residents of poor areas have a much greater risk of
becoming victims because they live in areas with many motivated
offenders.
A. Routine Activities Theory
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place Theory
D. Victim Precipitation
633.
Presence of these components such as availability of
suitable targets, absence of capable guardian, and presence of
motivated offender increases the likelihood of victimization.
A. Deviant Place Theory
B. Lifestyle theory
C. Routine Activities Theory
D. Victim precipitation Theory
634.
Victimization risk is increased by such behavior as
associating with violent and police character person, going out in
public places at right, and living in an urban area.
A. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place Theory
C. Routine activities theory
D. Victim Precipitation Theory
635.
This theory shows victim behavior can influence criminal
opportunity. It suggests that victimization can be reduced by
increasing guardianship and/or reducing target vulnerability.
A. Routine Activities
C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place
D. Victim Precipitation
636.
People who live in deviant places are at high risk for crime,
and victim's behavior has little influence over the criminal act.
A. Victim precipitation
C. Deviant Place Theory
B. Lifestyle theory
D. Routine Activities
637.
Stages of the cycle of violence.
4. Honeymoon (Period of calm)
5. Tension-building (Escalation period)
6. Acute battering episode ( Uncontrollable attack)
A. 3,2,1
C. 2,3,1
B. 1,2,3
D. 1,3,2
638.
Elements of routine activities theory of victimization:
1. Desire, opportunity and instruments
2. Availability of suitable targets
3. Absence of Capable Guardians
4. Presence of motivated offenders
A. 1,2,3, and 4
C. 1 and 3
B. 2,3, and 4
D. 2 and 4
DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND INCIDENT MANAGEMENT
639.
What process that deals with resolving disputes between
conflicting parties?
C. Problem resolution
C. Conflict resolution
D. Dispute fixing
D. Dispute arbitration
640.
Which is NOT one of the methods of dispute resolution
C. Arbitration
C. Conciliation
D. Mediation
D. Resolution
641.
Which is NOT type of conflict resolution that could NOT be
classified as consensual processes?
C. Litigation
D. Negotiation
C. Conciliation
D. Mediation
642.
What major type of dispute resolution that the judge or
arbitrator is the one who determine the outcomes of the conflict?
C. Adjudicative process
C. Adversarial process
D. Consensual process
D. Inquisitorial process
643.
In consensual processes of settling disputes, parties attempt
to reach agreement. Which of the following is NOT one its types?
C. Collaborative law
C. Conciliation or negotiation
D. Mediation
D. Litigation
644.
Which form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) decided
by one or more persons who render decision that is legally binding?
C. Arbitration
C. Litigation
D. Mediation
D. Adjudication
645.
Which form of dispute resolution that a third party who
facilitates rather than directs the process and help them reach an
agreement?
C. Arbitration
C. Adjudication
D. Conciliation
D. Mediation
646.
Which form of alternative dispute resolution process that
aims to lower tensions, improve communications, interpret issues,
encourage parties to explore potential solutions and assist them in
finding a mutually acceptable outcome?
C. Negotiation
C. Mediation
D. Conciliation
D. Arbitration
647.
Negotiation is a form of dispute resolution by means of a
dialogue between two or more parties to reach the desired outcome
regarding one or more issues of conflict. What is the main goal of
negotiation?
E. To interact between and among entities who aspire to agree on
matters of mutual interest.
F. To agree on matters that can be beneficial for all or some of the
parties involved.
G. To establish own needs and wants while seeking to understand
the wants and needs of others involved.
H. To resolve points of difference, gain an advantage for an individual
or group or craft outcomes to satisfy various interests.
648.
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) was legally
institutionalized in the Philippine through which statute?
E. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004
F. Republic Act No. 9825
G. Alternative Dispute Resolution System Act of 2009
H. Republic Act No. 9258
649.
The first step in hostage taking crisis is______.
A. crowd control
C. negotiation
B. assault
D. traffic control
650.
Stages in hostage taking situations are:
1. Initial stage
4. Termination stage
2. Negotiation stage
5. Evaluation stage
3. Fulfillment stage
A. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5
651.
In a hostage taking situation, there are four courses of
action that might be taken. Which of the following is NOT one of
them?
E. Use of chemical agents or direct assault on the hostage-position
F. Use of sharpshooter to shoot and maim the hostage taker
G. Granting of the hostage takers’, especially terrorists’ demand in
exchange for the release of the hostages
H. Negotiation
652.
