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DAVAO ** BAGUIO ** ILOILO ** GENSAN **
MANILA HEAD OFFICE
CABANATUAN
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
NURSE LICENSURE –
NURSING PRACTICE V SET A
NURSING PRACTICE V: CARE OF CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL
ALTERATION C
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded
will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
5. This is PRC property. Unauthorized possession, reproduction, and/or sale of this test is
punishable by law. Per RA 8981.
INSTRUCTIONS:
1.
2.
3.
Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
Write the subject title “Nursing Practice V” on the box provided.
Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your
test booklet is Set B.
SITUATION: Mastery of Psychotropic medications is necessary for the therapeutic improvement in the
health of the psychiatric clients.
1.
Lithium is only given:
A. P.O
2.
B. Sublingually
D. SQ
C. IV
D. IM
Which of the following is an antidepressant?
A. Serenace (Haloperidol)
B. Valium (Diazepam)
4.
C. IV
The nurse should expect that a client who cheeks the medication is a non-complaint patient.
Knowing the non compliance is the single most important factor for exacerbation and
rehospitalisation, the doctor ordered Prolixin [Fluphenazine Decanoate]. The nurse knows that is it
given:
A. Orally
3.
B. IM
C. Tofranil (Imipramine HCl)
D. Trilaton (Pherpenazine)
The nurse knows that the relationship between sodium and lithium is that:
A. When lithium increases, sodium also increases
B. When sodium increases, lithium also increases
C. They are inversely proportional
D. They are directly proportional
5.
Which of the following class of antidepressant is the least sedating?
A. SSRI
B. MAOI
C. TCA
D. Neuroleptics
SITUATION: A nurse is working with an aggressive client in the psychiatric unit.
6.
All of the following concepts are true EXCEPT:
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A. Hostility is destructive
B. Frustration develops in response to unmet needs, wants and desire
C. Anger is always incompatible with love
D. Aggression can be expressed in a constructive as well as a destructive manner.
7.
Carlo is acting out hostile and aggressive feeling by kicking the chairs in the room. the MOST
effective way to deal with Carlo’s behavior is initially to:
A. Set limits on the behavior by verbal command
B. Administer PRN tranquilizer
C. Remove the chairs from the room
D. Restrain the patient and place him in the “Isolation Room”
8.
Mrs. Dizon was visiting her son at the Psychiatry Ward. Which of the following items will the nurse
not allow to be brought inside the ward?
A. String rosary bracelet
B. Box of cake
9.
C. Bottle of coke
D.Rubber shoes
Which of the following will probably be most therapeutic for a patient on a behavioral modification
ward?
A. If the client is agitated, discuss the feelings especially anger
B. Insist to stop obscene language by verbal reprimand
C. Give client support and positive feedback for controlling use of obscene language
D. Provide a punching bag as an alternative to express upset emotions
10. Which of the following must be considered while planning activities for the depressed patient?
A. Activities which require exertion of energy
B. Challenging activities to get him out of his depression
C. Structured activities that the client can participate
D. Variety of unstructured activities
11. To maintain a therapeutic eye contact and body posture while interacting with angry and aggressive
individual, the nurse should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Keep an eye contact while staring at the client
Keep his/her hands behind his/her back or in one’s pockets
Fold his/her arms across his/her chest
Keep an “open” posture, e.g. Hands by sides but palms turned outwards
12. A patient in the ward suddenly slapped you in the face and spitted on your face and is obviously
agitated and violent. Which of the following is the best nursing action?
A. Tell the client: “Because of that, you are not going to eat your lunch, dinner and breakfast
anymore.”
B. Slap the client back and say “I am your nurse, you are a patient and you have no right to
hurt me.”
C. Prepare a 5 member team to restraint the client
D. Respond by saying “You are losing control of yourself, you slapped me and you spitted on me
and you are way out of control”
13. Which of the following is an accurate way of reporting and recording an incident?
A. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client became anxious.”
B. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client clenched his jaw/teeth,
made a fist and turned away from the nurse.”
C. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client was resistant to respond”
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D. “When asked about his relationship with his father, his anger was suppressed”
14. To encourage thought, which of the following approaches is NOT therapeutic?
A. “Why do you feel angry?”
B. “When do you usually feel angry?”
C. “How do you usually express anger?”
D. What situations provoke you to be angry?”
15. A patient grabs and about to throw it. The nurse best responds saying.
A.
B.
C.
D.
“Stop! Put that chair down.”
“Don’t be silly.”
“Stop! The security will be here in a minute.”
“Calm down.”
SITUATION: Client government is essential and building the foundation of improving the patients
adaptation to different environmental settings.
16. In psychiatric hospital setting, a community means:
A. Group of families living together in a common environment
B. People sharing same beliefs, attitude and values
C. The whole hospital, its staff, nurses, patients, students, workers, employees, guards and
everyone that makes the hospital a safe and living environment
D. It consists of staff, patients or student nurses on duty in the treatment setting
17. Which of the following accurately describes the client government?
A. These are communities led by group of patients as officers
B. This is a form of the manipulation of the physical environmental setting
C. These are communities led by staff nurses and physicians as officers
D. Government officials from the baranggay or municipality lead patients in the therapeutic
milieu
18. Which of the following determines the success of client government groups?
A. Willingness of psychiatric professionals to be open and receptive to client’s ideas
and
suggestions
B. A way of permitting clients provide themselves with a more creative and wholesome life
C. Means to acquire a variety of social skills
D. Opportunity to learn democratic living
19. The heart of the client government as well as the therapeutic milieu is:
A. Community meeting
B. Survey
C. Observation
D. Selective interview of patients
20. The nurse is aware that identifying the aspects of general patient management and identifying
interventions for meeting these basic needs are distinctions of:
A. Psychotherapy
B. Therapeutic milieu
C. Pharmacotherapy
D Bhavior therapy
21. In order to get active participation of the clients to carry out the objective of the program, it is
BEST for the nurse to conduct a/an:
A. Community meeting
B. Survey
C. Observation
D. Selective interview of patients
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22. Through the nurse’s role modeling of effective communication, the clients learned new ways of
dealing with authority figures. This gives the clients a venue to:
A. Communicate
B. Socialize
C. Identify their problems
D. Test new patterns of behavior
23. Which of the following is basic and the most important quality that a therapeutic milieu should
possess as in client government?
A. Contract, rules and regulation
B. Consistency, trust and efficacy
C. Communication and Good relationships
D. Safety
24. The nurse’s style of leadership in milieu therapy is:
A. Autocratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Democratic
D. Benevolent
25. In a client government therapy, which of the following best describes remotivation therapy?
A. Helping the client achieve sense of accomplishment by making handicrafts like
wallet or bags or performing activities such as art and music to distract themselves
from self defeating thinking.
B. It is focused on teaching acceptable social behaviours such as dressing, table manners,
conversation initiations, paying bills and other activities of social living.
C. It is a reward and punishment therapy. The patient is rewarded or given a “token” whenever
a positive attitude has been performed.
D. This therapy focuses on enhancing the patient’s social skills such as communication skills,
humour and jokes, developing non verbal social skills and developing listening skills.
SITUATION: A group of adult chronic schizophrenic patients were recommended to undergo social
skills training.
26. The following are the objectives of a social skills training program EXCEPT:
A. Explore deep seated intrapsychic conflicts
B. Help build self esteem and self confidence
C. Practice skills in relating with people
D. Develop and practice general coping skills
27. Social skills training is NOT primarily indicated for psychiatric patients who are:
A. In acute stage of illness
B. Having difficulties starting and maintaining interpersonal relationships
C. Having chronic episodes of stress and anxiety while interacting with others
D. Experiencing recurrence of symptoms in front of particular people or among people in general
28. The focus of the group interaction is “here and now”. An appropriate topic would be:
A. ways to celebrate Valentine’s Day in February
B. how to spend the summer vacation
C. an unforgettable experience as a child
D. how to tell a joke
29. An appropriate technique for the participants to practice how to communicate effectively is
through/a:
A. Lecture
B. Seminar
C. Role play
D. Psychodrama
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30. Considering that it is BEST to learn by example, it is MOST practical to:
A. Model good social skills throughout the session
B. Relate successful past experiences
C. Invite a resource person
D. Watch a movie
SITUATION: The nurse works with Mina to help her work through termination of the nurse-patient
relationship.
