Table
of
Table of
C O N T E N T S
C
OEPFON T E N T S
About
• What is EPFO?
• Brief History of EPFO
• Functions of EPFO
• Departments in EPFO
• Hierarchy in EPFO
About APFC
• How is the recruitment conducted?
• What is the pattern of examination?
• What is the eligibility?
• Who should prepare for this exam?
• Previous Years Cut Off marks
• Is recruitment regular?
• What is the syllabus of the exam?
• What is the training like?
• What is the job profile and functions of APFC?
• What is the salary?
• What are the allowances and benefits?
• What are the promotion opportunities?
• All About Postings
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam
• General English
• Indian Culture, Heritage and Freedom Movement
• Governance and Constitution of India
• Present Trends in Indian Economy
• General Science
• Population, Development and Globalization
• Current Events
• Accountancy and Auditing
• Insurance
• Industrial Relations and Labour Laws
• Social Security
•
Basic Knowledge of Computer Applications
•
Elementary Maths
•
Statistics
Previous year questions with solutions
•
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2015
•
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2012
•
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2004
•
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2002
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO
•
What is the 6 step formula?
•
Our Legacy - Our Students
About EPFO
About EPFO
• What is EPFO?
• Brief History of EPFO
• Functions of EPFO
• Departments in EPFO
• Hierarchy in EPFO
About EPFO | 02
About EPFO
What is EPFO?
The full form of EPFO is Employees’ Provident Fund
Organisation. It is a statutory, autonomous body that
regulates and manages the Provident Funds (PF) in India.
It comes under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
The mission of EPFO is “To extend the reach & quality of
publicly managed old-age income secu ity programmes
through consistent and ever improving standards of
compliance and benefit delive y in a manner that wins
the approval and confidence of Indians in our methods,
fai ness, honesty and integ ity, thereby cont ibuting to
the economic and social well-being of Indians”. EPFO
provides social security to the employees through these
3 schemes• The Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 (EPF)
• The Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995 (EPS)
• The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme,
1976 (EDLI)
EPFO is one of the world's largest Social Security
Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of
financial transactions undertaken. At present, it
maintains 24.77 crore accounts (Annual Report 2019-20)
pertaining to its members.
Brief History of EPFO
The Employees' Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees'
Provident Funds Ordinance on November 15, 1951. It was replaced by the Employees'
Provident Funds Act, 1952. The Act is now referred to as the Employees' Provident Funds &
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and
Schemes framed there are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of
Trustees, Employees' Provident Fund, consisting of representatives of Government (Both
Central and State), Employers, and Employees.
About EPFO | 03
Functions of EPFO
ENFORCEMENT OF
THE ACT ACROSS
THE COUNTRY
MAINTENANCE
OF INDIVIDUAL
ACCOUNTS
SETTLEMENT OF
CLAIMS
5 MAJOR
FUNCTIONS
OF EPFO
About EPFO | 04
ENSURING PROMPT
PENSION
PAYMENTS
MAINTAINING &
UPDATING
RECORDS
Departments in EPFO
There are several departments in EPFO, a few of them are as mentioned below •
Training department
•
Banking & Investment department
•
Accounts department
•
Recovery department
•
Compliance department
•
Public Relations or Publicity department
•
Technical department
•
Human Resource department
About EPFO | 04
Hierarchy
in EPFO
1
Central Provident Fund
Commissioner (CPFC)
2
Additional Central
Commissioner (Headquarters)
3
Regional
Commissioner - I
4
Regional
Commissioner - II
5
Assistant Provident Fund
Commissioner (APFC)
6
Enforcement/Accounts
Officer
7
Section Supervisors
8
Social Security Assistants
9
Data Entry Operators
10
Multi-tasking staff
About EPFO
02
About
APFC
• How is the recruitment conducted?
• What is the pattern of examination?
• What is the eligibility?
• Who should prepare for this exam?
• Previous Years Cut Off marks
• Is recruitment regular?
• What is the syllabus of the exam?
• What is the training like?
• What is the job profile and functions of
APFC?
• What is the salary?
• What are the allowances and benefits?
• What are the promotion opportunities?
• All About Postings
About APFC | 06
About APFC
How is the recruitment conducted?
Recruitment
Test
APFC in EPFO are
recruited through a
2 stage recruitment
process
Interview
What is the pattern of the examination?
Let’s first see when the UPSC EPFO APFC examination was held in the past.
If we start from the year 2000, the UPSC EPFO APFC examination has taken place a total of
4 times - notification came out in the year 2002, 2004, 2012 and the last recruitment
notification came out in 2015.
In 2004, the examination pattern consisted of a written test followed by an interview. The
written test was of 100 marks, there were 120 questions that were to be answered by the
aspirants in 2 hours duration. Please note that there was no negative marking in the
examination that was held in 2004.
In 2012, the examination pattern consisted of a written test followed by an interview. The
written test was of 100 marks, there were 100 questions that were to be answered by the
aspirants in 2 hours duration. There was ⅓ negative marking in the examination that was
held in 2012.
In 2015, the examination pattern consisted of a written test followed by an interview. The
written test was of 100 marks, there were 120 questions that were to be answered by the
aspirants in 2 hours duration. There was ⅓ negative marking in the examination that was
held in 2015.
From the above information combined with the information that one can gather from the
recent UPSC EPFO Enforcement Officer/ Accounts Officer examination, we can quite safely
conclude that in the next recruitment notification for UPSC EPFO APFC, the exam pattern
can be as follows:
About APFC | 07
Recruitment Test
•
Interview Details
•
Total Duration - 2 Hours
•
Total Marks - 100 Marks
•
Total Marks - 100 Marks
•
Category-wise Minimum
•
Total Questions - 120
cut-off marks
•
Negative Marking - 1/3rd
◦
UR - 50 marks
•
Objective Type
◦
OBC - 45 marks
•
Offline Mode
◦
SC/ST/PH - 40 marks
The weightage of Recruitment Test and Interview can be 75:25 respectively.
What is the eligibility?
Age*:
Maximum 35 yrs*.
(Minimum age limit is not mentioned in the notification)
Educational Qualifications:
Essential: Degree of a recognized University or
equivalent.
Desirable: Diploma in Company Law/ Labour Laws / Public
Administration.
Who should prepare for this exam?
Anyone who aspires to be a Class A officer that too of a commissioner level with very less
effort should consider preparing for this exam.
There can be multiple motivation factors to prepare for this exam, for eg., you get postings in
metro cities, have an opportunity to work on a wider canvas, great work-life balance, job
security, job satisfaction and most important you will be working in the world’s largest Social
Security Organisations.
About APFC | 08
Previous Years Cut O
marks
The table below shows cut-off for recruitment test, interview and final cut-off for the year
2015 (The last recruitment was conducted in the year 2015) -
Category
UR
OBC
SC
ST
PH PH(OH)
PH(HH)
Recruitment Test
66.5
60.5
56.5
54.5
51.5
44.5
Interview
50
45
40
40
-
-
Final Selection
268.37
249.86
234.74
229.30
221.94
201.54
Is recruitment regular?
As per the past trends, recruitment for the post of APFC is not so regular. The last 4
recruitments were held in the year 2015, 2012, 2004 & 2002. The next notification is
expected to be released in early 2023.
What is the syllabus of the exam?
Based on the previous exam notifications of UPSC EPFO APFC and the recently concluded
written examination of UPSC EPFO Enforcement Officer/ Accounts Officer, we can list down
the syllabus topics to be as follows:
•
General English
◦
Parts of Speech
◦
Conditional Sentences
◦
Structure of Sentence
◦
Prepositions
◦
Subject-Verb
◦
Conjunctions
◦
Agreements
◦
Articles
◦
Nouns
◦
Adjectives
◦
Pronouns
◦
Determiners
◦
Verbs
◦
Adverbs
◦
Tenses
◦
Active-Passive
◦
Modals
◦
Rearrangement Para Jumbles
About APFC | 09
•
◦
Reading Comprehension
◦
Synonyms
◦
Complex Preposition
◦
Antonyms
◦
Phrasal Verbs
◦
One word substitution
◦
Idioms & Phrases
◦
Biology
General Science
◦
Physics
▪
Units and Measurements
▪
Food Components
▪
Kinematics including distance,
▪
Health and Diseases
displacement, speed, velocity and
▪
Cells and Tissues
acceleration
▪
Organ systems – Digestive
Dynamics and Newton’s laws of
system, Skeletal system, Muscular
motion
system, Respiratory system,
▪
Electricity
Circulatory system and
▪
Pressure and its applications
Reproductive System
▪
Light – Phenomenon like
▪
▪
◦
Refraction, Reflection, Total
▪
Satellites and orbits
Internal Reflection, Dispersion,
▪
Indian Space Programme
Diffraction and Interference
▪
Important Space Agencies of the
Uniform Circular Motion and
world
Simple Harmonic Motion
◦
Chemistry
▪
◦
Applications of Space Technology
Important technologies
▪
Physical and Chemical changes
▪
Nuclear Technology
▪
Elements, Compounds and
▪
Biotechnology
▪
Information and Communication
Mixtures
▪
Atoms and Molecules
▪
Chemistry in daily life
▪
Energy – Renewable and NonRenewable
•
Space technology
▪
Metals and Non-metals
▪
Acids and Bases
Current Events
Technology
▪
Nanotechnology
About APFC | 10
•
Indian Culture, Heritage and Freedom Movement
◦
Decline of Mughal Empire and Rise
▪
Police System
of Regional Powers
▪
Judicial System
▪
The Army
▪
Development in Press
▪
Development in Communication
▪
Reasons for Disintegration of
Mughal Empire
◦
◦
▪
Later Mughals after Aurangzeb
▪
Emergence of Regional Powers
▪
Weakness of Regional Politics
Advent of Europeans
▪
◦
Development of Railways
Revolt of 1857
▪
Advent of Portuguese in India
▪
Causes of Revolt of 1857
▪
Dutch in India
▪
Beginning and Spread of Revolt
▪
Advent of English in India
▪
Suppression of Revolt
▪
Advent of Danes in India
▪
Cause for the failure of Revolt
▪
Advent of French in India
▪
Nature of Revolt
▪
Consequences of 1857 Revolt
Rise of British in India
▪
Anglo French Struggle for
Supremacy
▪
British Conquest of Bengal
▪
British conquest of Mysore and
Maratha Empire
▪
▪
INC
▪
•
Police Administration
•
Revenue Administration
▪
▪
▪
Highlights of Pre – Congress
Political work
▪
Foundation of Indian National
Congress
▪
Early Nationalists – the Moderate
Era
▪
Contributions of Moderate
Nationalists
▪
Early reforms during British Rule
▪
Political Associations before
Indian National Congress
Significant policies of British to
consolidate
Reasons for Rise of Indian
Nationalism
Reorganization of British Political
system
▪
Rise of Nationalism & Formation of
British annexation beyond Indian
frontiers
▪
◦
British conquest of Sindh, Punjab
and Awadh
◦
and Education
Powers and Functions of
Parliament
Administrative reforms under
▪
Prominent Moderate Leaders
British rule
▪
Indian Council Act of 1892
Aspects of British Administration
in India
About APFC | 11
◦
Swadeshi Movement and Rise of
▪
Extremism
◦
1932
▪
Understanding Extremists
▪
Government of India Act of 1935
▪
Swadeshi Movement
▪
Aftermath of Civil Disobedience
▪
Morley Minto Reforms
Movement
Important EVENTS from 1908 - 1918
▪
First phase of Revolutionary
▪
◦
Important Events from 1940 to 1947
▪
Wardha Resolution
▪
Delhi Durbars
▪
August Offer and Individual
▪
First World War and Nationalist
▪
Satyagraha
Movement
▪
Cripps Mission
Entry of Mahatma Gandhi in Indian
▪
Quit India Movement
Freedom Struggle
▪
Constitutional deadlocks after
Important Congress Sessions
Quit India Movement
between 1908 - 1918
▪
Important Events from 1919 – 1929
Indian National Army and RIN
mutiny
▪
Post War Economic Hardships
▪
Government of India Act, 1919
▪
Rowlatt Act 1919
Movements
▪
Non-Cooperation and Khilafat
▪
Backdrop of Indian Renaissance
Movement
▪
Important Reform Movements and
▪
▪
◦
▪
Growth of left movement in India
▪
2nd Phase of Revolutionary
their leaders – Eastern India
▪
Simon Commission and Nehru
▪
▪
Civil Disobedience Movement –
First phase
▪
Karachi Congress Session
▪
Round Table Conferences
▪
Second Phase of Civil
Disobedience Movement
Important Reform Movements and
their leaders – North India
▪
report
Important Events from 1929 to 1939
Important Reform Movements and
their leaders – Western India
Struggle
▪
Run up to Independence
Socio – Religious Reform
Swarajist and 2nd Phase of
Revolutionary Interview
◦
Provincial Elections of 1937
Activities
▪
◦
Communal Award and Poona Pact,
Other Important Movement and
their leaders
▪
Reform Movements of other
Religions
About APFC | 12
◦
◦
Miscellaneous Topics of Modern
▪
Rock Cut & Cave Architecture
History
▪
Temple Architecture in India
▪
Indo Islamic Architecture
▪
Anti – Colonial Rebellions in India
▪
Tribal Uprisings
▪
Politico – Religious Uprisings
▪
History of Music in India
▪
Major Peasant Movements
▪
Anatomy of Indian Music
Miscellaneous Topics of Ancient
▪
Types of Musical Instrument
▪
Schools of Indian Music –
◦
and Medieval History
◦
◦
Indian music
▪
Indus Valley Civilization
▪
Vedic Age
▪
Popular Folk Music Styles
▪
Rise of Mahajanpadas
▪
Popular Folk Theatre
▪
Mauryan Dynasty
▪
Post Mauryan
▪
History of Dance in India
▪
Gupta Age
▪
Important Aspects of Dances in
▪
Harsha Empire
▪
Delhi Sultanate
▪
Classical Dance Forms in India
▪
Mughal Rule in India
▪
Folk Dance Forms in India
Religion & philosophy in india
Hindustani & Carnatic Music
◦
Indian dance forms
India
◦
Indian paintings
▪
Schools of Indian Philosophy
▪
Pre Historic Paintings in India
▪
Buddhism & Jainism
▪
Mural Paintings in India
▪
Bhakti & Sufi Movement in India
▪
Miniature Paintings in India
▪
Important Saints in India
▪
Folk Painting Styles in India
▪
Modern Indian Paintings
Sculptures & architecture in india
▪
▪
Sculptures in Indus Valley
◦
Civilisation
▪
Language Families in India
Ancient Indian Art - Mauryan &
▪
Scripts in India
▪
Linguistic Composition in Indian
Post Mauryan; Gupta & Post Gupta
Art
▪
Indian languages & Literature
Population
Sculptures Under Delhi Sultanate
& Mughal Rule
▪
Modern Sculpture
▪
Pottery in India
▪
Architecture During Indus Valley
Civilisation
▪
Literature in India
◦
Important fairs & festivals in india
◦
UNESCO world heritage in india
About APFC | 13
•
Population, Development and Globalization
◦
Indian geography
▪
Landforms in India – Mountains &
▪
Amendment of Indian Constitution
▪
Basic Structure Theory of Indian
Constitution
Hill Ranges; Plateaus; Islands etc.
▪
Political Geography – Borders of
◦
▪
India; Locations of States/UTs
▪
◦
Important Places in News
Distribution of Global Human
Population
▪
◦
◦
Population
▪
◦
Rights and Duties of Indian Citizens
▪
Fundamental Rights
▪
Directive Principles of State Policy
▪
Fundamental Duties
Centre State Relations
Population in India – Attributes;
▪
Legislative Relations
Distribution; Census 2011 Data
▪
Administrative Relations
▪
Financial Relations
▪
Committees/Commissions for
Development
▪
Concept of Development –
Meaning; Pillars; Processes
▪
Centre State Relations
Human Development – Concept;
▪
Human Development Index
◦
▪
Meaning of Globalisation
▪
Triggers & Barriers for
◦
•
▪
◦
▪
•
President of India
Impact of Globalisation
•
Vice President of India
•
Prime Minister of India
Basics About Pollution & Climate
•
Council of Ministers at Centre
Change
•
Cabinet Committees
▪
Constitutional Framework of India
▪
UNION EXECUTIVE
Globalisation
Governance and Constitution of India
◦
Emergency Provisions in India
Executives in India
Environment
▪
Interstate Relations – Interstate
Councils, Zonal Councils etc.
Globalisation
▪
Making of Indian Union Indian
Citizenship
Drainage Systems – Rivers; Lakes;
Wetlands.
▪
Indian Union and Its Citizens
Historical Background of Indian
Constitution
▪
Making of Indian Constitution
▪
Features of Indian Constitution
▪
Preamble of Indian Constitution
◦
STATE EXECUTIVE
•
Governor
•
Chief Minister
•
Council of Ministers at State
Legislatures in India
▪
Parliament of India
•
Composition of Parliament of
India
About APFC | 14
•
•
Eligibility of Member of
▪
Major Non – Constitutional Bodies
Parliament of India
▪
Quasi – Judicial Bodies
Presiding Officers of the
▪
Pressure Groups
▪
Regulatory Bodies
Parliament
•
Proceedings of Parliament
•
Legislative Procedure in
◦
Parliament
•
Annual Financial Statement –
◦
Budget
▪
Municipalities
Miscellaneous Topics
Parliament
▪
Scheduled and Tribal Areas
•
Parliamentary Privileges
▪
Special Provisions for Some State
•
Committees of the Parliament
▪
Comparison of Indian Constitution
Powers and Functions of
with other Countries
State Legislature
Composition of State
Legislature
•
Eligibility of a Member of State
•
Present Trends in Indian Economy
◦
•
•
•
Microeconomics V
Macroeconomics
Presiding Officers of the State
Legislature
▪
Basics of Demand
Proceedings of State
▪
Basics of Supply
Legislature
▪
Equilibrium
Legislative Proceedings in the
◦
State Legislature
•
Introduction to demand and supply
▪
Legislature
◦
Panchayati Raj Institutions
Union Territories
•
◦
▪
▪
•
▪
Local Governments in India
Elasticity of demand
▪
Concept and Factors Affecting
Demand
Election System in India
Judiciary in India
▪
Shift in Demand Curve
▪
Supreme Court of India
▪
Price Elasticity of Demand
▪
High Courts in India
▪
Cross Elasticity of Demand
▪
Subordinate Courts
▪
Income Elasticity of Demand
▪
National Legal Service Authority
▪
Tribunals in India
◦
Measurement of Growth
▪
Basics of Economy
Constitutional and Non –
▪
Circular Flow of Income
Constitutional Bodies in India
▪
Gross Domestic Product
Major Constitutional Bodies
▪
Important Macroeconomic
▪
Identities
About APFC | 15
◦
▪
Growth, Welfare and Development
▪
Market Structures
Inflation
▪
Meaning and its Causes
Poverty Alleviation and employment
▪
Effects of Inflation
generation in india
▪
Important Terms associated with
▪
▪
Poverty
Inflation
•
Poverty and its Types
▪
Measures to Control Inflation
•
Measurement of Poverty
▪
Measuring Inflation
•
Poverty Related Sustainable
▪
Inflation Targeting in India
Development Goals
▪
Trends of Inflation in India
Employment in India
◦
Fiscal Policy
•
Employment Generation in India
▪
Basics of Budget
•
Types of Unemployment in
▪
Basics of Fiscal Policy
India
▪
Components of Budget
Measurement of
▪
Measures of Government Deficit
Unemployment
▪
Public Debt in India
Status of Employment in India
▪
Goods and Services Tax
•
•
◦
◦
Economic History of India
◦
Regional Economic cooperation
▪
Indian Economy: A Brief Overview
▪
Regional Economic Integration
▪
Various Sectors of the Economy
▪
South Asian Association for
▪
Features of the Indian Economy
▪
Concerns Facing the Indian
Regional Cooperation
▪
Economy
Nations
▪
Underdevelopment
▪
Meaning and Types of Economic
Sectoral Technical and Economic
Planning
Cooperation
▪
Economic Planning in India Before
▪
▪
and After Independence
◦
Association of Southeast Asian
▪
Economic Reforms in India
▪
NITI Aayog
Basics of Monetary Policy
▪
Monetary Policy in India
▪
Instruments of Monetary Policy
▪
Types of Monetary Policy
▪
Financial Institutions in India
Bangladesh, China, India and
Myanmar
▪
Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific
Partnership
Monetary policy
▪
Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
▪
Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership
About APFC | 16
▪
▪
One Belt, One Road and Maritime
▪
Industrial Corridors
Silk Route
▪
Indices/Surveys to Measure
Shanghai Cooperation
Industrial Performance in India
Organization
▪
▪
Indian Ocean Rim Association
▪
Indian Ocean Commission
▪
Appointment
▪
Asia Pacific Economic
▪
Composition of Finance
◦
Finance commission
Cooperation
◦
◦
Commission
▪
BRICS
▪
Roles & Responsibilities
▪
India’s Experience with Free Trade
▪
Procedures and Functioning
Agreements
▪
14th Finance Commission
▪
15th Finance Commission
International Economic Institutions
▪
Introduction
▪
The World Bank
▪
The International Monetary Fund
▪
World Trade Organisation
•
Accountancy and Auditing
◦
Introduction to the Accounting
▪
Meaning of an economic event
Opening UP of the indian economy,
▪
Branches of Accounting
balance of payment
▪
Understanding the process of
▪
Balance of Payment
▪
Exchange Rate
▪
Types of Currencies
▪
Exchange Rate Management in
accounting
▪
◦
▪
Introduction
▪
Evolution of India’s Industrial
Accounting principles and
conventions
Industrial and labour policy
▪
Objective of Accounting
Theory base of accounting
India
◦
Labour Policy
▪
◦
Accounting terminology
Recording of transactions
▪
Business Transactions and Source
Document
Policy
▪
Disinvestment
▪
Accounting Equation
▪
Micro, Small and Medium
▪
Accounting books – Journal,
Enterprises in India
Ledger, cash book and other
▪
Special Economic Zones
accounting books
▪
National Investment and
▪
Rules of Debit and Credit
Manufacturing Zones
▪
Types of Accounts
National Manufacturing Policy
▪
Logic of recording of transactions
▪
About APFC | 17
◦
Trial Balance
▪
Industrial conflicts and disputes
Concept, importance, and role of
▪
Settlement of industrial disputes
Trial balance
▪
Labour welfare
▪
Types of accounting errors
▪
Wages
▪
Formation of Trial balance
▪
Workers participation
▪
Suspense Account
▪
◦
◦
management
Bills of Exchange
▪
International industrial relations
▪
Concept and introduction
▪
Industrial health & safety
▪
Parties of Bill of Exchange
▪
Miscellaneous
▪
Modus operandi of Bills of
Labour Laws
◦
Exchange
▪
Payment of wages act, 1936
▪
Promissory note
▪
Minimum wages act, 1948
▪
Discounting of Bills – Process
▪
Industrial employment (standing
▪
Rebate of Bill of Exchange
orders) act, 1946
Accounting Standards
▪
Trade unions act, 1926
▪
Accounting for share capital
▪
Factories act, 1948
▪
Accounting for inventory and
▪
Industrial disputes act, 1947
investment
▪
Accounting for bonus shares and
buyback of shares
◦
Preparation of the Final Accounts
▪
•
Insurance
◦
▪
Understanding of Trading
and balance sheet
Ratio Analysis
▪
•
Concept and type of ratios.
Industrial Relations and Labour Laws
◦
Industrial Relations
Insurance – Basic Concept and
Definition
account, Profit and loss account
◦
Introduction to Insurance
◦
▪
Risk and Insurance
▪
Different parties of Insurance
▪
Modus Operandi of Insurance
▪
Basic Terminology of Insurance
Principles of Insurance
▪
Principle of utmost good faith
▪
Overview of industrial relations
▪
Principle of insurable interest
▪
Indian labour force
▪
Principle of proximate cause
▪
Trade union
▪
Principle of subrogation
▪
Collective bargaining
▪
Principle of loss minimization
▪
Industrial discipline and grievance
▪
Principle of indemnity
procedure
▪
Principle of contribution
About APFC | 18
◦
Types of Insurance
▪
▪
Life Insurance and its types
miscellaneous provisions act,
▪
Term Insurance
1952
▪
Unit-linked Insurance Plan
▪
Maternity benefit act, 1961
▪
Pension plans
▪
Payment of gratuity act, 1972
▪
Money back Policy
▪
General Insurance and its types
▪
Motor insurance
▪
Home insurance
▪
Fire insurance
▪
Miscellaneous other type of
•
Basic Knowledge of Computer
Applications
◦
Introduction to Computer
▪
▪
Insurance as a part of social
using computer.
History of Computer
Insurance schemes
▪
Generation of Computer
▪
Insurance role in social security
▪
Types of Computers
▪
Difference between social
◦
Computer Organisation and data
security insurance schemes and
Processing cycle
private insurance schemes
▪
Computer Organisation
▪
Current state of insurance in India
▪
Data Processing Cycle
▪
Emerging concepts in the
▪
Instruction Cycle
◦
Hardware and software
▪
Social Security
◦
▪
▪
insurance industry.
◦
Uses of Computer, along with
advantages and disadvantages of
security
•
Computer – Definition and Major
parts of Computer
insurance
◦
Employees’ provident fund and
Introduction to the computer
hardware and software parts
Social security schemes
▪
Input and Output devices
▪
Types of retirement schemes
▪
Functions of Motherboard
▪
National pension system
▪
Types of Software
▪
Atal pension yojana
▪
Social security schemes
◦
Social Security Legislations
▪
Employees compensation act,
1923
▪
Employees’ state insurance act,
1948
◦
Memory
▪
Introduction
▪
Memory Hierarchy
▪
Memory Management
▪
Memory Measurement
Operating System
▪
Introduction
About APFC | 19
▪
Functions of operating system
▪
Types of operating system
▪
Basic understanding of MS-DOS
◦
▪
◦
•
Difference Parameters used in
Mean, Median and mode
▪
Introduction
▪
Concept of Weighted Mean
▪
Components of computer network
▪
Calculation of Median for an un-
▪
Types of Computer network
▪
Computer network architecture
▪
Network Protocols
▪
Network topology
▪
Introduction to the Internet
grouped and grouped data
▪
Calculation of Mode for an ungrouped and grouped data
◦
Measure of Dispersion
▪
Concept of Dispersion
Commonly used short-cuts and full
▪
Types of Dispersion
form used in computer parlance
▪
Measures of Dispersion
▪
Mean Deviation
▪
Understanding the basic concept
Basics of Statistics
▪
Introduction
▪
Role of Data in statistics
▪
Types of Statistics
▪
Sampling – Concept and ways to
collect sample
▪
Frequency distribution – concept
of Bi-variate frequency
distribution
▪
◦
▪
Computer Network
Elementary Maths and Statistics
◦
Concept of Mean, Median and
Mode
and windows
◦
Measure Of Central Tendency
Frequency Diagrams
Sampling Methods
▪
Difference between data and
information
▪
Techniques of Random Sampling
▪
Technique of Non-Random
Sampling
▪
Elevation and sampling factor
▪
Error in Statistics
of Standard Deviation (SD)
About APFC | 20
What is the training like?
After the recruitment, all the officers initially undergo a 45-day on the job training in the field
offices. After completion of on the job training, APFC (Probationers) have to undergo 3 to 6
months of Foundation Course Induction Training at National Academy for Training & Research
in Social Security (NATRSS), New Delhi and National Academy of Direct Taxes (NADT),
Nagpur. The Induction Training broadly includes classroom sessions on many functional areas
viz. EPF & MP Act, Civil Procedure Code & Criminal Procedure Code, Labour laws, Central
Labour Machinery, Provident Fund investment & management, Officer like Qualities (OLQs)
sessions, Behavioural Management sessions, etc.
What is the job profile and functions of APFC?
The PF Commissioners are the spine of the organization. They are responsible for the
enforcement and administration of the Act and scheme provisions. The work area is very
broad. Some of the many job roles are as below:
•
Enforcement, Exemption & Recovery:
◦
Enforcement of the Act to all establishments under the Act.
◦
Ensuring Compliance of exempted PF trusts.
◦
PF Commissioners have been notified as Recovery Officers by the Central Government
for recovering the PF dues from employers by using the powers akin to that of a civil
court.
•
Quasi Judicial Authority
◦
Conducting inquiry which shall be deemed to be a judicial proceeding
◦
Power to recover damages from the employers by way of penalty.
◦
Powers akin to a civil court for enforcing attendance and production of records of any
person for the purpose of inquiry
•
Finance & Accounts, Banking, Pension, Legal
◦
Settlement of Claims, Preparation of Accounts of members and establishments
◦
Preparation of Balance Sheet
◦
Ensuring filing and follow up of criminal cases filed against the employers in the Courts
of Magistrates
◦
•
Liaisoning with banks for smooth pension disbursement.
Human Resource Management (HRM)
◦
Recruitment, Promotion and all administrative matters
◦
Looking after administrative Vigilance
◦
Legal matters related to service
◦
Staff Associations
About APFC | 21
•
Customer Service
◦
Ensuring timely resolution of grievances
◦
Organizing Bhavishya Nidhi Adalat every month.
◦
Ensuring technological upgradation and computerization in EPFO
◦
Carrying out training & research in the field of social security in the national academy
and zonal training institutes.
•
Intelligence
◦
Monitoring and providing permission to inspections
◦
Monitoring investment in equities
◦
Keeping watch on timely investment and returns
◦
Work related to Social Security Agreements with other countries
What is the salary?
Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner is a Group A service. The basic pay for the APFC
position is Rs 15,600 to Rs 39,100 with a Grade Pay of Rs 5400. So, the gross salary comes
out to be around Rs. 81000-91000 per month and in-hand salary is around Rs. 74000-85000
per month (without income tax deduction).
What are the allowances and benefits?
Apart from the salary, an APFC is entitled to Dearness allowance i.e., DA (revised every 6
months or so), House Rent Allowance i.e., HRA (varies as per the city you are posted), leased
accommodation, travelling allowance, monthly medical allowance, etc.
What are the promotion opportunities?
Promotion structure on joining as an APFC in EPFO is quite smooth. After being an APFC for 5
years, you are promoted to Regional Commissioner II (However, after 4 years you get a senior
time scale that increases your grade pay to 6600). Then, in next 5 years you are promoted to
Regional Commissioner I . After completion of 5-6 years as Regional Commissioner I, you are
promoted to Additional Central Commissioner (Headquarters) who heads a zone or is the
incharge of the head office (New Delhi) and there are only 12 vacancies for this post.
All About Postings
After getting recruited as an APFC, you can be posted anywhere in India. Generally you are
posted in a zone, not more than 9 years and in a particular office you are not supposed to
stay more than 3 years. There are about 140 regional offices and 114 district offices of EPFO.
Regional offices are generally in Tier 1 & Tier 2 cities and district offices are generally in Tier 2
& Tier 3 cities. So basically you can be posted in any of these offices.
Resources to
prepare for
the APFC Exam
• General English
• Indian Culture, Heritage and Freedom
Movement
• Governance and Constitution of India
• Present Trends in Indian Economy
• General Science
• Population, Development and Globalization
• Current Events
• Accountancy and Auditing
• Insurance
• Industrial Relations and Labour Laws
• Social Security
• Basic Knowledge of Computer Applications
• Elementary Maths
• Statistics
03
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam | 23
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam
Resources can be divided into -
Magazines
Newspapers
Books
Subject
Books
General English
• Objective General
English by SP
Bakshi - For
Grammar and
Comprehension
• Word Power
Made Easy By
Norman Lewis For Vocabulary
Indian Culture,
Heritage and
Freedom
Movement
• Modern Indian
History NCERT
Books - For
History and Indian
Culture
• Indian Art &
Culture by Nitin
NA
Singhania
• Spectrum’s A
Brief History of
Modern India For Freedom
Movement
Websites
Websites
Newspapers
Magazines
NA
Read editorial
section of The
Hindu/The
Indian Express
NA
NA
NA
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam | 24
Governance
and
Constitution
of India
• Political Science
NCERTs of Class 9th
to 12th (If you do not
have any prior
background of
political system)
• M Laxmikanth
NA
NA
NA
Present
Trends in
Indian
Economy
• NCERTs of Class 9th
to 11th
• Indian Economy by
Ramesh Singh
NA
• The
Hindu
• Indian
Express
NA
General
Science
• NCERTs of Class 6th
to 10th
• ISRO website
(For Space
missions of India)
• Department of
Biotechnology
website (For
latest
developments &
initiatives in
scientific sector)
• Department of
Science &
Technology (For
latest
developments &
initiatives in
scientific sector)
• The
Hindu
• Indian
Express
NA
Population,
Development
and
Globalization
• Indian Geography
NCERTs of class 11th
& 12th
• Indian Economy by
Ramesh Singh - For
static part of
Development and
Globalization
PIB (Development
Reports & Indices)
• The
Hindu
• Indian
Express
NA
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam | 25
Current
Events
NA
• PIB
The Hindu
Yojana
• UNESCO website
Indian Express
Kurukshetra
NA
NA
NA
• Down To Earth
website
Accountancy
and Auditing
• Accountancy
NCERTs of
class 11th &
12th
• Introduction to
Accountancy
by S. Chand
Insurance
• JAIIB book for
Paper 1 Principles and
Practices of
Banking
• IRDAI website ebooks
(https://www.irdai.
gov.in/ADMINCMS
/cms/whatsNew_L
ayout.aspx?page=
PageNo2489&flag
=1)
NA
Google
some topics
for their
definition
Industrial
Relations and
Labour Laws
• Industrial
• Ministry of Labour
Relations and
Employment
Labour Laws by
website (for
Piyali Ghosh
updated
(updated
information of
edition)
labour laws)
NA
NA
Resources to prepare for the APFC exam | 26
Social Security
NA
•
PIB
•
PRS
•
Ministry of Social
Justice and
Empowerment
•
Ministry of Women
and Child
Development
•
Ministry of Health
and Family
welfares
•
Ministry of
Minority Affairs
•
Ministry of Labour
and Employments
•
Ministry of
Housing and
Urban Affairs
NA
NA
Computer
Computer
Awareness by
Arihant
NA
NA
NA
Elementary
Maths
Quantitative
Aptitude by Dr.
