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PRACTICE EXAM 2 © Academic Review
1. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
In behavioral terms, the term “positive” means that a stimulus is applied (not, as implied by choice C, that the
stimulus is pleasurable or enjoyable). In this case, the stimulus being applied is the teacher’s yelling. And
punishment means that the stimulus has the effect of reducing a behavior. In this case, the yelling has the effect of
temporarily reducing the boy’s disruptiveness, so it is punishment. The question illustrates a disadvantage of
punishment – the recipient becomes habituated (which just means he or she gets used to it) and it is necessary to
keep increasing the intensity of the punishment for it to be effective.
2. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Patterson found that parents of aggressive children often use harsh physical punishment which is applied
inconsistently and often not connected to the child’s behavior. Contrary to choice D, these parents tend to reinforce
aggressive behavior in their children with attention or approval.
3. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Hallucinogens (e.g., LSD), cocaine, and cannabis – as well as alcohol, amphetamines, inhalants, opioids, PCP, and
sedatives – may produce Intoxication Delirium. Caffeine, however, does not cause delirium.
4. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each
dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter
technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis)
will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will
occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is
referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.
5. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
ADHD is the most frequent comorbid disorder, with about 20 to 25% of children with a Learning Disorder also having
ADHD.
6. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
In a centralized communication network, all communication goes through one person (usually the person in charge).
This type of network is most effective when the problem or task is easy; i.e., it does not require a lot of
communication among workers to be resolved or accomplished. We can rule out A and D not only because these
networks are not automatically more or less effective than decentralized networks (again, it depends on the nature
of the task), but also because it is usually the leader, not the employees, who prefers a centralized network.
7. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
Dialectical behavior therapy or DBT consists of outpatient individual therapy, social skills training and follow-up
telephone consultations. It also discourages the expression of overt inappropriate affect. Its combination of social
skills training (usually done in group therapy settings) and outpatient individual psychotherapy has been found to
decrease hospitalization and suicide attempt rates (M. Linehan and C.A. Kehrer, Borderline Personality Disorder, in
D.H. Barlow, Clinical Handbook of Psychological Disorders: A Step-by-Step Treatment Manual, New York, Guilford,
1993).
8. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you’re measuring.
However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job
satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.
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9. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Since the question does not indicate that the client has waived consent, the law protects the defendant at this
juncture. He is protected by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine the defendant’s guilt. The
best course of action is to not include any incriminating evidence in the competency report, but instead only
information relevant to the defendant’s competence (G.B. Melton, Psychological Evaluations for the Court, New York,
Guilford, 1987).
10. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Secondary impotence is diagnosed when a man persistently or recurrently fails to attain or maintain an erection
even though in the past he has successfully achieved an erection. The erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older
men; therefore, aging alone is not likely to be a cause of impotence. The other responses are common physical
causes of secondary impotence
11. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Though “B” is an imprecise description of what an interpersonal therapist would do, it is the best answer available.
Interpersonal therapists believe that depression is caused and maintained by disturbances in early life, especially
attachment disturbances. Rather than focusing on the past, however, they focus on the connection between the
presenting problem and client’s current relationships – including the current relationship with the therapist. Grief
reactions are a common focus of interpersonal therapy.
12. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality
(administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational
in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider
alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.
13. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many
areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking,
motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex,
located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last
area of the brain to develop.
14. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Once again, the hypothalamus is a “good guess” (and the correct response). One of the functions of the
hypothalamus is to control the gonads through its influence on the pituitary gland.
15. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three
disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the
most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects
comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling
words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
16. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
As long as you remembered that Herzberg views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as separate phenomena, you should
have been able to pick the right answer to this question. According to Herzberg, the factors that cause
dissatisfaction (hygiene factors) are different from those that contribute to satisfaction (motivator factors), which
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means that a person can be satisfied and dissatisfied at the same time.
17. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
According to Fiedler’s 1971 contingency theory, a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the
leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A
and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a
transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.
18. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Neurotransmitters can have an excitatory or inhibitory effect on postsynaptic cells, either increasing or decreasing
the likelihood that an action potential will occur. Some neurotransmitters act as “neuromodulators” that increase or
decrease the sensitivity of neurons to the effects of other neurotransmitters.
19. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Simply put, a lot of variance around the regression line indicates that the correlation isn’t too high. Be careful not to
confuse this with the idea of heteroscedasticity. This term means that the scatter is uneven at different points of the
continuum. For instance, there might be high variability around the regression line at low x (predictor) values, and
low variability around the line at high x values. In other words, heteroscedasticity refers to a differential level of
scatter, not high scatter.
20. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
A topic of recent interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that
are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and
independent. See G. Capowski, Anatomy of a leader: Where are the leaders of tomorrow?, Management Review,
1994, p. 2.
21. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
RET is basically a cognitively-based theory even though in practice therapists use many modalities. The idea is that
beliefs – irrational beliefs – determine our maladaptive behaviors. The belief that you mustn’t make anyone mad at
you is an example.
22. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is highly comorbid with Conduct Disorder. Between 30% and 50% of
children with ADHD also meet the criteria for Conduct Disorder, with the highest comorbidity rates among the two
subtypes marked by hyperactivity-impulsivity (Hyperactive-Impulsive and Combined Types). The percentage of
patients with Conduct Disorder who also have ADHD is nearly 70%. (T. P. Beauchaine, E. S. Katkin, Z. Strassberg, &
J. Snarr. Disinhibitory psychopathology in male adolescents: Discriminating Conduct Disorder from Attention-Deficit/
Hyperactivity Disorder through concurrent assessment of multiple autonomic states. Journal of Abnormal
Psychology, 2001, 110(4), 610-624). If you incorrectly selected Tourette’s Disorder (A), you may have been thinking
of the reverse relationship. That is, among those with Tourette’s Disorder the comorbidity of ADHD is at least 50%;
however, most patients with ADHD do not have Tourette’s Disorder.
23. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
Family therapists from the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto such as Gregory Bateson, Virginia Satir, and Jay
Haley described communication as having a "report function" that contains the content or informational aspect of the
communication, and the "command function", that is often conveyed nonverbally and exemplifies the relationship
between the communicators. The other choices are other concepts from the Mental Research Institute. "Principles of
equifinality" refers to the idea that no matter where the system change occurs, the end result is the same. "Circular
model of causality" is a concept in their approach that describes a symptom as both a cause and an effect of
dysfunctional communication patterns. "Paradoxical strategies" include prescribing the symptom and relabeling, or
changing the label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning.
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24. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Research has indicated that infants develop depth perception in a predictable sequence: kinetic, binocular, and
pictorial. Kinetic depth cues are based on movements of objects in the environment or the body. Babies as young as
3 weeks begin perceiving kinetic cues. For example, they will blink their eyes defensively when an object approaches
their face and looks as if its going to hit them. Binocular depth perception begins between 2 and 3 months. And
pictorial depth cues, which are used by artists to make paintings look three-dimensional, begins to develop at about
7 months of age.
25. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Studies show when jobs are redesigned according to the job characteristics model there are improvements in
satisfaction, absenteeism, turnover, and motivation. Work quality is less likely to be affected.
26. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Negative punishment is used to decrease a behavior by taking away a stimulus. In time-out, undesirable behaviors
are reduced by taking away opportunities for positive reinforcement for a specified period of time.
27. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Multiculturalism has been defined as the fourth force in psychology, one which complements the behavioral,
psychodynamic and humanistic explanations of human behavior. This “fourth force” originated within the civil rights
and social movements of the 1960s. Pedersen (1991) defined multiculturalism as “a wide range of multiple groups
without grading, comparing, or ranking them as better or worse than one another and without denying the very
distinct and complementary or even contradictory perspectives that each group brings with it.” Others advocate a
narrower definition of multiculturalism, with attention to the racial/ethnic minority groups within a culture.
Multicultural counseling often includes issues of race, ethnicity, culture, social class, sexual orientation, gender,
physical ability, age, and religious preference. (See: Pedersen, Paul B. (1991). Multiculturalism as a fourth force in
counseling. Journal of Counseling and Development, 70, 6-12.)
28. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression,
they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By
contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.
29. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
A moderator variable is any variable which moderates, or influences, the relationship between two other variables. If
the validity of a job selection test is different for different ethnic groups (i.e. there is differential validity), then
ethnicity would be considered a moderator variable since it is influencing the relationship between the test
(predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion). A confounding variable (A) is a variable in a research study
which is not of interest to the researcher, but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Criterion contamination
(B) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure
after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.
30. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection.
Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a
continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy (e.g., those who combine
violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children) are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive
children.
31. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
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“Confirmatory bias” or “confirmation bias” is the tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our
existing beliefs. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to attribute one’s successes to internal factors and one’s
failures to external factors. The fundamental attribution bias or error (C) refers to the tendency to overestimate
dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining a person’s behavior. Self
verification theory (D) proposes that people seek confirmation of their self-concept.
32. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is one of those obscure questions which could appear on your exam. A lexical approach was first used by Sir
Francis Galton in the 1880’s. “Lexical” refers to the use of a dictionary, in this case, to identify personality traits. It is
an atheoretical approach and was used to identify the Big Five Personality traits by performing a factor analysis on
all the personality traits found in the dictionary. The Big Five traits are: conscientiousness, extroversion,
agreeableness, openness, and emotional stability/neuroticism. These five traits are believed to underlie all other
personality characteristics.
33. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The notion of state dependence predicts that memory is maximized when we are in the same emotional state during
learning and recall.
34. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
A number of techniques have been found useful for reducing aggression in children, but many of them (e.g.,
catharsis) have only short-term effects. In the long run, the best thing to do is to teach aggressive children
alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training.
35. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. In the DSM-IV-TR’s description of Axis II, Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation are classified on a
separate axis as they “might otherwise be overlooked when attention is directed to the usually more florid Axis I
disorders” and does not suggest “pathogenesis or range of appropriate treatment is fundamentally different from
that for the disorders coded on Axis I.”
36. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Earlier meta-analyses of the outcome studies for children and adolescents found either no difference for adolescents
and children or a slight superiority for children. In contrast, the more recent Weisz et al. meta-analysis found that
therapy has better outcomes for adolescents than children, especially female adolescents and when the counselor is
a professional or student (versus paraprofessional). Note that Weisz et al. didn’t compare outcomes for children and
adolescents to outcomes for adults, but other meta-analyses suggest that adults do somewhat better.
37. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
A subpoena to produce records or documents (known as a subpoena duces tecum) requires a person to appear at a
designated time and place with a copy of the records. It does not necessarily require the person to release those
records; this is a matter for the court to decide, following a hearing on privilege, if the issue of privilege is being
contested. If your client has waived the privilege, however, you would release the records to the court at the time of
your appearance.
38. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
To answer this question, you need to know that Huntington’s disease is due to degeneration in several areas of the
brain including the basal ganglia and that damage can often be detected by an MRI or other brain imaging technique
even before the person exhibits symptoms.
39. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
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According to Hales, Yudofsky and Talbott, (1944), hypnosis involves three factors, 1) absorption, whereby the
individual is completely engrossed in a central experience, 2) dissociation, whereby the ordinary functioning of
consciousness and memory are altered in some way and 3) suggestibility, whereby individuals have a tendency to
be less inhibited and restricted while in the trance-like state.
40. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Expectancy theory is based on the premise that motivation is a cognitive process involving three variables:
expectancy, instrumentality and valence. Expectancy refers to the belief that effort will lead to success performance.
Instrumentality refers to the beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes; the value placed on
the outcomes of performance is referred to as valence.
41. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Of the choices listed, the block design and object assembly subtests are the most direct measures of perceptual and
motor skills.
42. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
In this situation, the boy stops teasing his sister because, presumably, this stops his mother’s nagging. In other
words, by complying with her request, he escapes an aversive stimulus.
43. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
You needed to approach this question from the point of view of a system. A system means that everything functions
together. Knowing just that little piece, you probably could have gotten to the correct answer: once the system
changes, the individuals will change. The work is at the systems level, not at the individual level. The alternative
stating that “no member will improve unless all members improve” comes close to this idea, but it’s not exactly the
point of system theory. And, besides, you don’t have to have all members improving before any one member
improves. According to systems theory, individual symptoms can remit, however, without systemic change, other
problems (either in that individual or in another family member) will arise.
44. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Erikson’s industry vs. inferiority stage occurs approximately between the ages of 6-11. Freud’s latency stage occurs
at about the same time.
45. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During
this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship
with each other.
46.Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to
name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited
and effective for acute symptoms. A positve transferance is also generally considered to be essential to the success
of brief therapy.
47. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Although some studies suggest that cultural differences in the need for personal space are not as great as once
believed, this is still the best answer. For instance, research has illustrated that adult Americans generally require
more personal space than adults in other cultures.
48. Explanation
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The Correct Answer is “B”
Across all age groups and both genders, the suicide rate is higher for whites than for African-Americans. Of all
demographic groups, the one associated with the highest increase in suicide rate over the past few decades is young
white male – the rate has almost tripled. The rate has also gone up among African-American males, but not by as
much. And here’s an additional piece of information that’s not directly related to this question: In African-Americans,
suicide occurs at the highest rate among individuals between the ages of 20-34; among whites, the highest rate of
suicide occurs near the end of the life cycle.
49. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
Studies looking at the outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that rejection is more stable than
neglect. For example, when rejected and neglected change schools, neglected children may experience
improvements in their peer status, while rejected children continue to be rejected by the new peer group.
50. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
This question is related to Weiner's attributional theory of motivation and emotion. Attributions are our causal
explanations for events and the behavior of ourselves and others. According to Weiner, attributions can be due to
factors that are either internal or external, stable or unstable, controllable or uncontrollable, intentional or
unintentional, and global or specific. Someone with high self-esteem would take credit for his or her achievements
and be proud of them. Thus, he or she would likely attribute them to internal, stable, controllable, intentional, and
specific causes. The attributions are most likely specific rather than global because a person with high self-esteem
will acknowledge that he or she isn't successful in everything. For example, a very successful athlete or CEO would
not assume proficiency in brain surgery.
51. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The ability to recall information that is presented at the beginning and ending of a list (or in this case, a lecture)
better than the information presented in the middle is known, respectively, as the primacy and recency effects.
Together they are referred to as the serial position effect. The serial position effect is believed to occur because
material presented at the beginning is transferred to long-term memory, while information at the end is still in
short-term memory. Whereas, information in the middle can be affected by interference from information that came
before and afterwards, preventing storage in short- or long-term memory. Retroactive inhibition (A) occurs when a
new experience interferes with the recall of an earlier one. Method of loci (C) is a mnemonic device in which items
are associated with mental images of places. Selective attention (D) involves focusing on one event while filtering
out or ignoring irrelevant events.
52. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
The confluence model states simply that each succeeding child has less of the family's resources available to him or
her. The first child doesn't have to share with anyone. The next child shares with one older sibling. The next child
must share with two older siblings. The theory has been tested and found to predict accurately: Only-borns and
children from small families tend to, on the average, do better on measures of intellect and achievement than later
borns. Note that the choice about only-borns having the highest intelligence is a better answer than the choice about
children from a small family. This is because, from the perspective of the confluence model, only-borns have even
more of the family's resources available to them than children from a small family.
53. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Primary memory is another term for short-term memory. On the other hand, the terms secondary and long-term
memory are also often used interchangeably. Implicit memory (answer A) is an unconscious, nonintentional form of
memory. Procedural memory (answer C) is memory of how to do certain activities, for example, driving a car, while
episodic memory (answer D) is the memory of a particular episode, such as your last birthday.
54. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Only Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) requires the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions. The diagnosis
“Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder” (OCPD) is somewhat of a misnomer in that it is not characterized by
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either obsessions or compulsions. Rather, OCPD involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and
control. Contrary to Choice “D,” there are no age requirements for either diagnosis.
55. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and
loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the
batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The
relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the
relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates
his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.
56. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and
relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a
delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader.
57. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The idea behind this question is that when you use various tests for prediction, each of the tests you use should
have some relationship to the thing you’re predicting. And, if you use several of these tests together, say, in a
battery, it is best if each of the tests tells you something different and apart from the others. That is, each of the
tests should contribute some unique information to the equation. If you give two tests and they both give the same
information (that is, they correlate), then you needn’t give the two tests. Why not stick with only one, say the
cheaper one? Putting this all together, we have the situation where you have several tests, each contributing
something to predicting a job skill, but each contributing a unique bit of added information. In other words, the tests
themselves should not correlate.
58. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
As a general rule, psychologists should avoid potentially conflicting relationships, which could result when conducting
both an evaluation and treatment for a patient. However, according to APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic
Psychologists (1991), "When it is necessary to provide both evaluation and treatment services to a party in a legal
proceeding (as may be the case in small forensic hospital settings or small communities), the forensic psychologist
takes reasonable steps to minimize the potential negative effects of these circumstances on the rights of the party,
confidentiality, and the process of treatment and evaluation." [Law and Human Behavior, 15 (6), p.659].
59. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been
proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the “Type C” personality, typically described as a
cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for
cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on
cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance,
psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates
and improved quality of life in cancer patients.
60. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Institutional racism refers to restriction or denial of material conditions and access to power to members of
minority groups. Personally mediated racism (b.) refers to prejudice and discrimination at the individual level.
