AREA 2
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION
NAME
SCHOOL
:
:
________________________
________________________
SCORE ________
Select the best answer of your choice.
MECHANICAL:
1. The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing
the state of a substance without changing its temperature.
a. Condensation
c. Induction
b. Specific Heat
d. Latent Heat
2. Consist of a fly ball or flyweight device designed to stop an
elevator.
a. Sheave
c. Counter weight
b. Governor
d. Limit switch
3. In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used
to balance suspended scenery, or the like.
a. Counter weight
c. Buffer
b. Counter Balance
d. Weight Buffer
4. In boilers, they function only when prescribed unsafe operating
exceeds conditions.
a. Control Limit
c. Limit Control
b. Control Boards
d. Limit Control & Interlocks
5. Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the
counterweight.
a. Travelling Cable
c. Hoisting Cable
b. Guide Rails
d. Idle Sheave
STRUCTURAL:
6. Minimum area in square meters a member supports which the design
live load may be reduced.
a. 15 sqm.
c. 14 sqm.
b. 20 sqm.
d. 10 sqm.
1
7. Minimum height of any wall requiring structural design to
resist loads onto which they are subjected.
a. 1.50 meters
c. 2.00 meters
b. 5.00 meters
d. 3.00 meters
8. A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit
lateral forces to the vertical resisting elements, it includes
horizontal bracing system.
a. Collector
c. Diaphragm
b. Base Shear
d. Girder
9. The
maximum
value
of
tension,
compression,
or
respectively the material sustain without failure.
a. Stress
c. Allowable Stress
b. Yielding Stress
d. Shear Stress
shear
10. In a material under tension or compression, the absolute
value of the ratio of transverse strain to the corresponding
longitudinal strain.
a. Slenderness Ratio
c. P-Delta Effect
b. Story Drift
d. Poisson’s Ratio
SOIL TEST:
11. An auger is used for this method where a hole is bored on
the ground.
a. Wash Boring
c. Hollow Stem Auger Boring
b. Auger Boring
d. Rotary Drilling
12. Employs the use of a piece of metal tube 50mm to 100mm in
diameter, used to bore hole with depths ranging from 1.50
meter to 3.00 meters.
a. Wash Boring
c. Hollow Stem Auger Boring
b. Auger Boring
d. Rotary Drilling
13. A truck mounted driving rift turns the auger to a depth of
more than 60 meters using a continuous flights of auger with
a hollow stem where samples of soil can be retrieved.
a. Wash Boring
c. Hollow Stem Auger Boring
b. Auger Boring
d. Rotary Drilling
14. Employed as one of the most efficient and convenient method
of soil sample retrieval method and used for soil structure
characterized by high resistant materials such as rock, clay
as well as sand.
a. Wash Boring
c. Hollow Stem Auger Boring
b. Auger Boring
d. Rotary Drilling
2
15. Used to estimate the amount of stress soil can exert
perpendicular to gravity or the stress exerted on retaining
walls.
a. Lateral Earth Pressure
c. Passive Soil Pressure
b. Active Soil Pressure
d. Soil / Contact Pressure
ESTIMATES:
16. Given a room dimension of 8.75 meters x 15.30 meters and has
a ceiling height of 3.00 meters, less the 2 units door in 2.10
meters x 0.80 meters and 10 units window in 1.20meters x
1.80meters. Compute for the paint needed in liters if 1 gallon
of paint can cover 30 square meters using 2 coats. Add 5
percent allowance.
a. 105 to 110 liters
c. 95 to 100 liters
b. 120 to 130 liters
d. 80 to 90 liters
17. A given area of 144.00 meters x 55.00 meters for mall area,
using 50cm x 50cm homogenous tiles. How many tiles are needed?
a. 45,000 pcs.
c. 31, 680 pcs.
b. 50, 250 pcs.
d. 25, 754 pcs.