R.S. Aggarwal
NA
NA
NA
Statistics
Statistics for
Economics
NCERT of class
11th
NA
NA
NA
Apart from the resources mentioned in the table, syllabus, PYQs and mock tests should be
your best friends throughout your preparation journey of UPSC APFC Examination.
Previous
Year
Questions
• UPSC EPFO APFC – 2015
• UPSC EPFO APFC – 2012
• UPSC EPFO APFC – 2004
• UPSC EPFO APFC – 2002
04
Previous year questions with solutions | 28
UPSC EPFO APFC - 2015
Q1. What is the indica on out of the sentence: ‘I
gave him a piece of my mind’?
(a) Appreciation
(b) Learning
(c) Gree ng
(d) Scolding
Q2. What is the meaning of the expression:
'Blue blood'?
(a) Polluted industrial waste water
(b) Sap of teak wood
(c) An aristocrat
(d) A costly object
Q3. ‘He was hoist by his own petard' refers to
(a)
He had problems as a result of his own
plans to hurt others
(b)
He was high up on the pole
(c)
He would usually run away from trouble
(d)
He was indifferent to his surroundings
Q4. What is Ballad?
(a)
A novel
(b)
A historical narra on
(c)
A popular story or folktale in verse
(d)
Musical comedy
Q5. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
(b) It is a sort of poli cal philosophy
(c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in
playing Holi
(d) It is presen ng the work of someone else as
one's own
Q6. Rivalry between the two clans has become
water under the bridge means.
(a) The rivalry continues
(b) It has become a thing of the past
(c) It connects the two clans
(d) It is not forgo en
Q7. Consider the sentence:
The teacher gave me the book.
1
2
3
4 5 6
where the words are numbered for convenience
of reference. Consider also the insertion of a
single word 'only' into this sentence to indicate a
desired emphasis. Where shall this word be
inserted if the emphasis is to be
i. On the recipient
ii. On the uniqueness of the item given
iii. On the giver respec vely (only one at a
me)?
respectively (only one at a me)?
(a) Between 3-4; (ii) A er 6; (iii) Between 2-3
(b) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before
1
(c) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) A er 1
(d) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii)
Between 1-2
Q8. What is the meaning of the term 'didactic'?
(a) Intended to be inspira onal
(b) Teaching a moral lesson
(c) Received as comical
(d) Sharing an informative experience
Q9. Consider the statement: The message of
peace and brotherhood permeated the address
by the Chief Guest. Which of the following is
meant by 'permeate' in this statement?
(a)
To advocate
(b)
To spread all over
(c)
To anchor and stabilize
(d)
To leave a permanent impression
Q10. Arrange the following to form a
gramma cally correct sentence:
1. Einstein was
2. although a great scien st
3. weak in Arithmetic
4. right from his school days
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Q11. Besides resistance to pests, what are the
other prospects for which plants have been
gene cally engineered?
Previous year questions with solutions | 29
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutri ve value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis
in spaceships and space sta ons
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q12. Acid rain is due to
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollu on
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pes cide pollu on
(d) Dust particles in the atmosphere
Q13. DNA fingerprin ng is a technique used for
the detec on of
(a) Alzheimer's disease
(b) Disputed parentage
(c) AIDS
(d) Yellow fever
Q14. In raising an object to a given height by
means of an inclined plane, as compared with
raising the object ver cally, there is a reduc on
in
(a) Force to be applied
(b) Work required
(c) Distance covered
(d) Fric on force
Q15. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on
a string. Any point on the string moves in
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that
of the wave
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of
the wave
(c) Uniform circular mo on with the same angular
speed as that of the wave
(d) Uniform circular mo on with a different
angular speed than that of the wave
Q16. Consider the following statements on
Global Positioning System (GPS):
1. GPS allows accurate me-stamping on ATM
transac ons.
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring
signals worldwide.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q17. Consider the following statements: Cellular
technology evolves in stages called Genera on
(G), where
1. A Genera on represents the number of
subscribers; higher Genera on has more
subscribers.
2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA and
GSM.
3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has
GSM standard.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Q18. Consider the following statements for
Nano-technology:
1. It is the technology of crea ng materials and
devices atom-by-atom.
2. Physical proper es change at the Nanometer
scale.
3. Chemical proper es change at the nanometer
scale.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q19. Consider an industry with the following
features:
• Budgeted monthly fixed cost = Rs.2,20,000
• Normal monthly output= 12000 per standard
labour hour
• Standard variable overhead rate = Rs.25 per
labour hour
Previous year questions with solutions | 30
What would be the total factory overhead rate?
(a) 40.33 per labour hour
(b) 41.67 per labour hour
(c) 42.67 per labour hour
(d) 43.33 per labour hour
Q20. Data regarding inventory of a par cular
item of usage in the produc on ac vi es of an
organiza on are the quan ty in stock is 1500
units and the value of this stock is Rs.1,27,500.
(This works out to an average unit cost of 85.)
During the ensuing year X. an addi onal 300 units
are purchased at a unit cost of Rs.95.
Consumption in production processes during the
year X has been 600 units.
Working by the First-In-First-Out basis, the value
of the residual inventory of the item at the end of
the year X will be
(a) Rs.1,00,000
(b) Rs.1,02,500
(c) Rs.1,05,000
(d) Rs.1,07,500
Q21. Which of the following are the typical
differences between the private insurance
programmes and the social insurance
programmes?
1. Adequacy versus Equity
2. Voluntary versus Mandatory Par cipa on
3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights
4. Funding
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q22. The devices that work with computer
systems as soon as they are connected are
described as:
(a) Hot Swapping
(b) Bay Swap
(c) Plug-N-Play
(d) USB Swapping
Q23. Which one of the following so ware
applica ons would be the most appropriate for
performing
numerical
and
sta s cal
calcula ons?
(a) Database
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Graphics package
(d) Document processor
Q24. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks
covering different areas. Their first alphabets L,
W and M respec vely stand for
(a) Local, World and Middle
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
Q25. The method of communica on in which
transmission can take place in both direc ons,
but happens only in one direc on at a me, is
called
(a) Duplex
(b) Half Duplex
(c) Full Duplex
(d) Simplex
Q26. A collec on of programs that controls how
the computer system runs and processes
informa on is called as:
(a) Compiler
(b) Opera ng System
(c) Linker
(d) Assembler
Q27. SMPS is the acronym for
(a) Store Mode Power Supply
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switched Mode Power Supply
(d) Start Mode Power Supply
Q28. USB is the acronym for
(a) Uniform Service Broadcas ng
(b) Unique Solu on Bus
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal Service Broadcas ng
Previous year questions with solutions | 31
Q29. The 'Cloud Compu ng technology refers to
(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using
fuzzy logic
(b) Many computers that are interconnected
through wireless networks and satellites
(c) A distributed computer architecture that
provides so ware, infrastructure and
platforms
just
as
required
by
applica ons/users
(d) A futuris c technology that will use clouds to
perform compu ng
Q30. Which of the following is not an absolute
measure of dispersion?
(a) Range
(b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Coefficient of Varia on
Q31. The mean and standard devia on of a set of
16 non-zero posi ve numbers in an observa on
are 26 and 3-5 respec vely. The mean and
standard devia on of another set of 24 non-zero
positive numbers without changing the
circumstances of both sets of observa ons, are
29 and 3, respec vely. The mean and standard
devia on of their combined set of observa ons
will respec vely be
(a) 27.8 and 3.21
(b) 26.2 and 3.32
(c) 27.8 and 3.32
(d) 26.2 and 3.21
Q32. What is the perimeter of the figure shows
below?
AB=x, CD=x+1, EF=x+2, GH = x+3, BC=DE = FG =HI
=y
(a) 44 cm
(b) 48 cm
(c) 54 cm
(d) 58 cm
Q33. In a medium-size township, the trend of
annual immigra on is an addi on of 20% of the
popula on as it was at the beginning; also 15% of
the popula on as it was at the beginning is
estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If
the current popula on is 80000, what is the likely
popula on three years hence?
(a) 90000
(b) 91200
(c) 92000
(d) 92610
Q34. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2 (r1 <
r2). The area of the bigger circle is 693/2 cm². The
difference of cm their 2 circumferences is 22 cm.
What is the sum of the diameters of the two
circles?
(a) 17.5 cm
(b) 22 cm
(c) 28.5 cm
(d) 35 cm
Q35. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, …, a24 are in
arithmetic progression and a1+a5+a10+a15+a20+a24
= 225. The value of a1+a2+a3+a15+…a23+a24 is
(a) 525
(b) 725
(c) 850
(d) 900
Q36. A certain sequence of integers is
constructed as follows:
Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The
next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their
sums, i.e. 1. This process of construc ng the next
number by the sum of the last two constructed
numbers con nues. Taking these numbers 0, 1, 1
as the first, second and third numbers in the
Previous year questions with solutions | 32
sequence, what will be the 7th and 10th numbers,
respec vely?
(a) 6 and 30
(b) 7 and 33
(c) 8 and 34
(d) 10 and 39
Q37. A firm is purchasing two items, both on
credit on the same day. The credit term offered
for the first item is 2 1/2/10, 1/20, net 30; and 2
the credit term offered for the second item is 3/5,
2/15, net 30. The declared purchase cost of item
1 is Rs.60,000 and that of item 2 Rs.1,40,000. If
both credits can be se led on the 14th day, what
will be the total amount to be paid out?
(a) Rs.1,97,200
(b) Rs.1,97,500
(c) Rs.1,96,600
(d) Rs.1,98,400
Q38. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and
their respec ve average marks are found to be 55
and 58. The average marks of the en re class are
(a) 565
(b) 566
(c) 567
(d) 568
Q39. There are four iden cally sized and shaped
balls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball is
of a different colour, these being Green, Red,
White and Blue, only one ball of each colour.
Without looking into the box, one ball is
randomly picked out and its colour is noted; then
it is returned to the box. What are the chances
that, in two successive draws, one may get the
white ball and the red ball in whichever order?
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Q40. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36m cubic
metres of water, and is filled to half of its
capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed
upright on its circular base on level ground, the
height of the water in the tank is 4 metres But
when this tank is placed on its side on level
ground, what will be the height of the surface of
the water above the ground?
(a) 9 metres
(b) 6 metres
(c) 3 metres
(d) 1 metre.
Q41. In a race, the first four winners are to be
awarded points. Each winner's points must be 5
more than that of the next posi on winner. Total
sum of the points to be awarded is 50. What will
be the points for the third position winner?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Q42. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long
as its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates
will totally enclose this garden, what is the length
of the garden?
(a) 120 m
(b) 130 m
(c) 140 m
(d) 150 m
Q43. In a chess tournament, each of the six
players will play with every other player exactly
once. What is the number of matches that will be
played during the tournament?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Previous year questions with solutions | 33
Q44. A man buys apples at a certain price per
dozen and sells them at 8 mes that price per
hundred. What percentage does he gain or lose?
(a) 4% profit
(b) 6% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 6% loss
Q45. For which me intervals, is the percentage
rise of popula on the same for the following
data?
(a) 1970-80 and 1980-90
(b) 1980-90 and 1990-2000
(c) 2000-2010 and 1990-2000
(d) 1980-90 and 2000-2010
Q46. Four quan es are such that their
arithmetic mean (A.M.) is the same as the A.M. of
the first three quan ties. The fourth quan ty is
(a) Sum of the first three quan es
(b) A.M. of the first three quan es
(c) (Sum of the first three quan es)/4
(d) (Sum of the first three quan es)/2
Q47. If the difference of two numbers is greater
than the sum of the numbers, then
(a) Both the numbers are nega ve
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is nega ve
(c) At least one of the numbers is nega ve
(d) None of the above
Q48. A palindrome is a number which reads the
same from le as well as from right, for example,
23732. What is the number of palindromes
between 10 and 1010?
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) 90
Q49. In wri ng all the integers from 1 to 300, how
many mes is the digit 1 used?
(a) 160
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 110
Q50. Consider the sequen al integers 27 to 93,
both included in the sequence. The arithme c
average of these numbers will be
(a) 61-5
(b) 61
(c) 60-5
(d) 60
Q51. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man
reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the
time taken by him to reach the office at his usual
speed?
(a) 80 minutes
(b) 70 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 50 minutes
Q52. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of
50 m and s ll beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs
at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
(a) 4.4 km/h
(b) 5.4 km/h
(c) 6.4 km/h
(d) 7.4 km/h
Q53. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and
B can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance
can A beat C in a 0-5 km race?
Previous year questions with solutions | 34
(a) 42 m
(b) 43 m
(c) 44 m
(d) 45 m
Q54. In an office, 40% of the employees are men
and the rest women. Half of the employees are
tall and half short. If 10% of the employees. men
and short, and are 40 employees are women and
tall, the number of tall men employees is
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
Q55. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25
kg of rice worth Rs.32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth
Rs.35/kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit.
What is the selling price of mixed rice.
(a) 35.40/kg
(b) 38.33/kg
(c) 36.50/kg
(d) 37.42/kg
Q56. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD
on open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m
wide along BC. Concreted pathways are intended
to be laid on the inside of the plot all around the
sides. The pathways along BC and DA are each 4
m wide. The pathways along AB and DC will
mutually be of equal widths such that the unconcreted internal plot will measure three-fourth
of the original area of the plot ABCD. What will
be the width of each of these pathways along AB
and DC?
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 6 m
Q57. At a dinner party, every two guests used a
bowl of rice between them, every three guests
used a bowl of dal among them and every four
guests used a bowl of curd among them. There
are altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of
guests present at the party?
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Q58. If 5 men or 9 women can finish a piece of
work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will done
same work in
(a) 12 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 15 days
Q59. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50%, its
area will be reduced by
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Q60. In an examina on paper where maximum
marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got
25% marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less
than D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
(a) 65%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Q61. Under the Cons tu on of India, which of
the following statements are correct?
1. The Cons tu on is supreme.
2. There is a clear division of powers between the
Union and the State Governments.
3. Amendments to the Cons tu on have to
follow the prescribed procedure.
Previous year questions with solutions | 35
4. The Union Parliament and the State
Legislatures are sovereign.
5. The Preamble to the Cons tu on cannot be
invoked to determine the ambit of
Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q62. The Right to Free and Compulsory Educa on
Act, 2009 provides for educa on to every child. in
the age group
(a) 5 – 13 years
(b) 8 – 16 years
(c) 7 – 15 years
(d) 6 – 14 years
Q63. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of
the Rajya Sabha
(a) He can make statements only in the Rajya
Sabha
(b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha
within six months
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in
the Lok Sabha
(d) He will not be able to vote in his Favour
Q64. Which one of the following formed the basic
premise for developing the Indian Cons tution?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The U.S. Constitu on
(c) The Bri sh Constitu on
(d) The UN Charter
Q65. The Malimath Commi ee (2003) looked at
ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Jus ce System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India
Q66. The Parliament can make any law for whole
or any part of India for implemen ng
interna onal trea es
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
With the consent of all the States
With the consent of majority of the States
With the consent of the States: concerned
Without the consent of any State
Q67. Statement (I): Speaker of the Lok Sabha
appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts
Commi ee.
Statement (II): Members of Parliament, eminent
persons from industry and trade are the members
of the Public Accounts Commi ee.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q68. What is the chronological sequence of the
following events?
1. First Ba le of Panipat
2. Vietnam War
3. French Revolu on
4. First Gulf War
5. World War I
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4
(b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2
(d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4
Q69. Which of the following statements are
correct in respect of 'Stridhana"?
1. Various types of movable property gi ed to a
woman on various occasions during her
life me.
2. Various types of movable property gi ed to a
woman at the me of her first marriage.
3. On the woman's death, this wealth could be
inherited by her children and husband.
4. On the woman's death, this wealth could be
inherited by her natural legally adopted
Previous year questions with solutions | 36
children, with none of the sons-in-law, having
any claim on any part thereof.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q70. The Khilafat Commi ee accepted Mahatma
Gandhi's sugges on for a non-violent noncoopera on protest against the Government in
its mee ng at
(a) Bombay
(b) Nagpur
(c) Allahabad
(d) Kanpur
Q71. Which of the following statements reflect
the dis nc ve features about 6th century BCE
Ganas or Sanghas?
1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
2. The ancient Indian Ganas were nonmonarchical states.
3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avan were the
most powerful States of that era.
4. The procedures of the Buddhist monas c
order (Sangha) pa erned on the Sangha
poli cs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Q72. What is the chronological sequence of the
following developments?
1. Decline in the export of Indian Co on
2. Cotton boom in India
3. Civil War in America
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 1 and 3
Q73. The Problem of Rupee' was whose D. Sc
Thesis
(a) Sri Aurobindo
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Q74. Which of the following industries were first
established during the Bri sh Rule in India?
(a) Cotton Tex le Industry and Jute Industry
(b) Jute Industry and Iron & Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Tex le Industry and Chemical Industry
(d) Jute Industry and Chemical Industry
Q75. Which of the following were the main
aspects of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience
Movement
2. To take part in the then forthcoming Shimla
Conference
3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil
Disobedience Movement
4. Release of Political Prisoners
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Q76. A branch of scholarship that flourished in
Europe, par cularly from the fi eenth to the
eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the
apprecia on, chronicling and classifica on of
historic and non-organic relics, monuments and
old texts refers to
(a) Archaeology
(b) History
(c) Architecture
(d) An quarianism
Q77. Which of the following is not true of the
Western Ghats?
(a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western
Ghats as 'World Heritage Sites' in 2012
Previous year questions with solutions | 37
(b) It is one of the eight ho est hotspots of
biological diversity in the world
(c) It has two reserves and thirteen na onal parks
(d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil
reserves
Q78. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which
river?
(a) Falgu
(b) Ganga
(c) Sarayu
(d) Yamuna
Q79. The term 'Carbon footprint' means
(a) A region which is rich in coal mines
(b) The amount of reduc on in the emission of
CO₂ by a country
(c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing industries
(d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by
our day-to-day ac vi es.
Q80. Green Revolution in India was expedi ously
feasible in zones of
(a) High rainfall
(b) Moderate rainfall
(c) Assured irriga on
(d) Higher popula on density
Q81. What is the correct sequence of tributaries
of the river Ganga from West to East?
(a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
(d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
Q82. In the study of pollu on, SPM refers to
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Ma er
(b) Sulphur Par culate Matter
(c) Solid Par culate Ma er
(d) Suspended Par culate Ma er
Q83. What is know India Programme (KIP)?
(a) A programme for children aged 1215years from rural areas to make them
aware of different aspects of India
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of
rural teachers to different parts of the
country
(c) An out-reach programme of the Ministry
of External Affairs to build closer es with
India's neighbourhood
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to
promote awareness among them about
different aspects of India.
Q84. Which of the following are incorporated in
the Government approved Na onal Telecom
Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum
download speed of two megabits per
second
2. India's rural tele-density to be improved
from 39% to 70% in the next five years
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.85 Which of the following is one of the
Millennium Development Goals fixed by the
UNO?
(a) Having extreme poverty and hal ng the
spread of HIV/AIDS
(b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains
which can ensure bumper crops
(c) To ensure that popula on does not
increase in least developed countries.
(d) Develop procedures towards adequate
and mely forewarning on hurricanes and
tsunamis
Q.86 Amongst the following, who is the latest
recipient of the "Bharat Ratna' award?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Previous year questions with solutions | 38
Q.87 The Malimath Commi ee (2003) looked at
ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Jus ce System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India.
Q.88
The
Rangarajan
Commi ee
on
disinvestment of shares in Public Sector
Enterprises suggested that
1. The percentage of equity to be divested
56 should be no more than 49% for
industries explicitly reserved for the
public sector and it should be either 74%
or 100% for others.
2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment
should be maintained.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.89 What was the posi on held by Dr. S.
Radhakrishnan, before he became the VicePresident of India?
(a) Ambassador to the U.S.A.
(b) Chairman, U.G.C.
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union
Q.90 Which of the following trends in FDI inflows
are correct?
1. In 2003 04, the FDI Equity inflow
percentage growth was nega ve.
2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows
were very high and posi ve.
3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were posi ve,
but had decreased rela ve to the
previous year.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q.91 The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the
CERN project is a par cle accelerator located on
the border between
(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Spain and Switzerland
(d) France and Switzerland
Q92. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed
to
(a) Generate addi onal economic ac vity
throughout the country
(b) Beautify suburban areas
(c) Upgrade the facili es in the countryside
(d) Promote investment from domes c and
foreign sources
Q93. Unbalanced' Growth is hypothesized when
(a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on
several growth routes
(b) Supply of labour is fixed
(c) Supply of capital is unlimited
(d) Ac ve sectors need to, and do energize
sluggish sectors
Q94. Transporta on plays a great role in any
economy. Which of the following modes of
transporta on has the highest elasticity?
(a) Air
(b) Rail
(c) Road
(d) Water
Q95. How does an expansionary monetary policy
affect the rate of interest and level of income?
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate
of interest
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level
of income
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level
of income
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level
of income
Q96. When the Government ownership in Public
Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called
Previous year questions with solutions | 39
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Priva zation
Public-Private Partnership
Disinvestment
Defla on
Q97. Consider the following items:
1. Consumer goods and services
2. Gross private domes c investment
3. Goods and services produced by
Government
4. Net income from abroad
the
Which of the above items are included in GNP?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q98. Which of the following statement best
describes the content of the theory of
distribu on?
a) The distribu on of income among different
individuals in the economy
b) The distribu on of income between the
Centre and the State Governments
c) The principle of just distribu on of wealth and
income
d) The distribu on of income between the
owners of factor resources
Q99. The demand for a factor of produc on is
said to be derived demand because
1. It is a func on of the profitability of an
enterprise
2. It depends on the supply of complementary
factors
3. It stems from the demand for the final
product
4. It arises out of means being scarce in rela on
to wants
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q100. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade
Area, they abolish all restric ons on trade among
themselves and
a) They establish a common external tariff on
imports from outside countries
b) They abolish all restric ons on imports from
outside countries
c) They abolish all restric ons on imports from
other Free Trade Areas
d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs
and quotas on imports from outside countries
Q101. The term 'Dear Money' refers to
a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
b) Value of money at the recession stage
c) High rate of interest
d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of
interest on housing loans
Q102. Which of the following are the roles of the
Finance Commission in India?
1. The distribu on of money collected through
taxes
2. Evalua on of Centrally sponsored schemes
3. Evolve principles based on which funds are
allo ed among States
4. To develop Five Year Plans
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q103. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Interna onal Monetary
Fund (IMF)?
1. India is a founder member of the IMF
2. India's quota in the IMF is more than 4 percent
3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on
the IMF
4. IMF conducts regular review of India's
economic status under Article IV
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Previous year questions with solutions | 40
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q104. Statement (1): The effects of an income tax
on consump on, saving and investment are micro
effects
Statement (II): Income tax is an example of direct
tax.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q105. Statement (1): Trade between two
countries takes place on account of differences in
costs.
Statement (II): Different countries have different
factor endowments
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q106. Statement (1): Foreign investment may
affect a country's export performance.
Statement (II): Inflow of foreign exchange may
cause apprecia on of local currency leading to a
rise in the price of export commodi es.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q107. The famous 'Giri' approach in Industrial
Rela ons in India espouses the cause of
(a) Adjudication
(b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
(c) Conciliation
(d)
Arbitra on
Q108. What are the disadvantages of Provident
Fund Scheme?
1. Money is inadequate for risks occurring early
in working life.
2. Infla on erodes the real value of savings.
3. It generates forced saving that can be used to
finance na onal development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q109. Consider the following programmes:
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
2. Micro Finance Programme
3. National Manufacturing Compe veness
Programme
4. Cluster Development Programme
What is common in the above programmes?
a) They are related to improving agriculture
b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises
c) They are programmes to improve large scale
industries
d) They are programmes to improve the
tradi onal co age industries
Q110. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (M.B. Act)
provides for how many weeks' wages during the
maternity period?
a) 11 weeks
b) 12 weeks
c) 13 weeks
d) 14 weeks
Q111. Which of the following are the instruments
of providing social security in India?
Previous year questions with solutions | 41
1. Income Tax
2. Employees' Provident Fund
3. General Sales Tax
4. LIC
5. National Pension Scheme
6. Postal Provident Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q112. Consider the following statements in
respect of Atal Pension Yojana:
1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to
40 years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only a er
he a ains the age of 60 years.
3. A er the death of a beneficiary, his spouse
continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permi ed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q113. Consider the following statements
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana:
1. It is applicable for all bank account holders up
to the age of 60 years.
2. It is a life insurance cover
3. It is an accident insurance cover.
4. The insurance covers death and permanent
disability due to accident.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Q114. Social Security may provide cash benefits
tom persons faced with
1. Sickness and disability
2. Unemployment
3. Crop failure
4. Loss of the marital partner
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q115. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
covers factors like
1. Factories and establishments with 10 or more
employees.
2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to
employees and their families.
3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness and
maternity.
4. Monthly payments in case of death or
disablement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q116. Consider the following statements
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyo Bima
Yojana:
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age
group of 18 years.
2. The premium is deducted from the account
holder's bank account through 'auto debit
facility'.
3. The life insurance worth is decided by the
account holder and he has to pay the annual
premium accordingly.
4. The life insurance amount is given to the
family a er the death of the subscriber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q117. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is:
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately
(b) A search engine
Previous year questions with solutions | 42
(c) An ac vity of the user
(d) A command initiated by the sender
Q118. What is Apartheid?
(a) An interna onal organiza on of peace
(b) A medical term
(c) A trade charter
(d) A policy of racial segrega on
Q119. Consider the following statements about
All India Radio:
1. It is governed by the Prasar Bhara Board.
2. It was so named in 1936.
3. It does not provide DTH services.
4.FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its subsidiary
channels.
Q120. Which of the following are the func ons of
Foreign Investment Promo on Board (FIPB)?
1. To ensure expedi ous clearance of the
proposals for foreign investment.
2. Τo review periodically the implementa on of
the proposals cleared by the Board
3. To undertake all other ac vi es for promo ng
and facilita ng FDI as considered necessary from
me to me
4. To interact with the FIPC being cons tuted
separately by the Ministry of Industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Previous year questions with solutions | 43
Solutions
Q1. What is the indica on out of the sentence: ‘I
gave him a piece of my mind’?
(a) Appreciation
(b) Learning
(c) Gree ng
(d) Scolding
Answer: D
Explanation: The expression, ‘To give someone a
piece of your mind’ means to speak to someone in
an angry way. Therefore, the answer here is
‘scolding’ which means the act of speaking angrily
to someone because you disapprove of their
behaviour. Hence, op on (d) is the correct answer.
‘Apprecia on’ means recognition and enjoyment
of the good qualities of someone or something.
‘Learning’ means the acquisi on of knowledge or
skills through study, experience, or being taught.
‘Gree ng’ means a polite word or sign of welcome
or recogni on.
Q2. What is the meaning of the expression: 'Blue
blood'?
(a) Polluted industrial waste water
(b) Sap of teak wood
(c) An aristocrat
(d) A costly object
Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Blue blood’ is an idioma c
expression which means ‘A member of a wealthy,
upper-class family or ancestry’ and ‘aristocrat’
means ‘ someone whose family has a high social
rank, especially someone who has a tle’.
Therefore, ‘an aristocrat’ is the correct meaning of
the expression ‘blue blood’. Hence, op on (c) is
the correct answer.
Q3. ‘He was hoist by his own petard' refers to
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to
hurt others
(b) He was high up on the pole
(c) He would usually run away from trouble
(d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘He was hoist by his own petard’ is an
idioma c expression which means ‘Injured,
ruined, or defeated by one's own ac on, device, or
plot that was intended to harm another; having
fallen vic m to one's own trap or schemes’. Op on
(a) is the most suitable answer here.
Q4. What is Ballad?
(a) A novel
(b) A historical narra on
(c) A popular story or folktale in verse
(d) Musical comedy
Answer: C
Explanation: A ‘ballad’ is a poem or song narra ng
a story in short stanzas. Tradi onal ballads are
typically of unknown authorship, having been
passed on orally from one genera on to the next.
Therefore, op on (c) is the correct answer. A
‘novel’ is a fic ous prose narra ve of book
length, typically represen ng character and ac on
with some degree of realism. A ‘Historical
Narra ve’ or Narra ve history is the prac ce of
writing history in a story-based form. A ‘musical
comedy’ is a type of play or film that has singing
and dancing as part of the story and that is
humorous and entertaining,
Q5. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
(b) It is a sort of poli cal philosophy
(c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in
playing Holi
(d) It is presen ng the work of someone else as
one's own
Answer: D
Explanation: The term ‘plagiarism’ means the
prac ce of taking someone else's work or ideas
and passing them off as one's own, which is given
in op on (d). Therefore, op on (d) is the correct
answer.
Previous year questions with solutions | 44
Q6. Rivalry between the two clans has become
water under the bridge means.
(a) The rivalry con nues
(b) It has become a thing of the past
(c) It connects the two clans
(d) It is not forgo en
Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom ‘water under the bridge’
means problems that someone has had in the past
that they do not worry about because they
happened a long me ago and cannot now be
changed. Op on (b) is the correct answer here as
it gives the right meaning of the expression.
Q7. Consider the sentence:
The teacher gave me the book.
1
2
3 4 5 6
where the words are numbered for convenience
of reference. Consider also the inser on of a single
word 'only' into this sentence to indicate a desired
emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the
emphasis is to be
(i) On the recipient
(ii) On the uniqueness of the item given
(iii) On the giver
Respectively (only one at a time)?
(a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) A er 6; (iii) Between 2-3
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1
(c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) A er 1
(d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between
1-2
Answer: B
Explanation: (i)the recipient is ‘me’, therefore it
will be “only me” i.e. between 3-4.
(ii) the uniqueness of the item given is ‘book’,
therefore it will be “the only book” i.e. between 56.
(iii) the giver is the ‘teacher’, therefore it will be
“only the teacher” i.e. before 1.
Hence, op on (b) is the correct answer here.
Q8. What is the meaning of the term 'didac c'?
(a) Intended to be inspira onal
(b) Teaching a moral lesson
(c) Received as comical
(d) Sharing an informa ve experience
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘Didac c’ means ‘intended to teach,
par cularly in having moral instruc on as an
ulterior motive’. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer.
Q9. Consider the statement: The message of
peace and brotherhood permeated the address
by the Chief Guest. Which of the following is
meant by 'permeate' in this statement?
(a) To advocate
(b) To spread all over
(c) To anchor and stabilize
(d) To leave a permanent impression
Answer: B
Explanation: The term ‘permeate’ means ‘to
penetrate, pass through, and o en become
widespread throughout something’. Op on (b)
gives the right meaning of ‘permeate’ i.e. to
spread all over. Hence, op on (b) is the correct
answer.
Q10. Arrange the following to form a
gramma cally correct sentence:
1. Einstein was
2. although a great scien st
3. weak in Arithmetic
4. right from his school days
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: A sentence should be arranged in a
Subject+ verb+ object form. The subject can be
noun, pronoun, gerund, or clause. Here, the
sentence will start with either 1 or 2 (noun and
clause). Therefore, op on (a) and (c) will be
eliminated. Op on (b) will make a gramma cally
correct sentence a er rearrangement i.e. 2134.
Hence, op on (b) is the correct answer.
Previous year questions with solutions | 45
Q12. Acid rain is due to
Q11. Besides resistance to pests, what are the
other prospects for which plants have been
gene cally engineered?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutri ve value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis
in spaceships and space sta ons
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Plant gene c engineering, also known as plant
gene c modifica on or manipula on, is the key
that opens up the doors for introducing crops with
valuable traits to produce plants that require
fewer pes cides, fungicides, or fer lizers, and can
be more resistant to stress condi ons. The
applica ons of Plant Gene c Engineering are:
• Some benefits of gene c engineering in
agriculture are increased crop yields, reduced
costs for food or drug produc on, reduced
need for pesticides, enhanced nutrient
composi on and food quality, resistance to
pests and disease, greater food security, and
medical benefits to the world's growing
popula on.
• Drought-resistance and increasing shelf life
are some of the other applica ons of gene c
modifica on in plants.
• Gene c modifica on to enable growth of
plants in space is being done on the
Interna onal Space Sta on. Hence option D is
correct.
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollu on
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pes cide pollu on
(d) Dust particles in the atmosphere
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acid rain results when sulphur dioxide (SO 2) and
nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emi ed into the
atmosphere and transported by wind and air
currents. Hence option A is correct.
• The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and
other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric
acids. These then mix with water and other
materials before falling to the ground.
Q13. DNA fingerprin ng is a technique used for
the detec on of
(a) Alzheimer's disease
(b) Disputed parentage
(c) AIDS
(d) Yellow fever
Answer: B
Explanation:
DNA fingerprin ng is a laboratory technique used
to determine the probable identity of a person
based on the nucleo de sequences of certain
regions of human DNA that are unique to
individuals. Some of the applica ons of DNA
Fingerprin ng are:
• DNA analysis in forensic tests.
• Can be used to establish paternity tests.
Hence option B is correct.
• In criminal inves ga ons.
• To determine the frequency of specific genes
in a popula on which gives rise to diversity.
• Can be used to trace the role of gene c dri in
evolu on.
Q14. In raising an object to a given height by
means of an inclined plane, as compared with
raising the object ver cally, there is a reduc on
in
(a) Force to be applied
(b) Work required
(c) Distance covered
(d) Fric on force
Answer: A
Previous year questions with solutions | 46
Explanation:
Inclined plane is a simple machine consis ng of a
sloping surface, used for raising heavy bodies.
• The force required to move an object up the
incline is less than the weight being raised.
• It reduces the force to be applied in
comparison to lifting the load ver cally. Hence
option A is correct.
• It cannot be said that the work done is less as
this depends upon the distance travelled.
Q15. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on
a string. Any point on the string moves in
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that
of the wave
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of
the wave
(c) Uniform circular mo on with the same angular
speed as that of the wave
(d) Uniform circular mo on with a different
angular speed than that of the wave
Answer: A
Explanation:
A sinusoidal transverse wave travelling on a string
has any point on the string moving with the same
angular frequency as that of the wave.
