Certified Human
Resources Professional
CHRP
CKE 1 CKE 2 & NKE Exam
Preparation Materials
1
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Certified Human
Resources Professional
CHRP
CKE 1 CKE 2 & NKE Exam
Preparation Materials
1
Strategy
What are Strategies?5
Strategy is a multi-dimensional concept going well beyond traditional competitive
strategy concepts. Strategies are broad statements that set a direction.
Strategies are a specific, measurable, obtainable set of plans carefully developed
with involvement by an institution's stakeholders. These action statements are
linked to an individual or individuals who are accountable and empowered to
achieve the stated result in a specific desired timeframe. They are patterns of
action, decisions, and policies that guide a group toward a vision or goals.
Strategic human resource management is designed to help companies best
meet the needs of their employees while promoting company goals. Human
resource management deals with any aspects of a business that affects
employees, such as hiring and firing, pay, benefits, training, and administration.
Human resources may also provide work incentives, safety procedure
information, and sick or vacation days.
Strategic human resource management is the proactive management of people.
It requires thinking ahead, and planning ways for a company to better meet the
needs of its employees, and for the employees to better meet the needs of the
company. This can affect the way things are done at a business site, improving
everything from hiring practices and employee training programs to assessment
techniques and discipline.
In Human Resource (HR) and management circles nowadays there is much talk
about Strategic Human Resource Management and many expensive books can
be seen on the shelves of bookshops. But what exactly is SHRM (Strategic
Human Resource Development), what are its key features and how does it differ
from traditional human resource management?
SHRM or Strategic human resource management is a branch of Human resource
management or HRM. It is a fairly new field, which has emerged out of the parent
discipline of human resource management. Much of the early or so called
traditional HRM literature treated the notion of strategy superficially, rather as a
purely operational matter, the results of which cascade down throughout the
organization. There was a kind of unsaid division of territory between peoplecentered values of HR and harder business values where corporate strategies
really belonged. HR practitioners felt uncomfortable in the war cabinet like
atmosphere where corporate strategies were formulated.
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Definition of SHRM
Strategic human resource management can be defined as the linking of human
resources with strategic goals and objectives in order to improve business
performance and develop organizational culture that foster innovation, flexibility
and competitive advantage. In an organization SHRM means accepting and
involving the HR function as a strategic partner in the formulation and
implementation of the company's strategies through HR activities such as
recruiting, selecting, training and rewarding personnel.
How SHRM differs from HRM
In the last two decades there has been an increasing awareness that HR
functions were like an island unto itself with softer people-centered values far
away from the hard world of real business. In order to justify its own existence
HR functions had to be seen as more intimately connected with the strategy and
day to day running of the business side of the enterprise. Many writers in the late
1980s, started clamoring for a more strategic approach to the management of
people than the standard practices of traditional management of people or
industrial relations models. Strategic human resource management focuses on
human resource programs with long-term objectives. Instead of focusing on
internal human resource issues, the focus is on addressing and solving problems
that affect people management programs in the long run and often globally.
Therefore, the primary goal of strategic human resources is to increase
employee productivity by focusing on business obstacles that occur outside of
human resources. The primary actions of a strategic human resource manager
are to identify key HR areas where strategies can be implemented in the long run
to improve the overall employee motivation and productivity. Communication
between HR and top management of the company is vital as without active
participation no cooperation is possible.
Features of Strategic Human Resource Management
The key features of SHRM are
There is an explicit linkage between HR policy and practices and overall
organizational strategic aims and the organizational environment
There is some organizing schema linking individual HR interventions so that they
are mutually supportive
Much of the responsibility for the management of human resources is devolved
down the line
Approaches of the Therefore, to link Human Resource activities with
competency-based performance measures attempts to link Human Resource
activities with business surpluses or profit
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The first one is the human factor; their performance and competency and the
latter is the business surplus. An approach of people concern is based on the
belief that human resources are uniquely important in sustained business
success. An organization gains competitive advantage by using its people
effectively, drawing on their expertise and ingenuity to meet clearly defined
objectives. Integration of the business surplus to the human competency and
performance required adequate strategies. Here the role of strategy comes into
picture. The way in which people are managed, motivated and deployed, and the
availability of skills and knowledge will all shape the business strategy. The
strategic orientation of the business then requires the effective orientation of
human resource to competency and performance excellence.
Benefits of SHRM
Identifying and analyzing external opportunities and threats that may be crucial to
the company's success.

Provides a clear business strategy and vision for the future.

To supply competitive intelligence that may be useful in the strategic
planning process.

To recruit, retain and motivate people.

To develop and retain of highly competent people.

To ensure that people development issues are addressed systematically.

To supply information regarding the company's internal strengths and
weaknesses.

To meet the expectations of the customers effectively.

To ensure high productivity.

To ensure business surplus thorough competency
Barriers of SHRM
Barriers to successful SHRM implementation are complex. The main reason is a
lack of growth strategy or failure to implement one. Other major barriers are
summarized as follows:

Inducing the vision and mission of the change effort.

High resistance due to lack of cooperation from the bottom line.
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
Interdepartmental conflict.

The commitment of the entire senior management team.

Plans that integrate internal resource with external requirements.

Limited time, money and the resources.

The status quo approach of employees.

Fear of incompetency of senior level managers to take up strategic steps.

Diverse work-force with competitive skill sets.

Fear towards victimization in the wake of failures.

Improper strategic assignments and leadership conflict over authority.

Ramifications for power relations.

Vulnerability to legislative changes.

Resistance that comes through the legitimate labour institutions.

Presence of an active labour union.

Rapid structural changes.

Economic and market pressures influenced the adoption of strategic
HRM.

More diverse, outward looking approach.
Financial & Economic environment – context matters
● The current economic environment and situation set the conditions for
firms
● Examples to consider: World War II, Sept 11th 2001 or “Black Monday”
2007 stock market crash
● Human Resources, its practices, policies and overall strategy is affected
by the state of the economy. When the economy is strong, there are
generally more jobs, higher wages and better benefits. Conversely, when
the economy is weak, there is scarcity.
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● Many variables, contributing factors and multitude of causes not fully
transparent or obvious / fully understood created a downturn that gained
speed and changed the economy and corporate cultures
● Other examples of less noticeable economic turbulence are firms that
buy/sell commodities in the North / South America and they therefore
have to watch the currency exchange levels and rates (FX)
Demographic Considerations
● Some employee factors to consider when performing HR duties, designing
policy, restructuring organizations:
● Median or average age
● Gender split
● National / ethnic representation
● Religious affiliations
● Citizenship / New Comer / Work Visa
● Language (English / French / Cantonese)
● Employment balance - e.g. Quebec more Franco-phones so they have to
hire more French speaking
● Diversity: challenges to balancing this with meritocracy
Information Technology & Automation
● Workflow systems, databases, robotic process automation, data lakes,
Hadoop systems and Artificial Intelligence are all effects to HR data,
reporting and records management
● Internet tech is expanding access to new tools such as personality
evaluations, bio monitoring wearable technology, capability and skills
testing and predictive analytics
● HRMS is trending towards a more self-service model (e.g., employees can
change benefits, book vacation, submit expense reports, use flex benefit $
and complete self-assessments all online with no/little direction or
supervision from management
Effects on Overall Society
● Size of the firm, nature of the industry (e.g., accounting vs. farming),
national political climate, age demographics of workers etc.
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● Executives and C-Suite leaders in their companies are more involved with
philanthropy, climate change, education and morale issues - This gives
them a Public Relations, Social Media, political, Brand and competitive
advantage
● Local customs, culture and legal frameworks can affect multinational firms
(e.g., religious holidays, clothing etc.)
● Firms must take these factors into account when formulating operating
models and policies. Failure to do so could result is negative employee
experiences and unfavorable media exposure.
● More factors that affect HR and its policies / strategies: Tax rates,
demographics, employee wellness, tariffs, crime rates, need for childcare
Political, National and Legal Environment
● Local laws, political orientation, statutes, Common Law and Jurisdictional
frameworks will have an effect on HR policies and strategies.
● The degree of corruption, violence and levels of legal enforcement will
also play roles in shaping HR
How Strategy should be Implemented
In the past, human resource management (HRM) was called the personnel
department. In the past, the personnel department hired people and dealt with
the hiring paperwork and processes.
It is believed the first human resource department was created in 1901 by the
National Cash Register Company (NCR).
They faced a major strike but eventually defeated the union after a lockout. After
this difficult battle, the company president decided to improve worker relations by
organizing a personnel department to handle grievances, discharges, safety
concerns, and other employee issues. The department also kept track of new
legislation surrounding laws impacting the organization. Many other companies
were coming to the same realization that a department was necessary to create
employee satisfaction, which resulted in more productivity. In 1913, Henry Ford
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saw employee turnover at 380 percent and tried to ease the turnover by
increasing wages from $2.50 to $5.00, even though $2.50 was fair during this
time period. Of course, this approach didn’t work for long, and these large
companies began to understand they had to do more than hire and fire if they
were going to meet customer demand.
An overview of the t difference between HR, HCM and HRM
Human Resources (HR): Defined as Human Resources – the function or
department that performs all HR tasks
Human Resources Management (HRM): Defined as the management or
leadership aspects of HR. This means the policy design, goal setting and
strategy crafting
The following duties fall under HRM
●
●
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Retention
Training and development
Regulatory issues
Staffing
Basic workplace policies
Compensation and benefits
Human Capital Management is a methodology and framework to employee
placement that perceives people as valuable assets whose value can be
measured and whose future value can be enhanced through betterment and
further development. As an organization grows, it injects capital back into its
companies. Typically, when someone thinks about capital, they think of monies
being put into equipment, buildings, research, and development. However, many
organizations now invest in their human capital and work on strategies to
reinforce this asset.
Ways that organizations invest in their human capital:
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Learning & Training
Salary increases
Health programs
Reimbursement for learning and accreditation expenses
Strategic planning: long term plan or map of an organization assisting it to
become adaptable and competitive
Corporate strategic planning: the act and build of a corporate strategy
● external assessment of opportunities/treats & an internal assessment of
strengths and weaknesses
● process not driven by formula but rather an evaluation designed to
determine the relative importance of assumptions that management has
made about the industry and the organization
Strategic Human Resources – This is the coordinated and purposeful synergy of
policies, processes and overall direction to improve a firm’s success
To accomplish this, an HR Department should consider the following functions /
mandates:
● Use HR as a business resource
● Consider short, medium and long horizon goals
● Thought leader / strategist
Governance Principles in HR
● Systems of control, process, decision rights, change and release
management in order to regulate quality and timing of outcomes
● Goals: purpose toward the endeavor is directed
● Values: traits or qualities,
● vision: goals and aspirations, they are often timeless
● mission: define the company's purpose and primary objectives
● Objectives: something that one’s actions are intended to attain or
accomplish
● each organization requires some form of governance
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● flow of governance: owner/stakeholder- board of governors- chief
executive officer- executive managers-managers-workers
● each level is supposed to inherit the values and direction from the level
immediately above
● tools to define the parameters include:
Use SMART system for goals:
Ideally speaking, each corporate, department, and section objective should be:
S.M.A.R.T
Specific – target a specific area for improvement.
Measurable – quantify or at least suggest an indicator of progress.
Assignable – specify who will do it.
Realistic – state what results can realistically be achieved, given available
resources.
Time-related – specify when the result(s) can be achieved.
Legislative Growth and Greater Due Diligence
● Increase in importance for appropriate governance structures to support
organizations
● Governance from the wall street fall examples
How Firms are affected by Governance and Controls
● Strategies must be executed and enabled in order to produce business
value
● HR as the expert in human performance, adds value to the organization
Management by Planning – Budgets Matter
● The following are steps that firms typically draft, build, edit, revisit and
iterate:
1) Draft a strategic plan
2) Declare execution and tactical work tasks
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3) Key Performance indicators
4) Allocate funds
5) Measure results
6) Iterate as required
7) Tweak strategy to react to market & performance
Allocations, Budgets, Performance → Cause & Effect Chain
● Success of strategy is typically measured financially
● 4 problems with this:
1) Allocation plans are just guessing; they may be educated but
often times you don’t have control of the forecasting of the budget
2) Many organizations budget by estimating- a lot of times there
might be receipts that are collected late, there might be things
promised not yet delivered
3) Several goals or measures may not be measurable or financial
e.g., Quality of service
4) Many brand, corporate citizenship and community outreach
programs may not be intended to increase performance in a
financial way
The Rights of Management – An Overview
● Compromise of core rights (determine organization's
mission/budget/strategy) & operational rights (assign/hire/fire)
● Property rights- owner had rights as to how property is used, represents
owners
● Management has residual or reserved rights whereby it controls its
business except in cases where there are limitations
● These limitations can be due to government or it can be in a case where
there is a union where there is a collective agreement- management limits
some of its rights in exchange for concession of workers apart of the union
● Base rule is that if a contract or agreement does not mention an item, then
the default is that Management rights apply
● Extends to property right- management can do what they want with
property
Governance – What is the Role of Human Resources?
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● Primary role is to provide a framework for management on how to manage
human resources
● Establishing the framework of policies, and procedures that workers
should follow
● Also have to monitor, investigate and pass judgment on how workers
behave
● HR department is basically the organizational police
● Responsibility to create and oversee the roles and responsibilities as
defined by job and position descriptions related to organizations wellbeing
within the legal structures in which it operates
The HR management framework
● Role of Human Resource is to set, develop and drive the framework within
which managers fulfill managerial duties
● HR does not have any direct responsibility to any staff other than those in
HR
● Workers report to their function’s managers and not HR
● Primary role is not managing people but setting up the framework within
which others manage
● HR supports the board, CEO, their own teams,
Execution and Path Forward on HR Strategy
Making your HR Plan…
● Contains capacity, plans, skills/capabilities required for the firm to achieve
its goals
● HRP has the following benefits:
o Assist in project management
o Will help the firm succeed in its goals
● Strategic plans answer: what business is the organization in? HRP
answers: what skills are needed for success within this organization
● Work best when: these two have a:
o reciprocal & interdependent relationship
What is the Difference Between Skills and Competencies?
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● Skills: learned though patterns, mental or physical activities (e.g., motor
skills) that can be measured with key performance indicators (KPIs) e.g.,
running, juggling, work output (in measurable units)
● Competencies: More general categories of mixes of hard skills and
cognitive abilities. These can be data analytics, creative writing, structured
problem solving, writing a business case etc.
● Competencies are the things people have to be, know and do to achieve
the outputs required in their job
Why are competencies important?
1) Provide a definition of what employees need to be to produce the results
an organization desires, that are consistent with the company’s corporate
strategy
 Explain not just how to do a job but why
 Rely on both tacit knowledge: knowledge that is difficult to be
transferred to another person b means of writing down or
verbalizing it- difficult to measure and comes with experience
 explicit knowledge: knowledge that has been articulated, codified
and stored in a certain media, easily transmitted to others –
encyclopedia
2) When properly defined, competencies and results can be measured
3) Competencies can be learned
4) Organizational and individual competencies can be aligned to produce
competitive advantage
5) Individual and departmental core competencies can be aligned within an
organization
Different aspects of linking HR to strategy:
1) Vertical linkage:
Policies →
performance →
individual behaviour →
team
company performance
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2) Horizontal linkage:
HR processes/initiatives →
culture →
create cohesive environment &
impacts employees at all levels
3) Temporal linkage:
Maintain long term strategic perspective, focus on broader
issues regarding the direction of the organization
Organization’s core offerings and competencies are working towards and
map to future strategy
Goal Setting and Links to Strategy
Long Term goals:
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Work backwards. Think about what the firm wants to achieve then plan steps
going back to what should be done now.
● Create a model of where you want to achieve in 10 years from now.
● Think about what you need to do in five years, in one year, and in six
months to get to your long-term goal.
● Capture what you need to do each month to achieve your goals.
● After each monthly goal is achieved, look at your goals and adjust them as
needed
1) Transform the skills and goals of the staff to prepare for the longer-term
horizons
2) Develop leadership team that is capable of delivering the strategy
3) Create an organizational structure and value set that will underpin long
term success
Short Term goals:
1) Make clear links between goals and the big picture of the business
strategy. Make the work meaningful and value add
2) Employee reward and recognition is important to incent good performance
3) Provide training and learning opportunities. Upskilling will pay dividends
4) Track goal performance using metrics, dashboards or scorecards
(remember SMART goals)
Business Savvy & Acumen
● Our goal is to create an environment and capabilities set in which the HR
professional integrate and work well with the functions of business.
● The aim is not to train HR in IT, Finance, Tax, Project Management or
Law
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Know Your Business, Niche or Market
● HR needs to become fluent in the lexicon, acronyms and approaches of
business
The Knowledge You Need
● HR impacts all departments in an organization
● Therefore, to understand how they impact the departments HR needs to
develop strong sense of how the company operates and increasing their
business knowledge
● Need to be aware of issues that affect their organizations- knowledge
about customers, competitors, suppliers, internal processes, infrastructure
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Professional Practice
Code of Ethics - Seven Guideline Principles to steer behaviour:
Duties vs Rules:
● Rules are a set of direct, to the point regulations governing behaviour and
are applied to all members of HRPA where they are responsible for and
organization’s HRPA where they are responsible for an organization's
HRM policies where they act as a consultant
● Duties refer to an HR professional’s obligations to their employer, clients,
employees, other professions and to the public
Risk Management Tasks
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Evidence Based Approach:
External Trends:
Regulatory Powers: Statutory & regulatory powers delegated to HRPA by the
government of Ontario
Fees
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Duties of Manager / Supervisor
Inspections: HRPA may conduct inspections respecting the practices of
members of the Association and companies in accordance with the by-laws.
2013, c. 6, s. 43.
Discipline Committee: discipline committee shall find a member or firm guilty of
professional misconduct in the committee’s opinion the member or firm is guilty
of professional misconduct as defined in the by-law. 2013-, c. 6, s. 34
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Organizational Effectiveness
Porter’s 5 Forces – Strategic Tool
Competitive Rivalry.
This looks at the number and strength of your competitors. Where rivalry is
intense, companies can attract customers with aggressive price cuts and highimpact marketing campaigns. Also, in markets with lots of rivals, your suppliers
and buyers can go elsewhere if they feel that they're not getting a good deal from
you.
Supplier Power
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This is determined by how easy it is for your suppliers to increase their prices.
Buyer Power
Here, you ask yourself how easy it is for buyers to drive your prices down. How
many buyers are there, and how big are their orders?
Threat of Substitution
This refers to the likelihood of your customers finding a different way of doing
what you do.
Threat of New Entry
Your position can be affected by people's ability to enter your market.
SWOT – Strategic Tool
● Strategic tool used to see the internal and external environment of an
organization
● Strengths, weaknesses (internal) opportunities, threats (external)
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● Externally, hr needs to understand the industry in which its in, their
competitors, new and developing trends in the industry, macro conditions
such as economy that affect organization
Strengths
● What do you do well?
● What do you do better than others?
● What unique strengths and talents do you have?
● What do others see as your strengths?
Weaknesses
● What could you improve?
● What do you avoid?
● Where do you have fewer resources than others?
● What are others likely to see as weaknesses?
Opportunities
● What opportunities are open to you?
● What trends could you take advantage of?
● How can you turn your strengths into opportunities?
● What is going on locally that you could capitalize on?
Threats
● What threats could harm you?
● What is your competition doing?
● What threats do your weaknesses expose you to?
● What obstacles do you have coming up?
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PEST analysis – Strategic Tool
The PEST Analysis is an external analysis in which “P” represents Politics, ‘E’ for
Economic, ‘S’ for social and ‘T’ for Technology. The PEST Analysis describes a
framework of macro environmental factors that are important for strategic
management. It is a useful strategic tool for understanding market growth or
decline, business position, opportunities and direction for the possibly required
actions.
Project Management Frameworks
Project Defined: A project has these characteristics:
•
It is a temporary piece of work with a beginning and an end
•
It creates a new or unique product, service, or outcome
Operations Business as Usual (BAU) vs Projects
Most work can be described as either “operations” or “project”. Operational work
is regular work to support the business, whereas project work ends when the
project is completed and delivered.
Project Management
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The PMBOK 6 Guide breaks project management into knowledge areas and
process groups.
The project management process groups are as follows:
Initiating,
Planning,
Executing,
Monitoring and controlling,
Closing.
The knowledge areas are:
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Integration,
Scope,
Schedule,
Cost,
Quality,
Resource,
Communications,
Risk,
Procurement,
Stakeholder management
Integration Management
Integration management is the key and primary job of a project manager. You
must understand integration from a real-world, large-project perspective.
Integration Management Overview
Performing Integration Management in a project is to keep the complete
interconnected project as one unified set of activities.
Scope Management
Scope management is the process of defining what work is required and then
making sure all of that work-and only that work-is completed. This is generally an
easy topic, but we all have gaps in our knowledge, even regarding things like
scope management that we deal with daily.
Schedule Management
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One of the key responsibilities of a project manager is ensuring that the needed
end date for a project can be met and to create options to make it happen all
before project executing starts.
To answer schedule management questions correctly, you should thoroughly
understand the process of scheduling a project. Although most project managers
use some type of software to assist with scheduling, the exam has often required
test takers to manually draw network diagrams to answer questions about
network diagrams and scheduling.
Cost Management
The following section should help you understand how each part of cost
management fits into the overall project management process
Project Cost Management involves planning, budgeting, and managing costs.
Cost management does not happen in isolation – the project manager needs
input from the project team and key stakeholders. Cost management should
occur early in project planning in order to establish a framework for all cost
management processes and ensure that the project does not go over budget.
Quality Management
Before we start discussing these three processes in detail, let's look at some
basic quality management concepts that you should understand for the exam.
Definition of Quality
What is quality? Quality is defined as the degree to which the project fulfills
requirements.
Resource Management
Human Resource (HR) Management involves all the activities planning, acquiring
and managing people. HR is a soft skill that relies on the project manager’s EQ
rather than IQ. However, it is hard to test for EQ on a standardized test.
Communication Management
Plan communications consider the performing organizations environment (i.e.,
Enterprise Environmental Factors), including its culture and expectations. The
performing organizations processes, procedures, historical records, lessons
learned and other information (i.e., organizational process assets) should also be
taken into consideration
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Risk Management
Risk Management is about anticipating risks and having a plan in place that will
resolve it when it occurs. Risk management saves time, money and efforts. It
reduces unnecessary stress on the project team. Risk management helps
prevent many problems and helps make other problems less likely.
Procurement Management
Procurement is the formal processes many organizations follow obtain goods
and services. Project Procurement Management is the process of selecting,
monitoring and closing vendor contracts.
Stakeholder Management
Stakeholders are individuals who get impacted by the project. A Stakeholder can
be supporter and a resistor.
Project Stakeholder Management involves identification of stakeholders, analysis
of their expectations and influences, development of appropriate strategies to
work with the stakeholders and executing the process. Frequent communication
is required with the stakeholders. Needs and expectations of the stakeholders to
be understood. Managing conflicting interest and involving stakeholders in key
project decisions and activities is also crucial. All of this forms a part of
stakeholder management process. Project manager is expected to possess the
ability to identify the needs and influences of the stakeholders to manage them
effectively.
General Finance & Accounting
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At a high level, the following basic concepts should be understood by HR
practitioners:
● Basic accounting (net present value, costing, internal rate of return,
payback periods etc.)
● Budgeting process and cadence
● Key capital investments & movements
● Costing for HR initiatives (project management)
● End to End process & value stream views
In terms of within HR groups:
● Business revenue sources
● Functional and cost center view of HR processes (activities-based
costing)
● HR Metrics – (attrition, compensation statistics, cost of recruiting, benefits
calcs etc.).
● Employee performance management systems & process
Examples of Human Capital Metrics 2
1. Time to hire (time in days)
An important metric for recruitment is the ‘time to hire’. This is the number of
days between a position opening up and a candidate signing the job contract. It’s
an excellent way to measure the efficiency of the recruitment process and
provides insight into the difficulty of filling a certain job position.
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There’s also the time to fill metric. This metric takes the same starting point but
takes the date the candidate starts working as the end point.
2. Cost per hire (total cost of hiring/the number of new hires)
Like the time to hire, the ‘cost per hire’ metric shows how much it costs the
company to hire new employees. This also serves as an indicator of the
efficiency of the recruitment process.
3. Early turnover (percentage of recruits leaving in the first year)
This is arguably the most important metric to determine hiring success in a
company.
This early leaver metric indicates whether there is a mismatch between the
person and the company or between the person and his/her position. Early
turnover is also very expensive. It usually takes 6 to 12 months before
employees have fully learned the ropes and reach their ‘Optimum Productivity
Level’.
4. Time since last promotion (avg time in months since last internal promotion)
This rather straightforward metric is useful in explaining why your high potentials
leave.
HR metrics examples related to revenue
5. Revenue per employee (revenue/total number of employees)
This metric shows the efficiency of the organization as a whole. The ‘revenue per
employee’ metric is an indicator of the quality of hired employees. Check this
Business Insider article to view how the top 12 tech companies in the world score
on this metric.
6. Performance and potential (the 9-box grid)
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The 9-box grid appears when measuring and mapping both an individual’s
performance and potential in three levels. This model shows which employees
are underperformers, valued specialists, emerging potentials or top talents. This
metrics is great for differentiating between, for example, wanted and unwanted
turnover.
In another article, we wrote about the qualitative and quantitative ways to
measure employee performance. Metrics include Net Promoter Score,
management by objectives, number of errors, 360-degree feedback, forced
ranking, etc.
7. Billable hours per employee
This is the most concrete example of a performance measure, and it is especially
relevant in professional service firms (e.g., law and consultancy firms). Relating
this kind of performance to employee engagement or other input metrics makes
for an interesting analysis. Benchmarking this metrics between different
departments and managers/partners can also provide valuable insights.
8. Engagement rating
An engaged workforce is a productive workforce. Engagement might be the most
important ‘soft’ HR outcome. People who like their job and who are proud of their
company are generally more engaged, even if the work environment is stressful
and pressure is high. Engaged employees perform better and are more likely to
perceive stress as an exciting challenge, not as a burden. Additionally, team
engagement is an important metric for a team manager’s success.
9. Cost of HR per employee (e.g., $ 600)
This metric shows the cost efficiency of HR expressed in dollars.
10. Ratio of HR professionals to employees (e.g., 1:60)
Another measure that shows HR’s cost efficiency. An organization with fully
developed analytical capabilities should be able to have a smaller number of HR
professionals do more.
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11. Ratio of HR business partners per employee (e.g., 1:80)
A similar metric to the previous one. Again, a set of highly developed analytics
capabilities will enable HR to measure and predict the impact of HR policies. This
will enable HR to be more efficient and reduce the number of business partners.
12. Turnover (number of leavers/total population in the organization)
This metric shows how many workers leave the company in a given year. When
combined with, for instance, a performance metric, the ‘turnover’ metric can track
the difference in attrition in high and low performers. Preferably you would like to
see low performers leave and high performers stay. This metric also provides HR
business partners with a great amount of information about the departments and
functions in which employees feel at home, and where in the organization they
do not want to work. Additionally, attrition could be a key metric in measuring a
manager’s success.
13. Effectiveness of HR software
This is a more complex metric. Effectiveness of, for instance, learning and
development software are measured in the number of active users, average time
on the platform, session length, total time on platform per user per month, screen
flow, and software retention. These metrics enable HR to determine what works
for the employees and what does not.
14. Absenteeism (absence percentage)
Like turnover, absenteeism is also a strong indicator of dissatisfaction and a
predictor of turnover. This metric can give information to prevent this kind of
leave, as long-term absence can be very costly. Again, differences between
individual managers and departments are very interesting indicators of (potential)
problems and bottlenecks.
Globalization
•
Growth in flows of trade and financial capital across borders
•
Affects jobs, wages, prosperity, social legislation
•
HR will have to develop international competencies
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Corporate International Business Strategies
Domestic Strategy: Internationalizing by exporting goods abroad as a means of
seeking new markets. Do not alter the products for foreign markets.
Multi-domestic Strategy: Concentrates on the development of foreign markets by
selling to foreign nationals. HRM consistent with local economic, political and
legal systems and local person hired to manage.
Multinational Strategy: Standardizing the products and services around the world
to gain efficiency. No adaptation to local environment
Global Strategy: Introducing culturally sensitive products in chosen countries with
the least amount of cost. Combining home HR practices with local practices and
selecting most qualified people for positions no matter where they come from.
Recruitment Options: In the domestic context, one of the key strategic decisions
in recruitment is the internal recruitment versus external recruitment. This twooption decision has a four-option parallel in the international domain and includes
recruitment opportunities such as:
Host Country Nationals (HCNs): Individuals from the subsidiary country who
know the foreign cultural environment well.
Parent Country Nationals (PCNs): Individuals from headquarters who are highly
familiar with the firm’s products and services, as well as with its corporate culture
Third Country Nationals (TCNs): Individuals from a third country who have
intensive international experience and who know the corporate culture from
previous working experience with corporate branches in the third country
Expatriate or home country nationals: Any individual who gives up residence in
his/her home country to take up residence in a foreign country either temporarily
or permanently
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Change Management
John Kotter's 8-Step Process for Leading Change 3
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Create a Sense of Urgency
Build a Guiding Coalition
Form a Strategic Vision and Initiatives
Enlist a Volunteer Army
Enable Action by Removing Barriers
Generate Short-Term Wins
Sustain Acceleration
Institute Change
The Deming Cycle - Plan, Do, Check & Act 4
Plan
The planning phase involves assessing a current process, or a new process, and
figuring out how it can be improved upon. Knowing what types of outputs are
desired helps to develop a plan to fix the process. It is often easier to plan
smaller changes during this phase of the plan so that they can be easily
monitored and the outputs are more predictable.
Do
The do phase allows the plan from the previous step to be enacted. Small
changes are usually tested, and data is gathered to see how effective the change
is.
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Check
During the check phase, the data and results gathered from the do phase are
evaluated. Data is compared to the expected outcomes to see any similarities
and differences. The testing process is also evaluated to see if there were any
changes from the original test created during the planning phase. If the data is
placed in a chart it can make it easier to see any trends if the PDCA cycle is
conducted multiple times. This helps to see what changes work better than
others, and if said changes can be improved as well.
Example: Gap analysis, or Appraisals
Act
If the check phase shows that the plan phase which was implemented in do
phase is an improvement to the prior standard (baseline), then that becomes the
new standard (baseline) for how the organization should act going forward (new
standards are thus said to be enacted). Instead, if the check phase shows that
the plan phase which was implemented in do phase is not an improvement, then
the existing standard (baseline) will remain in place. In either case, if the check
phase showed something different than expected (whether better or worse), then
there is some more learning to be done... and that will suggest potential future
PDCA cycles. Note that some who teach PDCA assert that the act phase
involves making adjustments or corrective actions, but generally it would be
counter to PDCA thinking to propose and decide upon alternative changes
without using a proper plan phase, or to make them the new standard (baseline)
without going through do and check steps.
Determine Competitive Advantage
34
Implement and Evaluate the Firm’s Strategy
Job Analysis Methods 5
Job analysis information can be gathered in a variety of ways. One consideration
is who is to conduct the job analysis. Most frequently, a member of the HR staff
35
coordinates this effort. Depending on which of the methods discussed next is
used, others who often participate are managers, supervisors, and employees
doing the jobs. For more complex analyses, industrial engineers may conduct
time and motion studies.
Another consideration is the method to be used. Common methods are
observations, interviews, questionnaires, and specialized methods of analysis.
Combinations of these approaches frequently are used, depending on the
situation and the organization. Each of these methods is discussed in some
detail next.
Observation
When the observation method is used, a manager, job analyst, or industrial
engineer observes the individual performing the job and takes notes to describe
the tasks and duties performed. Observation may be continuous or based on
intermittent sampling.
Use of the observation method is limited because many jobs do not have
complete and easily observed job duties or complete job cycles. Thus,
observation may be more useful for repetitive jobs and in conjunction with other
methods. Managers or job analysts using other methods may watch parts of a
job being performed to gain a general familiarity with the job and the conditions
under which it is performed. Multiple observations on several occasions also will
help them use some of the other job analysis methods more effectively.
Work Sampling
As a type of observation, work sampling does not require attention to each
detailed action throughout an entire work cycle. Instead, a manager can
determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling
of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all
actions. Work sampling is particularly useful for routine and repetitive jobs.
Employee Log
Another method requires that employees “observe” their own performances by
keeping a diary/log of their job duties, noting how frequently they are performed
and the time required for each duty. Although this approach sometimes
generates useful information, it may be burdensome for employees to compile an
accurate log. Also, employees sometimes perceive this approach as creating
needless documentation that detracts from the performance of their work.
Interviewing
The interview method of gathering information requires that a manager or HR
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specialist visit each job site and talk with the employees performing each job. A
standardized interview form is used most often to record the information.
Frequently, both the employee and the employee’s supervisor must be
interviewed to obtain a complete understanding of the job.
Some typical interview questions include:
● What is the job being performed?
● What are the major duties of your job position? What exactly do you do?
● What physical locations do you work in?
● What is the education, experience, skill, and [where applicable]
certification and
licensing requirements?
● In what activities do you participate?
● What are the job’s responsibilities and duties?
● What are the basic accountabilities or performance standards that typify
your work?
● What are your responsibilities? What are the environmental and working
conditions
Involved?
● What are the job’s physical demands? The emotional and mental
demands?
● What are the health and safety conditions?
● Are you exposed to any hazards or unusual working conditions?
The interview method can be quite time consuming, especially if the interviewer
talks with two or three employees doing each job. Professional and managerial
jobs often are more complicated to analyze and usually require longer interviews.
For these reasons, combining the interview with one of the other methods is
suggested.
Questionnaires
The questionnaire is a widely used method of gathering data on jobs. A survey
instrument is developed and given to employees and managers to complete. The
typical job questionnaire often covers the areas shown below. The major
advantage of the questionnaire method is that information on a large number of
jobs can be collected inexpensively in a relatively short period of time. However,
the questionnaire method assumes that employees can accurately analyze and
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communicate information about their jobs. Employees may vary in their
perceptions of the jobs, and even in their literacy. For these reasons, the
questionnaire method is usually combined with interviews and observations to
clarify and verify the questionnaire information.
One type of questionnaire sometimes used is a checklist. Differing from the
open-ended questionnaire, the checklist offers a simplified way for employees to
give information. An obvious difficulty with the checklist is constructing it, which
can be a complicated and detailed process.
Job Analysis Questionnaire
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Duties and percentage of time spent on each
Work coordination and supervisory responsibilities
Physical activities and characteristics
Decisions made and discretion exercised
Records and reports prepared
Training needed
Materials and equipment used
Financial/budgeting input
External and internal contacts
Knowledge, skills, and abilities used
Working conditions
Special duties performed less frequently
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Workforce Planning & Talent Management
Terminology
Staffing Strategy & Goals
Retention Strategies6
Each employer should keep his workforce satisfied with no room for
disgruntlement. There should be a bunch of other competitive facilities, including
better pay and benefits like bonuses etc.
Employers should also create a warm atmosphere and friendly culture at the
workplace so that each employee feels:
Recognized for his performance
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Appreciated for his quality of work
Rewarded for his share of responsibility
Introduction
Genius begins and labor finishes
Polarization of human resources into two
Species
-loyal
-rolling stones
Four major concerns about retaining employees

