A+ 220-1101
Study Guide Success
Release 3.0.0.1
A+ 220-1101 Study Guide Success
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A+ 220-1101 Study Guide Success
Product ID: esp-2201101-sg
Total Questions: 50
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A+ 220-1101 Study Guide Success
Table of Contents
Abstract……………….………………………………..………………………..................4
What To Know………….… …………………………………………...…….…..………...4
Tips…………………………………………………………………....………….................5
Practice Questions………………………………………………….…………................6
Technical Support………..………………………………………….………………....123
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Abstract
The A+ 220-1101 Study Guide Success is intended to be a reference guide for the A+
220-1101 Certification Exam.
What to Know
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to help prepare for CompTIA A+ 220-1101.
In order to receive the CompTIA A+ certification, you must pass two exams: 220-1101 and
220-1102. CompTIA A+ 220-1101 measures the necessary skills for an entry-level IT
professional. Successful candidates will have the knowledge required to:
• Install, configure, and maintain computer equipment, mobile devices, and software for end
users
• Service components based on customer requirements
• Understand networking basics and apply basic cybersecurity methods to mitigate threats
• Properly and safely diagnose, resolve, and document common hardware and software issues
• Apply troubleshooting skills and provide customer support using appropriate communication
skills
• Understand the basics of scripting, cloud technologies, virtualization, and multi-OS
deployments in corporate environments
These content examples are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be
construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they
are represented. The CompTIA A+ 220-1101 exam is based on these objectives.
Domain
Percentage of Examination
1.0 Mobile Devices
15%
2.0 Networking
20%
3.0 Hardware
25%
3.0 Virtualization and Cloud Computing
11%
5.0 Hardware & Network Troubleshooting
29%
Total
100%
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Tips
The A+ 220-1101 Study Guide Success is not intended to be an all-inclusive reference for
technicians. Rather, it is mainly for the reference purpose only.
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Practice Questions
Question 1
Which of the following statements is TRUE about overclocking?
A. Forcing a computer component to run at a lower clock rate than it was designed.
B. Adjusting the clock in the motherboard to obtain a higher clock speed.
C. The temperature will keep the same when over-clocking.
D. Overclocking would most likely void the manufacturer's warranty on the component.
Answer:
D
Explanation
Overclocking is the process of forcing a computer component to run at a higher clock rate
than it was designed for. Therefore, it would most likely void the warranty on the component
as the manufacturer will only guarantee the component to be run at its designated speed.
An effective cooling system is necessary to avoid damaging the component as the
overclocked component will increase heat. All electronic circuits discharge heat generated
by the movement of electrons. As clock frequencies in digital circuits increase, the
temperature will go up and produce more heat.
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Question 2
Which of the following components make up the scan head in a scanner? (Select ALL THAT
APPLY)
A. CCD (Charge-Coupled Device) array
B. Mirrors
C. Lamp
D. Lens
E. Filter
F. Fuse
Answer:
ABDE
Explanation
Scanner is a device that optically scans images, printed text, handwriting, or an object, and
converts it to a digital image. Common examples found in offices are variations of the
desktop (or flatbed) scanner where the document is placed on a glass window for scanning.
Hand-held scanners, where the device is moved by hand, were briefly popular but are now
less common due to the difficulty of obtaining a high-quality image. Mechanically driven
scanners that move the document are typically used for large-format documents, where a
flatbed design would be impractical.
Modern scanners typically use charge-coupled device (CCD) or Contact Image Sensor (CIS)
as the image sensor, whereas older drum scanners use a photomultiplier tube as the image
sensor. A rotary scanner, used for high-speed document scanning, is another type of drum
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scanner, using a CCD array instead of a photomultiplier. Other types of scanners are
planetary scanners, which take photographs of books and documents, and 3D scanners, for
producing three-dimensional models of objects.
Scanning Process
The document is placed on the glass plate and the cover is closed. The inside of the cover in
most scanners is flat white, although a few are black. The cover provides a uniform
background that the scanner software can use as a reference point for determining the size
of the document being scanned. Most flatbed scanners allow the cover to be removed for
scanning a bulky object, such as a page in a thick book.
A lamp is used to illuminate the document. The lamp in newer scanners is either a cold
cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) or a xenon lamp, while older scanners may have a standard
fluorescent lamp.
The entire mechanism (mirrors, lens, filter and CCD array) make up the scan head.
The scan head is moved slowly across the document by a belt that is attached to a stepper
motor. The scan head is attached to a stabilizer bar to ensure that there is no wobble or
deviation in the pass. Pass means that the scan head has completed a single complete scan
of the document.
The image of the document is reflected by an angled mirror to another mirror. In some
scanners, there are only two mirrors while others use a three mirror approach. Each mirror
is slightly curved to focus the image it reflects onto a smaller surface.
The last mirror reflects the image onto a lens. The lens focuses the image through a filter on
the CCD array.
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The filter and lens arrangement vary based on the scanner. Some scanners use a three pass
scanning method. Each pass uses a different color filter (red, green or blue) between the
lens and CCD array. After the three passes are completed, the scanner software assembles
the three filtered images into a single full-color image.
Most scanners today use the single pass method. The lens splits the image into three smaller
versions of the original. Each smaller version passes through a color filter (either red, green
or blue) onto a discrete section of the CCD array. The scanner combines the data from the
three parts of the CCD array into a single full-color image.
Another imaging array technology that has become popular in inexpensive flatbed scanners
is contact image sensor (CIS). CIS replaces the CCD array, mirrors, filters, lamp and lens
with rows of red, green and blue light emitting diodes (LEDs). The image sensor mechanism,
consisting of 300 to 600 sensors spanning the width of the scan area, is placed very close to
the glass plate that the document rests upon. When the image is scanned, the LEDs combine
to provide white light. The illuminated image is then captured by the row of sensors. CIS
scanners are cheaper, lighter and thinner, but do not provide the same level of quality and
resolution found in most CCD scanners.
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Question 3
In order to increase the performance for graphics processing, you plan to use NVIDIA's
technology to link two graphics cards together to produce a single output. What feature should
the motherboard support to achieve it?
A. SLI
B. AGP
C. CrossFire
D. SCSI
Answer:
A
Explanation
[NVIDIA]
NVIDIA is a company specializing in the manufacture of integrated circuits (ICs) used for
personal computer motherboard chipsets, graphics processing units (GPUs), and game
consoles. NVIDIA's products include GeForce series for gaming, Quadro series for
professional workstation graphics processing, and nForce series of integrated motherboard
chipsets.
NVIDIA's SLI (Scalable Link Interface) technology provides a multi-GPU solution that links
two graphics cards together to produce a single output with increased performance. NVIDIA
SLI takes advantage of the increased bandwidth of the PCI Express bus architecture, and
features hardware and software innovations within NVIDIA GPUs (Graphics Processing Units)
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and NVIDIA MCPs (Media and Communications Processors). Depending on the application,
NVIDIA SLI can deliver as much as two times the performance of a single GPU configuration.
To implement SLI technology, the system usually needs two fairly recent (6600 or newer)
identical NVIDIA cards and a motherboard that supports SLI. Ideally, two identical graphics
cards are installed in a motherboard that contains two PCI-Express x16 slots, set up in a
master-slave configuration. Then, the two cards will work together, each rendering one half
of the screen. However, if there are only 24 lanes available on motherboards, using both x16
slots will reduce each to only x8 bandwidth.
Mnemonic
NVIDIA's multi-GPU solution: SLI (Scalable Link Interface)
ATI's multi-GPU solution: CrossFire
[ATI]
ATI is a major designer and supplier of the graphics processing units, motherboard chipsets,
and video display cards. ATI's main competitor is NVIDIA. The ATI's flagship Radeon series
of graphics cards directly competes with NVIDIA's GeForce.
CrossFire is ATI's technology for multi-GPU solution, which competes with SLI (Scalable
Link Interface) from NVIDIA. The technology allows a pair of graphics cards to be used in a
single computer to improve graphics performance. ATI has opened the Crossfire architecture
to Intel, allowing CrossFire to be enabled on certain Intel chipsets which boast two 16x PCIe
slots.
To implement
this technology, the
system
requires a
CrossFire-compliant
motherboard with a pair of PCIe graphics cards, which can be enabled via either hardware or
software. However, if there are only 24 lanes available on motherboards, using both x16
slots will reduce each to only x8 bandwidth.
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Mnemonic
NVIDIA's multi-GPU solution: SLI (Scalable Link Interface)
ATI's multi-GPU solution: CrossFire
[AGP]
AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port), an interface specification developed by Intel Corporation,
is designed to assist in the acceleration of 3-D computer graphics, which uses a high-speed
point-to-point channel that allows the graphics controller to directly access main memory.
The AGP bus is mainly used for the graphics with 32-bit bus width, 66 MHz speed and 266
MBps bandwidth, as opposed to the PCI bus with 32-bit bus width, 33 MHz speed and 133
MBps bandwidth. However, the newer versions of AGP have higher data transfer rate of up
to 2.13 GBps. AGP is slowly being replaced by PCI Express.
The data transfer rates of AGP can be represented as 1x, 2x, 4x, or 8x, as follow:
AGP 1x
Operating at 66 MHz, data rate of 266 MBps, 3.3 volt signaling
AGP 2x
Operating at 66 MHz but double pumped to an effective 133 MHz, data rate 533 MBps, 3.3
volt signaling
AGP 4x
Operating at 66 MHz but quad pumped to an effective 266 MHz, data rate 1.07 GBps, 1.5
volt signaling
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AGP 8x
Operating at 66 MHz but strobing eight times per clock to an effective 533 MHz, data rate
2.13 GBps, 0.8 volt signaling
There are some non-standard variations of the AGP interface listed below:
AGP Pro is an extension to the AGP interface. AGP Pro cards are often longer than standard
AGP cards and have a few extra pins to supply extra power to the graphics add-in cards so
as to meet the needs of advanced graphics functionality, such as the professional
computer-aided design. The AGP Pro definition includes an extended connector, thermal
envelope, mechanical specifications for cards, I/O brackets, and motherboard layout
requirements.
AGP Express is a not a true AGP interface, but rather a way to allow an AGP card to be
connected over the legacy PCI bus on a PCI Express motherboard. It is a technology found
on ECS motherboards, and is used as a selling point for AGP card owners who want a new
motherboard but do not want to be forced to buy a PCIe graphics card as well (most new
motherboards do not provide AGP slots, only PCIe slots). An "AGP Express" slot is basically
a PCI slot (with the electrical power of two) in the AGP form factor. While it offers backward
compatibility with AGP cards, its disadvantages include incomplete support (some AGP cards
do not work with AGP Express) and reduced performance (the card is forced to use the
shared PCI bus at its lower bandwidth, rather than having exclusive use of the faster AGP).
Compatibility
1.5 V-only AGP cards will not go into 3.3 V slots and vice versa, though there are some
universal slots exist which accept either type of card. AGP Pro cards will not fit into standard
AGP slots, but standard AGP cards will work in an AGP Pro slot.
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Note
PCI Express, PCIe, or PCI-E is an enhancement of PCI bus and is based on a completely
different and much faster serial physical-layer communications protocol. PCI Express was
formerly known as Arapaho or 3GIO (Third-Generation Input/Output). It has a data rate of
250 MBps per channel, and a total combined data rate of 4GBps while running a maximum
of 16 channels.
[SCSI]
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a standard interface that can transfer data
between devices on both internal and external buses in computer systems. It is most
commonly used for hard disks and tape storage devices while it is also able to connect a wide
range of other devices such as CD-ROM drives, CD recorders, DVD drives, scanners, and
printers.
Just like USB, SCSI devices usually do not require a separate power cable. The SCSI cable is
capable of providing power.
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Question 4
Which of the following types of connectors would allow a transmission of 2560 x 1600 pixels
image at a frequency of 60 Hz?
A. Single-Link DVI
B. Dual-Link DVI
C. Dual DVI
D. DVI
Answer:
B
Explanation
DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a digital interface standard developed by an industry
consortium, the Digital Display Working Group (DDWG), to convert analog signals into
digital signals to accommodate both analog and digital monitors. Data is transmitted using
the transition minimized differential signaling (TMDS) protocol, providing a digital signal
from the PC's graphics subsystem to the display. The standard specifies a single plug and
connector that encompass both the new digital and legacy VGA interfaces, as well as a
digital-only plug connector.
DVI provides three types of connectors:
(1) DVI-D (Digital, for digital signals only): provides a fast transfer rate, high quality image
and no quality loss.
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(2) DVI-A (Analog, for analog signals only): virtually obsolete. It carries a DVI signal to an
analog display like CRT.
(3) DVI-I (Integrated, for both digital and analog): provides the flexibility.
The DVI connector usually contains pins to pass the DVI-native digital video signals. There
are some special types connectors listed below:
Dual DVI
Dual-DVI video cards have two DVI connectors for dual monitor support. Dual DVI is
different from Dual-Link DVI.
Single-Link DVI
Single-Link allows a transmission of 1920 x 1080 pixels image at a frequency of 60 Hz.
Dual-Link DVI
Dual-Link uses additional pins for the second set of data signals, doubling the bandwidth to
allow a transmission of 2560 x 1600 pixels image at a frequency of 60 Hz.
The DVI connector may also include pins that provide the same analog signals found on a
VGA connector, allowing a VGA monitor to be connected with a simple plug adapter. This
feature was included in order to make DVI universal, as it allows either type of monitor
(analog or digital) to be operated from the same connector.