18. What is the weight in kilogram of a 785 pieces of 6.00 meter
long 10mm dia. deformed bars?
a. 2,500 to 2, 600 kgs.
c. 5, 300 to 5, 500 kgs.
b. 2,000 to 2, 300 kgs.
d. 2, 800 to 3, 000 kgs.
19. For a project of a Sub capitol has a given floor area of 4,
756.00 square meters with 0.20m thick slab has a total
reinforcement of 40kg per cubic meter of concrete. How many
pieces of 6m long – 12mm rebar will be used?
a. 6, 259 pcs.
c. 8, 634 pcs.
b. 7, 144 pcs.
d. 5, 155 pcs.
20. Assuming a flat horizontal
plywood need for a 1.20 meter
a. 55 pcs.
b. 43 pcs.
soffit, estimate the number of
eaves.
c. 35 pcs.
d. 26 pcs.
COMMUNICATION & ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS:
21. Refer to Set 1A, Which is the Backbone Cabling?
a. Figure A
c. Figure B
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
22. Refer to Set 1A, Which is the Entrance Facilities?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
3
23. Refer to Set 1A, Which is the Patch Panels?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure D
24. Refer to Set 1A, Which is the Server?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
25. Refer to Set 1A, Which is the Network Switch?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
PAINT SYSTEM:
26. A thin coat of transparent color applied to enhance the color
of a painted surface.
a. Mist coat
c. Glaze coat
b. Undercoat
d. Basecoat
27. A basecoat applied to a surface to improve the adhesion of
subsequent coat of paint or varnish.
a. Undercoat
c. Sealer
b. Ground coat
d. Primer
28. A thin, sometimes pigmented coat applied to a finish coat to
improve its luster.
a. Sealer
c. Glaze coat
b. Mist coat
d. Under coat
29. A primer or basecoat of paint intended to show through a top
coat.
a. Ground coat
c. Under coat
b. Sealer
d. Primer
30. A primer or intermediate coat applied to hide the color of
the substrate and improved adhesion of the top coat.
a. Sealer
c. Primer
b. Ground coat
d. Under coat
SCREW HEADS:
31. Refer to Set 2B, Which is the Truss?
a. Figure 001
c. Figure 004
b. Figure 002
d. Figure 003
32. Refer to Set 2B, Which is the Button?
a. Figure 001
c. Figure 004
b. Figure 002
d. Figure 005
4
33. Refer to Set 2B, Which is the Pan?
a. Figure 001
c. Figure 003
b. Figure 002
d. Figure 004
34. Refer to Set 2B, Which is the Round Head?
a. Figure 001
c. Figure 003
b. Figure 002
d. Figure 004
35. Refer to Set 2B, Which is the Hex Washer?
a. Figure 001
c. Figure 004
b. Figure 002
d. Figure 005
FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM:
36. Is a group of systems that require some amount of action or
motion in order to work efficiently in the event of fire?
a. Active Fire Protection
c. Automatic Fire Protection
b. Passive Fire Protection
d. Manual Fire Protection
37. Is an integral component of the structural fire protection
and fire safety in the building, attempts to contain fires or
slow the spread, such as by fire-resistant walls, floors and
doors?
a. Active Fire Protection
c. Automatic Fire Protection
b. Passive Fire Protection
d. Manual Fire Protection
38. Is a piece of fire extinguishing equipment or gear designed
to extinguished small fire or any fire at its initial stage?
a. Fire Extinguisher
c. Fire Blanket
b. Fire Sprinkler System
d. Standpipes
39. Portable apparatus for putting out small fire by ejecting
pressurized water or special chemical.
a. Fire Extinguisher
c. Fire Blanket
b. Fire Sprinkler System
d. Standpipes
40. Is a type of rigid water piping which is built into multistory buildings in a vertical position to which fire hoses can
be connected, allowing manual application of water to the
fire.