WHY we should Retain Employees

WHAT all we should do to retain employees

HOW we should retain employees
The same word can be also read as:
RE - TENSION RE – Tension of Recruiting the right manpower
RE – Tension of Training and Development
RE – Tension of Adaptability Why people leave their job
Job content
Level of responsibility
Company culture
Caliber of colleagues
Salary
Low growth potential
Lack of challenge
Lack of autonomy
Not enough money
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Work environment issues. Why should we retain employees?
Financial Loss.
Dissonance in Customer and Employee Satisfaction.
Reduced Productivity and Quality of Product.
Loser to Competition Why retention in workplace
It takes 5 times more costs in bringing upon new employee to the same level of
production that of an experienced employee.
The graph of success is directly related to retention graph
How to retain employees
A satisfied employee knows clearly what is expected from him.
The quality of supervision an employee receives is critical to employee retention.
The ability of the employee to speak his or her mind freely within the
organization is another key factor in employee retention.
Talent and skill utilization are another environmental factor your key employees
seek in your workplace
The perception of fairness and equitable treatment is important in employee
retention
The easiest to solve and the ones most affecting employee retention are tools
time and training.
Employees one wants to retain seek frequent opportunities to learn and grow in
their careers, knowledge and skill.
Employees should never feel that senior managers did not know he existed.
No matter the circumstances, never, never, ever threaten an employee’s job or
income
Staff members must feel rewarded, recognized and appreciated.
Top management team needs to identify the causes behind the exodus and
understand them.
The employees should be constantly motivated by giving them incentives for
improvement and excellence in future performances.
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A sense of ownership can also be infused through schemes like “Employee
Stock option Plan” (ESOP)
Estimate the Aspirations and Value and Balance with The Worth of the
Employee.
In the words of John Ruskin
“In order that people may be happy in
their work, three things are needed
They must be fit for it
They must not do too much of it
They must have a sense of success in it”
Workforce Analytics Goals
Workforce Plan Development
Examine the Labour Environment
What is happening in the external environment and how it will affect the
organization?
HR must have a good understanding of the company’s past, present and future
business environment
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By understanding the business environment HR can better understand how to
influence the point where the organization meets the environment and where the
strategy meets the market space
Economic factors- competitive trends, regional conditions, state of economy
Technological Changes- innovations that influence production, delivery and
customer behaviour
Political or legislative issues
Social and cultural concerns
Good to partner with other departments who also collect information
Good to use variety of sources
Environments Analytics Factors
Demographic trends
Labour market statistics and trends
Labour & Wage Markets Analysis
Must determine the makeup of the current or future labour market
Can find information with government statistics, sector councils, and professional
associations
Demographics, political enviro, customer focus, competition, globalization,
economics and technology are the top indicators influencing HR work
Study and analyze the following:
Wages and salaries
Benefits
Flex arrangements (e.g., work from home)
Labour force projections
Industry and market layoffs
Employment rates
Average age of the labour force within industry
Level of skill and education of labour force
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Internal Factors to Consider
Assess resources and capabilities
Need to know how all the subsystems interact so they can create alignment
rebalancing as the market shifts
Looks at economic condition, availability of resources, overall strategy etc.
Workforce Planning
Forecasting demand- what does it involve?
Forecasting Basics 7
Human Resource Planning
Human Resource Planning
Objective and Benefits of HRP
Human Resource Planning at Different Levels
HRP Process
HR Demand Forecasting
HR Supply Forecasting
Succession Analysis
Markov Analysis
Forecasting human resource demand is the process of estimating the future
human resource requirement of right quality and right number. As discussed
earlier, potential human resource requirement is to be estimated keeping in view
the organization's plans over a given period of time. Analysis of employment
trends; replacement needs of employees due to death, resignations, retirement
termination; productivity of employees; growth and expansion of organization;
absenteeism and labour turnover are the relevant factors for human resourced
forecasting. Demand forecasting is affected by a number of external and internal
factors.
Job analysis and forecasting about the quality of potential human resource
facilitates demand forecasting. So, existing job design must be thoroughly
evaluated taking into consideration the future capabilities of the present
employees.
Factors Affecting HR Demand Forecasting
44
Human Resource Demand Forecasting depends on several factors, some of
which are given below.
Employment trends;
Replacement needs;
Productivity;
Absenteeism; and
Expansion and growth.
There are number of techniques of estimating/forecasting human resources
demand:
(a) Managerial Judgement
(b) Work Study Technique
(c) Ratio-trend Analysis (d) Econometric Models
(e) Delphi Model
(f) Other Techniques
(a) Managerial Judgement: Managerial judgement technique is very common
technique of demand forecasting. This approach is applied by small as well as
large scale organizations. This technique involves two types of approaches i.e.,
'bottom-up approach' and 'top-down approach'. Under the 'bottom-up approach',
line mangers send their departmental requirement of human resources to top
management. Top management ultimately forecasts the human resource
requirement for the overall organization on the basis of proposals of
departmental heads. Under the Top-down approach', top management forecasts
the human resource requirement for the entire organization and various
departments. This information is supplied to various departmental heads for their
review and approval. However, a combination of both the approaches i.e.,
'Participative Approach' should be applied for demand forecasting. Under this
approach, top management and departmental heads meet and decide about the
future human resource requirement. So, demand of human resources can be
forecasted with unanimity under this approach.
(b) Work-Study Technique: This technique is also known as 'work-load analysis'.
This technique is suitable where the estimated work-load is easily measurable.
Under this method, estimated total production and activities for a specific future
period are predicted. This information is translated into number of man-hours
required to produce per units taking into consideration the capability of the
workforce. Past-experience of the management can help in translating the workloads into number of man-hours required. Thus, demand of human resources is
forecasted on the basis of estimated total production and contribution of each
employee in producing each unit items. The following example gives clear idea
about this technique.
Let us assume that the estimated production of an organization is 3.00.000 units.
The standard man-hours required to produce each unit are 2 hours. The past
experiences show that the work ability of each employee in man-hours is 1500
45
hours per annum. The work-load and demand of human resources can be
calculated as under:
Estimated total annual production = 300000 units
Standard man-hours needed to produce each unit = 2 hrs.
Estimated man-hours needed to meet estimated annual production (I x ii) =
600000 hrs.
Work ability/contribution per employee in terms of man-hour = 1500 units
Estimated no. of workers needed (iii / iv) = 600000/1500 = 400 units
The above example clearly shows that 400 workers are needed for the year.
Further, absenteeism rate, rate of labour turnover, resignations, deaths, machine
break-down, strikes, power-failure etc. should also be taken into consideration
while estimating future demand of human resources/ manpower.
(c) Ratio-Trend Analysis: Demand for manpower/human resources is also
estimated on the basis of ratio of production level and number of workers
available. This ratio will be used to estimate demand of human resources. The
following example will help in clearly understanding this technique.
Estimated production for next year = 1,40,000 units
Estimated no. of workers needed
(on the basis of ratio-trend of 1: 200) will be = 700
(d) Econometrics Models: These models are based on mathematical and
statistical techniques for estimating future demand. Under these model’s
relationship is established between the dependent variable to be predicted (e.g.,
manpower/human resources) and the independent variables (e.g., sales, total
production, work-load, etc.). Using these models, estimated demand of human
resources can be predicted.
(e) Delphi Technique: Delphi technique is also very important technique used for
estimating demand of human resources. This technique takes into consideration
human resources requirements given by a group of experts i.e., mangers. The
human resource experts collect the manpower needs, summarizes the various
responses and prepare a report. This process is continued until all experts agree
on estimated human resources requirement.
(f) Other Techniques: The other techniques of Human Resources demand
forecasting are specified as under:
(a) Following the techniques of demand forecasting of human resources used by
other similar organizations
(b) Organization-cum-succession-charts
(c) Estimation based on techniques of production
(d) Estimates based on historical records
(e) Statistical techniques e.g., co-relation and regression analysis
46
Surplus Mitigation:
Leave of absence
Automation
Process improvement
Downsizing/restructuring
Early retirement packages
Reassignments to other business units
Reduction in work hours
Layoffs
Part time
Shortage Mitigation:
Right Sourcing sourcing
Offering overtime
Work redesign
New recruitment initiatives
Internal promotions
Temporary reassignments
Workforce Planning: Markov Analysis 8
Human Resource supply forecasting is the process of estimating availability of
human resource followed after demand for testing of human resource. For
forecasting supply of human resource, we need to consider internal and external
supply. Internal supply of human resource available by way of transfers,
promotions, retired employees & recall of laid-off employees, etc. Source of
external supply of human resource is availability of labour force in the market and
new recruitment.
External supply of human resource depends on some factors mentioned below.
Supply and demand of jobs
literacy rate of nation
rate of population
industry and expected growth rate and levels
technological development
compensation system based on education, experience, skill and age
The most important techniques for forecasting of human resource supply are
Succession analysis and Markov analysis.
Succession Analysis
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Once a company has forecast the demand for labour, it needs an indication of
the firm's labour supply. Determining the internal labour supply calls for a
detailed analysis of how many people are currently in various job categories or
have specific skills within the organization. The planner then modifies this
analysis to reflect changes expected in the near future as a result of retirements,
promotions, transfers, voluntary turnover, and terminations.
Demand forecasting helps in determining the number and type of
personnel/human resources required in future. The next step in human resource
planning is forecasting supply of human resources. The purpose of supply
forecasting is to determine the size and quality of present and potential human
resources available from within and outside the organization to meet the future
demand of human resources. Supply forecast is the estimate of the number and
kind of potential personnel that could be available to the organization.
Internal supply forecasting can be estimated based on the following:
(a) Current Staffing Level
(b) Projected Outflows This Year
(c) Projected Inflows This Year
Markov Analysis
Transition probability matrix is developed to determine the probabilities of job
incumbents remaining in their jobs for the forecasting period.
The technique is named after Russian mathematician Andrei Andreyev ich
Markov
A transition matrix, or Markov matrix, can be used to model the internal flow of
human resources. These matrices simply show as probabilities the average rate
of historical movement from one job to another. Figure 2-12 presents a very
simple transition matrix. For a line worker, for example, there is a 20% probability
of being gone in 12 months, a 0% probability of promotion to manager, a 15%
probability of promotion to supervisor, and a 65% probability of being a line
worker this time next year. Such transition matrices form the bases for computer
simulations of the internal flow of people through a large organization over time.
Linear Programming 9
Linear programming is a technique to optimize the process of attaining
objectives. Hence, linear programming can be gainfully employed to human
resources.
In an organization, we can look at human resources as assets, costs or both. If
we are looking at human resources as assets, we need to arrange them in such
48
a manner that their productivity is maximized. The arrangement of humans in
organizations is called organizational structure. Normally, organizations are
divided into departments. Hence, arranging humans usually translates into
allocating people into departments. Linear programming can help us maximize
organizational productivity by optimizing the process of allocating people into
departments.
If we look at human resources as costs, we can minimize our costs by properly
arranging human resources i.e., allocating employees to departments. Linear
programming can help there. If we want to pursue both productivity and cost
minimization together, we can use linear programming to help there.
The use of linear programming in HR is part of HR Planning that aims to put the
right number of people at the right place to achieve organizational objectives,
which are usually productivity maximization or cost minimization or both.
Subdividing the topic, we can put linear programming as part of HR Supply.
Movement Analysis
Movement analysis is an approach and study used to get insights into staff/talent
supply, specifically the cascade or ‘bull-whip’ effect that job reductions, moves, or
promotions may have on the movements of other staff in the firm.
This helps and allows the HR manager to choose the desired blend (%) of
internal and external supply, for those positions requiring replacement, ranging
from a promote internally approach to replacing attrition entirely through hiring
staff from outside.
Skills and Management Inventories 11
Hiring employees to fill open job positions is a critical process for companies.
Recruiters must handle the hiring process strategically to find the best
candidates. Many companies look within to find top talent to fill open positions
within the company. Internal hiring is a popular recruiting method within many
organizations. To help with the hiring process, many companies take inventory of
employee skills. Knowing the capabilities of employees can help managers hire
the right workers.
Performing a Skills Inventory
Companies desiring to hire internally can perform a skills inventory on their
current employees to help in the promotion decisions. This inventory lists the
professional attributes, abilities and expertise of employees within an
organization. Compiling a skills inventory for each employee within the company
allows managers to quickly access employees’ qualifications to gather a list of
qualified candidates to consider for an open position within the company.
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Managers can give employees questionnaires that allow them to rate their level
of expertise with particular skills. To make the process easier, managers can
email the questionnaires to employees, require that they email back the
completed forms and input the information received in a database.
Posting Jobs in the Workplace
A popular method for internal recruiting is to place job positions on open job
boards within the company or on the company’s website. Employees who believe
they are qualified for the position may decide to apply. Limitations exist with this
form of self-nomination, which means that employees are the judge of whether
they are qualified to seek the job. The self-nomination approach to internal hiring
devalues the human resources department and limits its effectiveness, according
to an article written by Ed Newman on ERE, a website serving corporate
recruiting professionals. Organizations can improve the internal recruiting
process by implementing new strategies, such as requiring employees to obtain
manager approval before applying to an internal job position and requiring
employees to work at their current position for at least 12 months before seeking
other positions.
Benefits and Limitations of Internal Recruiting
The main benefits of recruiting internally are the significant time and costs
savings companies can achieve. Organizations save money because internal
hires typically require less training than new, external hires. Companies can
review the employee’s skill inventory to verify that the employee is qualified for
the job. Unlike external hires, companies are familiar with the capabilities of
current employees. A disadvantage of hiring from within is that the company
must fill the position that is left by the employee receiving the promotion, which
means the company is filling two positions. Another disadvantage is that
companies can miss out on top external candidates who can add value to the
organization in ways internal employees cannot.
Bad Times to Hire Internally
Although internal recruiting provides valuable benefits to a company, times exist
when companies should avoid hiring internally. A company usually benefits more
from external hiring when the organization needs new leadership and direction
because it is underperforming. The familiarity of employees with the
organization’s culture serves as a disadvantage at this point. The need for
employees with specialized skills may cause an organization to seek external
candidates to fill job positions.
Replacement management
● Crafting a process of finding employee for key managerial positions
Succession management
50
● Making sure that pools of skilled employees are trained and available to
meet the strategic objectives of the organization.
Interview Types
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Structured
Unstructured
Case
Stress
Situational
Behavioral
Performance Management12
The terms 'performance management' and 'performance appraisal' are
sometimes used synonymously, but they are different. Performance
management is a comprehensive, continuous and flexible approach to the
management of organizations, teams and individuals which involves the
maximum amount of dialogue between those concerned.
Performance appraisal is a more limited approach which involves managers
making top-down assessments and rating the performance of their subordinates
at an annual performance appraisal meeting
Performance Management systems typically are:
● A definition of what you want an employee to do for the next performance
period (normally the next quarter, half year or full year). The definition
includes specific objectives for the period, backed up by a job description
which includes the normal expectations for that position
● A review of remuneration/bonuses if these objectives are met
● A review of the personal development objectives
● Formally performed quarterly, half yearly or annually but with input all year
round
● Typically, fully automated where the information is accessible to all
participants at any time
● Content rich if the automated Performance Management system has
features such as a Performance Diary
Performance Management
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Defined:
Ongoing process of coaching, measurement and communication between a
people manager and an associate that happens throughout the working year, in
support of accomplishing the strategic objectives of the firm. Includes:
●
●
●
●
objectives,
goals,
expectations,
providing feedback,
Managing Employee Performance – The Cycle
Leading performance, providing feedback and scoring progress is not an isolated
set of tasks, focused in on yearly performance reviews. It is an ongoing process
that takes place throughout the year. The Performance Management process is
a cycle, with talks varying year to year based on evolving goals and trends.
The cycle includes Leading, Planning, Checking-In, and Review.
To start this process, you and your employee review overall expectations, which
includes collaborating on the development of performance objectives. Individual
development goals are written. You then develop a plan that directs the
employee's efforts toward achieving specific results to support organizational
excellence and employee success.
Goals and objectives are discussed throughout the year, during check-in
meetings. This provides a framework to ensure employees achieve results
through coaching and mutual feedback.
At the end of the performance period, you review the employee's performance
against expected objectives, as well as the means used and behaviors
demonstrated in achieving those objectives. Together, you establish new
objectives for the next performance period.
Succession Planning Process
Step 1: critical positions
Critical roles are the focus of succession planning processes. Without these key
roles, the firm would be unable to meet its business metrics objectives.
Workforce projection data or demographic analysis is essential in identifying risk
areas. A risk assessment may also be conducted and compared to current and
future vacancies to identify critical positions within your organization.
Step 2: skills &competencies
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Understanding of capabilities needed for successful performance in key areas
and critical positions is essential for guiding learning and development, writing
performance expectations, and for assessing performance. By completing the
process of competency or position profiling within your organization, current and
future employees gain an understanding of the key responsibilities of the position
including the qualifications and behavioral and technical competencies required
to perform them successfully.
Job Based Approach – focus on duties, skills, job experience, and
responsibilities required to perform the job
Competency-Based Approach – focus on measurable attributes that differentiate
successful employees from those who are not
Step 3: Identify succession management strategies
Now that critical positions have been identified and have been profiled for
competencies, the next step is to choose from a menu of several human
resource strategies, including developing internal talent pools, onboarding and
recruitment to address succession planning.
Step 4: Document and implement succession plans
Once strategies have been identified, the next step is to document the strategies
in an action plan. The Succession Planning: Action Plan provides a mechanism
for clearly defining timelines and roles and responsibilities.
Step 5: Evaluate Effectiveness
To ensure that the organization’s succession planning efforts are successful, it is
important to systematically monitor workforce data, evaluate activities and make
necessary adjustments.
Identifying and Accelerating High Potential Employees
13
Aspiration
Aspiration refers to an employee’s willingness and desire to tackle the challenges
and opportunities associated with leadership roles. HiPos may demonstrate an
interest in being involved in decision-making processes, and they often yearn for
more responsibility and independence. They proactively seek out new challenges
53
and solicit constructive feedback regarding their performance.
Ability
Ability refers to the combination of an employee’s inherent qualities and their
learned skills. HiPos don’t just do their jobs well – they are also fast learners who
leverage their existing strengths to help them acquire new skills quickly. They
welcome professional development opportunities and recognize the value in
augmenting their talents with new knowledge and best practices.
Engagement
HiPos are exceptionally engaged employees, demonstrating a significant
commitment to the success of the company that extends beyond their own
individual performance. They often exemplify many of the qualities that are most
valued within the company culture and can be seen lending a hand to other
employees as necessary in order to bolster the overall efficiency and success of
the team.
Investing in HiPos
Because HiPos ambitiously chase after new challenges, it’s critical to invest in
them and support them if you have any hope of retaining them. It’s no
exaggeration to suggest that a strong HiPo program represents a life-or-death
situation for companies.
One of the easiest ways to support your HiPos is through positive reinforcement.
Let them know that they are at the top of the heap and thank them for their
continued commitment and performance. For true HiPos, this will give them a
strong sense of job satisfaction while also spurring them to aspire to even greater
heights.
Advancing Your HiPos’ Careers
As satisfying as it may be, a pat on the back isn’t enough on its own to keep a
HiPo on the path to leadership. Their aspiration, ability, and engagement must be
rewarded in meaningful, tangible ways. While this can and should take the form
of appropriate compensation and benefits, opportunities for career advancement
are equally important.
For small to midsize companies who may lack robust HR departments, providing
ample opportunities for professional development can be a challenge.
Fortunately, independent executive coaching services are ideal for filling this
role.
54
Experienced coaches can draw on their expertise and outside perspective to
help internal HR managers identify and nurture HiPos. Coaching helps
employees develop and refine skills that will allow them to effectively confront
any future challenges – rather than only addressing immediate needs. For this
reason, it is one of the most effective methods of professional development in
terms of employee and employer satisfaction. Employees gain confidence in their
abilities and remain engaged with their work, resulting in an ROI of nearly seven
times the initial investment.
The next generation of leaders
Identifying and supporting HiPos has become an even more critical fact of
effective management due in part to the increasing number of millennials in the
workforce. Many of the qualities that distinguish HiPos can also be applied to
millennials: they are eager to take on greater responsibility, and they have a
strong desire to work in an environment where they feel supported and
encouraged.
By some estimates, millennials are expected to make up as much as 75% of the
workforce by 2025. With the right support, companies could potentially turn huge
swaths of their employees into HiPos by encouraging some of these key
characteristics demonstrated by Gen Y through professional development
opportunities like executive coaching.
HiPos represent the future of any company, and the ways in which employers
support them will determine how bright that future can be. By identifying and
cultivating employees with exceptional aspiration, uncommon ability, and
superior engagement, employers can ensure that the next generation of leaders
is well equipped to boost performance, foster innovation, and drive sustainable
growth.
55
Labour & Employee Relations
Human Resource Management (HRM): relationship between employer and
individual employees (performance mgmt., training & development,
compensation)
Labour Relations (LR): relationship between groups of employees (collective;
usually unions) and employer
Industrial Relations (IR): employment relationships, usually in unionized settings
Employment Relations (ER): Employment relationships in both union/non-union
firms; encompasses LR and HRM
Dunlop’s Industrial Relations System Model (highlights importance of power &
conflict in employee relations; descriptive only, not predictive)
1.
Actors (govt agencies, workers, associations – labour unions)
2.
Shared Ideology (ideas and beliefs, e.g., capitalism and business
orientation) Assumes actors understand each other and value their roles in
relationship.
3.
Contexts (labour & product markets supply & demand; workplace
constraints e.g., job tasks & work hours; unions try to control supply of labour
impacts total product cost, distribution of power in the larger society)
4.
Web of rules
•
Substantive: outcomes of employee relations (similar to Craig’s outputs
below)
•
procedural,
•
distributive
Craig’s Industrial Relations System
56
1.
Actors (3): labour (employees & associations), employers & associations
2.
Adds inputs >conversion mechanism> outputs/results; system-based
approach
•
External: legal, economic, ecological, political (ability to pass legislation),
socio-cultural (values & beliefs) (technology not mentioned)
•
Internal: values/standards/principles, goals (that which a person seeks to
obtain or achieve), strategies (processes to achieve goals), power
3.
Outputs:
•
Management: productivity, profitability
•
Labour: equity issues, job rights/ways to achieve fairness in workplace
•
Worker Perceptions: work climate, employee morale, organizational
commitment, union satisfaction, conflict resolution
4.
Adds Feedback Loop = dynamic system, not stagnant
5.
Third Party Interventions
•
Interest arbitration: used by those unable to strike
•
Mediation: no power to enforce resolution
•
Grievance arbitration: binding (written complain that the CA has not been
followed; alleged violation of CA)
•
Conciliation: mandatory/required in Canada before right to strike
•
Fact-finding
•
Mediation/arbitration
•
Strikes/lockouts: can be both conversion mechanism & output; used to
bring closure & produce collective agreement; Unions can use when CA expired
and is up for negotiation; ban on use while CA is in effect
Hebden& Brown: introduced 4th actor = end users
Views of Industrial Relations
•
Neoclassical Economics View: considers unions an artificial barrier to free
market
•
Pluralist and Institutional View: systems approach; IR system represents
this view of IR
57
•
Human Resources / Strategic Choice: deliberate employer strategies to
minimize conflict and align HR and business strategies
•
Political Economy: inherent conflict between labour and management
Legal Framework / History
•
Statute of Laborers (1349, England): illegal to sell labour at pre-plague
prices
•
Master servant relationship: illegal to quit work, illegal to bargain
collectively or form a union; management controlled almost all work issues;
employer could fire a person for union activity
•
New Model unionism (1850’s): apprenticeships controls labour supply
(socialist unionism)
•
Knights of Labour (1868): sought cooperative businesses owned by
workers, labour group that included African-Americans, females and unskilled
labour
•
Trade Union Act (1872), Breaches of Contract Act (1877), Criminal Law
Amendments Act (1875-76): enabled freedom of association; granted right to
“peaceful” strike (CDA)
•
Taylorism (1873-79): Scientific management –application of engineering
techniques to production process resulted in mass production. (USA)
•
Frederick Taylor (1911): Taylor advocated use of time/motion studies and
performance pay-based systems; focus was on firm efficiency
•
The Haymarket Affair (1886, Chicago): rally for striking workers;
government used power to quell people
•
American Federation of Labour (1886): Gompers (1st president), focus =
economic, not political reform = business unionism (USA)
•
Exclusive jurisdiction: one craft per union; every union can only represent
workers of a single trade or craft
•
Knights of Labour banned
•
Trades & Labour Congress of Canada (TLC) (1886): Daniel Donoghue;
includes Knights of Labour (CDA)
•
Berlin (now Kitchener) Conference is significant in Canadian labour history
as it resulted in the TLC ejecting industrial unions; moved to exclusive jurisdiction
= every union can only represent workers of a single trade or craft
•
Industrial Disputes Investigation Act (IDIA) (1907): must have 3rd party
58
intervention before a strike (CDA)
•
A new wave of unionism - Industrial unions emerged as a more active and
socially oriented movement to protect workers.
•
Wave 1: 1890-1920: craft or skill-based unions
•
Wave 2: 1930-1940’s: industrial or multi-skill unions; inclusive unionism;
normally all at one site
•
Wave 3: 1960-1975: Public Sector unions; social justice unionism
•
The Snider Case (1925): landmark case determined that labour is
provincial matter (CDA)
•
Wagner Act (1935) named after NY Senator who under Roosevelt (move
to political left). (USA)
•
Employers required to bargain with certified unions, defined unfair labour
practices; created an independent agency (the National Labour Relations Board,
NRLB) that could order remedies for employer violates of the Act
•
Under Wagner: recognition strikes & lockouts illegal; labour boards were
established; and exclusivity principle (only 1 union) introduced.
•
Wagner crafted on Voluntarism: collective bargaining is a private matter
and government intervention should be kept to a minimum
•
TLC expelled CIO affiliates and formed Canadian Congress of Labour
(CCL) (1939) (CDA)
•
P.C. 1003 (1943): The War Times Labour Relations Act whereby
Canadian Privy Council adopts Wagner Act model during wartime (CDA)
•
Created certification procedures and a labour relations board
•
Defined unfair labour practices
•
Enabled board to impose penalties
•
Included: mandatory/required dispute resolution procedures and
conciliation prior to a strike
•
CDA differs from Wagner Act b/c laws require greater govt intervention
(mandatory conciliation; all laws substitute arbitration for the right to strike during
contract term, even if grievances alleged; CA and the law give arbitrators
jurisdiction to resolve disputes)
•
Employment Standards & Employee Rights
•
Std work week; Overtime > 44 hours & legal max; Scheduling; Breaks;
Exclusions/ Human Rights, Health & Safety; Pay & Employment Equity
59
•
9 hour movement is closely associated with Hamilton
•
Unfair labour practice: alleged violation of provincial labour relations act
(vs grievance: alleged violated of CA)
•
Union Security:
•
Closed shop: union membership a condition of employment
•
Union shop: new employees must join union after probation period
•
Rand Formula (1945): employees do not have to join union; all employees
must pay dues
•
Industrial Relations & Dispute Investigation Act (IRDIA) (1948) (CDA)
•
Canadian Labour Congress (1956) merger of TLC (craft-based) and CCL
(industrial-based), included requirement to explore a tighter relationships with, or
even help form, a political party (CDA); represents 69.6% of the 4.6M union
members in CDA today (union density = union members as a % of labour force)
•
NDP formed (1961) (CDA)
•
When CLC supported formation of NDP party it violated political non-
partisanship (1 of 3) core values of American Federation of Labour
•
Public Service Staff Relations Act (1967): federal PSO workers can
unionize and bargain collectively (CDA)
•
Public Sector union density 4X private sector union density
•
Higher rate of PSO unionization in CDA; unions are better able to recruit
in CDA because of favourable laws, affiliation between organized labour &NDP;
ability to resist concession bargaining
•
Concession bargaining is a key reason why the Canadian Auto Workers
Union (CAW) split from the United Auto Workers Union (UAW)
•
Charter of Rights & Freedoms: govt can invoke the notwithstanding clause
to override the right or freedom (CDA)
•
Before Harris, had Automatic Certification required the union getting 55%
of the bargaining unit to sign union cards (interest in joining union; valid for 6
months); would get union without even telling the employer.
•
Harris government “common sense revolution”: people need to have a
vote, can’t have 55% automatic certification. Now there will be a vote no matter
what; with minimum of 40% of bargaining unit having signed union cards
(achieved through organizing drive process), the union organizers can put the
application into the labour board following which a vote will be held.
60
Management can’t interfere with the formation of a trade union, otherwise LRA
says the union will get certification automatically.
•
S. 7(12) application for certification shall include a written description of
the proposed bargaining unit including an estimate of the number of individuals in
the unit
•
S. 8.1 (1) if employer disagrees with the trade union’s estimate of the
number of individuals in the unit, the employer may give the Board a notice that it
disagrees with that estimate (e.g. perhaps includes management that can’t be
union)
•
S. 20 nothing in this section shall be deemed to deprive an employer of
the employer’s freedom to express views so long as the employer does not use
coercion, intimidation, threats, promises or undue influence
-
For example, employer could outline that only guarantee from union is that
the employee will have to pay mandatory fee (Rand), there is no guarantee an
increase in wages, etc.
•
S. 16 following certification the union shall give written notice to the
employer of its desire to bargain with a view to making a collective agreement
•
Ontario Bill 257: made it illegal to hire replacement workers
•
Human Relations: managerial view grounded in the belief that effective
management practices would minimize conflict between employers and
employees
•
Strategic Choice Framework (Kochan, Katz, &McKersie (1986)
•
Emphasizes role of management; transformation of Industrial Relations
•
Trends noted: large drop in unionization density; movement to south, plant
closures in the north, “non-union” system replacing collective bargaining, antiunion activity
•
Strategic Choice Framework
•
IR decision made at three levels: business (strategic), collective
bargaining (firm level where CA are negotiated & implemented, and workplace
(level where front line management deals with workplace issues); (individual is
not a level where IR decisions are made)
•
Effective Strategies require 3 levels to operate together
•
Parties face a number of choices
•
1990’s saw a significant increase in back-to-work legislation
61
Labour Boards
•
Neutral: serve vital function = provide alternative to courts (faster,
cheaper, greater expertise in labour relations)
•
Tripartite: management, labour, and government stakeholders;
o
Labour board activities: certification/decertification cases, unfair labour
practices, declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts
Recognition Process
•
Bargaining Unit: community of interest must exist (could argue this
condition hasn’t been met); excludes management
•
Unfair Labour Practice: alleged violation of provincial labour relations act
•
Duty of Fair Representation: represent all equally, bargain in good faith,
make serious attempt to reach settlement
The Labour Market: Supply & Demand
•
Non-union firms: labour market forces determine employee compensation
and conditions
•
Supply
o
Inelastic supply = steeper the supply curve, the higher the wages
o
Elastic supply = flat = small wage increase will increase labour supply
•
Demand
o
Inelasticity of demand = steep = small increase in quantity demanded will
result in big increase in wage rate
o
Elastic demand = flat = small increase in quantity demand will have little
impact on wage rate
o
Shape of the demand curve is important b/c influences union’s ability to
raise wages without significantly affecting employment levels = wageemployment trade-off
Labour Power and Marshall’s Condition
•
Substitution Effect: easier to substitute capital for labour, the less power
labour will have to raise wages; substitute factors give firms more power
•
Labour Intensity: degree to which labour costs account for production
costs
•
Demand is more elastic and union have more power when: harder to
substitute labour for capital, labour costs are small % of total costs, market for
substitutes is less competitive, product markets are less competitive
62
•
Unions also derive power from forged alliances with community groups
•
Monopsony: firm mis sole buyer of labour so if wage setter
Human Resource Management (HRM): relationship between employer and
individual employees
•
Organization Justice: employees perception of fair treatment at work
•
Distributive Justice: employee’s perception of fairness in the outcomes of
workplace decisions
•
Procedural Justice: employees perception of fairness in workplace
procedures
Labour Relations is divided into 3 distinct areas:
1.
Certification: union getting into the workplace; worker right to bank
together, to bargain and strike
Involves union organizing and company trying to stop the union from organizing
Certification means that union has been granted the exclusive right to bargain for
the group of employees.
Labour Relations Act grants certification to trade union and legally obligates
employer to bargain with the union.
•
Bargaining Unit: historically the union, the unionized workers
•
Trade Union: an outside organization acting as the bargaining agent for
the bargaining unit
2.
Negotiation of the Collective Agreement
3.
Fighting over the Collective Agreement & Interpreting the meaning of the
clauses negotiated
Management Strategies Related to Unions
•
Union Acceptance: seek to negotiate best deal
•
Union Resistance: seeks to limit spread, normally oppose union drives,
negotiate in non-confrontational way
•
Union Removal: management seeks to eliminate unions wherever they
exist; engage in extensive campaigns to discourage
•
Union Substitution: establish own forms of representation for employees
that make union redundant
o
Some argue that progressive HRM practices represent a union
substitution management strategy
63
Non-Standard work arrangements differ from the norm in terms of employment
term, location, schedule, hours of work, and/or pay.
A professional association is an example of non-union representation
High performance work practices can be clustered into the following groups:
employee skills & abilities, motivation, work design (not employee involvement)
Negotiations:
•
an important assumption in industrial relations is that conflict of interest
exists between managers and employees
•
bilateral (2 parties) or multilateral
•
collective bargaining can touch on all 3 types of issues: adversarial
(win/lose), mutual gain (win/win) or both
Sub-processes of Collective Bargaining
•
Distributive bargaining: pie is fixed; adversarial/competitive; distribution of
fixed resource; zero sum game; develop a bottom line (minimum position
necessary to avoid strike/lockout)
Examples: wages, benefits, overtime rates, vacations, holidays
Tactics: disguise own bottom line while trying to discover that of the other party;
control over communication (1 spokesperson)
•
Integrative bargaining: potential for a solution that produces a mutual gain;
refers to process, as well as issues
Examples: health & safety, rest breaks
Tactics: share info, many voices / joint committee structures, array of solutions,
focus on real cases & defined remedies
•
Hybrid
Examples: pensions, plant closure/severance, technological change
•
Intra-team/intra-organizational bargaining: bargaining within teams during
the collective bargaining process (e.g. shift workers or women)
Tactics: use the team caucus to resolve differences;
•
Attitudinal structuring: building mutual respect and trust (e.g. use
permanent joint committee)
Tactics: away-from-the-table meetings
Collective Bargaining Model
•
Contract Zone: exists if each side’s bottom line overlaps
•
Hick’s model = economic explanation of collective bargaining outcomes;
64
assumes disputes are over monetary issues
•
Employee estimates cost of strike per worked as $0.50 / hour (Total
losses in pay less strike pay and convert to hourly rate)
Union bottom line is $10 - $0.50 = $9.50
•
Management estimates losses from strike converted to $0.40 / hour
Management bottom line is $10 + 0.40 = $10.40 highest offer to avoid strike /
highest cost package
•
When able to negotiate – supports existence of contract zone
•
Triangle of pressures:
o
Employer pressures: potential loss of sales/revenue/profits/market share
o
Union pressures: strike fund, settlements of rival unions, psychological
stress
•
Bargaining steps:
1.
Preparation
2.
Union or management serves notice to bargain (triggers renewal of
collective agreement; otherwise, auto-renewal)
3.
Parties meet
4.
Each party communicates priorities
5.
Momentum builds for a settlement
6.
Contract zone is reached
7.
Settlement or impasse?
8.
Ratification: by secret ballot; process by which parties approve settlement
•
Strategies:
o
Bundle & use leverage on other issues
o
Start with easy issues to build positive momentum and avoid premature
impasse
•
Interest Based Bargaining (IBB): integrative; cooperative; + sum game;
principles, collaborative; win/win;
Steps: identify problem; search for alternative solutions; systematically compare
alternatives
Requires: trust, free exchanges of information; problem-solving approach
•
Role of Collective Agreement: outlines terms & conditions; establish clear
65
rules and procedures governing workplace practices and relationship between
parties
•
CA Layout:
o
cover page,
o
table of contents,
o
articles
o
clauses: rights of parties; organization of work; labour relations processes
(grievance procedure, arbitration, joint committees), education, training &
development; conditions of work: termination, layoff, recall; corrective action
(progressive discipline): verbal warning ->written warning -> suspension ->
discharge
o
appendices/schedules
o
letters of understanding
•
Management residual rights: retain all rights held before unionization;
except those changed by the agreement
•
Rights of Parties
o
Employee:
-
equity clause references legislation;
-
explicit reference specifies which groups are covered;
-
same-sex benefits issue
•
Special Issues in collective bargaining:
o
Bumping: senior employees pass on their layoff notice to more junior
employees
o
Super Seniority: union representatives in office & other offices have
highest seniority in bargaining unit
o
Pyramiding: idea of compounding of premiums or benefits (overtime,
holiday overtime, shift premium)
•
Grievances: a formal complaint that a specific clause in the CA has been
violated
•
Types: individual, group, union or policy (initiated by union leadership)
(e.g. employer policy re absenteeism introduced by management)
•
Procedure: 3 parties (employee, union, management), plus other parties
at later stages, union usually takes charge and leads through steps; HRM or IR
66
department involved early on in grievance b/c need consistent interpretation of
agreement
•
Unions have “carriage rights”: the union carries employees employment
contract. The union decides whether to pursue your grievance and not you. For
employees who disagree with union’s decision not to pursue their grievance, they
can pursue a Duty of Fair Representation (DFR). Fair = do not act arbitrarily,
capriciously or in bad faith. The group interests come first, not the individual
interests.
•
If unionized employee is not part of the union, must still pay union dues,
so distinction is meaningless. The union must still respond to grievances,
employee can vote on matters. Employees not part of the union, would not get
strike pay.
•
For each case provide: Issue, Rule (from CA), Analysis, Conclusion
•
Grievance Stages:
o
Informal: try to resolve with immediate supervisor
o
Formal Step 1: employee with union shop steward will bring grievance to
immediate supervisor; supervisor investigates & provides reply to union within
specific time period.
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 2: next level of management and union
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 3: next level of management and union
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 4: move to third party resolutions / interventions
•
Arbitration types:
o
Rights (or grievance) arbitration
-
Conventional Tripartite Arbitration: 3 member board & neutral chairperson
-
Sole Arbitration: neutral chair only
-
Expedited Arbitration: luck of draw; no choice or input
-
3 types: individual, group, policy grievances
-
Problems with Grievance Arbitration: Long delay, costly, “outsider” factor,
increasingly legalistic
o
Interest arbitration (e.g. in public interest as substitute for strike); resolves
disagreement during bargaining; alternative to prohibited strike/ conventional
67
interest arbitration
-
Final Offer Arbitration / Select (FOS): both sides present their final offers
to the arbitrator and they choose one or the other, no middle ground; relatively
rare
-
First Agreement (First Contract) Arbitration
•
Arbitration is deemed quasi-judicial process: decision is final and binding
(whereas court decisions can be challenged)
•
Decision is based on probable cause / balance of probabilities (no
reasonable doubt premise in labour law – only in criminal law)
o
Standard of proof on the balance of probabilities
o
Onus/burden of proof is carried by the grieving party (existence of CLA,
fact of employment, the act of discipline
o
Then reverse onus: once the griever has established the prima facie case,
onus then shifts to the employer to prove use cause for discipline or discharge
o
If employer satisfactorily demonstrates, then onus shifts to griever to raise
a defense or establish mitigating circumstances
•
Jurisprudence means past decisions in a legal context
•
Arbitration awards do not serve as binding precedents
•
Mitigating factors are argued by the union to reduce a sanction (lessen
penalty) (union show inconsistent application of rules; employer show
premeditated / not spontaneous)
•
Discharge: involuntary termination of employment; when employee work
record indicates no longer fit for employment; little likelihood of rehabilitation, and
earlier corrective actions have failed (see importance of progressive discipline
here)
•
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR): resolves disputes without going to
court; voluntary non-binding process; neutral third party
Defining Industrial Disputes:
•
Strike: work stoppage invoked by union
•
Lockout: work stoppage invoked by management
•
Work to rule: employees perform only to minimum standard required
•
Wildcat strikes: illegal strike during the term of the CA
Strike Statistics: total number, frequency; number of workers involved; person
days not worked; % of working time lost
68
•
6.9M days in 1980 ->1.3M days in 2001
•
Trends by region: ON, BC, QC are more strike prone vs PEI & Territories
•
Trends by industry: manufacturing & public sector have higher strike rates
vs tourism, finance, real estate & management services
•
Trends internationally: overall drop over past 5 years; Iceland has highest
level, Canada has second highest level of strike activity (6X higher than USA);
however, standards for reporting vary by country
Theories, Causes & Impacts:
•
Kramer &Hyclak (2002) 3 common theories:
o
Accident or Hick’s theory: errors @ bargaining table; accidents; not
rational; unexpected
o
Total joint costs: when cost of strike is low for both parties; when cost of
settling is high compared to cost of striking; differences in cost of strike to one
party relative to the other shifts bargaining power
o
Asymmetric information: use deceptive tactics; call the other side’s bluff;
gather more information about other party’s claims (unless bluffing, strike will be
short b/c cost of strike higher than settling); but not always economic issues
•
Causes:
o
Catalysts: trigger event (e.g. announcement of layoffs)
o
Insulated and Homogeneous Groups: group experiences collective
struggle; sociological perspective
o
Management indifference or unresolved grievances
o
Frustration-aggression
o
Economic factors: strikes more common when economy is booming
and/or firm has backlog of orders
o
Intra-organizational factors: if high conflict within 1 side, can’t agree with
other actor
•
Impacts:
o
Economic: value of firm (e.g. reduce revenue), employee finances (strike
pay is small)
o
Worker Well-Being (relationships, rapport, commitment)
Differences in HRM practices between Union vs Non-Union Firms:
•
Non-union = master servant; union with unilateral power
•
Shock effect: shock management into stricter HRM practices
69
•
Differing preferences of union vs non-union employees (what looking for in
CA is different)
•
Exit-voice theory: greater collective voice mechanisms in unionized
workplaces provides voice to influence change
Impact of Unions on Management Practices:
1.
Staffing:
a.
Recruitment: how post; unionized firms focus on internal recruitment;
closed-loop clauses; preference for seniority
b.
Selection: unionized firms have more formal, documented promotion
criteria; internal and seniority-based hiring and promotion; more probationary
period especially because need just case to terminate once employed
c.
Deselection/Termination: layoffs are unique to unionized firms; just cause
required to terminated a union worker; unionized employees have right of recall
d.
Staffing Flexibility: limited in unionized firms; less able to contract out and
move job duties
2.
Training & Development: more opportunities; keep current because hard
to terminate
3.
Performance Appraisal: less likely in unionized firm b/c governed by other
elements of CA
4.
Job Evaluation & Job Analysis: unionized as likely as non-union firms to
use formal job evaluation systems; unionized less likely to use subjective
rankings
5.
Total Compensation
a.
Base pay: about 5% higher in unionized firms for same jobs
•
Spillover effect: increase in union wages, results in reduced demand for
union labour, results in higher supply for non-union labour and reduction in
wages in non-union sector
•
Threat effect: non-union employers increase wages to avoid unionization
•
Freemand & Medoff (1984): monopoly effect = higher wages = reduced
employment levels from impact of collective voice
b.
Performance pay: less likely in unionized firms; labour doesn’t want to pit
employees against one another; where exists is group based (profit sharing, gain
sharing)
c.
Indirect pay / benefits (e.g., pension): 20-40% greater access in unionized
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firms
6.
Equality and Safety: better in unionized firms b/c of CA
Impact of Unions on Firm Efficiency:
•
Economic Theory: unions have a negative impact; constrain firm flexibility,
increase wages above competitive level and encourage adversarial relationship
•
Collective Voice Theory: unions have a positive impact due to improved
communication between management and employees (lower quit rates and
absenteeism); grievance procedure leads to positive work environment; shock
effective results in stringent hiring practices
Impact of Unions on Employee Measures:
•
Intention to quit: lower in unionized firm because seniority is important;
less likely to leave higher pay & benefits, high voice options and due process
provisions
•
Organizational commitment: union provides higher attachment
•
Satisfaction: lower overall job satisfaction for unionized workers related to
job content, promotion opportunities, relationship with supervisor, resource to
perform job (jobs are tightly defined)
•
Union Satisfaction (shorter term measure than union commitment)
•
Union Commitment: positive relationship with organization commitment –
dual commitment
•
Desire to leave union: increases with firm size or dissatisfaction with pay
b/c hierarchy
•
Work climate: good
Public Sector Labour Relations Management:
•
Dual role of government: umpire and employer
•
Imperfect labour market (monopoly/monopsony)
•
Politics & public opinion
•
Probability of freely negotiated settlement declines by 2/3 in the round of
bargaining following back-to-work legislation; 2 sides know government will make
hard decisions so no reason to do themselves
•
Union power – Marshall’s conditions re public sector:
•
Demand is not affected by cost or price (favors labour)
•
Labour is not easily substituted (favors labour))
•
Supply of substitutes is inelastic – no difference
71
•
Labour is a small proportion of total costs (favors public employers)
•
Essential services: inconsistent between provinces or within educational
levels
Recent developments in dispute resolution:
•
Unfettered Strike Model: works best when services are not essential b/c
otherwise union has too much power; without procedure to determine essential
services invites back-to-work legislation
•
Designation Model: parties negotiate to determine essential services
before bargaining starts (ON) or at the point of impasse (QC); neutral tribunals
are available to adjudicate disputes that arise from these negotiations
•
No strike (Interest Arbitration) model: right to strike is substituted with
interest arbitration (final & binding 3rd party), declining in popularity in CDA
Problems with Interest Arbitration:
•
Chilling Effect: lack of flexibility caused by the parties’ fear a concession
made in negotiations will reduce the arbitration outcome; split difference so don’t
change
•
Narcotic or Dependency Effect: parties may lose ability to freely negotiate
settlements without third party assistance
•
final offer arbitration (modification to Interest Arbitration) designed to
reduce these effects
•
Impact on wage outcomes: upward wage bias
•
Loss of Control: especially budgetary (Adal et al)
•
Innovations
Management Issues
•
Restructuring
•
New Public Management: how bring private sector practices into public
sector
•
Implications:
o
Restraint policies applied to direct employees of the government and to
services like schools, hospitals
o
Policies vary according to the managerial or unionizing status of
employees
-
Management: downsized and downgraded
-
Unionized Employees: concessions via adversarial bargaining; legislated
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wage cuts / joint solutions
Union Issues
•
Privatization: most successful rejection strategy associated with these
proposals were suggesting alternatives
Globalization
•
Markets promote efficiency through competition, but do not necessarily
ensure that the benefits of increased efficiency are shared by all
•
A new political economy: a new mode of capitalism has emerged that
requires new modes of labour market regulation
1.
Free Market Globalization: markets will dictate labour conditions and
constrain government regulation in the absence of regulations, minimum wage
laws, wages & conditions will be pushed to a race for the bottom
2.
Institutional Globalization: national institutions (Employment Standards
Agency, Human Rights) mediate between market pressures and society
3.
Integration of Free Market & Institutional Globalization: combo of 1 & 2;
decentralization of bargaining, greater management power, decrease in strikes
•
NAFTA (1994) included a labour side agreement
•
Important question is the extent to which freedom of association and
collective bargaining will be protected under globalization
Union Responses to Globalization:
•
Global unions
•
Corporate Codes of Conduct: non-binding standards
•
Global Union Federations (GUF)
•
Weaknesses found in corporate codes: seen as rich country protectionism
•
Labour Rights Campaigns: shift from multinational to transnational
•
International Framework Agreements (IFA)
•
Single Union Global Agreements
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Total Rewards
The Pay Model
Compensation – Refers to all the forms of financial returns and tangible services
and benefits that employees received as part of an employment relationship
(cash compensation, incentives, benefits)
Relational Returns – psychological returns employees believe they receive in the
workplace (recognition, status, employment security, learning opportunities)
Merit Increases – increment to base pay in recognition of past work behaviour
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Cost of Living Adjustment – Percentage increment to base pay provided to all
employees regardless of performance
Implicit Contract – An unwritten understanding between employers and
employees about their reciprocal obligations and returns.
A Pay Model:
1)
Strategic compensation objectives
a.
Efficiency
i.
Performance
ii.
Quality
iii.
Customers and Stockholders
iv.
Costs
b.
Fairness
c.
Compliance
2)
Strategic policies that form the foundation of the compensation system
a.
Alignment
b.
Competitiveness
c.
Contributors
d.
Management
3)
Techniques of compensation
a.
Alignment
i.
Work analysis
ii.
Descriptions
iii.
Evaluations/Certification
iv.
Internal Structure
b.
Competitiveness
i.
Market Definitions
ii.
Surveys
iii.
Policy Lines
iv.
Pay Structure
c.
Contributors
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i.
Seniority based
ii.
Performance base
iii.
Merit Guidelines
iv.
Incentive Programs
d.
Management
i.
Costs
ii.
Communications
iii.
Change
iv.
Evaluation
Developing a Total Compensation Strategy
Step 1: Assess Total Comp Implications
-
Competitive Dynamics
-
Core Culture/Values
-
Social and Political Context
-
Employee/Union Needs
-
Other HR Systems
Step 2: Map a Total Comp Strategy
-
Objectives
-
Alignment
-
Competitiveness
-
Contributions
-
Management
Step 3: Implement Strategy
-
Design System to Translate Strategy into Action
-
Choose Techniques to Fit Strategy
Step 4: Reassess the Fit
-
Realign as Conditions Change
-
Realign as Strategy Changes
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Part 1 – Internal Alignment: Determining the Structure
The Pay Model:
Internal Alignment
-
The pay relationships between the job/skills/competencies within a single
organization
Distributive Justice
-
Perceived fairness of pay or other work outcomes received
Levels
-
One feature of any pay structure is its hierarchical nature – the number of
levels and reporting relationships. Because pay structures typically reflect the
flow of work in the organization, some are more hierarchical with multiple levels,
others are compressed with few levels.
Differentials
-
Pay differences between job levels
Gini Coefficient
-
Statistic that varies between zero and one, increasing with the magnitude
of pay differentials between job levels
Criteria
Content and Value – Content refers to the work performed in a job and
how it gets done (tasks, behaviour, knowledge required, etc.). Value refers to the
work of the work (its relative contribution to the organization objectives.
Job – and Person-Based Structures – Job-based structure looks at work
content (tasks, behaviours, responsibilities). Person-based structures shift the
focus to the employee (skills, knowledge or competencies the employee
possesses.
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Government Policies, Laws and Regulations
-
Human rights legislation forbids pay systems that orientation, discriminate
on the basis of gender, race, religion, sexual orientation, national origin, etc.
-
Pay equity – equal pay for work of equal value based on skill, effort,
responsibility, and working conditions.
-
An internal structure may contain any number of levels, with differentials
of any size, as long as the criteria for setting them do not include gender, race,
religion, or national origin
-
Much pay-related legislation attempts to regulate economic forces to
achieve social welfare objectives. For example, minimum wage legislation and
maximums such as special reporting requirements for executive pay. But
legislation also aims at the differentials
-
Most countries have various legal standards regulating pay structures.
Whatever they are, organizations operating within these countries must abide by
them.
Organizations Human Capital – the education, experience, knowledge, abilities
and skills that people possess is regarded as a major influence on internal
structures
Strategic Choices in designing internal structures
1.
Tailored Structure – pay structure for well-defined jobs with relatively small
differences in pay
2.
Loosely Coupled Structure – pay structure for jobs that are flexible,
adaptable, and changing
Job Evaluation:
78
Determining the Internal Job Structure:
Job Analysis Terminology:
79
Evaluating the Work: Job Evaluation
Job Structure – hierarchy of all the jobs based on value to the organization;
provides the basis for the pay structure
Job Evaluation – the process of systematically determining the relative worth of
jobs to create a job structure for the organization. The evaluation is based on a
combination of job content, skills required, value to the organization, org culture,
and external market.
Some major decisions in job evaluation:
-
Establish purpose of evaluation
-
Decide whether to sue single or multiple plans
-
Choose among alternative approaches
-
Obtain involvement of relevant stakeholders
-
Evaluate plan’s usefulness
Benchmark Jobs
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-
A job whose contents are well-known, relatively stable, and common
across different employers
Person-Based Pay Structures - Link pay to the depth of breadth of the skills,
abilities, and knowledge a person acquires that are relevant to the work
Skills analysis – a systematic process to identify and collect information about
skills required to perform work in an organization
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Determining the Internal Competency-based Structure:
Part 2: External Competitiveness: Determining the Pay Level
Labour Market Factors:
-
Economist describe two basic types of markets:
1.
Quoted Price Market – prices are specifically indicated
2.
Bourse Market – Prices are subject to barter or negotiation
-
In both the bourse and the quoted market, employers are the buyers and
the potential employees are the sellers.
-
If the inducements (total comp) offered by the employer and the skills
offered by the employee are mutually acceptable, a deal is struck.
Designing Pay Levels, Mix and Pay Structures
Design the Survey:
-
Consulting firms offer a wide choice of ongoing surveys covering almost
every job family and industry group imaginable
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-
Designing a survey requires answering the following questions:
1.
Who should be involved in the survey design?
2.
How many employers should be included?
3.
Which jobs should be included?
4.
What information should be collected?
Employee Benefits
Benefits Planning and Design Issues:
-
The benefits planning process must address the vital question: “What is
the role of benefits in a total compensation package?”
-
The planning process should include strategies to ensure external
competitiveness and adequacy of benefits
-
Competitiveness requires an understanding of what other firms in your
product and labour market offer as benefits
-
Value in conducting benefit surveys
-
There is a relationship between adequacy and cost-effectiveness
-
More organizations need to consider whether employee benefits are cost
justified
Financing Benefits Plans
-
The final administrative issue involves the question of financing benefits
plans. Alternatives include:
1.
Noncontributory (employer pays total costs)
2.
Contributory (costs shared between employer and employee)
3.
Employee financed (employee pays total costs for some benefits, e.g.,
long-term disability)
Legal Requirements
-
Employers want benefits packages that complies with all aspects of the
law
-
Example – vesting of pension plans which occurs when employees
become entitled to the employer-paid portion of pension benefits upon
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termination of employment, is required by law after no more than 2 years of
employment
Administering the Benefits Program
Employee Benefits Communication:
-
Benefits admin involves
1.
Communicating the benefits program
2.
Claims processing
3.
Cost containment
Benefit Communication:
-
The most frequent method of communicating employee benefits is the
employee benefits handbook (includes description, levels of coverage, eligibility
requirements)
-
Failure to understand benefits components and their value is still one of
the root causes of employee dissatisfaction with a benefits package
-
Effective communication must have:
1.
Must clearly spell out its benefit objectives and ensure that any
communications achieve these objectives
2.
Match the message with the appropriate medium
3.
The content of the communications package must be complete, clear and
free of the complex jargon which so readily invades benefits discussions.
Workers’ Compensation – a mandatory, government-sponsored, employer-paid,
no-fault insurance plan that provides compensation for injuries and diseases that
arise out of, and while in the course of, employment.
Pension Legislation – Plans covering employees in more than one jurisdiction
must comply with the legal requirements of the jurisdiction of registration, but
must also apply the rules of each other jurisdiction for employee working in that
jurisdictions.
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Part 3: Employee Contributions: Determining Individual Pay
Motivation
(1)
What’s important to a person, and (2) offering it in exchange for some (3)
desired behaviours
85
The Role of Government and Unions in Compensation
Government as Part of the Employment Relationship:
-
Governments’ usual interests are whether procedures for determining pay
are fair (e.g. pay equity)
-
Safety nets for the unemployed and disadvantaged are sufficient (e.g.
minimum wage, unemployment comp)
-
Employees are protected from exploitation (e.g. overtime pay, child
labour)
-
Individuals, employers and government are key parties in pay decisions
-
Government policy decisions also affect comp by affecting the supply and
demand
-
Supply – legislation aimed at protecting specific groups also tends to
restrict that group’s participations in the labour market
-
Demand – Government affects demand for labour most directly as a major
86
employer (increased business activity, due to lower interest rates) translates into
increased demand for labour and upward pressure on wages.
Employment Standards Act
-
Outlines the minimum terms and conditions of employment (includes, min
wage, paid vacations, paid holidays, OT pay, equal pay for equal work, min age
of employment, etc.)
Communication: Managing the Message
-
Pay sends a powerful message about what matters, therefore, managing
that message is important
-
Pay systems must be fair
-
This is achieved through formal communication
-
Defining the objectives of the communication plan is key
-
There is evidence to suggest that the goodwill engendered by the act of
being open about pay may affect employees’ attitudes toward pay
-
The research also shows that employees in companies with open pay
communication policies are as inaccurate in estimating pay differentials as those
in companies in which pay secrecy prevails
-
However, employees under open pay policies tend to express higher
satisfaction with their pay and with the pay system
Controls as Guidelines:
-
Balance between strict controls and chaos is required to ensure that pay
decisions are directed at the organization’s goals, yet permit sufficient flexibility
for manager and employees to respond to unique situations.
-
Achieving the balance become part of the art of managing compensation
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Learning and Development
Training vs Development
Training: acquiring of knowledge, skills and abilities to enhance performance in a
current position or assignment
Development: gaining of knowledge, skills and abilities that are mandatory to
perform future responsibilities
ADDIE Model
ADDIE is an instructional systems design (ISD) framework that many
instructional designers and training developers use to develop courses.[1] The
name is an acronym for the five phases it defines for building training and
performance support tools:
Analysis
Design
Development
Implementation
Evaluation
Most current ISD models are variations of the ADDIE process. Other models
include the Dick and Carey and Kemp ISD models. Rapid prototyping is another
common alternative.
Instructional theories are important in instructional materials design. These
include behaviorism, constructivism, social learning, and cognitivism.
88
ADDIE Phases
Analysis phase
The analysis phase clarifies the instructional problems and objectives, and
identifies the learning environment and learner's existing knowledge and skills.
Questions the analysis phase addresses include:
Who are the learners and what are their characteristics?
What is the desired new behavior?
What types of learning constraints exist?
What are the delivery options?
What are the pedagogical considerations?
What adult learning theory considerations apply?
What is the timeline for project completion?
The process of asking these questions is often part of a need’s analysis. During
the needs analysis instructional designers (IDs) will determine constraints and
resources in order to fine tune their plan of action.
Design phase
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The design phase deals with learning objectives, assessment instruments,
exercises, content, subject matter analysis, lesson planning, and media
selection. The design phase should be systematic and specific. Systematic
means a logical, orderly method that identifies, develops, and evaluates a set of
planned strategies for attaining project goals. Specific means the team must
execute each element of the instructional design plan with attention to detail. The
design phase may involve writing a design document/design proposal or concept
and structure note to aid final development.
Development phase
In the development phase, instructional designers and developers create and
assemble content assets described in the design phase. If e-learning is involved,
programmers develop or integrate technologies. Designers create storyboards.
Testers debug materials and procedures. The team reviews and revises the
project according to feedback.
Implementation phase
The implementation phase develops procedures for training facilitators and
learners. Training facilitators cover the course curriculum, learning outcomes,
method of delivery, and testing procedures. Preparation for learners includes
training them on new tools (software or hardware) and student registration.
Implementation includes evaluation of the design.
Evaluation phase
The evaluation phase consists of two aspects: formative and summative.
Formative evaluation is present in each stage of the ADDIE process, while
summative evaluation is conducted on finished instructional programs or
products. Donald Kirkpatrick's Four Levels of Learning Evaluation are often
utilized during this phase of the ADDIE process.
Knowledge Types
Knowledge is information that is meaningful in cognitive forms such as
understanding, awareness and ability. It is typically acquired by experience,
information consumption, experimentation and thought processes such as
imagination and critical thinking. Knowledge comes in several varieties and
types:
Explicit Knowledge
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Knowledge that can be articulated in a natural language such as French or
Japanese.
Tacit Knowledge
A general term for knowledge that is difficult to explain, articulate or acquire such
as mastering chess or the piano. Also associated with a sense of innate ability or
unique set of experiences that allows a select few individuals to achieve mastery
of a particular skill.
Learning Organization
In business management, a learning organization is a company that facilitates
the learning of its members and continuously transforms itself. Learning
organizations develop as a result of the pressures facing modern organizations
and enables them to remain competitive in the business environment
Intellectual Capital
Intellectual capital is the intangible value of a business. This includes anything
that isn't physical that adds to the productive capacity of a firm. The following are
the primary types of intellectual capital.
Human Capital
The knowledge, know-how, abilities and creativity of employees. In many cases,
people don't like to be referred to as "capital." Terms such as talent or human
resources are common alternatives.
Structural Capital
Intangible elements of a firm's organizational culture, business processes and
ability to innovate. This includes documents, media, processes, systems,
applications, data, intellectual property and trade secrets.
Relational Capital
A firm's relationship with the outside world including investors, customers,
employees, partners, regulators, communities and other stakeholders. This can
include both informal relationships such as business contacts and formal
contracts.
Knowledge Interpretation and Dissemination
Gathering data from direct and indirect sources:
observations
questionnaires
interviews
91
experiments
another research
Processing data for interpretation numerically and or verbally:
HR Metrics




employee sampling
statistics
themes or perspectives
Dissemination of findings
written reports
presentations
Employee meetings / town halls
Information communication technology (ICT)
Knowledge Retention
Knowledge Sharing Systems support the process through which explicit or tacit
knowledge is communicated to other individuals. These systems are also
referred to as knowledge repositories.
The two types of explicit knowledge sharing systems most widely discussed in
the KM literature are:
lessons learned and
expertise locator systems.
Systems that support tacit knowledge sharing are those typically utilized by
communities of practice.
Corporate Memory (also known as an organizational memory) is made up of the
aggregate intellectual assets of an organization.
It is the combination of both explicit and tacit knowledge. The loss of Corporate
Memory often results from a lack of appropriate technologies for the organization
and exchange of documents. Another contributing factor to the loss of corporate
memory is the departure of employees because of either turnover or retirement.
KM is concerned with developing applications that will prevent the loss of
corporate memory.
Knowledge sharing systems are classified according to their attributes
Incident report databases
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Incident report databases are used to disseminate information related to
incidents or malfunctions. Incident reports typically describe the incident together
with explanations of the incident, although they may not suggest any
recommendations.
Alert systems
Alert systems were originally intended to disseminate information about a
negative experience that has occurred or is expected to occur. Alert systems
could be used to report problems experienced with technology, such as an alert
system that issues recalls for consumer products.
Best practices databases
Best practices databases describe successful efforts, typically from the
reengineering of business processes that could be applicable to organizational
processes. Best practices differ from lessons learned in that they capture only
successful events, which may not be derived from experience.
Lessons-learned systems
The goal of lessons-learned systems is to capture and provide lessons that can
benefit employees who encounter situations that closely resemble a previous
experience in a similar situation. LLS could be pure repositories of lessons or be
sometimes intermixed with other sources of information.
Expertise locator systems
Expertise-Locator Systems are knowledge repositories that attempt to organize
knowledge by identifying experts who possess specific knowledge. Expertise
locator systems are also known as expert directories, expertise directories, skill
directories, skills catalogues, white pages or yellow pages.
Off the Job Learning Methods
On the job training methods have their own limitations, and in order to have the
overall development of employee’s off-the-job training can also be imparted. The
methods of training which are adopted for the development of employees away
from the field of the job are known as off-the-job methods.
The following are some of the off-the-job techniques:
1. Case study method:
93
Usually, case study deals with any problem confronted by a business which can
be solved by an employee. The trainee is given an opportunity to analyze the
case and come out with all possible solutions. This method can enhance analytic
and critical thinking of an employee.
2. Incident method:
Incidents are prepared on the basis of actual situations which happened in
different organizations and each employee in the training group is asked to make
decisions as if it is a real-life situation. Later on, the entire group discusses the
incident and takes decisions related to the incident on the basis of individual and
group decisions.
3. Role play:
In this case also a problem situation is simulated asking the employee to assume
the role of a particular person in the situation. The participant interacts with other
participants assuming different roles. The whole play will be recorded and trainee
gets an opportunity to examine their own performance.
4. In-basket method:
The employees are given information about an imaginary company, its activi-ties
and products, HR employed and all data related to the firm. The trainee
(employee under training) has to make notes, delegate tasks and prepare
schedules within a specified time. This can develop situational judgments and
quick decision-making skills of employees.
5. Business games:
According to this method the trainees are divided into groups and each group
has to discuss about various activities and functions of an imaginary
organization. They will discuss and decide about various subjects like production,
promotion, pricing etc. This gives result in co-operative decision-making process.
6. Grid training:
It is a continuous and phased program lasting for six years. It includes phases of
planning development, implementation and evaluation. The grid takes into
consideration parameters like concern for people and concern for people.
7. Lectures:
This will be a suitable method when the numbers of trainees are quite large.
Lectures can be very much helpful in explaining the concepts and principles very
clearly, and face to face interaction is very much possible.
8. Simulation:
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Under this method an imaginary situation is created and trainees are asked to
act on it. For e.g., assuming the role of a marketing manager solving the
marketing problems or creating a new strategy etc.
9. Management education:
At present universities and management institutes gives great emphasis on
management education. For e.g., Mumbai University has started bachelors and
postgraduate degree in Management. Many management Institutes provide not
only degrees but also hands-on experience having collaboration with business
concerns.
10. Conferences:
A meeting of several people to discuss any subject is called conference. Each
par-ticipant contributes by analyzing and discussing various issues related to the
topic. Everyone can express their own viewpoint.
On the Job Learning Methods
1. Job rotation:
This training method involves movement of trainee from one job to another gain
knowledge and experience from different job assignments. This method helps
the trainee under-stand the problems of other employees.
2. Coaching:
Under this method, the trainee is placed under a particular supervisor who
functions as a coach in training and provides feedback to the trainee. Sometimes
the trainee may not get an opportunity to express his ideas.
3. Job instructions:
Also known as step-by-step training in which the trainer explains the way of
doing the jobs to the trainee and in case of mistakes, corrects the trainee.
4. Committee assignments:
A group of trainees are asked to solve a given organizational problem by
discussing the problem. This helps to improve team work.
5. Internship training:
95
Under this method, instructions through theoretical and practical aspects are
provided to the trainees. Usually, students from the engineering and commerce
colleges receive this type of training for a small stipend.
Coaching and Mentoring
Making the Distinction
Traditionally, mentors are chosen within a company to help employees learn the
ropes. In the entrepreneurial world, mentors act as advisers, compensated or
not.
Mentors are successful people who share their hard-won wisdom to provide
insight and guidance as an entrepreneur encounters challenges along her
journey. They typically function in a reactive capacity, responding to issues as
they arise. Mentors may not have expertise in the mentee’s field, but they
understand how to navigate business in general.
Coaches, on the other hand, often have expertise in the same field as the people
they’re helping. They’re usually trained and certified as coaches, possessing
strong process management skills.
96
Coaching
Mentoring
Coaching revolves more around specific
development areas/issues
Mentoring revolves more around
developing the mentee professional's
career
The agenda is focused on achieving
specific, immediate goals
Agenda is set by the mentee, with the
mentor providing support and guidance
to prepare them for future roles
Focus is generally on
development/issues at work
Focus is on career and personal
development
Coaching is generally not performed on
the basis that the coach needs to have
direct experience of their client’s formal
occupational role, unless the coaching is
specific and skills-focused
Mentor is usually more experienced
and qualified than the ‘mentee’. Often a
senior person in the organization who
can pass on knowledge, experience
and open doors to otherwise out-ofreach opportunities
Short-term (sometimes time-bounded)
and focused on specific development
areas/issues
More long-term and takes a broader
view of the person
Generally, more structured in nature and Can be more informal and meetings
meetings are scheduled on a regular
can take place as and when the
basis
mentee needs some advice, guidance
or support
Relationship generally has a set
duration
Ongoing relationship that can last for a
long period of time
Lesson Plans
The quality of lesson plans will determine how efficiently training time is used and
how much content employees can learn. The main thing is to make sure they
contain the main elements of the lesson. They’re meant to guide your instruction
so you can maximize classroom time.
97
What Are the Components of an Effective Lesson Plan?
1. Materials
2. Spelled out and clear objectives
3. Background information
4. Direct instruction
5. Student practice
6. Closure
7. Demonstration of learning
Transfer of Training Principles*
Citation Schunk, D. (2004). Learning theories: An educational perspective (4th
ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ, USA: Pearson, p. 220, ISBN 0130384968.
Near
Overlap between situations, original and transfer contexts are similar.
Far
Little overlap between situations, original and transfer settings are dissimilar.
Positive
What is learned in one context enhances learning in a different setting.
Negative
What is learned in one context hinders or delays learning in a different setting.
Vertical
Knowledge of a previous topic is essential to acquire new knowledge.
Horizontal
Knowledge of a previous topic is not essential but helpful to learn a new topic.
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Literal
Intact knowledge transfers to new task.
Figural
Use some aspect of general knowledge to think or learn about a problem.
Low Road
Transfer of well-established skills in almost automatic fashion.
High Road
Transfer involves abstraction so conscious formulations of connections between
contexts.
Kirkpatrick’s Hierarchical Model of Evaluation 14
The Four Levels
●
●
●
●
Reaction
Learning
Behavior
Results
Level 1: Reaction
This level measures how your trainees (the people being trained), reacted to the
training. Obviously, you want them to feel that the training was a valuable
experience, and you want them to feel good about the instructor, the topic, the
material, its presentation, and the venue.
It's important to measure reaction, because it helps you understand how well the
training was received by your audience. It also helps you improve the training for
future trainees, including identifying important areas or topics that are missing
from the training.
Level 2: Learning
At level 2, you measure what your trainees have learned. How much has their
knowledge increased as a result of the training?
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When you planned the training session, you hopefully started with a list of
specific learning objectives: these should be the starting point for your
measurement. Keep in mind that you can measure learning in different ways
depending on these objectives, and depending on whether you're interested in
changes to knowledge, skills, or attitude.
It's important to measure this, because knowing what your trainees are learning
and what they aren't will help you improve future training.
Level 3: Behavior
At this level, you evaluate how far your trainees have changed their behavior,
based on the training they received. Specifically, this looks at how trainees apply
the information.
It's important to realize that behavior can only change if conditions are favorable.
For instance, imagine you've skipped measurement at the first two Kirkpatrick
levels and, when looking at your group's behavior, you determine that no
behavior change has taken place. Therefore, you assume that your trainees
haven't learned anything and that the training was ineffective.
However, just because behavior hasn't changed, it doesn't mean that trainees
haven't learned anything. Perhaps their boss won't let them apply new
knowledge. Or, maybe they've learned everything you taught, but they have no
desire to apply the knowledge themselves.
Level 4: Results
At this level, you analyze the final results of your training. This includes outcomes
that you or your organization have determined to be good for business, good for
the employees, or good for the bottom line.
Return on Investment Employee Learning
Using a formula for measuring training ROI:
ROI (%) = ((Financial benefits – Training Cost)/Training Cost) x 100
To get the numbers for the ROI, keep count of learning program costs, including
the cost of development and creation, promotion and delivery (associates or
tech), materials and facilities, wages, and training evaluation
Management Development Methods
These methods can be used:
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·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
The coaching method
Job rotation
Special projects
Case studies
Business games
Simulation
Conferences
Lectures, and
Syndicate method
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Health, Wellness and Safe Workplace
Occupational Health & Safety OHS Common Terms
Hazard
Any situation with the potential to cause injury or illness.
You may have a hazard to do with:
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
machinery
equipment
raw materials
workplace
other workers
your job
poor housekeeping
Risk
The likelihood that exposure to a hazard will result in injury or disease.
Risk Assessment
Once a hazard is identified, an examination of the risks associated with it is done
to determine the likelihood of injury or illness being caused by the hazard.
Risk Control
Taking action to eliminate or reduce the likelihood that exposure to a hazard will
result in injury or disease.
Workplace Inspections
Planned systematic appraisals of the workplace to identify hazards, assess and
control risks, and to ensure a safe and healthy workplace complying with OHS
legislation.
Incidents
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Occurrences that result in death, injury or illness.
Dangerous Occurrences
Where there is a potential to cause death, injury or illness.
Accidents
any unwanted event that causes harm to people, property, or processes
Workers 3 Basic Rights
Employees have the following three basic rights:
1.
Right to refuse unsafe work.
2.
Right to participate in the workplace health and safety activities through the
Health and Safety Committee (HSC) or as a worker health and safety
representative.
3.
Right to know, or the right to be informed about, actual and potential dangers
in the workplace.
Employer’s Responsibilities
The manager or supervisor must:
Make sure workers work in compliance with OH&S acts and regulations.
Make sure that workers use prescribed protective equipment devices.
Advise workers of potential and actual hazards.
Provide workers with written instructions as to the measures and procedures to
be taken for protection of the worker.
Take every reasonable precaution in the circumstances for the protection of
workers.
Managers and supervisors act on behalf of the employer, and hence have the
responsibility to meet the duties of the employer as specified in the Act for the
work they (the managers and supervisors) direct.
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Employee’s Responsibilities
Employee’s responsibilities include the following:
● Work in compliance with OH&S acts and regulations.
● Use personal protective equipment and clothing as directed by the
employer.
● Report workplace hazards and dangers to the supervisor or employer.
● Work in a safe manner as required by the employer and use the
prescribed safety equipment.
● Tell the supervisor or employer about any missing or defective equipment
or protective device that may be dangerous.
Joint Health & Safety Committees
https://www.ontario.ca/page/guide-health-and-safety-committees-andrepresentatives
What is a joint health and safety committee?
A joint health and safety committee (JHSC) is composed of worker and employer
representatives. Together, they should be mutually committed to improving
health and safety conditions in the workplace. Committees identify potential
health and safety issues and bring them to the employer's attention and must be
kept informed of health and safety developments in the workplace by the
employer. As well, a designated worker member of the committee inspects the
workplace at least once a month.
When Can a Worker Refuse Work?
The right to refuse unsafe work is one of the three basic health and safety rights
achieved by the labour movement, along with the right to know about the
hazards in the workplace, and the right to participate in workplace health and
safety decisions. And while procedures and circumstances around the right to
refuse may vary from province to province, just about all workers have the legal
right to a healthy and safe workplace that allows (and in some provinces
obligates) them to protect their own safety by refusing to perform work that they
believe has the potential to harm themselves or others at the worksite.
Exercising the right to refuse typically involves setting in motion a series of steps
to resolve the unsafe or dangerous situation. While these steps vary slightly by
jurisdiction, the following is a typical work refusal procedure:
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Workers must report to their supervisor that they are refusing to perform work
because they believe it is unsafe, and state why they believe the situation is
unsafe if the situation isn’t immediately corrected, the worker, supervisor, and a
JHSC member or worker representative investigates
the worker can resume their work if the unsafe condition is resolved with mutual
agreement if the condition is not resolved, a government health and safety
inspector is called to investigate and provide a decision in writing no other worker
should be assigned to do the work unless they have been informed of the work
refusal and the reasons for the refusal
WHMIS
WHMIS stands for Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System. It is a
nationwide system to provide information on hazardous materials used in the
workplace. WHMIS affects workers, employers, suppliers, and regulators.
WHAT IS THE OBJECTIVE OF WHMIS?
The objective of WHMIS is to reduce the risk of illness or injury to employees,
employers, or visitors in the Workplace resulting from the use of controlled
products.
COMPONENTS OF WHMIS
There are three key components to WHMIS:
1. Worker Education and Training
Worker education programs provide instruction on the hazards of hazardous
materials in the workplace and training in understanding and using WHMIS
information.
2. Labels
Labels must be placed on all containers of hazardous materials to alert
employees and workers to the dangers of the product and basic safety
precautions.
3. Material Safety Data Sheets
Provide detailed health and safety information on a product
WHMIS Label Classes
The Eight (8) WHMIS hazard classes are
A: Compressed Gas
Contents of the container are under pressure - anything done to weaken the
structure of the container could result in an explosion or a dramatic release of
pressure.
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B: Flammable/Combustible
"Flammable / Combustible" materials are solids, liquids or gases that will ignite
and continue to burn if exposed to a flame or source of ignition.
C: Oxidizing Materials
Produce oxygen or another oxidizing substance, which can cause or contribute
to combustion of other substances.
D: Poisonous / Infectious
Further separated into three categories D1 / D2 /D3.
D1: Immediate and serious toxic effects
The effects of Class D1 materials are very harmful based on short-term
exposures.
D2: Other Toxic Effects
Produce many different toxic effects.
D3: Biohazard Infectious Materials
Any organism, or the toxins produced by these organisms, that have been shown
or are believed to be a biological hazard in either humans or animals.
E: Corrosive
Cause decomposition of other materials (e.g., metals) or damage tissue.
F: Reactive
React with other substances to produce a wide range of negative reactions.
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheets
Minimum standard:
1. Product information
2. Hazardous ingredients list
3. Physical data
4. Fire and explosion information
5. Reactivity information
6. Toxicological data
7. Preventive measures to
8. First aid measures
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9. Preparation information
Hazard Identification Factors
–Human
–Environmental
–Situational
–Ergonomic
Hazard Identification Methods
What are workplace hazards?
Simply put, workplace hazards are any aspect of work that cause health and
safety risks and have the potential to harm.
Some hazards are more likely to be present in some workplaces than others, and
depending on the work that you do, there will be hazards that are more or less
relevant to your business.
What are the most common workplace hazards?
There are many types of workplace hazards, which tend to come under four main
categories:
physical hazards – the most common workplace hazards, including vibration,
noise and slips, trips and falls;
ergonomic hazards – physical factors that harm the musculoskeletal system,
such as repetitive movement, manual handling and poor body positioning;
chemical hazards – any hazardous substance that can cause harm to your
employees;
biological hazards – bacteria and viruses that can cause health effects, such as
hepatitis, HIV/AIDS and Legionnaires disease.
Common health risks
Some of the most common health risks associated with workplace hazards
include:
breathing problems;
skin irritation;
damage to muscles, bones and joints;
hearing damage; reduced wellbeing.
How to prevent workplace hazards
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The best way to protect yourself and your employees from workplace hazards is
to identify and manage them and take reasonable steps to prevent their potential
to harm.
In order to control workplace hazards and eliminate or reduce the risk, you
should take the following steps:
identify the hazard by carrying out a workplace risk assessment;
determine how employees might be at risk;
evaluate the risks;
record and review hazards at least annually, or earlier if something changes.
Consequences, Exposure & Probability (CEP) Risk Assessment Model
The CEP model is a ‘quick and dirty’ Risk Assessment process that can be easily
used in the field
Risk (R) = Consequences x Probability x Exposure or R = C x P x E
Identify specific hazards and assign them a value for each element below.
The higher the number, the greater the Consequences, Probability or Exposure.
Consequences: Scored 1 to 5. Describes the potential loss or consequence or a
mishap. Protective devices or procedures, engineering controls, and PPE are
used to mitigate Consequences.
Should something go wrong, the results are likely to be found in the following
areas:
Injury, occupational illness or death, Property damage or loss, Mission
degradation,
Reduced morale, Adverse publicity, Administrative and/or disciplinary actions
1=none or slight 2=Minimal 3=Significant 4=Major 5=Catastrophic
Probability: Scored 1 to 5. The likelihood that given the Exposure, the projected
consequences will occur. Training, situational awareness, morale and attitude
change are used to mitigate
Probability.
1=Impossible or remote under normal conditions 2=Unlikely under normal
conditions
3=50/50 chance 4=Greater than 50% chance 5=Very likely
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Exposure: Scored 1 to 4. The amount of time, number of cycles, number of
people and resources(equipment) involved.
1=None or below average 2=Average 3=Above average 4=Great
Compute the value of Risk (R = C x E x P) to evaluate the effectiveness of
mission and risk of execution. Values in the Substantial to Very High range need
to be controlled.
Values Risk Level Action
80-100 Very High Discontinue/STOP
60-79 High Immediate Correction
40-59 Substantial Correction Required
20-39 Possible Attention Needed
1-19 Slight Possibly Acceptable
Compute the Risk Value for each hazard identified. Focus attention from highest
values down.
Hazard Control
•Precontact
–addressing any problems, concerns or issues before an incident or accident
happens
•Contact
–discovering ways in which a dangerous situation is prevented from becoming
more dangerous and harming staff
•Post contact
–making available medical and cleanup process and making sure that the event
can’t reoccur
WSIB Work Well Program
http://www.wsib.on.ca/WSIBPortal/faces/WSIBArticlePage?fGUID=83550210063
5000376&_afrLoop=881292056818000&_afrWindowMode=0&_afrWindowId=null
#%40%3F_afrWindowId%3Dnull%26_afrLoop%3D881292056818000%26_afrWi
ndowMode%3D0%26fGUID%3D835502100635000376%26_adf.ctrlstate%3Dcxpojck67_4
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Work well
Our Work well program looks at the health and safety and return-to-work
performance of your workplace to see if we feel you would benefit from our
support. We provide this service because we want to work together with you to
make your workplace one of the safest and healthiest in the province.
Benefits of Work well
Applying health and safety and disability management best practices is worth it,
regardless of the size or type of your business. The time, energy and resources
you put toward having a good health and safety management system and returnto-work program are much less than the costs of accident recovery and the
related effects on your business (i.e., customer service, resource replacement,
WSIB premium costs, reduced production, quality, etc.).
Employers who take part in our program and make improvements to their
workplace health and safety management systems and return-to-work programs
have fewer injuries, illnesses and reduced lost time. These things all lead to
customer service continuity, improved production and better quality, less
downtime, improved employee morale and greater profit.
Also, employers with better injury and lost-time experience records are eligible
for rebates and decreased premiums through their experience rating program
(NEER, MAP, or CAD-7).
How the program works
We review different statistics to find the workplaces who may need support
because they have more frequent lost-time injuries and workers who are off for
longer periods than average. If your workplace is selected for a Work well
Assessment, we will offer this service to you in writing.
Here’s what you can expect:
The Work well Evaluator will contact you to make an appointment for a visit.
Together you will review and discuss your injury/illness and return-to-work
statistics over the last three years.
To do your assessment, we’ll:
Look at your health and safety and return-to-work program documentation (e.g.,
policies, procedures and records);
Watch your workplace’s practices and procedures in action;
Tour your workplace; and Interview staff and management.
Next, we'll work with you to identify priorities that could have immediate effects
based on what we find and develop an implementation plan to help you make
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improvements to your return-to-work program and overall health and safety
management system.
We’ll continue to offer post-implementation support.
We’ll provide you with recommendations for valuable health and safety and
return-to-work resources.
Workplace Violence
Type I: Criminal intent. In this kind of violent incident, the perpetrator has no
legitimate relationship to the business or its employee(s). Rather, the violence is
incidental to another crime, such as robbery, shoplifting, or trespassing. Acts of
terrorism also fall into this category.
Type II: Customer/client. When the violent person has a legitimate relationship
with the business—for example, the person is a customer, client, patient,
student, or inmate—and becomes violent while being served by the business,
violence falls into this category.
Type III: Worker-on-worker. The perpetrator of Type III violence is an employee
or past employee of the business who attacks or threatens other employee(s) or
past employee(s) in the workplace. Worker-on-worker fatalities accounted for
approximately 15 percent of all workplace homicides in 2014.
Type IV: Personal relationship. The perpetrator usually does not have a
relationship with the business but has a personal relationship with the intended
victim. This category includes victims of domestic violence who are assaulted or
threatened while at work and accounted for about 7 percent of all workplace
homicides in 2014.
Workplace Violence Prevention
·
Start a mediation program to resolve employee disputes rather than letting
them simmer.
·
Document any threats and your response to them including terminating
employees who make a threat.
·
Terminate employees with care and caution by involving witnesses or
security for violent employees.
·
Evaluate security systems regularly including alarms, ID keys, passcodes,
cameras and personnel.
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·
Workplace violence policy and prevention program and communicate it to
staff
·
Have leaders take an active role in employee awareness of the plan; make
sure they are alert to warning signs and know how to respond.
·
Provide regular workplace violence and bullying prevention training for all
employees (both new and current), supervisors and managers.
·
Foster a climate of trust and respect among workers and between
employees and management; eradicate a bad culture of bullying or harassment.
·
Look out for and stake steps to reduce negativity and stress in the
workplace, which can precipitate problematic behavior.
·
Identify and screen out potentially violent individuals before hiring while
maintaining compliance with privacy protections and antidiscrimination laws.
·
Establish procedures and avenues for employees to report threats, other
violence or if there’s imminent danger.
The Importance of Training
It’s not enough to have a plan. You must communicate that plan and each of
these strategies to your employees.
Sexual Harassment as a Health & Safety Issue
How Sexual Harassment Affects Employees
When an employee is being subjected to sexual harassment, the workplace
becomes a hostile environment, with the constant threat of physical and/or
emotional harm. This can lead to severe distress for victims, with individuals at
risk of developing mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, PTSD or
panic attacks, as well as the physical symptoms that accompany these disorders.
Low productivity, motivation and morale levels, or high rates of sick leave or
absenteeism, may also be signs that an employee is suffering from some form of
harassment. As well as causing direct and immediate suffering for individuals,
sexual harassment can interfere with work performance, career progression and
even result in people being forced out of their job and income completely.
How Sexual Harassment Impacts Organizations
A workplace environment that fails to properly address the issue of sexual
harassment will be at risk of developing signs of a negative work culture – low
morale, discontent employees and high levels of absenteeism will soon be
reflected in lower productivity and profits.
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Financially, companies can expect to face higher rates of staff turnover, with the
added strains of hiring and training new staff, as well as the expense of sexual
harassment law suits. A sexual harassment law suit will cost your company
significant amounts of money, in addition to damaging your reputation and brand
name
Must haves:
Explicit company policy forbidding sexual harassment and the presence of
procedures for reporting misconduct may or may not be sufficient to offset liability
–employers will be pressured to take a more active role in maintaining a
harassment-free work environment
–employers will feel greater discomfort with intimate relationships that develop
between supervisors and their subordinates because of the legal implications
•may motivate employers to discourage such office relationships
–employers’ intentions to have effective sexual harassment policies are
insufficient
•to avoid liability, the policies must be functional and must work as well in
practice as they do in theory
Emergency Preparedness Cycle
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Human Resources Metrics, Reporting and
Financial Management
The Relationship between Human Resources, Finance & technology
Labour cost per FTE = labour cost
FTE
Labour cost revenue percent = labour costs
revenue
Costs of benefits as a percentage of total labour costs = benefit costs
labour costs
Return on investment = benefit – cost
cost
Information technology encompasses all of the hardware and software, including
networking and communications technologies. The benefits are:
 Operational – processes are more efficient
 Rational – people are more connected
 Transformational – the way work is done has changed
HRIS enables better access and analysis of workforce information that is secure
and confidential.
Federal and provincial legislation regulate employee information in the following
ways:
 What is collected
 How it is stored
 Who has access?
 How long it is retained
o Ontario Ministry of Labour requires an organization to keep an
employee’s name, address, and employment start date for 3 years
following the termination date
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o Canada Revenue Agency requires that payroll date be kept for a
period of 6 years following the employee’s first tax year with the
employer
T YPES AND USES OF HR METRICS
2 categories of HR metrics:
 Human capital metrics – describe characteristics of the workforce (such as
education level, experience, skills inventories, performance scores, tenure
or service)
 HR metrics – describe the efficiency and effectiveness of HR programs;
look at impact, speed and cost
HR audit – a review of HR policies, programs, processes and documentation to
identify opportunities to improve efficiency, effectiveness, customer satisfaction
and legal compliance
Types of metrics:


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Efficiency metrics – assess whether things are being done ‘right’; focus on
doing things right
Effectiveness metrics – assess whether the ‘right’ things are being done;
focus on doing the right things
Operational metrics – assess the efficiency and effectiveness of programs
and services to its stakeholders; short-term impact
Strategic metrics – assess the linkage between HR programs and
services and the organization’s strategic goals; long-term impact
5C model of HRM impact:
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Compliance
Client satisfaction (clients include employees, managers, customers)
Culture management
Cost control
Contribution (to the overall effectiveness of the organization)
Metrics are used to:
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Establish base lines – to compare current practice with past practice
Conduct benchmarking – to compare current practice with best practices
or practices outside the organization
Track trends – including economic, demographic, or workforce trends
Justify strategic decisions regarding talent management
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
Measure the impact of HR on the organization’s bottom line
Service Profit Chain:
Engaged employees  engaged customers sustained profit and growth
Metrics enable HR to:
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Speak the language of business
Put forward convincing business cases
Report empirical evidence
Ultimately become a strategic business partner
HR dashboard – a tool that visually displays important HR metrics
Productivity metrics:
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Absenteeism measures - # of workdays missed due to illness per full time
equivalent (FTE)
Absenteeism = sick days
FTE
Overtime measures – average # of overtime hours worked by each
individual contributor
Overtime =
overtime hour_________
individual contributor headcount
Human capital return on investment – rate of return for each dollar
invested in employee pay and benefits
Human capital ROI = (revenue – operating costs)
total FTE
Compensation metrics:

Compa-ratio for an individual – show where an individual’s current salary
is compared to the midpoint of the salary band; is typically between 80%
and 120% which is 0.8 and 1.2
Compa-ratio =
individual’s salary___
midpoint of salary band
Recruitment metrics:


Vacancy rate - the percent of positions being actively recruited for
Vacancy rate = # vacant positions
headcount
External hire rate = __# external hires__
# all positions filled
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
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Average time to fill a position when hiring externally = sum of all external
days to fill
# external recruits

Cost of eternal hires = total external hiring costs
# external recruits

Quality of external hires by source = average performance ratings of new recruits
after 3 months from each hiring
Recruitment and selection costs:
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Advertising
Screening
Interviewing
Orientation
Training
Learning curve
Retention metrics:
 Turnover = (resignations + retirements + involuntary terminations)
headcount
 Executive voluntary turnover rate = (executive resignations + executive
retirements)
executive headcount

Succession planning rate = # of succession planning candidates
executive level headcount
Labour relations metrics:
 Grievance incidence = # of open grievances
unionized headcount

Percent of grievances closed = # of grievances closed
# of open grievances

Arbitrated grievance rate = # of grievances gone to arbitration
# of open grievances
Learning and development metrics

Cost per FTE = learning and development cost
FTE

Cost as a percent of revenue = learning and development cost
Revenue
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
Cost as a percent of payroll = learning and development cost
labour costs

Incidence = # of learning and development events
FTE

Duration = # of learning and development hours
FTE

Participation = # employees attending learning and development
# of all employees
The Research Process
Why is research, measurement and evaluation important?
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Organizations are facing unprecedented challenges
They need strategies that align with their culture and business priorities
HR needs to be able to propose evidence-based solutions that can be
measured for effectiveness
HR can become a strategic partner when it can quantify the impact of
strategies on the organization’s success
The research process is used to predict and measure the value of an initiative.
Why is it difficult to measure the value of an HR program?
1. HR initiatives do not occur in a vacuum (there are multiple other factors
that may alter the outcomes)
2. HR initiatives are mostly “qualitative” as opposed to “quantitative”
3. HR professionals are too busy to conduct research or are unaware of how
to do so
Steps in the research process
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Dependent variable – what you are trying to impact / measure
Independent variable – the variable that has an impact on the dependent variable
Research Design
4 common research designs are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Surveys
Experimental
Qualitative
Existing research
Surveys are used to assess change or create change. They are used to:
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Pinpoint areas of concern
Observe long-term trends
Monitor program impact
Provide input for decisions
Communicate
Perform organization behaviour research
Assist with change and improvement
Show care and interest in employees
Important considerations when conducting surveys include:
 Population sample
 Survey questions
 Data collection method
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Data coding
Data analysis
Report format
Feedback mechanism to stakeholders
Sampling involves deciding who and how many people should participate. Types
of sampling include:



Random sampling – a group of employees chosen at random from the
whole organization or population
Stratified sampling – a group of employees who represent the
organization in some way (i.e., gender, department, location); ensures fair
and equal representation as the whole organization
Sampling error – sample is insufficient to reflect the entire population
Types of questions:

Structured questions

o Easy to analyze
o Limited in scope
o No room for interpretation
Open ended questions
o Difficult to analyze
o Not restrictive in scope
o More subjective
Questions should:
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
Be simply worded
Be applicable to all potential
Respondents
Not be leading or loaded
Have a single focus
When using structure questions, it is common to use a Likert Scale (ex. strongly
agree, agree, neutral, disagree, and strongly disagree).
Questions should be designed to avoid:

Acquiescence response styles
o When a person proves a positive response to every question
o To avoid, word some questions positively and some negatively in
order to change the scale

Social desirability
o When a person gives the answer, they think you want to hear
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o To avoid, use a forced choice behaviorally anchored check-list
Methods for survey distribution include:

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Hard-copy mail
E-mail
Over the internet
Automated telephone
Important survey distribution considerations include:
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Whether the survey will be anonymous or confidential
The timing and logistics of distribution and collection
The ease of response
Cost of implementation
The purpose of experimental design is to find relationship between one or more
variables.
Experimental research is conducted in:


A laboratory – where other variables are controlled
The field – like a workplace where other variables can affect the outcome
of the research
Experimental research designs include:
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Pre-test only designs
Pre-test/post-test designs
Pre-test, control group, post-test designs
Qualitative research mainly involves observation and interviews such as:

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One-on-one interviews
Group interviews
Focus group interviews designed to gather feedback
Debriefing interviews
Reviewing existing research provides a wealth of knowledge and information for
developing HR strategies based on past practice and best practices.
Developing Research Measures
Criterion measures – ensure we are measuring what is important (i.e., how the
competencies related to a job when conducting interview assessments)
Criterion relevance – ensures the criteria are relevant to what we are trying to
predict (i.e., all the right competencies are assessed)
121
Criterion deficiency – occurs when we haven’t assessed all the necessary criteria
(i.e., an important competency is missing from our assessment)
Criterion contamination – occurs when we measure things that are irrelevant
4 types of measurement scales:
1. Nominal scales – a list of variables that have no “value” (e.g., department
name)
2. Ordinal scales – a list of variables that have an order (e.g., what
employees like best or least or what they want the most)
3. Interval scales – a scale that tells us the mathematical difference between
two responses (e.g., Likert scale)
4. Ratio scales – show the relationship between two variables (e.g., sales
per employee)
Statistics
Validity – ensures the measure is accurately assessing what is supposed to
measure
Reliability – ensures the consistency of the measure
Types of validity includes:
1. Content validity – ensures the measure accurately measures what it is
supposed to measure
2. Criterion-related validity – ensures that what is being measured is relevant
3. Predictive validity – ensures that the measure can predict the dependent
variable
4. Construct validity – measures abstract constructs such as IQ and
personality type
5. Concurrent validity – when it can be shown
Types of reliability include:
1. Test-retest reliability – when the same person achieves the same score
when tested twice using the same test
2. Split-half reliability/internal consistency reliability – when the score a
person achieves on one-half of the test is the same as the score, they
receive on the other half of the test
3. Inter-rater reliability – ensures reliability across raters
Measures of central tendency
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Mean (also known as an average)
Mode – the response given by most people; most frequent
Median – the middle response (also known as the 50th percentile)
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Measures of variability -standard deviation is the metric for illustrating the degree
of difference in responses
Measures of association
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Correlations show the relationship between two variables
Expressed as a decimal number; positive perfect correlation is 1, negative
perfect correlation is -1
Regression Analysis
 Uses correlations to predict an outcome
 Most often used in job evaluation to predict job value in terms of a
competitive market salary
Analytical Tools
Types of tools:
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Affinity diagrams/mind maps – enable us to look at groups of related
issues as a whole
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Cause and effect diagrams/fish bone diagrams – are used to identify a
problem, sorting causes into 4 categories (machinery, methods, materials,
people)
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Gantt charts – chart activities against dates
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Critical path – the minimum time between start and finish of a project
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Delphi technique – brainstorming using a questionnaire (continuously
send back to the group for feedback)
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Nominal group technique – when voting follows a brainstorming activity
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SWOT analysis – examining strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or
threats to an organization
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Utility analysis – assessing the dollar value of an initiative in terms of
increased productivity or performance
Human Resources Audits5
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Concept of Human Resource Audit
The word “audit” comes from the Latin verb audire , which means, to listen.
Listening implies an attempt to know the state of the affairs as they exist and as
they are expected/ promised to exist. Auditing as a formal process is rooted in
this feature of listening. Consequently, it is a diagnostic tool to gauge not only the
current status of things but also the gaps between the current status and the
desired status in the area that is being audited.
Auditing has been a routine exercise in the area of finance, especially because it
is a statutory obligation. However, in case of Human Resource, there is no legal
binding to adopt auditing. Some of the companies nevertheless prefer to have
Human Resource audits.
Like any audit, the Human Resource Audit is also a systematic formal process,
which is designed to examine the strategies, policies, procedures,
documentation, structure, systems and practices with respect to the
organization’s human resource management. It systematically and scientifically
assesses the strengths, limitations, and developmental needs of the existing
human resources from the larger point of view of enhancing organizational
performance.
The human resource audit is based on the premise that human resource
processes are dynamic and must continually be redirected and revitalized to
remain responsive to the ever-changing needs. Human Resource Audits are not
routine practices aimed at problem solving. Instead of directly solving problems,
HR audits, like financial audits, help in providing insights into possible causes for
current and future problems.
The findings of these audits aid decision making in the organization and are
usually internal documents that need not necessarily be shared with the public.
Moreover, unlike Financial Audits that are routine, regulated and standardized,
Human Resource Audits are non-routine and may be designed to cater to the
unique needs of the organization at a particular point in time. These are in fact,
studies of an unusual nature. The manner in which the Audit is conducted could
vary from self-directed surveys to interventions by outside consultants.
An HR Audit is like an annual health check-up, it plays a vital role in instilling a
sense of confidence in the Management and the HR functions of an organization.
HR Audit Definition:
Human Resource Audit means the systematic verification of job analysis and
design, recruitment and selection, orientation and placement, training and
development, performance appraisal and job evaluation, employee and
executive remuneration, motivation and morale, participative management,
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communication, welfare and social security, safety and health, industrial
relations, trade unionism, and disputes and their resolution. HR audit is very
much useful to achieve the organizational goal and also is a vital tool which helps
to assess the effectiveness of HR functions of an organization.
An HR audit also goes beyond looking at the hiring process into areas like
employee retention, budgeting, training, employee compensation,
management/employee relations and virtually any process or practice within the
company that affects its people.
A periodic Human Resource audit can qualify its effectiveness within an
organization. Human Resource audits may accomplish a variety of objectives,
such as ensuring legal compliance; helping maintain or improve a competitive
advantage; establishing efficient documentation and technology practices; and
identifying strengths and weaknesses in training, communications and other
employment practices.
Human Resource auditing is something that many companies do annually, just
as they audit their financial information. This gives them an accounting of their
workforce and the efficiency with which the organization as an entity deals with
its people, from recruiting to firing. Human Resource auditing can be likened to a
person going to the doctor for a general check-up to stay well. The process
allows a company to get a general idea of where it stands so it can better correct
any potential problems and plan for the future.
When it comes to physical health, prevention of problems is far better than
waiting until a problem arises and trying to cure it. The same holds true for
human resources auditing. Preventing problems is much easier than trying to fix
them after the fact. Good Human Resource planning and auditing can help
prevent those problems, and save companies money and difficulties.
Human Resource Accounting benefits the company ascertain how much
Investment it has made on its Employees and how much return it can expect
from this Investment.
What is Human Resource Auditing?
The American Accounting Association’s Committee on Human Resource
Accounting (1973) has defined Human Resource Accounting as
“the process of identifying and measuring data about human resources and
communicating this information to interested parties”.
HRA, thus, not only involves measurement of all the costs/ investments
associated with the recruitment, placement, training and development of
employees, but also the quantification of the economic value of the people in an
organization.
Flamholtz (1971) too has offered a similar definition for HRA. They define HRA
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as “the measurement and reporting of the cost and value of people in
organizational resources”.
Who should conduct the audit?
The team that is responsible for the audit should represent a cross-section of the
organization’s staff, including line staff, middle and upper management, and
those responsible for HR functions.
Need and Purpose of Human Resource Auditing
The commonly understood audits are the established and regular accounting
audits carried out in accordance with specific statutory regulations. However, in
the case of human resource audits, there is no legal obligation, but enlightened
managements have voluntarily accepted its usefulness depending upon the
circumstances. The following circumstances may be cited as examples:
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felt concern by top management,
compulsions of the external forces necessitating a situational audit,
business changing significantly influenced by international business
decisions affecting human resource management, and
an urge on the part of human resource management professionals
towards advancement of the practices and systems.
It is necessary to take a look at these and other questions. Human Resource
audit is highly useful for the purpose
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Does the organization regularly forecast the supply of and demand for
employees in various categories?
Do job analyses exist for all positions in the organization?
Are all potential sources of recruitment identified and evaluated?
Are measurable selection criteria developed and used while filling up
jobs?
Do effective training and development programs exist?
Is there a performance evaluation system that helps assess past and
potential performance?
Is the remuneration program designed to motivate employees?
Is the plant unionized?
Does a grievance procedure exist?
Does the organization have high quality of work life?
Does the HRM practice contribute to organizational effectiveness?
Does the management underestimate the capacity of HRM to contribute to
organizational effectiveness?
Approaches to Human Resources Audit
The following approaches are adopted for purpose of evaluation:
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Comparative approach
Outside authority approach
Statistical approach
Compliance approach
Management by objectives (MBO) approach
Comparative approach
In this, the auditors identify Competitor Company as the model. The results of
their organization are compared with that Company/ industry.
Outside authority approach
In this, the auditors use standards set by an outside consultant as benchmark for
comparison of own results.
Statistical approach
In this, Statistical measures are performance is developed considering the
company’s existing information.
Compliance approach
In this, auditors review past actions to calculate whether those activities comply
with legal requirements and industry policies and procedures.
Management by objectives (MBO) approach
This approach creates specific goals, against which performance can be
measured, to arrive at final decision about organization’s actual performance with
the set objectives.
Sample Human Resource Audit question
1. How effective is the selection process in ensuring that people are placed
in appropriate positions? Explain.
2. How effective is the appraisal process in accurately assessing
performance? Explain.
3. How effective are rewards (financial and non-financial) in driving
performance? Explain.
4. How effective are the training, development, and career planning activities
in driving performance? Explain.
5. How effective is the appraisal process in differentiating performance levels
for justifying reward allocation decisions? Explain.
6. How effective is the appraisal process in identifying developmental needs
of individuals to guide training, development, and career planning?
Explain.
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7. How effective are the training, development, and career planning activities
in preparing people for selection and placement into new positions in the
organization? Explain.
8. Overall, how effectively are the five components integrated and mutually
supportive? Explain.
Organization and Structure
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Is there an organizational chart?
Does the chart include both employees’ names and position titles?
Does the chart show reporting relationships?
Is the chart updated as changes occur?
As the needs of the organization change, does its structure change?
HR Department Organization
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Is the department sufficiently staffed for the industry and the size of
organization?
Is the budget in line with other organizations of similar size and industry?
Has the company been involved in any employment lawsuits?
If there have been suits, what were the outcomes?
Is there a job description for each position in the department?
To what position does the top HR position report?
Does the HR Department have a mission statement?
Is the HR mission statement consistent with the vision and mission of the
organization?
Functions of the Human Resource Department
1. For what functions is the HR Department responsible?
Payroll
Benefits
Salary
administration
Recruitment
Training
Labor relations
Safety
Strategic planning
Others
2. Should the HR Department be responsible for all of the functions listed above?
3. Should the HR Department be responsible for functions that are not listed
above?
Human Resources Information Systems5
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An HRIS, the abbreviation for Human Resources Information System, is a
system that lets you keep track of all your employees and information about
them. It is usually done in a database or, more often, in a series of inter-related
databases.
HRIS is the system which seeks to merge the activities associated with human
resource management (HRM) and information technology (IT) into one common
database through the use of enterprise resource planning (ERP) software. The
goal of HRIS is to merge the different parts of human resources, including
payroll, labor productivity, and benefit management into a less capital-intensive
system than the mainframes used to manage activities in the past. Also called
Human Resource Management Systems (HRMS).
Human Resources Information Systems (HRIS) provide software functions,
procedures and processes to manage employees. 2020Software.com ranks the
following HR products as best: Sage ABRAHRMS, PerfectHR, PeopleSoft,
Oracle E-Business Suite HRM, and UltiPro HR. These products are developed
by fiscally stable corporations that provide excellent support and long-term
development strategies.
The HRIS Specialist examines and verifies employee information processed by
automated HR systems. They compile statistical information and prepare reports
relating to payroll, recruiting, position classification, compensation, training, equal
opportunity employment, or affirmative action. They also provide assistance with
HRIS maintenance, troubleshoot user technical problems, and provide training.
Improvements in Technology relating to microcomputers and software have also
had a major impact on the use of information for managing human resources.
Traditionally computers had been used in human resources only for
compensation and benefits-for example, administering payroll. However, new
advances in microchips have made it possible to store large quantities of data on
personnel computers and to perform statistical analyses that were once only
possible with large mainframe computers. A Human Resource Information
System (HRIS) is a system used to acquire, store, manipulate, analyze, retrieve,
and distribute information related to the company’s human resources. From the
manager’s perspective, an HRIS can be used to support strategic decision
making, to avoid litigation, to evaluate programs or policies, or to support daily
operating concerns.
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Definition: A Human Resources Information System, is a system that lets you
keep track of all your employees and information about them. It is usually done in
a database or, more often, in a series of inter-related databases.
These systems include the employee name and contact information and all or
some of the following:
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department,
job title,
grade,
salary,
salary history,
position history,
supervisor,
training completed,
special qualifications,
ethnicity,
date of birth,
disabilities,
veteran’s status,
visa status,
benefits selected,
and more
A computerized HRIS is an information system that makes use of computer and
monitors control and influences the movement of human being from the time they
indicate their intention to join an organization till they separate from it after
joining. It consists of the following sub-system.
Recruitment Information: It includes the placement data bank advertisement
module, general requirement and training requirement data.
Personnel Information: It includes employee information such as transfer
monitoring and increment and promotion details.
Manpower Planning Information: It seeks to provide information that could assist
human resource mobilization, career planning, succession planning and input for
skill development.
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Training Information: It provides information for designing course material,
arrange for need base training and cost analysis of training etc.
Health Information System: This subsystem provides information for
maintenance of health-related activities of the employees.
Appraisal Information: It deals with the performance appraisal and merit rating
information which serves as input for promotion, increment and secession and
career planning etc.
Payroll System: It consists of information concerning wages, salaries incentives,
allowance, perquisite deduction for provident fund etc. Data on compensation
pattern of competitor is also included in it.
Personnel Statistics System: It is a bank of historic and current data used for
various type of analyst.
Typically, the better The Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) provide
overall:
Management of all employee information.
Reporting and analysis of employee information.
Company-related documents such as employee handbooks, emergency
evacuation procedures, and safety guidelines.
Benefits administration including enrollment, status changes, and personal
information updating.
Complete integration with payroll and other company financial software and
accounting systems.
Applicant tracking and resume management.
A human resource Information system can be as large or as small as is
necessary and may contain one or two modules or up-to twenty or so. Hundreds
of HRIS software packages are being marketed for both mainframe and
microcomputers. A great many decisions need to be made in the course of
adopting and implementing an HRIS. The specific needs of the organization
should dictate the type of human resource Information system chosen. Any
project as potentially expensive, complex, and time consuming as the addition or
upgrading of an HRIS requires careful analysis and planning.
The HRIS that most effectively serves companies tracks:
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attendance and paid time off [PTO] use,
pay raises and history,
pay grades and positions held,
performance development plans,
training received,
disciplinary action received,
personal employee information, and occasionally,
management and key employee succession plans,
high potential employee identification, and
applicant tracking, interviewing, and selection.
An effective HRIS provides information on just about anything the company
needs to track and analyze about employees, former employees, and applicants.
Your company will need to select a Human Resources Information System and
customize it to meet your needs.
With an appropriate HRIS, Human Resources staff enables employees to do
their own benefits updates and address changes, thus freeing HR staff for more
strategic functions. Additionally, data necessary for employee management,
knowledge development, career growth and development, and equal treatment is
facilitated. Finally, managers can access the information they need to legally,
ethically, and effectively support the success of their reporting employees.
In adopting a HRIS following issues need to be addressed:
Careful need assessment
What type and size of HRIS should be adopted?
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Whether to develop software or buy and use off the shelf software
Should the HRIS be implemented in total or in stages.
A sound HRIS can offer the following advantages:
Clear definitions of goal.
Reduction in the amount and cost of stored human resource data.
Availability of timely and accurate information about human assets.
Development of performance standard for the human resource division
More meaningful career planning and counselling at all levels.
Individual development through linkage between performance reward and job
training.
High capability to quickly and effectively solve problems.
Implementation of training programs based on knowledge of organizational
needs.
Ability to respond to ever changing statutory and another environment
Status for the human resource functions due to its capability for strategic
planning with the total organization.
Modules in Human Resource Management Systems
1.Payroll Module
Pay process by gathering data on employee:
Time and attendance
Deductions and taxes
Periodic pay checks
Employee tax reports
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2.Time and attendance Module
Standardized time and work-related efforts
Provides flexibility on:
Data collection methods
Labor distribution capabilities
Data analysis features
Cost analysis and efficiency metrics
3.Benefits& Administration Module
Administer and track employee participation in benefits programs
Encompass insurance, compensation, profit sharing and retirement
4.HR Management Module
The system records:
Basic demographic and address data
Selection, training and development
Skills management
Compensation planning records
5.Talent \ Management Systems
Personnel usage within an organization
Identifying potential applicants
Recruiting through:
Company-facing listings
Recruiting sites publications that market to both recruiters and applicants
6.Training Module
Administer employee training and development efforts
Allows HR to track education, qualifications and skills of the employee
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Outlining training courses and materials available to develop skills
7.Employee Self-Service Module
Allows employee to query HR related data
Perform HR transactions over the system (attendance record)
Allows supervisors to approve OT requests from their subordinates
Benefits of Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS)
Become strategic partners with top management
Be more efficient and provide better information for decision making
Increased use of web technology will leave HR for more time for strategic
planning
Enables employees to focus on their administration work
Strategic Architecture enables HR professionals to act as competent manager in
arranging people to their respective positions
Contribute to overall business performance by:
Supporting task of data storage and retrieval
Serving as primary admin support tools
Reporting, statistics and program monitoring
What is the need for HRIS?
Human resource information system refers to the system of gathering,
classifying, processing, recording and dismantling the information required for
efficient and effective management of human resource in an organization. Need
for such a system arises due to several factor.
Organizations that employ a very large number of people, it becomes necessary
to develop employee database for taking personnel issues.
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In a geographically dispersed company, every office requires timely and accurate
information for manpower management. If information is stored in a multiple
location cost and inaccuracy will increase.
Modern day compensation package is complex consisting of many allowance
and deductions etc. A centrally available data can become useful for taking
timely decisions.
Organizations have to comply with several laws of the land. A computerized
information system would store and retrieve data quickly and correctly enabling
the organization to comply with statutory requirements.
With the help of computerization personnel information system, employer record
and file can be integrated and retrieved for cross-referencing and forecasting.
The system should be oriented towards decision making rather than towards
record keeping.
Necessary flexibility for adaptation to changes taking place in the environment
can be built into mechanized information system.
In the field of human resource management, information system has been limited
to payroll preparation, job status and work history report of new hires, termination
and insurance payment. Gradually however progressive companies have started
computerized information system in the area of collective bargaining, employee
manual, training, performance appraisal etc. With sophisticated software,
computer-based information system can be used in almost all the functions of
human resource management.
HRIS software:
Abra Suite: for human resources and payroll management
ABS (Atlas Business Solutions): General Information, Wages information,
emergency information, Reminders, Evaluators, Notes customer information,
Documents and photos, Separation information.
CORT: HRMS: applicant tracking, Attendance tracking and calendars, Wage
information, Skills tracking, Reports-to information, Status tracking, Job history
tracking, Cost center tracking, Reviews and tracking, Mass update and change
tools etc.
HRSOFT: Identify and track senior managers, assess management skills and
talents, generate a wide range of reports, resumes, employee profiles,
replacement tables and succession analysis reports, identify individuals for
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promotion, skills shortages, unexpected vacancy, discover talent deep,
Competency Management, career development, align succession plans etc.
Human Resource Microsystems: sophisticated data collection and reporting,
flexible spending accounts, compensation, employment history, time off, EEO,
qualifications, Applicant/Requisition Tracking, Position Control/Succession
Planning, Training Administration, Organization Charts, HRIS-Pro Net
(employee/managerial self-service), HR Automation (eNotification and
eScheduler), and Performance Pro (performance management)
ORACLE- HRMS: Oracle iRecruitment, Oracle Self-Service Human Resources,
Payroll, HR Intelligence, Oracle Learning Management, Oracle Time and Labor
PEOPLESOFT: Enterprise eRecruit, Enterprise Resume Processing, Enterprise
Services Procurement, Workforce Planning, Warehouse
SAP HR: Human Capital Management (HCM) for Business, All-in-One: Rapid
HR,
SPECTRUM HR: iVantage® and HRVantage®. iVantage is a Web-based HRIS
product designed for organizations with up to 10,000 employees.
VANTAGE: HRA: 'Point-and-Click' report writing, internal Messaging System for
leaving reminders to yourself, to someone else or to everyone using HRA - very
useful for Benefit Applications, Disciplinary Actions, Special Events, Employee
Summary Screen for Basic, leave (Absenteeism) and Salary/Position History,
skills & training module, Leave Tracking Module.
Why to Implement Human Resource Information Software (HRIS) System?
Running a business will generate a lot of information, both related to the
business and related to your employees. You need to be able to harness and
secure this information in a system for a couple of different reasons. First, you
don't want confidential information about your organization or employees getting
into the wrong hands. Additionally, a human resource information software
(HRIS) system is a wise choice because it will reduce the amount of paper
generated, organize your data, streamline processes, and help your company's
bottom line.
So, why is HR information important? Your employees are your biggest assethaving a system in which to contain their private personnel information, safely
and securely is critical. You have worked hard to become an employer of choicedon't ruin that credibility by mishandling confidential information.
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Making a Business Case for the HRIS System
The HRIS system is an investment to an organization. An HRIS system is more
than just a storage and organizational tool to contain confidential information
about your organization's employees. The HRIS system needs to be viewed from
a financial perspective. For instance, an HR manager or department usually has
to justify their expenditures and if HR's functions are not tracked properly, you
could be losing money. These include:
Providing benefits for ineligible employees or their dependents.
Cost of training new employees.
Documenting why people leave the organization because the cost of
terminations is high, and if you can track why people leave, then changes can
ensue.
Not properly recording vacation or sick leave taken. Time and attendance create
a loss of productivity, so having a way to track it to ensure there is not abuse of
the system or employees taking time they don't have will help to reduce the risk
of losing productivity and, ultimately, revenue.
Reduce potential legal expenses in an employee dispute. Accurate and complete
records can help build your case or diffuse a situation before it even gets in the
courts.
Other justifications for a HRIS system can include savings in paper and supply
costs and savings in time spent on human resource tasks. By implementing an
effective HRIS system, the organization is well on their way to increasing
confidentiality of their employees' information.
Critical Analysis
Although almost all HR managers understand the importance of HRIS, the
general perception is that the organization can do without its implantation. Hence
only large companies have started using HRIS to complement its HR activities.
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But HRIS would be very critical for organizations in the near future. This is
because of a number of reasons.
Large amount of data and information to be processed.
Project based work environment.
Employee empowerment.
Increase of knowledge workers & associated information.
Learning organization
The primary reason for delay in HRIS implementation in organizations is because
of the fear psychosis created by "technology" and "IT" in the minds of senior
management. They may not be very tech savvy and fear being left out.
But trends are changing for the better as more and more organizations realize
the importance of IT and technology. Major HRIS providers are concentrating on
the small and middle range organizations as well as large organizations for their
products. They are also coming up with very specific software modules, which
would cater to any of their HR needs. SAP and Peoplesoft provide HR modules
within their business intelligence software. Hence HRIS would soon be an
integral part of HR activities in all organization.
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Human Capital
Any company that wants to achieve great success needs to pay close attention
to human capital management. The employees of a company are the biggest
asset it has and by keeping that asset strong, the company has the best chance
of success. A company that pays little attention to its employees will end up with
a team of employees who are unmotivated and unproductive. Human capital
management can be the difference between a company with a winning team of
employees all pulling together toward a shared goal, and a demoralized group
who are providing little overall value.5
It is important that each and every member of the team is considered as an
individual, each with their own set of strengths and weaknesses. Human capital
management assumes that any lack of knowledge amongst the employees of a
company is purely down to lack of training or teaching, rather than looking upon it
as a fault of an individual or a team.
.
Human capital management provides a strategic approach to managing staff at a
company. It differs from traditional HR practices as it is concerned less with
administrative tasks and procedures and focuses more on getting the most out of
staff for a happy and productive team. Companies who currently do not have any
type of human capital management program in place should think carefully about
implementing one. The employees benefit greatly from human capital
management which in turn means the company benefits greatly too.
The approach to managing and organizing employees through a human capital
management program is done in a number of ways. In essence, the approach
should provide a fully inclusive strategy from even before a new employee is
hired right through to their exit. Another important part of human capital
management is succession planning and talent management. Being able to
identify key members of staff as possible future managers can make the
decision-making process for current senior management more straight forward,
and allow for greater ease with forward planning.
Human Capital Management Defined
Human capital management (HCM) is concerned with obtaining, analyzing and
reporting on data that informs the direction of value-adding people management,
strategic investment and operational decisions at corporate level and at the level
of front-line management. The defining characteristic of HCM is this use of
metrics to guide an approach to managing people that regards them as assets
and emphasizes that competitive advantage is achieved by strategic investments
in those assets through employee engagement and retention, talent
management and learning and development programs.
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The Accounting for People Task Force Report (2003) stated that HCM involves
the systematic analysis, measurement and evaluation of how people policies and
practices create value. The report defined HCM as 'an approach to people
manage-ment that treats it as a high-level strategic issue rather than an
operational matter "to be left to the HR people" '. The Task Force expressed the
view that HCM 'has been under-exploited as a way of gaining competitive edge'.
As John Sunderland, Task Force member and Executive Chairman of Cadbury
Schweppes pic commented: 'An organization's success is the product of its
people's competence. That link between people and performance should be
made visible and available to all stake-holders.'
Nalbantian el al (2004) emphasize the measurement aspect of HCM. They define
human capital as, 'The stock of accumulated knowledge, skills, experience,
creativity and other relevant workforce attributes' and suggest that human capital
management involves 'putting into place the metrics to measure the value of
these attributes and using that knowledge to effectively manage the
organization'. HCM is defined by Kearns (2005b) as the total development of
human potential expressed as organiza-tional value.' He believes that 'HCM is
about creating value through people' and that it is 'a people development
philosophy, but the only development that means anything is that which is
translated into value'.
Human Capital and HR
Human capital is not solely the people in organizations— it is what those people
bring and contribute to organizational success. Human capital is the collective
value of the capabilities, knowledge, skills, life experiences, and motivation of an
organizational workforce.
Sometimes human capital is called intellectual capital to reflect the think-ing,
knowledge, creativity, and decision making that people in organizations
contribute. For example, firms with high intellectual capital may have technical
and research employees who create new biomedical devices, formulate
prod-ucts that can be patented, or develop new software for specialized uses. All
these organizational contributions illustrate the potential value of human capi-tal.
A few years ago, a Nobel prize-winning economist, Gary Becker, expanded the
view of human capital by emphasizing that countries managing human capital
better arc more likely to have better economic results.'
The importance of human capital in organizations can be seen in various ways.
One is sheer costs. In some industries, such as the restaurant industry,
employee-related expenditures may exceed 60% of total operating costs. With
such significant levels comes an increasing need to measure the value of human
capital and how it is changing through HR metrics.
Human Capital Management & Human Resources Management
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In the opinion of Mayo (2001) the essential difference between HCM and HRM is
that the former treats people as assets while the latter treats them as costs.
Kearns (2005b) believes that in HCM 'people are value adders, not overheads'
while in HRM 'people are (treated as) a significant cost and should be managed
accordingly'. According to Kearns, in HRM 'the HR team is seen as a support
service to the line' - HR is based around the function and the HR team performs
'a distinct and separate role from other functions'. Conversely, 'HCM is clearly
seen and respected as an equal business partner at senior levels' and is 'holistic,
organization-wide and systems-based' as well as being strategic and concerned
with adding value.
The claim that in HRM employees are treated as costs is not supported by the
descriptions of the concept of HRM produced by American writers such as Beer
et at (1984). In one of the seminal texts on human resource management, they
emphasized the need for: 'a longer-term perspective in managing people and
consideration of people as potential assets rather than merely a variable cost'.
Fombrun et al (1984), in the other seminal text, quite explicitly presented workers
as a key resource that managers use to achieve competitive advantage for their
companies. Grant (1991) lists the main characteristics of human resources in his
general classification of a firm's potential resources as follows:
The training and expertise of employees determines the skills available to the
firm.
The adaptability of employees determines the strategic flexibility of the firm.
The commitment and loyalty of employees determine the firm's ability to
main-tain competitive advantage.
Cappelli and Singh (1992) propose that competitive advantage arises from firmspecific, valuable resources that are difficult to imitate, and stress 'the role of
human resource policies in the creation of valuable, firm-specific skills'. Other
writers confirmed this view.
The HRM argument is that people... are not to be seen as a cost, but as an asset
in which to invest, so adding to their inherent value. (Torrington, 1989, emphasis
in the original)
Of course, all these commentators are writing about HRM as a belief system, not
about how it works in practice. The almost universal replacement of the term
'personnel management' with HR or HRM does not mean that everyone with the
job title of HR director or manager is basing their approach on the HRM
philosophy. Guest commented in 1991 that HRM was 'all hype and hope'.
A survey conducted by Caldwell (2004) provided some support to this view by
establishing that the five most important HR policy areas identified by
respondents were also the five in which the least progress had been made. For
example, while 89 per cent of respondents said the most important HR policy
was 'managing people as assets which are fundamental to the competitive
142
advantage of the organization', only 37 per cent stated that they had made any
progress in implementing it.
However, research conducted by Hoque and Moon (2001) found that there were
significant differences between the activities of those described as HR specialists
and those described as personnel specialists. For example, workplace-level
strategic plans are more likely to emphasize employee development in
workplaces with an HR specialist rather than a personnel specialist, and HR
specialists are more likely to be involved in the development of strategic plans
than are personnel specialists.
Both HRM in its proper sense and HCM as defined above treat people as assets.
Although, as William Scott-Jackson, Director of the Centre for Applied HR
Research at Oxford Brookes University argues (Oracle, 2005), You can't simply
treat people as assets, because that depersonalizes them and leads to the
danger that they are viewed in purely financial terms, which does little for allimportant engagement.'
However, there is more to both HRM and HCM than simply treating people as
assets. Each of them also focuses on the importance of adopting an integrated
and strategic approach to managing people, which is the concern of all the
stakeholders in an organization, not just the people management function. So
how does the concept of HCM reinforce or add to the concept of HRM? The
answers to that question are that HCM: draws attention to the importance of what
Kearns (2005b) calls 'management through measurement', the aim being to
establish a clear line of sight between HR interventions and organizational
success;
strengthens the HRM belief that people are assets rather than costs;
focuses attention on the need to base HRM strategies and processes on the
requirement to create value through people and thus further the achievement of
organizational goals;
reinforces the need to be strategic;
emphasizes the role of HR specialists as business partners;
provides guidance on what to measure and how to measure;
underlines the importance of using the measurements to prove that superior
people management is delivering superior results and to indicate the direction in
which HR strategy needs to go.
The concept of HCM complements and strengthens the concept of HRM. It does
not replace it. Both HCM and HRM can be regarded as vital components in the
process of people management.
The choices they make include how much discretionary behaviour they are
prepared to exercise in carrying out their role (discretionary behaviour refers to
the discretion people at work can exercise about the way they do their job and
the amount of effort, care, innovation and productive behaviour they display).
They can also choose whether or not to remain with the organization.
143
144
Bibliography
1 Human Resources Professional Association (HRPA)
https://www.hrpa.ca/
https://www.hrpa.ca/Documents/Designations/Professional-CompetencyFramework.pdf
2 Erik van Vulpenhttps://www.analyticsinhr.com/blog/14-hr-metrics-examples/
3 Dr. John P. Kotter, the 8-Step Process for Leading Change
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Change_management
4 Edwards Deming https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PDCA
5 Job Analysis Methods http://www.whatishumanresource.com/job-analysismethods Whatishumanresource.com
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/strategic-human-resources-management
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/Human-Resource-audit
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/human-resource-information-systems
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/human-capital-management
6 Employee Retention Strategies http://www.whatishumanresource.com/
7 HR Demand Forecasting - FACTORS AFFECTING - Techniques
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/hr-demand-forecasting
8 HR Supply Forecasting - succession analysis - Markov Analysis
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/hr-supply-forecasting
145
9 SanketDash,Aug 30, 2017 https://www.quora.com/How-is-linear-programmingapplied-to-human-resources
11 Johnson, Rose. "Skills Inventory and Internal Recruitment Methods." Small
Business - Chron.com, http://smallbusiness.chron.com/skills-inventory-internalrecruitment-methods-30688.html. Accessed 11 October 2018.
12 Performance Management vs Performance
Appraisalhttp://www.whatishumanresource.com/performance-management-vsperformance-appraisal
13 Will Guillaume Foussier | August 9, 2017 https://talentculture.com/how-toidentify-and-retain-high-potential-employees/
14 Donald Kirkpatrick 1994
https://www.mindtools.com/pages/article/kirkpatrick.htm
146
Practice Questions
147
Professional Practice
1. The Employment Equity Act argued that:
a) differences among people should be ignored and everyone should be
treated equally.
b) there are no true differences among people except those attributed to
them by discriminatory bias
c) organizations should hire groups of people based on their race, age,
gender, or national origin to make up for historical discrimination
d) the only differences that should make count in employment opportunities
are those of job-related qualifications
2. There are three types of discrimination
a) malicious, intentional, and systemic
b) systemic, blatant, and disparate
c) direct, indirect, and systemic
d) indirect, obvious, and systemic
148
3. Which of the following is typically NOT included in diversity training?
a) sensitivity training
b) cultural awareness
c) consciousness-raising
d) legal awareness
4. Human capital is
a) the people in the organization
b) the collective talents of the management of the organization
c) also called intellectual capital
d) of critical importance to the firm, but non-measurable
149
5. One of the four elements of a good organizational ethics programs is a
system for confidential reporting of ethical misconduct or questionable
behaviour. The main reason that employees, including HR professionals,
do not report ethical concerns is
a) fear of prosecution for slander and/or libel by the accused party
b) a culture of "don't ask, don't tell" in most organizations
c) employees are not able to distinguish between ethical and unethical
behaviours
d) concerns about current and future employment being affected
6. An HRMS system serves two major purposes in organizations:
a) technological and operational
b) strategic and technological
c) administrative and effectiveness
d) technological and workflow
150
7. Using a manager’s best guess as the basis for forecasting the staffing
needs in a department is classified as a ______________ method
a) judgmental
b) mathematical
c) quantitative
d) non-intuitive
8. Which of the following is NOT a reason why flexible work schedules are
becoming more and more of a retention tool?
a) Workload pressures have increased due to downsizing
b) Dual career couples in the “sandwich generation” are caring for both
children and elderly parents
c) People are placing a higher premium on self-actualization away from
work through hobbies, the arts and community involvement
d) Employees feel that they are working more hours and more days than
they prefer
151
9. The fact that only about 14.4 percent of the highest-ranking executive
management jobs in Canadian companies are held by women is evidence
of
a) the glass ceiling
b) glass walls
c) careers of glass
d) “one-way” glass
10. All of the following are areas of HR competencies EXCEPT
a) interpersonal skills
b) business knowledge
c) personal credibility
d) HR delivery
152
11. In order for diversity management to succeed in the organization
commitment to change must begin with
a) lower-level employees
b) HR professionals
c) middle managers
d) top management
12. All of the following are operational activities of HR except __________,
which is a strategic activity
a) analyzing HR metrics and measurements
b) complying with laws, policies, and procedures
c) recruiting and selecting employees
d) responding to goals and objectives set by executives
13. A long term plan for the orderly replacement of key employees is called
153
a) transition mapping
b) succession planning
c) replacement forecasting
d) executive development
14. It is predicted that Canadian employers will face skilled shortages due
to the aging of the workplace. Which jobs will be most affected?
a) pilots and teachers
b) employees in Canadian federal public service and the RCMP
c) real estate agents and taxi drivers
d) architects and domestic workers
15. What is discrimination?
154
a) treating people differently, negatively or adversely without a good reason
b) pay equity legislation
c) paying employees in different job categories different wages
d) firing an employee
16. What is the concept that refers to systematic thinking about the moral
consequences of one’s actions and decisions on various stakeholders?
a) Social responsibility
b) Morality
c) Ethics
d) Mission
17. ____________________ is the most frequent type of harassment
a) Harassment of subordinate to supervisor
b) Same sex harassment
155
c) Employee to another employee
d) Customer to employee
18. Religion
a) can never be a bona fide occupational qualification
b) must be afforded reasonable accommodation short of undue hardship by
employers
c) does not have to be accommodated by employers if the religion is not
“mainstream.”
d) can be the subject of a pre-employment inquiry if the applicant wears
clothing indicating membership in a non-Judeo-Christian religion
19. The role played by HR wherein the HR function is the champion of the
employee is the __________ role
a) strategic
b) operational
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c) advocate
d) representative
20. What is an example of BFOR?
a) Requiring multilingualism in a hospital serving an ethnically diverse
population of patients
b) Appearance for waiters and waitresses working in a restaurant
c) Sexual orientation, namely heterosexuality, to work in a grade school
d) Gender, namely female, to work in a daycare centre
21. The responsibility for carrying out HR activities
a) resides solely with HR professional
b) is mostly that of managers in the organization with the guidance of HR
professionals
c) is divided between HR professionals and the managers of the
organization
157
d) ultimately rests with the Board of Directors
22. A financial measure that shows that the HR function is generating
more return than the organization’s cost of capital is?
a) economic value added
b) return on investment
c) benchmarking
d) balancing the scorecard
23. Which of the following is TRUE about diversity in the Canadian
workforce?
a) Canada is one of the few countries in the western world that is actively
looking for immigrants that are highly qualified
b) Canada's immigration policy is to partly offset the aging of the population
and the increase in the retirement rate
158
c) The Canadian workforce has become more diverse racially and
ethnically, with 20% of Canada's
d) All of the above
24. Which of the following is TRUE about exit interviews?
a) Employees are more willing to give the true reason for quitting before
they have left the building for the last time
b) Exit interviews are not very useful because employees use it as a tool for
revenge against supervisors and co-workers
c) Employees may not give frank answers in exit interviews because they
are afraid it will affect their references
d) Exit interviews are best conducted in a free-form manner because each
employee’s reasons for leaving are unique
25. The primary determinant of ethical behaviour in an organization is the
a) quality of the HR administrative function
159
b) norms of the community in which the organization is located
c) organization's culture
d) selectiveness in hiring process
26. All of the following are considered to be drivers of retention EXCEPT
a) employee relationships
b) job design and work
c) career opportunities
d) macroeconomic factors
27. Retention is a problem in the modern workplace because
a) new entrants to the workforce have no organizational loyalty and move
to other organizations for minor reasons.
b) the slump in births after the baby-boom has left more jobs to fill than
there are new workers to fill them
160
c) there are fewer qualified and productive workers in the Canadian
workforce.
d) female workers are taking full advantage of parental leave to extend their
time away from the workforce
28. The Canadian economy has shifted from a _________ economy to a
__________ economy.
a) physical asset based, financial asset based
b) manufacturing, service
c) growing, stagnant
d) labour-rich, labour-poor
29. The downsizing technique that has the most negative effect on the
departing and surviving employees is
a) attrition
b) voluntary separations
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c) early retirements
d) layoffs
30. The focus of HR ________________ is to have the right number of
people with the right capabilities in the right place at the right time
a) strategy
b) planning
c) efficiency
d) benchmarking
31. An indication of an advanced approach to diversity management in an
organization is/are
a) an inclusive culture
b) a preference for the traditional status quo
c) implementation of employment equity.
162
d) frequent lawsuits
32. The main impediment to HR being recognized as a strategic
contributor to organizational success is that HR is
a) not critical to the success of an organization
b) HR activities are not quantitatively measurable
c) justification for HR expenditures using hard data is lacking
d) HR does not have a professional credentialing process
33. When an employee quits in the first few months after hiring, it is likely
due to
a) poor relationship with the supervisor
b) inadequate screening before hire
c) lack of career opportunities
d) non-competitive pay
163
34. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Workers over 40
a) are protected by Canadian Human Rights legislations if age is a jobrelated qualification
b) can be fired if they are poor performers
c) can be disciplined if they break organizational rules
d) can be replaced with younger (cheaper) employees if the firm can prove
there is financial business necessity
35. Which Canadian law has had a positive impact on the promotion and
protection of human rights in Canada?
a) employment standards
b) pay equity legislation
c) the Fair Employment Equity Act
d) the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom
164
36. If an employee survey generates negative results
a) the employees should be given only the positive feedback
b) no feedback should be given to employees
c) action should be taken on the results, but no feedback should be given
to the employees
d) the negative results must be communicated to the employees
37. Quid pro quo sexual harassment
a) is the creation of a hostile working environment
b) is exemplified by nepotism in the workplace
c) usually results from consensual relationships at work
d) demands sexual favours in return for employment outcomes
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38. Sarah is the sole survivor in her department of a merger that resulted
in all of her co-workers being transferred or taking early
retirement. Although Sarah’s pay is competitive, the transfers and
retirements were handled in a humane manner, and Sarah has been given
a written job contract for five years, Sarah is strongly thinking about
quitting. Which driver of retention is probably lacking in Sarah’s case?
a) values and culture of the employer
b) work/life balancing
c) career planning
d) employee relationships
39. What major qualification is necessary for sucess in HR?
a) liking to work with people
b) a certification such as the CHRP
c) strong interpersonal skills
d) business acumen
166
Organizational Effectiveness
1. Job design can directly affect all of the following EXCEPT employee
a) competencies.
b) performance.
c) job satisfaction.
d) physical health
2. _________ are most affected by technology, foreign outsourcing, and
flexibility in work arrangement
a) Craft-type unionized jobs
b) Jobs that are routine
c) High-technology jobs
d) Jobs requiring high levels of communication
167
3. Which of the following job characteristics is not generally linked to
employee motivation and satisfaction?
a) Skill variety
b) Task identity
c) Task significance
d) Task complexity
4. When the organization of work in the company is re-thought, redesigned, and re-tooled, the activity is termed
a) workflow redesign
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b) implementation of total quality control
c) organizational renovation.
d) business process re-engineering
Staffing
1. When using a psychological test for selection purposes, it is important to
use valid and reliable test. Where can you get information to assess
whether the test you are considering using is psychometrically sound?
a) Buros Center for Testing
b) Non-peer reviewed articles (internet or newspapers)
c) Popular management journals
d) The National Enquire
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2. When screening a resume, which of the following characteristics would
be a potential warning sign that you may have a bad candidate?
a) A well detailed section on work experience
b) Conflicting details or overlapping dates in work experience
c) An exhaustive list of past employers
d) A detailed education system
3. When conducting profile matching, which of the following is a technique
that calculates the differences between an applicant’s scores and ideal
profile scores on each predictor, squaring the differences and then
summing the squared difference?
a) The correlation method
b) The D2 method
c) The R2 method
d) The difference method
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4. Which of the following is the correct term for the correlation between
assessment scores and job performance measurement?
a) Predictive validity
b) Validity coefficient
c) Correlation
d) Reliability
5. Upon examining a competency dictionary, which of the following
information would NOT be found?
a) Proficiency scale
b) Proficiency level
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c) Core competencies
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour index
6. Which of the following is the correct term for modifying an existing
selection test so to allow persons with mental or physical disabilities a fair
chance to demonstrate their abilities?
a) Individual accommodation
b) Reverse discrimination
c) Reasonable accommodation
d) Bona fide occupational requirement
7. If an observed score is quite different from others scores and the mean,
how does it impact the variance?
172
a) It increases it
b) It decreases it
c) It stays the same
d) This has nothing to do with variance
8. In one decision-making model, scores on all predictors are obtained for
all applicants, just as in the multiple regression model; however, in this
particular model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of the
predictors fall below the cut-off scores. Which model is this?
a) Multiple hurdle
b) Multiple predictors
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Comprehensive predictors
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9. The most basic building block of HR management is
a) job analysis
b) job design
c) task analysis
d) work flow design
10. Which of the following question should NOT be asked on an
application form?
a) Languages spoken
b) Job experience
c) Date of birth
d) Name
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11. Which of the following applies to a scoring guide for interviews?
a) It should be based on subjective information.
b) It should only use a Likert scale from 1 to 7.
c) It should use a behavioural rating scale with sample answers to each
question.
d) It should use an open ended format, so the interviewer can focus on
whatever he or she wants.
12. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Weighted Application
Blanks?
a) Good predictors of work behaviour (e.g. absenteeism)
b) Easy and quick to develop weighted applications blank questions and
norms
175
c) Cost effective
d) Good predictors of employee turnover
13. Research has demonstrated that using proper effective recruitment
and selection practices can lead to which of the following?
a) Reduced employee turnover and increased productivity
b) Increased employee turnover and decreased productivity
c) Decreased trust and increased productivity
d) Increased employee turnover and increased employee commitment
14. Which of the following is the only way that you can defend a
discriminatory policy or practice?
176
a) By using a bona fide work requirement
b) By using a bona fide occupational requirement
c) By using a individual accommodation
d) By using a reasonable accommodation
15. Although the PAQ has been rated as one of the most cost-efficient job
analysis method, it does have some disadvantages. Which of the following
would be a disadvantage to using the PAQ?
a) Reading level may be too difficult for certain lower-level workers
b) Does not provide information on work output
c) Does not provide information on mental processes used by employees
d) Does not provide information on the job context
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16. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate technique to increase the
perceived fairness and satisfaction of your performance rating systems?
a) Using behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS)
b) Using behaviour observation scales (BORS)
c) Using Trait scales
d) Allowing employees to help develop the performance evaluations
17. Observation would be the most appropriate job analysis method for the
job of
a) research scientist at NASA.
b) obtain top management support
c) pediatrician in a family health clinic
d) welder in a car manufacturing plant
178
18. Which of the following is the correct term when each predictor adds
value to the selection system, and the validity of the system increases?
a) Predictive validity
b) Predictive reliability
c) Incremental validity
d) Adding-up validity
19. Which of the following is NOT representative of a science-based
system in human resource management?
a) The use of valid and useful predictors
b) Rational decision making
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c) Implemented on a case-by-case basis
d) Based on empirical evaluation processes
20. Which of the following type of test is the most powerful predictor of job
performance when used by itself?
a) Personality
b) General cognitive ability
c) Integrity
d) Graphology
21. Which of the following represents the strongest correlations between
two variables?
180
a) r = 0.01
b) r = -0. 55
c) r = 0.80
d) r = - 0.84
22. Which of the following is the correct term for the proportion of
applicants hired through the selection system who are judged satisfactory?
a) Base rate
b) Hired candidate
c) Selection rate
d) Success rate
181
23. What is the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by, or
measures, behaviours or competencies that are not part of job
performance?
a) Criterion contamination
b) Criterion deficiency
c) Criterion relevance
d) Criterion defectiveness
24. In one decision-making model, current employees who are considered
successful on the job are assessed on several predictors. Their average
score on each predictor are used to form an ideal profile of scores required
for successful job performance. Which model is this?
a) Multiple hurdle
b) Profile matching
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Current employee predictions
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25. Which of the following is NOT representative of screening practices?
a) Reviewing applications
b) Reviewing resumes
c) Employment testing
d) Screening interviews
26. Which of the following refers to knowledge that is derived from
experience when learning is not the primary objective?
a) Tacit knowledge
b) Practical intelligence
183
c) Emotional intelligence
d) “Book smarts”
27. Jamie just underwent an interview where she was being interviewed by
4 individuals. Which type of interview is this?
a) A serial interview
b) A team interview
c) A panel interview
d) A group interview
28. An employer is using a test that inadvertently discriminates against
race. What type of discrimination would this be?
184
a) Adverse effect discrimination
b) Direct discrimination
c) Adverse impact
d) Pardonable discrimination
29. Which of the following is a practice that can negatively affect test
reliability?
a) Using standardized testing procedures
b) Having a candidate who is physically complete a selection test
c) Having candidates complete the test in a quiet and controlled
environment
d) Providing candidates with a standardized set of instructions
185
30. You are applying for a job and had to complete an application form
with the following question: “How many parties do you go to in a
year?” Which of the following are you completing?
a) Biographical Information Blank
b) Weighted Application Blank
c) A regular/basic application form
d) A discriminatory application form
31. Which allegation is the most commonly cited signed complaints at the
Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Service-related
b) Employment-related
c) Harassment-employment
d) Retaliation
186
32. Which of the following statements is NOT true about using Canadian
Employment Centres to recruit external candidates?
a) Inexpensive
b) Job-KSAO fit
c) Success limited to certain occupational categories
d) Random process
33. Which of the following is NOT a technique for establishing the validity
of a test?
a) Gather evidence based on test content
b) Compare it to other non-related variables
187
c) Examine test-criterion relationships
d) Examine internal consistency rates
34. Which of the following employees would be best to select to work on a
team?
a) a brilliant introvert
b) an individualistic idealist
c) a strong leader
d) an extrovert with good job skills
35. Which of the following is the correct term for the proportion of
applicants who would be successful if all of the applicants for a position had
been hired?
188
a) Utility analysis
b) Selection ratios
c) Taylor-Russell model
d) Base rate
36. You are working for an organization that is has previously had issues
with employment equity. Your director has requested that you track
designated group membership within your organization. How would you
deal with this on an application form?
a) Directly ask questions about designated group membership on the
application.
b) Avoid all questions about designated group membership on the
application.
c) Ask employees to complete a separate form which explains that the
information is being collected as per government requirements and will not
be accessible to those making hiring decisions).
d) Only ask certain minority groups (i.e., the ones with the least
representation in your organization) to complete additional items on the
application form
189
37. All of the following are behavioural competencies of employees
EXCEPT
a) customer focus
b) leadership
c) results orientation
d) financial expertise.
38. Which of the following is an inappropriate behaviour that may
negatively influence your interviews perception of you during a screening
interview?
a) Making direct eye contact with the interviewer.
190
b) Remaining confident and determined throughout the interview,
regardless of how the interviewer’s cues suggest the interview is going
c) Emphasizing monetary issues
d) Answering questions quickly
39. An effective recruitment plan should do all of the following EXCEPT
which of the following?
a) Attract a large pool of candidates
b) Meet management goals
c) Meet current legal requirements
d) Attract very few candidates from minority groups
191
40. During the recruitment and selection process it is possible for
candidates to suddenly decide that he/she no longer wants to work for the
company which was recruiting them. What is the term for this?
a) Walk outs
b) Self-selecting out
c) Quitters
d) False-positives
41. Using a science-based selection system in human resource
management can lead to which of the following?
a) Marginal employees
b) Lack of competitiveness
c) Decreased productivity
d) A defensible selection system
192
42. Which of the following is the correct term for attempts by applicants to
create a favourable impression by monitoring interviewer reactions and
responding accordingly?
a) Impression management
b) Social desirability
c) Recency effect
d) Primacy effect
43. Paul, a manager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he basically just formed an overall
impression of the applicants based on his gut feelings. What is this type of
approach?
a) Trait rating approach
193
b) Pure judgment approach
c) Profile interpretation
d) Simplified rating approach
44. Which of the following occurs when individuals who are predicted to
perform successfully for a given position (based on pre-selection
assessment scores) do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on
the job?
a) False positives
b) False negatives
c) True negatives
d) True positives
194
45. Which of the following is NOT representative of component in human
resource system?
a) Legislative laws
b) Personnel requirements
c) Personal preferences
d) Work environment
46. Kim, a HR manager, is conducting interviews for an intern position.
She has very little experience conducting interviews; consequently she has
done very little preparation and has been just coming up with questions as
the interviews progress. What style of interview is Kim conducting?
a) Structured interviews
b) Stress interviews
c) Unstructured interviews
d) Comprehensive interviews
195
47. What is a written outline of what job occupants are required to do, how
they are supposed to do it, and the rationale for any required job
procedures?
a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Job
d) Position description
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the great 8 competencies
developed by Bartram (2005)?
a) Leading and deciding
b) Interacting and presenting
196
c) Creating and conceptualizing
d) Communicating
49. Which of the following is NOT an example of attitudinal measures that
can be used to evaluate recruitment methods?
a) Job satisfaction
b) Job involvement
c) Turnover
d) Sales quotas
50. To be successful, an employee orientation program must be designed
to include:
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a) A needs analysis
b) Cognitive dissonance
c) An ongoing follow-up procedure
d) Provide for sharing of group norms
51. The ability to access and/or generate feelings when they facilitate
thought is a component of which of the following?
a) Tacit knowledge
b) Practical knowledge
c) Emotional intelligence
d) Cognitive ability
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52. Which of the following is a criticism of using self-report inventories?
a) They are expensive
b) They are time consuming
c) They are prone to social desirability responses
d) They can only be done in paper and pencil
53. Which of the following is a decision-making model where an applicant
must pass the minimum cut-off for each predictor before moving on to the
next predictor?
a) Multiple cut-offs
b) Multiple regression
c) Multiple hurdle
d) Combination
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54. Which of the following internal recruitment practices can lead to
allegations of discrimination?
a) Internal job postings
b) Replacement charts
c) Human resources information systems
d) Nominations
55. Betty just evaluated one of her employees; she rated her employee on
each performance domain on a 101-point scale (with 50 representing
average). Betty was told that each performance domain was derived
through job analytic procedures. What type of rating system is this?
a) Rank order
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b) Paired comparisons
c) Forced distributions
d) Relative percentile method
56. Jenny is currently in the process of being asked interview questions.
She has noticed, thus far, that all the questions are focused on what she
did or how she acted in the past. What type of interview is this?
a) Situational interviews
b) Comprehensive structured interviews
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
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57. What is the correct term for a case when a job candidate has the
knowledge, skills, abilities, or competencies required by the job in
question?
a) Person-job fit
b) Person-organization fit
c) KSAO’s match
d) Person competency fit
58. Before starting to collect data for a job analysis, human resource
managers can collect information about the job in question from which of
the following sources?
a) National Occupational Competency Database
b) O*Net
c) National Organizational Database
d) Canadian Classification Dictionary of Job Analysis
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59. Which of the following is the correct term for the degree to which
accumulated evidence and theory support specific interpretations of test
scores in the context of the test’s proposed use?
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) A high correlation coefficient
d) Cronbach’s alpha
60. Which of the following are voluntary behaviours that violate significant
organizational norms and in so doing threaten the well-being of an
organization and its members?
a) Non-job specific task proficiency
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b) Lack of personal discipline
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Social loafing
61. Based on the big five dimensions of job personality, which is the best
predictor of several different aspects of performance?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extroversion
c) Emotional Stability
d) Neuroticism
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62. Which of the following does NOT contribute to having a structured
interview?
a) Interview questions are standardized.
b) Follow-up questioning is limited.
c) Questions from candidate are not allowed until after the interview.
d) Interview questions focus on opinions and self-evaluations.
63. What determines individual differences on Campbell’s eight
dimensions of job performance?
a) Declarative knowledge, procedural knowledge, and motivation
b) Practical knowledge, organizational knowledge, and motivation
c) Contextual knowledge, personal attributes, and motivation
d) Declarative knowledge, organizational knowledge, and motivation
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64. Which of the following is the correct term for the notion that you can
use a single criterion to measure overall job performance?
a) Global criterion
b) Ultimate criterion
c) Overall criterion
d) Composite criterion
65. What is the first step in developing and implementing an employment
equity plan?
a) To conduct a survey to determine the present representation of
designated groups.
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b) To remove systemic employment barriers to increase representation for
designated groups.
c) To obtain support of senior management for the employment equity
effort.
d) To set future representation targets for designated groups based
availability of qualified workers in the labour market.
66. Which of the following is an authentic concern about Weighted
Application Blanks?
a) Weights are not based on job analysis.
b) Questions do not predict valid work behaviours. (e.g. absenteeism)
c) Questions, although supported by empirical research, may not explain
the relationship between behaviours and performance
d) Good predictors of work behaviour
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67. What is the validity of resumes in predicting future job success?
a) Resumes have relatively low validity
b) Resumes have high validity
c) Resumes have moderate validity
d) Resumes have absolutely no validity
68. Providing interview training to future interviewers should provide what
information?
a) How to use your “gut-instinct”
b) How to develop probe questions during the interview
c) How to avoid the similar-to-me effect
d) How to stress the candidates
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69. Bill, a job candidate, was just given a set of short reports, notes,
telephone messages, and memos of the type that most managers have to
deal with on a daily basis. The person conducting the interview has asked
Bill to set priorities for each task and determine whether or not they can be
delegated. What is this selection test known as?
a) Management skill test
b) Assessment centre
c) In-basket test
d) Personality tests
70. There are 19 prohibited grounds of employment discrimination across
all jurisdictions in Canada. How many grounds of employment
discrimination are there on which all jurisdictions agree?
a) 3 prohibited grounds
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b) 6 prohibited grounds
c) 9 prohibited grounds
d) 12 prohibited grounds
71. Which of the following is a standardized questionnaire that includes
195 items and organizes job elements into 6 dimensions?
a) The critical incident technique
b) Position analysis questionnaire
c) Work profiling system
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
72. Job applicants are likely to react more positively to which of the
following selection practices?
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a) Cognitive ability test
b) Personality test
c) Work samples
d) Interviews
73. Although recruitment methods change over time, which of the following
does recent research suggest is the most used recruitment method that
people use to find work?
a) Personal initiative
b) Family or friend
c) Help-wanted sign
d) Directly recruited by employer
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74. Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds of employment
discrimination on which all Canadian jurisdictions agree?
a) Race
b) Religion
c) Sexual orientation
d) Age
75. If an interviewee is having difficulties answering an interview question.
Say for example, the interviewee needs more information. The interviewer
can help the guide the interviewee by asking which of the following?
a) Probe
b) Leading question
c) Subjective tip
d) Situational example
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76. Knowledge about facts and things including knowledge of rules,
regulations, and goals is defined as:
a) Procedural knowledge
b) Declarative knowledge
c) Practical knowledge
d) Informative knowledge
77. Which of the following is NOT a technique for estimating the reliability
of a test?
a) Test and retest
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b) Using alternate forms
c) Verifying external reliability
d) Inter-rater reliability
78. What has research shown about individuals designated with a CHRP
designation?
a) They are more likely to receive higher salaries
b) They are more likely to struggle to keep jobs
c) They are more likely to enjoy their jobs more
d) They are more likely to have negative perceptions associated with their
performance
79. A company that wishes to have a defensible basis for compensation,
selection, and training for jobs in the high tech industry should use a:
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a) consulting firm that does business process re-engineering
b) traditional task-based job analysis
c) competency-based job analysis.
d) behavioural-based job analysis.
80. Having each interviewee undergo the same series of interview
questions and the same series of probes are characteristic of which type of
interview?
a) Unstructured interviews
b) Structured interviews
c) Personality based interviews
d) Organized interviews
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81. The major reson that Canadian jobs have been outsourced to foreign
locations is
a) lower labour costs in foreign countries
b) the stronger work thic of foreign workers than Canadian workers
c) the ability of Canadian firms to evade strict Canadian labour and
employment laws
d) avoidance of union work rules
82. When should a physical/medical exam be given?
a) During the recruitment process
b) After the screening interview
c) During other employment test
d) After the applicant has received a job offer
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83. Your organization has a selection ration of 0.05. Based on this number,
how many applicants did your organization receive, and how many
positions were available?
a) 300 applicants/ 10 positions
b) 150 applicants/ 50 positions
c) 200 applicants/ 10 positions
d) 100 applicants/ 60 positions
84. Which law is the supreme law in Canada and has a pervasive impact
on employment practices?
a) Constitutional law
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b) Human rights law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law
85. Based on a recent survey by Simola, Tagger, & Smith, which types of
interview questions are the most commonly used in Canada?
a) Situational
b) Behaviour description
c) Job knowledge
d) Personal (e.g., are you married?)
86. Which style of interviews has greater levels of predictive validity and
reliability?
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a) Unstructured interviews
b) Structured interviews
c) Organized interviews
d) Personality based interviews
87. Bill, a manager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he is basically looking at statistical
data that he collected during the applicant selection process.
a) Pure judgmental approach
b) Pure statistical approach
c) Profile interpretation
d) Judgmental composite
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88. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) A job analysis does not refer to a single methodology but rather to a
range of techniques.
b) A job analysis breaks down a job into its constituent parts, rather than
looking at the job as a whole
c) A job analysis is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of
guidelines established in advance.
d) A job analysis is required by the law and must always be done.
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of contextual performance?
a) Organizational citizenship behaviour
b) Defending organizational objectives
c) Following organizational rules and procedures
d) Lying
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90.
Which of the following is the correct term for a job analysis technique that
emphasizes work outcomes and description of the various tasks performed
to accomplish those outcomes?
a) Work-oriented job analysis
b) Worker-oriented job analysis
c) Work-description job analysis
d) Work-outcomes job analysis
91. Which of the following is the first step of the selection process which
involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have the
minimum qualifications for the position?
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a) Screening
b) Recruitment
c) Selection
d) Self-selecting out
92. Which of the following is the correct term for characteristics that apply
only to specific positions within the organization?
a) Competencies
b) Job-specific competencies
c) Functional competencies
d) Core competencies
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93. Which of the following is NOT one of the big five dimensions of job
personality?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extroversion
c) Hard Worker
d) Emotional Stability
94. Based on Campbell’s eight job dimensions, the dimension of
“facilitating peer and team performance” would fall under which of the
following job performance categories?
a) Job task behaviours
b) Contextual behaviours
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Written and oral communication and task proficiency
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95. Which of the following group is NOT a designated protected group as
defined by employment equity?
a) Women
b) Minorities
c) Aboriginals
d) Senior citizens
96. Which of the following is the correct term for advertising designed to
raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner in order to attract job
seeker’s interest?
a) Image advertising
b) Positive image enhancing promotions
c) Guerrilla advertising
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d) Realistic job preview
97. When choosing a job analysis method, which of the following should
NOT be taken into consideration?
a) The cost
b) Reliability of the method
c) Sample size
d) Employment Equity Laws
98. Which of the following is not one of Campbell’s 8 dimensions of job
performance?
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a) Demonstrating effort
b) Maintaining personal discipline
c) Facilitating peer and team performance
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour
99. Which of the following is the correct term for an indication of the
stability or dependability of a set of measurements over repeated
applications of the measurement procedure?
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Coefficient determination
d) Construct Validity
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100. When conducting reference checks, which of the following guidelines
should you use?
a) Have candidates sign a waiver
b) Ask closed questions to the person giving you the reference
c) Only conduct 1 reference check
d) Try to get personal references (i.e. friends or family)
101. Raters for 360 degree performance evaluation do NOT include?
a) Supervisors
b) Peers
c) Self-ratings
d) External consultants
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102. Which of the following is the correct term for a structured interview
technique that includes job knowledge interviews, work sample interviews,
and walk-through interviews (that require actual demonstration of
behaviours)?
a) Situational interviews
b) Behavioural sample interview
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
103. Which law aims to eliminate discriminatory practices that prevent the
entry or retention of members from designated groups in the workplace and
to the elimination of unequal treatment in the workplace related to
membership in a designated group?
a) Constitutional law
b) Human rights law
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c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
104. The most valuable and time-saving resource for job analysis and for
writing good job descriptions and specifications is/are
a) Internet chat rooms for HR professionals.
b) the Canadian website for National Occupation Classification
c) previous job descriptions used in the same company.
d) job descriptions written by HR professionals in other companies
105. Telework is likely to
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a) decrease in the future due to the excessive stress on employees.
b) decrease in the future due to the inability to properly supervise and
control teleworkers
c) increase in the future because of the high cost of real estate making
office space very expensive
d) increase in the future because of globalization of business.
106. Which of the following are subsets or scales that are included in a
general personality inventory?
a) Covert tests
b) Overt honesty tests
c) Graphology
d) In-baskets
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107. What is a collection of duties assigned to individuals in an
organization at a given time?
a) Job family
b) Job specification
c) Job
d) position
108. When conducting a job analysis, most HR managers will identify
people who are most knowledgeable about a job and how it is currently
performed. Which of the following is NOT representative of one of these
individuals?
a) Experienced employees currently holding the position
b) Immediate supervisors of people holding the position
c) Subject-matter experts
d) New employees
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109. As a general rule, which of the following is the MOST appropriate
length of an interview?
a) Less than 12 minutes
b) Less than 16 minutes
c) Less than 20 minutes
d) Less than 45 minutes
110. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle underlying a
Human Resource Systems?
a) Human resource managers must carefully coordinate their activities with
other organizational units.
b) Human resource managers must think in terms of systems.
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c) Human resource managers should focus solely on their departmental
objectives.
d) Human resource managers should consider the welfare of the entire
organization.
111. Which law prohibits discrimination in both employment and the
provision of goods and services in Canada?
a) Constitutional law
b) Human rights law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
112. The LAST stage in the job analysis process is to
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a) finalize job descriptions and recommendations
b) obtain top management support
c) review drafted job descriptions with employees and managers
d) periodically review all jobs
113. What is a simulation exercise designed to assess leadership,
organization, and communication skills also known as?
a) Leaderless group discussion
b) In-basket test
c) Assessment Centre
d) All of the above
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114. A company running a 24-hour business can expect all of the following
EXCEPT
a) to have more accidents on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift.
b) for mistakes to be fewer on the day shift.
c) for employees to value the variation in scheduling
d) to have higher labour costs for evening and night shifts.
115. Which of the following would NOT be an example of an objective
measure of job performance?
a) Number of times late for work
b) Speed of production
c) Rate of increase in production
d) Decision making processes
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116. Which of the following is NOT representative of making effective
selection decisions?
a) Use valid selection instruments
b) Base decisions on “gut feelings” or intuition
c) Keeping track of the selections “hits” and “misses”
d) Periodically evaluate or audit selection decisions
117. A background investigation would immediately follow which step of an
effective selection process?
a) After the candidate completes an application form
b) After the candidate writes a written selection test
c) After the candidates undergoes a screening interview
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d) After the candidates undergoes a second (in-person) interview
118. Identify which of the following can be a major weakness of using
interviews during a job analysis?
a) Provide information which may otherwise be overlooked
b) Interviewees respond more openly to questions
c) Employees can distort information (especially if questions are linked to
pay)
d) Allows for one on one interaction
119. Which of the following could be identified as a weakness when an
organization (client) outsources recruitment and selection to an external
firm?
237
a) The employee is “leased” to the client from the outside firm.
b) Client can be subject to discrimination claims.
c) Client has to pay increased administrative task.
d) Client suffers from a decrease in work force flexibility.
120. Which of the following is the correct term for an interviewer’s beliefs
about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of applicants?
a) Competency structures
b) Knowledge structures
c) Skill structures
d) Ability structures
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121. When making selection decisions, what technique ranks all
candidates based on the highest scores and then selects the candidates
with the highest scores?
a) Top-down method
b) Banding
c) Highest score method
d) The regression method
122. In order to develop effective recruitment ads, it’s important to use
which of the following criteria?
a) Attract, Interest, Devotion, Accountability
b) Attract, Interest, Desire, Action
c) Attract, Seduce, Stimulate interest, Action
d) Attract, Draw attention, Stimulate interest, Accountability
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123. A work arrangement where the employees work a set number of
hours per day but vary starting and ending times is called
a) shift work.
b) flextime
c) virtual work.
d) compressed work week.
124. Which of the following information can NOT be found on the National
Occupational Classification System?
a) Aptitudes
b) Interest
c) Physical activity
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d) Average salaries (nationally and by province)
125. Which of the following test can be used to collect information on
workers’ traits?
a) Fleishman job analysis survey
b) The critical incident technique
c) Position analysis questionnaire
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
126. While developing recruitment and selection practices, taking into
consideration compensation and benefits would refer to which element in a
Human Resource System?
241
a) Work environment
b) Personnel
c) Retention
d) Performance management
127. Which of the following is an approach in which judgmental and
statistical data are combined statistically?
a) Judgmental composite
b) Profile interpretation
c) Trait rating approach
d) Statistical composite
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128. While developing recruitment and selection practices, taking into
consideration training and developing would refer to which element in a
Human Resource System?
a) Performance Management
b) Work environment
c) Personnel requirements
d) Retention
129. Which of the following refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency
or competency on a given task, which develops through performing the
task?
a) Abilities
b) Skill
c) Knowledge
d) Aptitude
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130. Rick, a general manager, has to evaluate 4 of his employees’
performance. Instead of taking the time to properly evaluate each
employee, Rick opts to assign each one an average rating. What does this
exemplify?
a) Leniency errors
b) Severity errors
c) Central tendency errors
d) Halo errors
131. Which of the following is the correct term for an idea or concept
constructed or invoked to explain relationships between observations?
a) Validity
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b) Construct
c) Construct validity
d) Reliability
132. Most selection policies used to select undergraduate students into
graduate schools are faced with a similar problem. Given that most
students applying to graduate school have similar grades, it can affect the
validity of the validity coefficients. What is this problem defined as?
a) Measurement error
b) Range restriction
c) Sampling error
d) Bias
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133. Well designed test must abide by certain standards. From the list
below, identify which standard does NOT protect the rights and welfare of
test takers?
a) Have test takers sign an informed consent.
b) Offer test takers an opportunity to view their test results.
c) Test results should be kept confidential.
d) Not offering candidates an opportunity to write a test in their most fluent
language.
134. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of recruiting internal
candidates?
a) They have greater expectations about the job or organization.
b) They are familiar with the organizational culture.
c) They have higher levels of organizational commitment
d) They have higher levels of satisfaction
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135. Which group receives the highest amount of cited signed complaints
for discrimination at the Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Disability
b) Sex
c) Race
d) Age
136. A new HR intern has been asked to generate a pool of potential
candidates for a new position within the organization. What is task defined
as?
a) Recruitment
b) Selection
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c) Recruitment and Selection
d) Promotion
137. Which of the following will NOT help job candidates develop accurate
expectations about the job that they are applying for?
a) Provide candidates with a realistic job preview.
b) Use more than one media source to communicate with job candidates.
c) Only provide job candidates with positive information about the job
d) Provide candidates with a broad range of information about the job and
organization
138. A practice-based selection system in human resource management is
based on which of the following principles?
248
a) A person’s “gut feeling”
b) Select valid measures of KSAOs
c) Rational
d) Information based on a job analysis
139. Which of the following is a technique that selects the top scorer in
one band and then constructs a new band from the next highest score?
a) Fixed bands
b) Sliding bands
c) Moving bands
d) Stable bands
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140. The notion of sufficient risk is important for which of the following?
a) Reverse discrimination
b) Individual accommodation
c) Bona fide occupational requirement defence
d) Adverse effect discrimination
141. An organization administered a test to existing employees to see how
it correlated with their performance. Which type of evidence does this
provide to the validity of the inferences made between test scores and job
performance?
a) Predictive
b) Concurrent
c) Cumulative
d) Composite
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142. Which of the following is a decision-making model where an
applicant’s scores on each predictor are weighted and summed to yield a
total score?
a) Multiple cut-offs
b) Multiple regression
c) Multiple hurdle
d) Combination
143. Which of the following is NOT an external factor that can influence
HR recruitment strategies?
a) The labour market
b) The legal environment
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c) Organizational values
d) Competition
144. You have just hired a recent job candidate, who scored very highly
during selection testing and interviews. Unfortunately, once he started
working, he turned out to be a very poor choice. What is this type of error?
a) False positive error
b) False negative error
c) True positive error
d) False choice error
145. With respects to recruitment and selection and the HR profession,
many organizations are requesting that HR professionals hold which type
of qualification?
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a) Canadian Human Resource Professional
b) Certified Human Resource Professional
c) Human Resource Professional Certificate
d) Human Resource Professional Credential certificate
146. The best way to establish the core duties and necessary KSAs for a
job is to
a) determine the duties and KSAs of the ideal candidate for the job.
b) record the duties and KSAs of the current job incumbent.
c) determine what the duties and KSAs would be if the current incumbent
left
d) redesign the job independent of what the current job duties and KSAs
are
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147. What is the correct term for the difference, on average, that any one
score is from the mean score and from any other score?
a) The mean
b) The variance
c) A correlation coefficient
d) Reliability
148. When conducting employment testing, it is important to abide by a
code of ethics. Which of the following is NOT representative of the CPA’s
Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologist?
a) Respect for the dignity of the person
b) Responsible caring discrepancy
c) Responsibility to society
d) Responsibility to the organization
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149. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ethics or ethical
standards?
a) Taking the time to determine right from wrong.
b) Follow a code of standards for appropriate behaviour.
c) Finding the problem lies within a grey area between right or wrong.
d) Taking actions without considering their ramifications.
150. Which of the following is NOT a social economic factor that can
influence recruitment and selection?
a) Globalization
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b) Labour employee relations
c) Demographics
d) Marketplace
151. Which of the following is the correct term for a highly structured
interview in which hypothetical situations are described and applicants are
asked what they would do?
a) Situational interview
b) Comprehensive structured interview
c) Job knowledge interview
d) Behavioural description interview
152. Which of the following is NOT a test that can be used to measure
personality dimensions?
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a) NEO-FFI
b) Personal Characteristics Inventory
c) Wonderlic Personnel Test
d) Work Personality Index
153. Which of the following is a disadvantage to using the internet to
recruit external candidates?
a) Reaches a mass audience
b) Inexpensive
c) Time consuming
d) Unknown audience
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154. Which of the following is NOT representative of an executive search
firm?
a) Executive searches are non expensive
b) Executive searches can cost 30% of the candidate’s gross starting
salary.
c) Executive search firms can contact potential clients directly
d) Executive search firms conduct hiring negotiations.
155. What are the three categories of job performance?
a) Conscientiousness, contextual performance, counterproductive
performance