31. Preparation for termination of the nurse-patient relationship begins during the:
A. Termination phase
B. Working phase
C. Pre-orientation phase
D. Orientation phase
32. Mina’s past reactions to ending relationships is withdrawal. The nurse assists her to practice better
ways of coping termination by providing opportunities to:
A. Test new patterns of behavior
B. Plan for alternatives
C. Conceptualize her problem
D. Value and find meaning in experience
33. During the early part of the interaction, the nurse asked after a period of silence. “Perhaps we
would talk about my leaving”. The nurse utilized which communication technique:
A. Encouraging
B. Suggesting
C. Focusing on client
D. Understanding
34. The longest and the most productive phase of the NPR is:
A. Termination phase
B. Working phase
C. Pre-orientation phase
D. Orientation phase
35. The objection of the nurse-patient relationship is to provide an opportunity of the patient to:
A. Clarify problems
B. Develop insights
C. Have a corrective emotional experience
D. Develop interpersonal relationship
SITUATION: Mr. David is brought to the hospital due to pain radiating to the hip and leg. He is
diagnosed with a herniated lumbar disk. He is scheduled for myelogram.
36. After the procedure, the nurse must include which of the following nursing action in his care?
A. Assess for movement and sensation of the lower extremity
B. Place the client in most comfortable position
C. Lying supine with heels flexed
D. Bed rest with bed elevated at 45 degrees
37. Mr. David is scheduled for lumbar laminectomy. Post operatively the nurse should:
A. Logroll the client with the help of another nurse
B. Inform the client that he should be in supine position
C. Assess the sensory loss in his legs
D. Instruct the patient to move from side to side
38. Trimethobenzamine Hydrochloride (Tigan) was administered postoperatively. The action of this
drug is effective when it:
A. Controls nausea
B. Controls pain
C. Controls muscle spasm
D. Controls edema
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39. Mr. David is to ambulate for the first time following surgery. What nursing action should be BEST
when the client begins to faint?
A. Get another nurse for help
B. Maneuver the client to a sitting position
C. Get back to his bed and place in side lying position
D. Assist the client to form a wide base of support and lean against the nurse
40. Mr. David has to wear back brace. Which position is recommended when the brace is applied?
A. Sitting position
B. Standing position
C. Lying on his side in bed
D. Supine position in bed
SITUATION: Nursing care for the elderly
41. In planning care for a patient with Parkinson’s disease, which of these nursing diagnoses should
have priority?
A. Potential for injury
B. Altered nutritional state
C. Ineffective coping
D. Altered mood state
42. The frequent use of the older client’s name by the nurse is MOST effective in alleviating which of
the following responses to old age?
A. Loneliness
B. Suspicion
C. Grief
D. Confusion
43. An elderly who has lots of regrets, unhappy and miserable is experiencing:
A. Crisis
B. Despair
C. Loss
D. Ambivalence
44. The premorbid personality of an schizophrenic elderly client is:
A. Schizoid
B. Extrovert
C. Ambivert
D. Cycloid
45. Schizophrenia is a/an:
A.
B.
Anxiety disorder
Neurosis
C. Psychosis
D. Personality disorder
SITUATION: Margie has been diagnosed with Bipolar I disorder. The client demonstrates extreme
psychomotor agitation, flight of ideas, loud talking and elated mood.
46. The doctor ordered lithium. You know that this is indicated in patients with:
A. Depression
B. Mania
C. Schizophrenia
D. Anxiety disorders
47. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range of:
A. 0.1 to 1.0 mEq/L
B. 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L
C. 10 to 50 mEq/L
D. 50 to 100 mEq/L
48. Which of the following is a side effect of lithium toxicity?
A. Anuria
B. Oliguria
C. Sudden burst of muscle strength
D. Polyuria
49. What specimen is taken from a client when checking the lithium level of the body?
A. Blood
B. Stool
C. Urine
D. Sweat
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50. Which of the following is NOT a drug use to augment lithium toxicity?