Internalized racism (c.) refers to acceptance of negative messages about the abilities and intrinsic worth by
members of the stigmatized races. Subtle racism (d.) refers to the beliefs, attitudes, and actions of individuals
(rather than institutions) and is a less obvious form of racism, which has been proposed to have replaced overt or
“old-fashioned” prejudice and discrimination.
61. Explanation
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The Correct Answer is “D”
D. The “rebound effect” occurs when a benzodiazepine is discontinued and wears off. The symptoms come back
stronger and the initial symptoms are magnified. When the medication is stopped, individuals can experience
withdrawal symptoms as well as experience a “rebound” or resurgence of the feelings or condition the drug was
originally managing. Essentially, the body/brain reacts to the drug by trying to overcome its effect, and once the
drug is stopped that overreaction continues for awhile until it “gets through” to the body/brain that there is no
longer a chemical to fight against. The symptoms lessen as the body readjusts to life without the chemicals. This
“rebound effect” is also common for other conditions and drugs, such as rebound sinus congestion after frequent use
of nasally inhaled decongestants or rebound headaches after a long-term course of painkillers for someone suffering
from chronic headaches.
62. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric
severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay
& R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with longterm follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).
63. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Research by Kochanska (1997) has indicated that toddlers’ level of fearfulness mediates the effects of parental
discipline. Specifically, the use of “gentle discipline” was found more effective for the development of conscience
among fearful toddlers than among fearless toddlers. Fearless toddlers, on the other hand, developed conscience
better through the use of a secure mother-child attachment. It should be noted that these results were primarily
found during the toddler years and were not significant or were less significant when reassessed during preschool
years [Multiple pathways to conscience for children with different temperaments: From toddlerhood to age 5,
Developmental Psychology, 33(2), 228-240].
64. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
A. One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitivebehavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual’s perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the
interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding
beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships. (See: Morley, E. & Rossman, S.B. (1997).
Helping At-Risk Youth: Lessons From Community-Based Initiatives, Washington D.C., The Urban Institute.)
65. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Social loafing or Latane’s “social disease” is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when
people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or
eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the
group to succeed. (B) “groupthink” is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to
reach consensus. (C) “Group polarization” refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end
with a more extreme position after group discussion.
66. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Evidence suggests that bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, divergent thinking, and
metalinguistic awareness, than monolingual children. Findings on the academic performance of bilingual children are
inconsistent and influenced by many factors such as the age of second language acquisition, community support,
and academic services.
67. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that
results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client
paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other
responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is enefiting from therapy.
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68. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing
to express feelings of hopelessness (answer C) and anxiety (answer B). They are also more apt to have memory
problems (answer A). (APA Working Group on the Older Adult, What practitioners should know about working with
older clients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 1998, 29(5), 413-427).
69. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has an earlier peak onset for males than females. For males the peak onset is
between ages 6 and 15, and for females it is between ages 20 and 29. Thus, gender differences for OCD begin to
become apparent at 6 years. However, in adulthood the incidence is about the same for both genders.
70. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Although this question is referring to a former client, due to the potential danger for a suicidal client, the most
appropriate action would be to meet with the client until the situation is stabilized and then refer.
71. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Research on risk factors is not entirely consistent. However, most studies concur with Gould (1992) who found the
most consistent predictors to be a diagnosis of depression, use of drugs and alcohol, and antisocial behavior.
72. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
D. Sue and Sue (1999) described three premises from the Western perspectives of counseling, based on the
assumption of individualism, that can have an effect on the therapeutic relationship. They are identified as classbound values, culture-bound values and language variables. Class-bound values include valuing of time boundaries
or a strict adherence to time schedules, an ambiguous and unstructured approach to problem solving, and the
emphasis on long- range goals and solutions. Culture-bound values focus on individualism versus collectivism, cause
and effect relationships for client problems (a.), emphasis on emotional/verbal expressiveness, active participation
and openness to discussing intimate aspects of the client’s life (b.), and the separation of physical and mental wellbeing (c.). Language variables are those in which standard English and verbal communication are stressed.
73. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
None of these answers is great, but the only one that is possible is that parental intelligence and offspring
intelligence are correlated. To know this for sure, we would need to know more about moderate and low scorers on
the WAIS-III – do their children have moderate and low scores, respectively on the WISC-III? However, none of the
other choices makes any sense. For instance, we can’t say that intelligence is hereditary from this information, since
environmental rather than genetic factors may have resulted in the similarity of scores between mother and child.
Also, we can’t say the WISC-III is correlated (or uncorrelated) with the WAIS-III. To measure the correlation
between two tests, one must administer both of them to the same set of examinees.
74. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Both multiple hurdle and multiple cut-off involve administering a series of predictor measures to prospective
applicants. And in both cases, the examinee must succeed on all predictors in order to be selected. The difference is
that, in multiple hurdle, predictors are administered in a successive order. If the applicant fails on any predictor, he
or she no longer completes subsequent ones. By contrast, when multiple cut-off is used, examinees usually take all
the predictors and the predictors are not necessarily administered in any particular order.
75. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Kenneth Pope, in an appendix of his book Sexual Feelings in Psychotherapy (Washington, DC: APA, 1993), provides
a review of the research in the area of client-therapist sexual relations. Only choice D reflects research findings –
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one study found that the average ages of therapists and clients sexually involved with each other were 43 and 33,
respectively; another study found these ages to be 42 and 30. In contrast to choice A, no research supports the
notion that a particular diagnosis or history places a patient at greater risk for sexual involvement with a therapist.
Choice B is also incorrect – in fact, one study found that psychologists who had attained a high level of professional
achievement reported a higher rate of sex with patients. Similarly, in regard to choice C, one study found that
psychologists who had completed psychotherapy or psychoanalysis were more likely to have become sexually
involved with a patient than those therapists who hadn’t undergone therapy. According to Pope, the best single
predictor of sexual exploitation in therapy is a therapist who has exploited a patient in the past.
76. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Choices “A”, “B”, and “C” are all tricyclic anti-depressants. In fact, choices “A” and “C” are different names for the
same medication; Anafranil is the brand name for clomipramine. Choice “D”, fluoxetine (brand name: Prozac) is one
of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs have fewer and less severe side effects than tricyclics,
and they are generally not associated with cognitive impairments. By contrast, tricyclics are associated with
cognitive impairments such as deficits in concentration – especially in the elderly.
77. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Most abusing parents are abusive only some of the time. Other times they are quite loving and protective. In
behavioral terms, this means that the child is on an intermittent reinforcement schedule, and, more specifically, a
variable ratio schedule. In other words, any given behavior, including clinging, will be reinforced after a variable and
unpredictable number of responses. Intermittent reinforcement schedules, and especially variable ratio schedules,
tend to produce behaviors that are difficult to extinguish. This could explain why the clinging behavior continues.
78. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. A coefficient in the lower .90s indicates high
reliability. Answer A is a layman’s definition of the general concept of validity.
79. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot
distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.
80. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used primarily to assess perseveration and abstract reasoning. However,
it has also been found to be a useful measure of executive (frontal lobe) functioning and in discriminating between
frontal and non-frontal lesions. Subjects must sort 64 cards using different strategies, for example, by color, form
(triangle, star, star, and circle) or number of items on the cards.
81. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
As legal guardian he or she has the right to a copy of the report. The key term is “legal”. A court has determined
legal access in this case so you as the psychologist only need to be guided by the law.
82. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The introduction of a superordinate goal, one that requires cooperation to accomplish, was found to be the most
effective way of reducing or alleviating intergroup hostility and competition in Sherif et al.’s “Robber’s Cave” study.
83. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The response choices make up a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a complicated method for assessing convergent and
discriminant validity. Convergent validity requires that different ways of measuring the same trait yield the same
result. Monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are correlations between two measures that assess the same trait using
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different methods; therefore if a test has convergent validity, this correlation should be high. Heterotraitmonomethod and heterotrait-heteromethod both confirm discriminatory validity, and monotrait-monomethod
coefficients are reliability coefficients.
84. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Although Kohlberg is probably better known as a theorist of moral development than Piaget, the latter had his own
theory, which basically stressed that as children grow, they move from viewing rules as fixed dictates of authority to
flexible instruments of human purposes that can be changed. The point of view of Kohlberg, Piaget, and other
theorists with similar ideas is sometimes termed the cognitive-developmental point of view because, from the
perspective of these theories, development in a number of areas is mainly a function of cognitive development.
Both Kohlberg and Piaget believed that moral development occurs in an invariant sequence and is related to both
cognitive development and peer interaction. However, neither Piaget nor Kohlberg believed that there are cultural
differences in the early stages of moral development, though Kohlberg has noted that the nature and rate of moral
development at its higher levels does differ across cultures.
85. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Vygotsky stressed the importance of social and cultural impact on the developing child much more than Piaget did.