b) Task performance, contextual performance, counterproductive
performance
c) Overall performance, declarative knowledge, motivation
d) Overall performance, practical knowledge, dedication
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156. What practice should NOT be taken into consideration to assure that
performance measurement systems meet legal and professional
standards?
a) Select criteria that are valid, reliable, and practical measurements of job
performance.
b) Conduct a job analysis to describe job performance domain and
competencies that are necessary for successfully achieve the
organization’s goals.
c) Provide written instructions to all assessors/raters on the proper use of
the measurement system.
d) Asking questions not directly linked to performance (i.e., are you
planning on having a family?)
Employee and Labour Realtions
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1 . Functions of the CLC include:
a) Lobbying provincial governments
b) Lobbying municipal governments
c) Lobbying federal governments
d) Lobbying all governments
e) Lobbying no governments
2 . Many Canadian workplaces now use:
a) Short-term contractors
b) Full-time workers
c) All types of workers
d) No workers
e) Only popular workers
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3 . For institutionalists there were:
a) Four key elements of industrial democracy
b) A written law of workplace rules
c) A balance of power between management and labour
d) A binding procedure for enforcing written law
e) All of the above
4 . Total Quality Management:
a) Is also known as TQM
b) Is used heavily in the public sector
c) Uses data process controls
d) Uses cause and effect analyses
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e) A and D only
5 . Industrial Relations:
a) Has often been used by academics to examine all employment issues
and relationships between employees and government agencies.
b) Has been argued not to include the study of both union and non-union
employment relationships.
c) Has not become synonymous with issues concerning employment
relationships.
d) Doesn’t focus exclusively on issues relating to the unionized
employment relationship.
6 . ILO enforcement system elements include:
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a) Special procedures on freedom of association
b) Supervisory system for ratified conventions
c) Standards obligations
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
7 . Hammer and Avgar’s potential explanations of lower levels of
satisfaction include:
a) Unions may choose to organize workers with low pay
b) Unions may create unrealistic workplace expectations
c) Unionized and nonunionized workers have different job outcome
preferences
d) Unions and collective agreements may restrict job tasks
e) All of the above
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8 . Kochan, Katz and McKersie developed the strategic choice perspective
a) True
b) False
9 . Prior to the passage of the Wagner Act in the U.S.A. unions were
widely recognized.
a) True
b) False
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10 . Belcourt and McBey state that strategic human resource strategies
include:
a) Specific practices
b) No policies
c) No overall human resource philosophy
d) A only
e) A, B, and C
11 . Scientific Management:
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a) Resulted from the Industrial Disputes Investigation Act of 1907
b) Removed autonomy of skilled craft workers
c) Is not associated with Frederick Taylor
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
12 . Collective bargaining is a complex multilateral process.
a) True
b) False
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13 . Unions affect other factors that come under the umbrella of human
resources namely:
a) Workplace equality
b) Health and safety
c) A and B only
d) Employee assistance plans
e) Defined benefit plans
14 . The organization of work includes the topics of:
a) Technological change
b) The distribution of work
c) A and B only
d) Lack of technological change
267
e) A only
15 . Mitigation factors used by unions include:
a) The grievor’s work record
b) The grievor’s length of service
c) Inconsistent application of rules
d) Economic hardship
e) All of the above
16 . In Canada, globalization has affected employment through NAFTA.
a) True
268
b) False
17 . The following factors had significant impacts on union density:
a) Less women
b) Occupational shifts
c) Contingent workers
d) B and C only
e) A, B and C only
18 . Job evaluation or analysis:
269
a) Ensures human resource management practices reflect job skills
b) Is used by most companies to collect job information
c) Is not used by any companies
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
19 . Why employees join unions:
a) For a collective voice
b) For utility
c) Because of politics
d) For disability
e) A, B, and C only
270
20 . Codes of conduct:
a) Have unilateral initiatives
b) May recognize core labour standards
c) Rarely cover suppliers
d) Have weak labour-management dialogue
e) All of the above
21 . The Rand Formula:
a) Instituted dues check-off
b) Was enacted by justice Ivan Reed
c) Required workers to join a union
d) B and A only
e) A, B, and C only
271
22 . The Pepsi-Cola and Dunmore cases:
a) Have effected a new Labour Trilogy
b) Did not affect collective rights
c) Were landmark decisions
d) Were terrible decisions
e) Are not applicable
23 . An internal grievance procedure consists of:
a) An informal step involving no one
b) An informal step involving the employee and line manager
272
c) A lack of steps
d) Three additional formal steps involving union stewards, line managers,
human resources and department heads
e) B and D only
24 . Unions have forged alliances with community groups to:
a) Assist in organizing new members.
b) Strengthen positions in bargaining.
c) Support political lobbying campaigns.
d) Oppose plant closures.
e) All of the above.
25 . The Wagner Act was:
273
a) Named after Robert F. Wagner.
b) Known as the National Labour Relations Act.
c) The influencing Act on Canadian Labour Law.
d) Enacted to reduce conflict.
e) All of the above
26 . Economic globalization is a historical process.
a) True
b) False
274
27 . Dunlop said that the three actors could be influenced by several
environmental contexts except:
a) Financial environment
b) Legal environment
c) Social constraints
d) Personality constraints
e) None of the above
28 . The early years of the labour movement included:
a) New model unionism
b) The Trade Unions Act
c) The AFL
d) KFC
275
e) A, B, and C only
29 . Given economic structural changes, labour is increasing efforts in:
a) Nothing at all
b) All sectors
c) Protecting job loss
d) Organizing the new economy
e) C and D only
30 . The grievance example in Chapter 8 included:
a) No steps
276
b) 1 step
c) 3 steps
d) 2 steps
e) 4 steps
31 . Globalization has:
a) Positively affected women and children
b) Negatively impacted women and children
c) Not affected women and children
d) Has not affected anyone
e) May negatively affect women and children
32 . The ILO:
277
a) Is a tripartite board
b) Passed the declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at work
c) Is associated with the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
d) A and C only
e) A and B only
33 . Conversion mechanisms include:
a) Grievances
b) Collective bargaining
c) Goals
d) Power
e) A and B only
278
34 . Union locals in Canada are affiliated with:
a) Local labour councils
b) CLC
c) AFL – CIO
d) Provincial federations
e) None of the Above
35 . Attitudinal structuring:
a) Is the stage where trust is built between the parties
b) Builds a conflict filled relationship
c) Builds no relationship
d) Is a short-term process
e) A only
279
36 . Generally speaking, unions:
a) Encourage workers to not file grievances
b) Encourage workers to file grievances
c) Do not counsel workers about grievances
d) Don’t care about grievances
e) Hate grievances
37 . Workplaces often don’t have detailed layoff and bumping procedures
in their collective agreements
a) True
280
b) False
38 . Dunlop’s Industrial Relations System Model consists of:
a) actors
b) a shared ideology
c) contexts
d) a web of rules
e) all of the above
39 . The strongholds of labour typically have been:
281
a) The service sector
b) The private sector
c) No sectors
d) The public sectors
e) None of the above
40 . Industrial relations is an interdisciplinary field using knowledge from:
a) economics
b) law
c) history
d) sociology
e) all of the above
282
41 . Labour Boards apply several criteria to decide which employees are
eligible to be included in the bargaining unit:
a) Are employees’ part of management?
b) Community of interests
c) Wishes of employees
d) Employer structure
e) all of the above
42 . Traditional sectors have included:
a) Primary resources
b) Construction
c) A and B only
d) The engines of growth
283
e) Office equipment
43 . John Dunlop was one of the first scholars to develop a systematic
method to analyze employment relationships in North America
a) True
b) False
44 . Functions of the Local Labour Council include:
284
a) Representing member unions
b) Enacting labour legislation
c) Lobbying federal governments
d) Community programs
e) None of the above
45 . From 2004-2006, the CLC produced several papers on:
a) The need for public healthcare
b) Proposed changes to the national pension plan
c) Employment insurance plan changes
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
285
46 . The neoclassical economics view:
a) Was outlined by Gunderson
b) Was led by John Common and Selig Perlman.
c) Emphasizes the use of unions as an artificial barrier
d) Grew out of the Wisconsin School view
e) None of the above
47 . The new economy has remained private based.
a) True
b) False
286
48 . IBB is difficult to achieve because of:
a) Mixed issue bargaining, bargaining history of the parties, the theory itself
b) Single issue bargaining, lack of bargaining history of the parties, the
theory itself
c) Mixed issue bargaining, too much bargaining history of the parties, the
theory itself
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
49 . P.C. 1003 put in place requirements in terms of workplace dispute
mechanisms and conciliation procedures
a) True
b) False
287
50 . Unions have tried to minimize pay differences between individual
employees.
a) True
b) False
51 . David Foot authored the book Boom, Bust and Echo.
288
a) True
b) False
52 . The unfettered strike model:
a) Has been in effect since WWII
b) Affects only white collar workers
c) Works best when services are essential
d) Ends strikes and lockouts
e) Is not helpful to labour relations
289
53 . IFA agreements:
a) Recognize all core labour standards
b) Involve unions in implementation
c) Have strong union-management dialogue
d) Cover suppliers
e) All of the above
54 . Recent developments in dispute resolution in the public sector include:
a) The chilling effect
b) The dependency effect
c) The narcotic effect
d) The strike only model
e) A, B, and C
290
55 . Unfair labour practices are true violations of the Labour Relations Act
by employers, unions or employees
a) True
b) False
56 . The number of workers is a function of:
a) Population growth
291
b) immigration
c) retirement choices
d) career patterns
e) all of the above
57 . Measures of strikes include:
a) Frequency
b) Number of workers involved
c) Person-days not worked
d) Percentage of working time lost
e) All of the above
58 . Total compensation has the following elements:
292
a) The monopoly effect
b) The wage effect
c) Base pay and indirect pay
d) Performance pay
e) All of the above
59 . Some of the key elements of a strong ethical program include
responsibility, respect, fairness and honesty. What is one additional
element of a strong ethical program?
a) Compassion
b) Trust
c) Stewardship
d) Transparency
293
60 . Engines of growth with low unionization rates include:
a) Professional sectors
b) Scientific sectors
c) Technical sectors
d) Financial sectors
e) All of the above
61 . The labour movement has often been the catalyst for advocating for
rights and freedoms.
a) True
b) False
294
62 . The Business/Organizational Strategic process consists of:
a) Two phases only
b) One phase only
c) No phases at all
d) Four phases only
e) All of the above
63 . Public sector employers experience the following pressures except:
295
a) Rigid cost constraints
b) Labour intensive constraints
c) Payrolls with high costs
d) Political pressures
e) B, C, and D only
64 . Macroeconomics Policy applies to:
a) Economic wide goals
b) inflation
c) unemployment
d) growth
e) All of the above
296
65 . The contract zone
a) Exists if both side’s bottom line overlaps
b) Exists when management offers more than the union will accept
c) Exists when the union accepts less than the point where negotiating
positions intersect
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
66 . The Wagner Act provided the following:
a) The exclusivity principle.
b) Recognized strikes and lockouts as legal.
c) That all matters fell under the British/North American Act
d) A and B only
e) Only A
297
67 . Two major differences between employment under common law and
employment under collective bargaining law:
a) The requirement for just cause termination for unionized employees
b) Employee benefits in unionized workplaces tied to seniority
c) Bumping and layoffs tied directly to seniority
d) No differences at all
e) A, B, and C
68 . Several of the common names (or terms) relevant to the field of
Industrial Relations include:
298
a) Industrial relations
b) Labour relations
c) Employee relations
d) Employment relations
e) All of the above
69 . There were three distinct actors in the Industrial Relations System
Model.
a) True
b) False
299
70 . The left side of Dunlop’s model includes:
a) Legal subsystem
b) Economic subsystem
c) Ecological subsystem
d) Political subsystem
e) All of the above
71 . The CLC action plan included:
a) Public health care
b) Labour rights
c) Child care
d) Pay equity
e) All of the above
300
72 . Supply curves are:
a) Synonymous to demand shifts
b) Steeper with an inelastic supply of demand
c) Flatter with inelastic supplies of labour
d) None of the above
e) A, B, and C only
73 . Thompson suggests there are four specific management strategies
related to unions:
a) Union acceptance
b) Union avoidance
301
c) Union substitution
d) Union removal
e) All of the above
74 . The no interest model
a) Substitutes the right to strike with arbitration
b) Incorporates the chilling effect
c) Substitutes the right to strike with interest arbitration
d) Uses the narcotic effect
e) Uses no effects
75 . Distribution of work clauses examine issues such as:
302
a) Job rotation
b) Job sharing
c) teams
d) flexible work assignments
e) All of the above
76 . Union responses to globalization have included:
a) Corporate codes of conduct in the 1970s
b) Labour rights campaigns
c) IFA’s
d) Single union global agreements
303
77 . Strike theories include:
a) The hicks theory
b) The total joint costs theory
c) The asymmetric theory
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
78 . The Canadian Labour Congress :
a) Was formed by the merger of the TLC and CLC
b) Was formed by the merger of the CCL and CLC
c) Was formed by the merger of the TLC and CCL
d) Was never formed
e) Should be formed
304
79 . Exclusive jurisdiction allows more than one union to represent workers
of a work group.
a) True
b) False
80 . Canadian evidence to date:
a) Suggests that union removal is not as prevalent in Canada
b) Suggest that union avoidance is not as prevalent in Canada
305
c) Suggests that 70% of Canadian organizations have a union substitution
strategy
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
81 . Chaykowski and Abbott state:
a) Globalization has reduced union success
b) Globalization creates questions about how protected freedom of
association is
c) Globalization creates questions about how protected collective
bargaining is
d) Free markets do not provide optimum allocation of resources
e) All of the above
306
82 . Trends in managerial practices include all but:
a) High performance workplaces
b) Strategic choice
c) Participative management
d) Union representation
e) A and C only
83 . IBB is:
a) Cooperative bargaining only
b) Parties focus only on personalities
c) Parties focus on interests instead of exaggerated positions
d) Based on the assumption that labour and management can’t win
e) All of the above
307
84 . HR practices include:
a) Staffing
b) Training and development
c) Performance appraisal
d) Job evaluation
e) All of the above
85 . Unionization changes do not include:
a) Growing numbers of women
b) Increases in youth densities
c) Public/Private sector differences
d) Provincial differences
308
e) None of the above
86 . Walton & McKersie developed the four sub-processes of collective
bargaining
a) True
b) False
87 . Unionized firms are more likely to hire from within that externally.
309
a) True
b) False
88 . Labour relations clauses in collective agreements specifically deal with
issues concerning the relationship between the parties.
a) True
b) False
310
89 . International Unions in Canada are affiliated with:
a) The CLC directly
b) The AFL – CIO directly
c) The national union
d) The union local
e) None of the above
90 . National locals in Canada are affiliated with:
a) Local labour councils
b) AFL – CIO
c) CLC
d) A, B and C
e) All of the above
311
91 . Employers and unions use legislative reference:
a) Because it ensures currency with the law
b) Because it ensures equity
c) Because it is better than explicit reference
d) Because it is more popular than explicit reference
e) None of the above
92 . Markets promote efficiency through competition and the division of
labour.
a) True
b) False
312
93 . The framework for Work-Life Balance includes:
a) Daycare needs
b) Aging workforce
c) Regulations
d) Labour surpluses
e) A and B only
94 . The 1950’s and 1960’s:
313
a) Seen a decrease in the public sector
b) Seen the formation of a union backed labour organization
c) Seen the decrease in the number of industrial unions
d) Left a labour movement divided between skilled and unskilled
e) B, and D only
95 . Strongholds of labour have often been the manufacturing, natural
resources and the public sector of the economy.
a) True
b) False
314
96 . Unions are more powerful when:
a) Demand for products are elastic
b) Labour is easily substituted
c) Supply of substitutes is inelastic
d) Labour is a big proportion of total costs
e) All of the above
97 . Government has a dual role.
a) True
b) False
315
98 . Collective agreements provide specific language about:
a) Educational leaves
b) No skill training
c) Some skill training
d) Moderate skill training
e) Preferred skill training
99 . Employee measures are becoming important because:
a) The employee value chain is dependent upon employees
316
b) Firms have to use more than financial measures to assess company
performance
c) A and B only
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
100 . Examples of integrative bargaining issues include:
a) Benefits
b) Overtime rates
c) Vacations
d) Holidays
e) Rest breaks
317
101 . The role of collective agreements is to:
a) Establish no rules
b) Establish clear rules
c) Establish procedures governing workplace practices
d) B and C only
e) A, B, and C
102 . Unions have different world-views than managers and corporate
leaders.
a) True
b) False
318
103 . An important assumption of the employment relationship is the
existence of a lack of conflict of interest between managers and employees
a) True
b) False
104 . Procedural justice is an employee’s perception of fairness in the
outcomes of workplace decisions.
a) True
319
b) False
105 . Different types of grievances include:
a) Personal grievances
b) Group grievances
c) Policy grievances
d) B and C only
e) None of the above
106 . Union Density:
320
a) Is a fraction
b) Is the number of union members divided by the labour force x 100
c) Affects union coverage
d) Affects union security
e) A and B only
107 . Canadian municipalities provide more services in:
a) Parks and recreation
b) Public works
c) U.S. cities and towns
d) Internationally
e) A and B
321
108 . A major criticism of Dunlop’s model included:
a) That the model was only descriptive in nature
b) That the model overestimates the importance of power and conflict.
c) That the model is too long
d) The rapid decrease in U. S. unionization
e) All of the above
109 . Canadian unionized workers have the legal right to
a) File a formal grievance
b) Have management formally respond to their grievance
c) Not file a grievance
d) A and B only
e) A, B, and C only
322
110 . Special laws govern labour-management relations in the public
sector.
a) True
b) False
111 . Unionized workers are less satisfied with:
a) Supervisors and supervision
323
b) Job context
c) Lack of promotional opportunities
d) Lack of resources for job performance
e) All of the above
112 . Weber’s theory of social closure states:
a) Various jobs erect barriers to regulate supply
b) Barriers affect earnings
c) Licensing affects restriction into occupations
d) The right to know, participate and refuse
e) All of the above
113 . Restructuring in the public sector has created:
324
a) New public management
b) An incoherent program of reform
c) Less emphasis on job performance in public services
d) Less emphasis on job efficiency in public services
e) None of the above
114 . Demographic impacts include:
a) Babyboomers
b) Birth rates
c) Mandatory retirement
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
325
115 . The IDI Act:
a) Was passed in 1907
b) Was created by William Mackenzie King
c) Stands for International Dilemma Act
d) Is not relevant
e) A and B only
116 . Examples of distributive bargaining issues include:
a) Health and safety
b) Rest breaks
c) Pensions
d) Wages
e) Plant closures
326
117 . New Model Unionism:
a) Was studied by Beatrice & Sidney Webb
b) Was not craft based
c) Took place in the 1900’s
d) Increased wage competition
e) Did not lead to the term trade union
118 . During integrative bargaining, the parties are more likely to inflate the
issues
a) True
327
b) False
119 . The Knights of Labour:
a) Was formed in 1869
b) Was formed in Philadelphia
c) Removed its cloak of secrecy in 1881
d) Has 3 factors differentiating it from other labour origins
e) All of the above
328
120 . Under the Canadian Human Rights Act employers cannot
discriminate on the basis of:
a) Race
b) Colour
c) Age
d) Sexual Orientation
e) all of the above
121 . The four sub-processes of collective bargaining include:
a) Distributive bargaining
b) Integrative bargaining
c) Intra-team bargaining
d) Attitudinal bargaining
e) All of the above
329
122 . The harder it is to substitute capital for labour, the less power labour
will have to raise wages
a) True
b) False
123 . Particular focuses of today’s labour movement include:
a) Social and economic policy issues
b) Equity programs
330
c) Unemployment programs
d) A and B only
e) A, B, and C
124 . The total joint costs theory:
a) Argues strikes are least likely when the cost of the strike is high for both
parties
b) Argues strikes are more likely when the cost of the strike is low for both
parties
c) States strike costs remain constant
d) States nothing of value
e) Is obsolete to labour relations
331
125 . Global markets:
a) Allow greater opportunity for people to tap into larger markets
b) Gives access to less cash flow
c) Gives access to fewer imports
d) Gives less efficiency to all
e) All of the above
126 . Labour takes action at the federal, provincial and local levels when it
comes to addressing human rights and social issues.
a) True
b) False
332
127 . Knights of Labour were first formed in 1869.
a) True
b) False
128 . Services provided by the following may be near monopolies:
a) Teachers
b) Firefighters
c) Nurses
333
d) Police officers
e) All of the above
129 . Collective agreements:
a) Are agreements representing workers in bargaining units
b) Are agreements representing the employer
c) Are all identical
d) A and B only
e) All of the above
130 . Strategic choices focus on:
334
a) No actors, three levels of decision making
b) Three actors, three levels of decision making
c) Two actors, no levels of decision making
d) One actor, one level of decision making
e) None of the above
131 . Globalization impacts industrial relations in Canada include:
a) Employment impacts
b) Union impacts
c) Labour policy impacts
d) Collective bargaining impacts
e) All of the above
335
132 . The CAW’s broad social agenda stands in stark contrast to those of
occupational unions.
a) True
b) False
133 . In the pluralist view of industrial relations:
a) Unions focus on the five elements of equity
b) Management’s focus is also on the five elements of equity
c) Was developed by Barbash
d) Results in strong collective bargaining terms protecting employees
e) A and D only
336
134 . The usual layout of collective agreements consist of except:
a) Cover pages
b) Newspaper articles
c) Santa clauses
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
135 . Integrative bargaining:
a) Promotes a win-lose relationship
b) Promotes a win-win relationship
c) Promotes no relationship
337
d) Promotes mutual gains to both parties
e) A and D only
136 . Demand is more elastic and unions have more power when:
a) Product markets are less competitive.
b) It is easier to substitute labour for capital.
c) Labour costs are a small proportion of the total costs.
d) The market for substitutes are more competitive.
e) All of the above.
137 . Unions exist:
338
a) From 1 broad perspective
b) From 2 broad perspectives
c) From no perspectives
d) From 3 broad perspectives
e) From 4 broad perspectives
138 . Reasons why hr practices are different in union and nonunion firms
include:
a) The shock effect
b) Different presences of union versus nonunion workers
c) The exit theory
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
339
139 . The spillover effect:
a) Only affects nonunion workplaces
b) Only affects unionized workplaces
c) Is a belief that increases in union wages result in decreases in nonunion
wages
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
140 . Examples of hybrid issues are:
a) Technological change
b) Holidays
c) Health and safety
d) Rest breaks
e) None of the above
340
141 . Strike impacts include:
a) Decreased production
b) Loss of pay for workers
c) Psychological well-being impacts on workers
d) Lack of a fully restored employment relationship
e) All of the above
142 . At the start of the millennium:
a) Unions faced few challenges
b) Faced globalization challenges
341
c) Faced a lot of challenges
d) Seen no challenges
e) None of the above
143 . Labour Relations Boards hear cases regarding:
a) Certification
b) Decertification
c) Unfair labour practices
d) Declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts.
e) All of the above
144 . Components of WLC include:
342
a) Role overload
b) Work to family interference
c) Family interference with work
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
145 . Since 2000 many students have witnessed faculty strikes on their
campuses
a) True
b) False
343
146 . Strikes and media receive considerable media attention.
a) True
b) False
147 . The Knights of Labour:
a) Had a minority membership
b) Had 10,000 members in 1881
c) Had 1 million by 1886
d) 18% of their members were in the manufacturing sector
e) B, C, and D only
344
148 . Industrial relations view of equity included a voice, due process, fair
treatment at work and fair compensation.
a) True
b) False
149 . Organizational commitment:
345
a) Is defined in terms of an employee’s acceptance of a company’s goals
and values
b) Is defined in terms of an employees exertion of substantial amount of
effort
c) Is defined in terms of an employee’s aspiration to remain a member of
an organization
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
150 . Institutional globalization theory is the same as free market
globalization.
a) True
b) False
346
151 . The 1990’s and beyond:
a) Was challenging for labour
b) Seen the emergence of NAFTA
c) Brought labour increased levels of unemployment
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
152 . Theories of globalization do not include:
a) Free market globalization theory
b) Institutional globalization theory
c) Lack of globalization theory
d) What is globalization theory
347
e) C and D only
153 . Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor.
a) True
b) False
154 . Characteristics of monopolistic markets include:
a) High wages
348
b) Minimum wages
c) Chronic labour shortages
d) A and C only
e) None of the above
155 . Neutral labour relations boards serve a vital function in the North
American model of Industrial Relations
a) True
b) False
349
156 . Labour standards include:
a) Employment laws and policies
b) Wages
c) Conditions of work
d) Social security
e) All of the above
157 . Recently, a number of employers are seeking not to include
language on:
a) Management rights
b) Legislative reference
c) Explicit reference
d) Same-sex benefits
e) Non of the above
350
158 . Macroeconomic considerations of the economic context include:
a) deregulation
b) privatization
c) the North American Free Trade Agreement
d) elasticity of demand
e) A, B, and C only
159 . Prior to unionization, the employment relationship was best
described as master-servant in nature.
a) True
b) False
351
160 . An industrial dispute is an agreement between employers and
employees
a) True
b) False
161 . Globalization:
352
a) Has resulted in a new political economy
b) Has transformed companies into TNC’s
c) Has reinvented banks
d) Has created WTO, IMF and the World Bank
e) All of the above
162 . The collective agreement is the agreement between the union and
the employer
a) True
b) False
353
163 . The 1970’s and 1980’s was impacted by:
a) Wage, Price Controls and Legislation
b) Free trade agreements
c) The CAW
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
164 . Under the master-servant relationship:
a) The employer made all the rules
b) Employees had limited protection or rights
c) Employees were required to follow the ER’s rules
d) There were power imbalances between both parties
354
e) All of the above
165 . Work-Leisure decisions are influenced by:
a) Wage increases
b) Goods and Services to be purchased
c) Attractiveness of work through higher salaries
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
166 . Participative management characteristics include all but:
a) Decisions made at the highest level possible
355
b) Jobs are designed when individuals or teams have responsibility
c) There is extensive investment in training and development
d) Information concerning business goals, performance and strategies are
shared
e) All of the above
167 . Human Resource Management highlighted five elements of equity.
a) True
b) False
356
168 . The parties involved in a grievance include all but:
a) The community
b) The employee
c) The union
d) Management
e) B, C, and D
169 . Strikes are mechanisms unions use to achieve their bargaining goals
a) True
b) False
357
170 . The following provinces have no ban on the use of replacement
workers:
a) Ontario
b) Manitoba
c) Alberta
d) New Brunswick
e) None of the above
171 . Innovative work practices are more difficult in the public sector
because of:
a) Higher unionization
b) Civil servant rules
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c) Crisis atmospheres
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
172 . Essential components of unions include:
a) Collective bargaining with firms as a purpose
b) Must include a component on their history
c) Must include the aims of founding members
d) Must be independent of employers
e) A and D only
173 . Where does demand for unionization come from:
359
a) Worker dissatisfaction
b) Need for a collective voice
c) Trends in income distribution and poverty
d) Changing workforce composition
e) all of the above
174 . There are unions that do not fit into the categories of craft,
professional, industrial, social or public sector.
a) True
b) False
360
175 . Redcircling:
a) is the only constant change in LR’s
b) is a form of wage protection for employees
c) is a form of wage protection for employers
d) provides no protection
e) all of the above
176 . Examples of Government’s Expanded Role in Collective Bargaining
include:
a) Last offer vote
b) First contract arbitration
c) Public inquiry Commission
d) A, B, and C
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e) A and B only
177 . Three areas of law key to the study of Industrial Relations are:
a) Common law
b) Statutory law
c) Collective bargaining law
d) All the above
e) none of the above
178 . Individual negotiations are not different from bargaining over the
terms of a collective agreement
362
a) True
b) False
179 . ignificant changes in the labour movement have included:
a) More women
b) Legislative changes
c) Increase in the labour force participation rate
d) Increased presence of federations of labour
e) All of the above
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180 . Union decline has been happening because of what following
factors:
a) Globalization
b) Employees exercising greater control over schedules.
c) Changes in company policies
d) The increased un-competitiveness of businesses
e) A and B only
181 . The public sector is an importance component in Canada’s labour
force.
a) True
b) False
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182 . The asymmetric information theory:
a) Claims a union may go on strike to see if a company is bluffing
b) Claims a union may go on strike to see if a company is telling the truth
c) A and B
d) A, B, and C
e) A, B, C and D
183 . Others argue explicit reference is better:
a) As it provides guidance to managers, union leaders and employees
b) Ensures covered groups remain protected is the law changes
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c) May cover groups not covered by legislation
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
184 . Public sector unions have emerged as the largest unions in Canada.
a) True
b) False
185 . Important categories of union membership include:
366
a) Closed shop
b) Union shop
c) Rand Formula
d) Union density formula
e) A, B, and C
186 . Union growth factors include:
a) Social upheaval
b) Growth in public services
c) Union mergers
d) Removal of legal barriers
e) All of the above
367
187 . Beatrice & Sidney Webb studied old model unionism
a) True
b) False
188 . The Strategic Choice Framework:
a) Contains three essential ingredients
b) Says that industrial relations decisions are made two levels
c) Requires effective strategies to work in one direction to achieve major
goals
d) Was developed by Kochan, Katz and McKersie
e) All of the above
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189 . The collective bargaining mode:
a) Was developed by Katz, Kochan and Hicks
b) Discusses that disputes arise over only monetary issues
c) Includes a concept called the contract zone
d) A and C only
e) All of the above
190 . The Hicks Theory:
a) Is also known as the accident theory
b) Assumes that irrational negotiators seek out strikes
369
c) States that strikes should be expected
d) States strikes result in errors
e) States lockouts result in high costs
191 . Wildcat strikes are legal strikes
a) True
b) False
192 . Most collective agreements have an informal pre-grievance process:
370
a) Followed by 1-2 formal stages
b) Followed by 2 formal stages
c) Followed by 3-4 formal stages
d) Followed by 4 formal stages
e) Followed by no formal stages
193 . Steps in bargaining involve:
a) Obtaining a mandate from constituents
b) Notice to bargain is served by management or union
c) Communicating priorities
d) Reaching a contract zone
e) All of the above
371
194 . The Business/Organizational Strategic process consists of:
a) An assessment of internal and external environments
b) Strategy formulation
c) Strategy implementation
d) Strategy evaluation
e) All of the above
195 . Performance appraisals have two purposes
a) True
b) False
372
196 . Institutional economists believe that unions would improve efficiency
and equity of markets.
a) True
b) False
197 . Politics play a much greater role in public-sector collective bargaining
that in the private sector.
a) True
373
b) False
198 . Training and development literature found that:
a) Unionized firms provide more training
b) There is a positive relationship between unionization and employerprovided training
c) Unions have a positive impact on employee participation
d) Unions have no impact on training
e) A, B, and C
374
199 . Non-union workplaces operate under the master-servant
relationship.
a) True
b) False
200 . The Wagner Act is crafted on the principle of voluntarism.
a) True
b) False
375
201 . Secondary picketing is part of the freedom of expression.
a) True
b) False
202 . Labour force growth is fuelled by population growth and immigration
a) True
b) False
376
203 . Teams are:
a) Used by few companies
b) Are used by 50% of companies
c) Are obsolete
d) Are a lot of work
e) Are not worth studying
204 . NAFTA:
377
a) Caused a decrease in full-time employment
b) Caused an increase in part-time employment
c) Caused an increase in self-employed people
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
205 . The Wagner Act:
a) Created an independent agency
b) Defined unfair labour practices for employees only
c) Did not adhere to the doctrine of exclusivity
d) Was unimportant to collective bargaining
e) All of the above
378
206 . Canada has a centralized legal framework.
a) True
b) False
207 . Labour relations clauses in collective agreements deal with:
a) Issues concerning the relationship between the parties
b) Grievances procedures
c) Preferred bargaining methods
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
379
208 . The AFL was built on:
a) Exclusive jurisdiction
b) Pure and simple unionism only
c) Political non partisanship
d) A, B, and C
e) A and B only
209 . Various forms of union security include:
a) Union shop
b) Closed shop
c) Rand Formula
d) Merritt Formula
380
e) A and B only
210 . Some of the following collective agreement clauses are found on
HRSDC’s list:
a) Rights of parties
b) The organization of work
c) Labour relations processes
d) Education training & development
e) All of the above
211 . Dispute Resolution mechanisms include all EXCEPT:
381
a) mediation
b) mediation/arbitration
c) conciliation
d) voluntarism
e) arbitration
212 . Monopsony exists when a firm is a wage taker but not a wage setter
a) True
b) False
382
213 . The do’s and don’ts of bargaining include:
a) Starting with the tough issues first presenting tactical problems
b) If parties cannot generate movement, talks won’t collapse
c) Starting with bigger issues leads to great momentum
d) Neither side likes to lock out or strike over monetary issues
e) None of the above
214 . For non-union firms, labour market forces will largely determine
employee compensation and conditions
a) True
b) False
383
215 . Unions will often not seek collective agreement language that
provides various forms of union security.
a) True
b) False
216 . Minimum standards affect:
a) Hours of work.
b) overtime
384
c) minimum wages
d) vacation
e) all of the above
217 . Dunlop’s System discussed:
a) The concept of a set of ideas and beliefs to bind the system together as
an entity
b) This shared ideology did not define the role and function of each actor
c) Didn’t require all three actors to respect and value the roles of the other
two
d) That industry stability depended on the actors sharing this common
ideology
e) Only A and D
385
218 . The Neoclassical economics view of industrial relations stressed the
importance of institutions and multiple actors in the employment
relationship.
The Neoclassical economics view of industrial relations stressed the
importance of institutions and multiple actors in the employment
relationship.
a) True
b) False
219 . The threat effect:
a) Is the same as the spillover effect
b) Is the same as wage differentials
c) Is a belief that nonunion employers increase wages to avoid unionization
386
d) Is the same as profit sharing
e) Is the same as gainsharing
220 . Canadian labour challenges include:
a) Democratization
b) Leadership
c) Contingent workers
d) Union education
e) All of the above
221 . Deregulation has affected:
387
a) Daycares
b) The government
c) Trucking
d) Customs
e) None of the above
222 . The triangle of pressures does not include:
a) The union
b) The employer
c) Union members
d) The community
e) All of the above
388
223 . Three basic rights of workers from the Canadian Internal
Responsibility Model:
a) The right to laugh
b) The right to question
c) The right to decide
d) The right to know, participate and refuse
e) Workers have no rights
224 . Canadian laws:
a) Have increased the number of strikes in Canada
b) Define a greater public policy role for arbitrators
c) Have decreased union density
d) Have given arbitrators a decreasing role in interpreting relevant
employment law
e) All of the above
389
225 . Labour relations clauses in Collective Agreement’s include
participatory mechanisms:
a) Such as joint committees
b) To set the tone for the relationship of the parties
c) Provides a guiding relationship
d) To discuss continuous bargaining
e) A and B only
226 . Nontraditional work arrangements:
a) Differ from the norm in terms of the employment term
390
b) Differ in terms of location
c) Differ in terms of schedule
d) Differ in terms of hours or pay
e) All of the above
227 . Topics the CLC include in its human rights discussion included:
a) Anti-racism
b) Men
c) Workers with abilities
d) Workers with no abilities
e) Workers with select abilities
228 . According to Swimner, restraint policies apply to:
391
a) Direct employees of government
b) Schools
c) Hospitals
d) Lower levels of government
e) B, C, and D
229 . The 1970’s and 1980’s:
a) Were influenced by fluctuating oil prices
b) Seen low inflation
c) Was a less challenging decade for labour
d) Were the best decades for labour
e) Were not relevant
392
230 . P.C. 1003 facts included all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Unrest that gave rise to a new political movement.
b) Increased conflict in the steel industry.
c) Carbon copy legislation to the American Wagner Act.
d) Was not intended to be a permanent measure.
e) Was not replaced by the Industrial Relations and Dispute Investigation
Act.
231 . IBB steps include all but:
a) Identifying the problem
b) Searching for alternative solutions
c) Comparing alternatives
d) Reporting references
393
e) Considering remedial actions
232 . The collective voice:
a) May decrease productivity through communication
b) Enables methods of voicing discontent
c) Provides no grievance procedures
d) Does not shock management
e) None of the above
233 . Labour challenges of the future will include:
a) Cultural challenges
394
b) Ethic challenges
c) Language diversity challenges
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
234 . Globalization has created a new political economy.
a) True
b) False
235 . High performance work practices include:
395
a) Recruitment and selection
b) Compensation
c) Training and development
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
236 . Innovative work practices:
a) Include socio-technical systems design
b) Are more difficult in the public sector
c) Are easier in the private sector
d) A and B only
e) C only
396
237 . There have been two great waves of unionism.
a) True
b) False
238 . Several common elements of globalization include:
a) Centralization of bargaining
b) Greater management power
c) Increase in strikes
d) Significant impacts on employees
e) All of the above
397
239 . Staffing consists of:
a) The selection process
b) The deselection process
c) The concept of layoff
d) A and B only
e) The termination concept
240 . The political economics view:
a) Is a view of Industrial Relations
b) Is grounded in socialism and marxism.
398
c) Stresses the role of inherent conflict
d) Is the most widely held view of Industrial Relations
e) Only A, B, and C
241 . The TLC:
a) Was formed in Nebraska
b) Was formed in the USA
c) Was formed the same year as the AFL
d) Is not applicable to labour relations
e) Non of the above
242 . The evolving managerial view was affected by scientific
management.
399
a) True
b) False
243 . Generally speaking, grievors are more likely to be:
a) Women
b) Older workers
c) Younger workers
d) Unskilled workers
e) Uncommitted workers
400
244 . The participation-based model:
a) Focuses on extrinsic factors
b) Induces employee engagement
c) Focuses on intrinsic factors
d) Uses job rotation
e) Uses no investment in training
245 . Employee rights have been granted to employees in the following
areas:
a) Human rights
b) Plant closures
c) Parental leave
d) Pension
401
e) Only A, B, and D
246 . The queuing model:
a) States that unions cannot represent all who wish to be in a unionized
position
b) Results in a queue for the reason stated in (a)
c) A and B
d) None of the above
e) None of this applies
247 . Lowe’s views expressed the following dominant themes:
402
a) Human resource development
b) Worker participation
c) Participation initiatives
d) A and B only
e) All of the above
248 . It has been argued by some that unions have outlived their
usefulness as organizations
a) True
b) False
403
249 . What is the most effective way for organizations to prevent sexual
harassment?
a) To publicly humiliate offenders through organizational communication
channels
b) To educate all employees about sexual harassment with mandatory
training sessions
c) To develop policies and procedures for filing complaints on sexual
harassment
d) To distribute electronic information on the organization’s compliance with
laws
250 . Globalization is:
a) The integration of world economies
b) Increased mobility of goods
404
c) A recent development
d) Not a new development
e) A, B, and D only
251 . Marshall’s four theoretical conditions determining the wage elasticity
of labour do not include:
a) People effects
b) Product market effects
c) Elasticity of supply effects
d) Labour power effects
e) Labour un-intensity effects
405
252 . North American unionism has been considered “bread and butter”
focused
a) True
b) False
253 . The economic theory:
a) Argues that unions reduce productivity
b) Argues that management flexibility is enhanced
c) Decreases wages below competitive levels
d) Influences the collective voice
e) All of the above
406
254 . Union reaction to privatization considerations include:
a) Acquiescence
b) Traditional collective bargaining
c) Creative responses
d) Proactive responses
e) All of the above
255 . Human Resources or Strategic Choice Perspective:
a) Was a total waste of time
b) Is only used in HRM studies not the Industrial Relations field.
c) Was not developed by Kochan, Katz and McKersie.
407
d) Minimizes the elements of democracy.
e) Is grounded in socialism
256 . Causes of strikes include:
a) Catalysts
b) Economic factors
c) Unresolved grievances
d) Intra-organizational factors
e) All of the above
257 . Functions of the Provincial Federation include:
408
a) Representing member unions
b) Enacting labour legislation
c) A and B only
d) Lobbying provincial governments
e) A, B and D only
258 . Categories that have inordinate public interest are:
a) Teachers
b) Civil servants
c) Police
d) Hospitals
e) All of the above
409
259 . Under the principle of residual rights, management retains that it held
before unionization with the exception of rights that have been restricted by
the agreement.
a) True
b) False
260 . Barbash’s Equity Efficiency Theory:
a) Defined employment relationships
b) Argued that employers usually focused on efficiency
c) Argued that unions and employees did not concentrate on equity
d) Was often used by the scholars Noah and Metz.
e) Only A, B, & D
410
261 . The designation model:
a) Determines essential services prior to the start of negotiating
b) Is only done in Ontario and Quebec
c) Is most common in Canada for nurses
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
262 . Seniority is:
a) How old one is.
b) Length of time a person has been a member of the union.
411
c) How long one has been a union steward.
d) Not applicable to Industrial Relations.
e) Should only concern non-unionized workers.
Total Compensation
1. Some examples of family care benefits include the following except:
a) Provision of daycare
b) Provision of elder care benefits
c) Subsidized dependent care provisions
d) Personal days and sick leaves
2. Pay equity is
412
a) the right to equal pay for the same work
b) the right to similar pay for similar work
c) the right to equal pay for work of equal value
d) fair pay for fair work
3. Competitive pay is pay that is:
a) within 10% of the market
b) within 15% of the market
c) within 20% of the market
d) sufficient to hire away an employee from a competitor
Organizational Learning, Training and Development
413
1. There are many approaches to On-the-Job Training including: on-thespot lecture, viewed performance/feedback, following Nellie, and job-aid
approach. Which of the following is another On-the-Job Training Approach?
a) The natural step
b) Following Alan
c) On-the-spot discussion
d) The training step
2. When estimating the benefits of training programs, professional
assumptions and judgements are necessary. What else is a major issue
when participating in this estimation process?
a) The quality and timeliness of the information
b) The credibility of the information source for the estimate
c) The consistency and comparability of the information
d) The understandability and usefulness of the information
414
3. What is the concept that refers to training programs that focus on the
use of computers and computer systems?
a) Information technology training
b) Computer-based training
c) Computer software training
d) Blended training
4. What is the concept that refers to deeply ingrained assumptions,
generalizations, or images that influence how we understand the world and
how we take action?
a) Structural capital
b) Mental models
415
c) Implicit knowledge
d) Formal learning
5. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which a trainee
receives instruction and training at his or her workstation from a supervisor
or an experienced co-worker?
a) Off-the-job training
b) Job instruction training
c) On-the-job training
d) Coaching
6. What is the concept that refers to mentoring activities that include
coaching, sponsorship, exposure, visibility, protection, and the provision of
challenging assignments?
416
a) Psychosocial support
b) Apprenticeship
c) Mentorship
d) Career support
7. What is the flow of the conditioning process used in conditioning theory?
a) Stimulus-Behaviour-Consequence
b) Behaviour-Stimulus-Consequence
c) Stimulus-Consequence-Behaviour
d) None of the above
417
8. What is the concept that refers to training employees to perform each
other’s jobs?
a) Job rotation
b) Job enlargement
c) Cross training
d) Apprenticeship
9. What is the concept that refers to the similarity of the psychological
conditions of the simulation to the actual work environment?
a) Simulations
b) Physical fidelity
c) Role play
d) Psychological fidelity
418
10. Under what conditions might computer-based training be more
effective than classroom instruction?
a) When the instructor chooses the training method
b) When the instructional methods are different
c) When the training is for procedural knowledge
d) When the training is a form of blended training
11. Which of the following is not a purpose of group discussion?
a) It helps trainees recognize what they do not know but should know
b) It is an opportunity for trainees to get answers to questions
c) It is a way for trainers to learn about what is important to trainees
d) It allows trainees to get advice on matters that are of concern to them
419
12. In the Model of Training Effectiveness, what part of the model flows
into Individual Behaviour and Performance?
a) Self-Efficacy
b) Learning and Retention
c) Cognitive Ability
d) Training Motivation
13. What is the concept that refers to what trainees are expected to be
able to do after a training program?
a) Active practice
420
b) Training objective
c) Training design
d) Adaptive expertise
14. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25000, what is the Net Benefit?
a) (125 000)
b) (75 000)
c) 75 000
d) 125 000
15. What is the concept that refers to training programs that teach subjectmatter experts how to design and deliver training programs?
421
a) Train-the-trainer
b) Trainability testers
c) Training administrators
d) Training planners
16. What concept refers to a training method in which trainees are
exposed to different jobs, functions, and areas within an organization?
a) Cross training
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Job enrichment
422
17. What is the concept that refers to the acquisition of a broad range of
managerial knowledge and general conceptual abilities?
a) On-the-job management development
b) Management training
c) Apprenticeship
d) Management education
18. With what does the needs-analysis process start?
a) Itch
b) Idea
c) Ideal
d) ILD
423
19. What is the concept in research that refers to when the comparison is
not made to another group of untrained people?
a) Training evaluation designs
b) Quasi-experimental designs
c) Experimental designs
d) Non-experimental designs
20. What is the concept that refers to training that involves the use of
technology to deliver courses?
a) Traditional training
b) Technology-based training
c) Computer-based training
424
d) E-Learning
21. What is the concept that refers to the creation, collection, storage,
distribution, and application of compiled “know-what” and “know-how?”
a) Knowledge management
b) Explicit knowledge
c) Structural knowledge
d) Strategic knowledge
22. In Baldwin and Ford’s model of the Transfer of the Training Process,
which of the following is not a training input?
425
a) Trainee Characteristics
b) Training Design
c) Work Environment
d) Trainee Knowledge
23. What is the concept that refers to an intervention that instructs trainees
to anticipate transfer obstacles and high-risk situations in the work
environment and to develop coping skills and strategies to overcome them?
a) Conflict management
b) Training intervention
c) Relapse prevention
d) Conflict resolution
426
24. Which training method is least effective because it allows trainees to
be passive absorbers of information?
a) Video conferencing
b) Case incident
c) Games
d) Simulations
25. What is the concept where the training explicitly encourages trainees
to make errors during training and to learn from them?
a) Active learning
b) Exploratory learning
c) Error-management training
d) Error-avoidant training
427
26. The pillars of lifelong learning cited by the composite learning index
(CLI) include learning to know, learning to do, and learning to live together.
What is the last pillar suggested by the CLI?
a) Learning to grow
b) Learning to believe
c) Learning to learn
d) Learning to be
27. What is the concept that refers to an approach to training that gives
trainees control over their own learning?
a) Active learning
b) Conditions of practice
c) Exploratory learning
428
d) Active practice
28. What type of goal is process-oriented and focuses on the learning
process?
a) Process goals
b) Distal goals
c) Mastery goals
d) Proximal goals
29. Which of the following is not related to a Person Analysis?
a) Define desire performance
429
b) Determine gap
c) Identify obstacles
d) Obtain description
30. The following are true concerning reinforcement theory:
a) Focuses on the power of external rewards and punishments in the
motivation of behaviour
b) Has been used in organizations in the form of incentive systems
c) The application of reinforcement theory is sometimes called behaviour
modification
d) All of the above
430
31. Some of the key environmental factors that drive human resources and
training and development are global competition, the labour market, and
change. What is the fourth item that affects these things?
a) Ecology
b) Technology
c) Legislation
d) Competitors
32. What is the concept that refers to an agreement outlining how the
newly learned skills will be applied on the job?
a) Employment contract
b) Performance contract
c) Training contract
d) Knowledge contract
431
33. What is the concept that refers to characteristics in the work
environment that can either facilitate or inhibit the application of training on
the job?
a) Organizational climate
b) Learning culture
c) Training transfer climate
d) Organizational culture
34. If there is a type of problem participant known as the “rigid one” how
would you describe this individual?
a) Will find loopholes in your ideas and present impossible “what-if?”
scenarios
432
b) A problem magnifier who finds the world unfair and is a specialist in
blaming and fault-finding
c) Constantly looks for opportunities to disagree, to show up the other
participants and the trainer
d) Staunchly takes a position on an issue and will rarely, if at all, move from
it
35. Which of the following is not a typical way to measure behaviours?
a) Self-reports
b) Observations
c) Video recording
d) Production indicators
433
36. What is the correct depiction between training and development,
individual learning and organizational learning?
a) Training & Development-Individual Learning-Organizational Learning
b) Individual Learning-Organizational Learning- Training & Development
c) Organizational Learning-Individual Learning-Training & Development
d) Training & Development-Organizational Learning-Individual Learning
37. What is the concept that refers to groups of people with common
interests and concerns who meet regularly to share their experiences and
knowledge, learn from each other, and identify new approaches for working
and solving problems?
a) Self-directed work teams
b) Informal learning
c) Self-directed learning
d) Communities of practice
434
38. What is the concept that provides the trainees with step-by-step
instructions on how to perform a task and the rules, principles, and
strategies for effective performance?
a) Exploratory/ discovery learning
b) Proceduralized instruction
c) Active learning
d) Routine expertise
39. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons that training
programs fail?
a) Failure to isolate the effects of training
b) Regarding training as an Event
435
c) Failure to respond to needs of employees
d) Failure to recognize non-training solutions
40. According to Wenger and Lave, which of the following is not a
characteristic of a community of practice?
a) Practice
b) Community
c) Interests
d) Domain
41. What is one new way in which employees can add competitiveness to
their organizations?
436
a) Employees can have pay and benefits cuts
b) Employees can take technical skills training
c) Employees can undergo literacy testing
d) Employees can enroll in ethics training
42. What is the concept that refers to extensions of training programs that
involve a review of the training material?
a) Post-training supplements
b) Self-coaching
c) Apprenticeship
d) Booster sessions
437
43. Training is often the best solution to performance problems. Under
which condition is training not the best solution?
a) If coaching is expensive
b) If the task is performed frequently
c) If the task is difficult
d) If correct performance is critical
44. What is one type of activity that can be used to greet participants at a
training event?
a) Hire a motivational speaker for a breakfast meeting
b) Serve an exotic breakfast to entice a bigger crowd
c) Have trainees spontaneously meet their colleagues
d) Write a trainee’s name on a name card
438
45. What is the concept that refers to the measurement of a training
program’s ability to meet managerial expectations?
a) Return on investment
b) Return on expectations
c) Return on equity
d) Return on evaluation
46. Role play is a training method in which trainees practise new
behaviours in a safe environment. What are the three phases of role play?
a) Planning; implementing; feedback
b) Organizing; analyzing; control
c) Innovation; trial runs; conclusions
439
d) Development; enactment; debriefing
47. What is the concept that refers to a seminar that takes place live over
the Web?
a) Asynchronous training
b) Webcast
c) Synchronous training
d) Webinar
48. Which of the following training methods has a low probability of being
transferred on the job?
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a) Behavioural modelling
b) Role play
c) Discussion
d) Tech-based training
49. According to Robert Gagné, a training program should have nine
events of instruction. What is the final stage?
a) Assess performance
b) Enhance retention and transfer
c) Provide informative feedback
d) Elicit performance practice
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50. What is the concept that refers to the degree to which the trainee
reports receiving support in his or her attempts to transfer the learning
skills?
a) Organizational support
b) Perceived support
c) Perceived organizational support
d) Anticipated support
51. What is the concept that refers to the use of a combination of
approaches to training such as classroom training, on-the-job training, and
computer technology?
a) Blended training
b) Active practice
c) Attentional advice
d) Metacognition
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52. What is the definition for far transfer?
a) The transfer of knowledge and skills across different settings or contexts
at the same level
b) The extent to which trainees can apply what was learned in training to
situations that are very similar to those in which they were trained
c) Transfer from the individual or trainee level to the organizational level or
the extent to which changes in trainee behaviour or performance transfer to
organizational level outcomes
d) The extent to which trainees can apply what was learned in training to
novel or different situations from those in which they were trained
53. The Learning Transfer System Inventory (LTSI) consists of many
specific factors including: opportunities to use, learner readiness, transfer
design, peer support, motivation to transfer and supervisor sanctions. What
is one additional specific factor for the LTSI?
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a) Personal capacity for transfer
b) Performance coaching
c) Resistance or openness to change
d) Performance self-efficacy
54. Why should trainers calculate the costs and benefits of their training
programs?
a) So they know how much to charge their customers for training
b) So they can demonstrate the financial value of their programs
c) So they can rationalize their high prices for training
d) So they justify why training should be an investment not a cost
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55. What does the COMA model represent?
a) Cognitive, Organizational, Motivational, Attitudinal
b) Culture, Organizational, Management, Adaptive
c) Control, Observational, Motivational, Active
d) Climate, Observational, Management, Analysis
56. What is one reason that employers do not conduct training
evaluations?
a) Because of the perception that they are too complicated
b) Because of the perception that organizations lack the expertise
c) Because of the perception the information is not used
d) Because of the perception the quality of training will not improve
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57. Which of the following is not a main variable measured in a training
evaluation?
a) Reactions
b) Learning
c) Behaviour
d) Needs assessment
58. Lack of tools and procedures, rapid change in technology and poor job
design are all technical barriers to effective performance. What is the one
remaining technical barrier to effective performance?
a) Lack of performance measurements
b) Resources sub-optimized
c) Ineffective feedback
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d) Raw data, not normative data
59. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which trainees
accept the challenge of studying and solving real-world problems and
accept responsibility for the solution?
a) Active learning
b) Action learning
c) Case method
d) Simulation
60. Evaluating training programs requires knowledge about many fields.
What is one area about which knowledge is not required for evaluating
training programs?
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a) Research design
b) Data analysis
c) Measurement
d) Qualitative analysis
61. Which of the following is not one of the skill sets that is required for
emotional intelligence?
a) Empathy
b) Motivation
c) Kindness
d) Self-control
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62. What is the concept that refers to the adult-oriented approach to
learning that takes into account the differences between adult and child
learners?
a) Pedagogy
b) Andragogy
c) Asynchronous
d) Synchronous
63. What is the concept that refers to the conditioned response that occurs
in circumstances different from those during learning?
a) Generalization
b) Chaining
c) Shaping
d) Observation
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64. What is the concept that refers to the generalization of knowledge and
skills over time?
a) Transfer of training
b) Generalization
c) Maintenance
d) Trainability
65. What is the concept that refers to the qualities and behaviours that
shape the direction of the organization and which inspire others to pursue
that direction in the face of obstacles and constraints?
a) Leadership
b) Management
c) Delegation
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d) Coaching
66. The following conditions are prepractice training conditions including
attentional advice, advance organizers, goal orientation, and prepractice
briefs. What is one additional prepractice condition not listed?
a) Cognitive strategies
b) Preparatory information
c) Prepractice beliefs
d) Distributed practice
67. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25000, what is the benefit-cost ratio?
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a) 0.4
b) 4
c) 40
d) 400
68. Most types of learning have the transfer of skills, knowledge and
information. Which type of learning occurs naturally as part of work and is
not planned?
a) Organizational learning
b) Informal learning
c) Learning acquisition
d) Formal learning
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69. The following technologies are major types of technology-based
training including intranet, extranet, electronic performance support system,
and electronic simulation. Which of the following is not an additional type of
technology-based training?
a) Multimedia
b) Teleconference
c) Television
d) Wii
70. Using Gagné’s Classification Scheme, which learning outcome has to
do with procedural knowledge?
a) Verbal information
b) Motor skills
c) Intellectual skills
d) Cognitive strategies
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71. What is the concept that refers to reaction measures that assess
trainees’ likes and dislikes of a training program?
a) Positive reactions
b) Negative reactions
c) Affective reactions
d) Utility reactions
72. Team training is designed to improve the functioning and effectiveness
of teams in areas like communication, coordination, compensatory
behaviour and mutual performance monitoring. What is one additional area
that team training can improve?
a) Exchange of feedback
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b) Diversity training
c) Sexual harassment
d) Cross-cultural training
73. The final step in any training program is to:
a) Decide on the training location and deliver the training program
b) Evaluate the training content and methods
c) Test the students application of learning to the workplace
d) Reassess the needs of the organization
74. To what is synchronous training similar?
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a) A pre-recorded session
b) A computer simulation
c) A live classroom
d) A mentorship opportunity
75. Which of the following is not an advantage of On-the-Job Training?
a) Trainees’ application of training is more direct and immediate
b) Trainees’ application of training occurs with less difficulty
c) Training is more customized to needs of trainees
d) Training cost is much lower than Off-the-Job Training
76. What is the equation for Readiness to Learn and Trainability?
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a) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation X Perceptions
of the Work Environment)
b) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation) +
Perceptions of the Work Environment
c) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = Ability (Motivation + Perceptions of
the Work Environment)
d) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability + Motivation) (Perceptions
of the Work Environment)
77. In order to be an effective trainer, what one primary ability must the
trainer have?
a) The ability to be enthusiastic and excited
b) The ability to be motivating and arousing
c) The ability to communicate and be humourous
d) The ability to make the material interesting
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78. Formal learning and informal learning differ on a variety of factors
including control, relevance, structure, and outcomes. What is the final
factor that is missing from this list?
a) Content
b) Specificity
c) Timing
d) Needs
79. What is the concept that studies the acquisition of knowledge, skills,
and abilities required to perform future job responsibilities?
a) Knowledge management
b) Training
c) Human capital
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d) Development
80. Some of the training delivery activities include: develop a lesson plan,
choose the trainer, prepare the training site, schedule the training program,
and administer the training. What is one additional training delivery activity?
a) Decide on the location
b) Determine the training materials
c) Conduct research on the topic
d) Solicit feedback on the training program
81. What is the name of a person who is familiar with the knowledge, skills,
and abilities required to perform a task or job?
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a) Subject-matter expert
b) Knowledge manager
c) Trainer
d) Content specialist
82. What is the concept that refers to a cohesive unit of instruction with a
specific learning objective?
a) Lesson plan
b) Learning activity
c) Lesson
d) Mentorship
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83. What is the concept that refers to the process of identifying all the
expenditures used in training?
a) Direct costs
b) Expensing
c) Indirect costs
d) Costing
84. Upon what two things is the effectiveness of a training method
dependent?
a) Budget; cost effectiveness
b) Training motivation; needs assessment
c) Training objectives; learning outcomes
d) Training design; learning and retention
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85. What is the concept that refers to a process to assess the value – the
worthiness – of training programs to employees and to organizations?
a) Program assessment
b) Performance review
c) Training evaluation
d) Data analysis
86. What is the concept that refers to the process of studying employee
behaviour to determine whether performance meets standards?
a) Task analysis
b) Needs analysis
c) Organizational analysis
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d) Person analysis
87. What concept refers to a method of forecasting the financial benefits
that result from human resource programs such as training and
development?
a) Utility analysis
b) Financial analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
88. Which of the following is not a barrier to the transfer of training?
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a) Reward systems don’t support new skills
b) Old habits could not be changed
c) Did not see a need to apply what was learned
d) Skills are not inappropriate in our work unit
89. Lack of knowledge, skills, motivation and group norms are all human
barriers to effective performance. What is the one remaining human barrier
to effective performance?
a) Counterproductive reward systems
b) Poor job design
c) Informal leaders
d) Ill-defined goals and objectives
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90. If there is a type of problem participant known as the “non-listener” how
would you describe this individual?
a) Shy, reluctant, and silent most of the time
b) Likes to parade his/her knowledge before everyone
c) Tends to interrupt, cuts others off, leaps in before others have had their
say
d) Has interesting inputs but they do not relate to the topic
91. What is the concept that refers to a formalized, structured, and
systematic approach to on-the-job training that consists of four steps:
preparation, instruction, performance, and follow-up?
a) Job instruction training
b) Coaching
c) Mentoring
d) Apprenticeship
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92. Which of the following is not one of the core managerial roles
presented by Mintzberg?
a) Interpersonal
b) Knowledgeable
c) Informational
d) Decisional
93. Which of the following is not a typical level associated with
organizational learning?
a) Organizational level
b) Individual level
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c) Group level
d) Team level
94. The most sophisticated learning management systems have such
features as assessments, course catalogues and communication tools.
What is one additional feature found in a sophisticated learning
management system?
a) Individual learning plans
b) Performance reviews
c) Training programs
d) Training activities
95. What is the concept that refers to the capability to provide learning and
training opportunities when they are needed and where they are needed?
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a) Outsourcing
b) Just-in-time learning
c) Training and development
d) Rapid e-learning
96. What is the concept that looks at the process of establishing
performance expectations with employees, designing interventions and
programs to improve performance, and monitoring the success of
interventions and programs?
a) Performance management
b) Balanced scorecard
c) Process measurement
d) Training development
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97. What is the concept that includes the shared beliefs, values, and
assumptions that exist in an organization?
a) Vision
b) Organizational climate
c) Organizational culture
d) Mission
98. Why is on-the-job training the most common and most misused
approach to training?
a) Because it is chronically under-funded
b) Because it is not well planned or structured
c) Because it is over-used as an approach
d) Because it is taught by inexperienced people
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99. What concept refers to finding the value at which benefits equal costs
and utility is equal to zero?
a) Utility analysis
b) Financial analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
100. What is the concept that refers to a trainee’s intended effort to utilize
skills and knowledge learned in training on the job?
a) Motivation to know
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b) Motivation to transfer
c) Motivation to train
d) Motivation to learn
101. What type of training requires a systematic process of continual
improvement?
a) Information technology training
b) Blended training
c) Team training
d) Total quality management
102. Which of the following is not a Web 2.0 tool?
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a) Webinars
b) Blogs
c) Wikis
d) Podcasts
103. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25 000, what is the Return on Investment?
a) -5
b) -3
c) 3
d) 5
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104. What is the concept that demonstrates when a training method has
differential effects on trainees with different attitudes?
a) Behaviour modelling
b) Role play
c) Psychological fidelity
d) Aptitude-treatment interaction
105. In order to maximize learning and retention with technology-based
training, what should training programs include?
a) Active practice
b) Cognitive ability
c) Self-efficacy
d) Attitudes
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106. What type of motivation focuses on the direction, intensity, and
persistence of learning-directed behaviour in training contexts?
a) Intrinsic motivation
b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
107. Job task analysis is a component of the training needs analysis
process during which:
a) The jobs and specific job tasks that are in need of training are identified
and studied
b) Individual employees’ behaviour is studied to identify gaps in
performance
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c) A persons current performance is compared to a desired standard
d) The knowledge, skill and behavioural changes of trainees are analyzed
108. What is the concept that refers to the process of getting things done,
efficiently and effectively, through and with other people?
a) Leadership
b) Management
c) Delegation
d) Coaching
109. In the Model of Training Effectiveness what general category does
not flow into Learning and Retention?
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a) Individual Behaviour and Performance
b) Trainee Characteristics
c) Work Environment
d) Training Design
110. What is the greatest advantage to an organization of computer-based
training?
a) Overall training costs are reduced due to the elimination of typical costs
b) Employees’ performance can be tracked for mandatory training and
certification
c) Large numbers of employees can be trained within a short period of time
d) All trainees receive the same training irrespective of their location
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111. Needs analysis is used to:
a) Clarify the nature of performance gaps
b) Determine if training is a good solution to performance problems
c) Write training objectives
d) All of the above
112. What is the concept that refers to an approach to learning that
emphasizes interactive learning environments?
a) Web 2.0
b) Blended training
c) Social constructivism
d) Group discussions
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113. What is the concept that refers to the techniques used to convey the
training content within a training program?
a) Active learning
b) On-the-job training
c) Training design
d) Instructional methods
114. One study revealed that Canadian employers are not leaders in
training and development. According to this study, what percentage of adult
workers participate in job-related training?
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
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d) 0.4
115. What is the concept that refers to the provision of data about the
worthiness or effectiveness of a training program?
a) Formative evaluations
b) Summative evaluations
c) Descriptive evaluations
d) Causal evaluations
116. What is the concept that refers to the ability to manage your own and
others’ emotions and your relationships with others?
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a) Management
b) Leadership
c) Conflict resolution
d) Emotional intelligence
117. What is one of the basic components of management development?
a) Self-efficacy
b) Leadership
c) Decision-making
d) Attitude
118. Which of the following is not one of the general categories of
management skills?
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a) Conceptual
b) Technical
c) Knowledgeable
d) Interpersonal
119. Which of the following is not a benefit of training and development?
a) Facilitate organizational strategy
b) Increase HR effectiveness
c) Link business strategy to organizational strategy
d) Improve employee recruitment and retention
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120. The Instruction Systems Design (ISD) model incorporates the
following except:
a) Needs analysis
b) Training design
c) Safety climate
d) Training delivery
121. What is the concept that includes those things that you can buy or
trade, such as patents or copyrights and other forms of intellectual
property?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Knowledge
c) Explicit knowledge
d) Knowledge management
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122. It is important to consider the scheduling of the training program.
What is one question that will need to be posed with respect to scheduling
the training program?
a) What time of day will the training event be held?
b) Who is going to attend the training event?
c) What needs are being fulfilled with the training event?
d) How long will the training event last?
123. What do most organizations do for training courses in basic skills?
a) Form alliances with educational institutions for trainees’ benefit
b) Purchase pre-packaged materials from other organizations
c) Hire external experts to deliver specific content to trainees
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d) Set up online courses and evaluation for trainees
124. What is the concept that refers to a test that measures an individual’s
ability to learn and perform training tasks?
a) Training pre-test
b) Trainability test
c) Knowledge test
d) Employment test
125. Which of the following is not a way for stimulus variability to be
incorporated into a training program?
484
a) By using different models that vary in terms of their characteristics
b) By modeling different situations
c) By using models with different levels of competence in performing the
training task
d) By using models that differ according to the experience of the trainees
126. What is the concept that refers to the way in which an individual
gathers information and processes and evaluates it during the learning
process?
a) Declarative knowledge
b) Knowledge compilation
c) Procedural knowledge
d) Learning style
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127. According to Robert Gagné, a training program should have nine
events of instruction. What is the first stage?
a) Gain attention
b) Describe the objectives
c) Stimulate recall of prior knowledge
d) Present the material to be learned
128. In the Model of Training Effectiveness there are four aspects of
Training Design including active practice, active learning, and error
management training. What is the fourth aspect of Training Design?
a) Cognitive ability
b) Training motivation
c) Self-efficacy
d) Conditions of practice
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129. What is the concept that refers to ability to use knowledge and skills
across a range of tasks, settings, and situations?
a) Active learning
b) Routine expertise
c) Exploratory learning
d) Adaptive expertise
130. What is the concept that includes an interrelated system of HR
practices and policies that usually includes rigourous recruitment and
selection procedures, performance-contingent incentive compensation,
performance management, a commitment to employee involvement and
extensive training and development programs?
a) HPWS
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b) ISD
c) SHRM
d) eHRM
131. What is the concept that looks at the process of creating, sharing,
diffusing, and applying knowledge in organizations?
a) Traditional ecological knowledge
b) Knowledge management
c) Intellectual capital
d) Organizational learning
132. What is the concept that refers to programs that introduce new
employees to their jobs, the people they will be working with, and the
organization?
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a) Essential skills training
b) On-the-job training
c) Team training
d) Orientation training
133. What is the concept that refers to providing trainees with training
experiences and conditions that closely resemble those in the actual work
environment?
a) Identical elements
b) Transfer elements
c) Retention elements
d) General elements
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134. What did Québec do to fight the apathy of Canadian organization’s
not wanting to invest in training?
a) Companies with payrolls over $1 million would have to spend 1% in
training, otherwise pay a payroll tax
b) Companies would have 3 years to build up their investment in training to
the Canadian average
c) Companies must use accredited training bodies and spend at least $100
000
d) Companies that apply for payroll funding can earn tax credits
135. According to Kirkpatrick, there are four decisions that need to be
made when selecting trainees for a training program. Which of the following
is one of those four decisions?
a) Why should the trainees take the training program?
b) What is the cost of the training program?
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c) Who can benefit from the training program?
d) When will the training program be held?
136. What is the concept that refers to the process of acquiring knowledge
and skills, and a change in individual behaviour as a result of some
experience?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Intelligence
c) Learning
d) Knowledge Management
137. The objectives of a case study are to introduce realism into trainees’
learning, deal with a variety of problems at the same time, and to teach
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trainees how to make decisions. What is one additional objective of the
case study method when it is used for training?
a) Teach trainees to be creative and think independently
b) Analyze data and organize objective evidence
c) Train participants to be resilient to the ideas of others
d) Develop evidence-based skills, abilities and knowledge
138. What is the concept that refers to a computer-based system that
provides information, advice, and learning experiences to improve
performance?
a) E-learning
b) Computer-based training
c) Asynchronous training
d) Electronic performance support system
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139. What is the concept that refers to the process to identify gaps or
deficiencies in employee and organizational performance?
a) Task analysis
b) Needs analysis
c) Organizational analysis
d) Person analysis
140. The composite learning index (CLI) promotes lifelong learning as
being beneficial to the success of the individual. What two other entities
benefit from lifelong learning?
a) The family and the organization
b) The community and the country
c) The organization and the community
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d) The community and the province
141. One of the major advantages of computer-based training is flexibility
because trainees do not have to leave work to attend training. What is
another advantage of computer-based training?
a) Customization
b) Personalization
c) Self-learning
d) Learner control
142. Which of the following is not typically used in blended training?
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a) Classroom training
b) Computer technology
c) Applied on-site learning
d) Off-the-job training
143. What is the concept that refers to a process in which individuals or
groups take the initiative and responsibility for learning and manage their
own learning experiences?
a) Self-directed learning
b) Instructor-led training
c) Asynchronous training
d) Synchronous training
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144. In a Request for Proposal (RFP), an organization would typically have
a pre-qualification check-list, detailed description of the opportunity, a
description of the company and its culture, and the scope of the project.
What additional information would the RFP have?
a) A detailed budget for the work
b) A description of the current economy
c) An assessment of recent demographics
d) A detailed statement of work
145. What is the concept that refers to training that focuses on differences
in values, attitudes, and behaviours of individuals with different
backgrounds?
a) Ethics training
b) Diversity training
c) Cross-cultural training
d) Team training
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146. What is the concept that refers to learning experiences that include
skill practice exercises that actively engage and involve the learner?
a) Active practice
b) Experiential learning
c) Active learning
d) Self-efficacy
147. What is the concept that refers to a person who is familiar with the
knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a task or job?
a) Attentional advisor
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b) Adapative expert
c) Subject-matter expert
d) Blended trainer
148. When considering the training facility, which of the following questions
is not supportive of an effective learning environment?
a) Is the room free from noise or distraction?
b) Is the room conducive to learning?
c) Is the room set up in a manner that is appropriate for the training
program?
d) Is the room brightly lit and well ventilated?
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149. What is the concept that refers to practices based on the belief that
every act has a consequence and if the consequence is a reward then the
act will be repeated?
a) Work Motivation
b) Motivation Theories
c) ERG Theory
d) Contingency Management
150. Studies have shown that companies that invest in training their
employees will have higher revenues and profits. What else do these
studies show that demonstrate the effectiveness of training?
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Productivity
c) Trend analysis
d) Link to strategy
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151. In Baldwin and Ford’s model of the Transfer of Training Process, how
is the model generally configured?
a) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
b) Training Inputs- Conditions of Transfer- Training Outputs
c) Training Inputs- Training Outputs- Conditions of Transfer
d) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
152. Which of the following training methods will not influence the attitudes
of the trainees?
a) Discussion
b) Role play
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c) Games
d) Case study
153. What is the concept that refers to whether training material is learned
and practiced at one time or one part at a time?
a) Conditions of practice
b) Feedback or knowledge of results
c) Overlearning
d) Whole versus part learning
154. What is the concept that refers to a comparison of the monetary cost
of training to the benefit of training?
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a) Cost-effectiveness evaluation
b) Return on investment
c) Cost-benefit evaluation
d) Return on expectations
155. Which of the following is not a managerial function?
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Decision-making
d) Controlling
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156. There are many ways of managing conflict in an organization
including: avoidance, accommodation, forcing and compromise. What is
one additional way to manage conflict?
a) Collaboration
b) Negotiation
c) Mediation
d) Discussion
157. Which model regards errors as undesirable and detrimental to
learning?
a) EMT
b) TIMS
c) JIT
d) LMS
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158. Which of the following is not a principle of a learning organization?
a) Learning organizations are more profitable than other organizations
b) Continuous learning is considered to be a hallmark of learning
organizations
c) In a learning organization everybody is considered to be a learner
d) Learning is part of a change process and in fact enables change
159. What is the concept that refers to programs designed to provide
individuals with managerial learning experiences while working?
a) On-the-job management development
b) Management training
c) Apprenticeship
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d) Management education
160. Which of the following is not an advantage of Off-the-Job Training
Methods?
a) Trainer has a wide variety of instructional methods
b) Trainer has control over the training environment
c) Training cost is much lower than On-the-Job Training
d) A large number of trainees can be trained at one time
161. What is the equation for return on investment for a training program?
a) ROI = (Benefits – Cost of the Program)/ (Cost of the Program)
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b) ROI = (Cost of the Program)/ (Benefits – Cost of the Program)
c) ROI = (Cost of the Program – Benefits)/ (Benefits)
d) ROI = (Benefits)/(Cost of the Program – Benefits)
162. Some of the benefits of apprenticeship training include: effective
recruitment strategy, two-way skills development, higher-quality work,
increased productivity and improved safety. What is one more benefit of
apprenticeship training?
a) Improve company reputation
b) Cost effectiveness
c) Improve employee morale
d) Increase competitiveness
163. Which of the following is not a learning style?
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a) Converging
b) Assimilating
c) Reflecting
d) Accommodating
164. Once the cost of a training program is known and so is the training
benefit, what is the next step in determining the value of a training
program?
a) Calculate the benefit-cost ratio
b) Calculate the return on investment
c) Calculate the net benefit
d) Calculate the cost-effectiveness evaluation
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165. What is the concept that refers to a set of procedures that focuses on
understanding the mental processes and requirements for performing a
job?
a) Team task analysis
b) Cognitive task analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Task analysis
166. In a needs analysis, there are three levels including an organizational
analysis, and a person analysis. What is the third level of analysis?
a) Divisional analysis
b) Unit analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Task analysis
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167. What is the concept that refers to activities characterized by structure
competition that allow trainees to learn specific skills?
a) Games
b) Role play
c) Simulations
d) Case method
168. What is the concept that refers to the type of motivation that stems
from a direct relationship between a worker and the task?
a) Intrinsic motivation
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b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
169. How many specific outcomes are available for a Needs-Analysis?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
170. What is the concept that refers to sets of actions that individuals
perform and that lead to certain outcomes?
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a) Abilities
b) Skills
c) Attitudes
d) Behaviours
171. What is the concept that refers to the use of an external supplier to
provide training and development programs and services?
a) Outsourcing
b) Restructuring
c) Downsizing
d) Strategizing
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172. What is the concept that refers to an organization’s knowledge,
experience, relationships, process discoveries, innovations, market
presence, and community influence?
a) Human capital
b) Renewal capital
c) Intellectual capital
d) Relationship capital
173. How can you speed up a Needs-Analysis to be considered a Just-inTime Needs Analysis?
a) Link assessment and delivery
b) Hire outside consultants
c) Get top management buy-in
d) Link data collection to performance
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174. Although the Conference Board of Canada found that one in five
organizations invest more than 3% of payroll in training, many
organizations do not consider training to be a high priority. Why are
organizations not investing in training?
a) Training is linked to an organization’s success
b) Organizations view training as an investment rather than a cost
c) Canadians do not care about how competitive they are
d) Training is first to go when there are cuts to discretionary spending
175. There are four key dimensions of learning organizations. Three of
these dimensions include vision, culture, and learning dynamics or
systems. What is the fourth dimension?
a) Intellectual capital and emotional intelligence
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b) Knowledge management and infrastructure
c) Human attributes: knowledge, skills and abilities
d) Communities of practice and learning environments
176. What is the concept that refers to exposing an individual to different
areas and experiences throughout the organization?
a) Job sharing
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Cross training
177. What is the number one barrier to transfer of training?
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a) No time is provided to use the skills
b) Immediate manager does not support the training
c) The culture in the work group does not support the training
d) Skills could not be applied to the job
178. Using Alderfer’s theory, what is the need that is similar to Maslow’s
esteem and self-actualization needs?
a) Existence needs
b) Growth needs
c) Learning needs
d) Relatedness needs
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179. According to the textbook, there is evidence that the more interaction
a trainee has with an instructor during computer-based training, the more
motivation he or she will have. What else will occur when trainee interaction
is high with the instructor?
a) The employee will have greater job performance
b) The employee will have greater on-the-job knowledge
c) The employee will have a more positive attitude toward learning
d) The employee will have a more developed technology-based skill-set
180. The nature of training content will be influenced by:
a) The training needs analysis
b) The training objectives
c) The training budget
d) A & B only
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181. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which trainees
observe a model performing a task and then attempt to imitate the
observed behaviour?
a) Behaviour management
b) Behaviour modelling
c) Behavioural method
d) Behavioural modification
182. What is the concept that refers to structuring the program so that the
trainees feel that they are engaged in a conversation with the program?
a) Customization
b) Personalization
c) Human interaction
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d) Needs assessment
Health and Safety
1. During any emergency situation:
a) Turn off your radio or television
b) Light matches, candles or turn on electrical switches to increase light
c) Close windows and get everyone outside the building quickly
d) Follow the advice of local emergency officials
2. Accidents usually result from direct contact with some form of energy
that is greater than the strength of the body or structure to resist. The
energies may be:
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a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Kinetic
d) All of the above
3. The following underlies the need for HRM to understand and implement
effective OH&S policies and programs:
a) Increasing concerns for industrial-sector workers
b) Decreasing costs associated with work-related injuries and illnesses
c) The public’s decreasing tolerance for work-related hazards
d) All of the above
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4. Employers must follow the requirements of OH&S legislation which
includes the following general duties:
a) Establish an occupational health and safety program
b) Provide a health and safety policy
c) Provide instruction and training to supervisors and workers
d) All of the above
5. Emergency response training for an organization’s employees should
address the following, except:
a) Individual roles and responsibilities
b) Purchasing of emergency and first aid equipment
c) Potential treats, hazards, and protective actions
d) Notification, warning and communications procedures
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6. The starting point and major responsibility for occupational health and
safety training lies with:
a) The organization
b) The human resource department
c) The employee
d) The immediate supervisor or manager
7. The two most common hazard events are:
a) Prolonged exposure
b) Improper technique
c) Fatality
d) A & B only
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8. The process of identifying hazards and completing risk assessments
can be considered:
a) A one time activity
b) Part of a continuous process of observation, control and safety
improvement
c) An end in itself
d) A hazard analysis
9. General characteristics that make solvents effective and hazardous are
the following except :
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a) Low surface tension – the higher the wetting factor the more absorbent
the chemical will be into the skin
b) High vapour pressure – can create an inhalation hazard
c) Low boiling point – the lower the boiling point the greater the risk of
vapours in the air
d) Low volatility – the less the chemical evaporation, the less the risk of
health & fire
10. The following are ways in which HR managers help to overcome the
stigma towards mental illness in the workplace except:
a) Examining their own minds to find where they might have hidden
misconceptions about mental illness
b) Provide correct information to employees
c) Ensure employee mental illness is diagnosed and treated early
d) Stigma is overplayed and our society is open-minded about mental
illness
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11. There are two main methods used in conducting investigations, they
are:
a) Observation and interviews
b) Interviews and surveys
c) Meetings and walk-throughs
d) Reenactments and surveys
12. Federal and provincial legislation allows for the rights of workers
including:
a) The right to know, right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse unsafe
work
b) The right to participate, the right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse
unsafe work
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c) The right to know, the right to participate and the right to refuse unsafe
work
d) The right to know, the right to compensation for injury and the right to
refuse unsafe work
13. Bill C-45, commonly referred to as the “Westray Bill,” became law on
March 31, 2004. This law means the following except:
a) That the ramifications for employers failing to provide appropriate health
and safety training have become more severe in Canada
b) Amends the Criminal Code of Canada to hold corporations and their
stakeholders accountable for work-related acts that are deemed criminally
negligent
c) That provincial workers’ compensation acts play a minor role in ensuring
workplaces are safe
d) Employers bear a large responsibility to ensure Canadian workers are
educated about hazards in the workplace and are able to refuse work
deemed unsafe