A. Urea
B. Mannitol
C. Aminophylline
D. Acetylcysteine
SITUAION: The therapeutic communication is one of the most essential skill a nurse should use in ANY
health care settings. Best responses are always dependent on the client’s message.
51. Jacob, is a client with hypochondriasis verbalized “Ang sakit sakit! Nakakaramdam ako ng sakit!”
The nurse’s best response is:
A. “Nasaan ang masakit sayo?”
B. “Pwede mo ba saking inguso kung ano ang sumasakit?”
C. “Huwag mo masyadong isipin yang sakit mo, Guni guni mo lamang yan”
D. “Sabihin mo sakin, ano ang nararamdaman mo at paki turo gamit ang isang daliri
kung saan
mo ito nararamdaman.”
52. One morning, Jacob stated “Halimaw! Halimaw! Halimaw ka nurse!” this is a sign of:
A. Neurosis
B. Psychoses
C. Joke
D. Hallucination
53. The nurse’s best response when Jacob shouts “Halimaw ka nurse!” is:
A. “Maari mo ba saking sabihin paano akong naging halimaw?”
B. “Nawawalan ka na ng kontrol sa sarili mo Jakob”
C. “Hindi ka nanaman siguro nabigyan ng nurse ng pang pa kalma mo”
D. “Hindi ako halimaw Jakob, ako ay ang iyong nurse.”
54. When the nurse entered another client’s room, Rodrigo, he said “leave me alone and stop bothering
me and I don’t want your pity”. The following response by the nurse would be MOST appropriate?
A. “You seem upset this morning” and remains with the client
B. “You are probably upset because you don’t feel well”
C. “Why you angry with me? What did I do anything to upset you?
D. “I understand and will leave you for a while”
55. The nurse understands that the use of self awareness is a therapeutic alliance because:
A. The nurse is a role model for a client
B. This is an essential part of the nursing process
C. The nurse has to be therapeutic at all times
D. How the nurse thinks and feels affects her actions and behavior towards her client
and her
work
SITUATION: Bernie and John in their late 40’s have been married for 20 years and at the peak of their
careers. Suddenly, Bernie discovered that her husband was falling in love with another woman. Shaken
by this situation, she started to have problems sleeping and could not function well at work and at the
risk of losing her job. John asked forgiveness and regret very much the hurt his wife was going through
and suffered guilt feelings:
56. Bernie and John are going through a:
A. situational crisis
B. developmental crisis
C. anticipated crisis
D. both developmental and situational crisis
57. All of these are characteristics of crisis EXCEPT:
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A. a hazardous or threatening event occurs
B. it has a growth promoting potential
C. usual problem solving methods and coping mechanisms produce a solution
D. anxiety or depression continue to increase
58. The nurse employs this approach in crisis intervention:
A. problem-solving
B. behavior modification
C. role-playing
D. nurse-patient relationship
59. Assessment data of the nurse include all the following EXCEPT:
A. coping mechanisms
B. situational support
C. perception of the event
D. repressed problems
60. The duration of crisis usually lasts several days and usually:
A. 2 – 4 weeks
B. 1 – 2 weeks
C. 1 – 2 months
D. 4 – 6 weeks
SITUATION: Felisa has a ritualistic pattern of constantly washing her hands with soap and water
followed by rubbing alcohol.
61. This behavior is categorized as:
A. Delusional
B. Normal
C. Neurotic
D. Psychotic
62. A therapeutic intervention in this situation is:
A. Avoid limits on her behavior to release her anxiety
B. Call attention to her ritualistic pattern
C. Provide alternative behaviors to deal with increased anxiety
D. Ignore her behavior totally
63. The anxiety of Felisa is disabling and interferes with her job performance, interpersonal
relationships and other activities of daily living. To minimize such problems, she is likely to be
given:
A. Diazepam ( Valium )
B. Haloperidol ( Haldol )
C. Imipramine Hcl ( Tofranil )
D. Chlorpromazine ( Thorazine )
64. Felisa understands the effects of her medicine when expresses:
A. “I should watch out for signs of sore lips or sore throat”
B. “I might have constipation”
C. “I might feel changes in my body temperature”
D. “I should not drive or operate machines”
65. The level of anxiety that Felisa is experiencing is:
A. Panic
B. Severe
C. Mild
D. Moderate
66. Which of the following is the difference between obsession and compulsion?
A. Obsession are recurrent, persistent, intrusive and unwanted thoughts images or
impulses while compulsions are ritualistic and repetitive behaviours or actions.