Note
A DVI to HDMI cable may be used to connect the computer to a HDTV. DVI/HDMI cables have
a single-link DVI-D connector on one end and an HDMI connector on the other. These cables
are bi-directional and function equally well in either direction: HDMI to DVI, or DVI to HDMI.
Please note that DVI does not pass audio so you will have to route your audio separately
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when using a DVI to HDMI adapter or cable.
DVI Male Connector
DVI Connector Pins
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Question 5
The SATA 3 has the data transfer rate of:
A. 150 MB/s
B. 300 MB/s
C. 600 MB/s
D. 900 MB/s
Answer:
C
Explanation
Serial ATA (SATA or S-ATA) is the serial interface for storage devices, especially hard disks.
It is a replacement for the legacy ATA (AT Attachment) standard, which was retroactively
renamed Parallel ATA (PATA) to distinguish it from Serial ATA. Both SATA and PATA are IDE
(Integrated Drive Electronics) drives, but IDE and EIDE are often used to indicate PATA
drives. SATA offers backwards compatibility for existing ATA and ATAPI devices.
SATA 1
Standard Serial ATA (also known as SATA-150 or SATA 1.5 Gbit/s) is the first generation and
run at 1.5 Gbit/s. Serial ATA uses 8B/10B encoding at the physical layer and has an
efficiency of 80%, resulting in an actual data transfer rate of 1.2 Gbit/s, or 150 MB/s
(megabytes per second).
SATA 2
Also known as SATA-300 or SATA 3.0 Gbit/s, is an enhancement to the Standard SATA and
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runs at 3.0 Gbit/s (actual data transfer rate of 2.4 Gbit/s, or 300 MB/s).
SATA 3
Also known as Serial ATA-600 or SATA 6.0 Gbit/s, runs at 6.0 Gbit/s (actual data transfer
rate of 4.8 Gb/s, or 600 MB/s).
External SATA
Also known as eSATA, extends the SATA bus at full speed and supports a cable length of up
to 2 meters.
SATA uses a point-to-point connection, which means one end of SATA cable would be
connected to the motherboard, and the other to the hard disk. Unlike parallel ATA, which is
capable of connecting two drives to each cable, no second device can be connected to the
SATA cable. In other words, there is no need to configure the SATA drive controller as Master
or Slave. SATA drives are automatically recognized.
One of the main advantages of Serial ATA is that it offers a thinner serial cable to facilitate
better airflow inside a form factor and also allow for smaller chassis designs when compared
to the earlier ribbon cables used with ATA drives. In addition, Serial ATA cables have a
maximal length of 1 meter, while Parallel ATA cables can only extend to 45cm (18 inch).
Data Cable
The SATA standard defines a data cable with 7 conductors (3 grounds and 4 active data lines
in two pairs).
Power Cable and Connector
Like IDE/EIDE, the SATA power cable is separate from the data cable. However, the SATA
standard defines a new power connector with 15-pin shape that is different from the old
4-pin Molex connector found on all IDE/EIDE devices. The SATA power cable and connector
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offer three different voltages: +3.3, +5, and +12 volts. It is different from traditional cables
that only have +12 and +5 volt wires. There are adaptors available for converting a 4-pin
Molex connector to 15-pin SATA power connector. However, because the 4-pin Molex
connectors do not provide 3.3 volt power, these adapters provide only 5 V and 12 V power
and leave the 3.3 volt lines disconnected, thus precluding the use of such adapters with
drives that require 3.3 volt power.
SATA Adapter Card
By installing a SATA adapter card in an open expansion slot, a SATA hard drive can be added
to an older computer system that only has EIDE controllers available.
SATA Bridge
By using a SATA Bridge, an older EIDE hard drive can be added to a computer system that
only has SATA controllers available.
7-pin SATA Data Cable
5-pin SATA Power Connector
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Question 6
You are at an electronics store shopping for a monitor. Which factors below would lead you to
choose OLED over LED? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Uses fluorescent lighting
B. Better picture quality
C. Lightweight
D. Thinner
E. Cheaper
Answer:
BCD
Explanation
LED technology is mostly used in television sets and became popular when 3D TVs became
cutting edge. It demonstrates the excellent viewing quality and light build with the low
power consumption.
OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode, or Organic LED) are made up of organic compounds
that light up when electricity flows through them. When compared with LED, OLED displays
are thinner and lighter, and have better picture quality. They also offer the best viewing
angle by far. However, they are a little more expensive, though they have come down in
price considerably.
Both LED and OLED displays do NOT use fluorescent lighting.
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Question 7
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about the wide SCSI network? (Select ALL
THAT APPLY)
A. SCSI devices are connected in a chain.
B. There are totally 16 devices that can be connected.
C. The SCSI ID of host adapters must be set to 15 and cannot be set to other unused
addresses.
D. SCSI devices can share the same SCSI ID as long as they are not the same type of devices.
E. There is no need to set the SCSI ID for the host adapter.
Answer:
CDE
Explanation
SCSI (Small Computer Systems Interface) devices are connected in a chain and each device
(e.g. host adapter, disk drive) must have a unique SCSI ID number regardless of what type
of device it is.
There are totally 8 devices that can be connected in a narrow SCSI bus with the ID numbers
0 through 7, or 16 devices in a wide bus with the ID numbers 0 through 15. Most SCSI host
adapters are conventionally set to the highest ID on the bus (7 on a narrow bus or 15 on a
wide bus), which gives host adapters the highest priority on the SCSI bus because the
priority descends as the SCSI ID descends. However, the host adapter can actually be set to
any unused address. Please note that if the boot device is in a SCSI chain, it needs to be
assigned the lower numbers (0 or 1), otherwise the system will not boot. Also, the Host Bus
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Adapter BIOS needs to be enabled if it is controlling the SCSI boot drives.
A SCSI host adapter connects a SCSI bus to a computer. The host adapter bridges the
physical and logical chasm that separates the SCSI bus from the host computer's internal
bus. Modern host adapters contain all the electronics and firmware required to execute SCSI
transactions, and often include a BIOS that not only allows the host system to boot from a
SCSI device, but also facilitates configuration of the host adapter. Typically a device driver,
linked to the operating system, controls the host adapter itself.
The host adapter usually assumes the role of SCSI initiator, in that it issues commands to
other SCSI devices. A computer can contain more than one host adapter, which can greatly
increase the number of SCSI devices available
You would usually set the SCSI ID of the initiator (host adapter) with a physical jumper or
switch on early models. On modern host adapters, you are allowed to set the SCSI ID by
either utilizing the adapter BIOS program that runs when the computer boots up and has
menus that let you choose the SCSI ID for the host adapter, or installing the software that
comes with the host adapter to let you set the SCSI ID.
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Question 8
What are the maximum devices and transfer speed that USB 2.0 supports?
A. 64 daisy chained devices, 1.5 Mbps
B. 64 daisy chained devices, 12 Mbps
C. 127 daisy chained devices, 480 Mbps
D. 127 daisy chained devices, 800 Mbps
Answer:
C
Explanation
USB (Universal Serial Bus) was designed by a group of manufacturers to make peripherals
easier to install. It was designed to allow peripherals to be connected without the need to
plug expansion cards into the computer's ISA, EISA, or PCI bus, and improve plug-and-play
capabilities by allowing devices to be hot-swapped. When a device is first connected, the
host enumerates and recognizes it, and loads the device driver it needs. Therefore, the
configurations for device IDs, interrupts etc. are no longer needed.
A USB system may contain a host controller and multiple daisy-chained devices. You may
add additional USB hubs to the chain to branch into a tree structure, but subject to a limit of
5 levels of branching per controller. Up to 127 devices, including the bus devices, can be
connected to one single host controller and unlike SCSI there is no need to terminate USB
cables. Modern computers often offer several host controllers, allowing a very large number
of USB devices to be connected.
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USB supports many kinds of peripherals such as mice, keyboards, game-pads and joysticks,
scanners, digital cameras, printers, external storage, networking components, etc. The
newest USB specification is at version 2.0. USB supports three data rates as follows:
(1) Low Speed rate of 1.5 Mbps - it is mostly used for Human Interface Devices (HID)
such as keyboards, mice, and joysticks.
(2) Full Speed rate of 12 Mbps - it was the fastest rate before the USB 2.0 specification
and many devices fall back to Full Speed. Full Speed devices divide the USB bandwidth
between them in a first-come first-served basis and it is not uncommon to run out of
bandwidth with several isochronous devices. All USB Hubs support Full Speed.
(3) Hi-Speed rate of 480 Mbps - USB 2.0, also known as "Hi-Speed USB" that supports a
transfer rate of up to 480 Mbps, was developed by Compaq, Hewlett Packard, Intel, Lucent,
Microsoft, NEC and Philips and was introduced in 2001. USB 2.0 is backwards compatible,
meaning it is capable of supporting USB 1.0 and 1.1 devices and cables.
(4) 5 Gbps - USB 3.0, also known as SuperSpeed USB (SS) that can transfer data at up to
5 Gbit/s (625 MB/s), which is about 10 times faster than the USB 2.0 standard. It is
recommended that manufacturers distinguish USB 3.0 connectors from their USB 2.0
counterparts by using blue color for the Standard-A receptacles and plugs and by the
initials SS.
(5) USB-C was first released in 2014 as a replacement for the older USB, Thunderbolt, and
DisplayPort standards. USB-C is also known as USB Type-C, and features a small physical
connector, nearing the size of a micro USB connector. USB-C supports USB 3.1 and USB
power delivery of up to 100 watts (USB 2.0 only supports up to 2.5 watts). USB-C also
supports a wide range of different protocols using alternate modes to support HDMI, VGA,
DisplayPort, as well as ordinary USB functions. USB 3.1 Type-C cables offer a transfer rate of
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10Gbps, which is double the transfer speed of USB 3.0 (5 Gbps).
USB Cable
The maximum length any standard USB cable is rated for, without amplification, is 15 feet.
There are stories of people using several extenders to reach up to 40 feet but USB.org (site
has all the White Papers, etc.) notes there could be significant data loss doing this. Therefore,
do not use more than 15 feet for a passive extension cable. However, you may use Active
Extension 16 foot USB Repeater Cables. These cables may be connected serially for lengths
up to 80 feet. Data traffic is buffered to assure signal quality. Use the Active Extension cable
coming from the PC or PC hub and use one of USB A/B cables to complete the connection to
the peripheral device. The Active Extensions have A/A ends so they may be linked serially in
a chain. Peripheral devices have a "B" receptacle (female port about 3/8" square) so you will
need an A/B cable at the end of the chain to connect to the peripheral device.
USB Connector
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Question 9
Which of the following statements are TRUE about Secure Digital (SD) Card and
MultiMediaCard (MMC)? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Devices with MMC slots can use the SD cards, but the standard MMCs will not fit into the SD
slots.
B. SD cards generally measure 32 mm × 24 mm × 2.1 mm, while MMCs measure 24 mm x 32
mm x 1.4 mm.
C. Both MMC and SD cards provide encryption capabilities for protected content.
D. MMCs are generally used in portable devices while SD cards are intended for desktop
computer.
E. Most MMCs have the write-protect tab on the side, while SD cards do not.
F. MMCs can be used in most devices that support SD cards.
Answer:
BCF
Explanation
The SD (Secure Digital) card is a tiny memory card used to make storage portable among
various devices, such as car navigation systems, cellular phones, eBooks, PDAs,
smartphones, digital cameras, music players, camcorders, and personal computers. An SD
card features a high data transfer rate and low battery consumption, both primary
considerations for portable devices. It uses flash memory to provide nonvolatile storage,
which means that a power source is not required to retain stored data. SD card capacities
range from 8 MB to 2 GB.
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An SD card is about the size of a postage stamp and weighs approximately two grams. It is
similar in size to a MultiMediaCard, but smaller than older memory card types such as the
SmartMedia card and the CompactFlash (CF) card. Both MMC and SD cards provide
encryption capabilities for protected content to ensure secure distribution of copyrighted
material, such as digital music, video, and eBooks.
SDHC (Secure Digital High Capacity, or SD 2.0) is an extension of the SD standard and
has the capacities ranging from 4 GB to 32 GB as of 2008. Although SDHC uses the same
form factor as SD, SDHC cards can only work with SDHC compatible devices. However, SD
cards can work with both SD and SDHC compatible devices.
The MultiMediaCard (MMC) is a flash memory card standard. Unveiled in 1997 by
Siemens AG and SanDisk, it is based on Toshiba's NAND-based flash memory, and is
therefore much smaller than earlier systems based on Intel NOR-based memory such as
CompactFlash. MMC is about the size of a postage stamp: 24 mm x 32 mm x 1.4 mm. MMC
originally used a 1-bit serial interface, but newer versions of the specification allow transfers
of 4 or sometimes even 8 bits at a time. They have been more or less superseded by Secure
Digital cards (SD card), but still see significant use because MMCs can be used in most
devices that support SD cards.
The differences between SD card and MMC
SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but have a number of
differences:
(1) The SD card is asymmetrically shaped in order not to be inserted upside down, while an
MMC would go in most of the way but not make contact if inverted.
(2) Most SD cards are physically thicker than MMCs. SD cards generally measure 32 mm ×
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24 mm × 2.1 mm, while MMCs measure 24 mm x 32 mm x 1.4 mm.
(3) Although the write-protect is optional, most SD cards have the write-protect tab (or
switch) on the side. MMCs do not have this feature.