These factors included the family and the child’s milieu.
86. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
You may have had trouble with this one, but if you're familiar with the MID model and the characteristics of its
stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, synergetic articulation), you may have
recognized that each stage involves a different combination of attitudes toward one's own culture and the majority
culture and, therefore, reflects different levels of acculturation.
87. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
D. Finkelhor (Sexually Victimized Children New York: Free Press 1979) reports that the abuser is typically either a
relative or close family friend of the victim. In assessing for sexual abuse, clinicians take into account “power
differentials” and thus in the case of a same-age sibling, (Answer C), it may be considered sexual exploration or
play.
88. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
People with deep dyslexia exhibit a number of reading errors including semantic paralexia, which involves producing
a response that is similar in meaning to the target word (e.g., dog for cat or arm for leg).
89. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Internal consistency is one of several types of reliability. As its name implies, it is concerned with the consistency
within a test, that is, the correlations among the different test items. Split-half reliability is one of the measures of
internal consistency and involves splitting a test in two and correlating the two halves with each other. Other
measures of internal (inter-item) consistency are the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (for dichotomously scored items)
and Cronbach’s coefficient alpha (for multiple-scored items). Test-retest reliability (“B”) is not concerned with
internal consistency, but rather, the stability of a test over time, and uses the correlations of scores between
different administrations of the same test. Alternative forms reliability (“D”) is concerned with the equivalence of
different versions of a test. And the kappa coefficient is used as a measure of inter-rater reliability, that is, the
amount of agreement between two raters.
90. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Of the choices listed, marked tolerance and withdrawal are the most telling signs that a person should receive a
diagnosis of Substance Dependence. Tolerance and withdrawal are among the diagnostic criteria for Substance
Dependence.
As for the other choices, C and D sound like the criteria for Substance Abuse, which according to DSM-IV, are that
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the person displays one or more of the following within a 12 month period: 1) recurrent substance use resulting in a
failure to fulfill major school, work, or home obligations; 2) recurrent use in situations in which use is physically
hazardous; 3) recurrent substance-related legal problems; and 4) continued substance use even though it causes or
exacerbates a social or interpersonal problem. Although these signs may be present in Substance Dependence, they
are not as clear a sign of Dependence as tolerance and withdrawal. Denial of the problem is not a diagnostic criterion
for Dependence. Clearly, although individuals who are dependent are often in denial, not all those who deny they
have a problem actually do have one.
91. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
There are no special certifications that psychologists must obtain in order to testify as expert witness. Nor do they
need to be recognized by both parties in the legal proceeding as an expert – in fact, in a substantial proportion of
cases, the psychologist’s expertise is likely to be challenged by one of the parties. From an ethical standpoint, the
relevant requirement is that psychologists testifying as experts (like all other psychologists) should not practice
outside the scope of their competence. In other words, psychologists representing themselves as experts in a
particular area should have specialized knowledge in that area.
92. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
Overall, the authoritative style of parenting (as compared to the authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved styles)
has the most positive outcomes in children's growth and development – including academic achievement. However,
researchers have found that the benefits of authoritative parenting are moderated by ethnicity. Specifically,
Hispanics and African-Americans do not appear to benefit as much as Whites from having authoritative parenting.
And, although Asian-Americans tend to do well academically, they are least likely to have authoritative parents.
[See: L. Steinberg, S.M.Dornbusch, & B.B. Brown. Ethnic Differences in Adolescent Achievement: An Ecological
Perspective. American Psychologist, 1992, 47 (6), 723-729].
93. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
For a malpractice claim against a psychologist to be held valid, three elements must be proven: 1) the psychologist
must have had a professional relationship with (and, therefore a duty of care to) the client; 2) the psychologist must
have been negligent or failed to live up to that duty; and 3) harm to the patient must have resulted. In other words,
the psychologist's intentions are not an issue
94. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Although Piaget and others have argued that young children are cognitively incapable of lying, the research has
found that children as young as three lie for various reasons (e.g., to avoid punishment or embarrassment, to obtain
rewards).
95. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
You probably could answer this one correctly by focusing on the word “systems” since, of the choices, focusing on
more than one generation most implies that you would be looking at the entire family system. In addition, AfricanAmerican culture, as compared to Anglo culture, tends to be characterized by a greater emphasis placed on
relationships with extended family members.
96. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to best recall the first (primacy effect) and last (recency effect)
items studied. Thus, a student who is aware of this phenomenon should pay more attention to the material studied
during the middle of a study session, since that material is most likely to be forgotten.
97.Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Loss aversion is one component in Kahneman and Tversky’s prospect theory. Loss aversion refers to the tendency to
base decisions more heavily on the fear of loss than the hope of gain. For example, if you heard from a friend that
his mechanic did a good job fixing his car but another friend told you that the same mechanic did a poor job fixing
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his car, you would be less likely to risk using that mechanic. The other answer choices are terms that you should be
familiar with. Risky shift (A) occurs when a group makes a decision that is riskier than would have been made by the
members individually. Adverse impact (B) occurs when the hiring rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the
hiring rate of the majority group. Satisficing (C) refers to the decision-making style of using the minimal amount of
information to reach a “good enough” solution.
98. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Almost all empirical studies show that very few abilities that distinguish males from females are biologically
determined. That is, developmental psychologists tell us that the things we see typically as feminine and things we
see typically as masculine are defined and developed through socialization. There are however a couple of
characteristics that seem to transcend socialization. From the four possibilities listed here, aggression is the one that
we feel is more related to hormones than to learning. Boys are just more active and have higher aggressive drives
than girls do.
99. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
According to French and Raven (1959), in the case of legitimate authority, the target believes the influencing agent
has legitimate authority. With reward power (response B), the influencing agent has control over valued rewards and
resources. And, what you are about to receive from the policeman will not be a reward. With informational power
(response C), the influencing agent possesses specific information needed by the target person, and with referent
power (response D), the target identifies with or likes the influencing agent.
100. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. The relaxation response is, in effect, the opposite of the “fight or flight” response to stressful or threatening
situations which over time may produce hypertension, cardiac and other problems that may seriously affect health.
Herbert Benson and his colleagues (1971) studied the affects of meditation on people with high blood pressure
brought on by the everyday stress of living and described a physiological response that decreased sympathetic
nervous system activity resulting in decreased metabolism, decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and
decreased rate of breathing, as well as slower brain waves. This reaction was coined the “relaxation response.”
Further findings indicate relaxing just 20 minutes each day can be beneficial to both physical and mental health.
(See: Benson, H. (2000). The relaxation response – updated and expanded (25th anniversary edition). New York:
Avon.)
101. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually nonprogressive when it is the result of a single
head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition (e.g., hydrocephalus).
102. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
In this situation, the patient seems to be having trouble forming new memories. This is referred to as anterograde
amnesia. Paraprosopia (answer A) involves visual hallucinations of terrifying faces; prosopagnosia (answer B) is the
inability to recognize familiar faces.
103. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
There is no indication that the more experienced intern is being exploited (response “C”) and while the interns are
not receiving an equal number of testing opportunities, the situation is not unethical solely because the less
experienced intern is getting fewer testing cases and/or attention. The director stated the interns would have “plenty
of testing experience,” not necessarily an equal amount of testing cases, time, or attention. Additionally, the
definition of plenty is relative to the individual intern, their previous education, training, and experience. Another
relative term in the question to consider is “majority.” It would be unethical to have the intern with very little testing
experience perform more than his/her current level of competency (Standard 2.05(2): Delegation of Work to
Others). Note: this intern is receiving test cases, time, and attention – just not the “majority” of cases and attention.
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104. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Because of its effects on vaginal tissues, a lower estrogen level can cause discomfort during intercourse. However, it
is not associated with changes in other aspects of sexual functioning including interest, arousal, or drive.
105. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The DSM-IV refers to Korsakoff’s syndrome as Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder due to Thiamine
Deficiency. The disorder is characterized by anterograde and often retrograde amnesia, and causes damage to
neurons in the thalamic and hypothalamic brain regions. When a person displays early signs of the disorder, it can
sometimes be prevented through large doses of thiamine. However, once brain neurons become damaged, thiamine
treatment cannot reverse the syndrome.
106. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
B sounds more like the goal of crisis intervention than that of brief psychotherapy. Brief dynamic therapy is focused
on specific symptoms; whereas, the goal of long-term psychodynamic therapy is usually global personality change.
These symptoms are usually viewed as pathological; in other words, the emphasis is on altering the normal level of
functioning rather than returning the person to it. C and D both describe possible aspects of brief dynamic therapy.
Techniques of long-term dynamic therapy, such as free association and dream interpretation, may be used. In
addition, there may be an attempt to engender insight into the unconscious, but (unlike as in long-term therapy) the
patient is left to assimilate this insight on his or her own.
107. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
For a successful malpractice suit, according to Behnke, Preis and Bates in their provocative book, California Mental
Health Law WW Norton and Company 1998, one must have the four “D’s” to win a malpractice suit: “dereliction of a
duty directly causing damage.” One must show that there was a duty–-(which assumes a professional relationship,
although it does not need to be explicitly stated as in choice “A”), the duty was not carried out; and one must show,
that as a direct result of this, the person suffered damages.
108. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
A predictor that is highly sensitive will more likely identify the presence of a characteristic; that is, it will result in
more positives (true and false). This may be desirable when the risk of not detecting a problem is high. For example,
in the detection of cancer, a blood test that results in a high number of false positives is preferable to one that has
many false negatives. A positive test result can then be verified by another method, for example, a biopsy.
Measurement error (A) is the part of test scores which is due to random factors. Type II error (B) is an error made
when an experimenter erroneously accepts the null hypothesis.
109. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Form quality refers to the degree to which an examinee’s response is consistent with the form (shape) of the inkblot.
110. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific
management and human relations administrative models. Managers adopting a scientific management model
assume that workers are motivated primarily by financial self-interest (i.e., pay is the most effective motivator);
that job demands must match workers’ skills; and that workers need detailed guidelines and constant supervision
because they are incapable of regulating themselves or assuming responsibility on their own. Theory X is similar to
scientific management: Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible;
therefore, workers must be directed and controlled.
111. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The postcentral gyrus includes the somatosensory cortex, and is located in the parietal lobe. Damage to the right
16
postcentral gyrus could result in numbness in the left hand and contralateral neglect, which includes neglect of the
left visual field. Broca’s (“A”) and Wernicke’s (“B”) areas are both located in the left hemisphere of the brain and
only affect language. The precentral gyrus (“C”) is responsible for motor functioning.
112. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
A. A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek (increasing the number of hours
per day and decreasing the number of days worked in a given work period) did not have a strong impact on
absenteeism or objective measures of job performance. However, compressed workweek schedules were found to
have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and
employee satisfaction with the work schedule [B. B. Baltes et al., (1999). Flexible and compressed workweek
schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513]. Earlier
conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek have not been completely consistent with the
findings from this meta-analysis.
113. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
An Adjustment Disorder involves emotional or behavioral symptoms that develop in response to an identifiable
stressor. The disturbance does not meet the criteria for another Axis I disorder. If the question indicated that the
patient had additional depressive symptoms, a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (B) might have been more
appropriate. However, since only two symptoms were offered, Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood is the best
option. For a diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder (C) or Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (D), the person must be
exposed to extreme stress followed by a specific set of symptoms including: dissociative symptoms, reexperiencing
of the trauma, increased arousal, and avoidance.
114. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
These symptoms are characteristic of the third stage of Alzheimer’s Dementia according to many authors. The
symptoms vary considerably from person to person and may include personality, behavioral, and cognitive changes.
The symptoms of depression and anomia (answer B) and irritability and anger (answer C) are often seen during the
first stage. Paranoia and labile mood (answer D) are characteristic of the second.
115. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Berry’s model of acculturation distinguishes between two dimensions – retention of the minority culture and
maintenance of the majority culture. He proposes that these dimensions are independent, which means that a
person can be high on one and low on the other; high on both; or low on both. Berry uses the term
“marginalization” to describe the situation where a member of a minority group does not identify strongly with either
culture.
116. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The WAIS-III measures four factors: verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and
processing speed. The working memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing.
Each of the other choices contain the subtests which comprise the other indices. Vocabulary, similarities, and
information subtests (A) make up the verbal comprehension index. Digit symbol and symbol search (B) determine
the processing speed index. And picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning (D) comprise the perceptual
organization index.
117. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The ethical standards say that psychologists cannot make false, deceptive, fraudulent, or misleading statements.
Unless the psychologist’s endorsements were based on sound expertise and her honest opinion of the publications in
question, these standards would be violated.
118. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Pure speed tests and pure power tests are opposite ends of a continuum. A speed test is one with a strict time limit
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and easy items that most or all examinees are expected to answer correctly. Speed tests measure examinees’
response speed. A power test is one with no or a generous time limit but with items ranging from easy to very
difficult (usually ordered from least to most difficult). Power tests measure level of content mastered.
119. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
B. Anticholinergic effects may be either central or peripheral. Central side effects are cerebral and include impaired
concentration, confusion, attention deficit, and memory impairment. Peripheral side effects include dry mouth,
constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased
sweating. Light tremor (a.) and diarrhea (c.) are not associated side-effects, and while dry mouth may affect
appetite and result in weight loss (d.), it is not considered an anticholinergic side-effect either.
120. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The primary benefit of a few sessions of therapy is its impact on feelings of despair and hopelessness, which many
new therapy clients feel. Apparently, the reduced sense of hopelessness is due to the fact that the client begins to
feel that therapy may actually be of some help.
121. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The Ethic Committee’s procedures are outlined in APA’s Rules and Procedures. When the Committee decides that it is
appropriate to pursue a formal case investigation, it sends a charge letter to the complainee. The complainee then
has thirty days to file an initial response. A request for independent adjudication or formal hearing (answer D) is not
made until the Committee has actually found the psychologist to be guilty of an ethical violation.
122. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. Structured Learning Therapy incorporates social skills training, an early approach to the treatment of depression,
along with modeling (a.), role-playing (b.), skill instruction, and performance appraisal. (See: A. P. Goldstein,
Psychological Skills Training: The Structured Learning Technique, New York, Pergamon Press, 1980.)
123. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
B. Although learning problems are associated with the disorder, children with Tourette’s Syndrome (TS) as a group
have the same range of IQ as the population at large. The etiology of learning disabilities (LD), as well as the most
accurate conceptualization of them as either comorbid disorders or as prevalent, variable components of the broader
TS phenotype, has yet to be determined. In a recent study of more than 3100 children with Tourette’s, ADHD was
the most prevalent comorbid disorder occurring in 58% of subjects. Of those with TS plus learning disabilities, 80%
also had a diagnosis of ADHD. The increased rates of ADHD in those diagnosed with TS + LD and the finding that
only 11 % of the TS children without ADHD had a diagnosis of LD demonstrates the potential impact of ADHD on LD
as a causal factor or as a confounder for the diagnosis of LD. (L. Burd, L., Freeman, R.D., Klug, M.G. and
Kerbeshian, J. (2005). Tourette syndrome and learning disabilities, BioMed Central Pediatrics, 5)
124. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Dementia due to HIV Disease includes cognitive, personality, and motor symptoms. Common symptoms include
cognitive slowing, impaired attention, and forgetfulness; apathy and social withdrawal; and clumsiness and leg
weakness.
125. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
This issue is addressed in Standard 5.02(b) of the Ethics Code, which states that “Psychologists do not compensate
employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.”
126. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
Trend analysis is a statistical technique used to determine the trend or shape that best describes the relationship
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between two variables. The technique basically involves collecting data on two variables and running statistical
analyses to determine what trend or trends (e.g., linear, U-shaped) are significant. For example, in studying the
relationship between arousal and performance, one could study 100 students and collect data on how aroused they
are and how well they perform. Then, one could run a separate analysis for different types of trends and see which
receives the strongest support.
127. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Both meta-analyses and literature reviews involve a summation of research studies related to a particular topic or
hypothesis. However, unlike a literature review, a meta-analysis involves calculation of an “effect size,” or a statistic
that indicates the average effect of a particular treatment across the studies reviewed. This involves converting data
from many different studies into a common metric so that their results can be combined and compared. A literature
review, by contrast, provides descriptive information only.
128. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
This is an extremely difficult question. That’s why you will review these tests several times. In regard to answer C,
the opposite is true; Subirana (1969) found that left-handers generally exhibit milder aphasia, and recover more
thoroughly and more quickly than right-handers. The course of recovery from aphasia due to head injury is related
to several factors including age at time of injury–especially during the first three months (Kertesz, 1979).
129. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
According to DSM-IV-TR, Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder requires the presence of one or more physical
complaints that persist for 6 months or longer and which cannot be fully explained by another mental disorder or
physical illness. Frequent complaints include chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, gastrointestinal, or genitourinary
symptoms. Choices B and C are more typically found in Somatization Disorder, which requires the presence of at
least 8 different physical symptoms. Choice D includes symptoms of a panic attack.
130. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is one of those questions that requires you to select the best answer among several good choices. According to
DSM-IV-TR, Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by “A pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal
relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity…” The other answer choices are characteristics
typically seen among patients with BPD; however, Choice D offers the most general and complete description, and
is, therefore, the best answer.
131. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
A. Questions like these are difficult to answer, because research in this area is contradictory, and the issue is not
resolved. Research has clearly identified a number of variables that potentially interact with race in influencing
therapy outcome. For instance, African-American patients tend to have poorer outcomes when working with
therapists who are insensitive to or unknowledgeable about racial or cultural issues. There are also studies that show
that African-Americans are more likely to terminate therapy prematurely than Caucasians, and even a few studies
which show they are likely to have poorer outcomes. However, the bulk of the literature and thinking on this issue
supports the notion that race, in and of itself, is not a good predictor of therapy outcome.
132. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The Working Memory scale is comprised of the WISC-III subtests of Arithmetic and Digit-Span and measures
numerical ability, attention, and concentration.
133. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
A. The 2002 Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical
Standards. The Introduction “discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application
of the Ethics Code.” The purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to provide “aspirational goals to
guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology.” The Ethical Standards “set forth enforceable rules.”
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134. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) is a manualized psychotherapy first designed for the treatment of nonbipolar,
nonpsychotic major depression with the focus on the problems of depression and interpersonal distress. IPT focuses
on interpersonal aspects of depression and uses the biopsychosocial model which frames depression as a medical
illness occurring in a social context The goal of IPT is to alleviate symptoms with interpersonal relationships as a
point of intervention. IPT has been found to be effective for the treatment of depression patients from adolescence
to late life, for women with postpartum depression and for patients with medical comorbidity (See: Weissman, M.M.,
Markowitz, J.W., Klerman, G.L. (2000). Comprehensive guide to interpersonal psychotherapy. New York, Basic
Books.)
135. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
In Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of
attributions of depressed people. Since depressed people make internal, stable, and global attributions to negative
events, optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative
events. Therefore, we can readily eliminate “B” (“I didn’t study enough”) since that’s an internal attribution. Choice
“C” (“the teacher is always a tough grader”) is a stable attribution. That leaves Choices “A” (“I was unlucky”) and
Choice “D” (“the test was hard this time”) – which are both external and unstable attributions. Of the two, however,
Choice “D” is better since being unlucky would imply that success is a matter of luck.
136. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Individuals with hypochondriasis have the presence of strong disease convictions, insisting that they have an
undetected serious illness or disease. Often convictions result from misinterpreting normal bodily sensations and
minor symptoms as serious disease warning signs. Specific “disease” phobia (a.) is a DSM-IV-TR Anxiety Disorder
associated with a fear of acquiring or being exposed to a disease. It is also commonly a feature of hypochondriasis.
An absence of disease conviction is a differential characteristic of the two disorders. The disease conviction for
individuals with Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type (b.) reaches extremely strong, unreasonable and delusional
proportions. Although during panic attacks people with panic disorder commonly worry about dying, disease
conviction is not a characteristic that is strongly associated with Panic Disorder.
137. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to Piaget, centration refers to a limitation of preoperational thought that leads a child to focus on one
aspect of a situation and neglect others, often leading to illogical conclusions. Choice A describes an imaginary
audience (a term coined by David Elkind). Choice C refers to egocentrism and Choice D describes conservation.
138. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Metacognition is the ability to monitor one’s own cognitive processes while thinking, learning, and remembering. It
allows us to identify and use appropriate learning strategies, and the research has shown that learners with belowaverage intelligence can benefit from training in metacognitive skills. (Note that “mindfulness” – response C – is
used in the educational psychology literature to refer to effort.)
139. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
Conservation is the ability to understand that changing an object's appearance doesn't change the object's physical
qualities. For example, water poured from a tall thin glass into a short wide glass will be conserved, or understood to
be the same amount of water. Conservation develops during the concrete operations stage (7 to 12 years). Note
that there may be slight variations between age ranges that you have studied and the age ranges presented in test
questions. In this case, the most correct choice is 7 to 10 years, which falls within the 7 to 12 year range. Choice D,
11 to 13 years, overlaps between the high end of concrete operations and the low end of formal operations (12
onward) – which is not as good a choice for the typical development of concrete operations.
140. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
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This type of situation is covered by ethical requirements related to cross-cultural counseling. (See, for example,
APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations.)
There’s certainly not any information given that warrants a call to child protective services. Also, it’s not necessary
to make a referral, and it wouldn’t be a good idea to manipulate the parents into doing something they don’t want to
do.
141. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
Endorphins are endogenous (produced inside the body) peptides which activate opiate receptors in the brain and
block the release of Substance P, which results in decreased perception of pain. The term "endorphin" is an
abbreviation of "endogenous morphine". The only other opiate listed in the choices is heroin ("D") which is derived
from the opium poppy – an exogenous substance.
142. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF), or item bias analysis, refers to a
difference in the probability of individuals from different subpopulations making a correct or positive response to an
item, who are equal on the latent or underlying attribute measured by the test. The SIBTEST or simultaneous item
bias test, Mantel-Haenszel, and Lord’s chi-square are statistical techniques used to identify DIF. Cluster analysis is a
statistical technique used to develop a classification system or taxonomy. This method wouldn’t detect item bias or
differences.
143. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
In the compressed work week (CWW), the number of days worked is shortened but the work hours per day are
lengthened. For example, the work week might be compressed into four days a week, ten hours a day. Research
results regarding the effects of the CWW are mixed, but most studies suggest that job satisfaction tends to increase,
while job performance is not affected and (depending on the job) may even decrease. The CWW also tends to result
in decreased absenteeism.
144. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The basic principle is that you can’t give an opinion as to which parent will be better able to care for the children
unless you interview both parents and the children. Otherwise, all you can attest to is your findings about the
psychological health of whomever you evaluate. You can’t, if you only see one of the parents, opine as to which one
is better: You’d have no basis to come to such a conclusion.
145. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
The F, or Infrequency, scale is one of the MMPI-2's validity scales. It contains items that are answered in the scored
direction very infrequently. Elevated scores on this score (i.e., T scores above 65) can occur for a number of
reasons, including "faking bad," confusion and disorientation, and cognitive deficits. Mildly to moderately elevated
scores on the validity scales can be interpreted clinically; however, scores of about 90 or greater could indicate
random responding and completely invalidate the test.
146. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
The purpose of Beck's cognitive therapy is to modify dysfunctional automatic thoughts that are seen as the cause of
maladaptive emotional responding (e.g., depression and anxiety). Unlike Ellis, who identifies irrational thoughts as
the cause of clients' problems, Beck believes that these thoughts may or may not be irrational.
147. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Treatment for very shy individuals who have trouble in interpersonal settings (as implied by the fact that the person
cannot hold a job) typically involves social skills and assertiveness training. Although both of these treatments can
be administered in individual therapy, the group format has a number of advantages: there are multiple models, and
opportunities for feedback, support, and vicarious learning. These aren’t available in individual training sessions.
Thus, D is the best answer.
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148. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are
included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a
researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This
also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate.
149. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. The Health Belief Model (HBM), which was developed initially to understand why people seemed unwilling to use
preventative measures and screening tests available, is based on psychological and behavioral theory. The four
dimensions the model considers in the influence of health-related decision making and behavior are: perceived
susceptibility; perceived severity; perceived benefits; and perceived barriers. The dimension identified as the most
influential variable for predicting and explaining health-related decision-making and actions is perceived barriers.
The effectiveness of the action (screening, preventative care) and the perceptions of inconvenience, expense,
unpleasantness, dangerousness, etc., are examples of perceived barriers.
150. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
You probably remember that the alternate forms coefficient is considered by many to be the best reliability
coefficient to use when practical (if you don’t, commit this factoid to memory now). Everything else being equal, it is
also likely to have a lower magnitude than the other types of reliability coefficients. The reason for this is similar to
the reason why it is considered the best one to use. To obtain an alternate forms coefficient, one must administer
two forms of the same test to a group of examinees, and correlate scores on the two forms. The two forms of the
test are administered at different times and (because they are different forms) contain different items or content. In
other words, there are two sources of error (or factors that could lower the coefficient) for the alternate forms
coefficient: the time interval and different content (in technical terms, these sources of error are referred to
respectively as “time sampling” and “content sampling”). The alternate forms coefficient is considered the best
reliability coefficient by many because, for it to be high, the test must demonstrate consistency across both a time
interval and different content.
151. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The majority of women experience some depression following childbirth but, for most, these symptoms are mild. For
about 10 to 20% of women, symptoms are sufficiently severe to qualify for a diagnosis of Major Depression.
152. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The belief that language acquisition relies primarily on innate biological capacities is referred to as the nativist
position. Of the theorists listed, only Chomsky is classified as a nativist. He proposed the existence of an innate
“language acquisition device.”
153. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
Note that you are being asked for the biggest threat to external validity, not internal validity in this question.
Therefore, you can rule out regression to the mean, which is generally viewed as a threat to internal validity
(regression probably wouldn't threaten internal validity anyway in this case, since both groups appear to be
equivalent in terms of their baseline depression levels).