In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when
trapped they expand a great deal of emotional, physical and psychic
energy, hence:
A. Swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
B. Shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
C. Prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
D. Aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
653.
Calm attitude of a negotiator who deals with a hostage
taking situation EXCEPT:
A. Avoid words/ actions that could have the appearance of ego threat
B. Firm and avoid indecision or ambivalence
C. Build a rapport with the hostage taker
D. Give the hostage taker of their demands which are negotiable
654.
When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage
takers asked non- negotiable demands, they were left with three
options:
IV. Choose martyrdom by killing hostages and commit suicide
V. Lessen demands to more realistic proportions
VI. surrender
G. I, III
C. II
H. I, II, III
D. I
655.
When a highly trained and motivated terrorists choose
martyrdom and kill hostages, which is the useful action that the CMT
Team should undertake?
A. Attack them swiftly with precision
B. Give all of their demands
C. Withhold the media from terrorist
D. Let the hostages killed
656.
Which term that refers to a phenomenon where strong
attachment of the hostage victims to their captors developed after a
long period of captivity by which the former become a sympathizer of
the latter?
A. Hostage Victim Syndrome
C. Stockhlom Syndrome
B. Hostage Trauma Syndrome
D. Attachment Syndrome
657.
In a hostage taking situation, non-verbal communication
which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown by
A. A posture of a folded arms in a dominant position
B. Calmly repeating words of comfort or assurance
C. By not attempting to trick or lie
D. Keeping arms open and with other gesture that indicates that you are
willing to negotiate
658.
A crisis imposes certain problems on the Crisis Management
Team (CMT) and to its members as enumerated, EXCEPT:
A. Emotional strain due to the responsibility for human life
B. The knowledge that the government is not giving full support to the
operation
C. Insufficient data for making important decision
D. The need to consider strategic implications of seemingly out-of-this
world elements of crisis
659.
The BEST approach in negotiating with
Schizophrenic hostage taker is
A. To accept their beliefs as being true
B. To try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
C. To show them that they are just crazy
D. To try to bluff or trick them
a
Paranoid
660.
The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy
to negotiate EXCEPT:
E. Fears of police assault and punishment
F. Criminals are usually rational thinkers
G. They are familiar with police operations and tactics
H. Their ultimate desire is to surrender and their possible
punishment could be mitigated
5.
6.
7.
8.
661.
Dealing with the terrorist hostage takers is difficult because:
Terrorists are usually highly-trained combatants who have been
politically and ideologically indoctrinated
Terrorists acts as part of a group, and their behavior will be
pressured by group dynamics.
The terrorist hostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts
of principles that are not easy to resolve
Most of the terrorist groups receive training in the techniques that
will be used against them in the country chosen for the attack.
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4
662.
To control the hostage-taking situation it means the
following conditions are present:
5. Absolute containment of the perpetuator
6. Trust and confidence between the hostage taker and hostage
negotiator exists
7. Evaluation and isolation of the target area
8. Effective command and control activities for coordination and
proper decision- making
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
663.
The negotiators in hostage-taking incident should strive
to_______.
E. Be mediators not arbitrators
F. Refute all views of the terrorists
G. Promise that all their demands be met
H. Set the pace, mood and topic of conversation be themselves
664.
A negotiation team should always have a/an_____.
C. A. Officer in charge
C. Sharpshooter
D. B. Media men
D. Photographer
665.
Which of the following is NOT one of the terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing
C. Assassination
B. Hostage-taking
D. Serial murder
E.
F.
G.
H.
666.
Which of the following is NOT a terrorist’s goal?
Worldwide/ local recognition
Harassment, embarrassment weakening of government
Disruption of community and mobility
Understanding of social environment
667.
There are three categories of terrorists. Which of the
following does NOT belong to its classification?
A. Crusaders
C. Criminals
B. Crazies
D. Preachers
668.
An effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures
and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists is
known as___.
A. Crisis Management
C. Stress Management
B. Hostage negotiation
D. Police Analysis
669.
Kidnappers may _____their kidnap victims, due to attritional
factors, use of negotiations, and use of force by law enforcement
authority.
A. Kill
C. Ransom
B. Keep
D. Release
670.
Tactical procedures in hostage- taking situation are____.
5. Containment of the hostage position
6. Communication and surveillance
7. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
8. Assault alternative
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
E.
F.
G.
H.
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
671.
In the conduct of hostage rescue operations, the Ground
Commander’s main objectives shall be any of the following EXCEPTEnsure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free
Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of
the hostage takers
Hostage-takers desist from his threats
Hostage-takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be
incapable of causing harm
672.