(4) The contacts of SD cards are recessed beneath the surface of the card (like Memory Stick
cards), protecting the contacts from contact with the fingers.
(5) SD cards typically have higher data transfer rates, but this is always changing,
particularly in light of recent improvements to the MMC standard.
Devices with SD slots can use the thinner MMCs, but the standard SD cards will not fit into
the thinner MMC slots. SD cards can be used in CompactFlash (CF) or PC card slots with an
adapter. miniSD and microSD cards can be used directly in SD slots with a physical interface
adapter. There are some SD cards with a USB connector for dual-purpose use, and there are
card readers that allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such as USB,
FireWire, and the parallel printer port. SD cards can also be accessed via a floppy disk drive
with a FlashPath adapter.
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SD card, mini SD card, and micro SD card (from top to bottom)
30
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Question 10
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about KVM switch, switch, firewall, and
proxy server? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. The KVM switch segments a network.
B. The switch reduces device needs in a data center.
C. The firewall caches web data and images.
D. The proxy server protects an internal network.
Answer:
ABCD
Explanation
The KVM switch allows a user to connect a single keyboard, video display device, and mouse
to multiple computers. It reduces device needs in a data center. KVM switches include
multiple input connectors, including PS2, VGA, and USB connectors.
The switch segments a network. The firewall protects an internal network. The proxy server
caches Web data and images.
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Question 11
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about ATX (Advanced Technology Extended)
and ITX (Information Technology Extended) motherboards?
A. ATX can support a maximum of seven expansion slots and has a 20-pin power connector.
B. ATX can support Extended Data Output (EDO) Random Access Memory (RAM).
C. Mini ITX motherboards are small in height and width when compared to Micro ATX ones.
D. MIni ITX motherboards come with only a single PCle lane.
Answer:
C
Explanation
ATX (Advanced Technology Extended) motherboards are generally an improvement over AT
and baby AT motherboards and provide more space for expansion slots, such as Industry
Standard Architecture (ISA), Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), and Accelerated
Graphics Port (AGP) card slots. An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven
expansion slots.
An ATX motherboard supports a 20-pin power connector. A 20-pin power connector consists
of a single connector that can only be connected in one way to the motherboard. A 12-pin
power connector is supported on AT and baby AT motherboards. A 12-pin power connector
is a combination of two 6-pin power connectors where the P8 and P9 pins are together.
Therefore, you must ensure that the black wires are adjacent to each other while connecting
a 12-pin power connector to the motherboard.
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The ATX power supply standard was developed to provide a better way to plug the power
supply into the motherboard. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are NOT in line
with each other on an ATX motherboard. The memory slot on an ATX motherboard, also
referred to as a RAM slot, is placed at a 90 degree angle to all expansion slots. The processor,
memory, and expansion slots are oriented parallel to each other on AT and baby AT types of
motherboards. An ATX motherboard cannot support EDO RAM, which is considered
obsolete.
ITX (Information Technology Extended) is a smaller form factor of motherboards. It was
first introduced in 2001 by VIA Technologies, beginning with the Mini-ITX. Later, there were
other versions, known as the Nano-ITX, Mobile ITX, the Pico ITX and the micro ITX.
ITX motherboards come in smaller dimensions compared to ATX ones. Mini-ITX
motherboards are small in height and width when compared to Micro ATX ones. Mini-ITX
motherboards come with only a single PCle lane.
Micro-ATX, ITX, and Mini-ITX use the 20- or 24-pin power connectors.
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Question 12
The integrated GPU is used to:
A. Provide video capture capability
B. Provide additional memory
C. Process gaming applications
D. Process video and graphics
Answer:
D
Explanation
The integrated GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is used to process video and graphics.
The paging file provides additional memory capabilities. The video capture card provides
video capture capability.
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Question 13
You are going to install a wireless keyboard and a wireless mouse in your client’s computer.
What technology would be the best solution?
A. Bluetooth
B. IrDA
C. Wi-Fi
D. IEEE 802.11
Answer:
A
Explanation
Bluetooth would be the best solution for connecting electronic devices, such as keyboards
and mice, in short intervals without needing any wires or special connectors. IrDA (Infrared,
or IR) can also be used in wireless keyboards and mice, but it is limited by the need of an
unobstructed line-of-sight between connecting devices. IEEE 802.11 is a family of standards
introduced by IEEE for wireless Ethernet networks. Wi-Fi is a brand originally licensed by the
Wi-Fi Alliance for utilizing one of the IEEE 802.11 wireless standards to achieve a wireless
network.
Bluetooth is competing against two other major methods of wireless networking: IrDA and
WiFi. However, WiFi is most useful as a replacement for LANs and IrDA is limited by its need
for an unobstructed line-of-sight between connecting devices. However, Bluetooth has no
native support for IP, thereby does not support TCP/IP and wireless LAN well. It is best suited
for connecting electronic devices in short intervals without needing any wires or special
connectors.
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Bluetooth, also known as IEEE 802.15.1, is a specification for wireless personal area
networks that facilitates the exchange of data between electronic devices, such as mobile
phones, PDAs, laptops, PCs, keyboards, mice, and printers and digital cameras.
Bluetooth is a RF technology that operates at 2.45 GHz with an effective range of 1 meter to
100 meters depending on the device class, Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3, being used. It has
a transfer rate of up to 3 Mbps (utilizing Enhanced Data Rate, EDR, in Bluetooth 2.0).
Because Bluetooth uses short-range radio frequencies, it is useful when transferring
information between two or more devices that are near each other in low-bandwidth
situations. Bluetooth is commonly used to transfer sound data with phones (i.e. with a
Bluetooth headset) or byte data with hand-held computers (transferring files). Besides,
Bluetooth devices usually have low power consumption.
Each Bluetooth enabled device is assigned a unique 48-bit address and a 24-bit class
identifier. The class identifier provides information as to the nature of the device (phone, PC,
etc.) and is transmitted to other devices performing an inquiry. Products with Bluetooth
technology must be qualified and pass interoperability testing by the Bluetooth Special
Interest Group (SIG) prior to release.
Bluetooth devices would provide data encryption to ensure private communication if it is
paired with passkey. This security implementation is necessary for devices such as wireless
keyboards where passwords and other sensitive information may be typed.
A Bluetooth device acting as "master" can communicate with up to 7 devices acting as
"slave" to form an ad-hoc computer network called piconet (1 master plus 7 slaves). It
allows up to 255 further slave devices to be inactive or parked, and allows the master device
to bring them into active status at any time. Usually, the master switches rapidly from slave
to slave in a round-robin fashion to have data transferred. Either device may switch the
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master/slave role at any time. When an inquiry is sent to a Bluetooth device, it will generally
return the device name, device class, a list of services, and the technical information on the
device.
The latest version of Bluetooth by the end of 2019 is version 5.2.
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Question 14
Recently your Chief Technology Officer asked you to implement drive-level encryption for
security provided by BitLocker. What technology should you use?
A. NTFS
B. TPM
C. EFS
D. SSL
Answer:
B
Explanation
TPM (Trusted Platform Module, also known as ISO/IEC 11889) is an international standard
for a secure cryptoprocessor, a dedicated microcontroller designed to secure hardware
through integrated cryptographic keys.
The primary scope of TPM is to assure the integrity of a platform. It is to ensure that the boot
process starts from a trusted combination of hardware and software, and continues until the
operating system has fully booted and applications are running.
Full disk encryption utilities, such as dm-crypt and BitLocker, can use this technology to
protect the keys used to encrypt the computer's storage devices and provide
integrity authentication for a trusted boot pathway that includes firmware and boot sector.
dm-crypt is a transparent disk encryption subsystem in Linux kernel versions 2.6 and later
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and in DragonFly BSD. BitLocker is a full volume encryption feature included with Microsoft
Windows versions starting with Windows Vista. It is designed to protect data by
providing encryption for entire volumes
NTFS (New Technology File System), EFS (Encrypting File System), and SSL (Secure
Sockets Laye) are not used to implement drive-level encryption for security provided by
BitLocker.
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Question 15
Michael uses an older laptop that only has a standard VGA port. However, he needs to connect
his laptop to a HDMI display and interface for presentation at office. What is the most
cost-effective solution for him to fix this compatibility issue?
A. Purchase a portable projector for VGA
B. Purchase a new laptop with both VGA and HDMI connectors
C. Purchase an HDMI to DVI cable
D. Purchase a VGA to HDMI adapter
Answer:
D
Explanation
VGA, DVI, and HMDI are interfaces used for connecting various devices, such as computers,
laptops and projectors, to a display.
VGA and DVI are older standards that carry only a video signal. HDMI is now the default
cable standard for newer electronic devices. It can carry both digital video and audio signals.
The most cost-effective solution for Michael to fix this compatibility is to purchase a VGA to
HDMI adapter. The adapter features a VGA input and an HDMI output by providing a 3.5mm
audio input to accompany the VGA video input.
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Question 16
Which of the followings is NOT a common BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) error?
A. Unexpected_Kernel_Mode_Trap
B. Distended Capacitors
C. Irq1_not_less_or_equal
D. Unexpected Shutdown
E. Pin Wheel Error
Answer:
D
Explanation
To be an A+ technician, you must recognize the following symptoms:
POST Beep Code
The Power-On Self Test (POST) checks the devices for functionality when the system boots.
A series of beep codes will sound to indicate the problem if the device fails during the POST.
The beep codes vary depending on the manufacturer of the BIOS. You need to be familiar
with the beep codes of the major BIOS manufacturers or know how to locate the beep codes.
One short beep means that the system is operational.
Attempts To Boot To Incorrect Device
This issue is usually caused by the BIOS boot order. If a non-bootable floppy, CD-ROM, DVD,
or USB drive is listed as the first boot device and is left in the device at boot time, the
computer would display a Non-system disk or disk error at startup. Once it is removed from
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the drive, the system would boot successfully. If you want, you can change the boot order in
the BIOS. Also, this issue may be caused by the missing or corrupt boot files. If so, you
should enable boot logging from the Windows Advanced Menu and use the Windows
installation DVD to replace the missing or corrupt boot files.
Continuous Reboot
Reboots are usually caused by electrical issues, power supply issues, or overheating.
Brownouts or blackouts cause computers to reboot. Attaching a computer to an
uninterruptible power supply (UPS) will ensure that you can safely shut down the computer
if these occur. If the power supply in the computer is the issue, you should replace it with one
that supplies adequate power to the computer. Finally, if overheating is causing the reboots,
you should check all fans and ensure that the CPU heat sink is still attached. You may need
to replace these or add another cooling device to your computer.
Blank Screen On Bootup
The blank screen is usually caused by a video device problem. Check and see if the monitor
is plugged in to the wall socket, plugged into the computer, and is turned on. It may also be
necessary to test the wall outlet and check that the computer is plugged into the wall socket
and is turned on. At last, you may consider replacing the video card with a known-good
video card. If you hear the system fan but the computer is not making the POST beep sound,
you may have a failed motherboard.
BIOS Times and Settings Reset
This issue is due to the CMOS battery. You should replace the CMOS battery and reset the
BIOS settings.
Loud Noise
Loud noise is usually caused by system fans, the power supply, or the hard drives because
very few internal devices have moving parts. Check those three devices to trace the noise.
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Replace the part that is making the noise because the noise usually means that the device
is close to failure.
No Power
Verify that the computer is plugged in and that the wall outlet is supplying power. If a UPS or
surge protector is used, make sure its breaker was tripped by a power surge. At last, check
the computer's power supply by replacing with known-good unit.
Intermittent Device Failure
Check and see if you have the latest driver for the device. If the problem persists, you should
replace the device. If intermittent failures are occurring with different devices, you may
need to replace the motherboar.
Fans Spin But No Power To Other Devices
If no beep codes are heard, you probably have motherboard failure. If you hear beep codes,
record the code that is heard and research that code to find the problem device. This
problem could also mean that the power supply was not properly plugged into the
motherboard.
Indicator Lights
Many components in a computer have indicator lights. In most cases, indicator lights will
blink when activity is occurring and will be steady green when idle. However, some devices
will have other lights and/or colors. Always check the vendor documentation. If problems
continue, you should replace the device.
Overheating
This issue is usually caused by the cooling fan or cooling system failures. Check and see if
that all open slots are covered and all system fans are functional.
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Smoke or Burning Smell
When this occurs, you should shut down the computer immediately, locate the device that is
the problem, and then replace that device.
System Lockup
When the system lockups, it mysteriously stops functioning and no error or BSOD is
displayed. The system lockups are usually caused by memory issues, viruses, malware, or
video issues. You should first check the system log files to troubleshoot the issue.
Unexpected Shutdown
An unexpected shutdown without a particular error message is usually caused by the
overheating. Ensure that all fans are working effectively and consider deploying additional
cooling options. Also check all open ports in the computer and see if they all have a cover. If
the unexpected shutdown is accompanied by a blue screen of death (BSOD), see the
solutions for BSOD below.
Proprietary Crash Screens (BSOD/pin wheel)
BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors are usually caused by the hardware issues. You should
try to replace hardware one device at a time and reboot the system. If the new hardware did
not fix the issue, then that component is not the issue. Replace the component with the
original and try replacing another component.
There are some of common BSOD errors as follows:
Data_Bus_Error
This error indicates that faulty hardware has been installed or existing hardware has failed.
It is usually caused by RAM, cache, or video RAM.
Unexpected_Kernel_Mode_Trap
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Remove or replace any recently installed hardware. Run hardware diagnostics to determine
which component has failed. Replace the failed hardware. This error can also be caused if
you set the CPU to run at a higher speed than the CPU supports.