• This is the basic condi on empirically observed
which allows equa ons of phase, phase
difference etc. to be derived. Hence statement
A is correct and statement B is incorrect.
• The par cle in such a wave moves in SHM and
not in uniform circular mo on. Hence
statements C and D are incorrect.
Q16. Consider the following statements on
Global Posi oning System (GPS):
1. GPS allows accurate me-stamping on ATM
transac ons.
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring
signals worldwide.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Global Posi oning System, originally Navstar
GPS, is a satellite-based radionaviga on system
owned by the United States government and
operated by the United States Space Force.
• Major financial ins tu ons use GPS to obtain
precise me for se ng internal clocks used to
create financial transac on
mestamps.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the United States’ Navstar GPS, 24 main
satellites in 6 orbits circle Earth every 12
hours. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q17. Consider the following statements: Cellular
technology evolves in stages called Genera on
(G), where
1. A Genera on represents the number of
subscribers; higher Genera on has more
subscribers.
2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA and
GSM.
3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has
GSM standard.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
The genera on of cellular technology provides for:
• Increased speed and change in technology
used to achieve that speed. Hence statement
1 is incorrect.
• 1G refers to the first genera on of wireless
telephone technology. These are the analog
telecommunica on standards that were
introduced in 1979.
• The main difference between the two mobile
telephone systems (1G and 2G), is that the
radio signals used by 1G network are analog,
while 2G networks are digital. Its examples
include CDMA and GSM. Hence statement 2 is
correct. Hence option D is correct.
Q18. Consider the following statements for
Nano-technology:
Previous year questions with solutions | 47
1. It is the technology of crea ng materials and
devices atom-by-atom.
2. Physical proper es change at the nanometer
scale.
3. Chemical proper es change at the nanometer
scale.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Nanotechnology refers to the branch of science
and engineering devoted to designing, producing,
and using structures, devices, and systems by
manipula ng atoms and molecules at nanoscale,
i.e. having one or more dimensions of the order of
100 nanometres (100 millionth of a millimetre) or
less. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Thus, Nanotechnology is not simply working at
ever smaller dimensions; rather, working at
the nanoscale enables scien sts to u lize the
unique physical, chemical, mechanical, and
optical proper es of materials that naturally
occur at that scale. Hence statements 2 and 3
are correct.
Q19. Consider an industry with the following
features:
• Budgeted monthly fixed cost = Rs.2,20,000
• Normal monthly output= 12000 per standard
labour hour
• Standard variable overhead rate = Rs.25 per
labour hour
What would be the total factory overhead rate?
(a) 40.33 per labour hour
(b) 41.67 per labour hour
(c) 42.67 per labour hour
(d) 43.33 per labour hour
Answer: D
Explanation
• The factory overhead is the total of all costs
incurred to maintain and run the produc on
facility or factory.
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
To compute the overhead rate, divide your
monthly overhead costs by your total
monthly sales.
Monthly sales are directly given in the
ques on, and it stands for 12000 units
Monthly Overhead cost = Fixed Cost +
Variable cost. Whereas fixed cost is directly
given in the ques on, which is Rs. 2,20,000
Variable cost = Standard variable overhead
rate * monthly output. Which will be,
12000*25 = 3,00,000.
Thereby total cost equals to 2,20,000 +
3,00,000 = 5,20,000
Total factory overhead rate = Total Overhead
cost/total monthly sales.
Total factory overhead rate = 5,20,000/12000
= 43.33.
Hence the correct answer will be op on D.
Q20. Data regarding inventory of a par cular
item of usage in the produc on ac vi es of an
organiza on are the quan ty in stock is 1500
units and the value of this stock is Rs.1,27,500.
(This works out to an average unit cost of 85.)
During the ensuing year X. an addi onal 300 units
are purchased at a unit cost of Rs.95.
Consumption in produc on processes during the
year X has been 600 units.
Working by the First-In-First-Out basis, the value
of the residual inventory of the item at the end of
the year X will be
(a) Rs.1,00,000
(b) Rs.1,02,500
(c) Rs.1,05,000
(d) Rs.1,07,500
Answer: C
Explanation
• First In, First Out (FIFO) is an accoun ng
method in which assets purchased or acquired
first are disposed of first.
• According to the ques on, the firm already
has the inventory of 1500 units, which is
valued at 1,27,500 and thereby the unit price
of these 1500 units comes out to be 85.
• According to the ques on, in the year X,
company purchased 300 extra units at a price
Previous year questions with solutions | 48
•
•
•
•
of 95, thereby the total inventory value of
these 300 units will be 28,500
Following table depicts the inventory usage
data
Timeline
Number
of Units
(A)
Total
Inventory
value
(A*B)
1500
Unit
Price of
the
product
(B)
85
Already
Present
inventory
Year X
Total
Value of
inventory
300
95
28,500
1,56,000
1,27,500
According to the ques on, company is
consuming 600 units and as per FIFO, the
assets purchased or acquired first are disposed
first. Which means we will u lise the already
present inventory first.
The following table depicts the inventory
usage by the year end (a er consump on)
Timeline
Number
of Units
(A)
Already
Present
inventory
Year X
Total
Value of
inventory
900
(1500600)
300
Unit
Price of
the
product
(B)
85
Total
Inventory
value
(A*B)
95
28,500
1,05,000
76,500
Thereby at the end of the year, total inventory
value will be 1,05,000.
Q21. Which of the following are the typical
differences between the private insurance
programmes and the social insurance
programmes?
1. Adequacy versus Equity
2. Voluntary versus Mandatory Par cipa on
3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights
4. Funding
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Typical
differences
between
private
insurance programs and social insurance
programs include:
• Equity versus Adequacy: Private insurance
programs are generally designed with greater
emphasis on equity between individual
purchasers of coverage, while social
insurance programs generally place a greater
emphasis on the social adequacy of benefits
for all par cipants. Therefore statement 1 is
correct.
• Voluntary versus Mandatory Par cipa on:
Participa on in private insurance programs is
o en voluntary, individuals usually have a
choice of insurers. Par cipa on in social
insurance programs is generally mandatory.
Therefore statement 2 is correct.
• Contractual versus Statutory Rights: The right
to benefits in a private insurance program is
contractual, based on an insurance contract.
However, Social insurance programs are not
generally based on a contract, but rather on a
statute, and the right to benefits is thus
statutory rather than contractual. The
provisions of the program can be changed if
the statute is modified. Therefore statement 3
is correct.
• Public health insurance plans are run by a
country’s government. Whereas Private health
insurance plans are run by individual
insurance companies. The cost of your
monthly premium depends heavily on the
types of services your plan will pay for.
Depending on the type of plan you choose, you
may pay a great deal more for private health
Previous year questions with solutions | 49
insurance than public. Therefore statement 4
is correct.
Hence the correct answer will be option D.
Q22. The devices that work with computer
systems as soon as they are connected are
described as:
(a) Hot Swapping
(b) Bay Swap
(c) Plug-N-Play
(d) USB Swapping
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Plug and Play (PnP) is a technology that allows
the opera ng system to detect and configure
internal and external peripherals as well as
most adapters.
• Plug and Play (PnP) is the part of Windows that
enables a computer system to adapt to
hardware changes with minimal interven on
by the user.
• A user can add and remove devices without
having to do manual configura on, and
without knowledge of computer hardware. For
example, a user can dock a portable computer
and use the docking sta on keyboard, mouse,
and monitor without making manual
configura on changes
Q23. Which one of the following so ware
applica ons would be the most appropriate for
performing
numerical
and
sta s cal
calcula ons?
(a) Database
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Graphics package
(d) Document processor
Answer: B
Explanation:
• A spreadsheet so ware tool is a pla orm
designed to analyse, organize, and store
informa on in a table with rows and columns.
• Today’s spreadsheets are able to perform
basic math func ons and have built-in
capabilities to carry out financial accoun ng
work and sta s cal tasks.
•
Three of the most common uses of
spreadsheets include: producing financial
budgets, sor ng and storing data, and
crea ng charts and graphs
Q24. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks
covering different areas. Their first alphabets L,
W and M respec vely stand for
(a) Local, World and Middle
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
Answer: C
Explanation:
A computer network is mainly of four types:
• Personal Area Network (PAN) - Personal Area
Network is a network arranged within an
individual person, typically within a range of 10
meters.
• Local Area Network (LAN) - Local Area
Network is a group of computers connected to
each other in a small area such as building,
office
• Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) - A
Metropolitan Area Network is a network that
covers a larger geographic area by
interconnec ng a different LAN to form a
larger network
• Wide Area Network (WAN) - A Wide Area
Network is a network that extends over a large
geographical area such as states or countries.
It is quite bigger network than the LAN
Q25. The method of communica on in which
transmission can take place in both direc ons,
but happens only in one direc on at a me, is
called
(a) Duplex
(b) Half Duplex
(c) Full Duplex
(d) Simplex
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Transmission mode is divided into three
categories:
Previous year questions with solutions | 50
•
•
•
Simplex mode - In Simplex mode, the
communication is unidirec onal, i.e., the data
flow in one direc on. A device can only send
the data but cannot receive it or it can receive
the data but cannot send the data
Half-duplex mode - In a Half-duplex channel,
direc on can be reversed, i.e., the sta on can
transmit and receive the data as well.
Messages flow in both the direc ons, but not
at the same me. The en re bandwidth of the
communica on channel is u lized in one
direction at a time.
Full-duplex mode - In Full duplex mode, the
communication is bi-direc onal, i.e., the data
flow in both the direc ons. Both the sta ons
can send and receive the message
simultaneously
Q26. A collec on of programs that controls how
the computer system runs and processes
information is called as:
(a) Compiler
(b) Opera ng System
(c) Linker
(d) Assembler
Answer: B
Explanation
• An opera ng system (OS) is basically a
collec on of so ware that manages
computer hardware resources and provides
common services for computer programs.
• An opera ng system is a type of so ware
without which you cannot operate or run a
computer. It acts as an intermediary or
transla on system between computer
hardware and applica on programs installed
on the computer.
• In other words, you cannot directly use
computer programs with computer hardware
without having a medium to establish a
connec on between them.
Q27. SMPS is the acronym for
(a) Store Mode Power Supply
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switched Mode Power Supply
(d) Start Mode Power Supply
Answer: C
Explanation:
• SMPS is short for switched-mode power
supply.
• SMPS is a power supply that uses a switching
regulator to control and stabilize the output
voltage by switching the load current on and
off.
• These power supplies offer a greater power
conversion and reduce the overall power loss.
Q28. USB is the acronym for
(a) Uniform Service Broadcas ng
(b) Unique Solu on Bus
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal Service Broadcas ng
Answer: C
Explanation:
• USB is short for Universal Serial Bus.
• The Universal Serial Bus standard has been
extremely successful.
• USB ports and cables are used to connect
hardware such as printers, scanners,
keyboards, mice, flash drives, external hard
drives, joys cks, cameras, monitors, and
more to computers of all kinds, including
desktops, tablets, laptops, netbooks, etc
Q29. The 'Cloud Compu ng technology’ refers to
(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using
fuzzy logic
(b) Many computers that are interconnected
through wireless networks and satellites
(c) A distributed computer architecture that
provides so ware, infrastructure and
platforms
just
as
required
by
applica ons/users
(d) A futuris c technology that will use clouds to
perform compu ng
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Cloud compu ng is the on-demand
availability of computer system resources,
especially data storage (cloud storage) and
compu ng power, without direct ac ve
management by the user.
Previous year questions with solutions | 51
Large clouds o en have func ons distributed
over mul ple loca ons, each loca on being a
data centre.
A Cloud is a type of parallel and distributed system
consis ng of a collec on of interconnected and
virtualized computers that are dynamically
provisioned and presented as one or more
unified compu ng resources based on servicelevel agreements established through nego a on
between the service provider and consumers.
•
Q30. Which of the following is not an absolute
measure of dispersion?
(a) Range
(b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Coefficient of Varia on
Answer: D
Explanation:
• We can differen ate between rela ve
dispersion and absolute dispersion by
checking whether the statistic involves units.
• The coefficient of varia on (rela ve standard
deviation) is a sta s cal measure of the
dispersion of data points around the mean.
• The metric is commonly used to compare the
data dispersion between dis nct series of data
Q31. The mean and standard devia on of a set of
16 non-zero posi ve numbers in an observa on
are 26 and 3-5 respec vely. The mean and
standard devia on of another set of 24 non-zero
positive numbers without changing the
circumstances of both sets of observa ons, are
29 and 3, respec vely. The mean and standard
devia on of their combined set of observa ons
will respec vely be
(a) 27.8 and 3.21
(b) 26.2 and 3.32
(c) 27.8 and 3.52
(d) 26.2 and 3.21
Answer: C
Explanation
As per the question
Dataset 1:
• Total observa ons = 16
• Mean = 26
• Standard Devia on = 3.5
Dataset 2:
• Total observa ons = 24
• Mean = 29
• Standard Devia on = 3
•
•
•
•
•
•
X1 = mean of dataset 1 = 26
X2 = mean of dataset 2 = 29
N1 = total number of observa ons in dataset
1 = 16
N2= total number of observa ons in dataset
2 = 24
So, combined mean (X12) = (26*16 + 29*24)/
(16+24)
= (416 + 696) /40 = 27.8
Calculating Combined Standard Devia on by the
below men oned formula
•
•
D1 = 27.8 – 26 = 1.8
D2 = 27.8 – 29 = -1.2
Previous year questions with solutions | 52
•
Now, Combined SD =
Therefore, the correct answer will be op on C
Q32. What is the perimeter of the figure shown
below?
AB=x, CD = x+1, EF = x+2, GH = x+3, BC = DE = FG
=HI = y
(a) 44 cm
(b) 48 cm
(c) 54 cm
(d) 58 cm
Answer: A
Explanation:
From figure it is clear,
AB + CD + EF + GH = JI
Similarly, BC + DE + FG + HI = AJ
So, Perimeter = AB + BC + CD + DE + EF + FG + GH
+ HI + IJ + JA
= (AB + CD + EF + GH) + ( BC + DE + FG + HI) + IJ +
JA
= 12 + 10 + 12 + 10
= 44cm
Q33. In a medium-sized township, the trend of
annual immigra on is an addi on of 20% of the
popula on as it was at the beginning; also 15% of
the popula on as it was at the beginning is
estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If
the current popula on is 80000, what is the likely
popula on three years hence?
(a) 90000
(b) 91200
(c) 92000
(d) 92610
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let initially population = P = 8000
Annual immigra on = in addi on of 20% of ini al
popula on = 0.2P
15% relocate to elsewhere = 15% of P = 0.15P
So, three years hence popula on will be
= (P + 3* (0.2P – 0.15P))
= 1.15P
= 1.15*80000
= 92000
Q34. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2 (r1 <
r2). The area of the bigger circle is 693/2 cm². The
difference of their 2 circumferences is 22 cm.
What is the sum of the diameters of the two
circles?
(a) 17.5 cm
(b) 22 cm
(c) 28.5 cm
(d) 35 cm
Answer: D
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 53
Area of bigger circle = 693/2 cm2 = π(r2)2
(693/2)*(7/22)= (r2)2
21/2 = r2
Diameter (D2) = 21cm
The difference in circumference = 2 π r2 – 2 π r1 =
22cm
= r2 – r1 = 7/2
By put ng the values,
So, r1 = 7cm
So, Diameter of a smaller circle(D1) = 14cm
Now,
Sum of diameters = 21 + 14 = 35cm
Q35. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, …, a24 are in
arithmetic progression and a1+a5+a10+a15+a20+a24
= 225. The value of a1+a2+a3+a15+…a23+a24 is
(a) 525
(b) 725
(c) 850
(d) 900
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let say a1 = a, a2 = a+d, an = a + (n-1)*d
Now,
a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225
a + a+4d + a+9d + a+14d + a+19d + a+23d =225
6a + 69d = 225
3*(2a + 23d) =225
2A + 23d = 225/3
Now,
Sum of 24 terms = Sn = (n/2) *(2a + (n-1)*d)
S24 = (24/2) *(2a + (24-1)*d)
S24 = 12*(2a + 23d)
S24 = 12*225/3
S24 = 900
Q36. A certain sequence of
constructed as follows:
integers is
Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The
next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their
sums, i.e. 1. This process of construc ng the next
number by the sum of the last two constructed
numbers con nues. Taking these numbers 0, 1, 1
as the first, second and third numbers in the
sequence, what will be the 7th and 10th
numbers, respec vely?
(a) 6 and 30
(b) 7 and 33
(c) 8 and 34
(d) 10 and 39
Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of number series is known as Fibonacci
Series
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, ….
So, the 7th term is 8
10th term is 34
Q37. A firm is purchasing two items, both on
credit on the same day. The credit term offered
for the first item is (2 ½)/10, 1/20, net 30; and the
credit term offered for the second item is 3/5,
2/15, net 30. The declared purchase cost of item
1 is Rs.60,000 and that of item 2 Rs.1,40,000. If
both credits can be se led on the 14th day, what
will be the total amount to be paid out?
(a) Rs.1,97,200
(b) Rs.1,97,500
(c) Rs.1,96,600
(d) Rs.1,98,400
Answer: C
Explanation:
Purchase cost of item 1 = 60000
Now, If paid in 10 days so, discount = (5/2)%
If paid within 20 days then 1% discount.
Max limit 30 days
SO, he paid on 14th day
So, discount applicable = 1%
Previous year questions with solutions | 54
So, remaining price of item 1= 60000 – 1%of 60000
= 59400
Purchase cost of item 2 = 140000
Now, If paid in 5 days so, discount = 3%
If paid within 15 days then 2% discount.
Max limit 30 days
SO, he paid on the 14th day
So, discount applicable = 2%
So, remaining price of item 2 = 140000 – 2% of
140000 = 137200
So, total amount to be paid = 59400 + 137200 =
196600
Q38. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and
their respec ve average marks are found to be 55
and 58. The average marks of the en re class are
(a) 565
(b) 566
(c) 567
(d) 568
Answer: D
Explanation:
Average marks of girls = 55, total girls = 20. So,
total marks of girls = 55*20 = 1100
Average marks of boys = 58, total boys = 30. So,
total marks of boys = 58*30 = 1740
So, the average marks of the en re class = (1100+
1740)/ 20+30
= 2840/50
= 568
Q39. There are four iden cally sized and shaped
balls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball is
of a different colour, these being Green, Red,
White and Blue, with only one ball of each colour.
Without looking into the box, one ball is
randomly picked out and its colour is noted; then
it is returned to the box. What are the chances
that, in two successive draws, one may get the
white ball and the red ball in whichever order?
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Now 2 balls are drawn one by one with
replacement- chance of 1 being white and another
being red
= Either white first and red at 2nd draw or Red first
and white at 2nd draw
= (1/4) *(1/4) + (1/4) *(1/4)
= 1/8
Q40. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36m cubic
metres of water, and is filled to half of its
capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed
upright on its circular base on level ground, the
height of the water in the tank is 4 metres But
when this tank is placed on its side on level
ground, what will be the height of the surface of
the water above the ground?
(a) 9 metres
(b) 6 metres
(c) 3 metres
(d) 1 metre.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the tank is half full when placed upright then
naturally it'll also be half full when placed on its
side, so the level of the water (when placed that
way) will be half of the diameter, so, r.
Now, given that Vwater = π∗r2∗Hwater
Vwater = π∗r2∗Hwater
36π = πr2∗4
r=3
Previous year questions with solutions | 55
Q41. In a race, the first four winners are to be
awarded points. Each winner's points must be 5
more than that of the next posi on winner. Total
sum of the points to be awarded is 50. What will
be the points for the third position winner?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
First posi on winner award = x points
Second posi on winner awarded = x-5 points
Third posi on winner awarded = x-10 points
Fourth posi on winner awarded = x-15 points
Total points award = 50
So, x + x-5 + x-10 + x-15 = 50
= 4x = 80
X = 20
Now, third posi on winner awarded = x-10 points
= 20-10 = 10 points
Q42. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long
as its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates
will totally enclose this garden, what is the length
of the garden?
(a) 120 m
(b) 130 m
(c) 140 m
(d) 150 m
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the width of the rectangular garden be x
So, its length will be 2x
So, its perimeter will be = 2 (L + W) = 2 (x +2x) = 6x
That is given to be equal to 360 m.
Thus, 6x = 360 → x = 60m.
So, the length of the garden will be 2x = 120
Q43. In a chess tournament, each of the six
players will play with every other player exactly
once. What is the number of matches that will be
played during the tournament?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every team plays with another team exactly once
= nC2 = 6C2 = 15
Q44. A man buys apples at a certain price per
dozen and sells them at 8 mes that price per
hundred. What percentage does he gain or lose?
(a) 4% profit
(b) 6% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 6% loss
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let a man purchase 1dozen (12) apples for Rs.12
CP of 1 dozen apple = Rs. 12
CP of 1 apple = Rs. 1
Sold them 8 mes per 100=12*8/100 i.e. 0.96
SP of 1 apple = 0.96
Loss =1–0.96 i.e. 0.04
Loss % = 0.04*100/1 i.e. 4%
Loss % = 4%
Q45. For which me intervals, is the percentage
rise of the popula on the same for the following
data?
Previous year questions with solutions | 56
So, d = A.M of first three terms
(a) 1970-80 and 1980-90
(b) 1980-90 and 1990-2000
(c) 2000-2010 and 1990-2000
(d) 1980-90 and 2000-2010
Answer: B
Explanation:
For years 1970-80, the popula on increase =
(50000-40000/40000) *100 = 25%
For years 1980-90, the popula on increase =
(60000-50000/50000) *100 = 20%
For the years 1990-2000, the popula on increase
= (72000-60000/60000) *100 = 20%
So, it is the same for 1980-90 and 1990-2010
Q46. Four quan es are such that their
arithmetic mean (A.M.) is the same as the A.M. of
the first three quan ties. The fourth quan ty is
(a) Sum of the first three quan es
(b) A.M. of the first three quan es
(c) (Sum of the first three quantities)/4
(d) (Sum of the first three quan es)/2
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.M of 4 terms = A.M of the first 3 terms (given)
Let’s say 4 terms are a, b, c, and d
A.M of 4 terms = (a + b + c + d)/4
A.M of first 3 terms = (a + b + c)/3
Now,
According to the given condition
(a + b + c + d)/4 = (a + b + c)/3
3*(a + b + c + d) = 4*(a + b + c)
3d = a + b + c
d = (a + b + c)/3
Q47. If the difference between two numbers is
greater than the sum of the numbers, then
(a) Both the numbers are nega ve
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is nega ve
(c) At least one of the numbers is nega ve
(d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let’s say 2 numbers are = a, b
Difference of the number = a – b
Sum of the numbers = a + b
According to the ques on:
a–b>a+b
0 > b.
So, b is nega ve.
Now,
one no. is definitely nega ve, but we can't
definitely say whether the other no. is nega ve or
not.
For e.g., a=1, b= -2 then 1-(-2) > 1+(-2) = 3>-1 which
is true
another e.g., a=-1, b=-2 then -1-(-2) > -1+(-2) = 1>1 which is also true
and one no. could be 0 also.
Q48. A palindrome is a number that reads the
same from the left as well as from the right, for
example, 23732. What is the number of
palindromes between 10 and 1010?
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) 90
Answer: B
Explanation:
We can easily solve this problem using
permutations.
Previous year questions with solutions | 57
First take the two-digit palindromes.
They would be 11,22,33,..... and 99. They are 9 in
number.
Now consider 3-digit palindromes from 100 to
200.
They are 101, 111, 121,.....191. These are 10 in
number.
In the same way, from
200-299: 10 palindromes
300-399: 10
400-499: 10
500-599: 10
600-699: 10
700-799: 10
800-899: 10
900-999: 10
The last palindrome would be 1001.
So we got 100 palindromes in total between 10
and 1010.
Q49. In wri ng all the integers from 1 to 300, how
many mes is the digit 1 used?
(a) 160
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 110
Answer:
Explanation: A
From 1 to 9, 1 will come once.
From 10 to 99, 1 can come (1*10C1) + (9C1*1) = 19
From 100 to 199, “1 can come at hundred’s place
where tens place and unit place can have any
number” or “1 comes at hundred and tens place
and unit place can have any number” or “1 comes
at hundred and unit place and tens place can have
any number” = (1*10C1*10C1) + (1*1*10C1) +
(1*10C1*1) = 120
From 200 to 299, 2 comes at hundreds place and 1
comes at tens place and unit place can have any
digit or 2 comes at hundreds place and 1 at unit
place and tens place can have any number=
(1*1*10C1) + (1*10C1*1) = 20
So, total mes 1 digit used = 1 + 19 + 120 + 20 =
160
Q50. Consider the sequen al integers 27 to 93,
both included in the sequence. The arithme c
average of these numbers will be
(a) 61.5
(b) 61
(c) 60.5
(d) 60
Answer: D
Explanation:
Sum formula = (n/2)*(2a + (n-1)*d) where n=
numbers, a= first term, d= difference.
Sum of integers from 27 to 93(both included) =
Sum of integers from (1 to 93) – Sum of integers
from 1 to 26.
= {(93/2)*(2*1 + (93-1)*1)} – {(26/2)*(2*1 + (261)*1)}
= {47*93} – {13*27}
= 4371 – 351
= 4020
Average of sum for numbers from 27 to 93. (total
numbers = 93- 27 + 1= 67) = 4020/67 = 60.
Q51. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man
reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the
time taken by him to reach the office at his usual
speed?
(a) 80 minutes
(b) 70 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
Previous year questions with solutions | 58
(d) 50 minutes
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let’s say usual speed = S
Walking at 3/4th of usual speed reaches 20 minutes
late i.e., T+20
Speed = Distance/Time
(3/4)S = D/(T+20)
So, distance is the same in both cases
So, S*T = (3/4)S*(T+20)
4T = 3T + 60
T = 60 minutes
Q52. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of
50 m and s ll beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs
at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
(a) 4.4 km/h
(b) 5.4 km/h
(c) 6.4 km/h
(d) 7.4 km/h
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let a & b denote the running speeds (in m/s) of A
& B respec vely in a 1km (= 1000m) race.
It is men oned that when A gives B a 50m start, A
wins by 15 seconds. So we get the following
equation,
Speed of A = 8km/hr = 8*1000/60*60 = 20/9 m/s
Time is taken by A to finish the race = 1000/(20/9)
Time = 450 second
Time taken by B to finish the race = 450 + 15 = 465
seconds.
So, speed of B = (1000 -50)/465
= 950/465 m/s
So, in km/hr = (950/465) *(18/5)
= 7.35km/hr ~ 7.4km/hr
Q53. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and
B can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance
can A beat C in a 0-5 km race?
(a) 42 m
(b) 43 m
(c) 44 m
(d) 45 m
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ra o of distance covered by A and B = 1000: 960 =
25: 24
Ra o of distance covered by B and C = 1000: 950=
20:19
A er solving,
So, ra o of A: B: C = 125: 120: 114
For 1 km difference of A and C is 9 units
So, in 5km race, A beat C by 9*5 = 45m
Q54. In an office, 40% of the employees are men
and the rest women. Half of the employees are
tall and half short. If 10% of the employees. men
and short, and are 40 employees are women and
tall, the number of tall men employees is
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
Answer: A
Explanation:
Total employees = 100x
Men = 40% = 40x
Women = 60x
Tall = 50x
Short = 50x
10% employees men and short = 10x
So, men and tall = 40x – 10x =30x
Women and tall = 40
Tall = women tall + men tall
50x = 40 + 30x
Previous year questions with solutions | 59
20x = 40
X= 2
Now, Men and tall = 30x = 30*2 = 60
Q55. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25
kg of rice worth Rs.32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth
Rs.35/kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit.
What is the selling price of mixed rice.
(a) 35.40/kg
(b) 38.33/kg
(c) 36.50/kg
(d) 37.42/kg
Answer: B
Explanation:
CP = 25*32 + 20*35 = 1500
Profit required = 15%
SP = 1.15(1500) =1725
So, SP of each kg = 1725/45 = 38.33/kg
Q56. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD
on open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m
wide along BC. Concreted pathways are intended
to be laid on the inside of the plot all around the
sides. The pathways along BC and DA are each 4
m wide. The pathways along AB and DC will
mutually be of equal widths such that the unconcreted internal plot will measure three-fourth
of the original area of the plot ABCD. What will
be the width of each of these pathways along AB
and DC?
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 6 m
Answer: C
Explanation:
Area of ABCD = 80*60
Width of pathway along breadth = 4cm
Width of path way along length = x cm
New Area = (3/4)*old area
(80 – 2*4)*(60-2x) = (3/4)*80*60
72*(60-2x) = 45*80
540 – 18x = 450
90 = 18x
X= 5cm
Q57. At a dinner party, every two guests used a
bowl of rice between them, every three guests
used a bowl of dal among them and every four
guests used a bowl of curd among them. There
are altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of
guests present at the party?
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the total number of guests be x. Then,
Number of bowls of rice = x/2
Number of bowls of dal = x/3
Number of bowls of meat = x/4
x/2 + x/3 + x/4 = 65
6x+4x+3x /12 = 65
⟹x=60
Therefore, 60 guests were present at the party
Q58. If 5 men or 9 women can finish a piece of
work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will done
same work in
(a) 12 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 15 days
Answer:D
Previous year questions with solutions | 60
Explanation:
M1 * D1/W1 = M2*D2/W2
Where M1 = working men. D = day, w = work
It is given that 5 men or 9 women can do the job in
19 days.
So, 5 men=9 women
1 man = (9/5)Women
3 men = 3 ( 9/5) Women
So, work done = 3 men+6 women = 3*( 9/5) + 6
Women = 57/5
Now,
M1 * D1/W1 = M2*D2/W2
Let D2 = a
Also W1 = W2
9*19 = (57/5)*a
So, a = 15 days
Q59. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50%, its
area will be reduced by
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let radius of circle be ‘r’.
Area = πr2
Now, radius reduced by 50%. So, new radius = r/2
So, new area = π (r/2)2
So, area reduced by = {(πr2 - π (r/2)2)/ πr2} *100
= (3/4) *100
= 75%
Q60. In an examina on paper where maximum
marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got
25% marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less
than D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
(a) 65%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Max marks = 500
A got 360 marks
So, B got 360/0.9 = 400
C = 400/1.25 = 320
D gets = 320/0.8 = 400
So, D = (400/500)*100 = 80%
Q61. Under the Cons tu on of India, which of
the following statements are correct?
1. The Cons tu on is supreme.
2. There is a clear division of powers between the
Union and the State Governments.
3. Amendments to the Cons tu on have to
follow the prescribed procedure.
4. The Union Parliament and the State
Legislatures are sovereign.
5. The Preamble to the Cons tu on cannot be
invoked to determine the ambit of
Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Both Indian Parliament and State legislatures
are not sovereign and their powers are
restricted by:
- Supremacy of the Cons tution of India.
- Judicial Review power of the Supreme
Court and High Courts.
- Federal nature of Indian Constitution.
Hence statement 4 is not correct. Thus the
correct answer is D.
• The Indian Cons tu on is the fundamental
and Supreme law of the land in our country.
Previous year questions with solutions | 61
-
•
•
It has defined the authority and jurisdic on
of all the three organs of the Union
government and the nature of
interrela onship between them.
The Cons tu on divided the powers between
the Centre and the states in terms of the Union
List, State List and Concurrent List in the
Seventh Schedule.
Preamble is non-justiciable in nature, that is,
its provisions are not enforceable in courts of
law. It cannot be invoked to determine the
ambit of Fundamental Rights as it is neither a
source of power to legislature nor a
prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
Q62. The Right to Free and Compulsory Educa on
Act, 2009 provides for educa on to every child. in
the age group
(a) 5 – 13 years
(b) 8 – 16 years
(c) 7 – 15 years
(d) 6 – 14 years
Answer: D
Explanation:
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide
free and compulsory educa on to all children of
the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner
as the State may determine.
• In pursuance of Ar cle 21A, the Parliament
enacted the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Educa on (RTE) Act, 2009.
Q63. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of
the Rajya Sabha
(a) He can make statements only in the Rajya
Sabha
(b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha
within six months
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in
the Lok Sabha
(d) He will not be able to vote in his Favour
Answer: D
Explanation:
Member of Parliament has the right to vote ONLY
in the house of which he is member.
Q64. Which one of the following formed the basic
premise for developing the Indian Cons tution?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The U.S. Constitu on
(c) The Bri sh Constitu on
(d) The UN Charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The structural part of the Cons tu on is, to a
large extent, derived from the Government of
India Act of 1935 and this act forms the basic
premise for the development of our
Cons tu on.
Q65. The Malimath Commi ee (2003) looked at
ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Jus ce System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India
Answer: B
Explanation:
Malimath Commi ee was headed by Jus ce V.S.
Malimath, former Chief Jus ce of the Karnataka
and Kerala High Courts. This Commi ee began its
work in 2000 when it was cons tuted by the Home
Ministry.
• The task of examining the fundamental
principles of criminal law to restore
confidence in the criminal jus ce system.
• This involved reviewing the Code of Criminal
Procedure (CrPC), 1973, the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872, and the Indian Penal Code (IPC),
1860.
Q66. The Parliament can make any law for whole
or any part of India for implemen ng
interna onal trea es
(a) With the consent of all the States
(b) With the consent of majority of the States
(c) With the consent of the States: concerned
(d) Without the consent of any State
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Parliament alone can make laws on any
matter in the State List for implemen ng the
interna onal trea es, agreements or
Previous year questions with solutions | 62
conven ons without the consent of any state.
This provision enables the Central government
to fulfil its interna onal obliga ons and
commitments.
Q67. Statement (I): Speaker of the Lok Sabha
appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts
Commi ee.
Statement (II): Members of Parliament, eminent
persons from industry and trade are the members
of the Public Accounts Commi ee.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The chairman of the Public Account commi ee
is appointed from amongst its members by the
Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence statement I is
true.
The members of Public Account Commi ee are
elected by the Parliament every year from
amongst its members according to the principle of
propor onal representa on by means of the
single transferable vote. So it has Member of
Parliament as its members only. Hence statement
II is false.
Q68. What is the chronological sequence of the
following events?