a. Fire Extinguisher
c. Fire Blanket
b. Fire Sprinkler System
d. Standpipes
STRUCTURAL STEEL:
41. Formed by hot rolling, cold rolling or extrusion.
a. Plate Girder
c. Rolled I-Beams
b. Channel bar
d. Rail Profile
5
42. Formed by welding (or occasionally by bolting or riveting)
plates.
a. Plate Girder
c. Rolled I-Beams
b. Channel bar
d. Rail Profile
43. The stiffness of the i-beam will be chosen to minimize
deformation.
a. Vibration
c. Deflection
b. Local Yield
d. Shear Failure
44. Caused by concentrated loads, such as the beam’s point of
support.
a. Vibration
c. Deflection
b. Local Yield
d. Shear Failure
45. Where the web fails. Slender webs will fail by buckling,
rippling in a phenomenon termed tension field action, but it
is also resisted by the stiffness of the flanges.
a. Vibration
c. Deflection
b. Local Yield
d. Shear Failure
ELECTRICAL:
46. An open wire way used to support insulated electrical cables
used for power distribution, control and communication.
a. Cable Bus
c. Cable Tray
b. Utility Box
d. Raceways
47. Is most often compared to non-segregated phase bus duct and
cable tray.
a. Cable Bus
c. Cable Tray
b. Utility Box
d. Raceways
48. A box that houses electrical sockets, switches or other
fixtures.
a. Junction Box
c. Pull Box
b. Utility Box
d. Panel Box
49. Is an enclosure housing electrical connections to protect
the connections and provide a safety barrier?
a. Junction Box
c. Pull Box
b. NEMA Enclosure
d. Panel Box
50. Allow long wiring to be installed in shorter intervals and
can be used for both straight and angled pulls.
a. Junction Box
c. Pull Box
b. Utility Box
d. Panel Box
6
JOINERY:
51. Refer to Set 3C, Which is the Dado Joint?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure E
52. Refer to Set 3C, Which is the Mortise Joint?
a. Figure A
c. Figure E
b. Figure D
d. Figure B
53. Refer to Set 3C, Which is the Key Joint?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure D
54. Refer to Set 3C, Which is the Spline?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
55. Refer to Set 3C, Which is the Square Splice?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure E
WATERPROOFING & INSULATION SYSTEMS:
56. For concrete with 4 bags for cement, how many bags of SAHARA
waterproofing compound are needed?
a. 5 bags
c. 10 bags
b. 8 bags
d. 4 bags
57. EPDM is most common for waterproofing what?
a. Balconies
c. Flat Roofs
b. Toilet and Bath
d. Firewalls
58. Galvalume is a type of what?
a. Roof Paint
c. Roof Insulation
b. Roof Coating
d. Roof Waterproofing
59. Which is a common gas used for gas-filled insulating glass
units?
a. Argon
c. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
d. Halon
60. A component of many building materials, what does VOC mean?
a. Vitrified Organic Chemicals c. Verified Odor Compounds
b. Volatile Organic Compounds
d. Vinyl Oxygenated Chemicals
SCAFFOLDING SYSTEMS:
61. Bamboo scaffolding for skyscrapers is famously used where?
a. USA
c. China
7
b. Hong Kong
d. Japan
62. A shoring jack is typically installed _______________.
a. Horizontally
c. Diagonally
b. Stackable
d. Vertically
63. Which is used to connect scaffolding tubes at any angle?
a. Scaffold Jack
c. Swivel Coupler
b. Fixed Coupler
d. Standard
64. What is the smallest GI pipe diameter typically used as
scaffolding tubes?