Page_Fault_in-nonpaged_area
This errors is caused by RAM, cache, or video RAM, Replace the failed component.
Irq1_not_less_or_equal
This issue is usually caused by a device driver, system service, virus scanner, or backup tool
that is not compatible with the version of Windows you are running. Make sure that all your
drivers and software is updated to the version that is compatible with the Windows OS you
are using.
Pin Wheel Error
This occurs when you see the spinning rainbow pin wheel. The causes may include bugs in
applications, event processing issues, and virtual memory issues.
Distended Capacitors
Capacitors are included in computers on the motherboards, video cards, and power supplies.
Capacitors can fail prematurely, causing the capacitor's case to bulge or rupture. In most
cases, the only way to fix this problem is to replace the card that has the swollen capacitor.
It is possible to replace them, but the process requires soldering experience. Replacing the
capacitor is an electrical hazard and should only be attempted with proper training.
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Question 17
Which of the following is the subnet mask that can be used for a standard class A address?
A. 255.255.255.255
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.0.0.0
Answer:
D
Explanation
Subnet Mask, short for subnetwork mask, is a method of dividing a network of IP addresses
into groups.
For example:
(1) The subnet mask “255.0.0.0” is used for a standard class A address.
(2) The subnet mask “255.255.0.0” is used for a class B address.
(3) The subnet mask “255.255.255.0” is used for a class C address.
[Note]
255.255.255.255 is not a subnet address. It is used for a network broadcast.
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Question 18
You computer has a static IP address: 169.254.192.237. Which of the following classes does it
belong to?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
Answer:
B
Explanation
There are three classes of networks commonly used. These classes may be segregated by
the number of octets used to identify a single network, and also by the range of numbers
used by the first octet.
(1) Class A networks: the first octet ranges from 1 to 126.
(2) Class B networks: the first octet ranges from 128 to 191.
(3) Class C networks: the first octet ranges from 192 to 223.
(4) Class D networks: the first octet ranges from 224-239.
(4) Class E networks: the first octet ranges from 240-254.
Some first-octet values have special meanings:
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(1) First octet 127 represents the local computer, regardless of what network it is really in.
This is useful when testing internal operations.
(2) First octet 224 and above are reserved for special purposes such as multicasting.
(3) Octets 0 and 255 are not acceptable values in some situations, but 0 can be used as the
second and/or third octet (e.g. 10.2.0.100).
A class A network does not necessarily consist of 16 million machines on a single network,
which would excessively burden most network technologies and their administrators.
Instead, a large company is assigned a class A network, and segregates it further into
smaller sub-nets using Classless Inter-Domain Routing. However, the class labels are still
commonly used as broad descriptors.
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Question 19
You need to build a Redundant Array of Independent Disks for your company's database server.
Considering the budget, you decide to implement Disk Mirroring and try to lower the cost.
Which of the following types of RAIDs should you implement?
A. Hardware RAID Level 0
B. Software RAID Level 1
C. Hardware RAID Level 3
D. Software RAID Level 5
E. Software RAID Level 10
Answer:
B
Explanation
Although a RAID with the hardware controller can handle the job itself without utilizing the
CPU, it is indeed more expensive. On the other hand, a RAID with the software
implementation would require the utilization of CPU, thus increasing the loading on the
system, but it costs less.
RAID Level 1 implements the Disk Mirroring.
RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks, also later known as Redundant Array of
Independent Disks) is a system which uses multiple hard drives to share or replicate data
among the drives for the purpose of fault tolerance and performance.
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Although there are a number of different RAID levels, only four of them are most commonly
implemented that you should keep in mind as follows:
RAID Level 0
Disk Striping, which is the process whereby data is spread out across multiple disk drives but
without redundancy. With striping, the system treats multiple disks as one. It improves
performance but does not provide fault tolerance.
RAID Level 1
Disk Mirroring, which is a mechanism whereby a second drive is added that is an exact copy
of the primary disk. Therefore, there are at least two hard drives required for RAID 1.
RAID Level 3
Similar to Level 0, except reserves a dedicated disk for storing parity and error correction
code (ECC) data. It provides good performance and some level of fault tolerance.
RAID Level 5
Disk Striping with Parity, which writes parity across all of the disks as well as the data. It
provides data striping at the byte level and also stripe error correction information (parity),
which results in excellent performance and good fault tolerance.
RAID Level 10
It is similar to RAID Level 1 with an exception that two used standard RAID levels are layered
in the opposite order; thus, RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors.
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Question 20
You want to use the NETSTAT command to display active TCP connections and Ethernet
statistics. What can you type in the command line to learn more about this command and its
switches? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. netstat /?
B. netstat ?
C. netstat \?
D. info netstat
E. help netstat
Answer:
AB
Explanation
To learn more about the specific command and its switches, you can type "[command] /?" in
the command line, for example, "xcopy /?". The command line window will show all
information for your reference.
For most general commands, like COPY, XCOPY, MD, etc., "help [command]" can be used to
get the same result, but "[command] ?" does not work.
For some special commands, like NETSTAT, NET, IPCONFIG, etc., "[command] ?" can be
used to get the same result, but "help [command]" does not work.
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Question 21
You are going to have a business travel to several countries with your laptop computer. What
should you carry about?
A. Oscilloscope
B. Voltage converter
C. Breakout Box
D. Wall plug adapter
Answer:
D
Explanation
The laptop computer is specially designed for travel without bringing the voltage converter.
It usually can adapt to 100-240 volts input. The only thing you need to carry about for travel
is a wall plug adapter due to the fact that electrical plugs and outlets in different countries
may vary.
Oscilloscope shows a line chart, time vs. voltage, which can be used to check voltages and
frequencies or examine a microprocessor clock signal.
Breakout Box is a piece of electronic test equipment used for accessing the individual pins on
an interface port or individual wires in a cable (serial port, parallel port, etc.) to diagnose
problems in computer communications.
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Question 22
Your client’s laptop computer works fine in office when it is attached to a docking station, but
receives some unexpected errors when booting alone at home without the docking station. You
realize that there are some additional hardware devices attached to the docking station and
being absent when the laptop boots alone. What will be the best solution to get this problem
fixed?
A. Uninstall and remove all additional hardware devices from the docking station
B. Install an identical docking station at home with all additional hardware devices attached
C. Create another hardware profile for booting the laptop alone
D. Create another user profile for booting the laptop alone.
Answer:
C
Explanation
Although both “Uninstall and remove all additional hardware devices from the docking
station” and “Install an identical docking station at home with all additional hardware
devices attached” can get the problem fixed, they are just not the good options.
The simplest and best solution is to create another hardware profile for booting the laptop at
home. By doing so, you can avoid those additional hardware devices attached to the docking
station when using the laptop at home.
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Question 23
David wants to keep track of his workout regimen more efficiently. Which of the following
devices is suitable for him? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. fitness monitor
B. smart glasses
C. smartphone
D. smart watch
Answer:
AD
Explanation
A fitness monitor or smart watch will be suitable for David.
Fitness monitors are available in all shapes and sizes and can be worn on the wrist, ankle, or
neck. They use a Bluetooth wireless connection to communicate with an application located
on a computer or portable device, such as a laptop. Fitness monitors are designed to read
body temperature, heart rates, sleep cycles, and blood pressure. They can also track the
distance you run or walk, and sometimes your elevation changes.
Some people use their smart watches as fitness monitors. A special device installed inside
the smart watch tracks their movement and records their activity levels.
Smart glasses are great tools for watching 3D video, and some actually come with an ear
piece that allows you to sync with Bluetooth and listen to as well. However, they do not
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provide any function to track your activity or fitness levels.
A smartphone would be able to track your motion, but not your sleep or heart rate. Not all
smartphones can be calibrated finely enough to record your motions accurately.
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Question 24
You want to connect your laptop computer to the Internet via the cellular broadband access.
Which of the following are feasible solutions? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Tether a cell phone to the laptop by using a USB connection.
B. Attach an 802.11b PC card to the laptop.
C. Attach a cellular WAN PC card to the laptop.
D. Attach a cellular WAN USB modem to the laptop.
E. Install a cellular WAN Bluetooth card to the laptop.
Answer:
ACD
Explanation
Wireless Broadband is a fairly new technology that provides high-speed wireless internet
and data network access over a wide area. Since the cellular phone towers are already in
place, cellular broadband access is rapidly becoming a popular means to access the Internet,
with or without a cell phone.
A user with a single computer can access the Internet by tethering their cell phone to their
laptop or PC, normally using a USB connection.
Alternatively, without requiring a cell phone, a user can simply purchase a cellular WAN PC
card or a USB modem to connect their PC or laptop to the internet via cell-phone towers.
This type of connection would be stable in any area that could also receive a strong
cell-phone connection. Some of these modem cards are compatible with cellular broadband
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routers, which allow more than one computer to be connected to the Internet using one
cellular connection.
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Question 25
You are handling the print jobs. After double-clicking the printer’s icon, what can you do to
save the documents onto the hard disk with the ready-to-print format so that you can use
them immediately once you connect to the printer?
A. Select Pause from the Document menu.
B. Select Properties from the Document menu.
C. Select Use Printer Offline from the Printer menu.
D. Select Sharing from the Printer menu.
Answer:
C
Explanation
By selecting Use Printer Offline form the Printer menu after double-clicking the printer’s icon,
you can save the documents onto the hard disk with the ready-to-print format. Then, when
you reconnect to the printer, you can uncheck Use Printer Offline to have the documents sent
to the printer.
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Question 26
Identify the type of computer cable connector shown in the exhibit.
A. SCSI
B. Firewire
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer:
D
Explanation
HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface), developed by Sony, Hitachi, Thomson (RCA),
Philips, Matsushita (Panasonic), Toshiba and Silicon Image, is a licensable audio/video
connector interface for transmitting uncompressed, digital streams. HDMI provides an
interface between any audio/video source, such as a set-top box, DVD player, or A/V
receiver and an audio and/or video monitor, such as a digital television (DTV), over a single
cable.
Although HDMI is not yet as popular as the DVI connector on video cards, it is mainly
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developed for connecting a high definition cable signal to the HDTV (High Definition TV). A
DVI to HDMI cable may be used to connect the computer to a HDTV. DVI/HDMI cables have
a single-link DVI-D connector on one end and an HDMI connector on the other. These cables
are bi-directional and function equally well in either direction: HDMI to DVI, or DVI to HDMI.
Please note that DVI does not pass audio so you will have to route your audio separately
when using a DVI to HDMI adapter or cable.
HDMI supports any TV or PC video format, including standard (VGA, XGA, SXGA), enhanced
or high-definition video, plus multi-channel digital audio on a single cable. In HDMI
Specification 1.0, the optional Consumer Electronics Control (CEC) channel includes a 1-wire
bi-directional serial bus, supporting bi-directional communication between devices.
The HDMI Specification includes three connectors:
Type A
19 pins, standard type of HDMI connector (13.9 mm wide by 4.45 mm high). It supports all
SDTV, EDTV and HDTV modes. It is also electrically compatible with single-link DVI-D.
Type B
29 pins, higher resolution version (21.2 mm wide). It can carry an expanded video channel
for use with very high-resolution future displays, such as WQSXGA (3200x2048). It is also
electrically compatible with dual-link DVI-D.
Type C
19 pins, mini-connector (10.42 mm by 2.42 mm). It is intended for portable devices.
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HDMI Connector
19-pin HDMI Type A Female Connector
61
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Question 27
Your client reports that her laptop LCD display worked fine yesterday, but started flickering for
a while and then totally failed this morning. What would most likely cause the problem?
A. The video card was bad
B. The LCD display was overheated
C. The power line was bad
D. The inverter was bad
Answer:
D
Explanation
In this case, the LCD display started flickering and then failed. It would be most likely an
inverter problem, which resulted in a malfunction of backlight.
[About LCD]
LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) is a type of flat display technology used in digital watches,
portable computers, calculators and flat screen displays. LCD displays is made of two sheets
of a flexible polarizing material with a layer of liquid crystal solution between them. An
electric current passes through the liquid, causing the crystals to align and activate, whereas
others do not. Light cannot pass through the crystals when they are activated. Each crystal,
therefore, works in an on/off manner like a shutter, either allowing light to pass through or
blocking the light. When individual crystals are colorized, LCD will provide a color display.
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The LCD does not refresh the image like a standard computer monitor utilizing the CRT
technology. Instead, the display is created by sending various voltages of electricity to cells
of liquid crystal causing the liquid crystal to untwist at the rate of electricity applied,
generating 64 different shades per cell.
Monochrome LCD images usually appear as blue or dark gray images on top of a
grayish-white background. Color LCD displays use two basic techniques for producing color:
passive-matrix and active-matrix.
Passive-Matrix Display
It consists of a grid of horizontal and vertical wires. At the intersection of each grid contains
a single LCD element that constitutes a single pixel, either letting light through or blocking
it. It is less expensive than active-matrix but does not provide the same quality as an
active-matrix display can. However, some new technologies such as DSTN (Double-layer
Super-twist Nematic), CSTN (Color Super-twist Nematic) and HPA (High Performance
Addressing) improve passive-matrix and produce sharp colors rivaling active-matrix. They
are usually used for low-end notebook computers.