1. First Ba le of Panipat
2. Vietnam War
3. French Revolu on
4. First Gulf War
5. World War I
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4
(b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2
(d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The first Ba le of Panipat, on 20 April 1526,
was fought between the invading forces of
Babur and the Lodi dynasty.
• The Vietnam War was a conflict in Vietnam
and USA from 1 November 1955 to the fall of
Saigon on 30 April 1975.
• The French Revolu on was a period of radical
poli cal and societal change in France that
began with the Estates General of 1789 and
ended with the forma on of the French
Consulate in November 1799.
• World War I was a major global conflict that
began on 28 July 1914 and ended on 11
November 1918.
• The First Persian Gulf War, also known as
the Gulf War, 1991, was an armed conflict
between Iraq and a coali on of 39 na ons
including the United States, Britain, Egypt,
France, and Saudi Arabia
Q69. Which of the following statements are
correct in respect of 'Stridhana"?
1. Various types of movable property gi ed to a
woman on various occasions during her
life me.
2. Various types of movable property gi ed to a
woman at the time of her first marriage.
3. On the woman's death, this wealth could be
inherited by her children and husband.
4. On the woman's death, this wealth could be
inherited by her natural legally adopted
children, with none of the sons-in-law, having
any claim on any part thereof.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ancient texts like Manusmri s prescribe the
wealth to be inherited by the sons and the women
could not claim a share of these resources.
Previous year questions with solutions | 63
•
•
•
However, women were allowed to retain
Stridhana, which included the gi s they
received on the occasion of their marriage.
This could be inherited by their children,
without the husband having any claim on it.
At the same me, the Manusmri warned
women against hoarding family property, or
even their own valuables, without the
husband’s permission.
Q70. The Khilafat Commi ee accepted Mahatma
Gandhi's sugges on for a non-violent noncoopera on protest against the Government in
its mee ng at
(a) Bombay
(b) Nagpur
(c) Allahabad
(d) Kanpur
Answer: C
Explanation:
On 9 June 1920, the Khilafat commi ee at
Allahabad unanimously accepted the sugges on
of non-coopera on and asked Gandhiji to lead the
movement.
Q71. Which of the following statements reflect
the dis nc ve features about 6th century BCE
Ganas or Sanghas?
1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
2. The ancient Indian Ganas were nonmonarchical states.
3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avan were the
most powerful States of that era.
4. The procedures of the Buddhist monas c
order (Sangha) pa erned on the Sangha
poli cs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
The proto states of the Gangetic region were
known as janapadas and comprised chiefdoms,
republics and small kingdoms. Sixteen
mahajanapadas find men on in the early texts.
• There were also gana - sanghas or oligarchies,
which were centred on clans.
• These kingdoms did not come under the single
decision-making authority of a king but
decisions were taken on a collec ve basis by
the heads of the different clans together.
There were also smaller kingdoms such as
Kosala and Kasi.
• Among the 16 mahajanapadas, Kasi was
initially powerful. However, Kosala became
dominant later. A power struggle broke out
between Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avan .
Eventually Magadha emerged as the dominant
mahajanapadas and established the first
Indian empire.
• The sangha originated in the group of disciples
who renounced the worldly life to wander with
the Buddha and listen to his teachings.
Hence Option A is the correct answer.
Q72. What is the chronological sequence of the
following developments?
1. Decline in the export of Indian Co on
2. Cotton boom in India
3. Civil War in America
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 1
(c) 3, 2 and 1
(d) 2, 1 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• When the American Civil war broke out in
1861, a wave of panic spread in Britain. As the
cotton prices soared export merchants in
Bombay were keen to meet the Bri sh
demand.
• They gave advances to the Urban sahukars
who in turn extended credit to rural money
lenders which promised to secure the produce.
• While the American crisis con nued, cotton
produc on in the Bombay Deccan expanded.
• By 1862 over 90% of the co on imports into
Britain were coming from India.
Previous year questions with solutions | 64
•
As the civil war ended, co on produc on in
America revived and Indian co on exports
declined.
Q73. The Problem of Rupee' was whose D. Sc
Thesis
(a) Sri Aurobindo
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Answer: D
Explanation:
'The Problem of the Rupee' was the tle of the
thesis that Dr. B. R. Ambedkar submi ed to the
London School of Economics for which he was
awarded his doctorate in 1923.
Q74. Which of the following industries were first
established during the Bri sh Rule in India?
(a) Cotton Tex le Industry and Jute Industry
(b) Jute Industry and Iron & Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Tex le Industry and Chemical Industry
(d) Jute Industry and Chemical Industry
Answer: A
Explanation:
Co on and Jute are the sets of industries were
among first modern industries in India.
• The emergence of the co on tex le
industry started with the introduc on of the
first machinery in Kolkata in the year 1818 at
fort Gloster. Followed by this, another major
event is the installa on of machinery in
Mumbai in the year 1854 by Nanabhai Davar.
• The first jute mill was established at Rishra, on
the River Hooghly near Calcu a in 1855 when
Mr. George Acland brought jute spinning
machinery from Dundee.
Q75. Which of the following were the main
aspects of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience
Movement
2. To take part in the then forthcoming Shimla
Conference
3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil
Disobedience Movement
4. Release of Poli cal Prisoners
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact is the name given to a poli cal
agreement concluded by Mahatma Gandhi and
Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India, on 5th March
1931. As per this pact:
• The Indian Na onal Congress (INC) agreed to
take part in the Round Table Conference.
• The INC would stop the civil disobedience
movement.
• Withdrawal of all ordinances that curbed the
ac vi es of the Congress.
• Government agreed to release all poli cal
prisoners to save those involved in violence.
Hence C is the correct answer.
Q76. A branch of scholarship that flourished in
Europe, par cularly from the fi eenth to the
eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the
apprecia on, chronicling and classifica on of
historic and non-organic relics, monuments and
old texts refers to
(a) Archaeology
(b) History
(c) Architecture
(d) An quarianism
Answer: A
Archaeology or archeology is the scien fic study of
human ac vity through the recovery and analysis
of material culture. The archaeological record
consists of ar facts, architecture, biofacts or
ecofacts, sites, and cultural landscapes.
Q77. Which of the following is not true of the
Western Ghats?
(a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western
Ghats as 'World Heritage Sites' in 2012
(b) It is one of the eight ho est hotspots of
biological diversity in the world
(c) It has two reserves and thirteen na onal parks
Previous year questions with solutions | 65
(d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil
reserves.
Answer: D
• ONGC has not found any reserves of oil or
natural gas in the Western ghats.
• Rest all the statements are true.
Q78. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which
river?
(a) Falgu
(b) Ganga
(c) Sarayu
(d) Yamuna
Green revolu on in India was feasible in the zones
where irriga on coverage was good. Thus,
regions of Punjab, Haryana & Western U ar
Pradesh were benefited in the Green Revolu on.
Q81. What is the correct sequence of tributaries
of the river Ganga from West to East?
(a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
(d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
Answer: A
Q82. In the study of pollu on, SPM refers to
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Ma er
(b) Sulphur Particulate Ma er
(c) Solid Particulate Ma er
(d) Suspended Par culate Ma er
Answer: D
Particulates – also known as atmospheric aerosol
par cles, atmospheric par culate ma er,
par culate ma er (PM) or suspended par culate
matter (SPM) – are microscopic par cles of solid
or liquid matter suspended in the air.
Answer: C
Ayodhya is located on the banks of Sarayu river.
Q79. The term 'Carbon footprint' means
(a) A region which is rich in coal mines
(b) The amount of reduc on in the emission of
CO₂ by a country
(c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing industries
(d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by
our day-to-day ac vi es.
Answer: D
A carbon footprint is the total amount of
greenhouse gases (including carbon dioxide and
methane) that are generated by our ac ons.
Q80. Green Revolution in India was expedi ously
feasible in zones of
(a) High rainfall
(b) Moderate rainfall
(c) Assured irriga on
(d) Higher popula on density
Answer: C
Q83. What is Know India Programme (KIP)?
(a) A programme for children aged 1215years from rural areas to make them
aware of different aspects of India
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of
rural teachers to different parts of the
country
(c) An out-reach programme of the Ministry
of External Affairs to build closer es with
India's neighbourhood
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to
promote awareness among them about
different aspects of India.
Answer: D
Explanation
• About Know India Programme
o It is organized by the Ministry of
External Affairs
o It is an important ini a ve of the
Government of India with an aim to
engage and make the students and
young professionals of Indian
Previous year questions with solutions | 66
Diaspora, in the age group of 18 to
30years.
o It engages a sense of connect with
their motherland, to be mo vated
and inspired by transforma onal
changes taking place in India and to
give them an exposure to various
aspects of contemporary India’s
forms of art, heritage and culture.
Q84. Which of the following are incorporated in
the Government approved Na onal Telecom
Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum
download speed of two megabits per
second
2. India's rural tele-density to be improved
from 39% to 70% in the next five years
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
• About Na onal Telecom Policy 2012
o Strive to create One Na on - One
License across services and service
areas.
o Achieve One Na on - Full Mobile
Number Portability and work
towards One Nation - Free
Roaming.
o Increase rural teledensity from the
current level of around 39 to 70 by
the year 2017 and 100 by the year
2020.
o To recognise telecom, including
broadband connec vity as a basic
necessity like educa on and health
and work towards ‘Right to
Broadband’.
o Provide affordable and reliable
broadband-on-demand by the year
2015 and to achieve 175 million
broadband connec ons by the year
2017 and 600 million by the year
2020 at minimum 2 Mbps
download speed and making
available higher speeds of at least
100 Mbps on demand.
o Provide high speed and high quality
broadband access to all village
panchayats through a combina on
of technologies by the year 2014
and progressively to all villages and
habita ons by 2020.
Q.85 Which of the following is one of the
Millennium Development Goals fixed by the
UNO?
(a) Having extreme poverty and hal ng the
spread of HIV/AIDS
(b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains
which can ensure bumper crops
(c) To ensure that popula on does not
increase in least developed countries.
(d) Develop procedures towards adequate
and mely forewarning on hurricanes and
tsunamis
Answer: D
Explanation
• The Millennium Development Goals were
targeted from 2000-2015 realizing these
values around the world by 2015 and
served as the focus for UN work
throughout the period:
o Eradicate extreme poverty and
hunger
o Achieve
universal
primary
educa on
o Promote gender equality and
empower women
o Reduce child mortality
o Improve maternal health
o Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and
other diseases
o Ensure
environmental
sustainability
Previous year questions with solutions | 67
•
o Global
partnership
for
development
The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the
United Na ons General Assembly and are
intended to be achieved by 2030
•
•
.
Q.86 Amongst the following, who is the latest
recipient of the "Bharat Ratna' award?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Answer: B
Explanation
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee was conferred the
Bharat Ratana Award in 2015
• A er him following persons have received
the Bharat Ratana in 2019: Pranab
Mukherjee, Nanaji Deshmukh and Bhupen
Hazarika
Q.87 The Malimath Commi ee (2003) looked at
ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Jus ce System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India.
Answer: A
Explanation
• About Malimath Commi ee
• It’s objec ve was to suggest the need to rewrite the Code of Criminal Procedure
(CrPC), the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the
Indian Evidence Act to fulfil the aspira on
of ci zens and to accommodate these with
changing nature of the crime.
It suggested the se ng up of a State
Security Commission to insulate the police
from poli cal pressure.
It was/ given the mandate to review only
the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC),
1973.
Q.88
The
Rangarajan
Commi ee
on
disinvestment of shares in Public Sector
Enterprises suggested that
1. The percentage of equity to be divested
56 should be no more than 49% for
industries explicitly reserved for the
public sector and it should be either 74%
or 100% for others.
2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment
should be maintained.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
• The Rangarajan Commi ee of 1993 was
cons tuted by the government for making
recommenda ons in context with the
disinvestment. The commi ee said that
• Disinvesting up to 49% of PSEs equity for
industries explicitly reserved for the public
sector and over 74% in other industries.
• The units to be disinvested should be
iden fied and disinvestment could be
made upto any level, except in defence and
atomic energy where the government
should retain the majority holding in
equity.
• Disinvestment should be a transparent
process duly protec ng the right of the
workers.
• An autonomous body for the smooth
func oning and monitoring of the
disinvestment programme should be
established. This recommenda on led to
Previous year questions with solutions | 68
•
•
the Disinvestment Commission in 1996 as
an advisory body having a full me
chairman and four part- me members.
The Commission was required to advise
the government on the extent, made,
ming and princing of disinvestment.
It suggested four modes of disinvestment
viz. Trade sale, Strategic Sale, Offer of
shares and Closure or sale of Assets.
But the then Government did not take any
decision
on
the
Committee's
recommendations..
Q.89 What was the posi on held by Dr. S.
Radhakrishnan, before he became the VicePresident of India?
(a) Ambassador to the U.S.A.
(b) Chairman, U.G.C.
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union
Answer: D
Explanation
• Dr S. Radhakrishnana was serving as Indian
ambassador from 1949 to 1952 to the Soviet
Union.
• He was elected as Vice President in 1952.
Q.90 Which of the following trends in FDI inflows
are correct?
1. In 2003 04, the FDI Equity inflow
percentage growth was nega ve.
2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows
were very high and posi ve.
3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were posi ve,
but had decreased rela ve to the
previous year.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: As the ques on is based on latest trends,
students are advised to prepare the latest trends
related to important parameters (Like GPD,
Infla on, FDI etc.) for the examina on.
Q.91 The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the
CERN project is a par cle accelerator located on
the border between
(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Spain and Switzerland
(d) France and Switzerland
Answer: D
Explanation
• The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the
most powerful particle accelerator ever
built.
• It is located on the Franco-Swiss border
near Geneva, Switzerland.
Q92. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed
to
(a) Generate addi onal economic ac vity
throughout the country
(b) Beautify suburban areas
(c) Upgrade the facili es in the countryside
(d) Promote investment from domes c and
foreign sources
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to
create addi onal economic ac vity, to boost
the export of goods and services, to generate
employment,
to boost
domes c
and
foreign investments, to develop infrastructure
facili es. Hence D is the right answer.
Q93. Unbalanced' Growth is hypothesized when
(a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on
several growth routes
(b) Supply of labour is fixed
(c) Supply of capital is unlimited
(d) Ac ve sectors need to, and do energize
sluggish sectors
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Balanced growth aims at harmony,
consistency and equilibrium whereas
unbalanced growth suggests the crea on of
disharmony,
inconsistency
and
disequilibrium. The implementa on of
balanced growth requires huge amount of
Previous year questions with solutions | 69
capital. On the other hand, unbalanced
growth requires less amount of capital,
making investment in only leading sectors.
Balanced growth is long term strategy
because the development of all the sectors of
economy is possible only in long run period.
But the unbalanced growth is a short-term
strategy as the development of few leading
sectors is possible in short span of period.
Hence, D is the right answer.
Q94. Transporta on plays a great role in any
economy. Which of the following modes of
transporta on has the highest elasticity?
(a) Air
(b) Rail
(c) Road
(d) Water
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The extent of responsiveness of demand with
change in the price is not always the same.
The demand for a product can be elas c or
inelas c, depending on the rate of change in
the demand with respect to change in price of
a product. Elastic demand is the one when the
response of demand is greater with a small
proportionate change in the price. On the
other hand, inelas c demand is the one when
there is rela vely a less change in the demand
with a greater change in the price.
• Therefore, in terms of transporta on, road
transporta on has the highest elas city as it
whenever there is change in fare of road
transporta on, its demand will change
dras cally and people may adopt to other
modes in case of increase in fare. On the other
hand, if fare of road transporta on decreases
then people will more prefer it. Hence, C is
correct.
Q95. How does an expansionary monetary policy
affect the rate of interest and level of income?
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate
of interest
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level
of income
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level
of income
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level
of income
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Expansionary monetary policy works
by expanding the money supply faster than
usual or lowering short-term interest rates. It
is enacted by central banks and comes about
through open market opera ons, reserve
requirements, and se ng interest rates.
• Expansionary monetary policy aims to
increase aggregate demand and economic
growth in the economy. It involves cutting
interest rates or increasing the money supply
to boost economic ac vity. It could also be
termed a ‘loosening of monetary policy’. It is
the opposite of ‘ ght’ monetary policy.
Hence, A is the right answer.
Q96. When the Government ownership in Public
Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called
(a) Priva za on
(b) Public-Private Partnership
(c) Disinvestment
(d) Defla on
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Priva sa on refers to the sale of the
government’s majority stake, or the whole
enterprise, to private investors. In case of
priva sa on, the government doesn’t hold
the resul ng control and ownership.
• A public-private partnership (PPP) is a longterm contract between a private party and a
government agency for the provision of a
public asset or service, in which the private
party assumes major risk and management
responsibili es.
• Disinvestment means the government or an
organisa on is liquida ng or selling its stake in
a company. But it will be less than 50% and the
government or the organisa on will s ll be in
the saddle, calling the shots.
Previous year questions with solutions | 70
•
•
Defla on is when consumer and asset prices
decrease over me, and purchasing power
increases.
Hence, C is the right answer.
Q97. Consider the following items:
1. Consumer goods and services
2. Gross private domes c investment
3. Goods and services produced by the
Government
4. Net income from abroad
Which of the above items are included in GNP?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• GNP is the value of all final goods and services
produced by the residents of a country in a
financial year
• While Calcula ng GNP, income of foreigners
in a country is excluded but income of people
who are living outside of that country is
included. The value of GNP is calculated on
the basis of GDP.
• GNP = GDP + X – M. Where, X = income of the
people of a country who are living outside of
the Country. M = income of the foreigners in
a country.
• Hence, D is the right answer.
Q98. Which of the following statement best
describes the content of the theory of
distribu on?
a) The distribu on of income among different
individuals in the economy
b) The distribu on of income between the
Centre and the State Governments
c) The principle of just distribu on of wealth and
income
d) The distribu on of income between the
owners of factor resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Distribu on refers to the way total output,
income, or wealth is distributed among the
factors of produc on such as labour, land, and
capital. Hence, D is the right answer.
Q99. The demand for a factor of produc on is
said to be derived demand because
1. It is a func on of the profitability of an
enterprise
2. It depends on the supply of complementary
factors
3. It stems from the demand for the final
product
4. It arises out of means being scarce in rela on
to wants
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
• In essence, the demand for, say, a factor of
production by a firm is dependent on the
demand by consumers for the product
produced by the firm. The term was first
introduced by Alfred Marshall in his Principles
of Economics in 1890. Demand for all factors
of produc on is considered as derived
demand. Hence, B is the right answer.
Q100. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade
Area, they abolish all restric ons on trade among
themselves and
a) They establish a common external tariff on
imports from outside countries
b) They abolish all restric ons on imports from
outside countries
c) They abolish all restric ons on imports from
other Free Trade Areas
d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs
and quotas on imports from outside countries
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area,
they abolish all restric ons on trade among
themselves and they establish a common
external tariff on imports from outside
countries. Hence, A is the right answer.
Previous year questions with solutions | 71
Q101. The term 'Dear Money' refers to
a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
b) Value of money at the recession stage
c) High rate of interest
d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of
interest on housing loans
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Dear money refers to hard-to-borrow funds
created by a high-interest rate environment,
making money more expensive to obtain.
When central banks enact ght monetary
policy, interest rates go up, encouraging
saving and discouraging lending or
investment. Hence C is the right answer.
Q102. Which of the following are the roles of the
Finance Commission in India?
1. The distribu on of money collected through
taxes
2. Evalua on of Centrally sponsored schemes
3. Evolve principles based on which funds are
allo ed among States
4. To develop Five Year Plans
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Finance Commission helps in maintaining
fiscal federalism in India by performing
following func ons:
➢ The distribu on between the Union and
the States of the net proceeds of taxes
which are to be divided between them
and the alloca on between the States of
the respective shares of such proceeds.
➢ Determina on of principles and
quantum of grants-in-aid to States which
are in need of such assistance.
➢ Measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the
Panchayats and Municipali es in the
State
on
the
basis
of
the
recommenda ons made by the Finance
Commission of the State. Hence,
statement 1 and 3 are correct.
➢ Evalua on of Centrally sponsored
schemes are not a responsibility of
Finance Commission. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.
➢ Developing five years plan was the
responsibility of erstwhile Planning
Commission. Hence, statement 4 is
incorrect.
➢ Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q103. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Interna onal Monetary
Fund (IMF)?
1. India is a founder member of the IMF
2. India's quota in the IMF is more than 4 percent
3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on
the IMF
4. IMF conducts regular review of India's
economic status under Article IV
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
• India is a founder member of the IMF. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• India's quota in the IMF in 2022 is around 2.75
percent. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on
the IMF. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Country surveillance is an ongoing process
that culminates in regular (usually annual)
comprehensive consulta ons with individual
member countries, with discussions in
between as needed. The consulta ons are
known as "Ar cle IV consulta ons" because
they are required by Ar cle IV of the IMF's
Articles of Agreement. During an Ar cle IV
consulta on, an IMF team of economists visits
Previous year questions with solutions | 72
•
a country to assess economic and financial
developments and discuss the country's
economic and financial policies with
government and central bank officials. IMF
staff missions also o en meet with
parliamentarians and representa ves of
business, labor unions, and civil society.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q104. Statement (I): The effects of an income tax
on consump on, saving and investment are micro
effects
Statement (II): Income tax is an example of direct
tax.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The effects of an income tax on consump on,
saving and investment are micro effects.
Hence, statement I is correct.
• In the case of direct tax, the burden can't be
shi ed by the taxpayer to someone else.
These are largely taxes on income or
wealth. Income tax, corpora on tax, property
tax, inheritance tax and gi tax are examples
of direct tax. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Both statement I and II are correct but
Statement (II) is not the correct explana on of
Statement (I)
• Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q105. Statement (1): Trade between two
countries takes place on account of differences in
costs.
Statement (II): Different countries have different
factor endowments
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Trade between two countries takes place on
account of differences in costs. The reason is
that different countries have different factor
endowments. Hence, both the statements
are correct and also Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I).
• Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q106. Statement (1): Foreign investment may
affect a country's export performance.
Statement (II): Inflow of foreign exchange may
cause apprecia on of local currency leading to a
rise in the price of export commodi es.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Foreign investment may affect a country's
export performance as inflow of foreign
exchange may cause apprecia on of local
currency leading to a rise in the price of export
commodi es. Hence, both the statements
are correct and also Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I).
Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q107. The famous 'Giri' approach in Industrial
Rela ons in India espouses the cause of
(a) Adjudication
(b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
Previous year questions with solutions | 73
(c) Conciliation
(d) Arbitra on
Answer: D
Explanation:
• According to Shri V.V. Giri, the late President
of India, collec ve bargaining’s and mutual
negotiations between management and
labour should be used to se le industrial
disputes. He suggested that there should be
bipartite machinery in every industry and
every unit of the industry to se le differences
from me-to- me with ac ve encouragement
of Government.
• Outside interference should not encroach
upon industrial peace. Giri’s stress was on
voluntary efforts of the management and the
trade unions to wind up their differences,
through voluntary arbitration. He was against
compulsory adjudica on which cuts the very
root of the trade union movement. He
advocated collec ve bargaining for securing
industrial peace.
• Thus, the Giri Approach to employeremployee
rela ons
implies
the
encouragement of mutual se lement of
disputes, collec ve bargaining and voluntary
arbitra on. The essence of this approach is
internal se lement in preference to
compulsion from outside and voluntary
arbitra on and collec ve bargaining rather
than compulsory arbitra on.
• Hence, D is the right answer.
Q108. What are the disadvantages of Provident
Fund Scheme?
1. Money is inadequate for risks occurring early
in working life.
2. Infla on erodes the real value of savings.
3. It generates forced saving that can be used to
finance na onal development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
• One of the main disadvantages of Provident
Fund Scheme is that Money is inadequate for
risks occurring early in working life since the
corpus collected during early working period
is small. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Infla on is a big challenge for the schemes like
the Provident Fund etc., since it erodes the
real value of savings. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• Provident Fund Scheme does not generate
forced saving that can be used to finance
na onal development plans. Hence, C is
incorrect.
• Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q109. Consider the following programmes:
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
2. Micro Finance Programme
3. National Manufacturing Compe veness
Programme
4. Cluster Development Programme
What is common in the above programmes?
a) They are related to improving agriculture
b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises
c) They are programmes to improve large scale
industries
d) They are programmes to improve the
tradi onal co age industries
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The above-men oned programmes are
related to MSMEs. Hence, B is the right
answer.
Q110. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (M.B. Act)
provides for how many weeks' wages during the
maternity period?
a) 11 weeks
b) 12 weeks
c) 13 weeks
d) 14 weeks
Answer: None of the above
Explanation:
• Maximum period for which any woman be
en tled to maternity benefit shall be 26
Previous year questions with solutions | 74
•
weeks of which not more than 8 weeks shall
precede the date of her expected delivery.
Earlier the limit was 12 weeks which has been
extended to 26 weeks.
Q111. Which of the following are the instruments
of providing social security in India?
1. Income Tax
2. Employees' Provident Fund
3. General Sales Tax
4. LIC
5. National Pension Scheme
6. Postal Provident Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Income tax, Sales tax are not the instruments
of social security. These are taxes imposed on
the people. Rest all are the instruments of
social security. Hence, C is the right answer.
Q112. Consider the following statements in
respect of Atal Pension Yojana:
1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to
40 years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only a er
he a ains the age of 60 years.
3. A er the death of a beneficiary, his spouse
continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Under Atal Pension Yojana, beneficiary must
be in the age group of 18 to 40 years. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
•
•
•
•
Beneficiary will receive the pension only a er
he a ains the age of 60 years. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
A er the death of a beneficiary, his spouse
continues to receive the pension. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Beneficiary can nominate a nominee for
ge ng the benefits a er his death. Hence,
statement 4 is incorrect.
Therefore, C is the right answer.
Q113. Consider the following statements
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana:
1. It is applicable for all bank account holders up
to the age of 60 years.
2. It is a life insurance cover
3. It is an accident insurance cover.
4. The insurance covers death and permanent
disability due to accident.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Scheme is available to people in the age
group 18 to 70 years with a bank account who
give their consent to join / enable auto-debit
on or before 31st May for the coverage period
1st June to 31st May on an annual renewal
basis. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The risk coverage under the scheme isRs.2
lakh for accidental death and full disability and
Rs. 1 lakh for par al disability. Therefore, it is
not a life insurance cover. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.
• The insurance covers death and permanent
disability due to accident. Hence, statement 4
is correct.
• Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q114. Social Security may provide cash benefits
to persons faced with
1. Sickness and disability
2. Unemployment
Previous year questions with solutions | 75
3. Crop failure
4. Loss of the marital partner
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Social security may provide to persons faced
with sickness and disability, unemployment,
crop failure, loss of the marital partner etc.
Hence D is the right answer.
Q115. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
covers factors like
• Factories and establishments with 10 or more
employees.
• Provision of comprehensive medical care to
employees and their families.
• Provision of cash benefits during sickness and
maternity.
• Monthly payments in case of death or
disablement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 covers
factors like factories and establishments with
10 or more employees, provision of
comprehensive medical care to employees
and their families, provision of cash benefits
during sickness and maternity, monthly
payments in case of death or disablement etc.
Therefore, D is the right answer.
Q116. Consider the following statements
regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyo Bima
Yojana:
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age
group of 18 years.
2. The premium is deducted from the account
holder's bank account through 'auto debit
facility'.
3. The life insurance worth is decided by the
account holder and he has to pay the annual
premium accordingly.
4. The life insurance amount is given to the
family a er the death of the subscriber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The PMJJBY is available to people in the age
group of 18 to 50 years having a bank account
who give their consent to join / enable autodebit. Aadhar would be the primary KYC for
the bank account. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• The life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs shall be for the
one-year period stretching from 1st June to
31st May and will be renewable. Risk coverage
under this scheme is for Rs. 2 Lakh in case of
death of the insured, due to any reason.
Therefore, it is pre-decided and not fixed by
the account holder. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
• The life insurance amount is given to the
family
a er
the
death
of
the
subscriber. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Hence, C is the right answer.
Q117. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is:
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately
(b) A search engine
(c) An ac vity of the user
(d) A command initiated by the sender
Answer: A
Explanation
• Spam is any form of unrequested
communica on sent in bulk (Unsolicited Bulk
Email, or UBE).
• Its most frequent form is a commercial email
sent to many addresses (Unsolicited
Commercial Email, or UCE), but “spamming”
Previous year questions with solutions | 76
•
is also possible via instant messages, texts
(SMS), social media or even voicemail.
Spam can be used to spread computer viruses,
trojan horses or other malicious so ware.
The objec ve may be iden ty the , or worse
(e.g., advance fee fraud). Some spam a empts
to capitalize on human greed, while some
a empts to take advantage of the vic ms'
inexperience with computer technology to
trick them.
Q118. What is Apartheid?
(e) An interna onal organiza on of peace
(f) A medical term
(g) A trade charter
(h) A policy of racial segrega on
Answer: D
Explanation
Apartheid is the policy that governed rela ons
between South Africa’s white minority and nonwhite majority for much of the la er half of the
20th century, sanc oning racial segrega on and
poli cal and economic discrimina on against nonwhites.
Q119. Consider the following statements about
All India Radio:
1. It is governed by the Prasar Bhara Board.
2. It was so named in 1936.
3. It does not provide DTH services.
4.FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its subsidiary
channels.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation
• In April 1930, the Indian Broadcas ng Service,
under the Department of Industries and
Labour, commenced its opera ons on an
experimental basis. Lionel Fielden was
appointed the first Controller of Broadcas ng
in August 1935.
• In the following month Akashvani Mysore, a
private radio sta on was set up. On June 8,
1936, the Indian State Broadcas ng Service
became All India Radio. It is governed by the
Prasar Bharati Board.
•
•
•
In 2004, the DTH service of Doordarshan and
AIR was started.
AIR operates at present 18 FM stereo
channels, called AIR FM Rainbow, targe ng
the urban audience in a refreshing style of
presenta on. Four more FM channels called,
AIR FM Gold, broadcast composite news and
entertainment programmes from Delhi,
Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai.
Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Hence C is the correct answer.
Q120. Which of the following are the func ons of
Foreign Investment Promo on Board (FIPB)?
1. To ensure expedi ous clearance of the
proposals for foreign investment.
2. Τo review periodically the implementa on of
the proposals cleared by the Board
3. To undertake all other ac vi es for promo ng
and facilita ng FDI as considered necessary from
me to me
4. To interact with the FIPC being cons tuted
separately by the Ministry of Industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
(e) 1, 2 and 3 only
(f) 1, 2 and 4 only
(g) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(h) 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation
The Foreign Investment Promo on Board (FIPB),
housed in the Department of Economic Affairs,
Ministry of Finance, is an inter-ministerial body,
responsible for processing of FDI proposals and
making recommenda ons for Government
approval.
• The extant FDI Policy, Press Notes and other
related no fied guidelines formulated by
Department for Promo on of Industry and
Internal Trade (DPIIT) in the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry are the bases of the
FIPB decisions.
• In the process of making recommenda ons,
the FIPB provides significant inputs for FDI
policy-making.
Previous year questions with solutions | 77
The following are the func ons of FIPB:
• Quickly approve FDI proposals. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Review FDI policies and help set up
transparent guidelines that encourage FDI into
different sectors. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
•
•
•
•
•
To examine the implementa on of the various
proposals that it had approved. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
To encourage FDI into the country by
establishing contracts with interna onal
companies and invi ng them to make
investments in India.
To communicate with the government and
industry to augment the inflow of FDI into the
country.
To iden fy other sectors that need FDI.
To interact with the FIPC being cons tuted
separately by the Ministry of Industry. Hence
statement 4 is correct.
Subsequent to aboli on of the Foreign Investment
Promo on Board (FIPB) by the Government in
2017, the work of gran ng government approval
for foreign investment under the extant FDI Policy
and FEMA Regula ons, has been entrusted to the
concerned
Administra ve
Ministries
/
Departments.
Previous year questions with solutions | 78
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2012
Q1. For calcula ng Body Mass Index (BMI),
weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the:
(a) Square of the weight (in kg)
(b) Square of the height (in meters)
(c) Square root of the height (in meters)
(d) Vitamins intake
Direc ons: Each of the next One (2) item consists
of two statements, one labeled as the 'Statement
(I) and the other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q2. Statement (I): In order to produce electric
power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature
above 1800 is required.
Statement (II): To drive steam turbines, high
temperature steam is used.
Q3. Gun metal is an alloy of
(a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(b) Aluminium, Tin and Steel
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
Q4. If the electrical resistance of a typical
substance suddenly drops to zero, then the
substance is called :
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Conductor
(c) Superconductor
(d) Super semiconductor
Q5. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy
of tin and lead. This alloy should have:
(a) High specific resistance and low mel ng point.
(b) Low specific resistance and high mel ng point.
(c) Low specific resistance and low mel ng point.
(d) High specific resistance and high mel ng point.
Q6. Bancassurance is :
(a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank
employees
(c) A composite financial service offering both
bank and insurance products
(d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for
employees of insurance companies
Q7. The word FTP stands for:
(a) File Transit Provision
(b) File Translate Protocol
(c) File Transfer Provision
(d) File Transfer Protocol
Q8. RAM stands for:
(a) Random Access Memory
(b) Read Access Memory
(c) Random Attribute Memory
(d) Random Applicable Memory
Q9. Which of the following is also known as brain
of computer?
(a) Monitor
(b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
(d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Q10. A technique in which data is wri en to two
duplicate disks simultaneously, is called as _____.
(a) Mirroring
(b) Mul plexing
(c) Duplica ng
(d) Copying
Q11. The term 'e-Waste' refers to :
(a) The files that are deleted and enter the
'Waste-bin' folder in a computer
(b) The temporary files, folders, links etc. that are
rarely used in a computer
OurPrevious
6 step formula
year questions
to become
withAPFC
solutions
in EPFO
| 79| 30
(c) The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs
etc. that are disposed off a er their useful life
(d) A portal that offers services for collec ng
household waste
Q12. CAD stands for:
(a) Computer Aided Design
(b) Computer Applica on in Design
(c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(d) Design
Q13. Three sets of data on comparable situa ons
are available as under:
Set
No.