a. 2”
c. 1”
b. 1.5”
d. 2.5”
65. Who is most qualified to design scaffolding systems?
a. Foreman
c. Safety Engineer
b. Civil Engineer
d. Structural Engineer
WEIGHT OF REBARS:
66. What is the weight per meter of 25 mm deformed rebar?
a. 3.853 kg/m
c. 1.578 kg/m
b. 0.888 kg/m
d. 2.466 kg/m
67. What is the weight per meter of 16 mm deformed rebar?
a. 0.616 kg/m
c. 1.578 kg/m
b. 0.888 kg/m
d. 2.466 kg/m
68. What is the weight per meter of 20 mm deformed rebar?
a. 0.616 kg/m
c. 1.578 kg/m
b. 3.853 kg/m
d. 2.466 kg/m
69. What is the weight per meter of 12 mm deformed rebar?
a. 0.616 kg/m
c. 1.578 kg/m
b. 0.888 kg/m
d. 2.466 kg/m
70. What is the weight per meter of 10 mm deformed rebar?
a. 0.616 kg/m
c. 1.578 kg/m
b. 0.888 kg/m
d. 2.466 kg/m
VERNACULAR TERMS:
71. It means cabinet hinge in vernacular terminologies.
a. Bisagra
c. Tirante
b. Espolon
d. Poleya
72. It means Vertical Stud in vernacular terminologies.
a. Tirante
c. Pilarete
8
b. Kilo
d. Reostra
73. It means Masonry Fill in vernacular terminologies.
a. Batidura
c. Unosinotra
b. Tabike
d. Lastilyas
74. It means Wrought Iron Strap in vernacular terminologies.
a. Plantsuela
c. Plantilya
b. Estopa
d. Liyabe
75. It means Floor Joists in vernacular terminologies.
a. Estopa
c. Plantilya
b. Soleras
d. Suban
LIGHTING:
76. This type of lighting has 90% to 100% of the light output is
directed towards the ceiling and upper walls of the room.
a. Indirect Lighting
c. Direct Lighting
b. Specific Lighting
d. General Lighting
77. This type of lighting has 60% to 90% of the light is directed
upwards; 40% to 10% downwards.
a. Indirect Lighting
c. Direct Lighting
b. Semi-Indirect Lighting
d. Semi-Direct Lighting
78. This type of lighting has 60% to 90% of light is directed
downwards while 40% to 10% is directed upwards.
a. Indirect Lighting
c. Direct Lighting
b. Semi-Indirect Lighting
d. Semi-Direct Lighting
79. This
type
of
lighting
provides
approximately
distribution of light upwards and downwards.
a. Specific Lighting
c. General Lighting
b. Task Lighting
d. Accent Lighting
equal
80. This type of lighting has 90% - 100% of the light output is
directed downwards.
a. Indirect Lighting
c. Direct Lighting
b. Task Lighting
d. Accent Lighting
TYPES OF MORTAR ACCORDING TO STRENGTH:
81. It is a High Strength Mortar. It has 2,500 psi or 17,238
KPa.
a. Type O
c. Type K
b. Type M
d. Type N
9
82. It is a Low Strength Mortar. Used in interior non-load
bearing walls and partitions.
a. Type O
c. Type K
b. Type M
d. Type N
83. It is a Medium Strength Mortar. It has 750 psi or 5, 171
KPa.
a. Type M
c. Type K
b. Type S
d. Type N
84. It is a Medium High Strength Mortar. It has 1, 800 psi or
12, 411 KPa.
a. Type M
c. Type O
b. Type S
d. Type N
85. It is a Very Low Strength Mortar. Used in interior non-load
bearing walls permitted by NSCP.