B. Obsession is not repetitive while compulsion is repetitive.
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C. Compulsions are recurrent, persistent, intrusive and unwanted thoughts images or impulses
while Obsessions are ritualistic and repetitive behaviours or actions.
D. The patient can control obsessions but cannot control the compulsions.
67. Which psychomodality is recommended for clients with OCD?
A. Behavior therapy
B. Systematic desensitization
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Aversion therapy
68. Which of the following is the drug of choice for people suffering from OCD?
A. Clomipramine ( Anafranil )
B. Diazepam ( Valium )
C. Chlordiazepoxide ( Librium )
D. Oxazepam ( Serax )
69. The performance of rituals is a mechanism that a person with OCD uses in order to protect him
from feelings of:
A. Inadequacy
B. Loneliness
C. Anxiety
D. Stress
70. All of these are therapeutic interventions EXCEPT:
A. Impose limits every time the behavior becomes repetitive
B. Establish a routine for him
C. Assign task that can be done repetitively
D. Facilitate self-expression
SITUATION: Mr. Sison has been diagnosed as having early chronic glaucoma. He has been admitted
to the hospital for treatment.
71. The nurse identified a nursing problem of disturbed sensory perception: visual impairment
characterized by:
A. Sudden loss of eyesight
B. Loss of night vision
C. Loss of peripheral vision
D. Loss of central vision
72. In order to understand the rationale for drug therapy, it is important for the nurse to know that
glaucoma is usually caused by:
A. Opacity in the lens
B. Gradual diminution of the retina
C. Damage to the proteins in the lens
D. Increase production of aqueous fluid
73. Diamox is a drug used in the treatment of glaucoma. Which of these is the effect of this drug?
A. Constricts the pupil
B. Acts as osmotic diuretic
C. Reduces the production of aqueous humoR
D. Facilitates outflow of aqueous humor
74. Public health nurses should identify which of these patients as a risk group for development of
glaucoma, hence the need for annual eye examinations:
A. Patient with Parkinson’s disease
B. Cancer patients
C. Diabetic and hypertensive patients
D. Patient with COPD
75. The appropriate method of instilling eye drops is: Instilling into an opened eye, with the head held
back and with the eye looking:
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Aggressiveness
D. Suspiciousness
SITUATION: A nurse was interested to study the research question: “What are thedifferences and
similarities between aggressive and non-aggressive cognitively impaired, elderly, institutionalized
people?”
76. Investigation of cognitively impaired individual presented some ethical dilemmas. Which of the
following protocol would be considered unethical?
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A. Recording interaction with the elderly with their permission
B. Verbal permission from the subject is unnecessary
C. Data coded and recorded solely by the investigation
D. A written consent from the institution and a significant other
77. Semi-structured interview was conducted. This means that:
A. Interview is conducted precisely in the same manner
B. Interviewer is not held to any specific question
C. Subject is allowed to express without any suggestion from interviewer
D. Interviewer is free to probe beyond a number of specific major questions
78. The type of study conducted is:
A. Descriptive
B. Quasi-experimental
C. experimental
D. case study
79. The review of literature included reference to retrospective studies. Such studies have the
advantages EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data are inexpensive to obtain
Possibility of memory bias and distortion of fact
There is much material available
It is easy to get data
80. The average age of the respondents was 86. this represents:
A. The sum ages divided by total number of participants
B. The youngest participant is 86 years old
C. The oldest participant is 86 years old
D. Most of the number participant is 86 years old
SITUATION: The surgical setting is created in order to provide a safe and therapeutic environment in
patient undergoing surgical intervention.