Active-Matrix Display
It is also known as TFT (Thin Film Transistor). An active-matrix display is a liquid crystal
display found on notebook computers and flat panel displays. With active matrix displays,
each pixel is controlled by from one to four transistors which commonly make the screens
faster, brighter and more colorful than passive matrix. The TFT technology provides the best
resolution of all the flat-panel techniques, but it is also the most expensive.
[Laptop Displays]
Notebook or portable computers may use different display resolutions as given below:
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Standard 4:3 Aspect Ratio
SVGA (Super Video Graphics Array): 800 x 600
XGA (Extended Graphics Array): 1024 x 768
SXGA (Super Extended Graphics Array): 1280 x 1024
SXGA+ (Super Extended Graphics Array+): 1400 x 1050
UXGA (Ultra Extended Graphics Array): 1600 x 1200
Wide Screen 16:9 Aspect Ratio
WUXGA (Wide Ultra Extended Graphics Array) 1920 x 1200 (Best suited for HDTV)
[Note]
(1) Resolutions higher than 1024 x 768 are used for display sizes of 14 inches or above.
(2) The aspect ratio of a two-dimensional shape is the ratio of its longer dimension to its
shorter dimension.
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Question 28
What would happen if the backlight of LCD display is damaged? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. The LCD screen becomes too bright to see.
B. The LCD screen becomes too dark to see.
C. The LCD screen starts flickering.
D. Some noise comes out from the LCD screen.
E. A faint image can still be seen when looking closer.
Answer:
BE
Explanation
If there is a failure of backlight in the LCD display, the screen will become dark but a faint
image can still be seen when looking closer.
[Backlight]
A backlight is the form of illumination used in an LCD display. Backlights differ from
frontlights because they illuminate the LCD from the side or back, whereas frontlights are in
front of the LCD. They are used in small displays to increase readability in low light
conditions, and in computer displays and LCD televisions to produce light in a manner
similar to a CRT display.
The light source can be one or more Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp (CCFL) or Hot Cathode
Fluorescent
Lamps
(HCFL),
one
or
more
Light-Emitting
Diodes
(LEDs),
an
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ElectroLuminescent Panel (ELP), or an Incandescent Lamp.
CCFL backlights are used on large displays like computer monitors, and are usually white in
color. These also require the use of an inverter and diffuser. The primary CCFL configuration
used in LCD backlighting is edge lighting. A cold cathode fluorescent lamp is the light source
with a diffuser distributing the light evenly across the viewing area. CCFLs require an
inverter to supply the 270 to 300 VAC @ 35KHz used by the CCFL tube.
LED backlights offer a longer operating life - 50,000 hours minimum - and are brighter than
ELPs. Being a solid state device, they are configured to operate with typically a +5VDC
power (and optionally 12VDC power), so they do not require an inverter. The LED backlight
has two basic configurations; Array and edge lit. In both types, the LEDs are the light
source that are focused into a diffuser that distributes the light evenly behind the viewing
area.
ELP backlights are very thin, lightweight and provide an even light. They are available in a
variety of colors, with white being the most popular for use with LCDs. While their power
consumption is fairly low, they require voltages of 100 VAC @ 400Hz. This is supplied by an
inverter that converts a 5, 12 or 24 VDC input to the AC output.
Incandescent Lamp backlighting is only used where cost is a major factor. While
Incandescent lights are very bright, they are not uniform, generate a significant amount of
heat (which can cause problems at high temperatures), have short life spans, and use
significant power for the brightness achieved. They can provide very white light, but the
color can change with changing supply voltages, and they can be sensitive to shock and
vibration.
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Question 29
Your client reports that his laptop shows nothing on the LCD screen after booting up, while the
lights on the laptop appear as normal. What is the first step you should troubleshoot?
A. Use the function key to output the display to an external monitor.
B. Upgrade the system BIOS.
C. Take the LCD monitor apart to find out the problem.
D. Replace with a new LCD monitor.
Answer:
A
Explanation
By holding down the Fn key, and then pressing the function key that has a monitor picture,
you can switch the output display to a blank screen, a laptop screen, an external monitor, or
both of the laptop screen and external monitor.
The first step you should troubleshoot is to output the display to an external monitor and see
if the display can be shown normally. If there is no display on the external monitor, then the
problem might be caused by a malfunction video card.
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Question 30
Your client complains that when his laser printer finishes the print, the toner seems not to stick
to the paper. What defective component might cause the problem?
A. Fuser assembly
B. OPC drum
C. Toner cartridge
D. Transfer corona wire
Answer:
A
Explanation
In the Fusing stage of laser printing, the paper passes through a fuser assembly, which,
having rollers that provide heat (up to 200 degrees Celsius) and pressure, bonds the toner
(plastic powder) to the paper.
The toner to the laser printer is just like the ink is to the Inkjet printer. The toner is an
electrically charged powder that has two main components, plastic and pigments. The
pigment is responsible for imparting color onto the page. The pigment is blended with plastic
particles to avoid smudging and make an image look sharp.
If the toner seems not to stick to the paper, it is most likely that the fuser assembly is
damaged and fails to bond the toner to the paper.
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Question 31
In the Fusing stage of laser printing, the fusing rollers apply both pressure and heat to the
paper. How many degrees Celsius of heat will the fusing rollers provide?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
Answer:
B
Explanation
Laser printers use the same technology as photocopy machines do. Their speeds are
measured in PPM (Pages Per Minute).
There are typically six main phases of laser printing:
1. Cleaning
The beginning of each print cycle involves cleaning leftover toner from the photoreceptor, a
revolving photosensitive drum which is capable of holding an electrostatic charge on its
surface as long as it hasn't been exposed to certain wavelengths of electromagnetic
radiation. In this phase, an electrically neutral rubber blade cleans any excess or leftover
toner from the photoreceptor and deposits it into a waste reservoir, and a discharge lamp
removes the remaining charge from the photoreceptor.
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Summary: Rubber blade takes leftover toner off, and then Lamps erase (neutralize) the
photoreceptor.
2. Charging or Conditioning
A large charge (typically negative, but it depends on the printer) is applied to the surface of
the photoreceptor (often higher than -600 volts) via the primary corona wire or a
conditioning roller. The other side of the photoreceptor is connected to power supply ground.
Summary: A negative charge is applied to the photoreceptor.
3. Writing
A Raster Image Processor (RIP) chip converts incoming images to a raster image suitable for
scanning onto the photoreceptor. The laser is aimed at a moving mirror which directs the
laser beam through a system of lenses and mirrors onto the photoreceptor. Fixed lasers
(now typically laser diodes) are used because they generate a coherent beam of light for a
high degree of accuracy. Wherever the laser strikes the photoreceptor, the negative charge
is discharged, thus forming a latent or potential electro-photographic image on the
photoreceptor surface.
Summary: The laser writes the latent image on the photoreceptor.
4. Developing
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The surface containing the latent image is exposed to toner, very fine particles of dry plastic
powder mixed with carbon black or coloring agents. The charged toner particles are
electro-statically attracted to the photoreceptor where the laser wrote the latent image.
Usually, the toner cartridge is provided a small electrical charge that pushes toner onto the
photoreceptor and loose particles back into the toner cartridge.
Summary: Toner is attracted to areas on the photoreceptor that the laser wrote to.
5. Transferring
The photoreceptor is pressed or rolled over paper, transferring the image. The transfer
corona wire (or charged transfer roller for higher end machines) with an opposite charge
(typically positive) is on the back-side of the paper, and then the electromagnetic difference
in the charges pulls the toner off of the photoreceptor and onto the paper.
Summary: The toner is moved from the photoreceptor to the paper due to the
electromagnetic difference.
6. Fusing
It is the final phase of laser printing. The paper passes through a fuser assembly, which,
having rollers that provide heat (up to 200 degrees Celsius) and pressure, bonds the plastic
powder (the toner) to the paper. Two rollers are involved in this process - the fusing roller
and the pressure, or backup, roller. Usually, the fusing roller is heated by a quartz heating
lamp that is temperature-controlled by a thermal fuse or temperature sensor to prevent
overheating damage.
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Summary: A fuser assembly bonds (melts) the toner to the paper.
[Note]
The photoreceptor used in laser printers is usually a revolving photosensitive drum called
OPC (Organic Photo Conductor) drum. It is made of a special material that holds an electrical
charge for the printing process. OPC drums are sensitive to light and should be stored in light
proof wrapping. Also, one side of the drum should be connected to the power supply ground.
[Mnemonic]
Cleaning - Charging - Writing - Developing - Transferring - Fusing
(Can - Chris - Write - Down - The - Facts)
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Question 32
What utility can be used in the Windows machine to obtain the information about MAC address,
IP address, subnet mask, and default IP gateway?
A. NETSTAT
B. WINIPCFG
C. IPCONFIG
D. NSLOOKUP
Answer:
C
Explanation
TRACERT
TRACERT is a Windows based command-line tool that you can use to trace the path that an
IP (Internet Protocol) packet takes to its destination from a source. It is often used for
network troubleshooting, such as tracking down where connectivity was lost. By showing a
list of routers traversed and the time it takes from one router to another, it allows the user
to identify the path taken to reach a particular destination on the network. This can help
identify routing problems or firewalls that may be blocking access to a site. It is also used by
penetration testers to gather information about network infrastructure and IP ranges around
a given host.
PING
PING (Packet Internet Groper) is a utility to verify whether an IP address is reachable and
tell you whether or not a packet has been duplicated, lost or damaged. It will also report how
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long a packet takes for a round trip. It works by sending out an ICMP (Internet Control
Message Protocol) echo request packet to the specified address and waiting for an ICMP
echo response packet. PING is used primarily to troubleshoot local network or Internet
connectivity. PING is executed either from the command line of the NOS (Network Operating
System) or in the Windows Run box (or DOS prompt) by typing "ping [hostname or IP
address]". However, PING may be used by malicious users to attack the network, thus
posing the greatest threats to network performance and security.
PATHPING
PATHPING is a utility that can be used to locate spots that have network latency and network
loss. It combines the functionalities of PING and TRACEROUTE (or TRACERT in Windows
system), by sending multiple PING requests to each router between the two computers over
a period of time so as to compute results based on the packets returned from each router.
The advantages of pathping over ping and traceroute are that each node is pinged as the
result of a single command, and that the behavior of nodes is studied over an extended time
period, rather than the Ping's default sample of four messages or Traceroute's default single
route trace. The disadvantage is that, using the default settings, it often takes more than
five minutes to produce a result. PATHPING would provide more detailed information than
PING and TRACERT do for diagnosing the network connectivity.
NETSTAT
NETSTAT displays the TCP/IP network protocol statistics and information, including network
connectivity (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, ICMP statistics, and a number of
network interface statistics. It can be used for finding problems in the network and to
determine the amount of traffic on the network as a performance measurement.
ROUTE
ROUTE displays and modifies the entries in the local IP routing table. The routing table
shows the routes to particular network destinations. ROUTE cannot be used to troubleshoot
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connectivity and track down where the connection was lost as it does not show the route of
a specific packet in real time.
Telnet
Telnet is a terminal emulation program for TCP/IP networks such as the Internet. The Telnet
program runs on the computer and connects it to a server on the network. The commands
can be entered and executed through the Telnet program as if they were on the server
console. This can be used to control the server, run programs, and communicate with other
servers on the network.
IPCONFIG
IPCONFIG (Internet Protocol Configuration) is a TCP/IP utility that displays a Windows
NT/2000/XP computer's TCP/IP configuration, including host name, DNS (Domain Name
System) servers, node type, MAC address, DHCP (Dynamic Host Control Protocol) status, IP
address, subnet mask, and default IP gateway. You can use ipconfig /all (with the switch /all)
to display all detailed information.
WINIPCFG
WINIPCFG is a utility similar to IPCONFIG but mainly used in Windows 95 and Windows
98-based systems. It displays IP address information, including MAC address, IP address,
subnet mask, and the default gateway.
NSLOOKUP
NSLOOKUP (Name Server Lookup) enables a user to look up an IP address of a domain or
host on a network. It can be used to find out the IP address(es) associated with a particular
domain name, or the domain name associated with an IP address. For example, you may
type nslookup [domain name] in the command line and one or more IP addresses will be
displayed as long as the domain name is in the DNS records. Also, you can type in the IP
address to find out the associated domain name. Besides, NSLOOKUP will show the details
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relating to DNS, including IP addresses of a particular computer, MX records for a domain or
the NS servers of a domain, by using DNS lookups. NSLOOKUP can be used to manage a
DNS server in a domain environment.
IGMP
IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is the standard for IP multicasting, which
involves sending data to multiple recipients over the Internet or other network. IGMP is used
by IP hosts and adjacent multicast routers to establish multicast group memberships.
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Question 33
What bit rates are offered by B and D channels of ISDN BRI (Basic Rate Interface)?
A. 64 Kbps / 16 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps / 64 Kbps
C. 128 Kbps / 64 Kbps
D. 128 Kbps / 128 Kbps
Answer:
A
Explanation
[ISDN]
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is an international communications standard for
sending voice, video, and data over digital telephone lines or normal telephone wires. ISDN
supports data transfer rates of 64 Kbps per channel.
There are two basic types of ISDN as follows:
(1) Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
It consists of two 64-Kbps B channels and one 16-Kbps D channel for transmitting control
information. Together these three channels can be designated as 2B+D. The B channels of
an ISDN basic rate interface can be bonded to provide a total duplex bandwidth of 128 Kbps.
(2) Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
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It contains a greater number of 64-Kbps B channels and one 64-Kbps D channel. The
number of B channels for PRI varies depending on the nation: 23B+1D with an aggregate bit
rate of 1.544 Mbps namely T1 (North America and Japan); 30B+2D with an aggregate bit
rate of 2.048 Mbps namely E1 (Europe and Australia).