a. Type O
c. Type K
b. Type M
d. Type N
TYPES OF CONCRETE PROCEDURES:
86. Refer to Set 4D, Which is the Vacuum Concrete?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure D
d. Figure E
87. Refer to Set 4D, Which is the Pervious Cement?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure D
88. Refer to Set 4D, Which is the Shotcrete / Gunite?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure E
89. Refer to Set 4D, Which is the Ferro Cement?
a. Figure A
c. Figure C
b. Figure B
d. Figure D
90. Refer to Set 4D, Which is the Stamped Concrete?
a. Figure C
c. Figure D
b. Figure B
d. Figure E
BUILDING MATERIAL BRANDS:
91. Which of the following is not a Mechanical brand?
a. Carrier
c. Trane
b. MC Quay
d. Zeta
92. Which of the following is not flooring (Laminated) brand?
10
a. Hornitex
b. Multi-rich
c. Wright
d. Milan
93. Which of the following is a Waterproofing brand?
a. Latimco
c. Sanimold
b. Besser
d. Onduline
94. Which of the following is a Roofing brand?
a. K-Plast
c. Alasco
b. Fedders
d. Chorus Lux
95. Which of the following is NOT an Insulation brand?
a. Betafoam
c. Thermac
b. Macro Industrial
d. Lexton
MECHANICAL:
96. What is “Di-chloro-di-fluoro-methane” refrigerant?
a. R-11
c. R-22
b. R-114
d. R-12
97. This type of elevators is lifted by ropes, which pass over
a wheel attached to an electric motor above the elevator
shaft.
a. Hydraulic Elevator
c. Machine room less
b. Traction Elevator
d. Gear less Elevator
98. Who invented the Elevator Safety Brake in 1853?
a. Frost and Strutt
c. Felix Leon Edoux
b. Norton Otis
d. Elisha Graves Otis
99. Who first direct-connected geared electric elevator?
a. Frost and Strutt
c. Felix Leon Edoux
b. Norton Otis
d. Elisha Graves Otis
100. This type of Hydraulic Elevator has a sheave that extends
below the floor of the pit, which accepts the retracting piston
as the elevator descends. Its Maximum Travel Distance is 60ft
(approximately).
a. Conventional
c. Hole-less
b. Roped
d. Gear-less
11
STRUCTURAL:
101. What is the minimum concrete cover for Precast Concrete concrete exposed to earth or weather: wall panels, 45mm and
60mm diameter bars?
a. 75 mm.
c. 20 mm.
b. 40 mm.
d. 50 mm.
102. What is the minimum concrete cover for Cast-in-Place
Concrete (Non-Prestressed), concrete not exposed to weather or
in contact with ground - slabs, walls, joists, 36mm diameter
bar and smaller?
a. 75 mm.
c. 20 mm.
b. 40 mm.
d. 50 mm.
103. What is the minimum concrete cover for Pre-stressed
Concrete, concrete cast against and permanently exposed to
earth?
a. 75 mm.
c. 20 mm.
b. 40 mm.
d. 50 mm.
104. What is the minimum concrete cover for
Concrete (Non-Prestressed), concrete exposed
weather, 20mm through 36mm diameter bar?
a. 75 mm.
c. 20 mm.
b. 40 mm.
d. 50 mm.
Cast-in-Place
to earth or
105. For conduits and pipes, how many more than percent shall it
not displace of the area of the cross section when embedded in
column?
a. 5%
c. 6%
b. 4%
d. 3%
ACOUSTICS:
106. The distance measured in the direction of propagation of
wave from any one point to the next point of corresponding
response.
a. Amplitude
c. Wavelength
b. Frequency
d. Hertz
107. The Si Unit of frequency (cycle / s).
a. Pitch
c. Octave
b. Hertz
d. Phon
108. An apparent shift in frequency occurring when an acoustic
source and listener are in motion relative to each other, the
frequency increasing when the source and listener approach each
other and decreasing when they move apart.