No. of
data
Mean
Value
Standard
Devia on
1
9
8
1.6
2
12
7
12
3
15
9
1.4
Considering all the data sets together, the overall
mean value would be:
(a) 7.24
(b) 7.66
(c) 8.08
(d) 8.50
Q14. If 20% of P= 30% of Q = 1/6 of R, then P: Q:
R is:
(a) 2 : 3 : 16
(b) 3 : 2 : 16
(c) 10 : 15 : 18
(d) 15 : 10 : 18
Q15. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its
height. What will be its height a er 2 years, if it
stands today 64 cm high?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 74 cm
(c) 81 cm
(d) 85 cm
Q16. The sides of a triangle GHL are GH = 65 m,
HL75 m and LG = 80 m. What is the area of this
triangle?
(a) 2100 m²
(b) 2160 m²
(c) 2200 m²
(d) 2280 m²
Q17. A train travels at a certain average speed
for a distance of 63 km. Therea er it travels a
distance of 72 km with an average speed of 6
km/hour more than the original speed. Total
time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours.
What is the original average speed of the train?
(a) 36 km/hour
(b) 42 km/hour
(c) 48 km/hour
(d) 54 km/hour
Q18. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm
length is drawn into a wire of 18 m length with
uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire
would be:
(a) 1/21 cm
(b) 1/18 cm
(c) 1/15 cm
(d) 1/12 cm
Q19. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform
speed of 72 km/hour. It passes non-stop along
the 600 m pla orm of a wayside sta on. What is
the elapsed me for the train to en rely clear
the platform?
(a) 30 seconds
(b) 31 seconds
(c) 32 seconds
(d) 33 seconds
Q20. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a
uniform speed of 54 km/hour. Train B is 125 m
long and travels at a uniform speed of 36
km/hour in the direc on opposite to that of
Train A. If these trains are crossing at a doubletrack stretch, what is the me taken for the two
trains to fully clear each other?
Previous year questions with solutions | 80
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 8 seconds
(c) 7.2 seconds
(d) 6.6 seconds
Q21. Consider the following statements in
respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG):
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are
submi ed to the President who shall cause
these to be placed before the Parliament.
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India and
can be removed only on grounds and
procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court
Judge.
3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and
States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q22. Statement (I): Every State in India has a High
Court in its (State’s) territory.
Statement (II): As per Cons tu on of India, each
State is provided to have a high Court.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q23. Statement (I): The Direc ve Principles of
State Policy enshrined in the cons tu on, aim at
providing the social and economic base of a
genuine democracy.
Statement (II): The Direc ve Principles are merely
direc ves which the government has to keep in
mind while framing policy and is not enforceable
through courts.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q24. Which one of the following Institutions was
NOT set up by the Cons tution of India?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Elec on Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Judiciary
Q25. The following provision, "Protec on of
monuments and places and objects of na onal
importance" is a:
(a) Fundamental Right guaranteed by the
Cons tu on of India
(b) Direc ve Principle of State Policy of the
Cons tu on of India
(c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the
Cons tu on of India
(d) Presiden al order in accordance with the
Cons tu on of India
Q26. The Seventh schedule of the Cons tu on of
India contains provisions regarding:
(a) Scheduled Languages
(b) Oaths and affirma ons
(c) Administra on of Tribal areas
(d) Union, State, Concurrent Lists
Q27. The President of India is elected by the
members of an electoral college consis ng of
elected members of:
1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. The Legisla ve Assemblies of the States
3. Union Council of Ministers
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Previous year questions with solutions | 81
Q28. The responsibility of prepara on of
electoral rolls in India rests with:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Local Administra on
(c) The Elec on Commission
(d) The Returning Officer
Q29. At the me of becoming the Prime Minister
of our country one:
(a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament. If not, must become a member of
one of the Houses within Six months.
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of
the Houses of Parliament but must get elected
as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months.
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of
Parliament prior to appointment.
(d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha.
Q30. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Commission)
A. Second Administrative Reforms Commission
B. Second Commission on Centre State rela ons
C. Thirteenth Finance Commission
D. National Commission for the Review of the
working of the Cons tu on
List-II (Chairperson)
1. Vijay Kelkar
2. Jus ce M.N. Venkatachaliah
3. Jus ce Madan Mohan Punchi
4. M. Veerappa Moily
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q31. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh,
Jagjivan Ram, Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Cha erjee
and Seth Govind Das?
(a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(c) They were Pro-tem Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of the Above
Q32. The purpose of Adjournment mo on in our
Parliament is:
(a) To allow a discussion on a definite ma er of
urgent public importance.
(b) To let opposi on members, collect
informa on from concerned Ministers.
(c) To allow a reduc on of specific amount in the
demand of grant.
(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the
inappropriate or the violent behaviour on the
part of some members.
Q33. Consider the following statements
regarding limita ons on the authority of the
Indian Parliament:
1. Most of the important laws can be introduced
in the Parliament with the prior consent of the
President.
2. Parliament has to operate within the
jurisdiction earmarked by the Cons tu on.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. By the early nineteenth century Bri sh carried
out detailed surveys.
2. The effort was to know the topography, the
soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical
histories and the cropping pattern.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q35. Which is the correct meaning of the term
'rule of primogeniture?
(a) Favourite son inheri ng his father's estate
(b) Eldest son inheri ng his father's estate
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the
sons
Previous year questions with solutions | 82
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the
sons and daughters
Q36. Which of the following would be the most
useful source of evidence for research about the
agrarian history of the sixteenth and early
seventeenth centuries?
(a) Accounts of contemporary travellers
(b) Individual revenue records
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal
court
(d) Records of the East India company
Q37. Which of the following is a correct
statement about both the Mughal and O oman
empires in the sixteenth century?
(a) Both of these empires had powerful navies
that engaged European navies.
(b) Both of these empires expanded through the
use of gunpowder weapons and extensive
bureaucracies.
(c) Both of these empires gave li le monetary
support to ar s c and cultural endeavours.
(d) In both of these empires the majority of the
people were Muslims.
Q38. Consider the following:
1. Rowla Act movement
2. Kheda movement
3. Champaran
4. Ahmedabad mill strike
What is the correct chronological order of the
above-men oned Gandhian movements?
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(b) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(c) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Q39. Which one of the following sets of industries
were among first modern industries in India?
(a) Tea, Co on and Sugar
(b) Jute, Silk and Cotton
(c) Cotton, Jute and Coal Mines
(d) Sugar, Silk and Steels
Q40. Which term is used to describe the spread
of Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia?
(a) Social mobility
(b) Cultural diffusion
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) Interdependence
Q41. Consider the following statements about
heritage :
1. Heritage is that which has been or may be
inherited.
2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a
proper possession.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q42. Consider the following statements
regarding human development:
1. Skills may be harnessed in the society through
par cipations of NGOs.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews
and interna onal experiences can prove to be
helpful.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
Q43. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of
animals and plants on the Earth, is controlled
mainly by:
(a) Biological ac vity
(b) Landforms
(c) Climate
(d) Soil
Q44. Despite having huge coal reserve in our
country, why do we import millions of tons of
coal?
1. It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own coal
reserve for future use and import now from
other countries for present use.
2. Most of the thermal plants in our country are
coal based and they are unable to get
sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
Previous year questions with solutions | 83
3. Steel plants require large quan es of coking
coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be
imported from other countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q45. A cul vator has about two hectares rain fed
land without irriga on facili es. Which type of
crops would he like grow?
1. Jowar
2. Cotton
3. Arhar
4. Potatoes
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q46. Match List-1 with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I
List-II
A. Buxa Tiger Reserve 1. Rajasthan
B.
Periyar
Tiger 2. Gujarat
Reserve
C. Sariska National 3. West Bengal
Park
D. Wild Ass Sanctuary 4. Kerala
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
4
1
2
(c) 2 4
1
3
(d) 3
1
4
2
Q47. Which one of the following statements is
true about red soil?
(a) It is rich in humus.
(b) It is rich in potash.
(c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(d) It is derived from volcanic origin.
Q48. "Kyoto Protocol', an agreement signed by
various countries, is associated with
(a) International trade
(b) Deep sea oil and mineral explora on
(c) Clean environment and climate change
(d) Building common food stock to save human
being from any natural disaster
Q49. Which of the following can be threats to the
biodiversity of a geographical area?
1.
Global warming
2.
Fragmenta on of habitats
3.
Invasion of alien species
4.
Promo on of vegetarianism
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b)
1, 2 and 4 only
(c)
3 and 4 only
(d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Q50. Vultures, which were very common in our
countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen
nowadays. This is a ributed to one of the
following:
(a) Destruc on of their nes ng sites by new
invasive species
(b) A drug used by ca le owners for trea ng their
diseased ca le
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease
amongst them
Q51. NABARD means:
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development
(b) Na onal Agricultural Bank and Rural
Development
(c) Na onal Agricultural Board and Rural
Development
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural
Area Development
Q52. Which of the following is NOT a
recommenda on of the Na onal Coopera ve
Farming Advisory Board for pu ng coopera ve
farming on a sounder foo ng?
Previous year questions with solutions | 84
(a) Every Society should have a definite
programme for total pooling of lands.
(b) Financial assistance should be given only
for purchase of new land.
(c) State Governments should give priority to
revitaliza on of the exis ng socie es.
(d) Joint farming must be prac ced with
respect to all lands of the society.
Q.53 Three States which have Human
Development Index (HDI) higher than China are:
(a) Kerala, Maharashtra and Madhya
Pradesh
(b) Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and
(d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
Q.54 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Chairperson)
A. D.M. Dharmadhikari
B. Anil Kakodkar
C. B.N. Srikrishna
D. Adi Godrej
List-II (Issue)
1. National Corporate Governance Policy
2. Air India Indian Airlines merger
3. Indian Railways High Level Safety Review
Commi ee
4. Financial Sector Legisla ve Reforms
Commission
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 1
3
4
2
(b) 2
3
4
1
(c) 1
4
3
2
(d) 2
4
3
1
Q.55 The newly introduced rupee symbol is based
on:
(a) Roman and Greek script
(b) Persian and Dravidian script
(c) Roman and Devanagari script
(d) Greek and Devanagari script
Q.56 The regional project by name 'CASA-1000*
(Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World
Bank, pertains to the field of:
(a) Eradica on of HIV AIDS
(b) Roads and Buildings
(c) Electricity
(d) Eradica on of illiteracy
Q57. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the
recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012?
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
(b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
(c) Cris ano Ronaldo (Portugal)
(d) Mario Gomez (Germany)
Q.58 Match List-1 with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Steve Jobs
B. Sheryl Sandberg
C. Larry Page
D. Ross Levinsohn
List-II (Company)
1. Google
2. Apple
3. Yahoo
4. Facebook
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
1
4
2
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 3
4
1
2
Q.59 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below PSC
the lists:
List-I (Book)
A. Rahul Dravid : Timeless Steel
B. An Ashes Summer
C. Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds Now
D. Opening Up : My Autography
List-II (Author)
1. Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain
2. Greg Chappell
3. Mike Atherton
Previous year questions with solutions | 85
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. V. Krishnaswamy
Code:
A B
C
D
3 4
1
2
2 4
1
3
3 1
4
2
2 1
4
3
Q.60 Why was Jus ce Dalveer Bhandari in the
news recently?
(a) He became member of UN Human Rights
Council.
(b) He was elected to the Interna onal Court
of Jus ce.
(c) He became Director General of World
Trade Organiza on.
(d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC.
Q.61 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (Head)
A. Jim Yong Kim
B. Kamlesh Sharma
C. Chris ne Lagarde
D. Catherine Day
List-II (Institu on)
1. President Word Bank
2. Secretary-General Commonwealth
3. Managing Director, IMF
4. Secretary-General of the European
Commission
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 4
2
1
(b) 1 4
2
3
(c) 3 2
4
1
(d) 1 2
4
3
Q62. It is said that, in order to control infla on,
foreign inflow needs to be sterilized. Steriliza on
here refers to
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not
enter circula on
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to
maintain a desirable rate of exchange
(d) Compliance with import-export regulations
Q63. Which of the following are the main causes
of the slow rate of growth of per capita income in
India?
1. High rate of capital forma on
2. High level of fiscal deficits
3. High rate of growth of popula on
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Q64. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open
market opera ons policy, this means it will:
a) Sell securities in the open market
b) Buy securities from non-government holders
c) Openly announce to the market that it intends
to expand credit
d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the
open market
Q65. Structural Planning refers to:
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Laying down broad goals and strategies
(c) Changing exis ng ins tu ons or crea ng new
ones
(d) Fixing flexible targets
Q66. Which of the following is NOT one of the
features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
being set up for promo ng exports?
(a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry
without Visa restric ons
(b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory
for trade opera ons, du es and tariff
(c) There will be no rou ne examina on by
customs authori es of import/export cargo
(d) No license is required for import into the zone
Q67. Which one of the following expresses the
rela on between normal price and market price?
(a) Market price is greater than normal price
(b) Market price is equal to normal price
(c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price
(d) Market price is lesser than normal price
Previous year questions with solutions | 86
Q68. Inflation can be controlled by:
(a) Increase in wages
(b) Decrease in taxa on
(c) Reduc on in public expenditure
(d) Making the rupee dearer
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q69. Which of the following can be termed an
infrastructural bo leneck in the development of
India's economy?
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity.
(b) Existence of a large variety of financial
ins tu ons
(c) Delay in the administra on of jus ce rela ng
to land acquisi on and displacement
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee
Q73. The main objec ve of the Minimum Wage
Act, 1948 is to safeguard the interests the
workers engaged in:
(a) Unorganized sector
(b) Organized sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Agricultural sector
Q70. Which of the following statements is true
about Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industries related to security, strategic
and environmental concerns require industrial
License
(b) An investor need not file an industrial
entrepreneur Memorandum
(c) There is no reserva on of products for
production in small scale sectors
(d) The number of industries reserved for public
sector has been enhanced
Q71. In which of the following Acts, housing
facility is a statutory provision?
(a) The Planta ons Labour Act, 1951
(b) The Factories Act, 1948
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) None of the above
Q72. Statement (I): Industrial rela on is currently
more influenced by the external market forces
than the power play between employers and
employees.
Statement (II): The forces of globaliza on have
made compe on so impera ve that unions and
their tac cs like stopping produc vity no more
hold good
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-1 (Contribu on)
A. Industrial Welfare Movement
B. Human Rela ons Thought
C. Concept of Third Force
D. Ahmedabad Experiment
List-II (Contributor)
1. Charles A Myer
2. A.K. Rice
3. Robert Owen
4. Elton Mayo
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Q75. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Board/Commi ee)
A. First Na onal Commission on Labour, 1969
B. Wage Board for Working Journalists, 2009
C. Second Na onal Commission on Labour,
2002
D. Index Review Commi ee, 2009
List-II (Chairperson)
Previous year questions with solutions | 87
1. G.K. Chadha
2. Ravindra Verma
3. P.B. Gajendragadkar
4. G.R. Majithia
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
Q76. In which part of the Indian Constitu on,
Worker's par cipa on in Management has been
incorporated?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Direc ve Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Q77. How does Na onal Rural Livelihood Mission
(NRLM) seek to improve livelihood op ons of
rural poor?
1. By se ng up a large number of new
manufacturing industries and agribusiness
centers in rural areas.
2. By strengthening Self Help Groups (SHG) and
providing skill development.
3. By supplying seeds, fer lizers, diesel pumpsets and micro irriga on equipment free of
cost to farmers.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Q78. The Mahatma Gandhi Na onal Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at
enhancing livelihood security in rural areas of
India by providing at least one hundred:
a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial
year to able adults in the Informa on
Technology sector.
b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a
financial year to adult members of a rural
household.
c) Meals to children of rural households in one
financial year.
d) Employees for rural developmental schemes in
a financial year.
Q79. One of the following Government of India
programmes aims to help, build or upgrade
dwelling units of below the poverty line rural
families:
a) National Programme Social Assistance
b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
c) Indira Awas Yojana
d) Jawaharlal Nehru Na onal Urban Renewal
Mission TAL
Q80. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in
1995 with the aim to :
1. Enhance
enrolment,
reten on
and
attendance of primary school children
2. Improve the nutri onal status of primary
school children
3. Improve the habit of reading among rural
households
4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among
primary school children
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
Q81. Which of the following is NOT covered by
the
Employees
Provident
Fund
and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
a) Pension
b) Provident Fund
c) Deposit Linked Insurance
d) Injury Compensa on
Q82. Which of the following statements about
Workmen's Compensa on Act, 1923 is true?
a) It is not social security legisla on.
b) Its name has been changed to the Employee's
Compensation Act in 2009.
c) It provides maximum compensa on in the
event of death.
d) It does not provide compensa on for
occupa onal diseases.
Previous year questions with solutions | 88
Q83. Which of the following legisla ons is
comprehensive social security legislation?
a) The Maternity Benefit Act
b) The Employees State Insurance Act
c) The Employees Compensation Act
d) The Employees Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act
Q84. What is the maximum limit of gratuity
payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972?
a) 3 Lakhs rupees
b) 7-5 Lakhs rupees
c) 10 Lakhs rupees
d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees
Q85. The Endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana'
Programme is to:
1. Promote ins tu onal deliveries
2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery
3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and
confinement
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Next Four (04) items are based on the passage
given below:
It has been rightly said that we spend the first half
of our lives trying to understand the older
genera on, and the second half trying to
understand the younger genera on. Youth has
always felt somewhat exasperated with age, and
age has always been suspicious of youth. With
their natural ebullience and impa ence, a majority
of young people are keen to act and learn on their
own rather than be guided by the experience of
their elders. The older people being more at home
with words rather than with ac on, o en make
noises about the problems of youth. In every
genera on, old men are found shaking their hoary
heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old
days when young people knew be er and showed
due reverence to age and tradi on. In all ages,
whenever they have pondered over the ways of
youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruina on
staring the world in its face. And yet the world
goes on. Every genera on passes from the
spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the
caution and prudence of old age, and then yield
place to the next.
Q86. What, according to you, is the theme and
the idea of the passage:
(a) Genera on gap
(b) Problems of the youth
(c) Op mism of the older genera on
(d) None of the above
Q87. The older genera on is suspicious about the
younger genera on as the youngsters lack:
(a) knowledge
(b) experience
(c) pa ence
(d) me
Q88. The author seems to be suppor ve of the
idea that
(a) the people of the older genera on are men of
words rather than ac on
(b) the young genera on is impa ent
(c) the younger genera on today is much
misunderstood and more maligned than it
deserves
(d) none of the above
Q89. "And yet the world goes on"-what is the
tone of the author in this statement?
(a) Op mis c
(b) Pessimis c
(c) Cynical
(d) Cri cal
Next Four (04) items are based on the passage
given below:
Who deserves more severe punishment? One who
gives bribes or the one who takes them? The
corrupt prac ce of bribery is possible because
there is someone who is ready to pay money for
illegal ac on or decision in his favour. Otherwise,
how can one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver
Previous year questions with solutions | 89
tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes
our na onal character. Even Jesus Christ, fearing
the power of tempta on, had said, "Lead me not
into tempta on". A bribe-giver is generally
moneyed and influen al, while, on the other hand,
one who demands bribe does so because of his
poor circumstances and compulsions. Hence, one
who gives bribe should be awarded more severe
punishment because he exploits the weakness of
the poor. Giving and taking bribe happens in a
more vicious circle which can con nue only
because of money. Naturally, therefore, it is the
affluent that grease this wheel of corrup on and
should accordingly be dealt with firmly and
suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious
prac ce.
Q94. A judgment made before all the facts are
known must be called:
(a) Deliberate
(b) Sensible
(c) Premature
(d) Harsh
Q95. Which of the following pairs of words
expresses the same rela onship as in ELUSIVE
CAPTURE?
(a) Sensible decide
(b) Headstrong controlled
(c) Elas c stretch
(d) Persuasive convince
Q90. The author feels that the prac ce of bribery
is there because there are willing bribe givers.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
(d) None of the above
Q96. Choose the word which is the nearest
opposite to the meaning of the underlined word
: I wish I could pursue my studies.
(a) Discon nue
(b) Abandon
(c) Restrain
(d) Deter
Q91. Who, according to the author, is more
responsible among the following?
(a) The bribe-taker
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The witness
(d) The general public
Q97. Which of the following op ons is the closest
in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS?
(a) Indirect
(b) Confusing
(c) Crooked
(d) Cyclic
Q92. Who, according to the author, should be
punished more severely?
(a) The Police who allow this prac ce
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above
Q98. Archaeological studies suggest the theory
(a) All the con nents were se led with human
socie es at about the same me
(b) Farming socie es developed before hun ng
and gathering
(c) The earliest human evolved in the Ri valley in
East Africa
(d) The wheel was in use in all ancient
Q93. Who, according to the author, is more
corrupted?
(a) Our system
(b) The person who demands bribe
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the
poor
(d) The supporter of bribe who is le with li le
choice
Previous year questions with solutions | 90
Q99. Which of the following is the earliest to be
cons tuted?
(a) Press Council of India
(b) United News of India
(c) NAM News Network
(d) Press Trust of India
Q100. Which of the following sets of countries
has only federa ons?
(a) New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argen na
(b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
(c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
(d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
Previous year questions with solutions | 91
Solutions
Q1. For calcula ng Body Mass Index (BMI),
weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the:
(a) Square of the weight (in kg)
(b) Square of the height (in meters)
(c) Square root of the height (in meters)
(d) Vitamins intake
Answer: B
Explanation:
Body Mass Index is a simple calcula on using a
person's height and weight.
• The formula is BMI = W/h2 where W is a
person's weight in kilograms and h2 is their
height in metres squared.
• A BMI of 25.0 or more is overweight, while the
healthy range is 18.5 to 24.9.
Directions: Each of the next One (2) item consists
of two statements, one labeled as the 'Statement
(I) and the other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Q2. Statement (I): In order to produce electric
power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature
above 1800C is required.
Statement (II): To drive steam turbines, high
temperature steam is used.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Geothermal energy is heat within the earth. The
word geothermal comes from the Greek words
geo (earth) and therme (heat).
• Geothermal energy is a renewable energy
source because heat is con nuously produced
inside the earth. People use geothermal heat
for bathing, to heat buildings, and to generate
electricity.
• Geothermal power plants require hightemperature (300°F (150oC) to 700°F (370oC))
hydrothermal resources that come from either
dry steam wells or from hot water wells. Hence
Statement (I) is correct.
• To drive steam turbines high pressure, high
temperature steam is used. The high pressure
creates the necessary thrust while the high
temperature prevents the steam from
condensing into water which can be
detrimental for the turbine. Hence Statement
(II) is correct but not the correct explana on
of Asser on as high-pressure steam drives
steam turbines.
Q3. Gun metal is an alloy of
(a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(b) Aluminium, Tin and Steel
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gunmetal, also called G Metal is a variety of
bronze, formerly used for ordnance.
• Modern admiralty gunmetal is composed of 88
percent copper, 10 percent tin, and 2 percent
zinc and is used for gears and bearings that are
to be subjected to heavy loads and low speeds.
• Hence option A is correct.
Q4. If the electrical resistance of a typical
substance suddenly drops to zero, then the
substance is called :
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Conductor
(c) Superconductor
(d) Super semiconductor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 92
In superconductors, resistance drops suddenly to
zero at a sufficiently low temperature.
• A superconductor is a material that achieves
superconduc vity, which is a state of ma er
that has no electrical resistance and does not
allow magne c fields to penetrate.
• An electric current in a superconductor can
persist indefinitely.
• Superconduc vity can only typically be
achieved at very cold temperatures.
• Prominent examples of superconductors
include aluminium, niobium, magnesium
diboride, cuprates such as y rium barium
copper oxide and iron pnic des.
• These materials only become superconduc ng
at temperatures below a certain value, known
as the critical temperature.
Q5. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy
of tin and lead. This alloy should have:
(a) High specific resistance and low mel ng point.
(b) Low specific resistance and high mel ng point.
(c) Low specific resistance and low mel ng point.
(d) High specific resistance and high mel ng point.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of n
and lead.
• This alloy has high specific resistance and also
low mel ng point so that it melts as soon as
large current flows through the wire. Hence
option A is correct.
• The specific resistance is constant for a wire
irrespec ve of the length or cross-sec onal
area of the wire.
Q6. Bancassurance is:
(a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank
employees
(c) A composite financial service offering both
bank and insurance products
(d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for
employees of insurance companies
Answer: C
Explanation:
•
•
•
Bancassurance is an arrangement between a
bank and an insurance company allowing the
insurance company to sell its products to the
bank's client base.
This partnership arrangement can be
profitable for both companies.
Banks earn addi onal revenue by selling
insurance products, and insurance companies
expand their customer bases without
increasing their sales force.
Q7. The word FTP stands for:
(a) File Transit Provision
(b) File Translate Protocol
(c) File Transfer Provision
(d) File Transfer Protocol
Answer: D
Explanation:
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• The File Transfer Protocol is a standard
network protocol used for the transfer of
computer files between a client and server on
a computer network.
• FTP is built on a client-server model
architecture using separate control and data
connec ons between the client and the server
Q8. RAM stands for:
(a) Random Access Memory
(b) Read Access Memory
(c) Random Attribute Memory
(d) Random Applicable Memory
Answer: A
Explanation:
Random Access Memory (RAM) –
• A semiconductor storage structure that
accesses temporary data with a random or
direct accessing method.
• It is accurately referred to as 'erasable
read/write' memory.
• It is also referred to as vola le memory.
Q9. Which of the following is also known as brain
of computer?
(a) Monitor
(b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
Previous year questions with solutions | 93
(d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Central Processing Unit (CPU)
• The Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs
the actual processing of data.
• It is the part of a computer system that
interprets and carries out the instruc ons
contained in the software.
• The CPU is generally called by its generic
name 'Processor'. It is also known as the brain
of computer.
Q10. A technique in which data is wri en to two
duplicate disks simultaneously, is called as _____.
(a) Mirroring
(b) Mul plexing
(c) Duplica ng
(d) Copying
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Disk mirroring or mirroring is a technique
used to protect a computer system from loss
of data and other poten al losses due to disk
failures.
• In this technique, the data is duplicated by
being wri en to two or more iden cal hard
drives, all of which are connected to one disk
controller card.
• If one hard drive fails, the data can be
retrieved from the other mirrored hard drives.
Q11. The term 'e-Waste' refers to :
(a) The files that are deleted and enter the
'Waste-bin' folder in a computer
(b) The temporary files, folders, links etc. that are
rarely used in a computer
(c) The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs
etc. that are disposed off a er their useful life
(d) A portal that offers services for collec ng
household waste
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Electronic waste, or e-waste, refers to all
items of electrical and electronic equipment
(EEE) and its parts that have been discarded by
•
•
its owner as waste without the intent of reuse.
E-waste is also referred to as WEEE (Waste
Electrical and Electronic Equipment),
electronic waste or e-scrap in different regions
and under different circumstances in the
world.
It includes a wide range of products – almost
any household or business item with circuitry
or electrical components with power or
battery supply.
Q12. CAD stands for:
(a) Computer Aided Design
(b) Computer Applica on in Design
(c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(d) Compute Advance Design
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Computer-Aided Design (CAD) is a computer
technology that designs a product and
documents the design's process.
• CAD may facilitate the manufacturing process
by transferring detailed diagrams of a
product's materials, processes, tolerances
and dimensions with specific conven ons for
the product in ques on
Q13. Three sets of data on comparable situa ons
are available as under:
Set
No.
No. of
data
Mean
Value
Standard
Devia on
1
9
8
1.6
2
12
7
12
3
15
9
1.4
Considering all the data sets together, the overall
mean value would be:
(a) 7.24
(b) 7.66
(c) 8.08
(d) 8.50
Answer: C
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 94
If there are mul ple datasets, containing some
observa ons, their weighted mean can be
calculated as -
Where,
x1, x2, …, and x3 are the mean of their respec ve
datasets.
n1, n2, …, and n3 are the total number of
observa ons in each data set.
So, in the given ques on,
• x1 = 8, x2 = 7, and x3 = 9
• n1 = 9, n2 = 12, and n3 = 15
• Thereby overall mean = (8*9 + 12*7 + 15*9)/
(9+12+15)
• = (72+84+135)/(36)
• =291/36 = 8.08
• Hence option C is correct.
Q14. If 20% of P= 30% of Q = 1/6 of R, then P: Q:
R is:
(a) 2 : 3 : 16
(b) 3 : 2 : 16
(c) 10 : 15 : 18
(d) 15 : 10 : 18
Answer: D
Explanation:
20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R
1/5 of P = 3/10 of Q = 1/6 of R = k
So, P= 5k, Q = (10/3)k, R= 6k
So, the ra o of P, Q, and R = 5k: 10/3k: 6k
Mul ply by 3
P: Q: R = 15: 10: 18
Q15. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its
height. What will be its height a er 2 years, if it
stands today 64 cm high?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 74 cm
(c) 81 cm
(d) 85 cm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Height of tree today = 64cm
A er 1 year it will increase by 1/8th of its height =
(1/8) *64 = 8. So, total height a er 1 year = 64 + 8
= 72cm.
A er 2nd year again increase of 1/8th of its height
= (1/8) *72 = 9. So, total height a er 2 years = 72
+ 9 = 81cm
Q16. The sides of a triangle GHL are GH = 65 m,
HL75 m and LG = 80 m. What is the area of this
triangle?
(a) 2100 m²
(b) 2160 m²
(c) 2200 m²
(d) 2280 m²
Answer: D
Explanation:
The sides of a triangle are 65, 75, and 80m. This is
a scalene triangle.
So, are can be find out by heron’s formula = √{s(sa)(s-b)(s-c)}
Where s= semi perimeter, and a, b, c = sides of
the triangle.
So, a= 65m, b= 75m, c= 80m
Perimieter of triangle = a + b + c = 65 + 75 + 80 =
220m
Semi perimeter = Perimeter/2 = 220/2 = 110m
Now put values in the formula
= √ {110(110 – 65)(110 – 75)(110 – 80)}
= √ {110*45*35*30}
= 150*√231
= 2279.80 ~ 2280m2
Q17. A train travels at a certain average speed
for a distance of 63 km. Therea er it travels a
distance of 72 km with an average speed of 6
km/hour more than the original speed. Total
time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours.
What is the original average speed of the train?
(a) 36 km/hour
(b) 42 km/hour
Previous year questions with solutions | 95
(c) 48 km/hour
(d) 54 km/hour
Answer: B
Explanation:
We have to find the original average speed of the
train.
Total journey completed in 3 hours.
We know, distance = speed/ me
Given, that a train travels a distance of 63km at
an average speed of x km/hr,
Time = 63/x
Given, that the same train travels a distance of
72km at an average speed of (x+6)km/hr,
Time = 72/(x+6)
So, 3 = (63/x) + 72/(x+6)
Dividing by 3 to both sides,
1 = 21/x + 24/(x+6)
x (x + 6) = 21(x + 6) + 24(x)
x² + 6x = 21x + 126 + 24x
By grouping,
x² + 6x - 21x - 24x = 126
x² - 39x - 126 = 0
x² - 42x + 3x - 126 = 0
x (x - 42) + 3(x - 42) = 0
(x - 42)*(x + 3) = 0
Now, x - 42 = 0
x = 42
Also, x + 3 = 0
x = -3
Since the average speed x cannot be nega ve, So,
x = 42km/hr
Q18. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm
length is drawn into a wire of 18 m length with
uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire
would be:
(a) 1/21 cm
(b) 1/18 cm
(c) 1/15 cm
(d) 1/12 cm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Diameter of the iron rod = 1 cm So, radius of the
iron rod = 1/2 cm = 0.5 cm
Length of the iron rod = 8 cm
We know that, Volume of the cylinder = πr2h = π
× 0.52 × 8 ……. (i)
Length of the wire = 18 m = 1800 cm
Volume of the wire = πr2h = π r2 × 1800 ….. (ii)
On equa ng both the equa ons
we have π × 0.52 × 8 = π r2 × 1800
r2 = 2 /1800
r2 = 1/900
r = 1/30 cm
Therefore, the diameter of the wire is 1/15 cm
Q19. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform
speed of 72 km/hour. It passes non-stop along
the 600 m pla orm of a wayside sta on. What is
the elapsed me for the train to en rely clear
the platform?
(a) 30 seconds
(b) 31 seconds
(c) 32 seconds
(d) 33 seconds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Speed = Distance/ Time
Speed = 72km/hr = 72*1000/(60*60) = 20m/s
Length of train= 60m and length of pla orm=
600m. So, total distance = 660m
Now,
S = D/T
20 = 660/T
So, T = 33seconds.
Q20. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a
uniform speed of 54 km/hour. Train B is 125 m
long and travels at a uniform speed of 36
Previous year questions with solutions | 96
km/hour in the direc on opposite to that of
Train A. If these trains are crossing at a doubletrack stretch, what is the me taken for the two
trains to fully clear each other?
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 8 seconds
(c) 7.2 seconds
(d) 6.6 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation:
Length of train A = 75m, speed of train A =
54km/hr = 54*1000/60*60 = 15m/s
Length of train B = 125m, Speed of train B =
36km/hr = 36*1000/60*60 = 10m/s
Now they are moving in opposite direc on
So, rela ve speed will be sum of both
So, S = D/T
15 + 10 = (75 + 125)/ T
25 = 200/T
T = 8 seconds
Q21. Consider the following statements in
respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG):
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are
submi ed to the President who shall cause
these to be placed before the Parliament.
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India and
can be removed only on grounds and
procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court
Judge.
3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and
States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The CAG submits three audit reports to the
President - audit report on appropria on
accounts, audit report on finance accounts,
and audit report on public undertakings.
-
•
•
The President lays these reports before
both the Houses of Parliament.
- A er this, the Public Accounts Commi ee
examines them and reports its findings to
the Parliament.
- He submits his audit reports rela ng to the
accounts of a state to governor, who shall,
in turn, place them before the state
legislature. Hence Statement 1 is not
correct.
The CAG is appointed by the President of India
by a warrant under his hand and seal.
- He holds office for a period of six years or
up to the age of 65 years, whichever is
earlier. He can resign any me from his
office by addressing the resigna on le er
to the president.