Compared to the original version of ISDN that employs baseband transmission, a different
version of ISDN, called BISDN (Broadband Integrated Services Digital Network), uses
broadband transmission and is able to manage different types of services at the same time
and support transmission a rate of 1.5 Mbps. It is primarily used within network backbones
and employs ATM. BISDN requires fiber optic cables and is not widely available.
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Question 34
Which of the following tools can be used to monitor network-attached devices with
pre-configured parameters?
A. Network Monitor
B. System Monitor
C. SNMP
D. Device Manager
Answer:
C
Explanation
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) was first introduced in 1988 and is used in
network management systems to monitor network-attached devices by using a distributed
architecture of management systems and agents. It is actually a query, command, and
response protocol to examine and change configuration parameters of LAN and WAN
connected repeaters, bridges, routers, switches, and other devices connected to a network.
SNMP is a useful tool that can be used to configure remote devices, monitor network
performance, detect network faults or inappropriate access, and audit network usage.
SNMP exposes management data in the form of variables on the managed systems, which
describe the system configuration. These variables can then be queried (and sometimes set)
by managing applications.
SNMP is currently available in three versions:
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(1) SNMP version 1 (SNMPv1): SNMP v1 is the first implementation of SNMP and is described
in RFC 1157. SNMP v1 operates within the specifications of SMI and has support for such
protocols as CLNS, DDP, IP, IPX, and UDP.
(2) SNMP version 2 (SNMPv2): SNMP v2, more appropriately known as SNMP v2c (as
described in RFC 1901), was first introduced in RFC 1441 and includes improved support
increasing efficiency and error handling.
(3) SNMP version 3 (SNMPv3): SNMP v3 was introduced in RFC 3410 and improves in
security and privacy.
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Question 35
What chip deals with the high-speed graphics bus such as AGP or PCI Express?
A. Super I/O
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. Phoenix
Answer:
B
Explanation
Super I/O
The super I/O chip combines interfaces for a variety of low bandwidth devices, including
floppy disk controller, parallel port (commonly used for printers), one or more serial ports,
keyboard and mouse interface. The super I/O chip may also contain other interfaces for a
joystick or infrared port.
Northbridge
In Northbridge/Southbridge chipset architecture designs, the Northbridge typically handles
communications between the CPU, RAM, AGP or PCI Express, and the Southbridge.
Additionally, some Northbridges are also integrated with video controllers, which are also
known as a Graphics and Memory Controller Hub (GMCH) in Intel systems. The Northbridge
chips communicate with the CPU through the FSB (Front-Side Bus).
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Southbridge
In Northbridge/Southbridge chipset architecture designs, the Southbridge is a chip that
implements the "slower" capabilities of the motherboard. It controls all of the computers I/O
functions, such as USB, audio, serial, system BIOS, ISA, PCI, DMA, the interrupt controller,
real time clock, nonvolatile BIOS memory, and the IDE (including SATA) channels.
The Southbridge can usually be distinguished from the Northbridge by not being directly
connected to the CPU. The Northbridge ties the Southbridge to the CPU.
Phoenix
Phoenix is a type of BIOS (Basic Input / Output System) software created by Phoenix
Technologies Ltd. The chip containing the BIOS is located on the mainboard, and it initializes
before the operating system and helps the OS communicate with the hardware. American
Megatrends Incorporated (AMI) is the other major BIOS creator.
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Typical Northbridge/Southbridge Layout
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Question 36
Which of the following protocols would change a computer's IP address every time it connects
to the network?
A. NetBEUI
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. ARP
Answer:
C
Explanation
USB 2.0/IP
TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol) is a suite of communication
protocols that are used to connect hosts on the Internet. TCP enables two hosts to establish
a virtual connection for exchanging streams of data, and guarantees that packets will be
delivered in the same order in which they were sent. Whereas, IP specifies the format of
packets (also called datagrams) and the addressing scheme. TCP/IP includes a number of
utilities that are useful for troubleshooting and providing network services. Please note not
to misname TCP as Transport Control Protocol.
UDP
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is defined in RFC 768. UDP is an alternative protocol to the
TCP/IP that runs on top of IP and is sometimes referred to as UDP/IP. Unlike TCP/IP, UDP is
connectionless and provides very few error recovery services, thus offering a faster
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transmission that sends and receives datagrams over an IP network. UDP is used primarily
for broadcasting messages over a network.
FTP
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used to transfer files across the Internet from one
computer to another. You can use FTP to either upload the files (from your computer to a
remote one) or download the files (from a remote computer to yours).
HTTP
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is a communications protocol for the transfer of
information on Intranets and Internet. Although its original purpose was to provide a way to
publish and retrieve hypertext pages over the Internet, HTTP has become more popular for
sending streaming video across the Internet.
DHCP
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows the dynamic
assignment of IP addresses on a network. In other words, a device will be assigned a
different IP address every time it connects to the network. In some systems, the device's IP
address can even change while it is still connected.
DNS
DNS (Domain Name System, or Service, or Server) is an Internet service that resolves
human-friendly text domain names of a destination to their numeric IP addresses by using
a distributed database that stores host domain names and their corresponding IP addresses.
For
example,
DNS
will
translate
a
human-friendly
domain
names,
such
as
"www.google.com", into its less friendly IP address such as 72.14.235.99, and vice versa.
WINS
WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is a NetBIOS name resolution service that allows
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client computers to register their NetBIOS names and IP addresses in a dynamic, distributed
database and to resolve the NetBIOS names of network resources to their IP addresses.
WINS was designed specifically to support NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT). WINS is required
for any environment in which users access resources that have NetBIOS names.
WINS and DNS are both name resolution services for TCP/IP networks. While DNS resolves
domain names to their corresponding IP addresses, WINS is used to resolve NetBIOS names
to their corresponding IP addresses. WINS primarily supports clients that run older versions
of Windows and applications that use NetBIOS. Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows
Server 2003 use DNS names in addition to NetBIOS names. Environments that include some
computers that use NetBIOS names and other computers that use domain names must
include both WINS servers and DNS servers.
ARP
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol responsible for resolving the IP address to
the physical MAC address of the destination. It works by broadcasting an ARP request onto
the TCP/IP network. The ARP request contains the IP address the sender is interested in
communicating with. Most hosts ignore the request, but the host that has the IP address in
the request replies with its physical hardware address. You may use the TCP/IP utility "ARP"
to display, add, change, or delete ARP address entries from a computer's ARP cache. When
under MS-DOS mode, simply type ARP to initiate this TCP/IP utility.
ARP Table
The ARP table is a table of IP addresses stored on a local computer, used to match IP
addresses to their corresponding MAC addresses.
RARP
RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that allows a physical address to
be translated into an IP address. When booted, the hosts such as diskless workstations often
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only know their hardware interface addresses (or MAC address) rather than their IP
addresses. They must broadcast their physical addresses and an external source, usually a
RARP server, replies with the host's IP address.
SMTP
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol responsible for transferring electronic mail
from the sender's server to the addressee's server. SMTP sends e-mail across the Internet to
addressee's mail server, which holds the mail for addressee in his/her mailbox. Addressee
may use mail client like POP3 or IMAP to download the e-mail from his/her mail server.
POP3
POP3 (Post Office Protocol) is a protocol responsible for downloading e-mail from the mail
server to the user's computer. The number 3 in POP3 represents the version of this protocol.
After downloading e-mail to the user's computer, POP3 removes e-mail from the mail server.
It is suitable for users who always log on from the same permanently workstation.
IMAP
IMAP (Interactive Mail Access Protocol) is a protocol similar to POP3 except that the e-mail
remains on the mail server indefinitely until the user decide to remove it. It is suitable for
users who regularly access their mail from different machines or email clients.
MIME
MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a standard format for attaching non-text
files, such as compressed files, sound files, graphic files, document files, video files, and
various other files, to a text base e-mail message.
X.400
X.400 is a set of standards developed by the ITU-T (at the time the CCITT) in cooperation
with ISO for the exchange of messages, both between people and between software
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applications. It is not really used for the Internet but almost entirely confined to in-house
applications.
NetBIOS
NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) allows for OSI Model Layer 5 (Session Layer)
communication.
NetBIOS
provides
two
functions:
naming
and
starting/stopping
communication sessions. NetBIOS names are 16 bytes in length but usually consist of 15
characters with the last being reserved for special purposes. NetBIOS names follow the UNC
format.
NetBEUI
NetBEUI (NetBIOS Extended User Interface) is an extended version of NetBIOS that uses
NetBIOS names (up to 15 characters in UNC format) and allows communication and data
transport between computers within a LAN. NetBEUI protocol is often referred to as NetBIOS
frame (NBF) protocol as it introduces the frame format that was not specified as part of
NetBIOS.
NetBEUI works at the OSI Model Layer 3 (Network Layer) and OSI Model Layer 4 (Transport
Layer). It is a non-routable protocol and must be adapted to other protocols, such as TCP/IP,
for Internet routing. Usually, both NetBEUI and TCP/IP are installed in the system and the
server is set up to use NetBEUI for communication within the LAN and TCP/IP for
communication beyond the LAN. NetBEUI is non-routable (unable to transmit through
routers) because the addressing system (up to 15 characters in UNC format) does not
provide unique identifiers or addresses.
NetBIOS and NetBEUI Applications
Both NetBIOS and NetBEUI were developed by IBM and have been adopted by Microsoft for
its Windows
NT, XP
and
2000, and
Windows for
Hewlett-Packard and DEC also use it in similar products.
Workgroup
products. Novell,
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IPX/SPX
IPX/SPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange) is a routable network
protocol used by the Novell NetWare operating systems. Like UDP, IPX is a datagram
protocol used for connectionless communications. SPX is a transport layer protocol (OSI
Model Layer 4) that sits on top of the IPX layer (OSI Model Layer 3 - Network Layer) and
provides connection-oriented services between two nodes on the network. IPX/SPX provides
connection services similar to TCP/IP, with the IPX protocol similar to IP and SPX similar to
TCP. IPX/SPX was primarily designed for LANs (Local Area Networks).
NWLink
NWLink is Microsoft's implementation of Novell's IPX/SPX protocols to allow a Microsoft
machine to communicate with a Novell server. NWLink includes an implementation of
NetBIOS atop IPX/SPX. It is a routable protocol.
Apple Talk
Apple Talk was developed by Apple Computer Corporation and is used with older Apple
computer systems. It is a routable protocol by using DDP at the network layer.
Gopher
Gopher is a system that displays files on Internet servers. Its goal was similar to that of the
World Wide Web, and it has been almost completely replaced by the Web. Gopher was
developed at the University of Minnesota and named after the school's mascot.
RIP
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a routing protocol used by computers, routers and
other network devices to broadcast known addresses, allowing networking devices to learn
available routes. It helps routers and other network devices dynamically exchange updates
to their routing tables. Although RIP is still actively used, it is generally replaced by OSPF or
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other more current routing protocols.
OSPF
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is an IP link-state networking routing protocol that helps
determine the best or shortest path to the next hop in a network. The latest version, version
3, supports IPv6 only, while OSPF version 2 supports IPv4.
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Question 37
What would be the most likely reason that Chip Creep (loose chips) occurs?
A. Thermal cycling
B. Defective chips
C. Vibration
D. Improper installation
Answer:
A
Explanation
Chip Creep refers to the problem that the chips have a tendency to be out of the socket over
time due to thermal cycling, the expanding and contracting during system heat up and cool
down. To fix chip creep, users would often have to remove the case cover and push the loose
chip back into the socket. However, Chip Creep are mainly referenced to older computer
systems since the chips in the modern systems are all soldered into place or are more
securely held by various types of retainer clips. But plug-in cards can still exhibit the
problem to a degree.
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Question 38
Which of the following media type can be used to store 4 GB data? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. CD-RW
B. DDS-3
C. DVD-R
D. Zip
E. DDS-2
F. DVD+R DL
Answer:
BCEF
Explanation
[Zip]
Zip is a hardware data storage device developed by Iomega, similar to the Standard 1.44"
floppy drive. What makes the Iomega zip drive unique is its capability to hold up to 100 MB
of data or 250 MB of data on new drives, and the wide use of these drives. Because the zip
diskettes are cheap media and commonly found, Zip Drives became very popular in late
1990s. Later, the Zip drives became less popular with the larger storage capabilities, uses,
and cheaper CD-R and CD-RW drives and discs.
[DDS]
Digital Data Storage (DDS) is a format for storing and backing up computer data on
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magnetic tape that evolved from Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology, which was originally
created for CD-quality audio recording.
DDS drives have data transfer rates ranging from 1.5 to 2.4 MBps and come in four different
types, DDS-1, DDS-2, DDS-3 and DDS-4.
DDS-1
It has a native capacity of up to 2 GB (4GB compressed).
DDS-2
It has a native capacity of up to 4 GB (8 GB compressed).
DDS-3
It has a native capacity of up to 12 GB (24 GB compressed). DDS-3 uses PRML (Partial
Response Maximum Likelihood). PRML eliminates electronic noise for a cleaner data
recording.
DDS-4
It has a native capacity of up to 20 GB (40 GB compressed). This format is also called DAT
40.
[CD-RW]
Compact Disc ReWritable (CD-RW) is a rewritable optical disc format. It can be used to store
up to 700 MB on a single optical disc.