12
a. Doppler Effect
b. Octave Effect
c. Sone
d. Speed of Sound
109. The predominant frequency of a sound as perceived by the
human ear.
a. Pitch
c. Octave
b. Hertz
d. Phon
110. The interval between two frequencies (2:1).
a. Pitch
c. Octave
b. Hertz
d. Phon
STONES IN CONSTRUCTION:
111.Refer to Set 5E, Identify Figure E?
a. Field stone
c. Mactan Stone
b. Sand stone
d. Araal Stone
112.Refer to Set 5E, Identify Figure D?
a. Field stone
c. Mactan Stone
b. Adobe Stone
d. Araal Stone
113.Refer to Set 5E, Identify Figure A?
a. Field stone
c. Mactan Stone
b. Adobe Stone
d. Araal Stone
114.Refer to Set 5E, Identify Figure C?
a. Field stone
c. Mactan Stone
b. Adobe Stone
d. Araal Stone
115.Refer to Set 5E, Identify Figure B?
a. Mactan stone
c. Field stone
b. Adobe stone
d. Sand stone
TYPES OF ROOFING MATERIALS:
116.Refer to Set 6F, Identify Figure E?
a. Slate/Shingle Look
c. Spanish Barrel Type
b. Architectural
d. Natural Slate
117.Refer to Set 6F, Identify Figure D?
a. Slate/Shingle Look
c. Spanish Barrel Type
b. Architectural
d. Natural Slate
118.Refer to Set 6F, Identify Figure A?
a. Slate/Shingle Look
c. Spanish Barrel Type
b. Architectural
d. Natural Slate
119.Refer to Set 6F, Identify Figure C?
13
a. Slate/Shingle Look
b. Architectural
c. Cedar Shakes
d. Natural Slate
120.Refer to Set 6F, Identify Figure B?
a. Slate/Shingle Look
c. Cedar Shakes
b. Architectural
d. Natural Slate
EARTHQUAKE MAGNITUDES:
121.Based on the Richter Scale, this earthquake magnitude has
some local damage may occur.
a. Magnitude 2.5
c. Magnitude 4.5
b. Magnitude 6.0
d. Magnitude 7.0
122. Based on the Richter Scale, this earthquake magnitude is a
destructive earthquake.
a. Magnitude 2.5
c. Magnitude 8.0 & up
b. Magnitude 6.0
d. Magnitude 7.0
123.Based on the Richter Scale, this earthquake magnitude is a
Great earthquakes.
a. Magnitude 2.5
c. Magnitude 4.5
b. Magnitude 6.0
d. Magnitude 8.0 & up
124. Based on the Richter Scale, this earthquake magnitude is
generally not felt, but recorded on seismometers.
a. Magnitude 2.5
c. Magnitude 1.5
b. Magnitude 6.0
d. Magnitude 7.0
125. Based on the Richter Scale, this earthquake magnitude is a
major earthquake.
a. Magnitude 2.5
c. Magnitude 4.5
b. Magnitude 3.5
d. Magnitude 7.0
CURING PERIOD:
126. What is the curing period for slabs over 7 feet span?
a. 7 days
c. 14 days
b. 5 days
d. 21 days
127. What is the curing period for Columns, Ratio of Height to
Least diameter up to 4?
a. 7 days
c. 12 days
b. 5 days
d. 2 days
128. What is the curing period for Beams and Girders- sides?
a. 7 days
c. 3 days
b. 5 days
d. 2 days
129. What is the curing period for Footings- Slab Footings?
14
a. 7 days
b. 5 days
c. 14 days
d. 21 days
130. What is the curing period for Arches – Main Arches?
a. 7 days
c. 14 days
b. 5 days
d. 21 days
PLUMBING CODE
131. The pipe or tubing that connects the outlet of a plumbing
fixture to the trap.
a. Trap
c. Tailpiece
b. Trap Arm
d. Outlet
132. A hose connection with two-gated outlets permitting two
connections of the same or smaller coupling diameter to be
taken from a single supply line.
a. Wye
c. Sanitary Tee
b. Tee
d. 1/8 bend
133. The inlet compartment of any septic tank shall be ___ of the
total capacity of the tank, nor less than 2.0 cum. Liquid
capacities.