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14. Which of the following is not one of your rights as an employee?
a) To be provided with equipment and safety gear required to do the job
safely
b) To participate in workplace health and safety committees and activities
c) To receive supervision to make sure you work without putting yourself at
undue risk
d) None of the above
15. The goal of stress management programs is to educate workers about
the causes and consequences of stress and to provide the following
except:
a) Provide easy access to employee assistance programs
b) Teach relaxation and coping skills
c) Manage physiological symptoms
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d) Manage psychological symptoms
16. The following are false concerning engineering controls except:
a) The best way to reduce the risk of handling solvents is to find
alternatives
b) All employees must be properly trained in the identification and handling
of dangerous substances
c) Spills must be properly contained and employees exposed to the hazard
must wear personal protective equipment
d) Training must be ongoing given that new products are introduced into
the workplace
17. The following risk assessment calculation considers how likely it is that
hazard will result in an injury after the hazard event has occurred:
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a) Probability
b) Exposure
c) Consequences
d) Identification
18. Which of the following is not true?
a) The Hazardous Products Act defines a hazardous product and controls
its use by requiring disclosure of the substance(s) and its concentration in a
manufactured product
b) If a release of a potentially hazardous substance occurs outside the
building, or if the potentially hazardous substance is released into the
sewer, storm system, water, or air, it falls under the jurisdiction of the
authority enforcing environmental legislation
c) A corporation and its management can not be criminally prosecuted if
found negligent in providing an appropriate standard of occupational health
and safety in the workplace, resulting in an employee injury or death
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d) Due diligence means taking all reasonable care to protect the well-being
of employees or co-workers
19. The Workers Compensation Board’s mandate is to:
a) Promote the prevention of workplace injury, illness, and disease
b) Provide fair compensation to replace workers’ loss of wages
c) Rehabilitate workers who are injured
d) All of the above
20. The following are the essential elements for an EAP and WHP
program:
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a) A clear, written policy regarding assistance
b) Management support and an on-site program coordinator
c) Supervisory training, employee education and union support
d) All of the above
21. The three E's are a traditional approach to occupational health and
safety that emphasized the following:
a) Engineering, empowerment and enforcement
b) Engineering, education and enforcement
c) Empowerment, education and enforcement
d) Ergonomics, education and enforcement
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22. An employer must immediately notify the Workers Compensation
Board of the occurrence of any accident that:
a) Resulted in serious injury to or the death of a worker
b) Involved a major structural failure
c) Involved the major release of a hazardous substance
d) All of the above
23. Most of the human exposure to chemicals comes from breathing
airborne contaminants. The following are levels of defense for inhalation
except:
a) Nose
b) Interior of the nasal passage
c) Tiny hairs or cilia and mucus
d) Mouth
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24. After completing a WHMIS training program, the worker should
understand the purpose and origin of WHMIS and be able to do the
following:
a) Identify SHMIS hazard symbols
b) Read WHMIS supplier and workplace labels
c) Read and apply the applicable information on a Material Safety Data
Sheets (MSDS)
d) All of the above
25. What legislation ensures that workers across Canada are aware of the
potential hazards of chemicals in the workplace and are familiar with
emergency procedures for the clean-up and disposal of a spill?
a) CSTD
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b) MSDS
c) WHMIS
d) HPWS
26. The safe use and handling of chemical and biological agents can be
ensured only thorough the active employment of the following control
measures except:
a) Engineering controls
b) Good housekeeping
c) Medical surveillance
d) Biosafety levels
27. Why are young people more likely to be injured on the job than other
groups of workers?
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a) They receive little or no safety training or supervision and have to use
equipment or machinery designed for adults
b) They are reluctant to ask questions for fear of appearing stupid and are
assigned physically demanding or dangerous tasks
c) They are unaware of their rights and responsibilities
d) All of the above
28. The workplace hazardous material information system requires that:
a) Hazardous materials may not be distributed without government
inspection
b) Suppliers do not label all hazardous products
c) Suppliers provide a material safety data sheet on each hazardous
product they produce
d) Chemicals do not necessarily require safe handling instructions
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29. Hazard elimination is a control measure that looks to determine if the
job or task that involves the hazard can be:
a) Done differently to avoid the hazard
b) Substituted
c) Separated from the worker
d) Restricted to certain workers
30. The following are basic guidelines to develop an effective emergency
response plan for workplaces, except:
a) Ensure that evacuation routes and emergency exists are wide enough to
accommodate the number of evacuating people and unobstructed at all
times
b) Coordinate your plan with the local emergency management office
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c) Conduct search and rescue drills
d) Establish specific evacuation procedures
31. An employee expressed her concerns to her supervisor that fumes
emitting from her computer were causing her headaches. She requested
the supervisor’s permission to stop working immediately. However, the
supervisor insisted that she continue working. The supervisor’s behaviour
violated:
a) The employee’s right to refuse work
b) The employee’s right to report unsafe conditions
c) The employee’s right to participate in health and safety programs
d) The employee’s right to a safe workplace
32. Safety climate is defined as:
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a) Shared perceptions of the importance of safety in the workplace
b) The extent to which employees follow safety rules and procedures
c) The extent to which employees go beyond compliance and work to
actively improve safety
d) Organizational leadership that is actively focused on and promotes
occupational health and safety
33. The following are responsibilities that HRM have when dealing with
HIV positive employees or other employees with biological illnesses except:
a) Maintain the privacy of the individual
b) Outline employment obligations
c) Provide or refer to medical support
d) Provide information and education to all employees about all employee
biological illnesses
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34. First-aid training and supplies are mandated in occupational health and
safety legislation. The exact requirements vary by the following, except:
a) Emergency plan
b) The number of workers in the workplace
c) The nature (and danger) of the work
d) The distance to the nearest medical facility
35. The following are ways to identify hazards except:
a) Workers report to the supervisor or employer
b) A safety committee identifies situations that may be unhealthy and
unsafe for workers
c) Classify hazard identification terms
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d) Review first aid records
36. The following are stakeholders in OH&S:
a) Government and unions
b) Community agencies and schools
c) Employers and employees
d) All of the above
37. Cold-related illnesses caused by thermal stress include:
a) Trench foot
b) Frostbite
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c) Hypothermia
d) All of the above
38. An example of engineering control(s) is:
a) The construction of a paint spray booth with high powered fans to
remove hazardous paint fumes immediately from the area
b) The use of a flexible hose to direct exhaust fumes out of an automobile
garage
c) Job rotation and scheduling adjustments
d) A & B only
39. How should a risk assessment be conducted?
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a) There is no “one single” method
b) Different models can work best dependent on the hazards or nature of
the job operations
c) Qualitative approaches are a preferred method
d) A & B only
40. Ultimately, the goal of an emergency response is to prepare for the
following, except:
a) Protect and evacuate staff
b) Contain disasters
c) Improve safety training
d) Inform the community
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41. Throughout the 1990’s, the concept of wellness at work emerged as an
occupational health and safety concern. The major motivator of this trend
includes a desire to:
a) Employee morale
b) Reduce rising health care costs
c) Improve employee safety
d) Improve our public healthcare system
42. If local authorities ask you to evacuate your home, you should keep
these simple tips in mind, except:
a) Mark locations of downed power lines and keep doors unlocked
b) Use travel routes specified by local authorities
c) Wear long-sleeved shirts, long pants and sturdy shoes
d) Take your emergency supplies kit
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43. Another consideration in accident reports is the accident type, which
attempts to categorize the nature of the accident. Some examples include
the following except:
a) Chemicals
b) Caught in or between
c) Struck by an object
d) Fall to a lower level
44. Worker Compensation premiums are performance based in that if
organizations:
a) Have accidents they pay more with a premium increase risk up to 100%
b) Prevent accidents they can pay less with a premium reduction to 50%
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c) Have accidents their premiums remain the same as their industry
classification
d) A & B only
45. The following are steps to the hazard control process, except:
a) Pre-contact control
b) Contact control
c) Post contact
d) Hierarchy of control
46. Workers Compensation Boards were created to:
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a) Give employers immunity from lawsuits filed by injured workers
b) Give workers the right to compensation for injuries sustained on the job
c) Provide no fault insurance
d) All of the above
47. The following are some basic rules for conducting an investigation
interview:
a) Interview witnesses separately
b) Let the individual recall the event in their own way
c) Record information in a timely fashion
d) All of the above
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48. Substitution is a hazard control measure that looks to determine if the
job or task that involves the hazard can:
a) Be eliminated
b) Employ other materials or methods
c) Develop different work practices to reduce exposure to hazard
d) B & C only
49. The following are true about noise and hearing except:
a) The human hearing range of frequencies is approximately 20 to 20,000
Hz
b) We hear all sound
c) The standards for the measurement of noise use the unit of a decibel
d) The human hearing response is conditional on frequency, duration and
loudness
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50. The following is the hierarchy of hazard control measures:
a) Elimination, engineering, administrative, personal protective equipment
and substitution
b) Elimination, substitution, engineering, administrative and personal
protective equipment
c) Personal protective equipment, elimination, substitution, engineering and
administrative
d) Engineering, elimination, substitution, administrative and personal
protective equipment
51. The benefits of accident investigation includes the following except:
a) Determines direct causes
b) Identifies contributing causes
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c) Reduce lost time injuries
d) Promotes safety awareness among employees
52. On what grounds, besides humanitarian ones, should workplace
hazards be controlled?
a) Ergonomic
b) Legal
c) Productivity
d) All of the above
53. The following are general categories of behaviours that contribute to
safe working performance except :
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a) Following accepted hygiene practices
b) Proper use of hazard control systems in the workplace
c) Development of safe work habits and increased awareness and
recognition of workplace hazards
d) All of the above
54. You may be a residential employer if you hire the following workers
except:
a) Childcare workers to care for children before and after school for an
average of <15 hours per week
b) Nannies, companions, or other personal caregivers
c) Domestic workers such as household cleaners
d) Construction or repair workers or contractors
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55. Researchers focus on three separate categories of fairness
judgements associated with stress:
a) Distributive justice, procedural justice and fairness of outcomes
b) Fairness of outcomes, fairness of processes and fairness of
interpersonal treatment
c) Interactional justice, procedural justice and fairness of processes
d) Fairness of interpersonal treatment, interactional justice and fairness of
outcomes
56. The following are important facts about physical agents in the
workplace except:
a) Physical agents are present in unexpected places
b) Exposure to some physical agents may be inherent
c) Legislative standards are minimum tolerances
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d) Issues are complex and solutions have to be evaluated for the risks they
introduce to the environment
57. Components of an effective employer-sponsored health-promotion
effort include the following except:
a) Employee education for health promotion or disease prevention
b) Management training to raise awareness of occupational health issues
and identification
c) EAP services, redesigned benefit programs to provide easy access to
interventions
d) Cafeteria benefit plans
58. Worksite health-promotion programming can be classified into the
following three categories:
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a) Screening, education, and behavioural change
b) Health practices, wellness policies and education
c) Screening, monitoring and evaluation
d) Education, psychological and physical
59. The following is false concerning workplace wellness initiatives in
Canadian companies:
a) 64 percent of Canadian companies offer some form of wellness program
b) Health-promotion programs have been slower to develop in Canadian
companies because of our public health care system
c) Canadian companies assume less of the cost for illness, traditionally
there has been less of a financial impetus for them to develop employee
health initiatives
d) More than 95 percent of Canadian organizations offered their employees
eight or more wellness programs to help support work and life balance
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60. The symptoms of RSI can include:
a) Weakness in the limb
b) Pain
c) Lack of endurance and clumsiness
d) All of the above
61. An example of an administrative control(s) is:
a) Required breaks to reduce extended exposure to a specific hazard
b) Job rotation to help reduce the overall affect of a hazard that is
increased by repetition or continued exposure
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c) Reduction in the amount of time that a worker is required to do a
repetitive task
d) All of the above
62. The following are natural hazards, except:
a) Blackout
b) Earthquake
c) Flood
d) Drought
63. Employer sponsored health promotions could include the following
except:
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a) Smoking cessation
b) Hypertension screening
c) Nutrition, weight control, and physical fitness programs
d) Flexible schedules
64. Best practices in controlling vibration include the following except:
a) Avoid the source by revising the task
b) Allow time to acclimatize
c) Add dampening devices
d) Decrease worker exposure time
65. Examples of hazard(s) include the following except:
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a) Equipment and tools
b) Security and violence
c) Hygiene issues and human factors
d) All of the above
66. The supervisor’s health and safety legal responsibilities are the
following except:
a) Know hazards in their area and ensure workers are made aware of
hazards
b) Ensure all health and safety activities are coordinated
c) Ensure health and safety of their workers
d) Be knowledgeable about the Workers’ Compensation Act
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67. In 2003, Bill C-45 (also called the Westray Bill) established a duty in
___________law to protect the health and safety of everyone in the
workplace.
a) Provincial
b) Federal
c) Criminal
d) All of the above
68. Hazards can be controlled or eliminated by identifying and attacking:
a) The source of the hazard
b) The path it travels
c) The employee or recipient of the hazard
d) All of the above
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69. The factor most closely associated with the cause of an accident is
referred to as the agency. The following are some examples of agents
except:
a) Lifting devices
b) Overexertion
c) Electrical equipment
d) Chemicals
70. The perspective now obsolete, towards accident prevention that
assumed that employees accepted all the normal risks inherent in a given
job was legally referred to as:
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a) Assumption of risk
b) Accident proneness
c) Due diligence
d) Worker carelessness assumption
71. With respect to health and safety training initiatives, a number of
organizational outcomes may be relevant including the following except:
a) Accident, injury, and fatality rates
b) Incidence of “close calls”
c) WHMIS training
d) Absenteeism and turnover
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72. Control of non-ionizing radiation exposures usually includes the
following except:
a) Isolation
b) Separation
c) Protective equipment
d) Extensive specialized training
73. The minimum legal elements of an occupational health and safety
program include the following except:
a) Search and rescue training
b) Management commitment and OH&S meetings
c) Written OH&S policies, procedures, and standards
d) Existence of incident/accident investigations
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74. The following questions could be asked when investigating situational
factors except:
a) Did some unsafe act contribute to the event
b) Was the machine operating in a satisfactory manner
c) Were all the control and display positions working and ergonomically
sound
d) What was the site or location of the accident
75. The following are ways in which an organization can promote a
positive safety climate except:
a) Have enacted safety policies and procedures
b) Involve all levels of management and employees in safety initiatives
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c) Include safety-related information in the communication of productionrelated goals
d) Write safety manuals
76. The following are characteristics of successful occupational safety
programs:
a) Management commitment and a functioning joint occupational health
and safety committee or representative group
b) Existence of regular inspection programs and risk assessments
c) Clearly documented, communicated and enforced accountability for
managers, supervisors, workers, contractors, etc
d) All of the above
77. The following is true concerning stress:
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a) Is an objectively verifiable event that occurs outside of the individual
b) Stress events happen primarily in the work environment
c) Is an event appraised by individuals as taxing, exceeding their coping
resources and negatively affecting their health
d) Is an individual’s negative emotional response to or evaluation of
stressors
78. The two different types of sexual harassment are:
a) Sexual coercion and “quid pro quo”
b) Hostile environment and verbal or physical conduct
c) Sexual coercion and hostile environment
d) “Quid pro quo” and verbal or physical conduct
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79. Examples of physical agents include the following except:
a) Vibration
b) Chemicals
c) Radiation
d) Thermal stress
80. The matter of how control measures should be ordered or placed in
order is called the hierarchy of control. The following is the first level of
priority:
a) Substitution
b) Engineering control
c) Administrative control
d) Elimination
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81. Employee assistance plans (EAPS) are:
a) A combination of diagnostic, educational, and behavioural modification
activities designed to support the attainment and maintenance of positive
health
b) Programs designed to help employees with problems that may interfere
with worker productivity, including alcohol and other drug abuse, emotional
or behavioural problems among family members, and financial or legal
problems
c) Programs designed to guide managers experiencing financial or legal
problems
d) Management counselling and coaching programs
82. Administrative controls utilize the following, except:
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a) Personal protective equipment
b) Training of employees
c) Rotation of employees
d) Environmental sampling
83. Organizational strategies to manage stress include the following
except:
a) Cognitive-behavioural skills training
b) Relaxation training and meditation
c) Increasing social support
d) Nutritional and weight loss programs
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84. In order for individuals to work safely, workers must have at least the
following conditions except:
a) The knowledge necessary to perform their jobs
b) The motivation to work safely
c) The opportunity to work safely: the organization supports safe work
d) Understanding of safety policies and procedures
85. Organizations can conduct evaluation studies to assess the success of
their health-related initiatives. Some characteristics of thorough evaluation
studies include the following:
a) Pre-intervention and post-intervention assessments of relevant variables
b) Consideration of the extent to which employees participate in the
program
c) Reliable and valid measures of relevant individual and organizational
outcome variables
d) All of the above
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86. Organizations can provide support for their employees after an
emergency by providing a range of services that include:
a) Crisis counseling, flexible work hours and salary continuation
b) Daycare and first aid training
c) Post information and maps
d) Emergency contact names and numbers
87. A sample worker health and safety orientation checklist includes the
following, except:
a) Supervisor name and telephone number
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b) Transportation of dangerous goods legislation
c) Worker right to refuse unsafe work and procedure for doing so
d) Worker responsibility to report hazards and procedure for doing so
88. A risk is defined as:
a) The first undesired event that could start the accident sequence
b) A thing or condition that may expose a person to an injury or
occupational disease
c) Is the likelihood that the hazard will lead to injury or the probability of
harm actually occurring
d) A systematic examination of all aspects of the work undertaken to
consider what could cause injury or harm
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89. The following are some guidelines for conducting a reenactment
except:
a) Analysts should use a show and tell approach
b) A qualified observer is necessary
c) Shut down every energy source and lock them out
d) Carefully act out the events
90. A preventative integrative approach to managing stress in the
workplace includes the following except:
a) Focusing on tertiary interventions
b) Using an integrative team of healthcare professionals
c) Focusing on organizational primary interventions
d) Focusing on individual primary interventions
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91. The following is false:
a) Employers “fund” the entire Workers Compensation claims management
system
b) Claims management, disability management and absence management
is the employers responsibility
c) Absence management is a program to control absences due to
“disability” with an emphasis on controlling unexplained or excessive
absenteeism
d) The process of effectively dealing with employees who become disabled
is referred to as “disability management”
92. The following technology related factors have been implicated as
psycho-social stressors:
a) Control
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b) Isolation
c) Privacy
d) All of the above
93. The following are true concerning ingestion:
a) Many solvents enter through the mouth and digestive system
b) Ingested solvents may be absorbed into the bloodstream and carried to
“target organs” where toxic effects can be produced
c) Chemicals ingested are not as critical a hazard as chemicals that enter
through the skin or lungs
d) All of the above
94. The following is true about Thermodynamic Theory except:
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a) Temperature flows from the high point to the low point
b) In hot climates, heat will flow from the body
c) In cold climates, heat will flow from the body
d) In hot climates, heat will be absorbed by the body
95. The responsibility for emergency management begins with:
a) Government of Canada
b) Provincial and territorial governments
c) Municipal and community governments
d) Individuals and their community
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96. Under Occupational Health and Safety legislation in Canada,
employees have three basic rights:
a) right to know, right to training, and right to work free of harassment.
b) right to receive training, right to human dignity, and right to work less
than 48 hours per work week
c) right to participate, right to know, and right to refuse unsafe work.
d) right to refuse unsafe work, right to training, right to safety pay for
dangerous work
97. When working conditions are perceived to be unsafe, the law permits
workers to:
a) Contact the police to criminally charge management
b) Refuse to perform their work
c) Inform the media
d) Both A & B
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98. An example of an engineering control is:
a) Physical arrangements, designs or alterations of workstations,
equipment, materials, production facilities or other aspects of physical work
environment
b) Tasks that are redundant or may duplicate work
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Provision, use and scheduling of work activities and resources in
workplace
99. An Incident Investigation Report includes the following except:
a) Where the incident occurred
b) Lists the injured person(s)
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c) Describes the nature of injury/injuries
d) Risk assessment
100. Supervisor responsibilities include the following except:
a) Instruct workers in safe work procedures
b) Report serious incidents to the WCB
c) Ensure that only authorized, adequately trained workers operate tools
and equipment or use hazardous chemicals
d) Ensure that equipment and materials are properly handled, stored, and
maintained
101. The following are true concerning Personal Protective Equipment
(PPE) except:
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a) Because inhalation is the most common and hazardous route of entry,
the most commonly used protective device is a respirator
b) No single protective device, such as a facemask, will adequately
address all conditions for all workers
c) Workers must be trained in WHMIS
d) Should be used as a last hazard control choice
102. The employer is responsible for all of the following except:
a) Provide a safe and healthy workplace
b) Ensure that workers are adequately trained
c) Establish and maintain a comprehensive occupational health and safety
program, including a written health and safety policy and an incident
investigation procedure
d) Labeling chemicals in use at the workplace
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103. In order for individuals to work safely the following three conditions
are necessary:
a) knowledge x skills x abilities
b) motivation x opportunity
c) opportunity x knowledge
d) ability x motivation x opportunity
104. Chemical agents are:
a) Hazards created by one or more chemicals
b) Hazards created by exposure to biological materials
c) Diseases such as asbestosis and silicosis
d) Spills and burns related to various exposures
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105. A human resource manager can implement a hearing conservation
program by including the following elements except:
a) Noise measurement and engineered noise control
b) Random hearing tests
c) Annual program review
d) Education and training
106. The typical components of a worksite health-promotion (WHP)
program include the following steps:
a) Physical or psychological assessment
b) Counselling concerning findings and recommendations about personal
health promotion
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c) Referral to in-house or community-based resources
d) All of the above
107. Chemicals that are not rapidly absorbed through the skin may
produce:
a) A localized irritation such as dermatitis which may cause the skin to
become white and dry
b) Airborne respirable contaminants
c) Interactions between various chemicals and biological groups
d) Toxic effects
108. HR managers can help employees manage stress by addressing the
following causes of workplace stress except:
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a) Counselling support
b) Career progression
c) Role ambiguity
d) Work – family conflict
109. Thermal stress adaptability depends on the following physical factors
except:
a) Age
b) Experience
c) Sex
d) Physical fitness
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110. Investigation timing delays may lead to the following except:
a) Memory loss
b) Changes at the accident site
c) Delayed legal reporting
d) Removal of important evidence
111. The following are ways in which an organization can promote a
positive safety climate:
a) Motivate and reward safe behaviour
b) Continually review, learn and improve on health and safety initiatives
c) Have proactive and enacted safety policies and procedures
d) All of the above
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112. Your responsibilities as an employee include the following except:
a) Ensure that you have first aid training
b) Know and follow health and safety requirements affecting your job
c) If you don’t know how to do something safely, ask for training before you
begin work
d) Work safely, and encourage your co-workers to do the same
113. The following environmental factors may increase the likelihood that
an accident will occur except:
a) Light
b) Noise
c) Vibration
d) All of the above
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114. The objectives of an OH&S program should include the following
criteria except:
a) Obtain and maintain support for the program at all levels of the
organization
b) Motivate, educate, and train all levels of management and employee
groups in the recognition, reporting, and correction of hazards in the
workplace
c) Provide controls for worker exposure to potential hazards through the
use of work practices, engineering controls, and personal protective
equipment
d) All of the above
115. The employer’s health and safety legal responsibilities are:
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a) To ensure a safe workplace by providing information, education, training
and supervision
b) To provide personal protective equipment and proper tools and
equipment
c) To have WCAct and OH&S regulation readily available to workers
d) All of the above
116. The following steps will help you develop a personal or family
emergency plan, except:
a) Create an emergency communications plan
b) Ensure a family member has emergency management and first aid
training
c) Establish a meeting place
d) Assemble an emergency supplies kit
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117. Young worker orientations should cover the following, except:
a) Provide workers with written contact information for their supervisors
b) Tell workers that it is their duty to refuse the perform work if they believe
it may be dangerous to themselves or others
c) Explain how to conduct an investigation
d) Inform workers about any known hazards that apply to them and tell
them how to deal safely with these hazards
118. The following are types of health-promotion programs except:
a) Smoking cessation
b) On-site physical fitness centre
c) Lunch-time Weight Watchers program
d) Family care benefits
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119. The following are true concerning penetration:
a) Penetration occurs when the skin is cut or punctured by any sharp object
b) A knife or needle may be contaminated with a hazardous chemical
c) Workers such as doctors, nurses, can easily be punctured by a
hypodermic needle
d) All of the above
120. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE):
a) Can only be utilized if all other previous control measures have been
shown not to be ‘practicable'
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b) Are a good substitute for engineering or administrative controls
c) Is a high level hazard control measure
d) All of the above
121. The legal requirement of due diligence and the experience of
companies who have dealt with workplace violence suggest the following
tips for employers and human resource managers:
a) Have a written policy prohibiting violence
b) Ensure that employees are trained in how to respond to actual or
threatened violence
c) Take all threats of violence seriously
d) All of the above
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122. The following are some questions that could be asked when
investigating human factors except:
a) What was the worker doing at the time of the accident
b) What time of day did the accident occur
c) Was the work being performed according to procedures
d) How much experience did the employee have with respect to the
particular operation
123. Regulations for young worker orientations include the following
except:
a) Employers must provide training and orientation before the young or new
worker begins work
b) 13 specific items must be included in training/orientation, if applicable
c) Employee orientation and training can occur after a young worker begins
his/her job
d) Employers must provide additional training if required or requested
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124. Which of the following is not required by Health and Safety
legislation?
a) Using material data sheets
b) Workers’ right to refuse unsafe work
c) Appointment of joint health and safety committee or worker
representative
d) Release of employee health data
125. Major categories of causes of workplace stress can include all the
following except:
a) Workplace relationships
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b) Ergonomics
c) Demands of the job
d) Employees control over how they work
126. The following are true about hearing protection required in hazardous
noise areas except:
a) Each employee should be individually fitted with hearing protectors and
trained in their use, care and maintenance
b) Selection criteria for hearing protection include worker hearing ability,
communication demands, comfort, physical constraints of the job, as well
as individual daily noise exposure
c) Employers must consider an employees need for specialty products
d) Hearing protection does not need to be replaced until it wears out
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Practice Questions
Answers
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Professional Practice
1. The Employment Equity Act argued that:
a) differences among people should be ignored and everyone should be
treated equally.
b) there are no true differences among people except those attributed to
them by discriminatory bias
c) organizations should hire groups of people based on their race, age,
gender, or national origin to make up for historical discrimination
d) the only differences that should make count in employment opportunities
are those of job-related qualifications
Correct Answer: C
2. There are three types of discrimination
a) malicious, intentional, and systemic
b) systemic, blatant, and disparate
c) direct, indirect, and systemic
d) indirect, obvious, and systemic
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Correct Answer: C
3. Which of the following is typically NOT included in diversity training?
a) sensitivity training
b) cultural awareness
c) consciousness-raising
d) legal awareness
Correct Answer: C
4. Human capital is
a) the people in the organization
b) the collective talents of the management of the organization
c) also called intellectual capital
d) of critical importance to the firm, but non-measurable
Correct Answer: C
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5. One of the four elements of a good organizational ethics programs is a
system for confidential reporting of ethical misconduct or questionable
behaviour. The main reason that employees, including HR professionals,
do not report ethical concerns is
a) fear of prosecution for slander and/or libel by the accused party
b) a culture of "don't ask, don't tell" in most organizations
c) employees are not able to distinguish between ethical and unethical
behaviours
d) concerns about current and future employment being affected
Correct Answer: D
6. An HRMS system serves two major purposes in organizations:
a) technological and operational
b) strategic and technological
c) administrative and effectiveness
d) technological and workflow
Correct Answer: C
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7. Using a manager’s best guess as the basis for forecasting the staffing
needs in a department is classified as a ______________ method
a) judgmental
b) mathematical
c) quantitative
d) non-intuitive
Correct Answer: A
8. Which of the following is NOT a reason why flexible work schedules are
becoming more and more of a retention tool?
a) Workload pressures have increased due to downsizing
b) Dual career couples in the “sandwich generation” are caring for both
children and elderly parents
c) People are placing a higher premium on self-actualization away from
work through hobbies, the arts and community involvement
d) Employees feel that they are working more hours and more days than
they prefer
Correct Answer: C
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9. The fact that only about 14.4 percent of the highest-ranking executive
management jobs in Canadian companies are held by women is evidence
of
a) the glass ceiling
b) glass walls
c) careers of glass
d) “one-way” glass
Correct Answer: A
10. All of the following are areas of HR competencies EXCEPT
a) interpersonal skills
b) business knowledge
c) personal credibility
d) HR delivery
Correct Answer: A
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11. In order for diversity management to succeed in the organization
commitment to change must begin with
a) lower-level employees
b) HR professionals
c) middle managers
d) top management
Correct Answer: D
12. All of the following are operational activities of HR except __________,
which is a strategic activity
a) analyzing HR metrics and measurements
b) complying with laws, policies, and procedures
c) recruiting and selecting employees
d) responding to goals and objectives set by executives
Correct Answer: A
13. A long term plan for the orderly replacement of key employees is called
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a) transition mapping
b) succession planning
c) replacement forecasting
d) executive development
Correct Answer: B
14. It is predicted that Canadian employers will face skilled shortages due
to the aging of the workplace. Which jobs will be most affected?
a) pilots and teachers
b) employees in Canadian federal public service and the RCMP
c) real estate agents and taxi drivers
d) architects and domestic workers
Correct Answer: B
15. What is discrimination?
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a) treating people differently, negatively or adversely without a good reason
b) pay equity legislation
c) paying employees in different job categories different wages
d) firing an employee
Correct Answer: A
16. What is the concept that refers to systematic thinking about the moral
consequences of one’s actions and decisions on various stakeholders?
a) Social responsibility
b) Morality
c) Ethics
d) Mission
Correct Answer: C
17. ____________________ is the most frequent type of harassment
a) Harassment of subordinate to supervisor
b) Same sex harassment
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c) Employee to another employee
d) Customer to employee
Correct Answer: A
18. Religion
a) can never be a bona fide occupational qualification
b) must be afforded reasonable accommodation short of undue hardship by
employers
c) does not have to be accommodated by employers if the religion is not
“mainstream.”
d) can be the subject of a pre-employment inquiry if the applicant wears
clothing indicating membership in a non-Judeo-Christian religion
Correct Answer: B
19. The role played by HR wherein the HR function is the champion of the
employee is the __________ role
a) strategic
b) operational
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c) advocate
d) representative
Correct Answer: C
20. What is an example of BFOR?
a) Requiring multilingualism in a hospital serving an ethnically diverse
population of patients
b) Appearance for waiters and waitresses working in a restaurant
c) Sexual orientation, namely heterosexuality, to work in a grade school
d) Gender, namely female, to work in a daycare centre
Correct Answer: A
21. The responsibility for carrying out HR activities
a) resides solely with HR professional
b) is mostly that of managers in the organization with the guidance of HR
professionals
c) is divided between HR professionals and the managers of the
organization
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d) ultimately rests with the Board of Directors
Correct Answer: C
22. A financial measure that shows that the HR function is generating
more return than the organization’s cost of capital is?
a) economic value added
b) return on investment
c) benchmarking
d) balancing the scorecard
Correct Answer: A
23. Which of the following is TRUE about diversity in the Canadian
workforce?
a) Canada is one of the few countries in the western world that is actively
looking for immigrants that are highly qualified
b) Canada's immigration policy is to partly offset the aging of the population
and the increase in the retirement rate
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c) The Canadian workforce has become more diverse racially and
ethnically, with 20% of Canada's
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
24. Which of the following is TRUE about exit interviews?
a) Employees are more willing to give the true reason for quitting before
they have left the building for the last time
b) Exit interviews are not very useful because employees use it as a tool for
revenge against supervisors and co-workers
c) Employees may not give frank answers in exit interviews because they
are afraid it will affect their references
d) Exit interviews are best conducted in a free-form manner because each
employee’s reasons for leaving are unique
Correct Answer: C
25. The primary determinant of ethical behaviour in an organization is the
a) quality of the HR administrative function
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b) norms of the community in which the organization is located
c) organization's culture
d) selectiveness in hiring process
Correct Answer: C
26. All of the following are considered to be drivers of retention EXCEPT
a) employee relationships
b) job design and work
c) career opportunities
d) macroeconomic factors
Correct Answer: D
27. Retention is a problem in the modern workplace because
a) new entrants to the workforce have no organizational loyalty and move
to other organizations for minor reasons.
b) the slump in births after the baby-boom has left more jobs to fill than
there are new workers to fill them
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c) there are fewer qualified and productive workers in the Canadian
workforce.
d) female workers are taking full advantage of parental leave to extend their
time away from the workforce
Correct Answer: C
28. The Canadian economy has shifted from a _________ economy to a
__________ economy.
a) physical asset based, financial asset based
b) manufacturing, service
c) growing, stagnant
d) labour-rich, labour-poor
Correct Answer: B
29. The downsizing technique that has the most negative effect on the
departing and surviving employees is
a) attrition
b) voluntary separations
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c) early retirements
d) layoffs
Correct Answer: D
30. The focus of HR ________________ is to have the right number of
people with the right capabilities in the right place at the right time
a) strategy
b) planning
c) efficiency
d) benchmarking
Correct Answer: B
31. An indication of an advanced approach to diversity management in an
organization is/are
a) an inclusive culture
b) a preference for the traditional status quo
c) implementation of employment equity.
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d) frequent lawsuits
Correct Answer: A
32. The main impediment to HR being recognized as a strategic
contributor to organizational success is that HR is
a) not critical to the success of an organization
b) HR activities are not quantitatively measurable
c) justification for HR expenditures using hard data is lacking
d) HR does not have a professional credentialing process
Correct Answer: C
33. When an employee quits in the first few months after hiring, it is likely
due to
a) poor relationship with the supervisor
b) inadequate screening before hire
c) lack of career opportunities
d) non-competitive pay
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Correct Answer: B
34. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Workers over 40
a) are protected by Canadian Human Rights legislations if age is a jobrelated qualification
b) can be fired if they are poor performers
c) can be disciplined if they break organizational rules
d) can be replaced with younger (cheaper) employees if the firm can prove
there is financial business necessity
Correct Answer: D
35. Which Canadian law has had a positive impact on the promotion and
protection of human rights in Canada?
a) employment standards
b) pay equity legislation
c) the Fair Employment Equity Act
d) the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom
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Correct Answer: D
36. If an employee survey generates negative results
a) the employees should be given only the positive feedback
b) no feedback should be given to employees
c) action should be taken on the results, but no feedback should be given
to the employees
d) the negative results must be communicated to the employees
Correct Answer: D
37. Quid pro quo sexual harassment
a) is the creation of a hostile working environment
b) is exemplified by nepotism in the workplace
c) usually results from consensual relationships at work
d) demands sexual favours in return for employment outcomes
Correct Answer: D
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38. Sarah is the sole survivor in her department of a merger that resulted
in all of her co-workers being transferred or taking early
retirement. Although Sarah’s pay is competitive, the transfers and
retirements were handled in a humane manner, and Sarah has been given
a written job contract for five years, Sarah is strongly thinking about
quitting. Which driver of retention is probably lacking in Sarah’s case?
a) values and culture of the employer
b) work/life balancing
c) career planning
d) employee relationships
Correct Answer: D
39. What major qualification is necessary for sucess in HR?
a) liking to work with people
b) a certification such as the CHRP
c) strong interpersonal skills
d) business acumen
Correct Answer: B
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Organizational Effectiveness
1. Job design can directly affect all of the following EXCEPT employee
a) competencies.
b) performance.
c) job satisfaction.
d) physical health
Correct Answer: A
2. _________ are most affected by technology, foreign outsourcing, and
flexibility in work arrangement
a) Craft-type unionized jobs
b) Jobs that are routine
c) High-technology jobs
d) Jobs requiring high levels of communication
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Correct Answer: B
3. Which of the following job characteristics is not generally linked to
employee motivation and satisfaction?
a) Skill variety
b) Task identity
c) Task significance
d) Task complexity
Correct Answer: D
4. When the organization of work in the company is re-thought, redesigned, and re-tooled, the activity is termed
a) workflow redesign
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b) implementation of total quality control
c) organizational renovation.
d) business process re-engineering
Correct Answer: D
Staffing
1. When using a psychological test for selection purposes, it is important to
use valid and reliable test. Where can you get information to assess
whether the test you are considering using is psychometrically sound?
a) Buros Center for Testing
b) Non-peer reviewed articles (internet or newspapers)
c) Popular management journals
d) The National Enquire
Correct Answer: A
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2. When screening a resume, which of the following characteristics would
be a potential warning sign that you may have a bad candidate?
a) A well detailed section on work experience
b) Conflicting details or overlapping dates in work experience
c) An exhaustive list of past employers
d) A detailed education system
Correct Answer: B
3. When conducting profile matching, which of the following is a technique
that calculates the differences between an applicant’s scores and ideal
profile scores on each predictor, squaring the differences and then
summing the squared difference?
a) The correlation method
b) The D2 method
c) The R2 method
d) The difference method
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Correct Answer: B
4. Which of the following is the correct term for the correlation between
assessment scores and job performance measurement?
a) Predictive validity
b) Validity coefficient
c) Correlation
d) Reliability
Correct Answer: B
5. Upon examining a competency dictionary, which of the following
information would NOT be found?
a) Proficiency scale
b) Proficiency level
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c) Core competencies
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour index
Correct Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the correct term for modifying an existing
selection test so to allow persons with mental or physical disabilities a fair
chance to demonstrate their abilities?
a) Individual accommodation
b) Reverse discrimination
c) Reasonable accommodation
d) Bona fide occupational requirement
Correct Answer: C
7. If an observed score is quite different from others scores and the mean,
how does it impact the variance?
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a) It increases it
b) It decreases it
c) It stays the same
d) This has nothing to do with variance
Correct Answer: A
8. In one decision-making model, scores on all predictors are obtained for
all applicants, just as in the multiple regression model; however, in this
particular model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of the
predictors fall below the cut-off scores. Which model is this?
a) Multiple hurdle
b) Multiple predictors
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Comprehensive predictors
Correct Answer: C
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9. The most basic building block of HR management is
a) job analysis
b) job design
c) task analysis
d) work flow design
Correct Answer: A
10. Which of the following question should NOT be asked on an
application form?
a) Languages spoken
b) Job experience
c) Date of birth
d) Name
Correct Answer: C
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11. Which of the following applies to a scoring guide for interviews?
a) It should be based on subjective information.
b) It should only use a Likert scale from 1 to 7.
c) It should use a behavioural rating scale with sample answers to each
question.
d) It should use an open ended format, so the interviewer can focus on
whatever he or she wants.
Correct Answer: C
12. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Weighted Application
Blanks?
a) Good predictors of work behaviour (e.g. absenteeism)
b) Easy and quick to develop weighted applications blank questions and
norms
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c) Cost effective
d) Good predictors of employee turnover
Correct Answer: B
13. Research has demonstrated that using proper effective recruitment
and selection practices can lead to which of the following?
a) Reduced employee turnover and increased productivity
b) Increased employee turnover and decreased productivity
c) Decreased trust and increased productivity
d) Increased employee turnover and increased employee commitment
Correct Answer: A
14. Which of the following is the only way that you can defend a
discriminatory policy or practice?
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a) By using a bona fide work requirement
b) By using a bona fide occupational requirement
c) By using a individual accommodation
d) By using a reasonable accommodation
Correct Answer: B
15. Although the PAQ has been rated as one of the most cost-efficient job
analysis method, it does have some disadvantages. Which of the following
would be a disadvantage to using the PAQ?
a) Reading level may be too difficult for certain lower-level workers
b) Does not provide information on work output
c) Does not provide information on mental processes used by employees
d) Does not provide information on the job context
Correct Answer: A
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16. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate technique to increase the
perceived fairness and satisfaction of your performance rating systems?
a) Using behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS)
b) Using behaviour observation scales (BORS)
c) Using Trait scales
d) Allowing employees to help develop the performance evaluations
Correct Answer: C
17. Observation would be the most appropriate job analysis method for the
job of
a) research scientist at NASA.
b) obtain top management support
c) pediatrician in a family health clinic
d) welder in a car manufacturing plant
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Correct Answer: D
18. Which of the following is the correct term when each predictor adds
value to the selection system, and the validity of the system increases?
a) Predictive validity
b) Predictive reliability
c) Incremental validity
d) Adding-up validity
Correct Answer: C
19. Which of the following is NOT representative of a science-based
system in human resource management?
a) The use of valid and useful predictors
b) Rational decision making
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c) Implemented on a case-by-case basis
d) Based on empirical evaluation processes
Correct Answer: C
20. Which of the following type of test is the most powerful predictor of job
performance when used by itself?
a) Personality
b) General cognitive ability
c) Integrity
d) Graphology
Correct Answer: B
21. Which of the following represents the strongest correlations between
two variables?
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a) r = 0.01
b) r = -0. 55
c) r = 0.80
d) r = - 0.84
Correct Answer: D
22. Which of the following is the correct term for the proportion of
applicants hired through the selection system who are judged satisfactory?
a) Base rate
b) Hired candidate
c) Selection rate
d) Success rate
Correct Answer: D
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23. What is the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by, or
measures, behaviours or competencies that are not part of job
performance?
a) Criterion contamination
b) Criterion deficiency
c) Criterion relevance
d) Criterion defectiveness
Correct Answer: A
24. In one decision-making model, current employees who are considered
successful on the job are assessed on several predictors. Their average
score on each predictor are used to form an ideal profile of scores required
for successful job performance. Which model is this?
a) Multiple hurdle
b) Profile matching
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Current employee predictions
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Correct Answer: B
25. Which of the following is NOT representative of screening practices?
a) Reviewing applications
b) Reviewing resumes
c) Employment testing
d) Screening interviews
Correct Answer: C
26. Which of the following refers to knowledge that is derived from
experience when learning is not the primary objective?
a) Tacit knowledge
b) Practical intelligence
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c) Emotional intelligence
d) “Book smarts”
Correct Answer: A
27. Jamie just underwent an interview where she was being interviewed by
4 individuals. Which type of interview is this?
a) A serial interview
b) A team interview
c) A panel interview
d) A group interview
Correct Answer: C
28. An employer is using a test that inadvertently discriminates against
race. What type of discrimination would this be?
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a) Adverse effect discrimination
b) Direct discrimination
c) Adverse impact
d) Pardonable discrimination
Correct Answer: A
29. Which of the following is a practice that can negatively affect test
reliability?
a) Using standardized testing procedures
b) Having a candidate who is physically complete a selection test
c) Having candidates complete the test in a quiet and controlled
environment
d) Providing candidates with a standardized set of instructions
Correct Answer: B
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30. You are applying for a job and had to complete an application form
with the following question: “How many parties do you go to in a
year?” Which of the following are you completing?
a) Biographical Information Blank
b) Weighted Application Blank
c) A regular/basic application form
d) A discriminatory application form
Correct Answer: B
31. Which allegation is the most commonly cited signed complaints at the
Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Service-related
b) Employment-related
c) Harassment-employment
d) Retaliation
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Correct Answer: B
32. Which of the following statements is NOT true about using Canadian
Employment Centres to recruit external candidates?
a) Inexpensive
b) Job-KSAO fit
c) Success limited to certain occupational categories
d) Random process
Correct Answer: D
33. Which of the following is NOT a technique for establishing the validity
of a test?
a) Gather evidence based on test content
b) Compare it to other non-related variables
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c) Examine test-criterion relationships
d) Examine internal consistency rates
Correct Answer: D
34. Which of the following employees would be best to select to work on a
team?
a) a brilliant introvert
b) an individualistic idealist
c) a strong leader
d) an extrovert with good job skills
Correct Answer: D
35. Which of the following is the correct term for the proportion of
applicants who would be successful if all of the applicants for a position had
been hired?
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a) Utility analysis
b) Selection ratios
c) Taylor-Russell model
d) Base rate
Correct Answer: D
36. You are working for an organization that is has previously had issues
with employment equity. Your director has requested that you track
designated group membership within your organization. How would you
deal with this on an application form?
a) Directly ask questions about designated group membership on the
application.
b) Avoid all questions about designated group membership on the
application.
c) Ask employees to complete a separate form which explains that the
information is being collected as per government requirements and will not
be accessible to those making hiring decisions).
d) Only ask certain minority groups (i.e., the ones with the least
representation in your organization) to complete additional items on the
application form
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Correct Answer: C
37. All of the following are behavioural competencies of employees
EXCEPT
a) customer focus
b) leadership
c) results orientation
d) financial expertise.
Correct Answer: D
38. Which of the following is an inappropriate behaviour that may
negatively influence your interviews perception of you during a screening
interview?
a) Making direct eye contact with the interviewer.
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b) Remaining confident and determined throughout the interview,
regardless of how the interviewer’s cues suggest the interview is going
c) Emphasizing monetary issues
d) Answering questions quickly
Correct Answer: C
39. An effective recruitment plan should do all of the following EXCEPT
which of the following?
a) Attract a large pool of candidates
b) Meet management goals
c) Meet current legal requirements
d) Attract very few candidates from minority groups
Correct Answer: D
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40. During the recruitment and selection process it is possible for
candidates to suddenly decide that he/she no longer wants to work for the
company which was recruiting them. What is the term for this?
a) Walk outs
b) Self-selecting out
c) Quitters
d) False-positives
Correct Answer: B
41. Using a science-based selection system in human resource
management can lead to which of the following?
a) Marginal employees
b) Lack of competitiveness
c) Decreased productivity
d) A defensible selection system
Correct Answer: D
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42. Which of the following is the correct term for attempts by applicants to
create a favourable impression by monitoring interviewer reactions and
responding accordingly?
a) Impression management
b) Social desirability
c) Recency effect
d) Primacy effect
Correct Answer: A
43. Paul, a manager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he basically just formed an overall
impression of the applicants based on his gut feelings. What is this type of
approach?
a) Trait rating approach
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b) Pure judgment approach
c) Profile interpretation
d) Simplified rating approach
Correct Answer: B
44. Which of the following occurs when individuals who are predicted to
perform successfully for a given position (based on pre-selection
assessment scores) do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on
the job?
a) False positives
b) False negatives
c) True negatives
d) True positives
Correct Answer: A
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45. Which of the following is NOT representative of component in human
resource system?
a) Legislative laws
b) Personnel requirements
c) Personal preferences
d) Work environment
Correct Answer: C
46. Kim, a HR manager, is conducting interviews for an intern position.
She has very little experience conducting interviews; consequently she has
done very little preparation and has been just coming up with questions as
the interviews progress. What style of interview is Kim conducting?
a) Structured interviews
b) Stress interviews
c) Unstructured interviews
d) Comprehensive interviews
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Correct Answer: C
47. What is a written outline of what job occupants are required to do, how
they are supposed to do it, and the rationale for any required job
procedures?
a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Job
d) Position description
Correct Answer: A
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the great 8 competencies
developed by Bartram (2005)?
a) Leading and deciding
b) Interacting and presenting
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c) Creating and conceptualizing
d) Communicating
Correct Answer: D
49. Which of the following is NOT an example of attitudinal measures that
can be used to evaluate recruitment methods?
a) Job satisfaction
b) Job involvement
c) Turnover
d) Sales quotas
Correct Answer: C
50. To be successful, an employee orientation program must be designed
to include:
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a) A needs analysis
b) Cognitive dissonance
c) An ongoing follow-up procedure
d) Provide for sharing of group norms
Correct Answer: C
51. The ability to access and/or generate feelings when they facilitate
thought is a component of which of the following?
a) Tacit knowledge
b) Practical knowledge
c) Emotional intelligence
d) Cognitive ability
Correct Answer: C
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52. Which of the following is a criticism of using self-report inventories?
a) They are expensive
b) They are time consuming
c) They are prone to social desirability responses
d) They can only be done in paper and pencil
Correct Answer: C
53. Which of the following is a decision-making model where an applicant
must pass the minimum cut-off for each predictor before moving on to the
next predictor?
a) Multiple cut-offs
b) Multiple regression
c) Multiple hurdle
d) Combination
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Correct Answer: C
54. Which of the following internal recruitment practices can lead to
allegations of discrimination?
a) Internal job postings
b) Replacement charts
c) Human resources information systems
d) Nominations
Correct Answer: D
55. Betty just evaluated one of her employees; she rated her employee on
each performance domain on a 101-point scale (with 50 representing
average). Betty was told that each performance domain was derived
through job analytic procedures. What type of rating system is this?
a) Rank order
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b) Paired comparisons
c) Forced distributions
d) Relative percentile method
Correct Answer: D
56. Jenny is currently in the process of being asked interview questions.
She has noticed, thus far, that all the questions are focused on what she
did or how she acted in the past. What type of interview is this?
a) Situational interviews
b) Comprehensive structured interviews
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
Correct Answer: D
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57. What is the correct term for a case when a job candidate has the
knowledge, skills, abilities, or competencies required by the job in
question?
a) Person-job fit
b) Person-organization fit
c) KSAO’s match
d) Person competency fit
Correct Answer: A
58. Before starting to collect data for a job analysis, human resource
managers can collect information about the job in question from which of
the following sources?
a) National Occupational Competency Database
b) O*Net
c) National Organizational Database
d) Canadian Classification Dictionary of Job Analysis
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Correct Answer: B
59. Which of the following is the correct term for the degree to which
accumulated evidence and theory support specific interpretations of test
scores in the context of the test’s proposed use?
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) A high correlation coefficient
d) Cronbach’s alpha
Correct Answer: B
60. Which of the following are voluntary behaviours that violate significant
organizational norms and in so doing threaten the well-being of an
organization and its members?
a) Non-job specific task proficiency
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b) Lack of personal discipline
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Social loafing
Correct Answer: C
61. Based on the big five dimensions of job personality, which is the best
predictor of several different aspects of performance?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extroversion
c) Emotional Stability
d) Neuroticism
Correct Answer: A
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62. Which of the following does NOT contribute to having a structured
interview?
a) Interview questions are standardized.
b) Follow-up questioning is limited.
c) Questions from candidate are not allowed until after the interview.
d) Interview questions focus on opinions and self-evaluations.
Correct Answer: D
63. What determines individual differences on Campbell’s eight
dimensions of job performance?
a) Declarative knowledge, procedural knowledge, and motivation
b) Practical knowledge, organizational knowledge, and motivation
c) Contextual knowledge, personal attributes, and motivation
d) Declarative knowledge, organizational knowledge, and motivation
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Correct Answer: A
64. Which of the following is the correct term for the notion that you can
use a single criterion to measure overall job performance?
a) Global criterion
b) Ultimate criterion
c) Overall criterion
d) Composite criterion
Correct Answer: B
65. What is the first step in developing and implementing an employment
equity plan?
a) To conduct a survey to determine the present representation of
designated groups.
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b) To remove systemic employment barriers to increase representation for
designated groups.
c) To obtain support of senior management for the employment equity
effort.
d) To set future representation targets for designated groups based
availability of qualified workers in the labour market.
Correct Answer: C
66. Which of the following is an authentic concern about Weighted
Application Blanks?
a) Weights are not based on job analysis.
b) Questions do not predict valid work behaviours. (e.g. absenteeism)
c) Questions, although supported by empirical research, may not explain
the relationship between behaviours and performance
d) Good predictors of work behaviour
Correct Answer: C
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67. What is the validity of resumes in predicting future job success?
a) Resumes have relatively low validity
b) Resumes have high validity
c) Resumes have moderate validity
d) Resumes have absolutely no validity
Correct Answer: A
68. Providing interview training to future interviewers should provide what
information?
a) How to use your “gut-instinct”
b) How to develop probe questions during the interview
c) How to avoid the similar-to-me effect
d) How to stress the candidates
Correct Answer: C
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69. Bill, a job candidate, was just given a set of short reports, notes,
telephone messages, and memos of the type that most managers have to
deal with on a daily basis. The person conducting the interview has asked
Bill to set priorities for each task and determine whether or not they can be
delegated. What is this selection test known as?
a) Management skill test
b) Assessment centre
c) In-basket test
d) Personality tests
Correct Answer: C
70. There are 19 prohibited grounds of employment discrimination across
all jurisdictions in Canada. How many grounds of employment
discrimination are there on which all jurisdictions agree?
a) 3 prohibited grounds
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b) 6 prohibited grounds
c) 9 prohibited grounds
d) 12 prohibited grounds
Correct Answer: B
71. Which of the following is a standardized questionnaire that includes
195 items and organizes job elements into 6 dimensions?
a) The critical incident technique
b) Position analysis questionnaire
c) Work profiling system
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
Correct Answer: B
72. Job applicants are likely to react more positively to which of the
following selection practices?
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a) Cognitive ability test
b) Personality test
c) Work samples
d) Interviews
Correct Answer: D
73. Although recruitment methods change over time, which of the following
does recent research suggest is the most used recruitment method that
people use to find work?
a) Personal initiative
b) Family or friend
c) Help-wanted sign
d) Directly recruited by employer
Correct Answer: B
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74. Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds of employment
discrimination on which all Canadian jurisdictions agree?
a) Race
b) Religion
c) Sexual orientation
d) Age
Correct Answer: C
75. If an interviewee is having difficulties answering an interview question.
Say for example, the interviewee needs more information. The interviewer
can help the guide the interviewee by asking which of the following?
a) Probe
b) Leading question
c) Subjective tip
d) Situational example
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Correct Answer: A
76. Knowledge about facts and things including knowledge of rules,
regulations, and goals is defined as:
a) Procedural knowledge
b) Declarative knowledge
c) Practical knowledge
d) Informative knowledge
Correct Answer: B
77. Which of the following is NOT a technique for estimating the reliability
of a test?
a) Test and retest
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b) Using alternate forms
c) Verifying external reliability
d) Inter-rater reliability
Correct Answer: C
78. What has research shown about individuals designated with a CHRP
designation?
a) They are more likely to receive higher salaries
b) They are more likely to struggle to keep jobs
c) They are more likely to enjoy their jobs more
d) They are more likely to have negative perceptions associated with their
performance
Correct Answer: A
79. A company that wishes to have a defensible basis for compensation,
selection, and training for jobs in the high tech industry should use a:
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a) consulting firm that does business process re-engineering
b) traditional task-based job analysis
c) competency-based job analysis.
d) behavioural-based job analysis.
Correct Answer: C
80. Having each interviewee undergo the same series of interview
questions and the same series of probes are characteristic of which type of
interview?
a) Unstructured interviews
b) Structured interviews
c) Personality based interviews
d) Organized interviews
Correct Answer: B
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81. The major reson that Canadian jobs have been outsourced to foreign
locations is
a) lower labour costs in foreign countries
b) the stronger work thic of foreign workers than Canadian workers
c) the ability of Canadian firms to evade strict Canadian labour and
employment laws
d) avoidance of union work rules
Correct Answer: A
82. When should a physical/medical exam be given?
a) During the recruitment process
b) After the screening interview
c) During other employment test
d) After the applicant has received a job offer
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Correct Answer: D
83. Your organization has a selection ration of 0.05. Based on this number,
how many applicants did your organization receive, and how many
positions were available?
a) 300 applicants/ 10 positions
b) 150 applicants/ 50 positions
c) 200 applicants/ 10 positions
d) 100 applicants/ 60 positions
Correct Answer: C
84. Which law is the supreme law in Canada and has a pervasive impact
on employment practices?
a) Constitutional law
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b) Human rights law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law
Correct Answer: A
85. Based on a recent survey by Simola, Tagger, & Smith, which types of
interview questions are the most commonly used in Canada?
a) Situational
b) Behaviour description
c) Job knowledge
d) Personal (e.g., are you married?)
Correct Answer: B
86. Which style of interviews has greater levels of predictive validity and
reliability?
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a) Unstructured interviews
b) Structured interviews
c) Organized interviews
d) Personality based interviews
Correct Answer: B
87. Bill, a manager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he is basically looking at statistical
data that he collected during the applicant selection process.
a) Pure judgmental approach
b) Pure statistical approach
c) Profile interpretation
d) Judgmental composite
Correct Answer: B
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88. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) A job analysis does not refer to a single methodology but rather to a
range of techniques.
b) A job analysis breaks down a job into its constituent parts, rather than
looking at the job as a whole
c) A job analysis is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of
guidelines established in advance.
d) A job analysis is required by the law and must always be done.
Correct Answer: D
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of contextual performance?
a) Organizational citizenship behaviour
b) Defending organizational objectives
c) Following organizational rules and procedures
d) Lying
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Correct Answer: D
90.
Which of the following is the correct term for a job analysis technique that
emphasizes work outcomes and description of the various tasks performed
to accomplish those outcomes?
a) Work-oriented job analysis
b) Worker-oriented job analysis
c) Work-description job analysis
d) Work-outcomes job analysis
Correct Answer: A
91. Which of the following is the first step of the selection process which
involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have the
minimum qualifications for the position?
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a) Screening
b) Recruitment
c) Selection
d) Self-selecting out
Correct Answer: A
92. Which of the following is the correct term for characteristics that apply
only to specific positions within the organization?
a) Competencies
b) Job-specific competencies
c) Functional competencies
d) Core competencies
Correct Answer: B
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93. Which of the following is NOT one of the big five dimensions of job
personality?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extroversion
c) Hard Worker
d) Emotional Stability
Correct Answer: C
94. Based on Campbell’s eight job dimensions, the dimension of
“facilitating peer and team performance” would fall under which of the
following job performance categories?
a) Job task behaviours
b) Contextual behaviours
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Written and oral communication and task proficiency
Correct Answer: B
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95. Which of the following group is NOT a designated protected group as
defined by employment equity?
a) Women
b) Minorities
c) Aboriginals
d) Senior citizens
Correct Answer: D
96. Which of the following is the correct term for advertising designed to
raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner in order to attract job
seeker’s interest?
a) Image advertising
b) Positive image enhancing promotions
c) Guerrilla advertising
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d) Realistic job preview
Correct Answer: A
97. When choosing a job analysis method, which of the following should
NOT be taken into consideration?
a) The cost
b) Reliability of the method
c) Sample size
d) Employment Equity Laws
Correct Answer: D
98. Which of the following is not one of Campbell’s 8 dimensions of job
performance?
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a) Demonstrating effort
b) Maintaining personal discipline
c) Facilitating peer and team performance
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour
Correct Answer: D
99. Which of the following is the correct term for an indication of the
stability or dependability of a set of measurements over repeated
applications of the measurement procedure?
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Coefficient determination
d) Construct Validity
Correct Answer: B
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100. When conducting reference checks, which of the following guidelines
should you use?
a) Have candidates sign a waiver
b) Ask closed questions to the person giving you the reference
c) Only conduct 1 reference check
d) Try to get personal references (i.e. friends or family)
Correct Answer: A
101. Raters for 360 degree performance evaluation do NOT include?
a) Supervisors
b) Peers
c) Self-ratings
d) External consultants
Correct Answer: D
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102. Which of the following is the correct term for a structured interview
technique that includes job knowledge interviews, work sample interviews,
and walk-through interviews (that require actual demonstration of
behaviours)?
a) Situational interviews
b) Behavioural sample interview
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
Correct Answer: B
103. Which law aims to eliminate discriminatory practices that prevent the
entry or retention of members from designated groups in the workplace and
to the elimination of unequal treatment in the workplace related to
membership in a designated group?
a) Constitutional law
b) Human rights law
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c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
Correct Answer: C
104. The most valuable and time-saving resource for job analysis and for
writing good job descriptions and specifications is/are
a) Internet chat rooms for HR professionals.
b) the Canadian website for National Occupation Classification
c) previous job descriptions used in the same company.
d) job descriptions written by HR professionals in other companies
Correct Answer: B
105. Telework is likely to
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a) decrease in the future due to the excessive stress on employees.
b) decrease in the future due to the inability to properly supervise and
control teleworkers
c) increase in the future because of the high cost of real estate making
office space very expensive
d) increase in the future because of globalization of business.
Correct Answer: D
106. Which of the following are subsets or scales that are included in a
general personality inventory?
a) Covert tests
b) Overt honesty tests
c) Graphology
d) In-baskets
Correct Answer: A
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107. What is a collection of duties assigned to individuals in an
organization at a given time?
a) Job family
b) Job specification
c) Job
d) position
Correct Answer: D
108. When conducting a job analysis, most HR managers will identify
people who are most knowledgeable about a job and how it is currently
performed. Which of the following is NOT representative of one of these
individuals?
a) Experienced employees currently holding the position
b) Immediate supervisors of people holding the position
c) Subject-matter experts
d) New employees
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Correct Answer: D
109. As a general rule, which of the following is the MOST appropriate
length of an interview?
a) Less than 12 minutes
b) Less than 16 minutes
c) Less than 20 minutes
d) Less than 45 minutes
Correct Answer: A
110. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle underlying a
Human Resource Systems?
a) Human resource managers must carefully coordinate their activities with
other organizational units.
b) Human resource managers must think in terms of systems.
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c) Human resource managers should focus solely on their departmental
objectives.
d) Human resource managers should consider the welfare of the entire
organization.
Correct Answer: C
111. Which law prohibits discrimination in both employment and the
provision of goods and services in Canada?
a) Constitutional law
b) Human rights law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
Correct Answer: B
112. The LAST stage in the job analysis process is to
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a) finalize job descriptions and recommendations
b) obtain top management support
c) review drafted job descriptions with employees and managers
d) periodically review all jobs
Correct Answer: D
113. What is a simulation exercise designed to assess leadership,
organization, and communication skills also known as?
a) Leaderless group discussion
b) In-basket test
c) Assessment Centre
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
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114. A company running a 24-hour business can expect all of the following
EXCEPT
a) to have more accidents on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift.
b) for mistakes to be fewer on the day shift.
c) for employees to value the variation in scheduling
d) to have higher labour costs for evening and night shifts.
Correct Answer: C
115. Which of the following would NOT be an example of an objective
measure of job performance?
a) Number of times late for work
b) Speed of production
c) Rate of increase in production
d) Decision making processes
Correct Answer: D
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116. Which of the following is NOT representative of making effective
selection decisions?
a) Use valid selection instruments
b) Base decisions on “gut feelings” or intuition
c) Keeping track of the selections “hits” and “misses”
d) Periodically evaluate or audit selection decisions
Correct Answer: B
117. A background investigation would immediately follow which step of an
effective selection process?
a) After the candidate completes an application form
b) After the candidate writes a written selection test
c) After the candidates undergoes a screening interview
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d) After the candidates undergoes a second (in-person) interview
Correct Answer: D
118. Identify which of the following can be a major weakness of using
interviews during a job analysis?
a) Provide information which may otherwise be overlooked
b) Interviewees respond more openly to questions
c) Employees can distort information (especially if questions are linked to
pay)
d) Allows for one on one interaction
Correct Answer: C
119. Which of the following could be identified as a weakness when an
organization (client) outsources recruitment and selection to an external
firm?
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a) The employee is “leased” to the client from the outside firm.
b) Client can be subject to discrimination claims.
c) Client has to pay increased administrative task.
d) Client suffers from a decrease in work force flexibility.
Correct Answer: B
120. Which of the following is the correct term for an interviewer’s beliefs
about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of applicants?
a) Competency structures
b) Knowledge structures
c) Skill structures
d) Ability structures
Correct Answer: B
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121. When making selection decisions, what technique ranks all
candidates based on the highest scores and then selects the candidates
with the highest scores?
a) Top-down method
b) Banding
c) Highest score method
d) The regression method
Correct Answer: A
122. In order to develop effective recruitment ads, it’s important to use
which of the following criteria?
a) Attract, Interest, Devotion, Accountability
b) Attract, Interest, Desire, Action
c) Attract, Seduce, Stimulate interest, Action
d) Attract, Draw attention, Stimulate interest, Accountability
Correct Answer: B
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123. A work arrangement where the employees work a set number of
hours per day but vary starting and ending times is called
a) shift work.
b) flextime
c) virtual work.
d) compressed work week.
Correct Answer: B
124. Which of the following information can NOT be found on the National
Occupational Classification System?
a) Aptitudes
b) Interest
c) Physical activity
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d) Average salaries (nationally and by province)
Correct Answer: D
125. Which of the following test can be used to collect information on
workers’ traits?
a) Fleishman job analysis survey
b) The critical incident technique
c) Position analysis questionnaire
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
Correct Answer: A
126. While developing recruitment and selection practices, taking into
consideration compensation and benefits would refer to which element in a
Human Resource System?
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a) Work environment
b) Personnel
c) Retention
d) Performance management
Correct Answer: C
127. Which of the following is an approach in which judgmental and
statistical data are combined statistically?
a) Judgmental composite
b) Profile interpretation
c) Trait rating approach
d) Statistical composite
Correct Answer: D
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128. While developing recruitment and selection practices, taking into
consideration training and developing would refer to which element in a
Human Resource System?
a) Performance Management
b) Work environment
c) Personnel requirements
d) Retention
Correct Answer: C
129. Which of the following refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency
or competency on a given task, which develops through performing the
task?
a) Abilities
b) Skill
c) Knowledge
d) Aptitude
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Correct Answer: B
130. Rick, a general manager, has to evaluate 4 of his employees’
performance. Instead of taking the time to properly evaluate each
employee, Rick opts to assign each one an average rating. What does this
exemplify?
a) Leniency errors
b) Severity errors
c) Central tendency errors
d) Halo errors
Correct Answer: C
131. Which of the following is the correct term for an idea or concept
constructed or invoked to explain relationships between observations?
a) Validity
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b) Construct
c) Construct validity
d) Reliability
Correct Answer: B
132. Most selection policies used to select undergraduate students into
graduate schools are faced with a similar problem. Given that most
students applying to graduate school have similar grades, it can affect the
validity of the validity coefficients. What is this problem defined as?
a) Measurement error
b) Range restriction
c) Sampling error
d) Bias
Correct Answer: B
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133. Well designed test must abide by certain standards. From the list
below, identify which standard does NOT protect the rights and welfare of
test takers?
a) Have test takers sign an informed consent.
b) Offer test takers an opportunity to view their test results.
c) Test results should be kept confidential.
d) Not offering candidates an opportunity to write a test in their most fluent
language.
Correct Answer: D
134. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of recruiting internal
candidates?
a) They have greater expectations about the job or organization.
b) They are familiar with the organizational culture.
c) They have higher levels of organizational commitment
d) They have higher levels of satisfaction
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Correct Answer: A
135. Which group receives the highest amount of cited signed complaints
for discrimination at the Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Disability
b) Sex
c) Race
d) Age
Correct Answer: A
136. A new HR intern has been asked to generate a pool of potential
candidates for a new position within the organization. What is task defined
as?
a) Recruitment
b) Selection
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c) Recruitment and Selection
d) Promotion
Correct Answer: A
137. Which of the following will NOT help job candidates develop accurate
expectations about the job that they are applying for?
a) Provide candidates with a realistic job preview.
b) Use more than one media source to communicate with job candidates.
c) Only provide job candidates with positive information about the job
d) Provide candidates with a broad range of information about the job and
organization
Correct Answer: D
138. A practice-based selection system in human resource management is
based on which of the following principles?
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a) A person’s “gut feeling”
b) Select valid measures of KSAOs
c) Rational
d) Information based on a job analysis
Correct Answer: A
139. Which of the following is a technique that selects the top scorer in
one band and then constructs a new band from the next highest score?
a) Fixed bands
b) Sliding bands
c) Moving bands
d) Stable bands
Correct Answer: B
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140. The notion of sufficient risk is important for which of the following?
a) Reverse discrimination
b) Individual accommodation
c) Bona fide occupational requirement defence
d) Adverse effect discrimination
Correct Answer: C
141. An organization administered a test to existing employees to see how
it correlated with their performance. Which type of evidence does this
provide to the validity of the inferences made between test scores and job
performance?
a) Predictive
b) Concurrent
c) Cumulative
d) Composite
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Correct Answer: B
142. Which of the following is a decision-making model where an
applicant’s scores on each predictor are weighted and summed to yield a
total score?
a) Multiple cut-offs
b) Multiple regression
c) Multiple hurdle
d) Combination
Correct Answer: B
143. Which of the following is NOT an external factor that can influence
HR recruitment strategies?
a) The labour market
b) The legal environment
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c) Organizational values
d) Competition
Correct Answer: C
144. You have just hired a recent job candidate, who scored very highly
during selection testing and interviews. Unfortunately, once he started
working, he turned out to be a very poor choice. What is this type of error?
a) False positive error
b) False negative error
c) True positive error
d) False choice error
Correct Answer: A
145. With respects to recruitment and selection and the HR profession,
many organizations are requesting that HR professionals hold which type
of qualification?
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a) Canadian Human Resource Professional
b) Certified Human Resource Professional
c) Human Resource Professional Certificate
d) Human Resource Professional Credential certificate
Correct Answer: B
146. The best way to establish the core duties and necessary KSAs for a
job is to
a) determine the duties and KSAs of the ideal candidate for the job.
b) record the duties and KSAs of the current job incumbent.
c) determine what the duties and KSAs would be if the current incumbent
left
d) redesign the job independent of what the current job duties and KSAs
are
Correct Answer: C
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147. What is the correct term for the difference, on average, that any one
score is from the mean score and from any other score?
a) The mean
b) The variance
c) A correlation coefficient
d) Reliability
Correct Answer: B
148. When conducting employment testing, it is important to abide by a
code of ethics. Which of the following is NOT representative of the CPA’s
Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologist?
a) Respect for the dignity of the person
b) Responsible caring discrepancy
c) Responsibility to society
d) Responsibility to the organization
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Correct Answer: D
149. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ethics or ethical
standards?
a) Taking the time to determine right from wrong.
b) Follow a code of standards for appropriate behaviour.
c) Finding the problem lies within a grey area between right or wrong.
d) Taking actions without considering their ramifications.
Correct Answer: D
150. Which of the following is NOT a social economic factor that can
influence recruitment and selection?
a) Globalization
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b) Labour employee relations
c) Demographics
d) Marketplace
Correct Answer: B
151. Which of the following is the correct term for a highly structured
interview in which hypothetical situations are described and applicants are
asked what they would do?
a) Situational interview
b) Comprehensive structured interview
c) Job knowledge interview
d) Behavioural description interview
Correct Answer: A
152. Which of the following is NOT a test that can be used to measure
personality dimensions?
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a) NEO-FFI
b) Personal Characteristics Inventory
c) Wonderlic Personnel Test
d) Work Personality Index
Correct Answer: C
153. Which of the following is a disadvantage to using the internet to
recruit external candidates?
a) Reaches a mass audience
b) Inexpensive
c) Time consuming
d) Unknown audience
Correct Answer: D
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154. Which of the following is NOT representative of an executive search
firm?
a) Executive searches are non expensive
b) Executive searches can cost 30% of the candidate’s gross starting
salary.
c) Executive search firms can contact potential clients directly
d) Executive search firms conduct hiring negotiations.
Correct Answer: A
155. What are the three categories of job performance?
a) Conscientiousness, contextual performance, counterproductive
performance
b) Task performance, contextual performance, counterproductive
performance
c) Overall performance, declarative knowledge, motivation
d) Overall performance, practical knowledge, dedication
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Correct Answer: B
156. What practice should NOT be taken into consideration to assure that
performance measurement systems meet legal and professional
standards?
a) Select criteria that are valid, reliable, and practical measurements of job
performance.
b) Conduct a job analysis to describe job performance domain and
competencies that are necessary for successfully achieve the
organization’s goals.
c) Provide written instructions to all assessors/raters on the proper use of
the measurement system.
d) Asking questions not directly linked to performance (i.e., are you
planning on having a family?)
Correct Answer: D
Employee and Labour Realtions
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1 . Functions of the CLC include:
a) Lobbying provincial governments
b) Lobbying municipal governments
c) Lobbying federal governments
d) Lobbying all governments
e) Lobbying no governments
Correct Answer: C
2 . Many Canadian workplaces now use:
a) Short-term contractors
b) Full-time workers
c) All types of workers
d) No workers
e) Only popular workers
Correct Answer: A
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3 . For institutionalists there were:
a) Four key elements of industrial democracy
b) A written law of workplace rules
c) A balance of power between management and labour
d) A binding procedure for enforcing written law
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
4 . Total Quality Management:
a) Is also known as TQM
b) Is used heavily in the public sector
c) Uses data process controls
d) Uses cause and effect analyses
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e) A and D only
Correct Answer: E
5 . Industrial Relations:
a) Has often been used by academics to examine all employment issues
and relationships between employees and government agencies.
b) Has been argued not to include the study of both union and non-union
employment relationships.
c) Has not become synonymous with issues concerning employment
relationships.
d) Doesn’t focus exclusively on issues relating to the unionized
employment relationship.
Correct Answer: A
6 . ILO enforcement system elements include:
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a) Special procedures on freedom of association
b) Supervisory system for ratified conventions
c) Standards obligations
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
7 . Hammer and Avgar’s potential explanations of lower levels of
satisfaction include:
a) Unions may choose to organize workers with low pay
b) Unions may create unrealistic workplace expectations
c) Unionized and nonunionized workers have different job outcome
preferences
d) Unions and collective agreements may restrict job tasks
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: E
8 . Kochan, Katz and McKersie developed the strategic choice perspective
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
9 . Prior to the passage of the Wagner Act in the U.S.A. unions were
widely recognized.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: F
10 . Belcourt and McBey state that strategic human resource strategies
include:
a) Specific practices
b) No policies
c) No overall human resource philosophy
d) A only
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: A
11 . Scientific Management:
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a) Resulted from the Industrial Disputes Investigation Act of 1907
b) Removed autonomy of skilled craft workers
c) Is not associated with Frederick Taylor
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
12 . Collective bargaining is a complex multilateral process.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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13 . Unions affect other factors that come under the umbrella of human
resources namely:
a) Workplace equality
b) Health and safety
c) A and B only