In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it
is a “CARDINAL RULE”
A. to bear a weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face-to-face.
B. to seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
C. not to agitate the hostage-taker
D. never say "NO" to the demands of the hostage taker
673.
Hostage situations happen everywhere and almost every
time but whatever or whoever the hostage maybe, when there is a
threat to life, then it is a crisis situation and it must be managed for
the purpose of no other but "SALVARI VITAS", which means____.
A. To save lives
C. to kill the hostage-taker
B. To neutralize the hostage taker
D. to free the hostage
674.
Considered as a "MORTAL SIN" in hostage negotiation
is_______.
A. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
B. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
C. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
D. Saying "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
1.
2.
3.
4.
675.
PNP Operational Procedures Manual ‘s 3S PRINCIPLE in
dealing with hostage-taking situations are______.
Single Command
Single Commander and Negotiator
Single Negotiating Party
Single Access to Communication
A. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
676.
Which of the following is NOT one of the tactical procedures
in hostage- taking situation?
A. Containment of the hostage position
B. Communication and surveillance
C. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
D. Assault alternative
677.
“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
hostages –
A. by reason of mental illness
B. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
C. for personal reason
D. because of political and ideological belief
678.
You are a Criminologist-Police Officer belongs to the first
responders in a hostage-taking situation in a downtown area in
Metro Manila. Your group’s first action in said crisis is –
A. control the crowd
B. start to negotiate
C. launch an assault
D. gather information
679.
The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is –
I. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
J. open the communication at once
K. negotiate
L. ask for demands
680.
Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to –
A. police handling of the situation
B. contact
C. negotiation
D. control of area and people
681.
Approaches in crisis management is both proactive and
reactive. One of which is NOT proactive?
C. Prediction
C. Performance
D. Prevention
D. Preparation
E.
F.
G.
H.
682.
You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is
found at the scene of the crime with several onlookers. As a rule, you
are not allowed to express opinion. Why?
No useful purpose will be served
You do not know the cause of death
The killer may be around
Your opinion may influence the negotiator
683.
As first responder in the hostage taking situation, which is
NOT one of the approach you may use?
C. Isolate
C. Evaluate
D. Negotiate
D. Report
CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH 1 & 2
684.
The primary goal of research in any field of inquiry is to add
to what is known about the phenomenon under investigation through
the application of __________ methods.
C. theoretical
C. logical
D. scientific
D. systematic
685.
Taking of someone else's words, work, or ideas, and passing
them off as a product of own’s efforts is known in the research
parlance as –
C. usurpation
C. plagiarism
D. intellectual dishonesty
D. copyright infringement
686.
Research may be defined as scientific investigation of
phenomena, which includes collection, presentation, analysis, and
interpretation of facts that links man’sC. knowledge to practice
C. imagination to writing
D. idea to written matter
D. speculation with reality.
687.
Research is said to be a systematic, controlled, _________
and critical investigation of hypothetical proposition about the
presumed relations among natural phenomena.
C. empirical
C. tangible
D. manipulated
D. visible
688.
Good research must have its purposes ________ and
unambiguously defined.
C. clearly
C. empirically
D. specifically
D. legibly
689.
A specialized type of research that focuses on issues related
to the causes and consequences of crime and delinquency is –
C. criminological research
C. social research
D. crime research
D. phenomenological research
690.
Research evidence is very important to the development
of criminal justice –
C. system
C. administration
D. evaluation
D. decision-making
691.
The methods employed in criminological and criminal
justice research are identical to those in the –
C. education
C. law
D. behavioral and social sciences
D. medicine
692.
Pieces of information
during the course of research,
quantitative in form is known as
C. data
D. information
that are gathered and examined
which may be either qualitative or
–
C. findings
D. conclusion
693.
What form of data that are recorded by researchers as
verbal statements that describe particular processes and outcomes?
C. qualitative
C. numerical
D. quantitative
D. textual
694.
Term that used to describe a form of data that are consist of
pieces of information recorded in numerical form is –
C. quantitative
C. tabular
D. numerical
D. graphical
476. Research is intended to all bodies of scientific knowledge in order
to discover the basic truths or principles is_____.
C. Applied research
C. Field research
D. Action research
D. Pure research
477.
A decision oriented research which involves the application
of the steps of scientific method in response to an immediate need
for improvement of existing practices is what type of research?
A. Action research
C. Pure research
B. applied research
D. Laboratory
478.