[DVD+R / DVD-R]
DVD+R is a once-writable optical disc with 4.7 GB of storage capacity. It has slightly less
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storage capacity than the DVD-R 4.71 GB. The format was developed by a coalition of
corporations, known as the DVD+RW Alliance, in mid 2002. Since the DVD+R format is a
competing format to the DVD-R format, which is developed by the DVD Forum, it had not
been approved by the DVD Forum.
DVD+R can read and write to a DVD+RW or DVD+R disc, while DVD-R can read and write to
a DVD-RW or DVD-R disc.
[DVD+R DL / DVD-R DL]
DVD+R DL (DL stands for Double Layer) also called DVD+R9, is a derivative of the DVD+R
format standard. DVD+R DL discs employ two recordable dye layers, each capable of storing
nearly the 4.7 GB capacity of a single-layer disc, almost doubling the total disc capacity to
8.55 GB (or 7.96 GiB).
DVD-R DL (DL stands for Dual Layer), also called DVD-R9, is a derivative of the DVD-R
format standard. DVD-R DL discs hold 8.54 GB (7.96 GiB) per side by utilizing two
recordable dye layers, each capable of storing nearly the 4.7 GB (4.38 GiB) of a single layer
disc - almost doubling the total disc capacity.
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Question 39
What is the data verification for backups?
A. It ensures the backups are encrypted properly by decrypting the data.
B. It is a procedure to verify the access right for the backup data.
C. It verifies the backups by reading data back from the backup media.
D. It secures the backup data with password authentication.
Answer:
C
Explanation
[Backup Rotation Scheme]
A backup rotation scheme is a method for effectively backing up data where multiple media,
such as tapes, are used in the backup process. The scheme determines how and when each
piece of removable storage is used for a backup job and how long it is retained once it has
backup data stored on it. Different techniques have evolved over time to balance data
retention and restoration needs with the cost of extra data storage media. Such a scheme
can be quite complicated if it takes incremental backups, multiple retention periods, and
off-site storage into consideration.
There are many different types of tape rotation schemes available:
(1) Incremental Backup
The incremental backup is just backing up onto the oldest media in the set. So with a daily
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backup onto a set of 14 media, you would have 14 days worth of individual daily backups,
when all the tapes are used, the oldest one is inserted. This is the simple method that first
comes to mind to most new computer users wanting to do backups. It was commonly used
when people backed up regularly to floppy disks.
(2) Grandfather-Father-Son Backup
Grandfather-Father-Son Backup, originally designed for tape back up, works well for any
hierarchical backup strategy. The basic method is to define three sets of backups, such as
daily, weekly and monthly. The daily or Son backups are rotated on a daily basis with one
graduating to Father status each week. The weekly or Father backups are rotated on a
weekly basis with one graduating to Grandfather status each month. Often one or more of
the graduated backups is removed from the site for safekeeping and disaster recovery
purposes. The Grandfather-Father-Son Backup is one of the most popular methods
as it achieves multiple aims in having multiple recent backups as well as the ability to refer
to past revisions as well as archived data.
(3) Towers of Hanoi
The Towers of Hanoi rotation method is more complex. It is based on the mathematics of the
Tower of Hanoi puzzle, with what is essentially a recursive method. It is a smart way of
archiving an effective number of backups as well as the ability to go back over time, but it is
more complex to understand. Basically, every tape is associated with a disk in the puzzle,
and every disk movement to a different peg corresponds with a backup to that tape. So the
first tape is used every other day (1, 3, 5, 7, 9,...), the second tape is used every fourth day
(2, 6, 10, ...), the third tape is used every eighth day (4, 12, 20, ...).
A set of n tapes (or tapes sets) will allow backups for 2 n - 1 days before the last set is
recycled. So, three tapes will give seven days worth of backups and on the eighth day Set C
will be overwritten; four tapes will give fifteen days, and Set D is overwritten on day sixteen;
five tapes will give 31 days, etc. Files can be restored from 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, ..., 2 n days ago.
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(4) Incremented Media Method
This method has many variations and names. A set of numbered media is used until the end
of the cycle. Then the cycle is repeated using media numbered the same as the previous
cycle, but incremented by one. The lowest numbered tape from the previous cycle is retired
and kept permanently. Thus, one has access to every backup for one cycle, and one backup
per cycle before that. This method has the advantage of ensuring even media wear, but
requires a schedule to be pre-calculated. The system is generally too complex to mentally
calculate the next media to be used.
[Data Verification for Backups]
Data verification for backups ensures that backups are working correctly and the data can be
read from the backup media. It can be performed by using backup software that includes the
ability to perform data verification. The only disadvantage is that it lengthens the amount of
time that it takes to perform the backup.
There are two different levels of verification, depending on the software you are using. The
most secure level of verification is full verification, where each and every file that is backed
up is also verified by reading back from the backup medium. A lesser type of verification is
sampling verification. Here, instead of verifying everything that was backed up, a sample of
what was backed up is read back and verified. This makes the verification take much less
time, but of course doesn't do nearly as good a job. Usually full verification is easier to find
on most software than sampling.
The ultimate in backup verification is doing a test restore, but this takes both time and some
spare hardware. If you have an extra hard disk or PC, you can take your backup set and try
to restore the backup to this machine. If it works properly, you can feel confident that your
backup will probably protect you when you need it.
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[Off-site Data Protection]
Off-site Data Protection is the strategy of sending business critical data to an off-site location
as part of an IT Disaster Recovery Plan. It is important because it can prevent the data from
being destroyed if a disaster happens to the office or building where the computer resides.
Data is usually transported off-site using removable storage media such as magnetic tape,
but can also be sent off-site electronically via a remote backup service. Sending data offsite
electronically is also known as Electronic Vaulting (or E-Vaulting).
Although some organizations manage and store their own off-site backups, many chose to
have their backups managed and stored by third parties who specialize in the commercial
protection of off-site data.
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Question 40
What is the most important thing to do before flashing the BIOS on a computer?
A. Write down the CMOS settings.
B. Scan for viruses.
C. Wear an antistatic wrist strap.
D. Perform a BIOS backup.
Answer:
D
Explanation
Flash BIOS is a special type of ROM BIOS chip that can be erased and reprogrammed
electrically. This technology makes the BIOS upgrades online possible whenever the
manufacturer releases a new version of the BIOS. The process of upgrading BIOS online is
called "flashing the BIOS".
You should always perform a BIOS backup before flashing the BIOS, in case the upgrade
causes some unrecoverable errors.
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Question 41
What types of securities can be implemented on an 802.11b WLAN? (Select ALL THAT
APPLY)
A. VPN
B. WEP
C. PPTP
D. WPA
E. DES3
Answer:
BD
Explanation
The IEEE 802.11 is a family of standards introduced by IEEE in 1997 for wireless Ethernet
networks. IEEE 802.11 specifies an over-the-air interface between a wireless client and a
base station, or between two wireless clients.
There are some important specifications in the 802.11 family:
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IEEE
101
Indoor
Band
Rate
Modulation Scheme
Security
Note
Range
WEP
802.11
2 Mbps
2.4GHz
20m
FHSS or DSSS
Extended into 802.11b
WPA
WEP
802.11a
54 Mbps
5GHz
35m
OFDM
Wi-Fi certified 8 channels
WPA
Wi-Fi certified 14 channels*
WEP
802.11b
11 Mbps 2.4GHz
35m
DSSS with CCK
Fallback to 5.5, 2, and 1
WPA
Mbps
OFDM (above 20 Mbps)
WEP
802.11g
54 Mbps 2.4GHz
38m
DSSS with CCK (below
Wi-Fi certified 14 channels*
WPA
20 Mbps)
600
2.4GHz /
802.11n
WEP
70m
Mbps
5GHz
WPA
3466.8
802.11ac
WEP
5GHz
Mbps
Labelled as Wi-Fi 4
MIMO-OFDM
35m
labelled as Wi-Fi 4
MIMO-OFDM
WPA
* only 11 channels can be used in the U.S. due to FCC (Federal Communications Commission) regulations
[Note]
Wi-Fi Certified
Wi-Fi (or WiFi, Wireless Fidelity) is a brand originally licensed by the Wi-Fi Alliance. It utilizes
one of the IEEE 802.11 wireless standards to achieve a wireless network. The Alliance
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created another brand "Wi-Fi Certified" to denote products interoperable with other products
that are also Wi-Fi certified. A user with a "Wi-Fi Certified" product can use any brand of
access point with any other brand of client hardware that also is certified. However, any
Wi-Fi product using the same radio frequency (for example, 2.4GHz for 802.11b or 11g,
5GHz for 802.11a) will work with any other, even if not "Wi-Fi Certified".
WEP
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a type of encryption for WLANs (also known as Wi-Fi
networks) defined in the 802.11 standard. Because a wireless network broadcasts messages
using radio, it is particularly susceptible to eavesdropping. WEP is designed to provide the
same level of security as that of a wired LAN. WEP aims to provide security by encrypting
data over radio waves so that it is protected as it is transmitted from one end point to
another. However, it has been found that WEP is not as secure as once believed. Several
serious weaknesses were identified by cryptanalysts (any WEP key can be cracked with
readily-available software in two minutes or less). WEP is used at the two lowest layers of
the OSI model (the data link and physical layers), thus being lack of end-to-end security.
WEP was superseded by WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) in 2003, and then by the full IEEE
802.11i standard (also known as WPA2) in 2004.
WPA
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is an enhanced data encryption standard introduced with
802.11i wireless standard that improves upon the security features of WEP. The technology
is designed to work with existing Wi-Fi products that have been enabled with WEP. It
implements the majority of the IEEE 802.11i standard, and was intended as an intermediate
measure to take the place of WEP while 802.11i was prepared. WPA works with all wireless
network interface cards, but not necessarily with first generation wireless access points.
WPA2 replaced WPA. WPA2, which requires testing and certification by the Wi-Fi Alliance,
implements the mandatory elements of IEEE 802.11i. WPA2 implements the full standard,
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but will not work with some older network cards.
In January 2018, the Wi-Fi Alliance announced WPA3 as a replacement to WPA2. The new
standard uses an equivalent 192-bit cryptographic strength in WPA3-Enterprise mode, and
still mandates the use of CCMP-128 (AES-128 in CCM mode) as the minimum encryption
algorithm in WPA3-Personal mode.
FHSS
FHSS (Frequency-Hopping Spread Spectrum) is a spread-spectrum method of transmitting
radio signals by rapidly switching a carrier among many frequency channels, using a
pseudorandom sequence known to both transmitter and receiver.
DSSS
DSSS (Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum) is a spread-spectrum method of transmitting
radio signals by combining data at the sending station with a higher data rate bit sequence,
or chipping code, that divides the user data according to a spreading ratio.
CKK
CKK (Complementary Code Keying) is a set of 64 eight-bit code words used to encode data
for 5.5 and 11Mbps data rates in the 2.4GHz band of 802.11b and 802.11g wireless
networking.
OFDM
OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) is an FDM modulation technique for
transmitting large amounts of digital data over a radio wave..
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Question 42
Your client is using the laptop for web surfing, emailing, and creating documents only. Which
hard drive would you recommend to him in terms of best performance and reliability?
A. Magnetic Hard Drive
B. SSD (Solid State Drive)
C. Hybrid
D. eSata External Drive
Answer:
B
Explanation
SSD (Solid State Drive) is the best option.
Solid state drives are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives because they do NOT use a
read/write assembly, do not have any moving parts, and are resistant to shock. When in
operation, solid state drives are silent. SSDs are faster, more reliable, and require less power
than magnetic drives. On the flip side, SSDs are limited on storage space compared with
traditional hard drives.
There are hybrid and eMMC versions of SSD drives that work mainly in portables but are
used for testing purposes when troubleshooting hard drive failures due to their SATA port
compatibility. Hybrid drives are a combination of a hard drive with some moving parts and a
true SSD, which is basically flash memory. The data is stored differently but serves the same
purpose by giving uses a performance like an SSD. A hybrid would not be the solution here
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because an SSD would provide better performance and reliability.
Magnetic hard drives are very affordable but crash more easily than solid state drives due to
the way they are manufactured. They were extremely popular for years and reliable, unless
they were damaged. Then the only way you could repair them was to format them
(completely erase the data) and re-partition them. The reason they are so fragile is because
they have read/write heads that move across magnetic platters. They are easy to scratch
and break.
E-Sata drives are SSDs that have to be connected externally. They are great for backing up
and storing data off site, but not used for internal storage purposes. They also do not
perform as efficiently as internal SSDs. Laptops use either 1.8" or 2.5" hard drives. The 2.5"
drives are more popular and less costly. The 1.8" drives weigh less and are more power
efficient. In most cases, the 2.5" drives offer better performance because they have larger
caches and higher rotation speeds. The 1.8" drives are most often use in ultra-portable
laptops, iPads, and other mobile devices, while the 2.5" drives are used in traditional
laptops.
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Question 43
Which of the following is NOT a cloud model?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. YaaS
Answer:
D
Explanation
Cloud computing is the on-demand availability of computer system resources, especially data
storage (cloud storage) and computing power, without direct active management by the user.
Large clouds, predominant today, often have functions distributed over multiple locations from
central servers.
[Common Cloud Models]
IaaS (Infrastructure as a service)
IaaS refers to online services that provide high-level APIs used to abstract various low-level
details of underlying network infrastructure like physical computing resources, location, data
partitioning, scaling, security, backup, etc. A hypervisor runs the virtual machines as guests.