81. The surgical suite is created in such way that it divides the suite into 3 main areas namely, the
restricted, semi restricted and the unrestricted areas and this is for one ultimate goal, and that is:
A. The prevention of cross contamination from one area to another
B. To optimize the environment for patient’s recovery
C. To delineate the areas for maximum efficiency
D. To improve procedure techniques and enhance accuracy and speed of operations
82. Microorganism grows the fastest in a temperature of 37 degree Celsius. The nurse knows that the
temperature in the procedure room should be maintained within the range of:
A. 26 to 28 Degrees Celsius
B. 20 to 24 Degrees Celsius
C. 30 to 34 Degrees Celsius
D. 0 to 8 Degrees Celsius
83. Which of the following gear is expected that the nurse should wear in the semi-restricted area?
A. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
B. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
C. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
D. Cap, mask, gloves, shoes
84. What OR attires are worn in the restricted area?
A. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
B. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
C. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
D. Cap, mask, gloves, shoes
85. Which of the following is NOT an OR Attire?
A. Scrub Suit
B. Surgical Mask
C. Shoe covers
D. Gloves
86. According to the three concept zone of the surgical suite design, the dressing rooms are located in
the:
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A. Restricted area
C. Semirestricted area
B. Clean area
D. Nonrestricted area
87. The following techniques illustrates the concept “confine and contain” EXCEPT:
A. Contaminated items like sponges are handled using Gloves
B. All blood tissue, and body fluid specimens should be placed in leak-proof containers
C. Surgeons conduct their patient’s rounds in scrub suit
D. Prompt cleanup of accidental spills of contaminated debris e.g. blood, body fluids
88. The OR is a restricted area where OR attire is worn. Temperature and humidity are set for patient
and personnel safety and reduce bacterial contamination. During the surgery, movement of
personnel including the circulating nurse is:
A. Kept to minimum
B. Eliminated when possible
C. Restricted
D. Monitored
89. The humidity in the operating room is set in the recommended level to reduce contamination. The
range of humidity is always set at:
A. 90-100%
B. 2-10%
C. 50-55%
D. 20-25%
C. Gloves
D. Face Shields
90. Which of the following is not a PPE?
A. Cover gown
B. Eyewear
SITUATION: Knowledge of anaesthetics is required in providing safe and efficient operative care.
91. Where will the spinal anaesthesia be injected?
A. It is injected directly on the spinal cord to provide immediate effect
B. It is injected directly into the CSF within subarachnoid space
C. It is injected into the epidural space
D. It is directly injected between the dura and the pia matter
92. The nurse knows that in both spinal and epidural anaesthesia, the patient is placed in what
position?
A. Knee-chest or lateral decubitus
B. Sims position
C. Prone position
D. Trendelenburg position
93. The most common side effect of both the epidural and spinal anaesthesia is:
A. Total spinal anaesthesia
B. Postspinal headache
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hypotension
94. A regional anesthesia technique especially useful in labor and delivery is:
A. Epidural
B. Spinal
C. Nerve block
D. Intravenous block
95. Epinephrine is used in adjunct with different local anaesthetics. Why is this so?
A. To prevent shock from bradycardia
B. To prevent the respiratory depression caused by anesthesia
C. It produces vasoconstricting effects, leading to control in bleeding
D. To increase the client’s blood pressure thereby preventing hypotension
SITUATION: Knowledge of sutures and needles used in the operating room is essentially needed in
providing safe and efficient operating room care.
96. Sizes of sutures denotes the diameter. The physician will perform a corneal transplant and will
suture the eye. The nurse will prepare which of the following suture size?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 3
D. 9-0
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97. Who holds the packet flaps of sutures to open it and place it in the sterile table for use?
A. Scrub nurse
B. Circulating nurse
C. Assistant surgeon
D. Surgeon
98. Non absorbable suture material such as cotton, nylon and silk are best used in suturing which of
the following abdominal layer?
A. Skin
B. Peritoneum
C. Fascia
D. Muscle
99. When least amount of trauma is desired, or when the client is prone to keloid formation, the nurse
should prepare which type of the needle?
A. Swaged
B. Round
C. Blunt
D. Taper
100. Another alternative “suture” for skin closure is the use of ____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Staple
Therapeutic glue
Absorbent dressing
Invisible suture
Study. Study in earnest. If you are to be salt and light, you need knowledge. Or do you
imagine that an idle and lazy life will entitle you to receive infused knowledge?
END OF EXAM
AIM HIGH NURSES!!! GOD BLESS
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