- He can also be removed by the president
on same grounds and in the same manner
as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
CAG advises the President with regard to
prescrip on of the form in which the accounts
of the Centre and the states shall be kept.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q22. Statement (I): Every State in India has a High
Court in its (State’s) territory.
Statement (II): As per Cons tu on of India, each
State is provided to have a high Court.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Answer: D
Explanation:
• At present, there are 24 high courts in the
country.
- Out of them, four are common high
courts. Delhi is the only union territory that
has a high court of its own (since 1966).
Hence statement (I) is false.
Previous year questions with solutions | 97
•
The Cons tu on of India provides for a high
court for each state, but the Seventh
Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the
Parliament to establish a common high court
for two or more states or for two or more
states and a union territory. Hence statement
(II) is true.
Q23. Statement (I): The Direc ve Principles of
State Policy enshrined in the cons tu on, aim at
providing the social and economic base of a
genuine democracy.
Statement (II): The Direc ve Principles are merely
direc ves which the government has to keep in
mind while framing policy and is not enforceable
through courts.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Direc ve Principles cons tute a very
comprehensive economic, social and poli cal
programme for a modern democra c State.
- They aim at realising the high ideals of
jus ce, liberty, equality and fraternity as
outlined in the Preamble to the
Cons tu on. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The phrase ‘Direc ve Principles of State Policy’
denotes the ideals that the State should keep
in mind while formula ng policies and
enac ng laws. These are the cons tu onal
instructions or recommenda ons to the State
in legisla ve, execu ve and administra ve
matters.
- The Direc ve Principles are non-justiciable
in nature, that is, they are not legally
enforceable by the courts for their
violation. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Q24. Which one of the following Institutions was
NOT set up by the Cons tution of India?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Elec on Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Judiciary
Answer: C
Explanation:
Planning Commission was non – cons tutional
and non – statutory body established by an
execu ve resolu on
Q25. The following provision, "Protec on of
monuments and places and objects of na onal
importance" is a:
(a) Fundamental Right guaranteed by the
Cons tu on of India
(b) Direc ve Principle of State Policy of the
Cons tu on of India
(c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the
Cons tu on of India
(d) Presiden al order in accordance with the
Cons tu on of India
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Article 49 of the Indian Cons tu on in the
Direc ve Principle of State Policy directs the
state to protect monuments, places and
objects of ar s c or historic interest which
are declared to be of na onal importance.
Q26. The Seventh schedule of the Cons tu on of
India contains provisions regarding:
(a) Scheduled Languages
(b) Oaths and affirma ons
(c) Administra on of Tribal areas
(d) Union, State, Concurrent Lists
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Cons tu on
deals with the division of powers between the
Union and the States in terms of List I (Union
List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent
List).
Previous year questions with solutions | 98
Q27. The President of India is elected by the
members of an electoral college consis ng of
elected members of:
1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. The Legisla ve Assemblies of the States
3. Union Council of Ministers
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: All of the above
Explanation:
The President is elected not directly by the people
but by members of electoral college consis ng of:
1. The elected members of both the Houses of
Parliament;
2. The elected members of the legisla ve
assemblies of the states;
3. The elected members of the legisla ve
assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi
and Puducherry.
• Elected members of Union Council are elected
MPs and hence eligible to par cipate in
Presiden al Elec on.
Q28. The responsibility of prepara on of
electoral rolls in India rests with:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Local Administra on
(c) The Elec on Commission
(d) The Returning Officer
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the main responsibility of Elec on
Commission of India is to prepare and periodically
revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible
voters.
Q29. At the me of becoming the Prime Minister
of our country one:
(a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament. If not, must become a member of
one of the Houses within Six months.
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of
the Houses of Parliament but must get elected
as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months.
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of
Parliament prior to appointment.
(d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Supreme Court held that a person who is
not a member of either House of Parliament
can be appointed as Prime Minister for six
months, within which, he should become a
member of either House of Parliament;
otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister.
Q30. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Commission)
A. Second Administra ve Reforms Commission
B. Second Commission on Centre State rela ons
C. Thirteenth Finance Commission
D. National Commission for the Review of the
working of the Cons tu on
List-II (Chairperson)
1. Vijay Kelkar
2. Jus ce M.N. Venkatachaliah
3. Jus ce Madan Mohan Punchi
4. M. Veerappa Moily
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The second ARC cons tuted in 2005 was
chaired by M. Veerappa Moily.
• The Punchhi Commission was cons tuted by
the Government of India in 2007 as a
Commission on Centre-State rela ons. It was
chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi who
was formerly the Chief Jus ce of India.
• The Thirteenth Finance Commission of India
was cons tuted
by
the
under
the
chairmanship of Vijay L. Kelkar on 13
November 2007.
• The Na onal Commission to review the
working of the Cons tu on (NCRWC) also
Previous year questions with solutions | 99
known as Justice Manepalli Narayana Rao
Venkatachaliah Commission was set up by a
resolu on of the NDA Government of India led
by Atal Bihari Vajpayee on 22 February 2000
for sugges ng possible amendments to the
Cons tu on of India.
Q31. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh,
Jagjivan Ram, Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Cha erjee
and Seth Govind Das?
(a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(c) They were Pro-tem Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of the Above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• There is nothing common to above names.
Q32. The purpose of Adjournment mo on in our
Parliament is:
(a) To allow a discussion on a definite ma er of
urgent public importance.
(b) To let opposi on members, collect
informa on from concerned Ministers.
(c) To allow a reduc on of specific amount in the
demand of grant.
(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the
inappropriate or the violent behaviour on the
part of some members.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Adjournment Mo on is introduced in the
Parliament to draw a en on of the House to a
definite ma er of urgent public importance and
needs the support of 50 members to be admi ed.
Q33. Consider the following statements
regarding limita ons on the authority of the
Indian Parliament:
1. Most of the important laws can be introduced
in the Parliament with the prior consent of the
President.
2. Parliament has to operate within the
jurisdiction earmarked by the Cons tu on.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Only certain bills like Money Bills, Financial Bill
under Ar cle 117 (1) can be introduced in the
Parliament with the prior consent of the
President. Not most of the important laws like
President assent before their introduc on.
Hence statement 1 in not correct.
• The Cons tu on is the fundamental law of the
land in our country. It has defined the
authority and jurisdic on of all the three
organs of the Union government and the
nature of interrela onship between them.
Hence, the Parliament has to operate within
the limits prescribed by the Cons tu on.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. By the early nineteenth century Bri sh carried
out detailed surveys.
2. The effort was to know the topography, the
soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical
histories and the cropping pattern.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
Explanation:
The Bri sh gave much importance to the prac ce
of surveying because they believed that a country
had to be properly known before it could be
effec vely administered. Therefore, they carried
out detailed surveys by the early 19 th century in
order to map the entire country:
• They conducted revenue surveys in villages.
• They made efforts to know the topography,
the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local
histories and the cropping pa ern.
• They also introduced census opera ons, held
at the interval of every ten years from the end
of the 19th century.
• They prepared detailed records of the number
of people in all the provinces of India, no ng
Previous year questions with solutions | 100
informa on on castes, religions and
occupa on separately.
• The Bri sh also carried on several other
surveys such as botanical surveys, zoological
surveys, archaeological surveys, forest
surveys, etc. In this way, they gathered all the
facts that were essen al for administering a
country.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q35. Which is the correct meaning of the term
'rule of primogeniture?
(a) Favourite son inheri ng his father's estate
(b) Eldest son inheri ng his father's estate
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the
sons
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the
sons and daughters
Answer: B
Explanation:
Primogeniture is a system of inheritance in which
a person's property passes to their firstborn
legi mate child upon their death.
• The term comes from the La n "primo” which
means first, and “genitura” which relates to a
person's birth.
Q36. Which of the following would be the most
useful source of evidence for research about the
agrarian history of the sixteenth and early
seventeenth centuries?
(a) Accounts of contemporary travellers
(b) Individual revenue records
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal
court
(d) Records of the East India company
Answer: C
Explanation:
The major sources for the agrarian history of the
16th and early 17th centuries are chronicles and
documents from the Mughal court.
Q37. Which of the following is a correct
statement about both the Mughal and O oman
empires in the sixteenth century?
(a) Both of these empires had powerful navies
that engaged European navies.
(b) Both of these empires expanded through the
use of gunpowder weapons and extensive
bureaucracies.
(c) Both of these empires gave li le monetary
support to ar s c and cultural endeavours.
(d) In both of these empires the majority of the
people were Muslims.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Ottoman, Safavid, and Mughal Empires are
called the Gunpowder Empires because they had
strong military powers that u lized gunpowder
and innova ve ar llery. That successfully helped
them to expand and protect their territory.
• The Gunpowder Empires were significant due
to their impact on the trade and military. Due
to their power, these empires controlled the
important region of Eurasia that oversaw trade
between Europe and Asia.
Q38. Consider the following:
1. Rowla Act movement
2. Kheda movement
3. Champaran
4. Ahmedabad mill strike
What is the correct chronological order of the
above-men oned Gandhian movements?
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(b) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(c) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
• On 6 April 1919, Mahatma Gandhi started a
non-violent Satyagraha against the unjust
Rowla Act passed by the British government.
• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the
first satyagraha movement led by Mahatma
Gandhi in Bri sh India.
• Kheda Satyagraha of March, 1918 is known to
be the first non-coopera on movement led
by Mahatma Gandhi. This satyagraha was
centred on the peasant-Pa dar community of
Kheda, who refused to agree to a 23 percent
tax hike imposed on them despite a disastrous
crop failure and outbreak of plague and
cholera.
Previous year questions with solutions | 101
Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 is considered
the first hunger strike led by Gandhi. In 1918,
Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute
between Ahmedabad
workers
and
millowners.
- In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a
dispute between Ahmedabad co on mill
owners and workers over the cessa on of
the plague bonus.
So the correct sequence is: Champaran
movement, Kheda Satyagraha, Ahmedabad mill
strike, Rowla Act.
•
Q39. Which one of the following sets of industries
were among first modern industries in India?
(a) Tea, Co on and Sugar
(b) Jute, Silk and Cotton
(c) Cotton, Jute and Coal Mines
(d) Sugar, Silk and Steels
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Co on, Jute and Coalmines are the sets of
industries were among first modern industries
in India.
• The emergence of the co on tex le
industry started with the introduc on of the
first machinery in Kolkata in the year 1818 at
fort Gloster. Followed by this, another major
event is the installa on of machinery in
Mumbai in the year 1854 by Nanabhai Davar.
• The first jute mill was established at Rishra, on
the River Hooghly near Calcu a in 1855 when
Mr. George Acland brought jute spinning
machinery from Dundee.
• Coal mining started in 1774 by M/s Sumner
and Heatly of East India Company in the
Raniganj Coalfield along the Western bank of
river Damodar.
Hence Option C is the correct answer.
Q40. Which term is used to describe the spread
of Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia?
(a) Social mobility
(b) Cultural diffusion
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) Interdependence
Answer: B
•
In cultural anthropology and cultural
geography, cultural diffusion is the spread of
cultural items—such as ideas, styles, religions,
technologies,
languages
—
between
individuals, whether within a single culture or
from one culture to another.
Q41. Consider the following statements about
heritage :
1. Heritage is that which has been or may be
inherited.
2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a
proper possession.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Q42. Consider the following statements
regarding human development:
1. Skills may be harnessed in the society through
par cipation of NGOs.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews
and interna onal experiences can prove to be
helpful.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
Answer: C
• NGOs, through capacity building, develop
community capaci es such as ability, skill and
knowledge of mobilizing resources, planning
and evalua ng community ini a on and
solving problems to gain the mastery over
their lives. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Reviews of ongoing schemes and ini a ves
and learnings from interna onal experiences
can help in pinpoin ng the lacunae in the
internal systems. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Previous year questions with solutions | 102
Q43. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of
animals and plants on the Earth, is controlled
mainly by:
(a) Biological ac vity
(b) Landforms
(c) Climate
(d) Soil
Answer: C
The largest recognizable assemblage of plants and
animals on the Earth. The distribu on of the
biomes is controlled mainly by climate.
Q44. Despite having huge coal reserve in our
country, why do we import millions of tons of
coal?
1. It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own coal
reserve for future use and import now from
other countries for present use.
2. Most of the thermal plants in our country are
coal based and they are unable to get
sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
3. Steel plants require large quan es of coking
coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be
imported from other countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
• There is no such government policy in India
which aims to save local coal for future.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Most of the thermal plants in our country are
coal based and they are unable to get
sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
Thus, to meet the shor all between coal
demand and domes c coal supply, coal has to
be imported from other countries. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• Coking coal is essen al raw material in steel
manufacture. But India does not have
significant local reserves of coking grade coal.
Thus we have to import coking coal from
other countries. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q45. A cul vator has about two hectares rain fed
land without irriga on facili es. Which type of
crops would he like grow?
1. Jowar
2. Cotton
3. Arhar
4. Potatoes
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
• Jowar and Arhar can be grown without
irriga on facili es.
• In India, jowar plant is grown in areas with less
than 100 cm rainfall and temperature ranging
from 26° to 33° C. A er wheat, the sorghum
or jowar is the grain with the highest
cultivable land in the country.
• Arhar crop requires average rainfall of 600650 mm with moist condi ons for the first
eight weeks and drier condi ons during
flowering and pod development stage ,this
will result in highly successful crop. Rains
during flowering results in poor pollina on.
• Arhar crop grown successfully in summer,
rainy and winter season, April-Summer, JuneKharif or rainy, September-Rabi or winter
season.
Q46. Match List-1 with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I
List-II
A. Buxa Tiger Reserve 1. Rajasthan
B.
Periyar
Tiger 2. Gujarat
Reserve
C. Sariska Na onal 3. West Bengal
Park
D. Wild Ass Sanctuary 4. Kerala
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
4
1
2
Previous year questions with solutions | 103
(c) 2 4
1
3
(d) 3
1
4
2
Answer: B
• Buxa Tiger Reserve is a Tiger reserve and
National Park in northern West Bengal.
• Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
(PNP) is a protected area located in the
districts of Idukki and Pathanamthi a in
Kerala.
• Sariska Tiger Reserve is a ger reserve in
Alwar district, Rajasthan.
• Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary also known as the
Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the
Li le Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat
1.
Global warming
2.
Fragmenta on of habitats
3.
Invasion of alien species
4.
Promo on of vegetarianism
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b)
1, 2 and 4 only
(c)
3 and 4 only
(d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
• Global warming, Fragmenta on of habitats,
invasion of alien species etc. are well known
causes responsible for decline in biodiversity.
• Promo on of vegetarianism is not responsible
for decline in biodiversity.
Q47. Which one of the following statements is
true about red soil?
(a) It is rich in humus.
(b) It is rich in potash.
(c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(d) It is derived from volcanic origin.
Answer: C
• This type of soil is formed as a result of
weathering of metamorphic and igneous
rocks. The red colour of the soil comes from
the high percentage of iron content. The soil’s
texture varies from being sandy to clayey, but
it is mainly loamy. It lacks phosphate, humus
and nitrogen content. The red soil is found in
regions such as Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Odisha, some parts of Karnataka
and southeast Maharashtra.
Q50. Vultures, which were very common in our
countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen
nowadays. This is a ributed to one of the
following:
(a) Destruc on of their nes ng sites by new
invasive species
(b) A drug used by ca le owners for trea ng their
diseased ca le
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease
amongst them
Answer: B
• Diclofenac, a drug used by ca le owners for
treating their ca le is very harmful for the
vultures.
• A er the vultures consume the dead carcass
of ca le with diclofenac in their bodies, the
organs of vultures fail, resul ng in their death.
Q48. "Kyoto Protocol', an agreement signed by
various countries, is associated with
(a) International trade
(b) Deep sea oil and mineral explora on
(c) Clean environment and climate change
(d) Building common food stock to save human
being from any natural disaster
Answer: C
Kyoto Protocol is associated with reduc ons in
emission of Greenhouse Gases. Hence, op on C is
the correct answer.
Q49. Which of the following can be threats to the
biodiversity of a geographical area?
Q51. NABARD means:
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development
(b) Na onal Agricultural Bank and Rural
Development
(c) Na onal Agricultural Board and Rural
Development
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural
Area Development
Answer: A
Explanation
• NABARD stands for Na onal Agriculture
and Rural Development.
Previous year questions with solutions | 104
•
It came into existence on 12 July 1982 by
transferring the agricultural credit
func ons of RBI and refinance func ons of
the then Agricultural Refinance and
Development Corpora on (ARDC).
Q.52 Which of the following is NOT a
recommenda on of the Na onal Coopera ve
Farming Advisory Board for pu ng coopera ve
farming on a sounder foo ng?
(a) Every Society should have a definite
programme for total pooling of lands.
(b) Financial assistance should be given only
for purchase of new land.
(c) State Governments should give priority to
revitaliza on of the exis ng socie es.
(d) Joint farming must be prac ced with
respect to all lands of the society.
Answer: B
Explanation
Q.53 Three States which have Human
Development Index (HDI) higher than China are:
(a) Kerala, Maharashtra and Madhya
Pradesh
(b) Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and
(d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
Answer: D
Q.54 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Chairperson)
A. D.M. Dharmadhikari
B. Anil Kakodkar
C. B.N. Srikrishna
D. Adi Godrej
List-II (Issue)
1. National Corporate Governance Policy
2. Air India Indian Airlines merger
3. Indian Railways High Level Safety Review
Commi ee
4. Financial Sector Legisla ve Reforms
Commission
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
3
4
2
(b) 2
3
4
1
(c) 1
4
3
2
(d) 2
4
3
1
Answer: B
Explanation
Chairperson
Issue
D.M. Dharmadhikari
Air India Indian Airlines
merger
Anil Kakodkar
Indian Railways High
Level Safety Review
Commi ee
B.N. Srikrishna
Financial
Sector
Legislative
Reforms
Commission
Adi Godrej
National
Corporate
Governance Policy
Q.55 The newly introduced rupee symbol is based
on:
(a) Roman and Greek script
(b) Persian and Dravidian script
(c) Roman and Devanagari script
(d) Greek and Devanagari script
Answer: C
Explanation
• The symbol is a perfect blend of Devnagri
Ra and Roman R, the le ers derived from
the word 'Rupiah' in 'Hindi' and 'Rupees'
in 'English'.
Q.56 The regional project by name 'CASA-1000*
(Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World
Bank, pertains to the field of:
(a) Eradica on of HIV AIDS
(b) Roads and Buildings
(c) Electricity
(d) Eradica on of illiteracy
Answer: C
Explanation
• About CASA 1000
• Ini a ve of World Bank.
• The CASA-1000 project is the first step
towards crea ng the Central Asia-South
Asia
Regional
Electricity
Market
Previous year questions with solutions | 105
(CASAREM), leveraging Central Asia's
significant energy resources to help
alleviate South Asia's energy shortages on
a mutually beneficial basis.
Q57. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the
recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012?
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
(b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
(c) Cris ano Ronaldo (Portugal)
(d) Mario Gomez (Germany)
Answer: A
Explanation
• Spain striker Fernando Torres has won
the Euro 2012 Golden Boot award.
Q.58 Match List-1 with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Steve Jobs
B. Sheryl Sandberg
C. Larry Page
D. Ross Levinsohn
List-II (Company)
1. Google
2. Apple
3. Yahoo
4. Facebook
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
1
4
2
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 3
4
1
2
Answer: D
Explanation
Person
Company
Steve Jobs
Apple
Sheryl Sandberg
Facebook
Larry Page
Google
Ross Levinsohn
Yahoo
Q.59 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below PSC
the lists:
List-I (Book)
A. Rahul Dravid : Timeless Steel
B. An Ashes Summer
C. Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds Now
D. Opening Up : My Autography
List-II (Author)
1. Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain
2. Greg Chappell
3. Mike Atherton
4. V. Krishnaswamy
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 4
1
2
(b) 2 4
1
3
(c) 3 1
4
2
(d) 2 1
4
3
Answer: D
Explanation
Women
Area
Rahul Dravid : Rahul Dravid/Sambit
Timeless Steel
Bal
An Ashes Summer
Steve Waugh
Sachin : A Hundred V. Krishnaswamy
Hundreds Now
Opening Up : My Michael Atherton
Autography
Q.60 Why was Jus ce Dalveer Bhandari in the
news recently?
(a) He became member of UN Human Rights
Council.
(b) He was elected to the Interna onal Court
of Jus ce.
(c) He became Director General of World
Trade Organiza on.
(d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC.
Answer: B
Explanation
• Justice Dalveer Bhandari was elected to
Interna onal Court of Jus ce.
• He was the former judge of the Supreme
Court of India.
Q.61 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (Head)
A. Jim Yong Kim
Previous year questions with solutions | 106
B. Kamlesh Sharma
C. Chris ne Lagarde
D. Catherine Day
List-II (Institu on)
1. President Word Bank
2. Secretary-General Commonwealth
3. Managing Director, IMF
4. Secretary-General of the European
Commission
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 4
2
1
(b) 1 4
2
3
(c) 3 2
4
1
(d) 1 2
4
3
Answer: D
Explanation
Person
Institution
Jim Yong Kim
President World Bank
Present World Bank
President:
David
Malpass
Kamlesh Sharma
Secretary
Commonwealth Games
Present
Commonwealth
Secretary:
GeneralBaroness
Patricia
Scotland
Chris ne Lagarde Secretary General of
European Union
Present
Secretary
General of European
Union:
Marija
Pejčinović Burić
Catherine Day
Managing Director IMF
Present
Managing
Director
of
IMF:
Kristalina Georgieva
Q62. It is said that, in order to control infla on,
foreign inflow needs to be sterilized. Steriliza on
here refers to
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not
enter circula on
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to
maintain a desirable rate of exchange
(d) Compliance with import-export regula ons
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Sterilisa on in the context of monetary policy
refers to the activity of the RBI of taking away
the excess money supply created due to its
foreign exchange market interven on. Hence,
C is the right answer.
Q63. Which of the following are the main causes
of the slow rate of growth of per capita income in
India?
1. High rate of capital forma on
2. High level of fiscal deficits
3. High rate of growth of popula on
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Slow rate of capital forma on in the economy
leads to slow growth rate of na onal income
which in turn leads to slow rate of growth of
per capita income in India. Hence, statement
1 is incorrect.
• High level of fiscal deficits leads to slow
growth rate of GDP which in turn leads to slow
rate of growth of per capita income in India.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Per capita income is na onal income divided
by the total popula on of country. Therefore,
when there is high rate of growth of
popula on, this will automa cally lead to
slow rate of growth of per capita income in
India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Therefore, D is the right answer.
Q64. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open
market opera ons policy, this means it will:
a) Sell securities in the open market
b) Buy securities from non-government holders
c) Openly announce to the market that it intends
to expand credit
Previous year questions with solutions | 107
d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the
open market
Answer: B
Explanation:
• If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market
operations policy, this means it will Buy
securities from non-government holders. This
will lead to increase in money supply in the
economy as for the purchase of government
securities, RBI needs to pay INR in
considera on. Hence, B is the right answer.
Q65. Structural Planning refers to:
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Laying down broad goals and strategies
(c) Changing exis ng ins tu ons or crea ng new
ones
(d) Fixing flexible targets
Answer: C
Explanation:
• In structural planning, the present social and
economic structure is changed and a new
structure emerges. In the developing
countries, there is a structure planning. Big
economic and social changes are brought
about to usher into a new system. For
instance, shi from capitalist to socialist
economy can be called a structural change.
Structural planning can help in accelera ng
the pace of economic development. The
Communist countries like Russia and China
followed structural planning. Hence, C is the
right answer.
Q66. Which of the following is NOT one of the
features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
being set up for promo ng exports?
(a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry
without Visa restric ons
(b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory
for trade opera ons, du es and tariff
(c) There will be no rou ne examina on by
customs authori es of import/export cargo
(d) No license is required for import into the zone
Answer: A
Explanation:
•
Allowing foreign workers free entry without
Visa restric ons is not the feature the Special
Economic Zones (SEZ) being set up for
promo ng exports. This may create a serious
challenge with regard to internal security.
Hence, A is the right answer.
Q67. Which one of the following expresses the
rela on between normal price and market price?
(a) Market price is greater than normal price
(b) Market price is equal to normal price
(c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price
(d) Market price is lesser than normal price
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Market price is that price which prevails in a
market on a single day or on very few days. It
is a very short-period price which prevails at a
par cular me. On the other hand, normal
price is that price which tends to prevail in the
long-run. It is a price which has a tendency to
prevail over a period of me. Since market
price caters the infla on, therefore, it is
greater than normal price. Hence, A is the
right answer.
Q68. Inflation can be controlled by:
(a) Increase in wages
(b) Decrease in taxa on
(c) Reduc on in public expenditure
(d) Making the rupee dearer
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Increase in wages leads to increase in
disposable income of people which will lead
to increase in demand and consequent
increase in infla on. Hence, A is incorrect.
• Decrease in taxes leads to increase in
disposable income of people as now they
need to pay less taxes which will lead to
increase in demand and consequent increase
in infla on. Hence, B is incorrect.
• Reduc on in public expenditure leads to
decrease in income of people as now they will
have less source of income which they were
ge ng earlier, e.g., MGNREGA wages. This
will lead to decrease in demand and
Previous year questions with solutions | 108
•
•
consequent decrease in infla on. Hence, C is
correct.
Making INR dearer means there is a high
demand of INR. When demand is high then
people will demand more to spend more and
that will lead to increase in infla on. Hence, D
is incorrect.
Therefore, C is the right answer.
Q69. Which of the following can be termed an
infrastructural bo leneck in the development of
India's economy?
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity.
(b) Existence of a large variety of financial
ins tu ons
(c) Delay in the administra on of jus ce rela ng
to land acquisi on and displacement
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Delay in the administra on of jus ce rela ng
to land acquisi on and displacement leads to
delay in star ng of development projects in
the country. Therefore, it becomes
infrastructural bo leneck in the development
of India's economy. Hence, C is the right
answer.
Q70. Which of the following statements is true
about Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industries related to security, strategic
and environmental concerns require industrial
License
(b) An investor need not file an industrial
entrepreneur Memorandum
(c) There is no reserva on of products for
production in small scale sectors
(d) The number of industries reserved for public
sector has been enhanced
Answer: B
Explanation:
• There are only 4 industries at present
related to security, strategic and
environmental concerns, where an
industrial license is currently required Electronic
aerospace
and
defence
equipment, Specified hazardous chemicals,
•
•
•
•
Industrial explosives, Cigars and cigare es
of tobacco and manufactured tobacco
subs tutes. Hence, A is incorrect.
Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum (IEM)
is required by the government for sta s cal
purposes only, similar to Foreign Assets and
Liabilities statement filed by the enterprise
to the RBI. Through IEM, the government
conduct a limited post facto check to see
whether the proposed manufacturing
ac vi es require an industrial license or not.
Hence, B is correct.
The new industrial policy announced on
24th July, 1991 as part of the process of
economic reforms has stated that the policy
of reserva on of products in the small-scale
industries sector will con nue. Hence, C is
incorrect.
Government stakes in Public Sector
Enterprises were reduced to enhance their
efficiency and compe veness. Hence, D is
incorrect.
Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q71. In which of the following Acts, housing
facility is a statutory provision?
(a) The Planta ons Labour Act, 1951
(b) The Factories Act, 1948
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Housing facility is a statutory provision under
the Planta ons Labour Act, 1951. In the Act, it
is men oned that it shall be the duty of every
employer to provide and maintain for every
worker and his family residing in the
planta on
necessary
housing
accommoda on. Hence, A is the right
answer.
Q72. Statement (I): Industrial rela on is currently
more influenced by the external market forces
than the power play between employers and
employees.
Statement (II): The forces of globaliza on have
made compe on so impera ve that unions and
Previous year questions with solutions | 109
their tac cs like stopping produc vity no more
hold good
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the
correct explana on of Statement (1)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Due to globalisa on, Industrial rela on is
currently more influenced by the external
market forces than the power play between
employers and employees. Hence, statement
(I) is correct.
• Unions and their tac cs are s ll playing a
crucial role irrespec ve of the forces of
globalisation. Hence statement (II) is
incorrect.
• Therefore, C is the right answer.
Q73. The main objec ve of the Minimum Wage
Act, 1948 is to safeguard the interests the
workers engaged in:
(a) Unorganized sector
(b) Organized sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Agricultural sector
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is an Act to
provide for fixing minimum rates of wages in
certain employments related to the
unorganised sector. Hence, A is the right
answer.
Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-1 (Contribu on)
A. Industrial Welfare Movement
B. Human Rela ons Thought
C. Concept of Third Force
D. Ahmedabad Experiment
List-II (Contributor)
1. Charles A Myer
2. A.K. Rice
3. Robert Owen
4. Elton Mayo
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Robert Owen was associated with Industrial
welfare Movement
• Elton Mayo was associated with Human
Rela ons Thought
• Charles A Myer was associated with Concept
of Third Force
• A.K Rice was associated with Ahmedabad
Experiment.
• Hence, D is the right answer.
Q75. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Board/Commi ee)
A. First Na onal Commission on Labour, 1969
B. Wage Board for Working Journalists, 2009
C. Second Na onal Commission on Labour,
2002
D. Index Review Committee, 2009
List-II (Chairperson)
1. G.K. Chadha
2. Ravindra Verma
3. P.B. Gajendragadkar
4. G.R. Majithia
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
Previous year questions with solutions | 110
(d) 1 2 4 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The first Na onal Commission on Labour
was set up on 24 December 1966 under the
Chairmanship of Jus ce P .B. Gajendragadkar.
The Commission submi ed its report in
August , 1969 a er detailed examination of all
aspects of labour problems, both in the
organised and unorganised sectors.
• The Government of India cons tuted two
wage boards (Majithia Wage Boards), one for
working journalists and other for nonjournalists newspaper employees in 2007 as
sixth Wage Board under the Chairmanship of
Jus ce Majithia as per the provisions of The
Working Journalists and Other Newspaper
Employees (Condi ons of Service) and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1955. The
Majithia Wage Boards submi ed their final
report to the Government of India on 31st
Dec., 2010.
• The second Na onal Commission on Labour
(NCL) was set up on 15 October 1999 under
the chairmanship of Ravindra Varma which
submi ed its report to the then Prime
Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee on 29 June 2002.
• Since the release of current series of CPI-IW
with base year 2001=100, various Central
Trade Union Organisa ons had been pressing
for a review of these Index Numbers by a high
powered tripar te Commi ee. Accordingly,
the Ministry of Labour & Employment,
Government of India cons tuted an Index
Review Commi ee under the Chairmanship of
Prof. G.K. Chadha.
• Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q76. In which part of the Indian Cons tu on,
Worker's par cipa on in Management has been
incorporated?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Direc ve Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
•
Article 43 A of the Cons tu on of India has
provided for worker’s par cipa on in
management in these words: “The State shall
take steps, by suitable legisla on, or in any
other way, to secure the par cipa on of
workers in management of undertakings,
establishments or other organisa ons
engaged in an industry”. Hence, C is the right
answer.
Q77. How does Na onal Rural Livelihood Mission
(NRLM) seek to improve livelihood op ons of
rural poor?
1. By se ng up a large number of new
manufacturing industries and agribusiness
centres in rural areas.
2. By strengthening Self Help Groups (SHG) and
providing skill development.
3. By supplying seeds, fer lizers, diesel pumpsets and micro irriga on equipment free of
cost to farmers.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• It
is
a centrally
sponsored
programme, launched by the Ministry of
Rural Development in June 2011. It
involves working
with
community
ins tu ons through community
professionals in the spirit of self-help which
is a unique proposi on of DAY -NRLM. It
impacts the livelihoods through universal
social mobiliza on by inter alia organising
one-woman member from each rural poor
household into Self Help Groups (SHGs),
their training and capacity building,
facilita ng their micro-livelihoods plans, and
enabling them to implement their
livelihoods plans through accessing financial
resources from their own ins tu ons and
the banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• NRLM does not include se ng up a large
number of new manufacturing industries
Previous year questions with solutions | 111
•
•
and agribusiness centres in rural
areas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
NRLM does not include supplying seeds,
fer lizers, diesel pump-sets and micro
irriga on equipment free of cost to
farmers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q78. The Mahatma Gandhi Na onal Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at
enhancing livelihood security in rural areas of
India by providing at least one hundred:
a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial
year to able adults in the Informa on
Technology sector.
b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a
financial year to adult members of a rural
household.
c) Meals to children of rural households in one
financial year.
d) Employees for rural developmental schemes
in a financial year.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for
one hundred days of employment in every
financial year to adult members of any rural
household willing to do public work-related
unskilled manual work at the statutory
minimum wage. Hence, B is the right answer.
Q79. One of the following Government of India
programmes aims to help, build or upgrade
dwelling units of below the poverty line rural
families:
a) National Programme Social Assistance
b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
c) Indira Awas Yojana
d) Jawaharlal Nehru Na onal Urban Renewal
Mission TAL
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) is a sub-scheme of
Rural Landless Employment Guarantee
Programme (RLEGP) which was launched by
the Ministry of Rural Development. The main
objec ve of the Indira Awaas Yojana is to
provide a grant for the construc on of houses
to
members
of
Scheduled
Caste
(SC)/Scheduled
Tribes
(ST),
freed
bonded labours and to non-SC/ST category
below the poverty line. Hence, C is the right
answer.
Q80. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in
1995 with the aim to:
1. Enhance
enrolment,
reten on
and
attendance of primary school children
2. Improve the nutri onal status of primary
school children
3. Improve the habit of reading among rural
households
4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among
primary school children
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in
1995 with the aim to enhance enrolment,
reten on and a endance of primary school
children. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It also aimed at improving the nutri onal
status of primary school children. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• It is not aimed at improving the habit of
reading among rural households. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
• It had no provisions with respect to
encouraging the use of Tiffin boxes among
primary school children. Hence, statement 4
is incorrect.
• Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q81. Which of the following is NOT covered by
the
Employees
Provident
Fund
and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
a) Pension
b) Provident Fund
c) Deposit Linked Insurance
d) Injury Compensa on
Previous year questions with solutions | 112
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952 deals with pension,
provident fund and deposit linked insurance
but it has no provisions with respect of injury
compensa on. Hence, D is the right answer.