a. Not less than 2/3
c. Not less than ½
b. Not less than 1/3
d. Not less than twice
134. Minimum pressure of a Flush Tank?
a. 6.0 psi
c. 12.0 psi
b. 60 psi
d. 8.0 psi
135. It is the required pressure to test water supply system.
a. 100% of used water pressure c.200% of used water pressure
b. 150% of used water pressure d.100% of used water pressure
WIRE SIZE AND AMPERE CAPACITY:
136. What is AWG #10 in mm2 wire size?
a. 5.5 mm2
c. 3.5 mm2
b. 8.0 mm2
d. 2.0 mm2
137. What is AWG #2 in mm2 wire size?
a. 30 mm2
c. 22 mm2
b. 100 mm2
d. 50 mm2
138. What is AWG #8 in mm2 wire size?
a. 5.5 mm2
c. 3.5 mm2
b. 8.0 mm2
d. 2.0 mm2
139. What is the Ampere Capacity of 8.0 mm2 wire?
15
a. 15A
b. 70A
c. 40A
d. 110A
140. What is the Ampere Capacity of 22 mm2 wire?
a. 30A
c. 40A
b. 55A
d. 70A
SLUMP CONSISTENCY:
141. What is the maximum slump consistency permissible for slabs,
beams, thin reinforced walls and building columns?
a. 150 mm.
c. 125 mm.
b. 75 mm.
d. 100 mm.
142. What is the maximum slump consistency
Reinforced foundation walls and footings?
a. 150 mm.
c. 125 mm.
b. 75 mm.
d. 100 mm.
permissible
for
143.What is the maximum slump consistency permissible for Plain
Footings, caisson, and substructure walls?
a. 150 mm.
c. 125 mm.
b. 75 mm.
d. 100 mm.
144.What is the minimum slump consistency permissible for Heavy
mass construction?
a. 150 mm.
c. 25 mm.
b. 75 mm.
d. 50 mm.
145.What is the minimum slump consistency permissible for slabs,
beams, thin reinforced walls and building columns?
a. 150 mm.
c. 125 mm.
b. 75 mm.
d. 100 mm.
BUILDING PAPERS:
146. It is intended to prevent the passage of moisture vapor
through walls, ceilings and floors.
a. Sheathing Paper
c. Laminating paper
b. Insulating Paper
d. Vapor Barrier Paper
147.A special, high strength kraft paper made for use in the
production of plastic laminates. The thin, strong paper is
impregnated with liquid plastic resin and several sheets are
laminated together under heat and pressure to form the base
for the plastic sheet.
a. Sheathing Paper
c. Laminating paper
b. Insulating Paper
d. Vapor Barrier Paper
16
148. Used to secure bulk and entrapped air with as much strength
as possible. Are made from both wood-fiber insulating paper
and asbestos fibers.
a. Sheathing Paper
c. Laminating paper
b. Insulating Paper
d. Vapor Barrier Paper
149.Used in making a built-up roof and are usually produced in 36
in. wide rolls, in various weights from 3 to 20 lb/square.
a. Roofing Felts
c. Roofing Paper
b. Rolled Roofing
d. Felt paper
150. Made from strong Kraft paper in the form of a spiral tube
and boxlike from made from corrugated container paper.
a. Wall Paper
c. Felt Paper
b. Concrete Form Paper
d. Cushioning Paper
Good Luck and God Bless Future Architects!!!
17
SET 1A:
FIG. A
FIG. B
FIG. C
FIG. D
FIG. E
18
SET 2B:
Fig. 001
Fig. 002
Fig. 003
Fig. 004
Fig. 005
SET 3C:
19
Fig. A
Fig. B
Fig. C
Fig. D
Fig. E
SET 4D
20
Fig. A
Fig. B
Fig. C
Fig. D
Fig. E
21
SET 5E:
Fig. A
Fig. B
Fig. C
Fig. D
Fig. E
22
SET 6F:
Fig. A
Fig. B
Fig. C
Fig. D
Fig. E
23