The purpose of this research is to present a picture of the
specific details of a situation, social setting or relationship. Which
is being referred?
A. Exploratory
C. Explanatory
B. Descriptive
D. Quantitative
479.
Which characteristic of a good criminological research that
any conclusion drawn is based upon hard evidence gathered from
information collected from real life experience or observation?
A. Rigorous
C. Systematic
B. Empirical
D. Critical
480.
Considered as the most fundamental part of the research
is___.
A. Identification of a problem
B. Reviewing related literature
C. Formulation of Conceptual Framework
D. Constructing/ Framing of the research title
481.
The research title must have the following attributes,
EXCEPT –
A. Brief
B. Specific
C. Relevant to the researcher, his work and the community
D. Will solve specific problem which research attempted to solve
482.
The so called 4M’s are needed in conducting research, they
are: man, money, materials and __.
A. Machinery
C. Magnanimity
B. Mastery
D. Method
483.
This refers to a systematic, controlled, empirical and critical
investigation to answer existing and future problems of man.
Which of these?
A. Research
C. Biology
B. Sociology
D. Criminology
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
484.
Which of the following are considered best source of
research problem?
Problems encountered in the field
Suggestions from experienced researchers
Technical expertise or line of specialization
Advise of the designated adviser
Problems that were previously solved to test its applicability
A. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
485.
Which hypothesis is presented in negative form?
A. Null hypothesis
C. Research hypothesis
B. Hypothesis
D. Alternative hypothesis
486.
Type of applied research that is a discipline process of
inquiry conducted by and for those taking the action is –
A. Impact assessment research
C. Evaluation research
B. Action research
D. Basic research
487.
When a terminology used in the study is defined as it is
used in the study, it is called________.
A. Conceptual definition
C. Operational definition
B. Dictionary definition
D. Lexical definition
488.
The opposite of hypothesis is____.
A. Alternative hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
B. Assumptions
D. Synthesis
489.
You conduct a study on the age of discernment of Filipino
children for the purpose of establishing the age of criminal
responsibility.
After framing the title and statement of the
problem of your study, your next step is___.
A. Preparation of research instrument
B. Data analysis
C. Identification of respondents and sampling procedures
D. interview with people involved in the study
490.
Which of the following is NOT a source of review of
literature?
A. Thesis
C. Relics
B. Documents
D. Reporter’s accounts
491.
Which of the following that refer to the population of the
study?
5. Respondents
6. Representative of the study
7. Participants
8. Subjects of the study
A. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3
492.
In the related literature and studies, published materials
are classified as____.
A. Related literature
C. Professional literature
B. Literature
D. Experts’ Writings
493.
Unpublished materials like theses and dissertations are
known as______.
A. Related literature
C. Professional literature
B. Related studies
D. Scholarly works
494.
The review of literature is arranged according to the
important variables of the study and both
published
and unpublished literatures are stated accordingly. This refers to
what approach of presenting review of related literature and
studies?
A. Professional literature
C. General to specific
B. Thematic Approach
D.
Professional
and
related
literature
495.
Type of descriptive research which seeks to answer
questions to the real facts relating to existing conditions
is________.
A. Descriptive- status
C. Descriptive- normative
B. Descriptive- survey
D. Descriptive- analysis
496.
A systematic critical inquiry of the whole truth of past
events using critical method in the understanding and
interpretation of facts are applicable to the current issues and
problem is_____.
A. Case Study
C. Historical
B. Experimental
D. Descriptive
497.
Which
research design that the study focuses at the
present conditions or events?
A. Historical
C. Case Study
B. Experimental
D. Descriptive
498.
Research design the focus of which are the past, present,
and future?
A. Historical
C. Experimental
B. Descriptive
D. Case study
499.
Which descriptive research design that will determine the
extent of relationships of two variables ( X and Y), whether it is
perfect, very high, high, moderate or marked, slight or negligible?
A. Descriptive- comparative
C. Correlational- survey
B. Longitudinal- survey
D. Descriptive- survey
500.
If the purpose of the study is to ascertain the normal or
typical condition and compare them with the national standard,
research design to be used is______.
A. Descriptive- comparative
C. Descriptive- normative
B. Descriptive- Evaluation
D. Descriptive- status
501.
When the purpose of evaluating the research instrument is
to determine the extent which the topic or substance of a
research instrument is truly a representative of the substance of
the course. You seeks to adjudge its_____.
A. Construct validity
C. Concurrent validity
B. Predicted validity
D. Content validity
502.
When research instrument measures what it purports to
measure, such instrument is______.