Pools of hypervisors within the cloud operational system can support large numbers of virtual
machines and the ability to scale services up and down according to customers' varying
requirements.
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IaaS-cloud providers supply resources on-demand from their large pools of equipment
installed in data centers. For wide-area connectivity, customers can use either the Internet or
carrier clouds (dedicated virtual private networks). To deploy their applications, cloud users
install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure. In
this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application
software. Cloud providers typically bill IaaS services on a utility computing basis: cost reflects
the amount of resources allocated and consumed.
PaaS (Platform as a service)
The capability provided to the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure
consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries,
services, and tools supported by the provider. The consumer does not manage or control the
underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but
has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the
application-hosting environment.
PaaS vendors offer a development environment to application developers. The provider
typically develops toolkit and standards for development and channels for distribution and
payment. In the PaaS models, cloud providers deliver a computing platform, typically including
operating system, programming-language execution environment, database, and web server.
Application developers develop and run their software on a cloud platform instead of directly
buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers. With some PaaS, the
underlying computer and storage resources scale automatically to match application demand
so that the cloud user does not have to allocate resources manually.
SaaS (Software as a service)
The capability provided to the consumer is to use the provider's applications running on a cloud
infrastructure. The applications are accessible from various client devices through either a thin
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client interface, such as a web browser (e.g., web-based email), or a program interface. The
consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network,
servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application capabilities, with the
possible exception of limited user-specific application configuration settings.
In SaaS model, users gain access to application software and databases. Cloud providers
manage the infrastructure and platforms that run the applications. SaaS is sometimes referred
to as "on-demand software" and is usually priced on a pay-per-use basis or using a
subscription fee. In the SaaS model, cloud providers install and operate application software in
the cloud and cloud users access the software from cloud clients. Cloud users do not manage
the cloud infrastructure and platform where the application runs. This eliminates the need to
install and run the application on the cloud user's own computers, which simplifies
maintenance and support. Cloud applications differ from other applications in their
scalability—which can be achieved by cloning tasks onto multiple virtual machines at run-time
to meet changing work demand. Load balancers distribute the work over the set of virtual
machines. This process is transparent to the cloud user, who sees only a single access-point. To
accommodate a large number of cloud users, cloud applications can be multitenant, meaning
that any machine may serve more than one cloud-user organization.
[Deployment Models]
Private Cloud
Private cloud is cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization, whether
managed internally or by a third party, and hosted either internally or externally. Undertaking
a private cloud project requires significant engagement to virtualize the business environment,
and requires the organization to reevaluate decisions about existing resources.
Public Cloud
A cloud is called a "public cloud" when the services are rendered over a network that is open for
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public use. Public cloud services may be free. Technically there may be little or no difference
between public and private cloud architecture, however, security consideration may be
substantially different for services (applications, storage, and other resources) that are made
available by a service provider for a public audience and when communication is effected over
a non-trusted network. Generally, public cloud service providers like Amazon Web Services
(AWS), IBM Cloud, Oracle, Microsoft, Google, and Alibaba own and operate the infrastructure
at their data center and access is generally via the Internet. AWS, Oracle, Microsoft, and
Google also offer direct connect services called "AWS Direct Connect", "Oracle FastConnect",
"Azure ExpressRoute", and "Cloud Interconnect" respectively, such connections require
customers to purchase or lease a private connection to a peering point offered by the cloud
provider.
Hybrid Cloud
Hybrid cloud is a composition of a public cloud and a private environment, such as a private
cloud or on-premises resources, that remain distinct entities but are bound together, offering
the benefits of multiple deployment models. Hybrid cloud can also mean the ability to connect
collocation, managed and/or dedicated services with cloud resources. Gartner defines a hybrid
cloud service as a cloud computing service that is composed of some combination of private,
public and community cloud services, from different service providers. A hybrid cloud service
crosses isolation and provider boundaries so that it can't be simply put in one category of
private, public, or community cloud service. It allows one to extend either the capacity or the
capability of a cloud service, by aggregation, integration or customization with another cloud
service.
Community Cloud
Community cloud shares infrastructure between several organizations from a specific
community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed
internally or by a third-party, and either hosted internally or externally. The costs are spread
over fewer users than a public cloud (but more than a private cloud), so only some of the cost
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Question 44
A user is just hired by a company that has 802.11g wireless Ethernet network built in the office.
The user needs to work with her own laptop computer in the office quite often and must
connect to the company’s Ethernet network, but her laptop has no built-in 802.11g NIC card.
What is your suggestion? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Install an 802.11g PCMCIA card
B. Install a USB 2.0 hub
C. Ask the company to provide a physical network cable
D. Install a USB 2.0 802.11g NIC card
E. Purchase a new laptop that has a built-in 802.11g NIC card
Answer:
AD
Explanation
Both USB 2.0 802.11g NIC card and 802.11g PCMCIA card will fit the user’s need and are
considered the two best options.
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Question 45
Which of the following power modes can you use to completely power down your laptop, and
later when startup, quickly resume from where you were working at?
A. Standby
B. Hibernate
C. Resume
D. Shutdown
Answer:
B
Explanation
Shutdown will completely power down the machine and later start from the beginning.
Standby does not power down the machine, but only turns off all nonessential hardware.
There is no Resume mode that can be chosen in the laptop. Hibernate is the one you can use
to completely power down the laptop and later quickly resume form where you were working
at.
[Power Saving Mode]
Hibernate Mode
When Windows hibernates, it dumps the entire contents of the RAM to disk and powers down
the entire machine. On startup, it quickly reloads the data back to RAM. This allows the
system to be completely powered off while in hibernate mode.
Hibernating and restoring from hibernate is generally faster than a hard reboot and, if
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necessary, can be done without user interaction (unlike shutting down, which often requires
the user to specify if open documents should be saved).
Microsoft Windows systems support hibernation at the operating system level without
special drivers from the hardware manufacturer. The file is called "hiberfil.sys" and is the
same size as total RAM. The file resides in the root of the system partition, usually
"C:\hiberfil.sys". The file is a hidden system file and uses up space even when not in
hibernation. To use hibernation, the hard disk needs to have at least as much free space as
there is RAM on the system. Hibernation is enabled by default and can be disabled in order
to recover disk space.
Standby mode
When Windows enters standby mode, it turns off all nonessential hardware components,
including the monitor, hard drives, and removable drives, but maintains power to the
computer's memory. This means that the system reactivates itself very quickly when "woken
up". This does not power down the system. In order to save power without user intervention,
a system can be configured to go to standby when idle and then hibernate if not
re-activated.
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Question 46
What is used to power the CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) in the
computer system?
A. CMOS Battery
B. Fuel Cell
C. Bridge Battery
D. Main Battery
Answer:
A
Explanation
There are three main categories of computer batteries:
(1) Backup Battery
It is commonly referred to as the CMOS Battery. It is used to power the CMOS
(Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor), which is an on-board semiconductor chip
and also known as a RTC/NVRAM or CMOS RAM. CMOS holds the computer's settings, such
as the system time and system settings, and allows the computer to be booted without
entering those settings each time. The standard lifetime of a CMOS battery is around 10
Years. However, this amount of time can change depending on the use and environment that
the computer resides.
(2) Bridge Battery
It is only found within portable computers and is used as a temporary backup for the main
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battery. This allows the main battery to be temporarily removed for replacement with a good
battery without having to turn off the computer.
(3) Main Battery
It is only used with portable computers and is used as an alternate source of power when the
computer is not connected to a standard wall outlet.
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Question 47
How many pins does DDR4 SDRAM have?
A. 128 pins
B. 168 pins
C. 184 pins
D. 240 pins
E. 288 pins
Answer:
E
Explanation
Standard SDRAM DIMMs (or SDR DIMMs): 168 pins, 3.3 volts
DDR SDRAM DIMMs (or DDR DIMMs): 184 pins, 2.5 volts
DDR2 SDRAM DIMMs (or DDR2 DIMMs): 240 pins, 1.8 volts
DDR3 SDRAM DIMMs (or DDR3 DIMMs): 240 pins, 1.5/1.35 volts
DDR4 SDRAM DIMMs (or DDR4 DIMMs): 288 pins, 1.2/1.05 volts
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Question 48
Which of the following memory types could be found in a laptop? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. MicroDIMM
B. FB-DIMM
C. SoDIMM
D. RIMM
E. SIMM
Answer:
AC
Explanation
Both SoDIMMs and MicroDIMMs could be found in laptop computers. SoDIMMs are
commonly utilized in notebook computers, while MicroDIMMs are primarily used in
sub-notebook computers.
SoDIMM
SoDIMM (or SO-DIMM, Small Outline DIMM) is a type of computer memory integrated circuit.
It is a smaller alternative to a DIMM with roughly half the size of regular DIMMs. SoDIMMs
are commonly utilized in laptops, small footprint PCs, high-end upgradeable office printers
and networking hardware like routers.
SoDIMMs are available in 100-pin SDRAM, 144-pin SDRAM, 200-pin DDR, 200-pin DDR2,
204-pin DDR3, and 260-pin DDR4 modules.
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You may recognize the different types of SoDIMMs via the distinctive notches on them. The
100-pin module has two notches, 144-pin has a single notch near the center, 200-pin has a
single notch nearer to one side, 204-pin has a single notch closer to the center than on
200-pin, and 260-pin has a single notch after pin 144.
MicroDIMM
MicroDIMM (or Micro-DIMM, Micro Dual In-Line Memory Module) is a type of computer
memory integrated circuit. It is smaller than a SoDIMM (Small Outline DIMM) and primarily
used in sub-notebook computers (or kneetop, ultraportable). MicroDIMMs are available in
144-pin SDRAM, 172-pin DDR, 214-pin DDR2, and 214-pin DDR3.
MicroDIMM memory module requires 35% less space than the SoDIMM at same memory
density. This is achieved by using a slim mezzanine connector which is directly attached on
the DIMM. With the MicroDIMM, the small sized notebooks like sub-notebooks can be
supported, which are expected to penetrate the market in the next years due to the mobility
trend.
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Question 49
What is INCORRECT about the parity and non-parity RAM?
A. Parity RAM includes one more bit for storing error detection information.
B. Non-parity RAM has no error detection capability.
C. Parity RAM has higher memory access performance when compared to non-parity RAM
manufactured with the same technology.
D. Parity RAM has higher storage capacity per chip when compared to non-parity RAM
manufactured with the same technology.
Answer:
C
Explanation
Parity is a basic method of checking data for errors during a transmission or on a data
storage mechanism. Parity works by setting a parity bit to an even or odd number. If the
binary stream contains eight 0's or 1's, for example, we know that this is an even number;
however, if the parity bit indicates that this number should be an odd number we would be
able to easily determine that the data is corrupt.
Parity RAM is the RAM that stores a parity bit for error detection purposes. Whereas,
non-parity RAM does not include a parity bit as RAM does. Parity RAM requires one additional
bit to be stored with each byte of information for error detection, thus decreasing the access
performance and the storage capacity per chip when compared to non-parity RAM
manufactured with the same technology.
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Logic parity RAM is non-parity RAM and has no error detection capability. It is used in the
computers that require parity RAM. Logic parity RAM recalculates the parity bit each time a
byte is read from the memory, but never stores the parity bit when the memory is written to.
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Question 50
Which of the following are TRUE about heat sinks? (Select ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Heat sinks are used to increase the temperature of hot devices.
B. There are two types of heat sinks available, active and passive heat sinks.
C. All modern CPUs require a fan instead of a heat sink.
D. Heat sinks are typically made of plastic materials and often have fins.
E. Thermal paste is used to ensure placing the heat sink directly onto the CPU without air gaps.
Answer:
BE
Explanation
Heat Sink
A Heat Sink is a component designed to absorb and dissipate heat from another hot device,
like a processor, using thermal contact (in either direct or radiant contact). The heat sinks
are needed since heat has become a big issue with computer processors and other advanced
peripherals due to the increase of performance. All modern CPUs require a heat sink and/or
a fan.
There are two types of heat sinks available, active and passive. A heat sink without a fan is
called a passive heat sink; whereas a heat sink with a fan is called an active heat sink. Heat
sinks are generally made of a good thermal conductor such as copper or aluminum alloy and
often have fins.
Thermal Paste
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Thermal Paste is also referred to thermal compound, heat sink jelly, heat sink compound,
thermal gunk or silicon compound. It is a sticky paste that allows for the heat sink to be
placed directly onto the CPU. It is used to prevent air gaps (causing poor heat conductivity)
from forming between the CPU and heat sink.
There are different types of thermal pastes as follows:
(1) Silicone-base thermal pastes
Since Silicone grease is stable at high temperatures, it is often used as a medium, a heat
conductor in itself.
(2) Ceramic-based thermal pastes
Ceramic thermal pastes are usually composed of the ceramic powder suspended in other
thermally conductive ingredients. It has a better thermal conductivity than Silicone-based
thermal compounds.
(3) Metal-based thermal pastes
Most metal-based thermal pastes contain solid metal particles (usually silver) suspended in
other thermally conductive ingredients. Although it is more expensive, it has a better
thermal conductivity than other thermal compounds. Also, it is more electrically conductive,
which can cause problems if it contacts the electrical connections of an integrated circuit.
(4) Carbon-based thermal pastes
There are some experiments being done with carbon-based greases, using diamond powder.
(5) Liquid metal-based thermal pastes
Some thermal pastes are made of liquid metal alloys of gallium. However, they are rare and
expensive.
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