d) Employee assistance plans
e) Defined benefit plans
Correct Answer: C
14 . The organization of work includes the topics of:
a) Technological change
b) The distribution of work
c) A and B only
d) Lack of technological change
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e) A only
Correct Answer: C
15 . Mitigation factors used by unions include:
a) The grievor’s work record
b) The grievor’s length of service
c) Inconsistent application of rules
d) Economic hardship
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
16 . In Canada, globalization has affected employment through NAFTA.
a) True
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b) False
Correct Answer: T
17 . The following factors had significant impacts on union density:
a) Less women
b) Occupational shifts
c) Contingent workers
d) B and C only
e) A, B and C only
Correct Answer: D
18 . Job evaluation or analysis:
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a) Ensures human resource management practices reflect job skills
b) Is used by most companies to collect job information
c) Is not used by any companies
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
19 . Why employees join unions:
a) For a collective voice
b) For utility
c) Because of politics
d) For disability
e) A, B, and C only
Correct Answer: E
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20 . Codes of conduct:
a) Have unilateral initiatives
b) May recognize core labour standards
c) Rarely cover suppliers
d) Have weak labour-management dialogue
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
21 . The Rand Formula:
a) Instituted dues check-off
b) Was enacted by justice Ivan Reed
c) Required workers to join a union
d) B and A only
e) A, B, and C only
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Correct Answer: D
22 . The Pepsi-Cola and Dunmore cases:
a) Have effected a new Labour Trilogy
b) Did not affect collective rights
c) Were landmark decisions
d) Were terrible decisions
e) Are not applicable
Correct Answer: A
23 . An internal grievance procedure consists of:
a) An informal step involving no one
b) An informal step involving the employee and line manager
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c) A lack of steps
d) Three additional formal steps involving union stewards, line managers,
human resources and department heads
e) B and D only
Correct Answer: E
24 . Unions have forged alliances with community groups to:
a) Assist in organizing new members.
b) Strengthen positions in bargaining.
c) Support political lobbying campaigns.
d) Oppose plant closures.
e) All of the above.
Correct Answer: E
25 . The Wagner Act was:
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a) Named after Robert F. Wagner.
b) Known as the National Labour Relations Act.
c) The influencing Act on Canadian Labour Law.
d) Enacted to reduce conflict.
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
26 . Economic globalization is a historical process.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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27 . Dunlop said that the three actors could be influenced by several
environmental contexts except:
a) Financial environment
b) Legal environment
c) Social constraints
d) Personality constraints
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: E
28 . The early years of the labour movement included:
a) New model unionism
b) The Trade Unions Act
c) The AFL
d) KFC
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e) A, B, and C only
Correct Answer: E
29 . Given economic structural changes, labour is increasing efforts in:
a) Nothing at all
b) All sectors
c) Protecting job loss
d) Organizing the new economy
e) C and D only
Correct Answer: E
30 . The grievance example in Chapter 8 included:
a) No steps
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b) 1 step
c) 3 steps
d) 2 steps
e) 4 steps
Correct Answer: C
31 . Globalization has:
a) Positively affected women and children
b) Negatively impacted women and children
c) Not affected women and children
d) Has not affected anyone
e) May negatively affect women and children
Correct Answer: E
32 . The ILO:
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a) Is a tripartite board
b) Passed the declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at work
c) Is associated with the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
d) A and C only
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
33 . Conversion mechanisms include:
a) Grievances
b) Collective bargaining
c) Goals
d) Power
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
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34 . Union locals in Canada are affiliated with:
a) Local labour councils
b) CLC
c) AFL – CIO
d) Provincial federations
e) None of the Above
Correct Answer: A
35 . Attitudinal structuring:
a) Is the stage where trust is built between the parties
b) Builds a conflict filled relationship
c) Builds no relationship
d) Is a short-term process
e) A only
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Correct Answer: A
36 . Generally speaking, unions:
a) Encourage workers to not file grievances
b) Encourage workers to file grievances
c) Do not counsel workers about grievances
d) Don’t care about grievances
e) Hate grievances
Correct Answer: B
37 . Workplaces often don’t have detailed layoff and bumping procedures
in their collective agreements
a) True
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b) False
Correct Answer: F
38 . Dunlop’s Industrial Relations System Model consists of:
a) actors
b) a shared ideology
c) contexts
d) a web of rules
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
39 . The strongholds of labour typically have been:
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a) The service sector
b) The private sector
c) No sectors
d) The public sectors
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
40 . Industrial relations is an interdisciplinary field using knowledge from:
a) economics
b) law
c) history
d) sociology
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
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41 . Labour Boards apply several criteria to decide which employees are
eligible to be included in the bargaining unit:
a) Are employees’ part of management?
b) Community of interests
c) Wishes of employees
d) Employer structure
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
42 . Traditional sectors have included:
a) Primary resources
b) Construction
c) A and B only
d) The engines of growth
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e) Office equipment
Correct Answer: C
43 . John Dunlop was one of the first scholars to develop a systematic
method to analyze employment relationships in North America
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
44 . Functions of the Local Labour Council include:
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a) Representing member unions
b) Enacting labour legislation
c) Lobbying federal governments
d) Community programs
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
45 . From 2004-2006, the CLC produced several papers on:
a) The need for public healthcare
b) Proposed changes to the national pension plan
c) Employment insurance plan changes
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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46 . The neoclassical economics view:
a) Was outlined by Gunderson
b) Was led by John Common and Selig Perlman.
c) Emphasizes the use of unions as an artificial barrier
d) Grew out of the Wisconsin School view
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
47 . The new economy has remained private based.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
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48 . IBB is difficult to achieve because of:
a) Mixed issue bargaining, bargaining history of the parties, the theory itself
b) Single issue bargaining, lack of bargaining history of the parties, the
theory itself
c) Mixed issue bargaining, too much bargaining history of the parties, the
theory itself
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
49 . P.C. 1003 put in place requirements in terms of workplace dispute
mechanisms and conciliation procedures
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
50 . Unions have tried to minimize pay differences between individual
employees.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
51 . David Foot authored the book Boom, Bust and Echo.
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a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
52 . The unfettered strike model:
a) Has been in effect since WWII
b) Affects only white collar workers
c) Works best when services are essential
d) Ends strikes and lockouts
e) Is not helpful to labour relations
Correct Answer: A
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53 . IFA agreements:
a) Recognize all core labour standards
b) Involve unions in implementation
c) Have strong union-management dialogue
d) Cover suppliers
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
54 . Recent developments in dispute resolution in the public sector include:
a) The chilling effect
b) The dependency effect
c) The narcotic effect
d) The strike only model
e) A, B, and C
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Correct Answer: E
55 . Unfair labour practices are true violations of the Labour Relations Act
by employers, unions or employees
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
56 . The number of workers is a function of:
a) Population growth
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b) immigration
c) retirement choices
d) career patterns
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
57 . Measures of strikes include:
a) Frequency
b) Number of workers involved
c) Person-days not worked
d) Percentage of working time lost
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
58 . Total compensation has the following elements:
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a) The monopoly effect
b) The wage effect
c) Base pay and indirect pay
d) Performance pay
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
59 . Some of the key elements of a strong ethical program include
responsibility, respect, fairness and honesty. What is one additional
element of a strong ethical program?
a) Compassion
b) Trust
c) Stewardship
d) Transparency
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Correct Answer: A
60 . Engines of growth with low unionization rates include:
a) Professional sectors
b) Scientific sectors
c) Technical sectors
d) Financial sectors
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
61 . The labour movement has often been the catalyst for advocating for
rights and freedoms.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
62 . The Business/Organizational Strategic process consists of:
a) Two phases only
b) One phase only
c) No phases at all
d) Four phases only
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
63 . Public sector employers experience the following pressures except:
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a) Rigid cost constraints
b) Labour intensive constraints
c) Payrolls with high costs
d) Political pressures
e) B, C, and D only
Correct Answer: E
64 . Macroeconomics Policy applies to:
a) Economic wide goals
b) inflation
c) unemployment
d) growth
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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65 . The contract zone
a) Exists if both side’s bottom line overlaps
b) Exists when management offers more than the union will accept
c) Exists when the union accepts less than the point where negotiating
positions intersect
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
66 . The Wagner Act provided the following:
a) The exclusivity principle.
b) Recognized strikes and lockouts as legal.
c) That all matters fell under the British/North American Act
d) A and B only
e) Only A
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Correct Answer: D
67 . Two major differences between employment under common law and
employment under collective bargaining law:
a) The requirement for just cause termination for unionized employees
b) Employee benefits in unionized workplaces tied to seniority
c) Bumping and layoffs tied directly to seniority
d) No differences at all
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
68 . Several of the common names (or terms) relevant to the field of
Industrial Relations include:
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a) Industrial relations
b) Labour relations
c) Employee relations
d) Employment relations
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
69 . There were three distinct actors in the Industrial Relations System
Model.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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70 . The left side of Dunlop’s model includes:
a) Legal subsystem
b) Economic subsystem
c) Ecological subsystem
d) Political subsystem
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
71 . The CLC action plan included:
a) Public health care
b) Labour rights
c) Child care
d) Pay equity
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: E
72 . Supply curves are:
a) Synonymous to demand shifts
b) Steeper with an inelastic supply of demand
c) Flatter with inelastic supplies of labour
d) None of the above
e) A, B, and C only
Correct Answer: E
73 . Thompson suggests there are four specific management strategies
related to unions:
a) Union acceptance
b) Union avoidance
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c) Union substitution
d) Union removal
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
74 . The no interest model
a) Substitutes the right to strike with arbitration
b) Incorporates the chilling effect
c) Substitutes the right to strike with interest arbitration
d) Uses the narcotic effect
e) Uses no effects
Correct Answer: C
75 . Distribution of work clauses examine issues such as:
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a) Job rotation
b) Job sharing
c) teams
d) flexible work assignments
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
76 . Union responses to globalization have included:
a) Corporate codes of conduct in the 1970s
b) Labour rights campaigns
c) IFA’s
d) Single union global agreements
Correct Answer: A
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77 . Strike theories include:
a) The hicks theory
b) The total joint costs theory
c) The asymmetric theory
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
78 . The Canadian Labour Congress :
a) Was formed by the merger of the TLC and CLC
b) Was formed by the merger of the CCL and CLC
c) Was formed by the merger of the TLC and CCL
d) Was never formed
e) Should be formed
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Correct Answer: C
79 . Exclusive jurisdiction allows more than one union to represent workers
of a work group.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
80 . Canadian evidence to date:
a) Suggests that union removal is not as prevalent in Canada
b) Suggest that union avoidance is not as prevalent in Canada
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c) Suggests that 70% of Canadian organizations have a union substitution
strategy
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
81 . Chaykowski and Abbott state:
a) Globalization has reduced union success
b) Globalization creates questions about how protected freedom of
association is
c) Globalization creates questions about how protected collective
bargaining is
d) Free markets do not provide optimum allocation of resources
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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82 . Trends in managerial practices include all but:
a) High performance workplaces
b) Strategic choice
c) Participative management
d) Union representation
e) A and C only
Correct Answer: E
83 . IBB is:
a) Cooperative bargaining only
b) Parties focus only on personalities
c) Parties focus on interests instead of exaggerated positions
d) Based on the assumption that labour and management can’t win
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
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84 . HR practices include:
a) Staffing
b) Training and development
c) Performance appraisal
d) Job evaluation
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
85 . Unionization changes do not include:
a) Growing numbers of women
b) Increases in youth densities
c) Public/Private sector differences
d) Provincial differences
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e) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
86 . Walton & McKersie developed the four sub-processes of collective
bargaining
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
87 . Unionized firms are more likely to hire from within that externally.
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a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
88 . Labour relations clauses in collective agreements specifically deal with
issues concerning the relationship between the parties.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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89 . International Unions in Canada are affiliated with:
a) The CLC directly
b) The AFL – CIO directly
c) The national union
d) The union local
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
90 . National locals in Canada are affiliated with:
a) Local labour councils
b) AFL – CIO
c) CLC
d) A, B and C
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: D
91 . Employers and unions use legislative reference:
a) Because it ensures currency with the law
b) Because it ensures equity
c) Because it is better than explicit reference
d) Because it is more popular than explicit reference
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
92 . Markets promote efficiency through competition and the division of
labour.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
93 . The framework for Work-Life Balance includes:
a) Daycare needs
b) Aging workforce
c) Regulations
d) Labour surpluses
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
94 . The 1950’s and 1960’s:
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a) Seen a decrease in the public sector
b) Seen the formation of a union backed labour organization
c) Seen the decrease in the number of industrial unions
d) Left a labour movement divided between skilled and unskilled
e) B, and D only
Correct Answer: E
95 . Strongholds of labour have often been the manufacturing, natural
resources and the public sector of the economy.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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96 . Unions are more powerful when:
a) Demand for products are elastic
b) Labour is easily substituted
c) Supply of substitutes is inelastic
d) Labour is a big proportion of total costs
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
97 . Government has a dual role.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
98 . Collective agreements provide specific language about:
a) Educational leaves
b) No skill training
c) Some skill training
d) Moderate skill training
e) Preferred skill training
Correct Answer: A
99 . Employee measures are becoming important because:
a) The employee value chain is dependent upon employees
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b) Firms have to use more than financial measures to assess company
performance
c) A and B only
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
100 . Examples of integrative bargaining issues include:
a) Benefits
b) Overtime rates
c) Vacations
d) Holidays
e) Rest breaks
Correct Answer: E
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101 . The role of collective agreements is to:
a) Establish no rules
b) Establish clear rules
c) Establish procedures governing workplace practices
d) B and C only
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: D
102 . Unions have different world-views than managers and corporate
leaders.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
103 . An important assumption of the employment relationship is the
existence of a lack of conflict of interest between managers and employees
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
104 . Procedural justice is an employee’s perception of fairness in the
outcomes of workplace decisions.
a) True
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b) False
Correct Answer: F
105 . Different types of grievances include:
a) Personal grievances
b) Group grievances
c) Policy grievances
d) B and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
106 . Union Density:
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a) Is a fraction
b) Is the number of union members divided by the labour force x 100
c) Affects union coverage
d) Affects union security
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
107 . Canadian municipalities provide more services in:
a) Parks and recreation
b) Public works
c) U.S. cities and towns
d) Internationally
e) A and B
Correct Answer: E
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108 . A major criticism of Dunlop’s model included:
a) That the model was only descriptive in nature
b) That the model overestimates the importance of power and conflict.
c) That the model is too long
d) The rapid decrease in U. S. unionization
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
109 . Canadian unionized workers have the legal right to
a) File a formal grievance
b) Have management formally respond to their grievance
c) Not file a grievance
d) A and B only
e) A, B, and C only
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Correct Answer: D
110 . Special laws govern labour-management relations in the public
sector.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
111 . Unionized workers are less satisfied with:
a) Supervisors and supervision
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b) Job context
c) Lack of promotional opportunities
d) Lack of resources for job performance
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
112 . Weber’s theory of social closure states:
a) Various jobs erect barriers to regulate supply
b) Barriers affect earnings
c) Licensing affects restriction into occupations
d) The right to know, participate and refuse
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
113 . Restructuring in the public sector has created:
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a) New public management
b) An incoherent program of reform
c) Less emphasis on job performance in public services
d) Less emphasis on job efficiency in public services
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
114 . Demographic impacts include:
a) Babyboomers
b) Birth rates
c) Mandatory retirement
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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115 . The IDI Act:
a) Was passed in 1907
b) Was created by William Mackenzie King
c) Stands for International Dilemma Act
d) Is not relevant
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
116 . Examples of distributive bargaining issues include:
a) Health and safety
b) Rest breaks
c) Pensions
d) Wages
e) Plant closures
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Correct Answer: E
117 . New Model Unionism:
a) Was studied by Beatrice & Sidney Webb
b) Was not craft based
c) Took place in the 1900’s
d) Increased wage competition
e) Did not lead to the term trade union
Correct Answer: A
118 . During integrative bargaining, the parties are more likely to inflate the
issues
a) True
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b) False
Correct Answer: F
119 . The Knights of Labour:
a) Was formed in 1869
b) Was formed in Philadelphia
c) Removed its cloak of secrecy in 1881
d) Has 3 factors differentiating it from other labour origins
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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120 . Under the Canadian Human Rights Act employers cannot
discriminate on the basis of:
a) Race
b) Colour
c) Age
d) Sexual Orientation
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
121 . The four sub-processes of collective bargaining include:
a) Distributive bargaining
b) Integrative bargaining
c) Intra-team bargaining
d) Attitudinal bargaining
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: E
122 . The harder it is to substitute capital for labour, the less power labour
will have to raise wages
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
123 . Particular focuses of today’s labour movement include:
a) Social and economic policy issues
b) Equity programs
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c) Unemployment programs
d) A and B only
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: D
124 . The total joint costs theory:
a) Argues strikes are least likely when the cost of the strike is high for both
parties
b) Argues strikes are more likely when the cost of the strike is low for both
parties
c) States strike costs remain constant
d) States nothing of value
e) Is obsolete to labour relations
Correct Answer: B
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125 . Global markets:
a) Allow greater opportunity for people to tap into larger markets
b) Gives access to less cash flow
c) Gives access to fewer imports
d) Gives less efficiency to all
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
126 . Labour takes action at the federal, provincial and local levels when it
comes to addressing human rights and social issues.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
127 . Knights of Labour were first formed in 1869.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
128 . Services provided by the following may be near monopolies:
a) Teachers
b) Firefighters
c) Nurses
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d) Police officers
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
129 . Collective agreements:
a) Are agreements representing workers in bargaining units
b) Are agreements representing the employer
c) Are all identical
d) A and B only
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
130 . Strategic choices focus on:
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a) No actors, three levels of decision making
b) Three actors, three levels of decision making
c) Two actors, no levels of decision making
d) One actor, one level of decision making
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
131 . Globalization impacts industrial relations in Canada include:
a) Employment impacts
b) Union impacts
c) Labour policy impacts
d) Collective bargaining impacts
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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132 . The CAW’s broad social agenda stands in stark contrast to those of
occupational unions.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
133 . In the pluralist view of industrial relations:
a) Unions focus on the five elements of equity
b) Management’s focus is also on the five elements of equity
c) Was developed by Barbash
d) Results in strong collective bargaining terms protecting employees
e) A and D only
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Correct Answer: E
134 . The usual layout of collective agreements consist of except:
a) Cover pages
b) Newspaper articles
c) Santa clauses
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
135 . Integrative bargaining:
a) Promotes a win-lose relationship
b) Promotes a win-win relationship
c) Promotes no relationship
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d) Promotes mutual gains to both parties
e) A and D only
Correct Answer: E
136 . Demand is more elastic and unions have more power when:
a) Product markets are less competitive.
b) It is easier to substitute labour for capital.
c) Labour costs are a small proportion of the total costs.
d) The market for substitutes are more competitive.
e) All of the above.
Correct Answer: C
137 . Unions exist:
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a) From 1 broad perspective
b) From 2 broad perspectives
c) From no perspectives
d) From 3 broad perspectives
e) From 4 broad perspectives
Correct Answer: D
138 . Reasons why hr practices are different in union and nonunion firms
include:
a) The shock effect
b) Different presences of union versus nonunion workers
c) The exit theory
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
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139 . The spillover effect:
a) Only affects nonunion workplaces
b) Only affects unionized workplaces
c) Is a belief that increases in union wages result in decreases in nonunion
wages
d) A and B only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
140 . Examples of hybrid issues are:
a) Technological change
b) Holidays
c) Health and safety
d) Rest breaks
e) None of the above
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Correct Answer: A
141 . Strike impacts include:
a) Decreased production
b) Loss of pay for workers
c) Psychological well-being impacts on workers
d) Lack of a fully restored employment relationship
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
142 . At the start of the millennium:
a) Unions faced few challenges
b) Faced globalization challenges
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c) Faced a lot of challenges
d) Seen no challenges
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
143 . Labour Relations Boards hear cases regarding:
a) Certification
b) Decertification
c) Unfair labour practices
d) Declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts.
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
144 . Components of WLC include:
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a) Role overload
b) Work to family interference
c) Family interference with work
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
145 . Since 2000 many students have witnessed faculty strikes on their
campuses
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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146 . Strikes and media receive considerable media attention.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
147 . The Knights of Labour:
a) Had a minority membership
b) Had 10,000 members in 1881
c) Had 1 million by 1886
d) 18% of their members were in the manufacturing sector
e) B, C, and D only
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Correct Answer: E
148 . Industrial relations view of equity included a voice, due process, fair
treatment at work and fair compensation.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
149 . Organizational commitment:
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a) Is defined in terms of an employee’s acceptance of a company’s goals
and values
b) Is defined in terms of an employees exertion of substantial amount of
effort
c) Is defined in terms of an employee’s aspiration to remain a member of
an organization
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
150 . Institutional globalization theory is the same as free market
globalization.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
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151 . The 1990’s and beyond:
a) Was challenging for labour
b) Seen the emergence of NAFTA
c) Brought labour increased levels of unemployment
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
152 . Theories of globalization do not include:
a) Free market globalization theory
b) Institutional globalization theory
c) Lack of globalization theory
d) What is globalization theory
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e) C and D only
Correct Answer: E
153 . Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
154 . Characteristics of monopolistic markets include:
a) High wages
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b) Minimum wages
c) Chronic labour shortages
d) A and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
155 . Neutral labour relations boards serve a vital function in the North
American model of Industrial Relations
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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156 . Labour standards include:
a) Employment laws and policies
b) Wages
c) Conditions of work
d) Social security
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
157 . Recently, a number of employers are seeking not to include
language on:
a) Management rights
b) Legislative reference
c) Explicit reference
d) Same-sex benefits
e) Non of the above
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Correct Answer: E
158 . Macroeconomic considerations of the economic context include:
a) deregulation
b) privatization
c) the North American Free Trade Agreement
d) elasticity of demand
e) A, B, and C only
Correct Answer: E
159 . Prior to unionization, the employment relationship was best
described as master-servant in nature.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
160 . An industrial dispute is an agreement between employers and
employees
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
161 . Globalization:
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a) Has resulted in a new political economy
b) Has transformed companies into TNC’s
c) Has reinvented banks
d) Has created WTO, IMF and the World Bank
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
162 . The collective agreement is the agreement between the union and
the employer
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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163 . The 1970’s and 1980’s was impacted by:
a) Wage, Price Controls and Legislation
b) Free trade agreements
c) The CAW
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
164 . Under the master-servant relationship:
a) The employer made all the rules
b) Employees had limited protection or rights
c) Employees were required to follow the ER’s rules
d) There were power imbalances between both parties
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e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
165 . Work-Leisure decisions are influenced by:
a) Wage increases
b) Goods and Services to be purchased
c) Attractiveness of work through higher salaries
d) A, B, and C only
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
166 . Participative management characteristics include all but:
a) Decisions made at the highest level possible
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b) Jobs are designed when individuals or teams have responsibility
c) There is extensive investment in training and development
d) Information concerning business goals, performance and strategies are
shared
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
167 . Human Resource Management highlighted five elements of equity.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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168 . The parties involved in a grievance include all but:
a) The community
b) The employee
c) The union
d) Management
e) B, C, and D
Correct Answer: A
169 . Strikes are mechanisms unions use to achieve their bargaining goals
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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170 . The following provinces have no ban on the use of replacement
workers:
a) Ontario
b) Manitoba
c) Alberta
d) New Brunswick
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
171 . Innovative work practices are more difficult in the public sector
because of:
a) Higher unionization
b) Civil servant rules
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c) Crisis atmospheres
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
172 . Essential components of unions include:
a) Collective bargaining with firms as a purpose
b) Must include a component on their history
c) Must include the aims of founding members
d) Must be independent of employers
e) A and D only
Correct Answer: E
173 . Where does demand for unionization come from:
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a) Worker dissatisfaction
b) Need for a collective voice
c) Trends in income distribution and poverty
d) Changing workforce composition
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
174 . There are unions that do not fit into the categories of craft,
professional, industrial, social or public sector.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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175 . Redcircling:
a) is the only constant change in LR’s
b) is a form of wage protection for employees
c) is a form of wage protection for employers
d) provides no protection
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: B
176 . Examples of Government’s Expanded Role in Collective Bargaining
include:
a) Last offer vote
b) First contract arbitration
c) Public inquiry Commission
d) A, B, and C
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e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
177 . Three areas of law key to the study of Industrial Relations are:
a) Common law
b) Statutory law
c) Collective bargaining law
d) All the above
e) none of the above
Correct Answer: D
178 . Individual negotiations are not different from bargaining over the
terms of a collective agreement
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a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
179 . ignificant changes in the labour movement have included:
a) More women
b) Legislative changes
c) Increase in the labour force participation rate
d) Increased presence of federations of labour
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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180 . Union decline has been happening because of what following
factors:
a) Globalization
b) Employees exercising greater control over schedules.
c) Changes in company policies
d) The increased un-competitiveness of businesses
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
181 . The public sector is an importance component in Canada’s labour
force.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
182 . The asymmetric information theory:
a) Claims a union may go on strike to see if a company is bluffing
b) Claims a union may go on strike to see if a company is telling the truth
c) A and B
d) A, B, and C
e) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: C
183 . Others argue explicit reference is better:
a) As it provides guidance to managers, union leaders and employees
b) Ensures covered groups remain protected is the law changes
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c) May cover groups not covered by legislation
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
184 . Public sector unions have emerged as the largest unions in Canada.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
185 . Important categories of union membership include:
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a) Closed shop
b) Union shop
c) Rand Formula
d) Union density formula
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
186 . Union growth factors include:
a) Social upheaval
b) Growth in public services
c) Union mergers
d) Removal of legal barriers
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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187 . Beatrice & Sidney Webb studied old model unionism
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
188 . The Strategic Choice Framework:
a) Contains three essential ingredients
b) Says that industrial relations decisions are made two levels
c) Requires effective strategies to work in one direction to achieve major
goals
d) Was developed by Kochan, Katz and McKersie
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: E
189 . The collective bargaining mode:
a) Was developed by Katz, Kochan and Hicks
b) Discusses that disputes arise over only monetary issues
c) Includes a concept called the contract zone
d) A and C only
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
190 . The Hicks Theory:
a) Is also known as the accident theory
b) Assumes that irrational negotiators seek out strikes
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c) States that strikes should be expected
d) States strikes result in errors
e) States lockouts result in high costs
Correct Answer: A
191 . Wildcat strikes are legal strikes
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
192 . Most collective agreements have an informal pre-grievance process:
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a) Followed by 1-2 formal stages
b) Followed by 2 formal stages
c) Followed by 3-4 formal stages
d) Followed by 4 formal stages
e) Followed by no formal stages
Correct Answer: C
193 . Steps in bargaining involve:
a) Obtaining a mandate from constituents
b) Notice to bargain is served by management or union
c) Communicating priorities
d) Reaching a contract zone
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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194 . The Business/Organizational Strategic process consists of:
a) An assessment of internal and external environments
b) Strategy formulation
c) Strategy implementation
d) Strategy evaluation
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
195 . Performance appraisals have two purposes
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
196 . Institutional economists believe that unions would improve efficiency
and equity of markets.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
197 . Politics play a much greater role in public-sector collective bargaining
that in the private sector.
a) True
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b) False
Correct Answer: T
198 . Training and development literature found that:
a) Unionized firms provide more training
b) There is a positive relationship between unionization and employerprovided training
c) Unions have a positive impact on employee participation
d) Unions have no impact on training
e) A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
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199 . Non-union workplaces operate under the master-servant
relationship.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
200 . The Wagner Act is crafted on the principle of voluntarism.
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
201 . Secondary picketing is part of the freedom of expression.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
202 . Labour force growth is fuelled by population growth and immigration
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
203 . Teams are:
a) Used by few companies
b) Are used by 50% of companies
c) Are obsolete
d) Are a lot of work
e) Are not worth studying
Correct Answer: B
204 . NAFTA:
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a) Caused a decrease in full-time employment
b) Caused an increase in part-time employment
c) Caused an increase in self-employed people
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: E
205 . The Wagner Act:
a) Created an independent agency
b) Defined unfair labour practices for employees only
c) Did not adhere to the doctrine of exclusivity
d) Was unimportant to collective bargaining
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
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206 . Canada has a centralized legal framework.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
207 . Labour relations clauses in collective agreements deal with:
a) Issues concerning the relationship between the parties
b) Grievances procedures
c) Preferred bargaining methods
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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208 . The AFL was built on:
a) Exclusive jurisdiction
b) Pure and simple unionism only
c) Political non partisanship
d) A, B, and C
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
209 . Various forms of union security include:
a) Union shop
b) Closed shop
c) Rand Formula
d) Merritt Formula
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e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
210 . Some of the following collective agreement clauses are found on
HRSDC’s list:
a) Rights of parties
b) The organization of work
c) Labour relations processes
d) Education training & development
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
211 . Dispute Resolution mechanisms include all EXCEPT:
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a) mediation
b) mediation/arbitration
c) conciliation
d) voluntarism
e) arbitration
Correct Answer: D
212 . Monopsony exists when a firm is a wage taker but not a wage setter
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
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213 . The do’s and don’ts of bargaining include:
a) Starting with the tough issues first presenting tactical problems
b) If parties cannot generate movement, talks won’t collapse
c) Starting with bigger issues leads to great momentum
d) Neither side likes to lock out or strike over monetary issues
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
214 . For non-union firms, labour market forces will largely determine
employee compensation and conditions
a) True
b) False
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Correct Answer: T
215 . Unions will often not seek collective agreement language that
provides various forms of union security.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
216 . Minimum standards affect:
a) Hours of work.
b) overtime
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c) minimum wages
d) vacation
e) all of the above
Correct Answer: E
217 . Dunlop’s System discussed:
a) The concept of a set of ideas and beliefs to bind the system together as
an entity
b) This shared ideology did not define the role and function of each actor
c) Didn’t require all three actors to respect and value the roles of the other
two
d) That industry stability depended on the actors sharing this common
ideology
e) Only A and D
Correct Answer: E
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218 . The Neoclassical economics view of industrial relations stressed the
importance of institutions and multiple actors in the employment
relationship.
The Neoclassical economics view of industrial relations stressed the
importance of institutions and multiple actors in the employment
relationship.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
219 . The threat effect:
a) Is the same as the spillover effect
b) Is the same as wage differentials
c) Is a belief that nonunion employers increase wages to avoid unionization
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d) Is the same as profit sharing
e) Is the same as gainsharing
Correct Answer: C
220 . Canadian labour challenges include:
a) Democratization
b) Leadership
c) Contingent workers
d) Union education
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
221 . Deregulation has affected:
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a) Daycares
b) The government
c) Trucking
d) Customs
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
222 . The triangle of pressures does not include:
a) The union
b) The employer
c) Union members
d) The community
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
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223 . Three basic rights of workers from the Canadian Internal
Responsibility Model:
a) The right to laugh
b) The right to question
c) The right to decide
d) The right to know, participate and refuse
e) Workers have no rights
Correct Answer: D
224 . Canadian laws:
a) Have increased the number of strikes in Canada
b) Define a greater public policy role for arbitrators
c) Have decreased union density
d) Have given arbitrators a decreasing role in interpreting relevant
employment law
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
225 . Labour relations clauses in Collective Agreement’s include
participatory mechanisms:
a) Such as joint committees
b) To set the tone for the relationship of the parties
c) Provides a guiding relationship
d) To discuss continuous bargaining
e) A and B only
Correct Answer: E
226 . Nontraditional work arrangements:
a) Differ from the norm in terms of the employment term
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b) Differ in terms of location
c) Differ in terms of schedule
d) Differ in terms of hours or pay
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
227 . Topics the CLC include in its human rights discussion included:
a) Anti-racism
b) Men
c) Workers with abilities
d) Workers with no abilities
e) Workers with select abilities
Correct Answer: A
228 . According to Swimner, restraint policies apply to:
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a) Direct employees of government
b) Schools
c) Hospitals
d) Lower levels of government
e) B, C, and D
Correct Answer: E
229 . The 1970’s and 1980’s:
a) Were influenced by fluctuating oil prices
b) Seen low inflation
c) Was a less challenging decade for labour
d) Were the best decades for labour
e) Were not relevant
Correct Answer: A
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230 . P.C. 1003 facts included all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Unrest that gave rise to a new political movement.
b) Increased conflict in the steel industry.
c) Carbon copy legislation to the American Wagner Act.
d) Was not intended to be a permanent measure.
e) Was not replaced by the Industrial Relations and Dispute Investigation
Act.
Correct Answer: E
231 . IBB steps include all but:
a) Identifying the problem
b) Searching for alternative solutions
c) Comparing alternatives
d) Reporting references
838
e) Considering remedial actions
Correct Answer: D
232 . The collective voice:
a) May decrease productivity through communication
b) Enables methods of voicing discontent
c) Provides no grievance procedures
d) Does not shock management
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
233 . Labour challenges of the future will include:
a) Cultural challenges
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b) Ethic challenges
c) Language diversity challenges
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
234 . Globalization has created a new political economy.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
235 . High performance work practices include:
840
a) Recruitment and selection
b) Compensation
c) Training and development
d) A, B, and C
e) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
236 . Innovative work practices:
a) Include socio-technical systems design
b) Are more difficult in the public sector
c) Are easier in the private sector
d) A and B only
e) C only
Correct Answer: D
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237 . There have been two great waves of unionism.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: F
238 . Several common elements of globalization include:
a) Centralization of bargaining
b) Greater management power
c) Increase in strikes
d) Significant impacts on employees
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
239 . Staffing consists of:
a) The selection process
b) The deselection process
c) The concept of layoff
d) A and B only
e) The termination concept
Correct Answer: D
240 . The political economics view:
a) Is a view of Industrial Relations
b) Is grounded in socialism and marxism.
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c) Stresses the role of inherent conflict
d) Is the most widely held view of Industrial Relations
e) Only A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E
241 . The TLC:
a) Was formed in Nebraska
b) Was formed in the USA
c) Was formed the same year as the AFL
d) Is not applicable to labour relations
e) Non of the above
Correct Answer: C
242 . The evolving managerial view was affected by scientific
management.
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a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
243 . Generally speaking, grievors are more likely to be:
a) Women
b) Older workers
c) Younger workers
d) Unskilled workers
e) Uncommitted workers
Correct Answer: C
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244 . The participation-based model:
a) Focuses on extrinsic factors
b) Induces employee engagement
c) Focuses on intrinsic factors
d) Uses job rotation
e) Uses no investment in training
Correct Answer: C
245 . Employee rights have been granted to employees in the following
areas:
a) Human rights
b) Plant closures
c) Parental leave
d) Pension
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e) Only A, B, and D
Correct Answer: E
246 . The queuing model:
a) States that unions cannot represent all who wish to be in a unionized
position
b) Results in a queue for the reason stated in (a)
c) A and B
d) None of the above
e) None of this applies
Correct Answer: C
247 . Lowe’s views expressed the following dominant themes:
847
a) Human resource development
b) Worker participation
c) Participation initiatives
d) A and B only
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
248 . It has been argued by some that unions have outlived their
usefulness as organizations
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
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249 . What is the most effective way for organizations to prevent sexual
harassment?
a) To publicly humiliate offenders through organizational communication
channels
b) To educate all employees about sexual harassment with mandatory
training sessions
c) To develop policies and procedures for filing complaints on sexual
harassment
d) To distribute electronic information on the organization’s compliance with
laws
Correct Answer: C
250 . Globalization is:
a) The integration of world economies
b) Increased mobility of goods
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c) A recent development
d) Not a new development
e) A, B, and D only
Correct Answer: E
251 . Marshall’s four theoretical conditions determining the wage elasticity
of labour do not include:
a) People effects
b) Product market effects
c) Elasticity of supply effects
d) Labour power effects
e) Labour un-intensity effects
Correct Answer: B
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252 . North American unionism has been considered “bread and butter”
focused
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
253 . The economic theory:
a) Argues that unions reduce productivity
b) Argues that management flexibility is enhanced
c) Decreases wages below competitive levels
d) Influences the collective voice
e) All of the above
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Correct Answer: A
254 . Union reaction to privatization considerations include:
a) Acquiescence
b) Traditional collective bargaining
c) Creative responses
d) Proactive responses
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
255 . Human Resources or Strategic Choice Perspective:
a) Was a total waste of time
b) Is only used in HRM studies not the Industrial Relations field.
c) Was not developed by Kochan, Katz and McKersie.
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d) Minimizes the elements of democracy.
e) Is grounded in socialism
Correct Answer: E
256 . Causes of strikes include:
a) Catalysts
b) Economic factors
c) Unresolved grievances
d) Intra-organizational factors
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
257 . Functions of the Provincial Federation include:
853
a) Representing member unions
b) Enacting labour legislation
c) A and B only
d) Lobbying provincial governments
e) A, B and D only
Correct Answer: C
258 . Categories that have inordinate public interest are:
a) Teachers
b) Civil servants
c) Police
d) Hospitals
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: E
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259 . Under the principle of residual rights, management retains that it held
before unionization with the exception of rights that have been restricted by
the agreement.
a) True
b) False
Correct Answer: T
260 . Barbash’s Equity Efficiency Theory:
a) Defined employment relationships
b) Argued that employers usually focused on efficiency
c) Argued that unions and employees did not concentrate on equity
d) Was often used by the scholars Noah and Metz.
e) Only A, B, & D
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Correct Answer: E
261 . The designation model:
a) Determines essential services prior to the start of negotiating
b) Is only done in Ontario and Quebec
c) Is most common in Canada for nurses
d) A, B, and C
e) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
262 . Seniority is:
a) How old one is.
b) Length of time a person has been a member of the union.
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c) How long one has been a union steward.
d) Not applicable to Industrial Relations.
e) Should only concern non-unionized workers.
Correct Answer: B
Total Compensation
1. Some examples of family care benefits include the following except:
a) Provision of daycare
b) Provision of elder care benefits
c) Subsidized dependent care provisions
d) Personal days and sick leaves
Correct Answer: D
2. Pay equity is
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a) the right to equal pay for the same work
b) the right to similar pay for similar work
c) the right to equal pay for work of equal value
d) fair pay for fair work
Correct Answer: C
3. Competitive pay is pay that is:
a) within 10% of the market
b) within 15% of the market
c) within 20% of the market
d) sufficient to hire away an employee from a competitor
Correct Answer: A
Organizational Learning, Training and Development
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1. There are many approaches to On-the-Job Training including: on-thespot lecture, viewed performance/feedback, following Nellie, and job-aid
approach. Which of the following is another On-the-Job Training Approach?
a) The natural step
b) Following Alan
c) On-the-spot discussion
d) The training step
Correct Answer: D
2. When estimating the benefits of training programs, professional
assumptions and judgements are necessary. What else is a major issue
when participating in this estimation process?
a) The quality and timeliness of the information
b) The credibility of the information source for the estimate
c) The consistency and comparability of the information
d) The understandability and usefulness of the information
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Correct Answer: B
3. What is the concept that refers to training programs that focus on the
use of computers and computer systems?
a) Information technology training
b) Computer-based training
c) Computer software training
d) Blended training
Correct Answer: A
4. What is the concept that refers to deeply ingrained assumptions,
generalizations, or images that influence how we understand the world and
how we take action?
a) Structural capital
b) Mental models
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c) Implicit knowledge
d) Formal learning
Correct Answer: B
5. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which a trainee
receives instruction and training at his or her workstation from a supervisor
or an experienced co-worker?
a) Off-the-job training
b) Job instruction training
c) On-the-job training
d) Coaching
Correct Answer: C
6. What is the concept that refers to mentoring activities that include
coaching, sponsorship, exposure, visibility, protection, and the provision of
challenging assignments?
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a) Psychosocial support
b) Apprenticeship
c) Mentorship
d) Career support
Correct Answer: D
7. What is the flow of the conditioning process used in conditioning theory?
a) Stimulus-Behaviour-Consequence
b) Behaviour-Stimulus-Consequence
c) Stimulus-Consequence-Behaviour
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
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8. What is the concept that refers to training employees to perform each
other’s jobs?
a) Job rotation
b) Job enlargement
c) Cross training
d) Apprenticeship
Correct Answer: C
9. What is the concept that refers to the similarity of the psychological
conditions of the simulation to the actual work environment?
a) Simulations
b) Physical fidelity
c) Role play
d) Psychological fidelity
Correct Answer: D
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10. Under what conditions might computer-based training be more
effective than classroom instruction?
a) When the instructor chooses the training method
b) When the instructional methods are different
c) When the training is for procedural knowledge
d) When the training is a form of blended training
Correct Answer: B
11. Which of the following is not a purpose of group discussion?
a) It helps trainees recognize what they do not know but should know
b) It is an opportunity for trainees to get answers to questions
c) It is a way for trainers to learn about what is important to trainees
d) It allows trainees to get advice on matters that are of concern to them
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Correct Answer: C
12. In the Model of Training Effectiveness, what part of the model flows
into Individual Behaviour and Performance?
a) Self-Efficacy
b) Learning and Retention
c) Cognitive Ability
d) Training Motivation
Correct Answer: B
13. What is the concept that refers to what trainees are expected to be
able to do after a training program?
a) Active practice
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b) Training objective
c) Training design
d) Adaptive expertise
Correct Answer: B
14. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25000, what is the Net Benefit?
a) (125 000)
b) (75 000)
c) 75 000
d) 125 000
Correct Answer: C
15. What is the concept that refers to training programs that teach subjectmatter experts how to design and deliver training programs?
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a) Train-the-trainer
b) Trainability testers
c) Training administrators
d) Training planners
Correct Answer: A
16. What concept refers to a training method in which trainees are
exposed to different jobs, functions, and areas within an organization?
a) Cross training
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Job enrichment
Correct Answer: C
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17. What is the concept that refers to the acquisition of a broad range of
managerial knowledge and general conceptual abilities?
a) On-the-job management development
b) Management training
c) Apprenticeship
d) Management education
Correct Answer: D
18. With what does the needs-analysis process start?
a) Itch
b) Idea
c) Ideal
d) ILD
Correct Answer: A
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19. What is the concept in research that refers to when the comparison is
not made to another group of untrained people?
a) Training evaluation designs
b) Quasi-experimental designs
c) Experimental designs
d) Non-experimental designs
Correct Answer: D
20. What is the concept that refers to training that involves the use of
technology to deliver courses?
a) Traditional training
b) Technology-based training
c) Computer-based training
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d) E-Learning
Correct Answer: B
21. What is the concept that refers to the creation, collection, storage,
distribution, and application of compiled “know-what” and “know-how?”
a) Knowledge management
b) Explicit knowledge
c) Structural knowledge
d) Strategic knowledge
Correct Answer: A
22. In Baldwin and Ford’s model of the Transfer of the Training Process,
which of the following is not a training input?
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a) Trainee Characteristics
b) Training Design
c) Work Environment
d) Trainee Knowledge
Correct Answer: D
23. What is the concept that refers to an intervention that instructs trainees
to anticipate transfer obstacles and high-risk situations in the work
environment and to develop coping skills and strategies to overcome them?
a) Conflict management
b) Training intervention
c) Relapse prevention
d) Conflict resolution
Correct Answer: C
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24. Which training method is least effective because it allows trainees to
be passive absorbers of information?
a) Video conferencing
b) Case incident
c) Games
d) Simulations
Correct Answer: A
25. What is the concept where the training explicitly encourages trainees
to make errors during training and to learn from them?
a) Active learning
b) Exploratory learning
c) Error-management training
d) Error-avoidant training
Correct Answer: C
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26. The pillars of lifelong learning cited by the composite learning index
(CLI) include learning to know, learning to do, and learning to live together.
What is the last pillar suggested by the CLI?
a) Learning to grow
b) Learning to believe
c) Learning to learn
d) Learning to be
Correct Answer: D
27. What is the concept that refers to an approach to training that gives
trainees control over their own learning?
a) Active learning
b) Conditions of practice
c) Exploratory learning
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d) Active practice
Correct Answer: A
28. What type of goal is process-oriented and focuses on the learning
process?
a) Process goals
b) Distal goals
c) Mastery goals
d) Proximal goals
Correct Answer: C
29. Which of the following is not related to a Person Analysis?
a) Define desire performance
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b) Determine gap
c) Identify obstacles
d) Obtain description
Correct Answer: D
30. The following are true concerning reinforcement theory:
a) Focuses on the power of external rewards and punishments in the
motivation of behaviour
b) Has been used in organizations in the form of incentive systems
c) The application of reinforcement theory is sometimes called behaviour
modification
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
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31. Some of the key environmental factors that drive human resources and
training and development are global competition, the labour market, and
change. What is the fourth item that affects these things?
a) Ecology
b) Technology
c) Legislation
d) Competitors
Correct Answer: B
32. What is the concept that refers to an agreement outlining how the
newly learned skills will be applied on the job?
a) Employment contract
b) Performance contract
c) Training contract
d) Knowledge contract
Correct Answer: B
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33. What is the concept that refers to characteristics in the work
environment that can either facilitate or inhibit the application of training on
the job?
a) Organizational climate
b) Learning culture
c) Training transfer climate
d) Organizational culture
Correct Answer: C
34. If there is a type of problem participant known as the “rigid one” how
would you describe this individual?
a) Will find loopholes in your ideas and present impossible “what-if?”
scenarios
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b) A problem magnifier who finds the world unfair and is a specialist in
blaming and fault-finding
c) Constantly looks for opportunities to disagree, to show up the other
participants and the trainer
d) Staunchly takes a position on an issue and will rarely, if at all, move from
it
Correct Answer: D
35. Which of the following is not a typical way to measure behaviours?
a) Self-reports
b) Observations
c) Video recording
d) Production indicators
Correct Answer: C
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36. What is the correct depiction between training and development,
individual learning and organizational learning?
a) Training & Development-Individual Learning-Organizational Learning
b) Individual Learning-Organizational Learning- Training & Development
c) Organizational Learning-Individual Learning-Training & Development
d) Training & Development-Organizational Learning-Individual Learning
Correct Answer: A
37. What is the concept that refers to groups of people with common
interests and concerns who meet regularly to share their experiences and
knowledge, learn from each other, and identify new approaches for working
and solving problems?
a) Self-directed work teams
b) Informal learning
c) Self-directed learning
d) Communities of practice
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Correct Answer: D
38. What is the concept that provides the trainees with step-by-step
instructions on how to perform a task and the rules, principles, and
strategies for effective performance?
a) Exploratory/ discovery learning
b) Proceduralized instruction
c) Active learning
d) Routine expertise
Correct Answer: B
39. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons that training
programs fail?
a) Failure to isolate the effects of training
b) Regarding training as an Event
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c) Failure to respond to needs of employees
d) Failure to recognize non-training solutions
Correct Answer: C
40. According to Wenger and Lave, which of the following is not a
characteristic of a community of practice?
a) Practice
b) Community
c) Interests
d) Domain
Correct Answer: C
41. What is one new way in which employees can add competitiveness to
their organizations?
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a) Employees can have pay and benefits cuts
b) Employees can take technical skills training
c) Employees can undergo literacy testing
d) Employees can enroll in ethics training
Correct Answer: B
42. What is the concept that refers to extensions of training programs that
involve a review of the training material?
a) Post-training supplements
b) Self-coaching
c) Apprenticeship
d) Booster sessions
Correct Answer: D
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43. Training is often the best solution to performance problems. Under
which condition is training not the best solution?
a) If coaching is expensive
b) If the task is performed frequently
c) If the task is difficult
d) If correct performance is critical
Correct Answer: A
44. What is one type of activity that can be used to greet participants at a
training event?
a) Hire a motivational speaker for a breakfast meeting
b) Serve an exotic breakfast to entice a bigger crowd
c) Have trainees spontaneously meet their colleagues
d) Write a trainee’s name on a name card
Correct Answer: D
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45. What is the concept that refers to the measurement of a training
program’s ability to meet managerial expectations?
a) Return on investment
b) Return on expectations
c) Return on equity
d) Return on evaluation
Correct Answer: B
46. Role play is a training method in which trainees practise new
behaviours in a safe environment. What are the three phases of role play?
a) Planning; implementing; feedback
b) Organizing; analyzing; control
c) Innovation; trial runs; conclusions
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d) Development; enactment; debriefing
Correct Answer: D
47. What is the concept that refers to a seminar that takes place live over
the Web?
a) Asynchronous training
b) Webcast
c) Synchronous training
d) Webinar
Correct Answer: D
48. Which of the following training methods has a low probability of being
transferred on the job?
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a) Behavioural modelling
b) Role play
c) Discussion
d) Tech-based training
Correct Answer: C
49. According to Robert Gagné, a training program should have nine
events of instruction. What is the final stage?
a) Assess performance
b) Enhance retention and transfer
c) Provide informative feedback
d) Elicit performance practice
Correct Answer: B
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50. What is the concept that refers to the degree to which the trainee
reports receiving support in his or her attempts to transfer the learning
skills?
a) Organizational support
b) Perceived support
c) Perceived organizational support
d) Anticipated support
Correct Answer: B
51. What is the concept that refers to the use of a combination of
approaches to training such as classroom training, on-the-job training, and
computer technology?
a) Blended training
b) Active practice
c) Attentional advice
d) Metacognition
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Correct Answer: A
52. What is the definition for far transfer?
a) The transfer of knowledge and skills across different settings or contexts
at the same level
b) The extent to which trainees can apply what was learned in training to
situations that are very similar to those in which they were trained
c) Transfer from the individual or trainee level to the organizational level or
the extent to which changes in trainee behaviour or performance transfer to
organizational level outcomes
d) The extent to which trainees can apply what was learned in training to
novel or different situations from those in which they were trained
Correct Answer: D
53. The Learning Transfer System Inventory (LTSI) consists of many
specific factors including: opportunities to use, learner readiness, transfer
design, peer support, motivation to transfer and supervisor sanctions. What
is one additional specific factor for the LTSI?
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a) Personal capacity for transfer
b) Performance coaching
c) Resistance or openness to change
d) Performance self-efficacy
Correct Answer: A
54. Why should trainers calculate the costs and benefits of their training
programs?
a) So they know how much to charge their customers for training
b) So they can demonstrate the financial value of their programs
c) So they can rationalize their high prices for training
d) So they justify why training should be an investment not a cost
Correct Answer: B
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55. What does the COMA model represent?
a) Cognitive, Organizational, Motivational, Attitudinal
b) Culture, Organizational, Management, Adaptive
c) Control, Observational, Motivational, Active
d) Climate, Observational, Management, Analysis
Correct Answer: A
56. What is one reason that employers do not conduct training
evaluations?
a) Because of the perception that they are too complicated
b) Because of the perception that organizations lack the expertise
c) Because of the perception the information is not used
d) Because of the perception the quality of training will not improve
Correct Answer: A
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57. Which of the following is not a main variable measured in a training
evaluation?
a) Reactions
b) Learning
c) Behaviour
d) Needs assessment
Correct Answer: D
58. Lack of tools and procedures, rapid change in technology and poor job
design are all technical barriers to effective performance. What is the one
remaining technical barrier to effective performance?
a) Lack of performance measurements
b) Resources sub-optimized
c) Ineffective feedback
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d) Raw data, not normative data
Correct Answer: C
59. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which trainees
accept the challenge of studying and solving real-world problems and
accept responsibility for the solution?
a) Active learning
b) Action learning
c) Case method
d) Simulation
Correct Answer: B
60. Evaluating training programs requires knowledge about many fields.
What is one area about which knowledge is not required for evaluating
training programs?
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a) Research design
b) Data analysis
c) Measurement
d) Qualitative analysis
Correct Answer: D
61. Which of the following is not one of the skill sets that is required for
emotional intelligence?
a) Empathy
b) Motivation
c) Kindness
d) Self-control
Correct Answer: C
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62. What is the concept that refers to the adult-oriented approach to
learning that takes into account the differences between adult and child
learners?
a) Pedagogy
b) Andragogy
c) Asynchronous
d) Synchronous
Correct Answer: B
63. What is the concept that refers to the conditioned response that occurs
in circumstances different from those during learning?
a) Generalization
b) Chaining
c) Shaping
d) Observation
Correct Answer: A
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64. What is the concept that refers to the generalization of knowledge and
skills over time?
a) Transfer of training
b) Generalization
c) Maintenance
d) Trainability
Correct Answer: A
65. What is the concept that refers to the qualities and behaviours that
shape the direction of the organization and which inspire others to pursue
that direction in the face of obstacles and constraints?
a) Leadership
b) Management
c) Delegation
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d) Coaching
Correct Answer: A
66. The following conditions are prepractice training conditions including
attentional advice, advance organizers, goal orientation, and prepractice
briefs. What is one additional prepractice condition not listed?
a) Cognitive strategies
b) Preparatory information
c) Prepractice beliefs
d) Distributed practice
Correct Answer: B
67. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25000, what is the benefit-cost ratio?
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a) 0.4
b) 4
c) 40
d) 400
Correct Answer: B
68. Most types of learning have the transfer of skills, knowledge and
information. Which type of learning occurs naturally as part of work and is
not planned?
a) Organizational learning
b) Informal learning
c) Learning acquisition
d) Formal learning
Correct Answer: B
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69. The following technologies are major types of technology-based
training including intranet, extranet, electronic performance support system,
and electronic simulation. Which of the following is not an additional type of
technology-based training?
a) Multimedia
b) Teleconference
c) Television
d) Wii
Correct Answer: D
70. Using Gagné’s Classification Scheme, which learning outcome has to
do with procedural knowledge?
a) Verbal information
b) Motor skills
c) Intellectual skills
d) Cognitive strategies
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Correct Answer: C
71. What is the concept that refers to reaction measures that assess
trainees’ likes and dislikes of a training program?
a) Positive reactions
b) Negative reactions
c) Affective reactions
d) Utility reactions
Correct Answer: C
72. Team training is designed to improve the functioning and effectiveness
of teams in areas like communication, coordination, compensatory
behaviour and mutual performance monitoring. What is one additional area
that team training can improve?
a) Exchange of feedback
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b) Diversity training
c) Sexual harassment
d) Cross-cultural training
Correct Answer: A
73. The final step in any training program is to:
a) Decide on the training location and deliver the training program
b) Evaluate the training content and methods
c) Test the students application of learning to the workplace
d) Reassess the needs of the organization
Correct Answer: C
74. To what is synchronous training similar?
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a) A pre-recorded session
b) A computer simulation
c) A live classroom
d) A mentorship opportunity
Correct Answer: C
75. Which of the following is not an advantage of On-the-Job Training?
a) Trainees’ application of training is more direct and immediate
b) Trainees’ application of training occurs with less difficulty
c) Training is more customized to needs of trainees
d) Training cost is much lower than Off-the-Job Training
Correct Answer: C
76. What is the equation for Readiness to Learn and Trainability?
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a) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation X Perceptions
of the Work Environment)
b) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation) +
Perceptions of the Work Environment
c) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = Ability (Motivation + Perceptions of
the Work Environment)
d) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability + Motivation) (Perceptions
of the Work Environment)
Correct Answer: A
77. In order to be an effective trainer, what one primary ability must the
trainer have?
a) The ability to be enthusiastic and excited
b) The ability to be motivating and arousing
c) The ability to communicate and be humourous
d) The ability to make the material interesting
Correct Answer: D
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78. Formal learning and informal learning differ on a variety of factors
including control, relevance, structure, and outcomes. What is the final
factor that is missing from this list?
a) Content
b) Specificity
c) Timing
d) Needs
Correct Answer: C
79. What is the concept that studies the acquisition of knowledge, skills,
and abilities required to perform future job responsibilities?
a) Knowledge management
b) Training
c) Human capital
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d) Development
Correct Answer: D
80. Some of the training delivery activities include: develop a lesson plan,
choose the trainer, prepare the training site, schedule the training program,
and administer the training. What is one additional training delivery activity?
a) Decide on the location
b) Determine the training materials
c) Conduct research on the topic
d) Solicit feedback on the training program
Correct Answer: B
81. What is the name of a person who is familiar with the knowledge, skills,
and abilities required to perform a task or job?
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a) Subject-matter expert
b) Knowledge manager
c) Trainer
d) Content specialist
Correct Answer: A
82. What is the concept that refers to a cohesive unit of instruction with a
specific learning objective?
a) Lesson plan
b) Learning activity
c) Lesson
d) Mentorship
Correct Answer: C
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83. What is the concept that refers to the process of identifying all the
expenditures used in training?
a) Direct costs
b) Expensing
c) Indirect costs
d) Costing
Correct Answer: D
84. Upon what two things is the effectiveness of a training method
dependent?
a) Budget; cost effectiveness
b) Training motivation; needs assessment
c) Training objectives; learning outcomes
d) Training design; learning and retention
Correct Answer: C
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85. What is the concept that refers to a process to assess the value – the
worthiness – of training programs to employees and to organizations?
a) Program assessment
b) Performance review
c) Training evaluation
d) Data analysis
Correct Answer: C
86. What is the concept that refers to the process of studying employee
behaviour to determine whether performance meets standards?
a) Task analysis
b) Needs analysis
c) Organizational analysis
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d) Person analysis
Correct Answer: D
87. What concept refers to a method of forecasting the financial benefits
that result from human resource programs such as training and
development?
a) Utility analysis
b) Financial analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
Correct Answer: A
88. Which of the following is not a barrier to the transfer of training?
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a) Reward systems don’t support new skills
b) Old habits could not be changed
c) Did not see a need to apply what was learned
d) Skills are not inappropriate in our work unit
Correct Answer: D
89. Lack of knowledge, skills, motivation and group norms are all human
barriers to effective performance. What is the one remaining human barrier
to effective performance?
a) Counterproductive reward systems
b) Poor job design
c) Informal leaders
d) Ill-defined goals and objectives
Correct Answer: A
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90. If there is a type of problem participant known as the “non-listener” how
would you describe this individual?
a) Shy, reluctant, and silent most of the time
b) Likes to parade his/her knowledge before everyone
c) Tends to interrupt, cuts others off, leaps in before others have had their
say
d) Has interesting inputs but they do not relate to the topic
Correct Answer: C
91. What is the concept that refers to a formalized, structured, and
systematic approach to on-the-job training that consists of four steps:
preparation, instruction, performance, and follow-up?
a) Job instruction training
b) Coaching
c) Mentoring
d) Apprenticeship
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Correct Answer: A
92. Which of the following is not one of the core managerial roles
presented by Mintzberg?
a) Interpersonal
b) Knowledgeable
c) Informational
d) Decisional
Correct Answer: B
93. Which of the following is not a typical level associated with
organizational learning?
a) Organizational level
b) Individual level
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c) Group level
d) Team level
Correct Answer: D
94. The most sophisticated learning management systems have such
features as assessments, course catalogues and communication tools.
What is one additional feature found in a sophisticated learning
management system?
a) Individual learning plans
b) Performance reviews
c) Training programs
d) Training activities
Correct Answer: A
95. What is the concept that refers to the capability to provide learning and
training opportunities when they are needed and where they are needed?
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a) Outsourcing
b) Just-in-time learning
c) Training and development
d) Rapid e-learning
Correct Answer: B
96. What is the concept that looks at the process of establishing
performance expectations with employees, designing interventions and
programs to improve performance, and monitoring the success of
interventions and programs?
a) Performance management
b) Balanced scorecard
c) Process measurement
d) Training development
Correct Answer: A
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97. What is the concept that includes the shared beliefs, values, and
assumptions that exist in an organization?
a) Vision
b) Organizational climate
c) Organizational culture
d) Mission
Correct Answer: C
98. Why is on-the-job training the most common and most misused
approach to training?
a) Because it is chronically under-funded
b) Because it is not well planned or structured
c) Because it is over-used as an approach
d) Because it is taught by inexperienced people
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Correct Answer: B
99. What concept refers to finding the value at which benefits equal costs
and utility is equal to zero?
a) Utility analysis
b) Financial analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
Correct Answer: C
100. What is the concept that refers to a trainee’s intended effort to utilize
skills and knowledge learned in training on the job?
a) Motivation to know
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b) Motivation to transfer
c) Motivation to train
d) Motivation to learn
Correct Answer: B
101. What type of training requires a systematic process of continual
improvement?
a) Information technology training
b) Blended training
c) Team training
d) Total quality management
Correct Answer: D
102. Which of the following is not a Web 2.0 tool?
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a) Webinars
b) Blogs
c) Wikis
d) Podcasts
Correct Answer: A
103. If training program benefits are $100 000, and training program costs
are $25 000, what is the Return on Investment?
a) -5
b) -3
c) 3
d) 5
Correct Answer: C
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104. What is the concept that demonstrates when a training method has
differential effects on trainees with different attitudes?
a) Behaviour modelling
b) Role play
c) Psychological fidelity
d) Aptitude-treatment interaction
Correct Answer: D
105. In order to maximize learning and retention with technology-based
training, what should training programs include?
a) Active practice
b) Cognitive ability
c) Self-efficacy
d) Attitudes
Correct Answer: A
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106. What type of motivation focuses on the direction, intensity, and
persistence of learning-directed behaviour in training contexts?
a) Intrinsic motivation
b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
Correct Answer: C
107. Job task analysis is a component of the training needs analysis
process during which:
a) The jobs and specific job tasks that are in need of training are identified
and studied
b) Individual employees’ behaviour is studied to identify gaps in
performance
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c) A persons current performance is compared to a desired standard
d) The knowledge, skill and behavioural changes of trainees are analyzed
Correct Answer: A
108. What is the concept that refers to the process of getting things done,
efficiently and effectively, through and with other people?
a) Leadership
b) Management
c) Delegation
d) Coaching
Correct Answer: B
109. In the Model of Training Effectiveness what general category does
not flow into Learning and Retention?
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a) Individual Behaviour and Performance
b) Trainee Characteristics
c) Work Environment
d) Training Design
Correct Answer: A
110. What is the greatest advantage to an organization of computer-based
training?
a) Overall training costs are reduced due to the elimination of typical costs
b) Employees’ performance can be tracked for mandatory training and
certification
c) Large numbers of employees can be trained within a short period of time
d) All trainees receive the same training irrespective of their location
Correct Answer: A
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111. Needs analysis is used to:
a) Clarify the nature of performance gaps
b) Determine if training is a good solution to performance problems
c) Write training objectives
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
112. What is the concept that refers to an approach to learning that
emphasizes interactive learning environments?
a) Web 2.0
b) Blended training
c) Social constructivism
d) Group discussions
Correct Answer: C
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113. What is the concept that refers to the techniques used to convey the
training content within a training program?
a) Active learning
b) On-the-job training
c) Training design
d) Instructional methods
Correct Answer: D
114. One study revealed that Canadian employers are not leaders in
training and development. According to this study, what percentage of adult
workers participate in job-related training?
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
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d) 0.4
Correct Answer: C
115. What is the concept that refers to the provision of data about the
worthiness or effectiveness of a training program?
a) Formative evaluations
b) Summative evaluations
c) Descriptive evaluations
d) Causal evaluations
Correct Answer: B
116. What is the concept that refers to the ability to manage your own and
others’ emotions and your relationships with others?
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a) Management
b) Leadership
c) Conflict resolution
d) Emotional intelligence
Correct Answer: D
117. What is one of the basic components of management development?
a) Self-efficacy
b) Leadership
c) Decision-making
d) Attitude
Correct Answer: A
118. Which of the following is not one of the general categories of
management skills?
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a) Conceptual
b) Technical
c) Knowledgeable
d) Interpersonal
Correct Answer: C
119. Which of the following is not a benefit of training and development?
a) Facilitate organizational strategy
b) Increase HR effectiveness
c) Link business strategy to organizational strategy
d) Improve employee recruitment and retention
Correct Answer: C
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120. The Instruction Systems Design (ISD) model incorporates the
following except:
a) Needs analysis
b) Training design
c) Safety climate
d) Training delivery
Correct Answer: C
121. What is the concept that includes those things that you can buy or
trade, such as patents or copyrights and other forms of intellectual
property?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Knowledge
c) Explicit knowledge
d) Knowledge management
Correct Answer: C
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122. It is important to consider the scheduling of the training program.
What is one question that will need to be posed with respect to scheduling
the training program?
a) What time of day will the training event be held?
b) Who is going to attend the training event?
c) What needs are being fulfilled with the training event?
d) How long will the training event last?
Correct Answer: A
123. What do most organizations do for training courses in basic skills?
a) Form alliances with educational institutions for trainees’ benefit
b) Purchase pre-packaged materials from other organizations
c) Hire external experts to deliver specific content to trainees
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d) Set up online courses and evaluation for trainees
Correct Answer: A
124. What is the concept that refers to a test that measures an individual’s
ability to learn and perform training tasks?
a) Training pre-test
b) Trainability test
c) Knowledge test
d) Employment test
Correct Answer: B
125. Which of the following is not a way for stimulus variability to be
incorporated into a training program?
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a) By using different models that vary in terms of their characteristics
b) By modeling different situations
c) By using models with different levels of competence in performing the
training task
d) By using models that differ according to the experience of the trainees
Correct Answer: D
126. What is the concept that refers to the way in which an individual
gathers information and processes and evaluates it during the learning
process?
a) Declarative knowledge
b) Knowledge compilation
c) Procedural knowledge
d) Learning style
Correct Answer: D
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127. According to Robert Gagné, a training program should have nine
events of instruction. What is the first stage?
a) Gain attention
b) Describe the objectives
c) Stimulate recall of prior knowledge
d) Present the material to be learned
Correct Answer: A
128. In the Model of Training Effectiveness there are four aspects of
Training Design including active practice, active learning, and error
management training. What is the fourth aspect of Training Design?
a) Cognitive ability
b) Training motivation
c) Self-efficacy
d) Conditions of practice
Correct Answer: D
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129. What is the concept that refers to ability to use knowledge and skills
across a range of tasks, settings, and situations?
a) Active learning
b) Routine expertise
c) Exploratory learning
d) Adaptive expertise
Correct Answer: D
130. What is the concept that includes an interrelated system of HR
practices and policies that usually includes rigourous recruitment and
selection procedures, performance-contingent incentive compensation,
performance management, a commitment to employee involvement and
extensive training and development programs?
a) HPWS
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b) ISD
c) SHRM
d) eHRM
Correct Answer: A
131. What is the concept that looks at the process of creating, sharing,
diffusing, and applying knowledge in organizations?
a) Traditional ecological knowledge
b) Knowledge management
c) Intellectual capital
d) Organizational learning
Correct Answer: D
132. What is the concept that refers to programs that introduce new
employees to their jobs, the people they will be working with, and the
organization?
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a) Essential skills training
b) On-the-job training
c) Team training
d) Orientation training
Correct Answer: D
133. What is the concept that refers to providing trainees with training
experiences and conditions that closely resemble those in the actual work
environment?
a) Identical elements
b) Transfer elements
c) Retention elements
d) General elements
Correct Answer: A
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134. What did Québec do to fight the apathy of Canadian organization’s
not wanting to invest in training?
a) Companies with payrolls over $1 million would have to spend 1% in
training, otherwise pay a payroll tax
b) Companies would have 3 years to build up their investment in training to
the Canadian average
c) Companies must use accredited training bodies and spend at least $100
000
d) Companies that apply for payroll funding can earn tax credits
Correct Answer: A
135. According to Kirkpatrick, there are four decisions that need to be
made when selecting trainees for a training program. Which of the following
is one of those four decisions?
a) Why should the trainees take the training program?
b) What is the cost of the training program?
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c) Who can benefit from the training program?
d) When will the training program be held?
Correct Answer: C
136. What is the concept that refers to the process of acquiring knowledge
and skills, and a change in individual behaviour as a result of some
experience?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Intelligence
c) Learning
d) Knowledge Management
Correct Answer: C
137. The objectives of a case study are to introduce realism into trainees’
learning, deal with a variety of problems at the same time, and to teach
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trainees how to make decisions. What is one additional objective of the
case study method when it is used for training?
a) Teach trainees to be creative and think independently
b) Analyze data and organize objective evidence
c) Train participants to be resilient to the ideas of others
d) Develop evidence-based skills, abilities and knowledge
Correct Answer: A
138. What is the concept that refers to a computer-based system that
provides information, advice, and learning experiences to improve
performance?
a) E-learning
b) Computer-based training
c) Asynchronous training
d) Electronic performance support system
Correct Answer: D
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139. What is the concept that refers to the process to identify gaps or
deficiencies in employee and organizational performance?
a) Task analysis
b) Needs analysis
c) Organizational analysis
d) Person analysis
Correct Answer: B
140. The composite learning index (CLI) promotes lifelong learning as
being beneficial to the success of the individual. What two other entities
benefit from lifelong learning?
a) The family and the organization
b) The community and the country
c) The organization and the community
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d) The community and the province
Correct Answer: B
141. One of the major advantages of computer-based training is flexibility
because trainees do not have to leave work to attend training. What is
another advantage of computer-based training?
a) Customization
b) Personalization
c) Self-learning
d) Learner control
Correct Answer: D
142. Which of the following is not typically used in blended training?
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a) Classroom training
b) Computer technology
c) Applied on-site learning
d) Off-the-job training
Correct Answer: C
143. What is the concept that refers to a process in which individuals or
groups take the initiative and responsibility for learning and manage their
own learning experiences?
a) Self-directed learning
b) Instructor-led training
c) Asynchronous training
d) Synchronous training
Correct Answer: A
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144. In a Request for Proposal (RFP), an organization would typically have
a pre-qualification check-list, detailed description of the opportunity, a
description of the company and its culture, and the scope of the project.
What additional information would the RFP have?
a) A detailed budget for the work
b) A description of the current economy
c) An assessment of recent demographics
d) A detailed statement of work
Correct Answer: D
145. What is the concept that refers to training that focuses on differences
in values, attitudes, and behaviours of individuals with different
backgrounds?
a) Ethics training
b) Diversity training
c) Cross-cultural training
d) Team training
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Correct Answer: B
146. What is the concept that refers to learning experiences that include
skill practice exercises that actively engage and involve the learner?
a) Active practice
b) Experiential learning
c) Active learning
d) Self-efficacy
Correct Answer: B
147. What is the concept that refers to a person who is familiar with the
knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a task or job?
a) Attentional advisor
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b) Adapative expert
c) Subject-matter expert
d) Blended trainer
Correct Answer: C
148. When considering the training facility, which of the following questions
is not supportive of an effective learning environment?
a) Is the room free from noise or distraction?
b) Is the room conducive to learning?
c) Is the room set up in a manner that is appropriate for the training
program?
d) Is the room brightly lit and well ventilated?
Correct Answer: D
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149. What is the concept that refers to practices based on the belief that
every act has a consequence and if the consequence is a reward then the
act will be repeated?
a) Work Motivation
b) Motivation Theories
c) ERG Theory
d) Contingency Management
Correct Answer: D
150. Studies have shown that companies that invest in training their
employees will have higher revenues and profits. What else do these
studies show that demonstrate the effectiveness of training?
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Productivity
c) Trend analysis
d) Link to strategy
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Correct Answer: B
151. In Baldwin and Ford’s model of the Transfer of Training Process, how
is the model generally configured?
a) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
b) Training Inputs- Conditions of Transfer- Training Outputs
c) Training Inputs- Training Outputs- Conditions of Transfer
d) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
Correct Answer: C
152. Which of the following training methods will not influence the attitudes
of the trainees?
a) Discussion
b) Role play
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c) Games
d) Case study
Correct Answer: C
153. What is the concept that refers to whether training material is learned