Q82. Which of the following statements about
Workmen's Compensa on Act, 1923 is true?
a) It is not social security legisla on.
b) Its name has been changed to the Employee's
Compensa on Act in 2009.
c) It provides maximum compensa on in the
event of death.
d) It does not provide compensa on for
occupa onal diseases.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Workmen’s Compensa on Act is a social
security legisla on. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Its name has been changed to the Employee's
Compensa on Act in 2009. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
• It provides maximum compensa on in the
event of permanent total disablement results
from injury. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• It provides compensa on for occupa onal
diseases. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q83. Which of the following legisla ons is
comprehensive social security legislation?
a) The Maternity Benefit Act
b) The Employees State Insurance Act
c) The Employees Compensation Act
d) The Employees Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Employees Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 deals with
provident fund, pension fund and deposit
linked insurance scheme. Therefore, it is a
comprehensive social security legisla on.
Rest of the given Acts unidimensional in terms
of providing social security. Hence, D is the
right answer.
Q84. What is the maximum limit of gratuity
payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972?
a) 3 Lakhs rupees
b) 7-5 Lakhs rupees
c) 10 Lakhs rupees
d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees
Answer: None of the above
Explanation:
• The ceiling of Gratuity amount under the
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 has been raised
from me to me keeping in view over-all
economic condi on and employers’ capacity
to pay and the salaries of the employees,
which have been increased in private sector
and in PSUs. The latest such enhancement of
ceiling of gratuity was made vide Government
of India No fica on dated 29.03.2018 under
which the gratuity amount ceiling has been
increased from Rs.10 Lakhs to 20 Lakhs w.e.f.
29.3.2018.
• Therefore, as per previous limits C is the right
answer but since that limit does not exist at
present, hence, none of the above is right.
Q85. The Endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana'
Programme is to:
1. Promote ins tu onal deliveries
2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery
3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and
confinement
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe
motherhood interven on under the Na onal
Rural Health Mission (NRHM) being
implemented with the objec ve of reducing
maternal and neo-natal mortality by
promo ng ins tu onal delivery among the
Previous year questions with solutions | 113
•
•
•
poor pregnant women. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Disbursement of Cash Assistance: As the cash
assistance to the mother is mainly to meet the
cost of delivery, it should be disbursed
effec vely at the ins tu on itself. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
There is no feature in the scheme with respect
to the provision of wage loss due to pregnancy
and confinement. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
Therefore, A is the right answer.
Next Four (04) items are based on the passage
given below:
It has been rightly said that we spend the first half
of our lives trying to understand the older
genera on, and the second half trying to
understand the younger genera on. Youth has
always felt somewhat exasperated with age, and
age has always been suspicious of youth. With
their natural ebullience and impa ence, a majority
of young people are keen to act and learn on their
own rather than be guided by the experience of
their elders. The older people being more at home
with words rather than with ac on, o en make
noises about the problems of youth. In every
genera on, old men are found shaking their hoary
heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old
days when young people knew be er and showed
due reverence to age and tradi on. In all ages,
whenever they have pondered over the ways of
youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruina on
staring the world in its face. And yet the world
goes on. Every genera on passes from the
spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the
caution and prudence of old age, and then yield
place to the next.
Q86. What, according to you, is the theme and
the idea of the passage:
(a) Genera on gap
(b) Problems of the youth
(c) Op mism of the older genera on
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Accordingly, the theme of the
passage should be ‘genera on gap’ as the passage
talks about the differences between younger
genera on and older genera on. ‘With their
natural ebullience and impa ence, a majority of
young people are keen to act and learn on their
own rather than be guided by the experience of
their elders. The older people being more at home
with words rather than with ac on, o en make
noises about the problems of youth’ and ‘In every
genera on, old men are found shaking their hoary
heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old
days when young people knew be er and showed
due reverence to age and tradi on.’ are the
examples of the difference of the genera on
men oned in the passage. Hence, op on (a) is the
correct answer.
Q87. The older genera on is suspicious about the
younger genera on as the youngsters lack:
(a) knowledge
(b) experience
(c) pa ence
(d) me
Answer: (b)
Explanation: According to the passage, ‘with their
natural ebullience and impa ence, a majority of
young people are keen to act and learn on their
own rather than be guided by the experience of
their elders’. This suggests that the older
genera on is suspicious about the younger
genera on as the youngsters lack ‘experience’.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q88. The author seems to be suppor ve of the
idea that
(a) the people of the older genera on are men of
words rather than ac on
(b) the young genera on is impa ent
(c) the younger genera on today is much
misunderstood and more maligned than it
deserves
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
Explanation: According to the passage, there is a
lack of connec on and understanding between
the young genera on and the older genera on as
the younger genera on is o en misunderstood by
the older generation. It is given in the passage that
‘In every genera on, old men are found shaking
their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic about the
good old days when young people knew be er
and showed due reverence to age and tradi on.’,
which shows that the author is suppor ve of the
idea that ‘the younger genera on today is much
misunderstood and more maligned than it
deserves’. Therefore, op on (c) is the correct
answer.
Previous year questions with solutions | 114
Q89. "And yet the world goes on"-what is the
tone of the author in this statement?
(a) Op mis c
(b) Pessimis c
(c) Cynical
(d) Cri cal
Answer: (a)
Explanation: As given in the passage ‘and yet the
world goes on’, this suggests that the author is
hopeful and op mis c as despite of all the
misunderstanding and differences between the
younger genera on and older genera on the
world s ll goes on. ‘Every genera on passes from
the spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the
caution and prudence of old age, and then yield
place to the next.’, this statement describes the
optimism of the author. Hence, op on (a) is the
correct answer.
Next Four (04) items are based on the passage
given below:
Who deserves more severe punishment? One who
gives bribes or the one who takes them? The
corrupt prac ce of bribery is possible because
there is someone who is ready to pay money for
illegal ac on or decision in his favor. Otherwise,
how can one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver
tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes
our na onal character. Even Jesus Christ, fearing
the power of tempta on, had said, "Lead me not
into tempta on". A bribe-giver is generally
moneyed and influen al, while, on the other hand,
one who demands bribe does so because of his
poor circumstances and compulsions. Hence, one
who gives bribe should be awarded more severe
punishment because he exploits the weakness of
the poor. Giving and taking bribe happens in a
more vicious circle which can con nue only
because of money. Naturally, therefore, it is the
affluent that grease this wheel of corrup on and
should accordingly be dealt with firmly and
suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious
prac ce.
Q90. The author feels that the prac ce of bribery
is there because there are willing bribe givers.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Par ally true
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation: As given in the passage, ‘The corrupt
prac ce of bribery is possible because there is
someone who is ready to pay money for illegal
ac on or decision in his favor.’, which describes
the author’s view on the prac ce of bribery.
Therefore, it is true that the author feels that the
prac ce of bribery is there because there are
willing bribe givers. Hence, op on (a) is the correct
answer.
Q91. Who, according to the author, is more
responsible among the following?
(a) The bribe-taker
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The witness
(d) The general public
Answer: (b)
Explanation: According to the author, ‘The corrupt
prac ce of bribery is possible because there is
someone who is ready to pay money for illegal
ac on or decision in his favor. Otherwise, how can
one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver tempts
others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our
national character.’. Therefore, it is clearly
men oned that the bribe-giver is more
responsible for the corrup on as per the author.
Hence, op on (b) is the correct answer.
Q92. Who, according to the author, should be
punished more severely?
(a) The Police who allow this prac ce
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: As per the author, ‘A bribe-giver is
generally moneyed and influen al, while, on the
other hand, one who demands bribe does so
because of his poor circumstances and
compulsions. Hence, one who gives bribe should
be awarded more severe punishment because he
exploits the weakness of the poor’, this describes
Previous year questions with solutions | 115
the authors view that the person who gives bribe
should be punished more severely in case of
bribery and corrup on. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer.
Q93. Who, according to the author, is more
corrupted?
(a) Our system
(b) The person who demands bribe
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the
poor
(d) The supporter of bribe who is le with li le
choice
Answer: (c)
Explanation: According to the author, ‘The corrupt
prac ce of bribery is possible because there is
someone who is ready to pay money for illegal
ac on or decision in his favor. Otherwise, how can
one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver tempts
others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our
na onal character’ and also ‘one who gives bribe
should be awarded more severe punishment
because he exploits the weakness of the poor’, this
shows that the affluent who exploits the weakness
of the poor is more corrupted. Hence, Op on (c)
is the correct answer.
Q94. A judgment made before all the facts are
known must be called:
(a) Deliberate
(b) Sensible
(c) Premature
(d) Harsh
Answer: (c)
Explanation: A judgement made before all the
facts are known is called as ‘premature’ which
means that decision was made too has ly, and
probably would have been different if more me
had been taken. Therefore, op on (c) is the
correct answer.
‘Deliberate’ means done consciously and
inten onally.
‘Sensible’ means done or chosen in accordance
with wisdom or prudence; likely to be of benefit.
‘Harsh’ means unpleasantly rough or jarring to the
senses.
Q95. Which of the following pairs of words
expresses the same relationship as in ELUSIVE:
CAPTURE?
(a) Sensible: decide
(b) Headstrong: controlled
(c) Elas c: stretch
(d) Persuasive: convince
Answer: (b)
Explanation: ‘Elusive’ means ‘difficult to find,
catch, or achieve.’ while ‘capture’ means ‘take into
one's possession or control by force.’. Hence,
elusive and capture are the opposite of each other.
The pair which expresses the same rela onship as
that of elusive and capture is ‘headstrong’ and
‘controlled’. ‘Headstrong’ means ‘very determined
to do what you want without listening to others’,
while ‘controlled’ means ‘not showing emo on;
having one's feelings under control.’,Therefore,
option (b) is the correct answer.
‘Sensible’ means done or chosen in accordance
with wisdom or prudence; likely to be of benefit.
‘Decide’ means make a choice from a number of
alterna ves.
‘Elas c’ means (of an object or material) able to
resume its normal shape spontaneously a er
being stretched or compressed.
‘Stretch’ means (of something so or elas c) be
made or be capable of being made longer or wider
without tearing or breaking.
‘Persuasive’ means good at persuading someone
to do or believe something through reasoning or
the use of temptation.
‘Convince’ means cause (someone) to believe
firmly in the truth of something.
Q96. Choose the word which is the nearest
opposite to the meaning of the underlined word:
I wish I could pursue my studies.
(a) Discon nue
(b) Abandon
(c) Restrain
(d) Deter
Answer: (b)
Explanation: ‘Pursue’ means ‘follow or chase
(someone or something)’, the opposite of pursue
should be ‘abandon’ which means ‘give up
Previous year questions with solutions | 116
completely (a prac ce or a course of ac on).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
‘Discon nue’ means cease from doing or providing
(something), especially something that has been
provided on a regular basis.
‘Restrain’ means to control the ac ons or
behaviour of someone by force, especially in order
to stop them from doing something.
‘Deter’ means discourage (someone) from doing
something by ins lling doubt or fear of the
consequences.
•
•
•
Q97. Which of the following op ons is the closest
in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS?
(a) Indirect
(b) Confusing
(c) Crooked
(d) Cyclic
Answer: (c)
Explanation: ‘Circuitous’ means ‘(of a route or
journey) longer than the most direct way’, the
word which is closest to the meaning of circuitous
is ‘crooked’ which means ‘bent or twisted out of
shape or out of place’. Therefore, op on (c) is the
correct answer.
‘Indirect’ means not directly caused by or resul ng
from something.
‘Confusing’ means bewildering or perplexing.
‘Cyclic’ means occurring in cycles; recurrent.
Q98. Archaeological studies suggest the theory
(a) All the con nents were se led with human
socie es at about the same me
(b) Farming socie es developed before hun ng
and gathering
(c) The earliest human evolved in the Ri valley in
East Africa
(d) The wheel was in use in all ancient socie es
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
• Homo sapiens, the first modern humans,
evolved from their early hominid
predecessors between 200,000 and
300,000 years ago. They developed a
capacity for language about 50,000 years
ago. The first modern humans began
moving outside of Africa star ng about
70,000-100,000 years ago. Thus it cannot
be said that human socie es emerged at
the same me in all the con nents. Hence
statement (a) is incorrect.
As per archaeological studies, hun ng and
gathering socie es emerged before the
farming socie es. Hence statement (b) is
incorrect.
The earliest human evolved in the Ri
valley in East Africa. Hence statement (c) is
correct.
The wheel was invented in the 4th
millennium BC in Lower Mesopotamia
(modern-day Iraq), where the Sumerian
people inserted rota ng axles into solid
discs of wood. Hence statement (d) is
incorrect.
Q99. Which of the following is the earliest to be
constituted?
(a) Press Council of India
(b) United News of India
(c) NAM News Network
(d) Press Trust of India
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
• On 7th September, 1978, an Act to
establish a Press Council of India for the
purpose of preserving the freedom of the
Press and of maintaining and improving
the standards of newspapers and news
agencies in India was enacted.
• The United News of India (UNI), founded
in 1961, has emerged as one of the largest
news agencies in India.
• The NAM News Network (NNN) is the
transforma on of the now-defunct NANAP
or Non-Aligned News Agencies Pool. The
resurrection was with the concurrence and
endorsement of the Sixth Conference of
Ministers of Informa on of Non-Aligned
Countries (COMINAC VI) hosted by
Malaysia in November 2005.
• Press Trust of India (PTI), news agency
coopera vely
owned
by
Indian
newspapers, which joined together to take
over the management of the Associated
Previous year questions with solutions | 117
Press of India and the Indian outlets of the
Reuters news agency of Great Britain. It
began opera ng in February 1949 and is
headquartered in Mumbai. Hence PTI is
the earliest and D is the correct answer.
Q100. Which of the following sets of countries
has only federa ons?
(a) New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argen na
(b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
(c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
(d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
• France is a unitary State organised on a
decentralised basis under the 1958
Cons tu on. Hence D is not the correct
answer.
• New Zealand is a unitary state rather than
a federa on—local government has only
the powers conferred upon it by the
na onal Parliament. Hence A is not the
correct answer.
• With the promulga on of its cons tu on in
2015, Nepal replaced a unitary
government with a federal system of
government. This process has made Nepal
a federal democra c republic governed
with three levels of government: a federal
level, seven provinces and 753 local
government. Hence C is not the correct
answer as per year 2012.
• Hence B is the correct answer as Malaysia,
Australia, Nigeria and Brazil are
federa ons.
Previous year questions with solutions | 118
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2004
PART- A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Direc ons (for the next Five items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the sixth
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet.
Example X' has been solved for you.
S1: There was a boy named Jack.
S6: At last she turned him out of the house.
P: So the mother asked him to find work.
Q: They were very poor.
R: He lived with his mother.
S:
But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) R-Q-P-S
(b) P-Q-R-S
(c) Q-P-R-S
(d) R-P-S-Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example
is R-Q-P-S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is
the correct answer.
Q1. S₁: We Indians by nature are
extremely
emo onal.
S6: What must be appreciated is that none of the
members of the Indian team has reacted to
this mind game u erance of Hayden.
P: Had the poli cal par es in India not been busy
in figh ng among themselves, they would
have asked the Central Government to refuse
visa to Hayden.
Q: Sta s cians are working over me to prove
how our players have not been selfish.
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain.
S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling
subcon nent players selfish, we have reacted
angrily.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b)
R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d)
R-P-S-Q
Q2. S1: In the roll call of human history,
the
sleepy capital town of
Madhya Pradesh is
indelibly
linked with one of the world's
worst man-made catastrophes.
S6: Industries across the globe became less
complacent and began ghtening their safety
protocols.
P: More than 2,000 died instantly.
Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a
poisonous grey cloud spread out from the
Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal, suffoca ng
more than three lakhs of its unsuspec ng
residents.
R: The disaster shook the world, especially when
hindsight revealed that almost all safety
regula ons had been flouted by the plant.
S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and
gasp their way through life, their organs
"eaten up by the deadly combina on of gases
that leaked out of the plant.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q-R-S-P (b)
S-P-Q-R
(c) Q-P-S-R (d)
S-R-Q-P
Q3. S₁: From an importer of milk powder to the
world's largest milk producer.
Previous year questions with solutions | 119
S6: And to think that it began as a simple
experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the
1960s.
P: Opera on Flood is arguably India's biggest
and most successful revolu on since the Quit
India Movement.
Q: India's Opera on Flood has come a long way
from the days when even baby food was
imported to producing. 84 million tonnes a
year.
R: From abject despera on to becoming a global
player in the dairy sector.
Erom a mere few villagers and a 275-litre
processing plant to an opera on spread
across 23 States, 170 Districts and 90,000
Village Coopera ves.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b)
R-Q-S-P
(c) P-Q-S-R
(d)
R-S-Q-P
S:
Elaborate models were developed, backed by
immaculate calcula ons, on the investments
and policies required to achieve the targets.
The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-S-P-R
(b)
P-R-Q-S
(c) Q-R-P-S
(d)
P-S-Q-R
Q5. S1: In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
has fallen on bad times.
S6: It is s ll a source water-albeit unpotable for
the thirsty Kodai.
P: Trouble started when the focus was shi ed
from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.
S:
Q4. S1: One of the ironies of the Indian economy's
consistent under-performance is that it has been
planned.
S6: As planning prospered, regional imbalances
widened and compe ve ness and free
enterprise were crushed-defeating the
fundamental
purpose
of
planned
development.
P: It is another ma er that in each of the nine
Five-Year Plans, barring the first, more targets
were missed than met.
Q: Within two months of India becoming a
Republic, the Planning Commission was set up
to prepare a blueprint for India's future,
roughly once in five years.
R: Yet the process of planning didn't change and
excuses were found wars and droughts in the
1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
Q: The once pris ne surroundings have been
destroyed by construc on that paid scant
respect to the ecological sensi vity of the
area.
R: Commercial forces took over the hill sta on
large-scale activi es and building commenced
around the ar ficial lake created in the 1800s.
S: There is large-scale deforesta on as well.
The correct sequence should be :
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b)
Q-R-P-S
(c) Q-S-P-R
(d)
P-R-Q-S
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): In the
following items some parts of the sentence
have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q. R
and S to produce the correct sentence.
Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example Z' has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that the effect/(P) is very
bad/(Q) On children/(R) of cinema/(S)
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
Previous year questions with solutions | 120
(d) Q-S-R-P
Explanation:
The proper way of wri ng the sentence is "It
is well-known that the effect of cinema on
children is very bad." This is indicated by the
sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct
answer.
Tribes/(P) with poli cal par es, industry and
other bodies/(Q) revealed that the Government
would ini ate a dialogue/(R) on how best the
private sector could fulfil/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b)
R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d)
R-P-S-Q
COMPREHENSION
Q6. War minus shoo ng but there was nothing
to suggest any/(P) was how cricket between India
and Pakistan/(Q) increase of animosity between
the players or the spectators/(R) was visualised
before the first ball was bowled/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-R-Q-S
(b)
Q-S-P-R
(c) P-S-Q-R
(d)
Q-R-P-S
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
The passage given below is followed by ques ons
based on its content. A er reading the passage,
choose the best answer to each ques on. Answer
all the five ques ons following the passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
PASSAGE
Q7. In 1997, NASA fact-finding mission on
microgravity/(P) by becoming the first Indian
woman to rocket into space on a/(Q) to reach out
for the stars, created history/(R) Kalpana Chawla,
a Karnal girl who wanted /(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-R-Q-P
(b)
P-Q-R-S
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d)
P-R-Q-S
Q8. That so suggests that there are certain
cultural resources/(P) many Indians excel as
expatriates/(Q) that enable them to succeed while
living away from home/(R) perhaps unique to
Indians/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-P-Q-R
(b)
Q-R-S-P
(c) S-R-Q-P
(d)
Q-P-S-R
Q9. The advent we entertained and informed
ourselves/(P) of satellite television was a
silent/(Q) and completely changed the
way/(R) revolu on which created a whole new
industry/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-R-S-P
(b)
P-S-R-Q
(c) Q-S-R-P
(d)
P-R-S-Q
Q10. The President
Scheduled
Castes
the aspira ons of the
and
the
Scheduled
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in
suppor ng life. The great ocean basins hold. about
300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast
amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are
sucked into the atmosphere each year by
evapora on and returned by precipita on and
drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic
miles of rain descend annually upon the
continents. This vast amount is required to
replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water
tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteris cs
because water has proper es unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon
freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas
most other liquids contract on cooling. For this
reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of
sinking to the bo om. If the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
summer season. Thus, all aqua c life would be
destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climates, would be
notably absent.
Another outstanding characteris c of water is
that water has a heat capacity which is highest of
all liquids and solids except ammonia. This
Previous year questions with solutions | 121
characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
preven ng clima c extremes. In addi on, water
dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It
is this characteris c which helps make oceans a
great storehouse for minerals which have been
washed down. from the con nents. In several
areas of the world these minerals are being
commercially exploited. Solar evapora on of salt
is widely prac sed, potash is extracted from the
Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea
water along the American Gulf Coast.
Q11. Which one correct? of the following is
According to the passage, the hydrosphere is
not
(a) responsible for all forms of life
(b) able to modify weather
(c) a source of natural resources:
(d) in danger of freezing over
Q12. What is the reason that fish can survive in
the oceans?
(a) They do not need oxygen
(b) Ice floats on the surface of the oceans
(c) Evapora on and condensa on create a
water cycle
(d) There are oceans currents in the
Q13. What is the author's main purpose in the
passage given above?
(a) To describe the proper es and uses of
water
(b) To illustrate the importance of conserving
water
(c) To explain how water is used in
commerce and industry
(d) To reveal the extent of the earth's ocean
masses
Q14. What is the reason that clima c extremes
are prevented in nature?
(a) A vast quan ty of water is held in the
great ocean basins
(b) The heat capacity of water is very high
(c) Solar evapora on from the oceans uses
high technology
(d) Water dissolves many substances
Q15. Which of the following characteris cs of
water does the author men on in the passage?
1. Water expands when it is frozen
2. Water is used as a condensing medium
for thermal power plants
3. Water is a good solvent
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b)
2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d)
1, 2 and 3
ANTONYMS
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
Each of the following five items consists of a word
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or group of words that
is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in
capital le ers.
Q16. OUTLANDISH
(a) Stubborn
(b)
Conven onal
(c) Agitated
(d)
Fearful
Q17. SCANTY
(a) Arrogant
(c) Painful
(b)
(d)
Plen ful
Handsome
Q18. PROPENSITY
(a) Disinclination
(b) Forecast
(c) Stagna on
(d) Restlessness
Q19. RECTITUDE
(a) Self-condemna on
(b) Decei ulness
(c) Reprisal
(d) Punctuality
Q20. PONTIFICATE
(a) To pilfer
(b) To leave one's country
(c) To speak in a humble manner.
(d) To spend recklessly
Previous year questions with solutions | 122
SYNONYMS
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
Each of the following five items consists of a word
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or group of words that
is most similar in meaning to the word in capital
le ers.
Q21. COMMISERATION
(a) Commission
(b) Vastness
(c) Sympathy
(d) Commenda on.
Q22. SLIPSHOD
(a) Vulgar
(b) Careless
(c) Commonplace
(d) Retaliatory
Q23. COGENT
(a) Forceful
(b) Objec onable
(c) Excep onal
(d) False
Q24. PONDEROUS
(a) Facile
(b) Exorbitant
(c) Cautious
(d) Unwieldy
Q25. MASQUERADE
(a) To provide support
(b) To go in disguise
(c) To mesmerize
(d) To run in a marathon race.
Part - B
Q26. Which one of the following is a super-cooled
liquid?
(a) Ice-cream
(b) Teflon
(c) Glass
(d) Mercury
Q27. Why does bleeding occur through nose in
high mountainous regions?
(a) The pressure of blood in capillaries is greater
than the outside pressure
(b) The pressure at high al tudes is greater than
that on the plains
(c) The blood pressure of a person increases at
high altitudes
(d) The blood pressure fluctuates and finally
decreases Dras cally
Q28. Which one of the following causes small air
bubbles in water, which is stored in a glass vessel,
to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
(a) Reflection of light rays
(b) Refrac on of light rays
(c) Polariza on of light rays
(d) Total internal reflec on
Q29. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth
is W₁. The weight of the same body is W2, at a
height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3
at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the
earth. Which one of the following is the correct
rela on?
(a) W3 > W1 > W2
(b) W₁ > W₂; W₁ > W3
(c) W₁ < W₂ <W3
(d) W₂ > W3 > W₁
Q30. Which one of the following is not a Vitamin?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Pantothenic acid
(d) Ascorbic acid
Q31. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night
blindness
(b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with
fa gue, loss of weight and poor wound healing
are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin
C
(c) Bleeding gums and loosening of teeth are
symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B,
Previous year questions with solutions | 123
(d) The deficiency of Vitamin B can cause
inflamma on of skin, memory disorder and
Diarrhoea
Q32. Which one of the following elements is not
naturally found in human beings?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Iodine
(d) Lead
Direc ons: The following Two (8 & 9) items consist
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
your answers to these items using the Codes given.
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Q33. Assertion (A): Glycerol is a cons tuent of
shaving cream.
Reason (R): Glycerol is an an sep c.
Q34. Assertion (A): Phenol is commonly used as a
disinfectant.
Reason (R): Phenol is not harmful to living human
ssues even at a very high concentra on.
Q35. What is the number of triangles that can be
formed whose ver ces are at the ver ces of an
octagon but have only one side common with
that of the octagon?
(a) 16
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 48
Q36. A le er is taken out at random from the
word 'ASSAM' and a le er is taken out at random
from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the
probability that the two le ers are the same?
(a) 1/20
(b) 3/20
(c) 1/40
(d) 31/40
Q37. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by
another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a
number of parallelograms. How many
parallelograms can be formed?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 60
Q38. Three dice are rolled. What is the
probability that at least one die will show 6?
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/36
(c) 91/216
(d) 125/216
Q39. How many numbers are there between 999
and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is
5?
(a) 2879
(b) 3168
(c) 3200
(d) 3224
Q40. Four different toys are to be distributed
among two children such that each child gets at
least one toy. In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 14
Q41. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many
different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 310
(d) 1000
Previous year questions with solutions | 124
Q42. At the conclusion of a party, a total number
of 28 handshakes was exchanged. Every person in
the party shook hands with every other person
who a ended the party. What was the total
number of persons who a ended the party?
(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 28
(d) 56
Q43. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite
to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may
accept the invita on. In how many different ways
can Amit's 7 friends a end the party?
(a) 96
(b) 112
(c) 127
(d) 128
Q44. There are three envelopes with three
different addresses wri en on them. Three
le ers are to be enclosed in these three
envelopes such that one le er goes inside one
envelope without seeing the address wri en on
any envelope. What is the probability that each
of the three le ers goes into the envelope with
correct address wri en on it?
(a) 1/27
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/3
Q45. A person and his wife appear in the
interview for the two vacancies of a post. The
probability of the selec on of the husband and
that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5 respec vely.
What is the probability that only one of them will
be selected?
(a) 1/7
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/7
(d) 11/35
Q46. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6,
2√3, ...?
(a) √3(√2)n-1
(b) √2 (√3)n-1
(c) √3 (√2)n
(d) √2 (√3)n
Q47. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20%
and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure
that is formed is a square.
Consider the following statements:
1. The area of square is 25% less than the area of
rectangle.
2. The perimeter of square is approximately 11%
less than 1 the perimeter of rectangle.
3. The diagonal of square is approximately 12%
less than the diagonal of rectangle.
Which of the statements given. above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Direc ons (For the next four items):
Refer to the graphs given below and answer the
items that follow:
Previous year questions with solutions | 125
(a) 800
(b) 500
(c) 840
(d) 920
Q51. In which year is the ra o of foreign
investment approvals to foreign investment
inflows highest?
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Q48. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign
investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $ Mn.?
(a) 1840
(b) 2000
(c) 460
(d) Cannot be determined with the given data
Q49. What are the foreign investment approvals
from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined together in
the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)?
(a) 2240
(b) 5000
(c) 3500
(d) 2600
Q50. If the net foreign investment inflows for the
year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the
propor on of inflows was to remain the same as
in case of the approvals for the year 1996, what
would be the foreign investment inflows from
NAFTA (in US $ Mn.) If NAFTA got 800 inflow in
1996??
Q52. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The
total amount of money with A and B together is
equal to the total amount of money with C and D
together. But the total amount of money with B
and D together is more than the amount of
money with A and C together. The amount of
money with A is more than that with B. Who has
the least amount of money?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) Cannot be determined
Q53. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits
in order to number all the pages of his book. He
starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the
book. How many pages does the book have?
(a) 4892
(b) 2322
(c) 2100
(d) 1500
Direc ons (For the next two items):
Based on the informa on given below, answer the
two items which follow it:
Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along
with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in
that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are
Previous year questions with solutions | 126
reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the
five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the le
of her husband.
(i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
right.
(ii) C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who
is not si ng on the seat number 2, are not
husband and wife.
(iii) B and R are celebra ng their wedding
anniversary and hence are si ng at the centre.
(iv) A and T are not husband and wife.
(v) D is sea ng on the seat number 3.
C. Administra ve Reforms Commission
D. Commi ee on the Preven on of Corrup on
List-II (Chairman)
1. R.S. Sarkaria
2. K. Hanumanthaiya
3. L.K. Jha
4. K. Santhanam
5. D.S. Kothari
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 5 1
Q54. Who is si ing on the seat number 7?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
Q58. Consider the following statements:
1. The first report of the Administra ve Reforms
Commission recommended the crea on of Lok
Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
2. Different ar cles under the Cons tu on of
India provide for se ng up the Union Public
Service Commission, the Planning Commission
and the Vigilance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q55. If in the last condi on (v), it is stated that D
sits on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the
seat number 4?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) P or T
(d) Cannot be determined
Q56. A 2-member commi ee is to be cons tuted
out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the
probability that a commi ee thus formed will
have exactly one woman?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 7/15
(d) 8/15
Q57. Match List-I (Commission/Commi ee) with
List-II (Chairman) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Commission/Commi ee)
A. Economic Reforms Commission
B. Commission on Centre-State Rela ons
Q59. Consider the following statements:
1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House of
Parliament.
2. If any ques on arises whether a bill is a Money
Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the
Public Accounts Commi ee is final.
3. Vote of Credit enables a grant to be approved
by the Parliament in advance of the detailed
examina on of various demands presented to
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Previous year questions with solutions | 127
Q60. Consider the following statements:
1. If forty or more members support an
Adjournment Mo on, only then the related
matter can be taken up for discussion.
2. Under an Adjournment Mo on, even a sub
judice ma er can be taken up for discussion.
3. Under Ar cle 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the Union Finance Minister causes to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament and
'Annual Financial Statement' for each financial
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Q61. Asser on (A): Recently, the four public
sector general insurance companies have
launched a community-based ‘Universal Health
Insurance Scheme’ .
Reason (R): According to the Cons tu on of India,
the task of promo ng public health primarily rests
with the Union Government.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the
Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the
Portuguese.
2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were
ruled by the French.
3. Goa got its freedom in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the
President of India.
2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corpora on of
Delhi do not come under the administra ve
purview of the Delhi Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legisla ve Assembly of a State cannot
have more than 450 and not less than 50
members chosen by direct elec on from
territorial cons tuencies.
2. The number of members of Legisla ve Council
of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total
membership of the Legisla ve Assembly of
that State subject to a minimum of 40.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q65. Consider the following statements:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with
maximum popula on of the Scheduled Castes.
2. Punjab has the highest ra o of the Scheduled
Caste popula on to its total popula on.
3. There was a provision for set ng up a Na onal
Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes under the Ar cle 338 of the
Cons tu on of India. However, by a
Cons tu onal Amendment Act, separate
National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
and Na onal Commission for the Scheduled
Tribes have been set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
Previous year questions with solutions | 128
(d) 1 and 3
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Cons tu on of India can
be initiated by the introduc on of a Bill for the
purpose in Lok Sabha only.
2. A Bill providing for the forma on of new States
and for the altera on of boundaries or names
of exis ng States in India can be introduced in
the Parliament only on the recommenda on
of the President of India.
3. In India, a Bill seeking to amend the
representa on of States in Parliament has to
be passed by a simple majority of both Houses
of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q67. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Parliament for a period
(a) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(b) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of six months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(c) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(d) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of one month a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign, and the
legisla on passed by it is subject to judicial
review.
2. In India, the Fundamental Rights and Direc ve
Principles of State Policy are enforceable by
the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q69. Consider the following statements related
to the World War II:
1. Germany a acked the US naval base at Pearl
Harbour.
2. Winston Churchill was the Bri sh Prime
Minister during the World War II.
3. The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as
one of the main causes of the World War II was
signed just before the World War II in 1939.
4. Franklin Roosevelt was the President of the
United States were dropped over the Japanese
ci es of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4
Q70. Assertion (A): During the Bri sh rule, the
Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the
provinces where they were in office.
Reason (R): Congress wanted fresh elec ons as it
was frustrated with Jinnah’s campaign of twonation theory.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Previous year questions with solutions | 129
Q71. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb released Shahu
from the prison shortly before Aurangzeb died in
1707.
Reason (R): Zulfiqar pointed that Shahu’s return to
his Kingdom would cause a division among the
Marathas who would thus be disabled from
plundering the imperial territories.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q72. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Indian Kings)
E. Karikala
F. Rudradaman
G. Milinda
H. Kanishka
List-II (Dynasty)
5. Bacteria Greek
6. Chola
7. Chalukya
8. Kushanas
9. Shakas
Codes:
A B C D
(e) 2 4 1 5
(f) 1 5 3 4
(g) 2 5 1 4
(h) 1 4 3 5
Q73. During the World War II, Indian soldiers
fought heroically in the Ba le at Monte Cassino.
Where is Monte Cassino located?
(a) Poland
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Ba les)
A. Battle of Chausa
B. Battle of Ghagra
C. Battle of Kanwah
D. Battle of Talikota
List-II (Fought between)
1. Babar and Rajputs
2. Humayun and Sher Khan
3. Babar and Afghans of Bihar & Bengal
4. Vijayanagar ruler and the Decca Sultanates
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 3 2
Q75. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chi oor,
who among the following defended it for four
months?