External validity refers to the generalizability of research results. An "interaction between selection and treatment"
means that the effect of a treatment may not generalize to other members of the target population who differ in
some way from the research subjects. For example, in this case, it's possible that your therapy is effective for
individuals who are highly depressed, but would not have any effect on individuals who are moderately depressed.
154. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
It is your responsibility to take steps to prevent the misuse of potentially obsolete data. At the same time, access to
these records could facilitate the psychiatrist’s work with your client, and the client does have the right to request
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the records. Thus, a cover letter explaining the limitations of the records (i.e., they are old and probably obsolete at
least to some degree) is the way to go here.
155. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The effects of crowding are mediated by a person’s level of distraction; for example, a person viewing a boring
documentary in a crowded movie theater has been found to feel the effects of crowding more than a person
watching an interesting movie in the crowded theater. Contrary to “A,” men tend to be more adversely affected by
crowding than women. Contrary to “C,” crowding does not always have a negative impact on affect; rather, it tends
to enhance whatever a person is already feeling (e.g., a person at a crowded party or sports event may experience
enhanced positive feelings). And common sense should have allowed you to eliminate “D” because people are less
willing to discuss intimate details in crowded situations.
156. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Fiedler’s Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and
distinguishes between two types of leaders – high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good
interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance).
Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader’s success is contingent on
the situation, task to be completed, leader’s style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes
task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and
person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder,
situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.
157. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Several studies conducted by the World Health Organization have consistently found differences in the course and
outcome of Schizophrenia patients from developing and industrialized countries. Patients from developing countries
more often exhibit an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter clinical course, and a complete remission of symptoms. No
consistent differences were found between these two groups in regards to age, gender, or type of symptoms.
158. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Since there is no indication that your client is in imminent danger to self or others, you would be obligated to protect
the confidentiality rights of your client. However, you should notify your client of this information that you received,
and discuss the option of turning himself in to the police.
159. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a
work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we
perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are
equal to those of our co-workers. An unbalanced situation is one in which these ratios are not perceived as equal.
For instance, underpayment is an unbalanced situation in which outcomes are perceived to be less than
contributions, and overpayment occurs when we perceive that our outcomes exceed contributions.
Equity theory holds that motivation is affected by these perceived input/output ratios. For instance, if you perceive
that you are contributing more to a company than a co-worker who is getting paid the same amount, you would
take action to correct this inequity, whether it be by working less, asking for a raise, leaving the job, re-evaluating
the value of your contributions, etc. Similarly, if you are getting paid more than a co-worker whom you perceive as
just as valuable as yourself, you may work more, do better quality work, decide that you are more important than
the co-worker, etc. The point is that the theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation is
complex and will be mediated by one's perceived input, the perceived input/output ratio of co-workers, and the
strategy chosen to achieve a state of balance or equity.
160. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. Extinction is the elimination or reduction in the frequency of a response achieved by the removal of the
reinforcement maintaining the response. The extinction of temper tantrums would entail ignoring the child’s behavior
or not reinforcing it with attention. This technique has been found to be effective for reducing temper tantrums.
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Positive (c.) and negative (d.) reinforcement are used to strengthen behaviors. Modeling (a.) is used to teach new
behaviors.
161. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern was added to Ainsworth’s original three patterns by Mary Main,
who found it to be a common pattern among children who had been mistreated by their caregivers.
162. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), “When forensic psychologists conduct an
evaluation or engage in the treatment of a party to a legal proceeding, with foreknowledge that their professional
services will be used in an adjudicative forum, they incur a special responsibility to provide the best documentation
possible under the circumstances.”
162. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Estimates of the female to male Major Depression rate range from 2:1 to 3:1. Thus, 2.5:1 is the best answer to this
question.
164. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
This is an example of inductive reasoning, or reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule. B, symbolic thought,
is the understanding that one thing can stand for another, C, deductive reasoning, is reasoning from a general law to
a particular case, and D is object permanence, the understanding that objets continue to exist even when they are
not visible.
165. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Although the Ethics Code does not specify exactly how to resolve this type of ethical dilemma, it does state, “If a
psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the
psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and
maximal compliance with the Ethics Code” (Ethical Standard 3.05[b]). Consistent with the intent of the Code, the
best option would probably be to discuss the matter with your client immediately. After discussing it with your client,
additional steps, such as referring the client, may be appropriate.
166. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Pooled variance is the weighted average variance for each group. They are “weighted” based on the number of
subjects in each group. Use of a pooled variance assumes that the population variances are approximately the same,
even though the sample variances differ.
167. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Marlatt’s model of substance dependence holds that addicts learn to associate substance use with relief of selfcriticism and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful
when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of
cues and mediators that serve to encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person’s expectations, however,
excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to
more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is
self-reinforcing – it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is “over-learned” in that,
due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior.
You might have gone for choice A, since you probably knew that Marlatt is associated with a theory of relapse
prevention that has to do with attributions regarding the reasons for “slips.” However, according to Marlatt, a slip is
likely to lead to a full-blown relapse when the person makes dispositional attributions for it, such as when the person
blames him or herself. Relapse prevention involves teaching the person to make non-dispositional attributions, such
as blaming the situation or the nature of the disease. So this question illustrates the importance of reading carefully
and processing what you read, rather than relying on the recognition of “buzzwords.”
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168. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
In Holland’s personality typology, the Conventional type most enjoys manipulating data, filing, and copying. The
Realistic type (A) prefers working with tools and machinery. The Investigative type (B) is analytical, precise, and
curious. The Artistic type is creative, introspective, and nonconforming. The Social type enjoys working with others.
And the Enterprising type seeks economic or professional achievement through manipulating others. Obsessivecompulsive (D) is not one of Holland’s personality types.
169. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is also an example of a reversal design – a baseline measure of
a behavior is obtained (the “A” phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the “B”
phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured (the second “A”), and the
behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied (the second “B”). Choices C and D are examples of
multiple baseline designs. Multiple baseline designs do not involve withdrawal of treatment, but rather, apply the
treatment to multiple settings (multiple baseline across settings) or to the same behavior of different subjects
(multiple baseline across subjects).
170. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their
psychological effects. According to Weber, the “just noticeable difference” in the stimulus is proportional to the
magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.
171. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
To answer this question, you didn’t need to have had the Ethics Code memorized. All you needed was a good
understanding of what the Code is all about. Choice D is not part of the Ethics Code, since ethical and legal
standards, even though they sometimes overlap, are distinct, with the Ethics Code often holding psychologists to
more stringent standards. In fact, the Code states that “whether or not a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code
does not by itself determine whether he or she is legally liable in a court action.”
172. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
In extinction interventions, you don't want anything to accidentally reinforce the behavior. Let's say you advised
parents to ignore their child's whining attention-seeking behavior, and the behavior reduced in intensity. Then,
Grandma comes for a visit and when the child whines she gives him a cookie. This would be reinforcing, and so we'd
be back to square zero and would have to do the extinction all over again. So, accidentally applied reinforcement
often interrupts the extinction procedure.
173. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
Blocking occurs when a CS is presented simultaneously with a second stimulus just before the US. Although it would
seem that the second stimulus should acquire the properties of a CS from this procedure, that's not what happens.
Instead, the second stimulus does not produce a conditioned response. This is referred to as blocking.
174. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
A “split-brain” patient is someone whose corpus callosum (the bundle of fibers which connects the right and left
hemispheres of the cortex) has been severed. Since the left hemisphere controls language production, these
patients are unable to name objects projected to their right hemisphere because the information can’t be transferred
from the right to the left. However, research with these patients has demonstrated that the right hemisphere can
comprehend some aspects of language.
175. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
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In systematic desensitization, anxiety-arousing stimuli are paired with stimuli that produce an incompatible response
(often relaxation). In other words, it was designed to use counterconditioning in order to eliminate an anxiety
response. Some research suggests, however, that it is actually just the exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, without
aversive consequences, that explains the effectiveness of this technique.
176.Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
The easiest way to deal with this question and other questions like it is to remember that for the extremes of the IQ
continuum, the Stanford-Binet is a better measure to use. It will more accurately reflect the person’s functioning at
either the very top or very bottom of the range.
177. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix “intra” means the
same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how
to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is
to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to
score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories (choice C) are useful
for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.
178. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
According to Yalom, a potential disadvantage of the co-therapy format is that co-therapists may be overly
competitive and pursue their own interpretations rather than supporting inquiries begun by the group. If this occurs,
the group will be distracted and unsettled. The other choices describe potential advantages of the use of cotherapists.
179. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The feminist approach to psychotherapy rests on the assumption that social roles and socialization are important
determinants of behavior. Psychological conflicts are then alternative roles and options. A primary goal is
empowerment or helping women become more self-defining and self-determining.
180. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
There are a variety of approaches to the treatment of aggression in children; the cognitive-behavioral approach is
probably most common. In children who are older or developmentally advanced enough to understand, cognitive
approaches tend to focus on helping the person accurately interpret external cues, so that he or she does not
respond inappropriately with aggression. In younger children, the goal is often to identify the child’s goals, the
negative consequences of using aggression to meet those goals, and alternatives to aggression. The other choices
are not as likely to be helpful: consistent discipline is good, but contrary to choice A, overly harsh discipline can
serve to increase the child’s aggression. Reinforcement for alternative behaviors is not a proven method of directly
addressing aggression. And the notion that aggression is something that can be released through venting it on a
safe target (or, by the way, watching it on TV) has not been supported – apparently, engaging in aggressive
behavior only leads to more of the same.
181. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. The majority of individuals diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) demonstrate significant
reduction or remission of symptoms by middle age or sooner. Longitudinal studies involving those diagnosed in
adolescence or early adulthood indicate that symptom resolution with impulsive symptoms are the quickest to
resolve, followed by cognitive and interpersonal symptoms and finally affective symptoms are the most chronic and
show the least improvement with increasing age. (See: Zanarini, M.C., Frankenburg, F.R., Hennen, J. and Silk, K.R.
(2003). The longitudinal course of borderline pathology: 6 year prospective follow-up of the phenomenology of
borderline personality disorder, American Journal of Psychiatry, 160, 274-283).
182. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
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The notions of high- and low-context communication were introduced by Edward T. Hall, the author of The Silent
Language (1959) and The Hidden Dimension (1969). In the United States, the communication style of the Anglo
majority is low-context, but many racial/ethnic minorities (e.g., Latino, Asian, African-American) make use of a
high-context style. High-context communication is based on nonverbal language. Low-context communication on the
other hand is based upon the verbal part of messages.
183. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
This question is a little tricky. While they don’t literally have to “burn” the records of Bob’s grandmother, overall both
requests should be honored. According to the Buckely Amendment or the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act,
eligible students after age eighteen and their parents have the right of access to their children’s educational records
and can challenge any content thereof. Also records that are no longer useful or relevant for the students or the
educational institution are to be destroyed. Although Bob would not have any legal rights regarding the disposition of
his grandmother’s records, once the school is made aware of the obsolete records they should destroy them.
184. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Asperger’s Disorder is a pervasive developmental disorder characterized by qualitative impairment in social
interaction and restricted, repetitive, and stereotyped patterns of behaviors, interests, and activities. By definition,
there are no clinically significant general delays in cognitive and language development. Of the choices listed, it is
the diagnosis that best matches the child’s symptoms. In Rett’s Disorder, there are physical symptoms (e.g.,
deceleration of head growth) that are not mentioned in the question. In Autistic Disorder, there are significant
impairments in language development. And in Schizoid Personality Disorder, stereotyped behavior and interests
would not be present.
185. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "B"
Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type, sometimes referred to as health phobia, is described in the DSM-IV-TR
as “specified if the fear is cued by seeing blood or an injury or by receiving and injection or other invasive medical
procedure. This subtype is highly familial (d.) and is often characterized by a strong vasogal response (a.).” The age
of onset is usually early childhood and may occur at a younger age for women than men. In contrast to the other
Specific Phobias’ usual physiological response of acceleration of heart rate and elevation in blood pressure, 75% of
individuals with Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type report a history of a vasogal fainting response. The
physiological response involves a brief acceleration of heart rate and elevation in blood-pressure followed by a
deceleration and drop in blood pressure.
186. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The emic/etic distinction was first made by an anthropologist named Pike in 1954 and has since been applied to
cross-cultural psychology. The etic approach to the study of a culture involves studying it from the outside, using
universally accepted means of investigation. The emic approach, by contrast, involves studying the culture from the
inside and trying see it as its own members do.
187. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Compared to the SSRIs, the tricyclics are much more likely to cause anticholinergic effects. Confusion is one of
several possible anticholinergic effects. Other anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation,
urinary retention and tachycardia. The only anticholinergic listed in this question is amitriptyline. The other three
choices are SSRIs: fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and paroxetine (Paxil).
188. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
The freedom from distraction factor measures distractibility, concentration, and short-term memory. On the WISCIII, this factor is assessed with the Arithmetic and Digit Span subtests.
189. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Agnosia is the inability to identify something. It could be not recognizing a familiar face, a tone or sound, or not
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recognizing a body part when touched. If the incomprehension comes from language deficits, the usual term is
aphasia. So for non-language comprehension deficits, the common term is agnosia. For instance, individuals with
damage to the parietal lobe are sometimes unable to recognize objects touched with the contralateral hand. This
condition is known as tactile agnosia. Ataxia refers most often to lack of muscle coordination. Akinesia refers to lack
of voluntary motion, such as what occurs in some forms of catatonia.
190. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
James Marcia distinguishes between four identity statuses. Identity foreclosure is characterized by a commitment to
an identity (e.g., career) that was defined or suggested by a parent of other significant person.
191. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Research has suggested that overall, boys receive more criticism than girls from both male and female teachers.
Some research suggests that this pattern may be due mostly (if not completely) to the behavior of boys and girls in
the classroom. For instance, some studies show that girls on the average are more successfully adjusted to the
student role than boys; this is a primary reason why girls are less likely to be criticized. Boys, on the other hand,
misbehave more often and more disruptively than girls in the classroom.
192. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
Research on the efficacy of biofeedback for pain reduction indicates that it is as effective as treatments such as
relaxation training. This is true for the treatment of most disorders or conditions, however in cases such as the
treatment of Raynaud's Disease or migraine headaches, some studies suggest that biofeedback is the treatment of
choice.
193. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test’s construct validity. The matrix contains
correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different
methodologies. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this
matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different traits using similar methods. An example
might be the correlation between a test of depression based on self-report data and a test of anxiety also based on
self-report data. If a test has good divergent validity, this correlation would be low. Divergent validity is the degree
to which a test has a low correlation with other tests that do not measure the same construct. Using the above
example, a test of depression would have good divergent validity if it had a low correlation with other tests that
purportedly measure different traits, such as anxiety. This would be evidence that the depression test is not
measuring traits that are unrelated to depression.
194. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been
described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The
purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and
diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take [W. Burke, 1982, Organization Development: Principles and
Practice. Boston, MA: Little, Brown and Company].
195. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “B”
Kohler, a founder of the gestalt school of psychology, studied insight learning. In one of his experiments, a
chimpanzee had to get some food placed outside his cage. He had two sticks but they were too short to reach the
food. As he was sitting with the two sticks in his hand, the chimp had what Kohler called an “a-ha experience”: He
quickly fit the sticks together and was able to get the food. This a-ha experience – a sudden, novel solution to the
problem – is the basis of insight learning. According to Kohler, insight learning cannot be explained by traditional
behavioral theories of learning, which are based on reinforcement and associations between stimuli.
196. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "D"
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D. Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring.
Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy. Tracking (identifying and using the family’s values, life themes,
etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family’s behavioral and affective style) are methods used to join the family system.
Constructing a family map (a.) is a technique used for the structural diagnosis of the family. Relabeling and
reframing (b.) are restructuring techniques. Enactment (c.) is used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the
family.
197. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “D”
The final stage in Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development occurs in late adulthood and involves a conflict
between integrity and despair. Successful resolution occurs when the individual gains “wisdom” and finds meaning in
life.
198. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "A"
A. Traumatic (physical) brain injuries are generally divided into three main types. The two more dangerous types are
tissue bruising (b) and swelling (c), which cause tissues to swell and become compressed within the skull resulting in
intercranial pressure (ICP). Shearing, or nerve fiber tearing, occurs from sudden impact of the brain with an object.
Unlike tissue bruising and brain swelling, brain injury from nerve tearing is difficult to detect with ultrasound
techniques such as x-rays, CT scans and MRIs which are most frequently used in traumatic brain injury cases. A PET
(Positron Emission Tomography) scan is more effective in the detection of nerve tearing injuries. A PET scan
measures metabolic processes, thus allowing an appraisal of how the brain is functioning. It tracks natural
compounds, such as glucose, as the brain metabolizes them. By showing the areas of different metabolic activity, it
then becomes easier to make diagnoses, such as determining the areas responsible for epileptic seizures.
199. Explanation
The Correct Answer is “C”
This is one of those concepts that you either know or don’t know, so it wouldn’t be worth a lot of time trying to
figure out the right answer. Now you know: Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by
teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.
200. Explanation
The Correct Answer is "C"
The concordance rate for Schizophrenia among siblings is about 10%. If you didn't know this, you might have been
able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high. And 0.5% is at the
low end of estimates of the approximate lifetime prevalence rate of Schizophrenia and therefore should have seemed
too low to be the concordance rate among related individuals.