A. Reliabile
C. Objective
B. Valid
D. Usable
503.
Sampling design in which all individuals in the population
is arranged in methodical manner either in alphabetical or
chronological order and the nth name may be chosen in the
construction of the sample is_______.
A. Systematic sampling
C. Unrestricted random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling D. Restricted random sampling
504.
Which sampling design intended to improve the validity of
the sample and is applicable when the population being studied is
homogeneous?
A. Unrestricted random sampling
C. Stratified random sampling
B. Restricted random sampling
D. Systematic random sampling
505.
Which sampling design that is based on the selection of the
individuals as samples according to the criteria of the researcher
which serve as control?
A. Quota sampling
C. Purposive sampling
B. Incidental sampling
D. Cluster sampling
506.
Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
A. Quota sampling
C. Incidental sampling
B. Purposive sampling
D. Cluster sampling
507.
Population is grouped into small units such as blocks or
districts. This refers to which sampling design?
A. Purposive sampling
C. Cluster sampling
B. Quota sampling
D. Multistage sampling
508.
You
are a researcher who simply takes the closest
individuals as subjects of your
study because they are most
available. Which sampling design you are using?
A. Quota sampling
C. Cluster sampling
B. Purposive sampling
D. Incidental sampling
509.
If your study involves field of opinion research. You will use
which sampling design?
A. Incidental research
C. Quota sampling
B. Cluster sampling
D. Purposive sampling
510.
Conversion of information either manually or machine into
qualitative forms and has shelf-life and access for future use is
known as_______.
A. Data matrix
C. Data processing
B. Tabulation of data
D. Categorization of data
511.
Tallying and counting of raw data to arrive at frequency
distribution and organizing them in a systematic order in a table
or tables is called_______.
A. Tabulation of data
C. Data matrix
B. Dummy table
D. Categorization of data
512.
In this preliminary section of a research paper, the
investigator recognizes and appreciates the selfless effort and wise
counsel extended by his adviser. This refers to_______.
A. Title page
C. Table of contents
B. Approval sheet
D. Acknowledgment
513.
In ethnographic research, it is the qualitative crossvalidation of data using multiple data sources or multiple data
collection procedures. This refers to_____.
A. Case study
C. Multivariate
B. Descriptive research
D. Triangulation
514.
The preliminary section of a research paper, thesis, or
dissertation where the full name and signature of adviser, panel of
examiners and dean are indicated is____.
C. Table of Content
C. Acknowledgement
D. Title Page
D. Approval Sheet
515.
If the researcher wishes to determine the magnitude of
association between the educational background and performance
in the police service, he is trying to determine the_____.
C. Experimental
C. Correlation
D. Descriptive
D. Historical
516.
When the researcher directly witnesses the events, the data
is considered as_____.
C. Secondary data
C. Internal data
D. Primary data
D. Witness account data
517.
This type of qualitative research describes experiences as
they are live. Which of these?
A. Ethnography
C. Historical
B. Phenomenology
D. Case study
518.
Since a study involves people, special care is taken into
consideration to ensure that respondents are treated ethically in
all aspects.
A. Open coding
C. Benchmarking
B. Ethical consideration
D. Bracketing
519.
This means that research starts with the problem and ends
with a problem.
A. Critical
C. Unending
B. Analytical
D. Cyclical
520.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main parts of
research paper?
A. Appendices
C. Preliminaries
B. Reference materials
D. Text
521.
Which of the following that refers to conceptual paradigm?
A. Illustration depicting what the concept of the study is all about
B. Explanation on how one or more variables are related to other
variables
C. Systems of concept, assumptions, expectations, and beliefs that
support a research study
D. General and specific purposes of the study
522.
In this section of the research study, the researcher states
the type of research, its meaning, and how it is applicable to the
study. This refers to____.
A. Method of research used
C. Sampling design
B. Methods and procedures
D.
Data
gathering
procedures
523.
Which chapter of the research paper that data gathered are
presented in tabulated and textual forms, analyzed and
interpreted substantially?
A. CHAPTER 3
C. CHAPTER 5
B. CHAPTER 4
D. CHAPTER 6
524.
The following acts constitute plagiarism, EXCEPT:
Owning someone else's paper.
Using another person's ideas without acknowledgment.
Reading a book and failed to cite it as a source of information.
Copying an author's exact words and putting them in the paper
without quotation marks.
10. Rephrasing an author's words and failing to cite the source.
A. 4 and 5 only
C. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
D. 5 only
6.
7.
8.
9.