and practiced at one time or one part at a time?
a) Conditions of practice
b) Feedback or knowledge of results
c) Overlearning
d) Whole versus part learning
Correct Answer: D
154. What is the concept that refers to a comparison of the monetary cost
of training to the benefit of training?
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a) Cost-effectiveness evaluation
b) Return on investment
c) Cost-benefit evaluation
d) Return on expectations
Correct Answer: A
155. Which of the following is not a managerial function?
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Decision-making
d) Controlling
Correct Answer: C
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156. There are many ways of managing conflict in an organization
including: avoidance, accommodation, forcing and compromise. What is
one additional way to manage conflict?
a) Collaboration
b) Negotiation
c) Mediation
d) Discussion
Correct Answer: A
157. Which model regards errors as undesirable and detrimental to
learning?
a) EMT
b) TIMS
c) JIT
d) LMS
Correct Answer: B
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158. Which of the following is not a principle of a learning organization?
a) Learning organizations are more profitable than other organizations
b) Continuous learning is considered to be a hallmark of learning
organizations
c) In a learning organization everybody is considered to be a learner
d) Learning is part of a change process and in fact enables change
Correct Answer: A
159. What is the concept that refers to programs designed to provide
individuals with managerial learning experiences while working?
a) On-the-job management development
b) Management training
c) Apprenticeship
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d) Management education
Correct Answer: A
160. Which of the following is not an advantage of Off-the-Job Training
Methods?
a) Trainer has a wide variety of instructional methods
b) Trainer has control over the training environment
c) Training cost is much lower than On-the-Job Training
d) A large number of trainees can be trained at one time
Correct Answer: C
161. What is the equation for return on investment for a training program?
a) ROI = (Benefits – Cost of the Program)/ (Cost of the Program)
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b) ROI = (Cost of the Program)/ (Benefits – Cost of the Program)
c) ROI = (Cost of the Program – Benefits)/ (Benefits)
d) ROI = (Benefits)/(Cost of the Program – Benefits)
Correct Answer: A
162. Some of the benefits of apprenticeship training include: effective
recruitment strategy, two-way skills development, higher-quality work,
increased productivity and improved safety. What is one more benefit of
apprenticeship training?
a) Improve company reputation
b) Cost effectiveness
c) Improve employee morale
d) Increase competitiveness
Correct Answer: A
163. Which of the following is not a learning style?
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a) Converging
b) Assimilating
c) Reflecting
d) Accommodating
Correct Answer: C
164. Once the cost of a training program is known and so is the training
benefit, what is the next step in determining the value of a training
program?
a) Calculate the benefit-cost ratio
b) Calculate the return on investment
c) Calculate the net benefit
d) Calculate the cost-effectiveness evaluation
Correct Answer: C
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165. What is the concept that refers to a set of procedures that focuses on
understanding the mental processes and requirements for performing a
job?
a) Team task analysis
b) Cognitive task analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Task analysis
Correct Answer: B
166. In a needs analysis, there are three levels including an organizational
analysis, and a person analysis. What is the third level of analysis?
a) Divisional analysis
b) Unit analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Task analysis
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Correct Answer: D
167. What is the concept that refers to activities characterized by structure
competition that allow trainees to learn specific skills?
a) Games
b) Role play
c) Simulations
d) Case method
Correct Answer: A
168. What is the concept that refers to the type of motivation that stems
from a direct relationship between a worker and the task?
a) Intrinsic motivation
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b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
Correct Answer: A
169. How many specific outcomes are available for a Needs-Analysis?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Correct Answer: D
170. What is the concept that refers to sets of actions that individuals
perform and that lead to certain outcomes?
955
a) Abilities
b) Skills
c) Attitudes
d) Behaviours
Correct Answer: B
171. What is the concept that refers to the use of an external supplier to
provide training and development programs and services?
a) Outsourcing
b) Restructuring
c) Downsizing
d) Strategizing
Correct Answer: A
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172. What is the concept that refers to an organization’s knowledge,
experience, relationships, process discoveries, innovations, market
presence, and community influence?
a) Human capital
b) Renewal capital
c) Intellectual capital
d) Relationship capital
Correct Answer: C
173. How can you speed up a Needs-Analysis to be considered a Just-inTime Needs Analysis?
a) Link assessment and delivery
b) Hire outside consultants
c) Get top management buy-in
d) Link data collection to performance
Correct Answer: A
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174. Although the Conference Board of Canada found that one in five
organizations invest more than 3% of payroll in training, many
organizations do not consider training to be a high priority. Why are
organizations not investing in training?
a) Training is linked to an organization’s success
b) Organizations view training as an investment rather than a cost
c) Canadians do not care about how competitive they are
d) Training is first to go when there are cuts to discretionary spending
Correct Answer: D
175. There are four key dimensions of learning organizations. Three of
these dimensions include vision, culture, and learning dynamics or
systems. What is the fourth dimension?
a) Intellectual capital and emotional intelligence
958
b) Knowledge management and infrastructure
c) Human attributes: knowledge, skills and abilities
d) Communities of practice and learning environments
Correct Answer: B
176. What is the concept that refers to exposing an individual to different
areas and experiences throughout the organization?
a) Job sharing
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Cross training
Correct Answer: C
177. What is the number one barrier to transfer of training?
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a) No time is provided to use the skills
b) Immediate manager does not support the training
c) The culture in the work group does not support the training
d) Skills could not be applied to the job
Correct Answer: B
178. Using Alderfer’s theory, what is the need that is similar to Maslow’s
esteem and self-actualization needs?
a) Existence needs
b) Growth needs
c) Learning needs
d) Relatedness needs
Correct Answer: B
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179. According to the textbook, there is evidence that the more interaction
a trainee has with an instructor during computer-based training, the more
motivation he or she will have. What else will occur when trainee interaction
is high with the instructor?
a) The employee will have greater job performance
b) The employee will have greater on-the-job knowledge
c) The employee will have a more positive attitude toward learning
d) The employee will have a more developed technology-based skill-set
Correct Answer: C
180. The nature of training content will be influenced by:
a) The training needs analysis
b) The training objectives
c) The training budget
d) A & B only
Correct Answer: D
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181. What is the concept that refers to a training method in which trainees
observe a model performing a task and then attempt to imitate the
observed behaviour?
a) Behaviour management
b) Behaviour modelling
c) Behavioural method
d) Behavioural modification
Correct Answer: B
182. What is the concept that refers to structuring the program so that the
trainees feel that they are engaged in a conversation with the program?
a) Customization
b) Personalization
c) Human interaction
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d) Needs assessment
Correct Answer: B
Health and Safety
1. During any emergency situation:
a) Turn off your radio or television
b) Light matches, candles or turn on electrical switches to increase light
c) Close windows and get everyone outside the building quickly
d) Follow the advice of local emergency officials
Correct Answer: D
2. Accidents usually result from direct contact with some form of energy
that is greater than the strength of the body or structure to resist. The
energies may be:
963
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Kinetic
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
3. The following underlies the need for HRM to understand and implement
effective OH&S policies and programs:
a) Increasing concerns for industrial-sector workers
b) Decreasing costs associated with work-related injuries and illnesses
c) The public’s decreasing tolerance for work-related hazards
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
964
4. Employers must follow the requirements of OH&S legislation which
includes the following general duties:
a) Establish an occupational health and safety program
b) Provide a health and safety policy
c) Provide instruction and training to supervisors and workers
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
5. Emergency response training for an organization’s employees should
address the following, except:
a) Individual roles and responsibilities
b) Purchasing of emergency and first aid equipment
c) Potential treats, hazards, and protective actions
d) Notification, warning and communications procedures
Correct Answer: B
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6. The starting point and major responsibility for occupational health and
safety training lies with:
a) The organization
b) The human resource department
c) The employee
d) The immediate supervisor or manager
Correct Answer: A
7. The two most common hazard events are:
a) Prolonged exposure
b) Improper technique
c) Fatality
d) A & B only
966
Correct Answer: D
8. The process of identifying hazards and completing risk assessments
can be considered:
a) A one time activity
b) Part of a continuous process of observation, control and safety
improvement
c) An end in itself
d) A hazard analysis
Correct Answer: B
9. General characteristics that make solvents effective and hazardous are
the following except :
967
a) Low surface tension – the higher the wetting factor the more absorbent
the chemical will be into the skin
b) High vapour pressure – can create an inhalation hazard
c) Low boiling point – the lower the boiling point the greater the risk of
vapours in the air
d) Low volatility – the less the chemical evaporation, the less the risk of
health & fire
Correct Answer: D
10. The following are ways in which HR managers help to overcome the
stigma towards mental illness in the workplace except:
a) Examining their own minds to find where they might have hidden
misconceptions about mental illness
b) Provide correct information to employees
c) Ensure employee mental illness is diagnosed and treated early
d) Stigma is overplayed and our society is open-minded about mental
illness
Correct Answer: D
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11. There are two main methods used in conducting investigations, they
are:
a) Observation and interviews
b) Interviews and surveys
c) Meetings and walk-throughs
d) Reenactments and surveys
Correct Answer: A
12. Federal and provincial legislation allows for the rights of workers
including:
a) The right to know, right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse unsafe
work
b) The right to participate, the right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse
unsafe work
969
c) The right to know, the right to participate and the right to refuse unsafe
work
d) The right to know, the right to compensation for injury and the right to
refuse unsafe work
Correct Answer: C
13. Bill C-45, commonly referred to as the “Westray Bill,” became law on
March 31, 2004. This law means the following except:
a) That the ramifications for employers failing to provide appropriate health
and safety training have become more severe in Canada
b) Amends the Criminal Code of Canada to hold corporations and their
stakeholders accountable for work-related acts that are deemed criminally
negligent
c) That provincial workers’ compensation acts play a minor role in ensuring
workplaces are safe
d) Employers bear a large responsibility to ensure Canadian workers are
educated about hazards in the workplace and are able to refuse work
deemed unsafe
Correct Answer: C
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14. Which of the following is not one of your rights as an employee?
a) To be provided with equipment and safety gear required to do the job
safely
b) To participate in workplace health and safety committees and activities
c) To receive supervision to make sure you work without putting yourself at
undue risk
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
15. The goal of stress management programs is to educate workers about
the causes and consequences of stress and to provide the following
except:
a) Provide easy access to employee assistance programs
b) Teach relaxation and coping skills
c) Manage physiological symptoms
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d) Manage psychological symptoms
Correct Answer: A
16. The following are false concerning engineering controls except:
a) The best way to reduce the risk of handling solvents is to find
alternatives
b) All employees must be properly trained in the identification and handling
of dangerous substances
c) Spills must be properly contained and employees exposed to the hazard
must wear personal protective equipment
d) Training must be ongoing given that new products are introduced into
the workplace
Correct Answer: A
17. The following risk assessment calculation considers how likely it is that
hazard will result in an injury after the hazard event has occurred:
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a) Probability
b) Exposure
c) Consequences
d) Identification
Correct Answer: A
18. Which of the following is not true?
a) The Hazardous Products Act defines a hazardous product and controls
its use by requiring disclosure of the substance(s) and its concentration in a
manufactured product
b) If a release of a potentially hazardous substance occurs outside the
building, or if the potentially hazardous substance is released into the
sewer, storm system, water, or air, it falls under the jurisdiction of the
authority enforcing environmental legislation
c) A corporation and its management can not be criminally prosecuted if
found negligent in providing an appropriate standard of occupational health
and safety in the workplace, resulting in an employee injury or death
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d) Due diligence means taking all reasonable care to protect the well-being
of employees or co-workers
Correct Answer: C
19. The Workers Compensation Board’s mandate is to:
a) Promote the prevention of workplace injury, illness, and disease
b) Provide fair compensation to replace workers’ loss of wages
c) Rehabilitate workers who are injured
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
20. The following are the essential elements for an EAP and WHP
program:
974
a) A clear, written policy regarding assistance
b) Management support and an on-site program coordinator
c) Supervisory training, employee education and union support
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
21. The three E's are a traditional approach to occupational health and
safety that emphasized the following:
a) Engineering, empowerment and enforcement
b) Engineering, education and enforcement
c) Empowerment, education and enforcement
d) Ergonomics, education and enforcement
Correct Answer: B
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22. An employer must immediately notify the Workers Compensation
Board of the occurrence of any accident that:
a) Resulted in serious injury to or the death of a worker
b) Involved a major structural failure
c) Involved the major release of a hazardous substance
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
23. Most of the human exposure to chemicals comes from breathing
airborne contaminants. The following are levels of defense for inhalation
except:
a) Nose
b) Interior of the nasal passage
c) Tiny hairs or cilia and mucus
d) Mouth
Correct Answer: D
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24. After completing a WHMIS training program, the worker should
understand the purpose and origin of WHMIS and be able to do the
following:
a) Identify SHMIS hazard symbols
b) Read WHMIS supplier and workplace labels
c) Read and apply the applicable information on a Material Safety Data
Sheets (MSDS)
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
25. What legislation ensures that workers across Canada are aware of the
potential hazards of chemicals in the workplace and are familiar with
emergency procedures for the clean-up and disposal of a spill?
a) CSTD
977
b) MSDS
c) WHMIS
d) HPWS
Correct Answer: C
26. The safe use and handling of chemical and biological agents can be
ensured only thorough the active employment of the following control
measures except:
a) Engineering controls
b) Good housekeeping
c) Medical surveillance
d) Biosafety levels
Correct Answer: D
27. Why are young people more likely to be injured on the job than other
groups of workers?
978
a) They receive little or no safety training or supervision and have to use
equipment or machinery designed for adults
b) They are reluctant to ask questions for fear of appearing stupid and are
assigned physically demanding or dangerous tasks
c) They are unaware of their rights and responsibilities
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
28. The workplace hazardous material information system requires that:
a) Hazardous materials may not be distributed without government
inspection
b) Suppliers do not label all hazardous products
c) Suppliers provide a material safety data sheet on each hazardous
product they produce
d) Chemicals do not necessarily require safe handling instructions
Correct Answer: C
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29. Hazard elimination is a control measure that looks to determine if the
job or task that involves the hazard can be:
a) Done differently to avoid the hazard
b) Substituted
c) Separated from the worker
d) Restricted to certain workers
Correct Answer: A
30. The following are basic guidelines to develop an effective emergency
response plan for workplaces, except:
a) Ensure that evacuation routes and emergency exists are wide enough to
accommodate the number of evacuating people and unobstructed at all
times
b) Coordinate your plan with the local emergency management office
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c) Conduct search and rescue drills
d) Establish specific evacuation procedures
Correct Answer: C
31. An employee expressed her concerns to her supervisor that fumes
emitting from her computer were causing her headaches. She requested
the supervisor’s permission to stop working immediately. However, the
supervisor insisted that she continue working. The supervisor’s behaviour
violated:
a) The employee’s right to refuse work
b) The employee’s right to report unsafe conditions
c) The employee’s right to participate in health and safety programs
d) The employee’s right to a safe workplace
Correct Answer: A
32. Safety climate is defined as:
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a) Shared perceptions of the importance of safety in the workplace
b) The extent to which employees follow safety rules and procedures
c) The extent to which employees go beyond compliance and work to
actively improve safety
d) Organizational leadership that is actively focused on and promotes
occupational health and safety
Correct Answer: A
33. The following are responsibilities that HRM have when dealing with
HIV positive employees or other employees with biological illnesses except:
a) Maintain the privacy of the individual
b) Outline employment obligations
c) Provide or refer to medical support
d) Provide information and education to all employees about all employee
biological illnesses
Correct Answer: D
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34. First-aid training and supplies are mandated in occupational health and
safety legislation. The exact requirements vary by the following, except:
a) Emergency plan
b) The number of workers in the workplace
c) The nature (and danger) of the work
d) The distance to the nearest medical facility
Correct Answer: A
35. The following are ways to identify hazards except:
a) Workers report to the supervisor or employer
b) A safety committee identifies situations that may be unhealthy and
unsafe for workers
c) Classify hazard identification terms
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d) Review first aid records
Correct Answer: A
36. The following are stakeholders in OH&S:
a) Government and unions
b) Community agencies and schools
c) Employers and employees
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
37. Cold-related illnesses caused by thermal stress include:
a) Trench foot
b) Frostbite
984
c) Hypothermia
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
38. An example of engineering control(s) is:
a) The construction of a paint spray booth with high powered fans to
remove hazardous paint fumes immediately from the area
b) The use of a flexible hose to direct exhaust fumes out of an automobile
garage
c) Job rotation and scheduling adjustments
d) A & B only
Correct Answer: E
39. How should a risk assessment be conducted?
985
a) There is no “one single” method
b) Different models can work best dependent on the hazards or nature of
the job operations
c) Qualitative approaches are a preferred method
d) A & B only
Correct Answer: D
40. Ultimately, the goal of an emergency response is to prepare for the
following, except:
a) Protect and evacuate staff
b) Contain disasters
c) Improve safety training
d) Inform the community
Correct Answer: C
986
41. Throughout the 1990’s, the concept of wellness at work emerged as an
occupational health and safety concern. The major motivator of this trend
includes a desire to:
a) Employee morale
b) Reduce rising health care costs
c) Improve employee safety
d) Improve our public healthcare system
Correct Answer: B
42. If local authorities ask you to evacuate your home, you should keep
these simple tips in mind, except:
a) Mark locations of downed power lines and keep doors unlocked
b) Use travel routes specified by local authorities
c) Wear long-sleeved shirts, long pants and sturdy shoes
d) Take your emergency supplies kit
987
Correct Answer: A
43. Another consideration in accident reports is the accident type, which
attempts to categorize the nature of the accident. Some examples include
the following except:
a) Chemicals
b) Caught in or between
c) Struck by an object
d) Fall to a lower level
Correct Answer: A
44. Worker Compensation premiums are performance based in that if
organizations:
a) Have accidents they pay more with a premium increase risk up to 100%
b) Prevent accidents they can pay less with a premium reduction to 50%
988
c) Have accidents their premiums remain the same as their industry
classification
d) A & B only
Correct Answer: D
45. The following are steps to the hazard control process, except:
a) Pre-contact control
b) Contact control
c) Post contact
d) Hierarchy of control
Correct Answer: D
46. Workers Compensation Boards were created to:
989
a) Give employers immunity from lawsuits filed by injured workers
b) Give workers the right to compensation for injuries sustained on the job
c) Provide no fault insurance
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
47. The following are some basic rules for conducting an investigation
interview:
a) Interview witnesses separately
b) Let the individual recall the event in their own way
c) Record information in a timely fashion
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
990
48. Substitution is a hazard control measure that looks to determine if the
job or task that involves the hazard can:
a) Be eliminated
b) Employ other materials or methods
c) Develop different work practices to reduce exposure to hazard
d) B & C only
Correct Answer: D
49. The following are true about noise and hearing except:
a) The human hearing range of frequencies is approximately 20 to 20,000
Hz
b) We hear all sound
c) The standards for the measurement of noise use the unit of a decibel
d) The human hearing response is conditional on frequency, duration and
loudness
Correct Answer: B
991
50. The following is the hierarchy of hazard control measures:
a) Elimination, engineering, administrative, personal protective equipment
and substitution
b) Elimination, substitution, engineering, administrative and personal
protective equipment
c) Personal protective equipment, elimination, substitution, engineering and
administrative
d) Engineering, elimination, substitution, administrative and personal
protective equipment
Correct Answer: B
51. The benefits of accident investigation includes the following except:
a) Determines direct causes
b) Identifies contributing causes
992
c) Reduce lost time injuries
d) Promotes safety awareness among employees
Correct Answer: C
52. On what grounds, besides humanitarian ones, should workplace
hazards be controlled?
a) Ergonomic
b) Legal
c) Productivity
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
53. The following are general categories of behaviours that contribute to
safe working performance except :
993
a) Following accepted hygiene practices
b) Proper use of hazard control systems in the workplace
c) Development of safe work habits and increased awareness and
recognition of workplace hazards
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
54. You may be a residential employer if you hire the following workers
except:
a) Childcare workers to care for children before and after school for an
average of <15 hours per week
b) Nannies, companions, or other personal caregivers
c) Domestic workers such as household cleaners
d) Construction or repair workers or contractors
Correct Answer: A
994
55. Researchers focus on three separate categories of fairness
judgements associated with stress:
a) Distributive justice, procedural justice and fairness of outcomes
b) Fairness of outcomes, fairness of processes and fairness of
interpersonal treatment
c) Interactional justice, procedural justice and fairness of processes
d) Fairness of interpersonal treatment, interactional justice and fairness of
outcomes
Correct Answer: B
56. The following are important facts about physical agents in the
workplace except:
a) Physical agents are present in unexpected places
b) Exposure to some physical agents may be inherent
c) Legislative standards are minimum tolerances
995
d) Issues are complex and solutions have to be evaluated for the risks they
introduce to the environment
Correct Answer: C
57. Components of an effective employer-sponsored health-promotion
effort include the following except:
a) Employee education for health promotion or disease prevention
b) Management training to raise awareness of occupational health issues
and identification
c) EAP services, redesigned benefit programs to provide easy access to
interventions
d) Cafeteria benefit plans
Correct Answer: D
58. Worksite health-promotion programming can be classified into the
following three categories:
996
a) Screening, education, and behavioural change
b) Health practices, wellness policies and education
c) Screening, monitoring and evaluation
d) Education, psychological and physical
Correct Answer: A
59. The following is false concerning workplace wellness initiatives in
Canadian companies:
a) 64 percent of Canadian companies offer some form of wellness program
b) Health-promotion programs have been slower to develop in Canadian
companies because of our public health care system
c) Canadian companies assume less of the cost for illness, traditionally
there has been less of a financial impetus for them to develop employee
health initiatives
d) More than 95 percent of Canadian organizations offered their employees
eight or more wellness programs to help support work and life balance
997
Correct Answer: D
60. The symptoms of RSI can include:
a) Weakness in the limb
b) Pain
c) Lack of endurance and clumsiness
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
61. An example of an administrative control(s) is:
a) Required breaks to reduce extended exposure to a specific hazard
b) Job rotation to help reduce the overall affect of a hazard that is
increased by repetition or continued exposure
998
c) Reduction in the amount of time that a worker is required to do a
repetitive task
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
62. The following are natural hazards, except:
a) Blackout
b) Earthquake
c) Flood
d) Drought
Correct Answer: A
63. Employer sponsored health promotions could include the following
except:
999
a) Smoking cessation
b) Hypertension screening
c) Nutrition, weight control, and physical fitness programs
d) Flexible schedules
Correct Answer: D
64. Best practices in controlling vibration include the following except:
a) Avoid the source by revising the task
b) Allow time to acclimatize
c) Add dampening devices
d) Decrease worker exposure time
Correct Answer: B
65. Examples of hazard(s) include the following except:
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a) Equipment and tools
b) Security and violence
c) Hygiene issues and human factors
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
66. The supervisor’s health and safety legal responsibilities are the
following except:
a) Know hazards in their area and ensure workers are made aware of
hazards
b) Ensure all health and safety activities are coordinated
c) Ensure health and safety of their workers
d) Be knowledgeable about the Workers’ Compensation Act
Correct Answer: B
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67. In 2003, Bill C-45 (also called the Westray Bill) established a duty in
___________law to protect the health and safety of everyone in the
workplace.
a) Provincial
b) Federal
c) Criminal
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
68. Hazards can be controlled or eliminated by identifying and attacking:
a) The source of the hazard
b) The path it travels
c) The employee or recipient of the hazard
d) All of the above
1002
Correct Answer: D
69. The factor most closely associated with the cause of an accident is
referred to as the agency. The following are some examples of agents
except:
a) Lifting devices
b) Overexertion
c) Electrical equipment
d) Chemicals
Correct Answer: B
70. The perspective now obsolete, towards accident prevention that
assumed that employees accepted all the normal risks inherent in a given
job was legally referred to as:
1003
a) Assumption of risk
b) Accident proneness
c) Due diligence
d) Worker carelessness assumption
Correct Answer: A
71. With respect to health and safety training initiatives, a number of
organizational outcomes may be relevant including the following except:
a) Accident, injury, and fatality rates
b) Incidence of “close calls”
c) WHMIS training
d) Absenteeism and turnover
Correct Answer: C
1004
72. Control of non-ionizing radiation exposures usually includes the
following except:
a) Isolation
b) Separation
c) Protective equipment
d) Extensive specialized training
Correct Answer: D
73. The minimum legal elements of an occupational health and safety
program include the following except:
a) Search and rescue training
b) Management commitment and OH&S meetings
c) Written OH&S policies, procedures, and standards
d) Existence of incident/accident investigations
Correct Answer: A
1005
74. The following questions could be asked when investigating situational
factors except:
a) Did some unsafe act contribute to the event
b) Was the machine operating in a satisfactory manner
c) Were all the control and display positions working and ergonomically
sound
d) What was the site or location of the accident
Correct Answer: A
75. The following are ways in which an organization can promote a
positive safety climate except:
a) Have enacted safety policies and procedures
b) Involve all levels of management and employees in safety initiatives
1006
c) Include safety-related information in the communication of productionrelated goals
d) Write safety manuals
Correct Answer: D
76. The following are characteristics of successful occupational safety
programs:
a) Management commitment and a functioning joint occupational health
and safety committee or representative group
b) Existence of regular inspection programs and risk assessments
c) Clearly documented, communicated and enforced accountability for
managers, supervisors, workers, contractors, etc
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
77. The following is true concerning stress:
1007
a) Is an objectively verifiable event that occurs outside of the individual
b) Stress events happen primarily in the work environment
c) Is an event appraised by individuals as taxing, exceeding their coping
resources and negatively affecting their health
d) Is an individual’s negative emotional response to or evaluation of
stressors
Correct Answer: D
78. The two different types of sexual harassment are:
a) Sexual coercion and “quid pro quo”
b) Hostile environment and verbal or physical conduct
c) Sexual coercion and hostile environment
d) “Quid pro quo” and verbal or physical conduct
Correct Answer: C
1008
79. Examples of physical agents include the following except:
a) Vibration
b) Chemicals
c) Radiation
d) Thermal stress
Correct Answer: B
80. The matter of how control measures should be ordered or placed in
order is called the hierarchy of control. The following is the first level of
priority:
a) Substitution
b) Engineering control
c) Administrative control
d) Elimination
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Correct Answer: D
81. Employee assistance plans (EAPS) are:
a) A combination of diagnostic, educational, and behavioural modification
activities designed to support the attainment and maintenance of positive
health
b) Programs designed to help employees with problems that may interfere
with worker productivity, including alcohol and other drug abuse, emotional
or behavioural problems among family members, and financial or legal
problems
c) Programs designed to guide managers experiencing financial or legal
problems
d) Management counselling and coaching programs
Correct Answer: B
82. Administrative controls utilize the following, except:
1010
a) Personal protective equipment
b) Training of employees
c) Rotation of employees
d) Environmental sampling
Correct Answer: A
83. Organizational strategies to manage stress include the following
except:
a) Cognitive-behavioural skills training
b) Relaxation training and meditation
c) Increasing social support
d) Nutritional and weight loss programs
Correct Answer: D
1011
84. In order for individuals to work safely, workers must have at least the
following conditions except:
a) The knowledge necessary to perform their jobs
b) The motivation to work safely
c) The opportunity to work safely: the organization supports safe work
d) Understanding of safety policies and procedures
Correct Answer: D
85. Organizations can conduct evaluation studies to assess the success of
their health-related initiatives. Some characteristics of thorough evaluation
studies include the following:
a) Pre-intervention and post-intervention assessments of relevant variables
b) Consideration of the extent to which employees participate in the
program
c) Reliable and valid measures of relevant individual and organizational
outcome variables
d) All of the above
1012
Correct Answer: D
86. Organizations can provide support for their employees after an
emergency by providing a range of services that include:
a) Crisis counseling, flexible work hours and salary continuation
b) Daycare and first aid training
c) Post information and maps
d) Emergency contact names and numbers
Correct Answer: A
87. A sample worker health and safety orientation checklist includes the
following, except:
a) Supervisor name and telephone number
1013
b) Transportation of dangerous goods legislation
c) Worker right to refuse unsafe work and procedure for doing so
d) Worker responsibility to report hazards and procedure for doing so
Correct Answer: B
88. A risk is defined as:
a) The first undesired event that could start the accident sequence
b) A thing or condition that may expose a person to an injury or
occupational disease
c) Is the likelihood that the hazard will lead to injury or the probability of
harm actually occurring
d) A systematic examination of all aspects of the work undertaken to
consider what could cause injury or harm
Correct Answer: C
1014
89. The following are some guidelines for conducting a reenactment
except:
a) Analysts should use a show and tell approach
b) A qualified observer is necessary
c) Shut down every energy source and lock them out
d) Carefully act out the events
Correct Answer: A
90. A preventative integrative approach to managing stress in the
workplace includes the following except:
a) Focusing on tertiary interventions
b) Using an integrative team of healthcare professionals
c) Focusing on organizational primary interventions
d) Focusing on individual primary interventions
Correct Answer: A
1015
91. The following is false:
a) Employers “fund” the entire Workers Compensation claims management
system
b) Claims management, disability management and absence management
is the employers responsibility
c) Absence management is a program to control absences due to
“disability” with an emphasis on controlling unexplained or excessive
absenteeism
d) The process of effectively dealing with employees who become disabled
is referred to as “disability management”
Correct Answer: B
92. The following technology related factors have been implicated as
psycho-social stressors:
a) Control
1016
b) Isolation
c) Privacy
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
93. The following are true concerning ingestion:
a) Many solvents enter through the mouth and digestive system
b) Ingested solvents may be absorbed into the bloodstream and carried to
“target organs” where toxic effects can be produced
c) Chemicals ingested are not as critical a hazard as chemicals that enter
through the skin or lungs
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
94. The following is true about Thermodynamic Theory except:
1017
a) Temperature flows from the high point to the low point
b) In hot climates, heat will flow from the body
c) In cold climates, heat will flow from the body
d) In hot climates, heat will be absorbed by the body
Correct Answer: B
95. The responsibility for emergency management begins with:
a) Government of Canada
b) Provincial and territorial governments
c) Municipal and community governments
d) Individuals and their community
Correct Answer: D
1018
96. Under Occupational Health and Safety legislation in Canada,
employees have three basic rights:
a) right to know, right to training, and right to work free of harassment.
b) right to receive training, right to human dignity, and right to work less
than 48 hours per work week
c) right to participate, right to know, and right to refuse unsafe work.
d) right to refuse unsafe work, right to training, right to safety pay for
dangerous work
Correct Answer: C
97. When working conditions are perceived to be unsafe, the law permits
workers to:
a) Contact the police to criminally charge management
b) Refuse to perform their work
c) Inform the media
d) Both A & B
1019
Correct Answer: B
98. An example of an engineering control is:
a) Physical arrangements, designs or alterations of workstations,
equipment, materials, production facilities or other aspects of physical work
environment
b) Tasks that are redundant or may duplicate work
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Provision, use and scheduling of work activities and resources in
workplace
Correct Answer: A
99. An Incident Investigation Report includes the following except:
a) Where the incident occurred
b) Lists the injured person(s)
1020
c) Describes the nature of injury/injuries
d) Risk assessment
Correct Answer: D
100. Supervisor responsibilities include the following except:
a) Instruct workers in safe work procedures
b) Report serious incidents to the WCB
c) Ensure that only authorized, adequately trained workers operate tools
and equipment or use hazardous chemicals
d) Ensure that equipment and materials are properly handled, stored, and
maintained
Correct Answer: B
101. The following are true concerning Personal Protective Equipment
(PPE) except:
1021
a) Because inhalation is the most common and hazardous route of entry,
the most commonly used protective device is a respirator
b) No single protective device, such as a facemask, will adequately
address all conditions for all workers
c) Workers must be trained in WHMIS
d) Should be used as a last hazard control choice
Correct Answer: C
102. The employer is responsible for all of the following except:
a) Provide a safe and healthy workplace
b) Ensure that workers are adequately trained
c) Establish and maintain a comprehensive occupational health and safety
program, including a written health and safety policy and an incident
investigation procedure
d) Labeling chemicals in use at the workplace
Correct Answer: D
1022
103. In order for individuals to work safely the following three conditions
are necessary:
a) knowledge x skills x abilities
b) motivation x opportunity
c) opportunity x knowledge
d) ability x motivation x opportunity
Correct Answer: D
104. Chemical agents are:
a) Hazards created by one or more chemicals
b) Hazards created by exposure to biological materials
c) Diseases such as asbestosis and silicosis
d) Spills and burns related to various exposures
1023
Correct Answer: A
105. A human resource manager can implement a hearing conservation
program by including the following elements except:
a) Noise measurement and engineered noise control
b) Random hearing tests
c) Annual program review
d) Education and training
Correct Answer: B
106. The typical components of a worksite health-promotion (WHP)
program include the following steps:
a) Physical or psychological assessment
b) Counselling concerning findings and recommendations about personal
health promotion
1024
c) Referral to in-house or community-based resources
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
107. Chemicals that are not rapidly absorbed through the skin may
produce:
a) A localized irritation such as dermatitis which may cause the skin to
become white and dry
b) Airborne respirable contaminants
c) Interactions between various chemicals and biological groups
d) Toxic effects
Correct Answer: A
108. HR managers can help employees manage stress by addressing the
following causes of workplace stress except:
1025
a) Counselling support
b) Career progression
c) Role ambiguity
d) Work – family conflict
Correct Answer: A
109. Thermal stress adaptability depends on the following physical factors
except:
a) Age
b) Experience
c) Sex
d) Physical fitness
Correct Answer: B
1026
110. Investigation timing delays may lead to the following except:
a) Memory loss
b) Changes at the accident site
c) Delayed legal reporting
d) Removal of important evidence
Correct Answer: C
111. The following are ways in which an organization can promote a
positive safety climate:
a) Motivate and reward safe behaviour
b) Continually review, learn and improve on health and safety initiatives
c) Have proactive and enacted safety policies and procedures
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
1027
112. Your responsibilities as an employee include the following except:
a) Ensure that you have first aid training
b) Know and follow health and safety requirements affecting your job
c) If you don’t know how to do something safely, ask for training before you
begin work
d) Work safely, and encourage your co-workers to do the same
Correct Answer: A
113. The following environmental factors may increase the likelihood that
an accident will occur except:
a) Light
b) Noise
c) Vibration
d) All of the above
1028
Correct Answer: D
114. The objectives of an OH&S program should include the following
criteria except:
a) Obtain and maintain support for the program at all levels of the
organization
b) Motivate, educate, and train all levels of management and employee
groups in the recognition, reporting, and correction of hazards in the
workplace
c) Provide controls for worker exposure to potential hazards through the
use of work practices, engineering controls, and personal protective
equipment
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
115. The employer’s health and safety legal responsibilities are:
1029
a) To ensure a safe workplace by providing information, education, training
and supervision
b) To provide personal protective equipment and proper tools and
equipment
c) To have WCAct and OH&S regulation readily available to workers
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
116. The following steps will help you develop a personal or family
emergency plan, except:
a) Create an emergency communications plan
b) Ensure a family member has emergency management and first aid
training
c) Establish a meeting place
d) Assemble an emergency supplies kit
Correct Answer: B
1030
117. Young worker orientations should cover the following, except:
a) Provide workers with written contact information for their supervisors
b) Tell workers that it is their duty to refuse the perform work if they believe
it may be dangerous to themselves or others
c) Explain how to conduct an investigation
d) Inform workers about any known hazards that apply to them and tell
them how to deal safely with these hazards
Correct Answer: C
118. The following are types of health-promotion programs except:
a) Smoking cessation
b) On-site physical fitness centre
c) Lunch-time Weight Watchers program
d) Family care benefits
1031
Correct Answer: D
119. The following are true concerning penetration:
a) Penetration occurs when the skin is cut or punctured by any sharp object
b) A knife or needle may be contaminated with a hazardous chemical
c) Workers such as doctors, nurses, can easily be punctured by a
hypodermic needle
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
120. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE):
a) Can only be utilized if all other previous control measures have been
shown not to be ‘practicable'
1032
b) Are a good substitute for engineering or administrative controls
c) Is a high level hazard control measure
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
121. The legal requirement of due diligence and the experience of
companies who have dealt with workplace violence suggest the following
tips for employers and human resource managers:
a) Have a written policy prohibiting violence
b) Ensure that employees are trained in how to respond to actual or
threatened violence
c) Take all threats of violence seriously
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
1033
122. The following are some questions that could be asked when
investigating human factors except:
a) What was the worker doing at the time of the accident
b) What time of day did the accident occur
c) Was the work being performed according to procedures
d) How much experience did the employee have with respect to the
particular operation
Correct Answer: B
123. Regulations for young worker orientations include the following
except:
a) Employers must provide training and orientation before the young or new
worker begins work
b) 13 specific items must be included in training/orientation, if applicable
c) Employee orientation and training can occur after a young worker begins
his/her job
d) Employers must provide additional training if required or requested
1034
Correct Answer: C
124. Which of the following is not required by Health and Safety
legislation?
a) Using material data sheets
b) Workers’ right to refuse unsafe work
c) Appointment of joint health and safety committee or worker
representative
d) Release of employee health data
Correct Answer: D
125. Major categories of causes of workplace stress can include all the
following except:
a) Workplace relationships
1035
b) Ergonomics
c) Demands of the job
d) Employees control over how they work
Correct Answer: B
126. The following are true about hearing protection required in hazardous
noise areas except:
a) Each employee should be individually fitted with hearing protectors and
trained in their use, care and maintenance
b) Selection criteria for hearing protection include worker hearing ability,
communication demands, comfort, physical constraints of the job, as well
as individual daily noise exposure
c) Employers must consider an employees need for specialty products
d) Hearing protection does not need to be replaced until it wears out
Correct Answer: D
1036
Flashcards
1037
Resource-Based View
A model that sees resources
as key to superior firm
performance. Example:
Employees can provide a
competitive advantage.
Reciprocal
Interdependence
HR strategy generates
the business strategy, and
business strategy
determines HR strategy.
Low-Cost Provider
Strategy
Providing products or
services at a low cost.
Example: UPS profits by
keeping labour costs low.
Organizational Fit.
Fitting HR strategy into
organizational strategy. An
important consideration when
designing HR programs.
Strategic HR
Fast, proactive, and
integrated.
1038
Time Planning for HR
Strategy
3 to 5 years.
Strategy
The formulation of
organizational missions,
goals, objectives, and
action plans.
Restructuring.
Corporate strategy to try to
restore money-losing
business to health profitability.
Example: McDonald's
Restaurants.
Divesture
The action or process of
selling off subsidiary business
interests or
investments.Example: Cara
Foods.
Merger
A corporate strategy
where two organizations
combine resources and
become one.
1039
Unfreezing
Increasing the driving forces,
which direct behaviour away
from the status quo. Hint:
Kurt Lewin.
Refreezing
Stabilizing the new
situation. Hint: Kurt Lewin.
Categories for Change
Structure, technology,
and people.
Technology
Category of change that
involves work processes,
methods, and equipment.
Example: Installing scanners
in grocery stores.
People
Category of change that involves
resources. Example: Hiring a
consultant to decrease group
friction and enhance cooperative
work relationships.
1040
Structure
Category of change that involves
a deep and impactful change that
completely alters the way an
organization functions. Example: A
company decides to decentralize
its sales procedures.
Intergroup Development
Organizational development
technique that involves changing
the attitudes, stereotypes, and
perceptions that work groups have
about each other.
Cultural Change
Redesign socialization
processes to align with
new values.
Organizational
Innovation
The implementation of a new
organizational method in the firm's
business practices, workplace
organization, or external relations.
Example: High job security.
Event-Based Forecasting
Forecasting that is concerned
with changes in the external
environment. Example:
Hurricane Katrina.
1041
Human Resources Supply
The source of workers to
meet demand requirements,
obtained either internally, or
externally, or from external
agencies.
Internal Supply
Members of the organizational
workforce who can be transferred,
promoted, retrained, and so on, to
fill organizational requirements.
Recruitment
The process of locating
and encouraging
potential employees to
apply for jobs.
Selection process
The process of choosing
individuals who have relevant
qualifications to fill existing or
projected job openings.
Structured Interview
An interview with a standardized
set of questions (based on job
requirements) and an established
set of answers against which
applicant responses can be rated.
1042
Aptitude
A person's ability to learn
or acquire skills.
Reliability
The degree to which
interviews, tests, and other
selection procedures yield
comparable data over time
and alternative measures.
Learning Culture
A culture in which members of an
organization believe that knowledge
and skill acquisition are part of their
job responsibilities and that learning
is an important part of work life in
the organization.
Competencies
Behaviors used to distinguish
effective performers from
ineffective performers. Used
in task analysis.
Condition
Tools, time, and situation
under which a trainee is
expected to perform the
behavior.
1043
Request for Approval
Have a clear vision of the
overall learning strategy.
Performance
management.
Establishing performance
expectations, design interventions,
and programs to improve
performance and monitor the
success of these interventions and
programs.
Intrinsic Benefits
An intangible award of
recognition, a sense of
achievement, or a conscious
satisfaction. Example: Greater selfefficacy and positive attitudes.
Extrinsic Benefits
An award that is tangible or
physically given to you for
accomplishing something. It is a
tangible recognition of ones
endeavor. Example: Award, trophy,
monetary reward.
Tacit Knowledge
Knowledge learned from
experience that includes
intuition and judgment.
1044
Industrial Relations
Employment relationships
and issues, often in
unionized workplaces.
Labour Relations
Employment relationships and
issues between groups of
employees (usually in unions) and
their employers (including
management groups).
Collective Agreement
Document outlining the terms
and conditions of an
employment in a unionized
workplace. Represents all
workers in the bargaining unit.
Human Resources
Management
The employment
relationship between
employers and individual
employees.
Residual Rights
The management gives
up only those privileges
that it negotiates away in
the collective agreement.
1045
Red-Circling
A process that protects an
employees pay at a level that
is higher than the normal rate
of his or her current job.
Distribution of Work
Clause: Machine operators are
responsible for the safe operation
of their equipment and will refer
all breakdowns and
troubleshooting to the
maintenance crew.
Critical Incident Method
Clients are asked to describe a situation
in which the HR Department provided
assistance that was particularly useful,
the consequences of this help, and why
it was seen as helpful. They are also
asked to describe a situation that was
not useful and why.
Contribution
The ways in which HR
practices affect
organizational
performance.
Indirect Costs
The soft costs whose
value can be estimated
but not measured by
financial measures.
1046
Financial Statement
Measures a company's
financial performance
over a specific
accounting period.
Operating Expense
Expenditures that a business incurs
to engage in any activities not
directly associated with the
production of goods and services.
Income Statement
A financial statement that reports a
company's financial performance over a
specific accounting period. Shows
managers and investors whether the
company made or lost money during
the period being reported.
Balanced Scorecard
A performance metric used in strategic
management to identify and improve
various internal functions of a business
and their resulting external outcomes. It
is used to measure and provide feedback
to organizations (financial, customer,
business process, learning and growth).
1047
Human Resources
Human
Resources
Management
The functional area of an
organization the provides services,
such as recruitment, training,
compensation, employee relations,
labour relations and health and
safety.
The management and direction of
people that make up an
organization. this includes
overseeing all aspects of people
and functions that affect people in
the organization.
Human Capital Management
is the strategy of attracting,
retaining and leveraging the
skills and knowledge of the
workforce.
Strategy
definedas a long term plan or map for
an organization, assisting it to
becomeincreasingly adaptable and
competitive. Strategy is the formulation
oforganizational missions, vision, goals
and objectives. Strategy is a plan forhow
an organization will achieve its goals.
Corporate Strategic Planning
Corporate strategy is focused on the
overall strategy forthe company and
its businesses and interests. It begins
with an externalassessment of
Strengths Weaknesses Opportunities
Threats(SWOT).
1048
Organizational Effectiveness
concentrateson performing
similar activities better than
rivals
Strategic Planning
means performing different
activities than rivals
orperforming similar activities
differently.
Strategic HRM
defined as a set of distinct but
interrelatedpractices, policies
and philosophies whose goal
is to enable the achievement
ofthe organizational strategy.
Governance
Management rights
is an internal system encompassing
policies,processes and people which
serves the needs of shareholders and
other stakeholders by directing and
controlling management activities with
good business savvy, objectivity and
integrity.
comprise of core rights and operational
rights. The assumption is that management
has residual or reserved rights whereby it
may control its business except as limited by
legislation OR by agreeing to some
limitation. The basic rule is if the agreement
is silent on a subject, then management
rights apply.
1049
The Human ResourcesPlan
(HRP)
describes the number of individuals required
and the skills andexperience needed for an
organization to function properly. It helps
create accountabilities, resource
requirements andtime frames The HRP will
be the framework for the organization to
reachits strategic objectives.
Forecasting Demand
will help determine the type and
number of various skill sets the
organization will need to obtain its
goals. The process involves
analyzing the current workforce
demographics.
Labour Shortage
"Shortage is when demand is greater than
supply. Strategies forthis can be: -Work
redesign
-Recruitment
- Promotions
- Re-assignments
- Outsourcing
- Overtime
Labour Surplus
"Surplus is when supply is greater than demand.
Strategies for this can be: Re-assignments to other
business units
Reduction of work-week hours
Job sharing, part-time assignments
Temporary lay-offs
Unpaid LOA
Downsizing/restructuring
Early retirement packages
Attrition
is the process of reducing an HR
surplus by allowingthe size of the
workforce to decline naturally because
of the normal pattern oflosses
associated with retirements, deaths,
voluntary turnover and so on.
1050
Job sharing
is when two or more
employees perform the duties
ofone full time position, each
sharing the work activities on
a part time basis.
Skills
are learned mental or physical
activities that can be
measured in terms of
performance.
Competencies
"the things people have to be,
know, and do, to achieve the
outputs required intheir job.
Competencies are a critical
lever to produce leadership.
Management Inventories
track data pertaining to education,vocational
interests, detailed skills and abilities, salary
information andservice dates about the
management team of the company.
Replacement Charts
can be generated after skill and
managementinventories are completed.
This is a simple way of plugging the
data into achart that lists current job
holders and their potential replacement,
should acurrent employee leave the
organization
1051
Succession Planning
is the process of identifying,
developingand tracking key
individuals who will eventually
assume executive level positions
within the organization.
ProceduralJustice
is fairness in the processes,
procedures
Distributive justice
is fairness of goods
distributed
Index/Trend Analysis(Demand
Forecasting)
Historical relationship
between operational index
and the number of employees
required.
Delphi Technique (Demand
Forecasting)
Panel experts answer
questionnaires of two ormore
rounds
1052
Nominal Group Technique
(Demand Forecasting)
Select group, have them form
an opinion ontopic, then have
group meet face to face to
discuss problem identification,
andsolution generation.
Envelope/Scenario
Forecasting (Demand
Forecasting)
Projections of future demand for
personnel basedon a variety of
differing assumptions about how
future organizational eventswill
unfold. m
Regression Analysis (Demand
Forecasting)
Presupposes that a linear relationship
existsbetween one or more
independent variables, which are
predicted to affect the dependent
variable- in our instance, future HR
demand for personnel.
Markov Model (Supply
Forecasting)
Probabilities of various
movements, determines
the patterns of employee
movement throughout the
organization.
Movement Analysis (Supply
Forecasting)
Technique used to analyses
personnel supply, the chain or
ripple effect that promotions or
job losses have on the movements
of other personnel in an
organization.
1053
Vacancy Model (Supply
Forecasting)
Analyzes the flow of personnel
throughout the organization by
examining inputs and outputs at
each hierarchical or
compensation level
SWOT Analysis
is a strategic tool used to evaluate
the internal and external
environment of an organization.
SWOT stands for Strengths,
Weaknesses,Opportunities and
Threats
PEST Analysis
provides an external macro
perspective to the factors
shaping the organizations
environment. (Political, Economic,
Social,Technology).
Revenue Factor Equation
REVENUE FACTOR
=Revenue/Total FTE
Voluntary Separation Rate
"Voluntary Separations/Head
Count this represents
potential lost opportunity and
lost revenue"
1054
Human Capital Value added
"What are people worth?
Revenue - (Operating
expense- [Compensation Cost
+ Benefit Cost]) / TotalFTE
Human Capital ROI
"Dollars spent on pay and benefits to an
adjusted profit figure Revenue - (Operating
expense- [Compensation Cost + Benefit
Cost])/ (CompensationCost - Benefit Cost)"
Total Compensation Revenue
Percentage
"This shows the total cost of
labour including contingent
labour costs Compensation
Cost + Benefit Costs/Revenue"
Hiring expense ratio
Training Investment Factor
(Advertising + Agency Fees +
Employee Referrals + travel
costs +relocation costs +
recruiter pay and benefits) /
Operating Expenses
Total Training Costs/ Head
Count
1055
Healthcare Costs/ Employee
Total Cost of Health Benefits/
Total Employees
Turnover Costs
Cost to Terminate + Cost to
Hire + learningcurve cost t
Benchmarking
is an important practice for
organizations form both an internal and
external perspective. Benchmarking
requires the measurement for various
processes and then the comparison of
those metrics to those of competitors,
or comparing them internally over time.
Project management
encompasses certain practices,
procedures, tools, software and people
that need to be aggregated for a
specific task that has a start and end
date. The key to project management is
that is must be delivered on time, on
budget and within scope.
Project Management Cycle
"1.Definethe project (roles, environment, nature of project)
2. Researchand risk analysis (project screening checklist, cost
estimates, alternatives,time estimates)
3.Managing the project and creating milestones (projects critical
path, schedule time and costs, create milestones,develop
strategies)
4.Implementation phase (monitor/control implementation, track
progress, make adjustments, update schedules, status reports,
performance evaluation)
5. Evaluation phase (compare estimates to outcomes, calculate
ROI, creating learningoutcomes, feedback surveys)"
1056
Sexual Harassment
is offensive or humiliating behaviour that
isrelated to a person's sex, as well as
behaviour of sexual nature that creates
anintimidating, unwelcome, hostile, or
offensive work environment or that could
reasonablybe thought to put sexual
conditions on a person's job or
employmentopportunities.
Sexual coercion
involves harassment of a sexual nature
thatresults in some direct consequence
to the workers employment status or
somegain in or loss of tangible job
benefits. Example being supervisor
usingcontrol over employment, or
promotion
Sexual annoyance
is sexually related conduct that is
hostile,intimidating or offensive to
the employee but has no direct
link to tangiblejob benefits or loss
thereof. Rather a poisoned work
environment.
Social Capital
is networks among individuals and the
norms orreciprocity and trust that arise
from them. Affectively managing
relationshipsand networks creates
economic value for individuals and
organizations.
Organizations
are socialcommunities where employees
are constantly required to communicate
with eachother. This level of
communication and networking leads to
co-operation andinformation sharing
that enables organizations to operate
effectively.
1057
BIG Five Personality Traits
The CCHRA National Code
ofEthics
"Openness, Conscientiousness,
Extroversion/Emotional
Stability, Agreeableness,
Narcissism"
identifies and outlines the
standards of behaviour
relating to fairness, justice,
truthfulness, and social
responsibility.
Organizational learning
perspective
views knowledge as the main
competitive advantage. It
depends on the organizations
capacity to acquire, share, use
and store valuable knowledge
Intellectual Capital
is a company stock of
knowledge, including human
capital, structural capital and
relationship capital
Human capital
is the stock of knowledge,
skills and abilities among
employees that provides
economic value to the
organization.
1058
Values
are relatively stable, evaluative
beliefs that guide a person's
preferences for outcomes or
courses of action in a variety
of situations.
Ethics
are the study of moral
principles or values that
determine whether actions are
right or wrong and outcomes
are good and bad.
Employee Engagement
is individual's emotional and cognitive
motivation, particularly a focused,
intense and persistent effort towards
work related goals. It is described as
emotional involvement, commitment to
and satisfaction with the work
Motivation
is the forces within a person
that affect his or her direction,
intensity and persistence of
voluntary behaviour
Maslow's hierarchy of needs
- people have five fundamental
needs, the lowerneeds have to be
satisfied before higher needs
become relevant. (Survival,Safety,
Social, Ego/Esteem, SelfActualization)
1059
Hertzberg
made employees write a list of things that
made them feel good and bad about their
work. Perception of low pay made people
unhappy about their work; but, a perception
of begin highly paid did not co-relate to
happiness about their work. ___ created 2
ideas: job satisfaction and work motivation.
Job Characteristics theory
"Hackman and oldham categorized five
core job characteristic dimensions:
Skill Variety
Task Identity
Task Significance
Autonomy
Feedback from the job itself
Need Salience
is the degree of urgency
attached by individuals to satisfy
a particular need. How important
is the need and how great is the
send of need deprivation?
Reinforcement Theory
Expectancy Theory
Skinner believes people will
continue to do things for which
they perceive a positive
reinforcement and will desist
activity that has negative
consequences.
this theory refines the reinforcement
theory.It states the likelihood of
selecting one behaviour over another is
dependent on three factors:
What will happen if I do?
How likely will it happen?
Can I do this?
1060
Economic Theory
the best results are directly
tied to extrinsic or economic
return, and that intrinsic
reward is meaningless.
Agency Theory
agents will always act in their own best
self-interest and not in the best interest
in the enterprise, unless the extrinsic
rewards are sufficient to refocus that
self-interest to coincide more closely
with the interest of the enterprise.
Attribution Theory
states that people often act without knowing
why. But, once you do something you try to
create a rational reason why you did it.
People who do things for intrinsic reasons
will continue without more formal reward or
recognition, while people who do things for
extrinsic reasons do not.
Task performance
refers to goal directed
behaviours under the
individuals control that
support organizational
objectives.
Organizational citizenship
is various forms of
cooperation and helpfulness
to others that support the
organizations social and
psychological context.
1061
Situational leadership
is teaching leaders to diagnose the needs of
individuals or a team and then use the
appropriate leadership style to respond to the
needs of the person and situation. Effective
leadership is task-relevant and the most
successful leaders are those that adapt their
leadership style to the maturity of individual or
group they are attempting to lead or influence.
Myers Briggs Type Indicator
created by Carl Jung states that personality
is primarily represented by the individual's
preferences regarding perceiving and
judging information. Perceiving involves
sensing and intuition; judging consists of
how people process information or make
decisions (thinking and feeling)
Job specialization
is the result of division of
labour in which each job
includes a subset of the tasks
required to complete the
product or service.
Scientific management
is the practice of systematically
partitioning work into its smallest
elements and standardizing tasks
to achieve maximum efficiency.
Skill variety
is the extent to which
employees must use different
skills and talents to perform
tasks within their jobs
1062
Task identity
Decision making process
Team Effectiveness
is the degree to which a job
requires completion of a
whole or an identifiable piece
of work.
1. Identify problem
2. Decide how to decide
3. Develop a list of solutions
4. Choose a solution
5. Implement Solution
6. Evaluate
teams are effective when it benefits
theorganization, its members, and its
own survival. Team effective ness
alsorelies on the satisfaction and wellbeing of its members. Finally
teameffectiveness includes the team
viability (its ability to survive).
Recruitment
is the generation of an
applicant pool for a position
or a job.
Selection
is the choice of job candidates
from a previously generated pool
in a way that will meet
management goals and objectives
as well as current legal
requirements.
1063
Professional standards
follow from a code of ethics
and provide guidance on how
members should behave in
certain situations.
The Requisition process
is a comprehensive form that
identifies all the key
information about the open
position and triggers the
staffing action
Bias
is systematic errors in
measurement, or inferences made
from those measurements, that are
related to different identifiable
group membership characteristics
such as age sex or race
Construct
is an idea or concept constructed or invoked
to explain relationships between
observations. Learning is a construct used to
explain the change in behavior that results
from experience. Constructs are abstractions
that we infer from observations and that we
cannot directly observe
Reliability
Is the degree to which observed scores are free
from random measurement errors. Reliability is
an indication of the stability or dependability of
a set of measurements over repeated
applications of the measurement procedure.
(Consistency when a testing procedure is
repeated). The same information should arise
from test each time the test is given to a person.
1064
True score
is the average score an
individual would earn on an
infinite number of
administrations of the same
test.
Error score
is the hypothetical difference
between the observed score
and a true score.
Validity
is the degree to which
accumulated evidence and theory
support specific interpretations of
test scores in the context of the
test purposed use. It refers to the
accuracy of measurement
Validity generalization
is the application of validity
evidence, obtained through metaanalysis of data obtained from
many situations,to other situations
that are similar to those on which
meta-analysis is based.
Work Analysis
refers to any systematic gathering,
documenting,and analyzing of
information about the content of work
performed by people in the
organization, the worker attributes
related to work performance.
1065
Job analysis
refers to the process of collecting
information about jobs by any
method for any purpose. Job
analysis is the systematic gathering,
documenting, and analyzing data
about the work required for a job.
Competency based job
analysis
is describing a job in terms of
the measurable observable
behavioural competencies an
employee must exhibit todo a
job well.
Team based job design
is job designs that focus on giving
a team rather than an individual, a
whole and meaningful piece of
work to do and empowering team
member to decide themselves
how to accomplish the work
Job description
is a written description of what
job occupants are required to,
how they are supposed to do it
and the rationale for the required
job procedures.
Job specification
is the (KSAO's) that are
needed to perform the job
well.
1066
Job
is a collection of positions that are
similar in their significant duties. A job
consists of a group of tasks and may be
held by more than one person. Many
individuals hold the same job in an
organization. Jobs are collections on
positions.
Job design
is the process of
systematically organizing work
into tasks that are required to
perform a specific job.
Position
a collection of duties assigned to
individuals in an organization at a
given time. These duties would
only be performed by one
person. Positions are a collection
of duties.
Job Family
is a set of different, but
related, jobs that rely on the
same set of KSAO's.
Work simplification
is an approach to job design that
involves assigning most of the
administrative aspects of work to
supervisors and managers, while
giving lower level employees
narrowly defined tasks to perform
1067
Industrial engineers
is a field of study concerned with
analyzing work methods; making
work cycles more efficient by
modifying,combining, rearranging
or eliminating tasks, and
establishing time standards.
Subject Matter Experts
are people who are most
knowledgeable about a job and how it
is currently performed, generally job
incumbents and their supervisors.
Functional Job Analysis (FJA)
is well written task statements that clearly
describe what an individual unfamiliar with
the job should be able to read and
understand each task statement. It analyzes
a job using three essential elements (People,
Data, and Things). Each of these dimensions
is rated by level of complexity and
importance.
Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ)
a structured jobanalysis questionnaire that focuses on
the general behaviours that make up ajob. The PAQ
includes 195 items, calledjob elements that are
organized into 6 dimensions: information input, mental
processes, work output, relationships, jobcontext and
other job characteristics. It is used to rate a job. Because
it isquantitative, it can be used to compare a variety of
jobs throughout theorganization and those jobs to be
grouped into the six dimensions.
Competency model
is a collection of
competencies that are
relevant to performance in a
specific job, job family or
functional area.
1068
Competency framework
is a broad framework for
integrating,organizing, and
aligning various competency
models that are based on an
organizations strategy and vision.
Core competencies
are characteristics that every
member of an organization,
regardless of the position, function,
job or level of responsibility within
the organization is expected to
possess.
Job Performance
is the behaviour that is
relevant to accomplishing the
goals of the organization.
Subjective Performance
measures are rating or
rankings made by supervisors,
peers, or others that are used
to assessing individual job
performance.
Relative rating system
is a subjective measurement
system that compares the overall
performance of one employee to
that of others to establish rank
order of employee performance.
1069
Rank order
Rater arranges the employees
in order of theirperceived
overall performance level
Paired Comparisons
Rater compares the overall
performance of eachworker
with that of every other
worker
Forced distribution
The system sets up a limited
number of categories that are
tied to performance standards
Relative percentile method
Raters compare individuals on
job performancedimensions
that have been derived from
job analysis. They use a 0-100
scale
Absolute rating system
compares the performance of one
worker with an absolute standard
of performance; can be used to
assess performance on one
dimension or to provide an overall
assessment.
1070
Graphic rating scale
Assess an employee on any
job dimension. Thescale
consists of name of job
component, definition and a
scale of 1-5
Realistic job previews
are a procedure designed to reduce
turnover and increase satisfaction
among newcomers to an organization
by providing job candidates with
accurate information about the job and
the organization.
FalsePositives
are individuals who are predicted
to perform successfully in a given
position,but who do not perform
at satisfactory levels when placed
on the job
False Negatives
are individuals who are predicted
to perform unsuccessfully in a
given position, but who would
perform at satisfactory levels if
hired.
ApplicationBlank
is a form completed by job
candidates to provide
employer with the basic
information about their
KSAO's.
1071
BiographicalInformation Blank
is a pre-selection questionnaire
that asks applicants to provide
job-related information on the
personal background and life
experiences.
360 degree feedback
is performance feedback gained from a
variety of sources.
helps align behaviour with an
organizations core values, heightens
awareness to others expectations, and
improves work behaviour and
performance.
Industrial Relations
is the study of employment in
union and non-union
organizations.
Labour Relations
is the study of all aspects of the
union-management relationship,
including the establishment of union
bargaining rights, the negotiation
process, and the administration of a
collective agreement
Nominal Wages
are wages that have not been
adjusted for inflation
1072
Real wages
are wages that have been
adjusted for inflation
Collective bargaining
is the entire relationship between a
union and employer, including the
administration of a collective agreement.
Collective bargaining is a formal process
through which the workplace conditions
are agreed upon and changed.
Collective agreement
is the outcome or product of
collective bargaining.It details the
conditions of employment that
apply to the union members who
are represented by the union
Conflict
Conflict management
occurs when there is a mismatch
involving expectations. This
mismatch results in friction
between the organization and
individuals or groups of
individuals.
involves acquiring skills related to
conflict resolution, self-awareness,
communication and establishing a
process for managing conflict in
your environment.
1073
Disputes
are conflicts that require
action. They have manifested
themselves into some form of
official compliant
Unions
are an organization of employees that
have an objective of improving the
compensation and working conditions
of employees. Unions are organizations
that represent employee interests to
management, it is formed through a
democratic election process.
Union Density
is the percentage of nonagricultural workers who are
union members.
Craft unions
organize members of a trade
or occupation.
Industrial unions
Is organize workers in different
occupations in a firm.
1074
Local Union
is an association of employees
with its own officers and
constitution
Business agent
is a staff person who works for
one or more locals providing
support
The Wagner Act
established the right to
organize, compulsory
bargaining and prohibition of
unfair labour practices in the
United States.
Concession Bargaining
a negotiation over employer
demands for reductions in wages
and benefits.Concession
bargaining may take place in
threat of business closure.
Labour relation strategy
is how an employer deals with
the unionization of its
employees
1075
Union opposition
Remain hostile to unions and
maybe willing to use legal and
illegal ways to avoid
unionization
Union avoidance
Strategy to prevent
unionizationusing legal means to
convince employees they do not
need a union (matchingunion rate
of pay, employee councils)
Union acceptance
Strategy in which employer
remainsneutral, if attempt is
successful they just try to
negotiate the best rate
Union resistance
Employer tries to limit
thefurther spread of
unionization in the
organization
Union removal
Strategy involves employer
attemptto rid itself of any
unions
1076
Labour Relations
is an independent body
responsible for the
administration of labour
relations legislation
Arbitrators
hear disputes between unions
and employees and render
final and binding decisions
Labor council
an association of unions in a
municipality or region. Their
function includes political activity,
training and education,community
and charity work, and assisting
locals on strike.
Labour RelationsLegislation
This legislation sets out rules regulating how
a unionobtains the right to represent
employees, listing the rights of the
employersduring organizing campaign,
importing duty to bargain in good faith on
both parties, and requiring disputesduring
the term of a collective agreement to be
resolved through arbitration.
Open period
is the time span within which a
second union can apply for
certification.
1077
Representation Vote
a secret ballot vote to determine ifemployees want a
union to represent them. The question of whether
support forthe union should be determined on the
basis of membership cards orrepresentation vote.
Unions prefer membership cards. The requirement of
arepresentation vote is based on the premise that the
true wishes of employeescannot be determined
unless there is an opportunity for employees to
expresstheir preference secretly.
Unfair labourpractices
are contraventions in labour
relations legislation. They might
occur during the negotiation of a
collective agreement, during the
administration of the agreement.
Statutory Freeze
is a period where the
employer is prohibited from
make changes in terms of
employment.
Decertification
Successor rights
is the process by which a LR board revokes
the right granted to a union to represent
employees and bargain on their behalf.
Decertification allows employees to rid
themselves from an ineffective union or
change unions. It helps ensure union
democracy and fair representation
protect the rights of the union
and any collective agreement
if a business is sold
1078
Mandatory terms
are provisions that must be
included in collective
agreements because they are
required by legislation.
Voluntary terms
are provisions that the parties
agree to include in the
collective agreement,
however, they are not required
by legislation.
Recognition article
Grievances
The grievance procedure
is a term in a collective
agreement providing that the
employer recognizes the union
as the bargaining agent for a
specified group of employees.
are allegations that the
collective agreement or
employment statue has been
violated
is a series of steps, in which a union
and employer representatives meet
to try to resolve dispute. Time limits
can be placed on grievances, if not
resolved by a set time it will be
dismissed.
1079
Union Security
deals with the issues of union
membership as a requirement
for employment and the
deduction of union dues from
employees pay.
Rand formula
is a collective agreement term
requiring the deduction of
union dues
"Union Security Clause:
Recognition"
management recognizes union
as sole bargainingagentm
Closed Shop:
employees who work within
bargaining unit must be
members of union
Maintenance of membership
workers don't have to join
union, nutonce they do they
must maintain membership
1080
Union Shop
employees must join union to
maintain employment
Check off clauses:
management agrees to take
union dues and transfer them
to union
Management Rights
an article providing that
management retains the authority
to manage the organization,
except otherwise provided in the
collective agreement. Making and
imposing unilateral decisions.
Modifiedunion shop
is where non-union members
already employed do not
need to join the union but all
new hires do.
Contracting out
occurs when an employer arranges for
another firm to do work that could be
done by the employers own employees.
It is a term usually added to the
collective agreement not allowing
employers to do this.
1081
Distributive bargaining
is a negotiation activity
whereby limited resources are
divided by parties
Integrative bargaining
is negotiation in which the
parties' objectives are not in
conflict and joint gain is
possible.
Duty to bargain in good faith
means that both the union and
the employer must make
reasonable efforts to reach an
agreement.
Resistance point
is the party's bottom line- the
last favourable offer it will
accept
Interestbased bargaining
is an approach to negotiations in
which the parties use problem
solving and attempt to find a
settlement that produces gains
for both
1082
Ratificationvote
is one in which employees
approve or reject an
agreement that has been
negotiated gains
grievance rate
is the number of grievances
filed divided by the number of
employees in the bargaining
unit.
Rights arbitration
refers to the resolution of a
dispute relating to the
administration of a collective
agreement.
Interest arbitration
refers to the determination of the terms
of a collective agreement. In this
arbitration the employer and union
present evidence and make submissions
regarding what the agreement should
contain and the arbitrator's decision sets
out the term of the contract.
Duty to fair representation
prohibits the union from acting
in a manner that is arbitrary,
discriminatory, or in bad faith.
1083
Grievance mediation
confidential process in which
a mediator helps the parties
negotiate a settlement to a
grievance.
Mediators
attempt to assist parties to
reach an agreement their role
and authority varies across
jurisdictions.
Conciliation
is either a one stage process
involving either a conciliation
officer or conciliation board.
Conciliationofficers
are ministry representatives
who attempt to assist the
parties to reach an agreement.
Conciliation boards
are a three person panel that
hears the parties and makes
recommendations for a
settlement.
1084
Cooling off period
time the parties must wait after
conciliation before they can
strike or lockout. This period
ranges from 7-21 days.
no-board report
confirms that a conciliation
board will not be appointed
and begins the countdown to
a strike or lockout
Work to rule campaign
is a work slowdown carried
out by strictly adhering to
work rules and the collective
agreement.
Wildcat strike
is an illegal strike that has not
been authorized by the union
The threat effect
is an upward pressure on nonunion wages caused by the
possibility that employees may
unionize.
1085
The crowding effect
is a downward pressure on
non-union wages caused by
an increased supply of labour
in the non-union sector.
Spillover effect
is when non-union wages are
positively influenced by gains
made by unions within the
same organization.
Alternative dispute resolution
(ADR)
is an option that should be considered
before a dispute becomes a lawsuit. The
objective is to identify common ground and
achieve an outcome that has a high level
commitment from the parties. (Negotiation,
open door policy, conciliation, mediation,
arbitration,peer review, ombudsperson).
Compensation
is when employers provide
employees with a package of
payments/rewards in
exchange for their services to
the organization.
Direct Compensation
is pay for time worked. It is
made up of base salary,
premiums, and variable pay.
1086
Indirect Compensation
is payments made by the
employer on behalf of the
employee (non-cash
payments)
Variable pay
is an incentive or bonus employers
pay to employees who
performance meets or exceeds
expectations, provided the
company meets its own goals for
productivity and profitability.
Match the market
is when half of your
comparators pay less than you
and half pay more
Lag the Market
is when 70% of comparators
pay better than you(30th
percentile)
Lead the market
is when 75% of you
comparators pay less.
(75thpercentile)
1087
Thejob evaluationprocess
determines the relative worth
of jobs within an organization
through job analysis
Wholejobs ranking
is when each job is compared
in its entirety to all others to
come up with a ranking
Point factor analysis
is when each job is examined with
a tool that describes the
organizations desired
compensable factors
(Skills,Responsibilities, Effort, and
Working Conditions).
Compensable factor
is a fundamental compensable
element of a job, such as a
skill, effort, responsibility and
working conditions.
Shortterm variable pay
(merit pay programs) are effective
align employee behaviours with
business strategies. This is
typically over and above base pay,
usually paid out a certain intervals
based on achievement.
1088
Long term variable pay
Balanced Scorecard
is complex programs designed for
senior executives. Time frame is usually
more than 12 months and often several
times a year. What is rewarded is the
increased value of the organization over
a defined time period; this is done
through stock options.
"brings financial and non-financial
measuresinto play for all employees.
The measures are:
Financial
Customer
Internal
Learning
Benefits
are non-cash compensation.
Employers provide benefits to
attract, retain and motive
employees.
Traditional benefit programs
Group life insurance,Disability,
Health, dental and vision care.
Flexible benefits
give employees the option of creating
their own plan. The term cafeteria
benefits come from the idea of
providing choice from a number of
options. Employees would choose a set
of pay and benefits options that would
best satisfy their needs
1089
Modified Flex benefits
offers a specific and narrow
range of options, often
grouped as packages.
Healthcare spending accounts
provides employees with predetermined annual dollar amounts
to pay for eligible expenses.
These programs can be offered by
benefit insurance carriers or selfinsured by the employer.
Pension plans
are organized and administered to
provide a regular income for the lifetime
of retired members. Pension plans are
designed in accordance with the
organizations HR strategy and must
meet all requirements of provincial and
federal tax and benefit regulations.
Defined Benefit Plan
Capital Accumulation plan
is a type of pension plan in which an
employer/sponsor promises a specified
monthly benefit on retirement that is predetermined by a formula based on the
employee's earnings history, tenure of
service, and age. The risk of the plan lies
with the plan sponsor. They can be noncontributory or contributory.
(include RRSP, deferred profit sharing plan,
defined contribution plans and unregistered
stock purchase plans)employer and
employee contributions are invested and at
retirement the accumulated pool is used to
fund a pension plan. Risk lies with plan
members.
1090
Payroll
is responsible for ensuring
employees are paid the correct
amounts on established dates,
they must take relevant
deductions such as CPP and tax.
Training
acquisition of KSAs to improve
performance in one's current
job.
Development
is the acquisition of KSAs required to
perform future job responsibilities and in the
long term achievement of individual career
goals and organizational objectives.
Training Vs. Development
Training is improving one performance
in one's current job.
Development is acquiring KSA's
required to perform future job
responsibilities and in the long-term
achievement of individual career goals.
Performance Management
Is the process of establishingperformance
expectations with employees, designing
interventions and programsto improve
performance, and monitoring the success of
interventions andprograms. This process signals
toemployees what is important in the
organization, ensures accountability forbehavior
and results and helps improve performance.
1091
High Performance worksystem
(HPWS)
consists of interrelated system of human
resources practicesand policies that usually
includes rigorous recruitment and
selectionprocedures, performance
contingent incentive compensation,
performancemanagement, a commitment to
employee involvement and extensive
training anddevelopment programs.
IDS Model
model of training and development depicts training
as a rational and scientific process that consists of
three major steps: needs analysis, design and
delivery, and evaluation. The training process begins
with a performance gap of an "itch". You must
complete a needs analysis as the first step to
determine the nature of the problem and if training is
the best solution. A needs analysis consists of three
levels.
3 Steps in IDS Model
"Needs Analysis
Training and Delivery
Training Evaluation"
Needs Analysis Process
Training objectives
Organizational Analysis
- Where training is needed
Task analysis
- What training is needed
Person Analysis
- who needs to be trained
statements of what the
trainees are expected to be
able to do after the training
program.
1092
Organizational Learning
Learning organization
Is the process of creating sharing
anddiffusing and applying knowledge in
organizations. Organizational learning
focuses on thesystems used to create and
distribute new knowledge on an
organization widebasis. Thus, organizational
learning is a dynamic process of creating
andsharing knowledge.
is acquiring, organizing and
sharing knowledge and uses
information to change. If you are
not acquiring, organizing and
sharing you are not a learning
organization.
Five Disciplines of becoming a
learning organization
Personal Mastery
Building a shared vision
Mental Models
Team Learning
Systems Thinking
Principles of a Learning
Organization
Everyone is considered a learner
Informal Learning is encouraged.
Learning is part of a change
practice
Learning should be continuous
Learning should be an investment
Knowledge
the sum of what is known; a
body of truths,information and
principles
1093
Explicit knowledge
things that you can buy or
trade, such as patents or
copyrights
Tacit knowledge
valuable wisdom learned from
experience and insight that
has been defined as intuition;
know how, little tricks and
judgement
Intellectualcapital
a source of innovation and wealth
production. It is formalized, captured
and developed. It is an organizations
knowledge, experience, relationships,
process discoveries, innovations, market
presence and community influence
4 Types of Intellectual Capital
Human Capital
Renewal Capital
Structural Capital
Relationship Capital
Knowledge management
the creation, collection and
storage,distribution and application of
compiled "know what" and "know how".
Knowledge management refers to systems
and structures that integrate people,
processes and technology so that important
knowledge is coded, stored and made
available to members.
1094
Informal Learning
learning that occurs naturally
as a part of work and is not
planned or designed by the
organization.
Formal Learning
involves activities and events
that are planned and
designed by the organization
with explicit goals and
objectives.
Communities of practice
are groups of people with common
interests and concerns who meet
regularly to share their experiences and
knowledge, learn from each other, and
identify new approaches for working
and solving problems.
Mental models
Learning
are deeply ingrained
assumptions, generalizations
or images that influence how
we understand the world and
how we take action.
is the process of acquiring
knowledge and skills, and a
change in individual behavior
as a result of some experience
1095
Blended Training
Practice
is the use of a combination or
approaches to training such as
classroom training, on-the-job
training and computer
technology.
refers to physical or mental
rehearsal of a task,skill or
knowledge in order to achieve
some level of proficiency in
performing the task or skill or
demonstrating that knowledge.
Active practice
means that the trainees are
provided with opportunities to
practice the task or use the
knowledge being learned
during training.
Conditions of practice
implemented before and during the
training to enhance the effectiveness of
active practice and to maximize learning
and retention.
Action learning
training method in which trainees
accept the challenge of studying
and solving real-world problems
and accept responsibility for the
solution. They test theories in the
real world.
1096
On the job training
when trainee receives instruction and
training at work station from a
supervisor or experienced co-worker.
This is the most common approach to
training and the most misused. A
structured approach is most effective
Coaching
one on one individualized learning
experience in which a more
experienced and knowledgeable
person is formally called upon to help
another person develop the insights
and techniques pertinent to the
accomplishment of their job.
Mentoring
a method in which a senior
member of the organization
takes a personal interest in the
career of a junior employee. !
Coaching Vs. Mentoring
Coaching is more jobs specific
where mentoring is more
about future career
development. Participation is
voluntary for mentoring.
Train the trainer
training program that teaches
SME how to design and
deliver training programs.
1097
Transfer of training
the generalization of knowledge and skills
learned in training on the job and the
maintenance of acquired knowledge and
skills over time. Transfer of training occurs
when learned material is generalized to the
job context and maintained over time on the
job.
Training evaluation
is a process to access the
value- the worthiness- of the
training programs to
employees and to
organizations.
Training ROI
"Return on Investment=
Benefits - Cost of the
program/ Cost of the
Program"
Benefit to cost ratio
Benefit to cost ratio =
benefits/costs
ComprehensiveAuditing
-new approach to public sector auditing.
Looks at "value for money"the need to
determine whether funds have been spent
economically, efficiently,and effectively. The
primary purpose of a comprehensive audit is
to as certainin economy, efficiency and
effectiveness of an organization's operations
and use of resources.
1098
Sarbanes-Oxley Act\
New York StockExchange
strengthened corporate
governance requirements for
public companies. These
requirements include standards
for auditing, ethics and
independence.
added a formal evaluation
processes to the SOX Act for
effectiveness. This ensures
companies have audit
committees and a formal
evaluation process.
Audit committees
are board members who are
independent of company
management and are
responsible for overseeing
auditors work.
Ontario Bill 198
is about making sure the
numbers are correct. It
increased scrutiny of
corporate governance.
Metrics
data analysis. It is a group of
measurement elements or
quantitative assessment. Metrics
have six elements: quantity, quality,
time, money, satisfaction,
benchmark comparisons.
1099
Simple metrics
- focus on operational
effectiveness such as: time to hire,
turnover rates, training
costs/course, average sick days,
interview rate.
Complex Metrics
- focus on strategic issues
such as: measuring human
capital, skills forecasting, ROI
of the workforce.
Human Capital Index
confirms that the way an
organization manages its
human capital significantly
affects its financial
performance.
Human Capital ROI
illustrates valueadded by
investing in people. Higher is
better
Income Factor
illustrates net income per
employee. Highest income
means higher value
1100
Information systems
manual, paper based
information, and electronic
automated systems
HRMS
is all the disparate parts that
interact with the collection,
storage, retrieval and
application of all information.
Ad Hoc Repot Writer
vendors offer one or more
tools which a user can create
their own custom reports with
SoleProprietorship
is a business entity that has
one owner, for tax purposes
the business and the owner
are considered the same
Partnership
is the same as a sole
proprietorship except there is
two or more owners
1101
Corporation
differs because it is a separate
legal entity from the owners.
Financial accounting
is a branch of accounting that
focuses on serving the needs of
external users who need to make
sound economic decisions
(Financial statement preparation,
financial analysis, auditing).
Managerial accounting
a branch of accounting that provides
accounting information for internal
users to help make business decisions
(Cost accounting, budgeting planning
and control, performance evaluation,
internal auditing)
Assets
are what the company has
that has value (Cash,land,
physical things such as
buildings, inventory).
Liabilities
are the amount a business
owes to third parties(Accounts
payable, notes payable,
mortgage, salaries payable,
benefits and pension).
1102
Shareholders Equity
is the amount of assets owned
by shareholders.
Accounting Equation
Assets =Liabilities +
Shareholders Equity
Note Payable
is a written promise to pay a
specific amount in the future
Account receivable
is a client's promise to pay.
Dividends
are a distribution of earnings
by a corporation toits
shareholders
1103
Income Statement
t answers the question is the company
making profit? It is a summary of revenue
and expenses of the organization for a
given time period. The statement can
display the month, quarter or year and
be compared to previous months,
quarters or years to assess progress.
Net Income
is total revenues were greater
than total expense
Net loss
is total revenues are less than
total expenses
Balance Sheet
Cash Flow Statement
shows what assets does the company
have and who has ownership rights to
those assets? It is a snap shot of the
organizations assets,liabilities and
owners' equity at the end of a specific
period. It is an opportunity to see how
the organization has funded its assets.
is a report on the amount of
cash receipts coming in and
the amount of cash
distributions going out.
1104
Net Cash Flow Equation
Net Cash Flow = Cash
Receipts - Payments
Current Ratio
"Current Assets/ Current
Liabilities.
This equation is used to
determine companies' ability to
meet short term obligations with
current assets."
1105