525.
Criminological research involves an effort to connect theory
and empirical data. Hence, in formulating research problems,
Criminologists use _____________ reasoning.
C. logical
C. deductive
D. inductive and deductive
D. systematic
526.
Reasoning that moves from a set of particular observations
to the discovery of pattern that represent some degree of order
among the varied events under examination.
C. Inductive
C. Empirical
D. Deductive
D. Scientific
527.
The brief descriptive summary of a theses or dissertations is
known as –
C. Abstract
C. findings
D. research paradigm
D. conceptual framework
498.
Part of the population, carefully selected to represent
that population is known as –
C. Respondents
C. participants
D. Universe
D. sample
499.
The most common means for collecting quantitative
data is the structured interview called –
C. Surveys
C. observation
D. Interviews
D. focus observation
500.
It is generally developed based on a literature review
of existing studies and theories about the research topic.
Which of these?
C. Conceptual framework
C. Paradigm of the study
D. Theoretical framework
D. Hypothesis
501.
Which type of hypothesis used to answer relationship
or differences of data obtained in descriptive questions?
C. Null
C. Statistical
D. Alternative
D. Descriptive
502.
Literature review is organized around a topic or issue
is known as –
C. Methodological
C. chronological
D. Thematic
D. progression
503.
Which component of thesis or dissertation that
provides the reader with the information on how was the
data collected and analyzed?
E. Methods
F. Design
G. Review of related literature
H. Result, discussion and recommendation
504.
Researcher who seeks to determine the relationship
between low IQ and delinquency shall use which research
design?
C. Quasi-experimental
C. Descriptive
D. Correlational
D. Phenomenological
505.
In this research design, researcher conducts a
detailed study of the culture of a specific community or
group which data is collected by extended immersion and
close observation.
C. Case study
C. Phenomenology
D. Ethnography
D. Grounded Theory
506.
You seek to describe the lives of a drug pushers; what
research design will you utilize?
C. Grounded theory
C. Descriptive
D.Case study
D. Phenomenology
507.
In your research, you combined quantitative and
qualitative design in your collection and analysis of data,
giving priority to quantitative. This research design is
known as –
C. sequential explanatory
C. concurrent triangulation
D. sequential exploratory
D. concurrent nested
508.
In this design only one data collection phase is used,
during which quantitative and qualitative data collection
and analysis are conducted separately yet concurrently and
equal priority is given to both types of research.
C. Mixed method
C. Concurrent triangulation
D. Sequential exploratory
D. Concurrent nested
509.
If a sample in your research constitutes 200 persons,
each person in the sample is considered as a –
C. sampling unit
C. sampling frame
D. sample size
D. respondent
510.
Selecting or drawing of every nth item or person from
a pre-determined list to be one of the respondent of the
study is known as –
C. systematic sampling
C. stratified sampling
D. simple random sampling
D. cluster sampling
511.
Known as network, chain referral or reputation
sampling method, wherein the researcher starts collection of
data from the person known to him. At the end of the data
collection he/she will ask the respondent to provide a
contact information of another who can give relevant
information regarding the area of the study.
C. Convenient sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Quota sampling
D. Snowball sampling
512.
If the research questionnaire actually measures the
concept that he/she intends to measure his/her
questionnaire is deemed to be –
C. Feasible
C. reliable
D.Valid
D. useful
513.
The totality of all values in a collection of numbers
divided by the number of numbers in a collection is known
as the –
C. Mean
C. Mode
D. Median
D. Range
514.
Pearson Product Moment Coefficient of Correlation
(Pearson r) is used toE. measure the degree of relationship between the two variable
F. measure the degree of association between two variables.
G.measure of the strength and direction of association that exists
between two variables measured on at least an ordinal scale
H.measure the strength of association or co-occurrence between two
variables.
515.
Which inferential statistical tool is used to determine
significant difference between the means of two (2) groups,
which may be related in certain feature?
C. t-test
C. Analysis of Variance
D.f-test
D. x-test
516.
In what verb tense presentation, analysis
interpretation of data be written?
C. Past tense
C. Present tense
D. Future tense
D. Past future tense
and
517.
Textual Presentation of data is presented in __________
form.
C. Paragraph
C. bar graph
D. columns and rows
D. line graph
518.
Findings of the research study should be written in
which verb tense?
C. Past
C. Future
D. Present
D. Past perfect
519.
Conclusions of the study must be derived from the
_________ of the study and in the present verb tense
C. statement of the problem
C. findings
D. hypothesis
D. result