(a) Uday Singh
(b) Rana Pratap
(c) Bahman Shah
(d) Jaimal
Q76. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian
Universi es
(b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
(c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local selfgovernment both for towns and country-side
areas
(d) Lord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar of
1903
Q77. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given dynas es of
Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Sayyids – Khaljis – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(b) Khaljis – Tughlaqs – Sayyids – Lodis
(c) Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(d) Tughlaqs – Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis
Previous year questions with solutions | 130
(d) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak Ramdas-Tukaram
Q78. Consider the following statements:
According to the Mountba en Plan
1. The Union of India and Pakistan were to be
granted freedom not later than June 1948.
2. The Legisla ve Assembly of Sindh was to
decide whether it wanted to join the
Cons tuent Assembly of India or not.
3. Baluchistan was to decide whether it wanted
to stay with the Indian Union or become
separate.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Q79. In the year 1919, what was the reason for
Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a
countrywide Satyagraha would be launched?
(a) He wanted the Government to withdraw the
Rowla Act immediately
(b) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to be sensi ve
to the Khilafat Movement
(c) He wanted the Government to abolish the
Zamindari System to alleviate the miseries of
peasants
(d) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to give at least
the dominion status to India to make Home
Rule possible
Q80. Who among the following introduced the
celebra on of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji
Festivals to bring the Indian society together and
inspire patriotic feelings among the people?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jyo rao Govind Rao Phule
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Q81. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given Bhak
Saints?
(a) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas Ramdas Tukaram
(b) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak Tukaram-Ramdas
(c) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas Tukaram-Ramdas
Q82. Match List-I. (Persons) with List-II (Writings)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
LIST I (Persons)
LIST II (Wri ngs)
A. Asvaghosha
1. Buddha Charita
B. Nagarjuna
2. Madhyamika
Sutra
C. Patanjali
3. Vedanta Sangraha
D. Ramanuja
4. Yogasutra
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
1
2
(b)
1
2
4
3
(c)
4
2
1
3
(d)
1
3
4
2
Q83. Match List-I. (Historical Sites) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
LIST I (Historical Site)
LIST II (State)
A. Shore Temple
1. Karnataka
B. Bhimbetka
2. Tamil Nadu
C. Kesava
Temple 3. Kerala
(Hoysala
Monument)
D. Hampi
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Rajasthan
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
5
2
1
(b) 2
4
1
1
(c)
3
4
2
2
(d) 2
5
1
4
Q84. Which country among the following is the
biggest producer of co on?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
(d) United States of America
Q85. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
Previous year questions with solutions | 131
List-I (Wildlife
Sanctuary)
A. Bhitar Kanika
B. Pachmarhi
C. Pocharam
D. Sharavathi
Code:
A
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 1
B
2
3
3
2
C
3
5
1
5
List-II (Host Country)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Uttar Pradesh
D
1
2
2
3
Q86. Match List-I (Produce) with List-II (Major
Producer State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Produce)
List-II (Major
Producer State)
A. Rubber
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Soyabean
2. Tamil Nadu
C. Groundnut
3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Wheat
4. Kerala
5. Uttar Pradesh
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
5
(b) 5
3
1
4
(c) 4
3
1
5
(d) 5
1
2
4
Q87. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the
States of the peninsular plateau.
2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana
have the highest propor on of the net sown
area to total geographical area.
3. South-west Monsoon season is termed as the
Kharif season of crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q88. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Loca on)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I (Country)
List-II (Loca on)
A. Bahamas
1. Europe
B. Belize
2. North America
C. Macedonia
3.North Atlan c Ocean
D. Gabon
4. Africa
5. South America
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 4
1
2
(b) 1 2
5
4
(c) 3 2
1
4
(d) 1 4
5
2
Q89. Going from the West of the United States of
America to its East, which one of the following is
the correct sequence of the given major
American ci es?
(a) Houston-Los Angeles San Francisco New York
(b) San Francisco-New York Houston-Los Angeles
(c) Houston-New York-San Francisco-Los Angeles
(d) San Francisco-Los Angeles Houston-New York
Q90. Match List-1 (Beach Resort) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Beach Resort)
List-II (State)
A. Digha
1. Kerala
B. Covelong
2. West Bengal
C. Cherai
3. Maharashtra
D. Murud-Janjira
4. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2 4
1
3
(b) 3 1
4
2
(c) 2 1
4
3
(d) 3 4
1
2
Q91. Where are the maximum numbers of major
ports located in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Previous year questions with solutions | 132
Q92. Which one of the following is not a tributary
of the river Godavari?
(a) Koyna
(b) Manjra
(c) Pranhita
(d) Wardha
Q93. Which one of the following is not a correct
statement?
(b) The height of the Western half of the
Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern
half.
(c) The Himalayas are young fold mountains
(d) The Shivalik ranges are made of
unconsolidated river deposits
(e) The Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and
become narrow towards the East
Q94. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
(a) Spring des occur on the full moon day
(b) Neap des occur on the new moon day only
(c) The West Coast of India experiences des four
mes a day
(d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs
Q95. Which one of
correctly matched.
City
(a) Ahmedabad :
(b) Hyderabad :
(c) Lucknow
:
(d) Surat
:
the following pairs is not
River
Sabarma
Musi
Gomti
Narmada
Q96. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II
(Country) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I (Famous Place)
List-II (Country)
A. Alexandria
1. Turkey
B. Blackpool Pleasure 2. Great Britain
Beach
C. Constan nople
3. Italy
D. Florence
4. Greece
5. Egypt
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 1 3
4
2
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 5
2
2
3
1
4
1
3
3
2
Q97. Consider the following statements:
1. Kaziranga National Park is a World Heritage
Site recognized by the UNESCO.
2. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth
bear and hoolock gibbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q98. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (Location)
and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Indian Ins tute of Public Administra on
B. V.V. Giri Na onal Labour Ins tute
C. National Ins tute of Financial Management
D. National Law School of India University
List-II (Loca on)
1. Fardiabad
2. Bangalore
3. NOIDA
4. Mumbai
5. Delhi
Code:
A B C
D
(a) 1 2
4
3
(b) 5 3
1
2
(c) 1 3
4
2
(d) 5 2
1
3
Q99. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in
Najaf located?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Iraq
(c) Iran
(d) Kuwait
Q100. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in
news recently?
Previous year questions with solutions | 133
(a) Americans bombed the terrorist training
camps set up over there by the Janaweed
mili amen of Sudan
(b) Thousands of black African civilians were
killed or displaced by the Janaweeds who
are supported by the Arab-dominated
Sudan's Government
(c) Bird flu started from there
(d) A dam over the river Blue Nile was swept
away killing thousands of people
Q101. What was the total expenditure on
educa on both by the Central and State
Governments during the year 2002-03 as an
approximate percentage of the Gross Domes c
Product?
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Q102. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Na ons Organisa on:
1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no
member-na on has veto power.
2 In the Security Council, all permanent
members must vote in the affirma ve if a
resolu on is to pass.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q103. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Census 2001 of India:
1. For the first me, the country has
witnessed a faster growth in female
literary compared to that of males during
the decade 1991-2001.
2. During the decade 1991-2001, the ruralurban literacy gap con nued to diverge
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b)
2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Q104. Match List-I (Railway Zone) with List-II
(Headquarters) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Railway Zone)
A. East-Central Railway
B. North-Western Railway
C. North-Central Railway
D. South-Western Railway
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Hubli
2. Allahabad
3. Hajipur
4. Jabalpur
5. Jaipur
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
5
2
1
(b) 2
1
4
5
(c) 3
1
2
5
(d) 2
5
4
1
Q105. Consider the following statements:
1. The average popula on density of India is
between 600-700 persons per square
kilometer.
2. 2002-2007 is the dura on of the Tenth
Five-Year Plan.
3. Installed electricity genera on capacity in
India is in excess of 2 lakh Megawa .
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q106. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (City)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth
B. Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda
Vidya Prathishthan
C. Central Ins tute of Indian Languages
D. Central Ins tute of English and Foreign
Language
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List-II (City)
1. Hyderabad
2. Varanasi
3. Mysore
4. Tirupa
5. Ujjain
Code:
A
B
(a) 2
3
(b) 4
5
(c) 2
5
(d) 4
3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 1
C
1
3
3
1
D
5
1
1
5
Q107. Who among the following are the Bharat
Ratna recipients?
1. Amartya Sen
2. Gulzari Lal Nanda
3. M.S. Swaminathan
4. Satyajit Ray
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q108. Match List-I (Outstanding Sports persons
at the Athens Olympics) with List-II (Country) and
select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List-I (Outstanding Sports persons at the
Athens Olympics)
A. Michael Phelps
B. Ian Thorpe
C. Yulia Nesterenko
D. Nicolas Massu
List-II (Country)
1. Belarus
2. United States of America
3. Australia
4. Chile
5. Sweden
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
1
3
3
3
4
5
1
5
4
4
3
Q109. Who won the 100-metre race for men in
the Athens Olympics in August, 2004?
(a) Maurice Greene
(b) Jus ne Gatlin
(c) Asafa Powell
(d) Francis Obekwelu
Q110. Who among the following Indian film
directors/actors was honoured with the Order of
the Bri sh Empire (OBE) in year 2004?
(a) Naseeruddin Shah
(b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Shekhar Kapoor
(d) Om Puri
Q111. Match List-I (Dis nguished Women) with
List-II (Known As) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dis nguished Women)
A. Maria Sharapova
B. Aung San Suu Kyi
C. Asma Jahangir
D. Norah Jones
List-II (Known As)
1. Human rights ac vist
2. Political leader
3. Singer
4. Sportsperson
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
2
3
4
(b) 4
3
2
1
(c) 1
3
2
4
(d) 4
2
1
3
Q112. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book) and
select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List-I (Author)
A. Bill Clinton
B. Henry Kissinger
C. Nelson Mandela
D. Hillary Clinton
Previous year questions with solutions | 135
List-II (Book)
1. Between Hope and History
2. Living History
3. Diplomacy
4. Long Walk to Freedom
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
3
1
(b) 1
3
4
2
(c) 2
3
4
1
(d) 1
4
3
2
Q113. Match List-1 (Dis nguished Women) with
List-II (Known As/Area) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dis nguished Women)
A. Shanta Sinha
B. Kalpana Lajmi
C. Romila Thapar
D. Radha Reddy
List-II (Known As/Area)
1. Film Direc on
2. Community Leadership
3. Dancer
4. Historian
5. Business-woman
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 4
3
5
1
(c) 2
3
4
1
(d) 4
1
5
3
Q114. Asser on (A): In its Global Development
Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has
categorised India as a less indebted country for the
year 2002.
Reason (R): During the last decade, India’s
outstanding external debt has considerable
reduced.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explana on of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not
the correct explana on of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Q115. Consider the following statements:
India had plan holiday during 1966-69 due to
1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
2. Severe drought for two successive years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q116. Consider the following statements:
1. The members of the Employees' Provident
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Insurance Scheme.
2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was
introduced for the industrial workers.
3. Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
restricted to establishments employing 20 or
more persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Q117. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a) The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all
the States and Union Territories of India
b) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addi on to Hindus
c) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 recognizes the
right of women to inherit property of an
intestate equally with men
d) Muslims, Chris ans and Parsis in India have no
adop on laws and can take a child under the
Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 only under
foster care
Previous year questions with solutions | 136
Q118. Why did Mo lal Nehru and Chi aranjan
Das form a separate group known as Swaraj Party
within the Congress?
a) They were not sa sfied with the progress
made by the Congress in achieving Swaraj
b) It was their reac on to Mahatma Gandhi's
sudden decision to suspend the NonCooperation Movement
c) They were interested in forming more ac ve
party with revolu onary ideas
d) They felt that their opinions and views were
not given due importance in the Congress
Sessions
Q119. Which of the following is detected and
estimated by the Pollu on Check' carried out on
motor cars at service sta ons?
a) Lead and carbon particles
b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide
Q120. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Assertion (A): The salinity of the open seas is very
high compared to that of inland seas.
Reason (R): The water of rivers flowing into open
seas contains dissolved salts.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Previous year questions with solutions | 137
Solutions
PART- A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Direc ons (for the next Five items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the sixth
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet.
Example X' has been solved for you.
X S1: There wsa a boy named Jack.
S6: At last she turned him out of the house.
P: So the mother asked him to find work.
Q: They were very poor.
R: He lived with his mother.
S: But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be:
(a)
R-Q-P-S
(b)
P-Q-R-S
(c)
Q-P-R-S
(d)
R-P-S-Q
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example
is R-Q-P-S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is
the correct answer.
Q1. S₁: We Indians by nature are extremely
emo onal.
S6: What must be appreciated is that none of the
members of the Indian team has reacted to this
mind game u erance of Hayden.
P: Had the poli cal par es in India not been busy
in figh ng among themselves, they would have
asked the Central Government to refuse visa to
Hayden.
Q: Sta s cians are working over me to prove
how our players have not been selfish.
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain.
S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling
subcon nent players selfish, we have reacted
angrily.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence is S-Q-R-P
which is given in op on (c). Therefore, op on (c) is
the correct answer. S1 talks about ‘we Indians’ so
the next sentence which goes here is S as in S it is
said that ‘we have reacted angrily’. A er S the next
sentence should be Q because S talks about
‘calling subcon nent players selfish’ while Q states
that ‘our players have not been selfish’. The
following statement should be R as it is the only
one that fits here. The fourth statement is P.
Q2. S1: In the roll call of human history, the sleepy
capital town of Madhya Pradesh is indelibly linked
with one of the world's worst man-made
catastrophes.
S6: Industries across the globe became less
complacent and began ghtening their safety
protocols.
P: More than 2,000 died instantly.
Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a poisonous
grey cloud spread out from the Union Carbide
Plant in Bhopal, suffoca ng more than three lakhs
of its unsuspecting residents.
R: The disaster shook the world, especially when
hindsight revealed that almost all safety
regula ons had been flouted by the plant.
S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and
gasp their way through life, their organs "eaten up
by the deadly combina on of gases that leaked
out of the plant.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q-R-S-P
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) Q-P-S-R
(d) S-R-Q-P
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-P-S-R,
which is given in op on (c). Therefore, op on (c) is
Previous year questions with solutions | 138
the correct answer. The second statement a er S1
should be Q as S talks about the worst man-made
catastrophes and Q talks about what happened
there exactly. P should be the following statement
a er Q as it tells us that what happened a er the
catastrophe. S should come a er P because it tells
about the rest of the popula on who survived. R
should follow S as it gives the reason that why the
disaster happened.
Q3. S₁: From an importer of milk powder to the
world's largest milk producer.
S6: And to think that it began as a simple
experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the
1960s.
P: Opera on Flood is arguably India's biggest and
most successful revolu on since the Quit India
Movement.
Q: India's Opera on Flood has come a long way
from the days when even baby food was imported
to producing. 84 million tonnes a year.
R: From abject despera on to becoming a global
player in the dairy sector.
S: From a mere few villagers and a 275-litre
processing plant to an opera on spread across 23
States, 170 Districts and 90,000 Village
Cooperatives.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) P-Q-S-R
(d) R-S-Q-P
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence is P-S-Q-R,
which is given in op on (a). Therefore, op on (a)
is the correct answer. Here, statement P should
follow statement S1, it is the most suitable of the
following statements as it introduces opera on
flood. S should come a er P because it talks about
the expansion of the opera on flood. Statement Q
should follow statement S here as it states about
the ‘long way’ that is covered by ‘operation flood’.
R should be the last statement a er
rearrangement according to the passage.
Q4. S1: One of the ironies of the Indian economy's
consistent under-performance is that it has been
planned.
S6: As planning prospered, regional imbalances
widened and compe veness and free enterprise
were crushed-defeating the fundamental purpose
of planned development.
P: It is another ma er that in each of the nine FiveYear Plans, barring the first, more targets were
missed than met.
Q: Within two months of India becoming a
Republic, the Planning Commission was set up to
prepare a blueprint for India's future, roughly once
in five years.
R: Yet the process of planning didn't change and
excuses were found wars and droughts in the
1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
S: Elaborate models were developed, backed by
immaculate calcula ons, on the investments and
policies required to achieve the targets.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-S-P-R
(b) P-R-Q-S
(c) Q-R-P-S
(d) P-S-Q-R
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-S-P-R,
which is given in op on (a). Therefore, op on (a)
is the correct answer. Statement S1 should be
followed by statement Q as it states the ac on of
which statement S1 is men oning about. A er Q,
statement S should come as it explains what
happens in a five year plan. According to the
passage, statement P should come a er
statement S. Statement R should be the last
statement a er arrangement.
Q5. S1: In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
has fallen on bad mes.
S6: It is s ll a source water-albeit unpotable for
the thirsty Kodai.
P: Trouble started when the focus was shi ed
from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.
Q: The once pris ne surroundings have been
destroyed by construc on that paid scant respect
to the ecological sensi vity of the area.
R: Commercial forces took over the hill sta on
large-scale ac vi es and building commenced
around the ar ficial lake created in the 1800s.
S: There is large-scale deforesta on as well.
Previous year questions with solutions | 139
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b) Q-R-P-S
(c) Q-S-P-R
(d) P-R-Q-S
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The correct sequence is P-R-Q-S,
which is given in op on (d). Therefore, op on (d)
is the correct answer. Statement P should be the
first statement a er statement S1 as it tells about
the star ng of the bad mes which is men oned
in statement S1. Statement R should follow
statement P as it proceeds to tell the further
reason. Statement Q-S should come last in the
arrangement.
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): In the
following items some parts of the sentence have
been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q. R and S to
produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet
accordingly.
Example Z' has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that the effect/(P) is very
bad/(Q) On children/(R) of cinema/(S)
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The proper way of wri ng the sentence is "It is
well-known that the effect of cinema on children
is very bad." This is indicated by the sequence P-SR-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
Q6. War minus shoo ng but there was nothing to
suggest any/(P) was how cricket between India
and Pakistan/(Q) increase of animosity between
the players or the spectators/(R) was visualised
before the first ball was bowled/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-R-Q-S
(b) Q-S-P-R
(c) P-S-Q-R
(d) Q-R-P-S
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is Q-S-P-R. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer. The sentence can not end with P
as it ends with ‘any’ which is never the end of any
sentence. Neither the sentence can start with P as
is does not make any sense. Hence, op ons (a) and
(c) should be eliminated. Op on (b) makes the
correct sense of the sentence a er
rearrangement. Therefore, it is the right answer.
Q7. In 1997, NASA fact-finding mission on
microgravity/(P) by becoming the first Indian
woman to rocket into space on a/(Q) to reach out
for the stars, created history/(R) Kalpana Chawla,
a Karnal girl who wanted /(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-R-Q-P
(b) P-Q-R-S
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) P-R-Q-S
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is S-R-Q-P. Therefore, op on (a) is the
correct answer. The sentence should start with S
as it talks about the karnal girl Kalpana Chawla and
her dreams and her final achievement which is
given by the sequence SRQP. Therefore, a er
rearrangement op on (a) will be the right answer.
Q8. That so suggests that there are certain cultural
resources/(P)
many
Indians
excel
as
expatriates/(Q) that enable them to succeed while
living away from home/(R) perhaps unique to
Indians/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-Q-R
(b) Q-R-S-P
(c) S-R-Q-P
(d) Q-P-S-R
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence a er
rearrangement is Q-R-S-P. Therefore, op on (b) is
the correct answer. The sentence can not start
with S as it does not make any sense. Hence,
Previous year questions with solutions | 140
options (a) and (c) are eliminated. Q should be
followed by R to make the sentence gramma cally
and meaningfully correct, so op on (d) will be
eliminated. Hence, a er rearrangement op on (b)
will be the right answer which will make the
sentence correct.
par es’. Q should be followed by S-P as it makes
the sentence correct in meaning. The correct
sequence a er rearrangement is RQSP which is
given in op on (b). Hence, op on (b) is the right
answer.
COMPREHENSION
Q9. The advent we entertained and informed
ourselves/(P) of satellite television was a silent/(Q)
and completely changed the way/(R) revolu on
which created a whole new industry/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-R-S-P
(b) P-S-R-Q
(c) Q-S-R-P
(d) P-R-S-Q
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is Q-S-R-P. Therefore, op on (c) is the
correct answer. The sentence can not start with P
it does not make any sense as ‘advent’ means the
arrival of a notable person or thing. So, the
sentence should start with Q as it tells about the
advent of satellite television. Hence, according to
the sentence the correct sequence a er
rearrangement is SQRP which is given in op on (c).
Q10. The President the aspira ons of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes/(P)
with poli cal par es, industry and other
bodies/(Q) revealed that the Government would
initiate a dialogue/(R) on how best the private
sector could fulfill/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is R-Q-S-P. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer. The sentence should start with
The President ‘revealed’ which is given in R, so R
should come first a er rearrangement, followed
by Q as it men ons the dialogue ‘with poli cal
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
The passage given below is followed by ques ons
based on its content. A er reading the passage,
choose the best answer to each ques on. Answer
all the five ques ons following the passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
PASSAGE
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in
suppor ng life. The great ocean basins hold. about
300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast
amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are
sucked into the atmosphere each year by
evapora on and returned by precipita on and
drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic
miles of rain descend annually upon the
continents. This vast amount is required to
replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water
tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteris cs
because water has proper es unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon
freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas
most other liquids contract on cooling. For this
reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of
sinking to the bo om. If the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be
destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climates, would be
notably absent.
Another outstanding characteris c of water is that
water has a heat capacity which is highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This
characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
Previous year questions with solutions | 141
preven ng clima c extremes. In addi on, water
dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It
is this characteris c which helps make oceans a
great storehouse for minerals which have been
washed down. from the con nents. In several
areas of the world these minerals are being
commercially exploited. Solar evapora on of salt
is widely prac sed, potash is extracted from the
Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea
water along the American Gulf Coast.
Q11. Which one of the following is correct?
According to the passage, the hydrosphere is not
(a) responsible for all forms of life
(b) able to modify weather
(c) a source of natural resources:
(d) in danger of freezing over
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Op on (d) is the correct answer here.
As given in the second paragraph of the passage
about the hydrosphere, we can say that
hydrosphere is not in danger of freezing over
because if that happens then all the aqua c life
would be destroyed and the interchange of warm
and cold currents, which moderates climates,
would be notably absent. Therefore, op on (d) is
correct.
Q12. What is the reason that fish can survive in the
oceans?
(a) They do not need oxygen
(b) Ice floats on the surface of the oceans
(c) Evapora on and condensa on create a water
cycle
(d) There are oceans currents in the
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
According to the second paragraph of the passage
it is given that ice floats on water bodies instead of
sinking to the bo om and if the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
summer season. Thus, all aqua c life would be
destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climates, would be
notably absent. This explains that fishes can
survive in the ocean because of the ice that floats
on the surface of the ocean. Hence, (b) is the
correct option.
Q13. What is the author's main purpose in the
passage given above?
(a) To describe the proper es and uses of water
(b) To illustrate the importance of conserving
water
(c) To explain how water is used in commerce and
industry
(d) To reveal the extent of the earth's ocean
masses
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
According to the author, the main purpose of the
given passage is to illustrate the importance of
conserving water and not to commercially exploit
the water resources and minerals as the
hydrosphere permits organic existence.
Q14. What is the reason that clima c extremes are
prevented in nature?
(a) A vast quan ty of water is held in the great
ocean basins
(b) The heat capacity of water is very high
(c) Solar evapora on from the oceans uses high
technology
(d) Water dissolves many substances
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer. It is
given in the third paragraph of the passage that
another outstanding characteris c of water is that
water has a heat capacity which is highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This
characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
preven ng clima c extremes. Therefore, Op on
(b) i.e. ‘the heat capacity of water is very high’ is
the right choice as it is reason that climate
extremes are prevented in nature.
Q15. Which of the following characteris cs of
water does the author men on in the passage?
1. Water expands when it is frozen
2. Water is used as a condensing medium for
thermal power plants
3. Water is a good solvent
Previous year questions with solutions | 142
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer. It
given in the passage that, “One anomaly is that
water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent,
whereas most other liquids contract on cooling”
and also “water dissolves more substances than
any other liquid”. Therefore, only op on 1 and 3
are men oned in the passage whereas op on 2 is
not men oned anywhere in the given passage.
Hence, op on (c) is the right answer.
(a) Arrogant
(b) Plentiful
(c) Painful
(d) Handsome
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Scanty’ means ‘small or insufficient in quan ty or
amount.’, the opposite for this is ‘plen ful’ which
means ‘exis ng in or yielding great quan es;
abundant.’
‘Arrogant’ means having or revealing an
exaggerated sense of one's own importance or
abilities.
‘Painful’ means (of a part of the body) affected
with pain.
‘Handsome’ means (of a number, sum of money,
or margin) substan al or (of a man) good-looking.
ANTONYMS
Q18. PROPENSITY
(a) Disinclination
(b) Forecast
(c) Stagna on
(d) Restlessness
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Op on (a) is the correct answer.
‘Propensity’ means ‘an inclina on or natural
tendency to behave in a par cular way.’, the
opposite for this is ‘disinclina on’ which means ‘a
reluctance or lack of enthusiasm.’
‘Forecast’ means a calcula on or es mate of
future events, especially coming weather or a
financial trend.
‘Stagnation’ means the state of not flowing or
moving.
‘Restlessness’ means the inability to rest or relax
as a result of anxiety or boredom.
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
Each of the following five items consists of a word
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or group of words that
is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in
capital le ers.
Q16. OUTLANDISH
(a) Stubborn
(b) Conven onal
(c) Agitated
(d) Fearful
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Outlandish’ means ‘looking or sounding bizarre or
unfamiliar.’, the opposite for this is ‘conven onal’
which means ‘based on or in accordance with what
is generally done or believed.’
‘Stubborn’ means having or showing dogged
determina on not to change one's a tude or
position on something, especially in spite of good
arguments or reasons to do so.
‘Agitated’ means feeling or appearing troubled or
nervous.
‘Fearful’ means feeling or appearing troubled or
nervous.
Q17. SCANTY
Q19. RECTITUDE
(a) Self-condemna on
(b) Decei ulness
(c) Reprisal
(d) Punctuality
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Rectitude’ means ‘morally correct behaviour or
thinking; righteousness.’, the opposite of this is
Previous year questions with solutions | 143
‘decei ulness’ which means ‘having a tendency or
disposition to deceive or give false impressions’.
‘Self-condemna on’ means the blaming of oneself
for something.
‘Reprisal’ means an act of retalia on.
‘Punctuality’ means the fact or quality of being on
me.
Q20. PONTIFICATE
(a) To pilfer
(b) To leave one's country
(c) To speak in a humble manner.
(d) To spend recklessly
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer.
‘Pon ficate’ means ‘to speak or write and give
your opinion about something as if you knew
everything about it and as if only your opinion was
correct’, the opposite of this is op on (c) i.e. to
speak in a humble manner.
‘To pilfer’ means to steal (things of li le value).
‘Recklessly’ means without regard to the danger or
the consequences of one's ac ons; rashly.
SYNONYMS
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
Each of the following five items consists of a word
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or group of words that
is most similar in meaning to the word in capital
le ers.
Q21. COMMISERATION
(a) Commission
(b) Vastness
(c) Sympathy
(d) Commenda on.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer.
‘Commisera on’ means ‘sympathy and sorrow for
the misfortunes of others; compassion.’, the word
which has the same meaning as commisera on is
‘sympathy’.
‘Commission’ means an instruc on, command, or
role given to a person or group.
‘Vastness’ means very great extent or size;
immensity.
‘Commendation’ means a formal or official praise.
Q22. SLIPSHOD
(a) Vulgar
(b) Careless
(c) Commonplace
(d) Retaliatory
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Slipshod’ means ‘characterized by a lack of care,
thought, or organiza on.’, the word which has the
same meaning as slipshod is ‘careless’.
‘Vulgar’ means lacking sophis ca on or good
taste.
‘Retaliatory’ means (of an ac on) characterized by
a desire for revenge.
Q23. COGENT
(a) Forceful
(b) Objec onable
(c) Exceptional
(d) False
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Op on (a) is the correct answer.
‘Cogent’ means ‘(of an argument or case) clear,
logical, and convincing.’, hence, a cogent
argument, reason, etc. is clearly expressed and
persuades people to believe it. Here the synonym
of cogent is ‘forceful’ which ‘means strong and
asser ve; vigorous and powerful.’
‘Objec onable’ means arousing distaste or
opposi on; unpleasant or offensive.
‘Excep onal’ means not like most others of the
same type; unusual
‘False’ means not according with truth or fact;
incorrect.
Q24. PONDEROUS
(a) Facile
(b) Exorbitant
(c) Cau ous
(d) Unwieldy
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Option (d) is the correct answer.
‘Ponderous’ means ‘slow and clumsy because of
great weight.’, the synonym of ponderous is
Previous year questions with solutions | 144
‘unwieldy’ which means ‘(of an object) difficult to
move because of its size, shape, or weight.’
‘Facile’ means ignoring the true complexi es of an
issue; superficial.
‘Exorbitant’ means (of a price or amount charged)
unreasonably high.
‘Cau ous’ means (of a person) careful to avoid
poten al problems or dangers.
Q25. MASQUERADE
(a) To provide support
(b) To go in disguise
(c) To mesmerize
(d) To run in a marathon race.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Masquerade’ means ‘a false show or pretence.’,
the group of words that is similar to the meaning
of masquerade is ‘to go in disguise’, which means
‘to give a new appearance to a person or thing,
especially in order to hide its true form’.
‘To provide support’ means
to give
encouragement and approval to someone or
something because you want the person or thing
to succeed.
‘To mesmerize’ means to hold completely the
atten on or interest of someone.
‘To run in a marathon race’ means to run in a longdistance race.
Q26. Which one of the following is a super-cooled
liquid?
(a) Ice-cream
(b) Teflon
(c) Glass
(d) Mercury
Answer: C
Explanation:
Supercooling is the process of chilling a liquid
below its freezing point, without it becoming solid.
• A super-cooled liquid is a liquid below its
freezing point that has not crystalized to
freeze.
• Glass is an example of supercooled liquid.
Hence option C is correct.
• Teflon is not a product on its own, but a brand
name of a product. It refers to a chemical
coa ng known as polytetrafluoroethylene
(PTFE).
•
Mercury is the only liquid metal at room
temperature.
Q27. Why does bleeding occur through nose in
high mountainous regions?
(a) The pressure of blood in capillaries is greater
than the outside pressure
(b) The pressure at high al tudes is greater than
that on the plains
(c) The blood pressure of a person increases at
high altitudes
(d) The blood pressure fluctuates and finally
decreases Dras cally
Answer: A
Explanation:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in
altitude.
• At higher al tudes the blood pressure inside
our body is more than the atmospheric
pressure which forces the blood to ooze out
from openings like the nose.
• Hence the nose bleeding and Hence op on A
is correct.
Q28. Which one of the following causes small air
bubbles in water, which is stored in a glass vessel,
to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
(a) Reflection of light rays
(b) Refrac on of light rays
(c) Polariza on of light rays
(d) Total internal reflec on
Answer: D
Explanation:
The reason why the air bubble shines in water is
because of the total internal reflec on.
• Total internal reflec on is a phenomenon in
which light travels back in the same medium
or reflects back. It occurs when light travels
from an optically denser to a rarer medium.
• This happens in an air bubble in water when
light travels from water to air and back out.
This creates the shine or the silvery lustre.
Hence option D is correct.
Previous year questions with solutions | 145
Q29. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth
is W₁. The weight of the same body is W2, at a
height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3
at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the
earth. Which one of the following is the correct
rela on?
(a) W3 > W1 > W2
(b) W₁ > W₂; W₁ > W3
(c) W₁ < W₂ <W3
(d) W₂ > W3 > W₁
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Weight of an object is given by mul plying its
mass (m) and accelera on due to gravity (g) as
W=mxg.
• The value of g varies with al tude in an inverse
manner and as the altitude increases the value
of g decreases and as al tude (height)
decreases, the value of g increases.
• Thus, W3>W2>W1 is the correct sequence.
Q30. Which one of the following is not a Vitamin?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Pantothenic acid
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Folate is the natural form of vitamin B9, watersoluble and naturally found in many foods like
citrus fruits. It is also added to foods and sold
as a supplement in the form of folic acid
•
Vitamin B5, also called pantothenic acid, is
one of 8 B vitamins. All B vitamins help the
body convert food (carbohydrates) into fuel
(glucose), which the body uses to produce
energy. These B vitamins, o en referred to as
B complex vitamins, also help the body use fats
and protein.
•
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is used as a dietary
supplement when the amount of ascorbic acid
in the diet is not enough.
Oleic acid is an omega-9 fa y acid. It can be
made by the body. It is also found in foods.
Highest levels are found in olive oil and other
edible oils. It is not related to any Vitamin.
Hence option B is correct answer.
•
Previous year questions with solutions | 146
Q31. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night
blindness
(b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with
fa gue, loss of weight and poor wound healing
are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin
C
(c) Bleeding gums and loosening of teeth are
symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B
(d) The deficiency of Vitamin B can cause
inflamma on of skin, memory disorder and
Diarrhoea
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vitamins and deficiency diseases
The deficiency of different Vitamins causes
different deficiency diseases described as follows:
• In its more severe forms, vitamin A deficiency
contributes to blindness by making the cornea
very dry, thus damaging the re na and cornea.
Hence statement A is correct.
• Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits and
vegetables. Scurvy results from a deficiency of
vitamin C in the diet.
o Symptoms may not occur for a few
months a er a person's dietary intake
of vitamin C drops too low.
o Bruising, bleeding gums, weakness,
fa gue, weight loss, poor wound
healing, and rash are among scurvy
symptoms. Hence statement B is
correct and statement C is incorrect.
• Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to a reduc on
in healthy red blood cells (anaemia). The
nervous system may also be affected. Diet or
certain medical condi ons may be the cause.
Symptoms are rare but can include fa gue,
breathlessness, numbness, poor balance and
memory trouble. Hence statement D is
correct.
Q32. Which one of the following elements is not
naturally found in human beings?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Iodine
(d) Lead
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Copper is a mineral that is found throughout
the body. It helps your body make red blood
cells and keeps nerve cells and your immune
system healthy. It also helps form collagen, a
key part of bones and connec ve ssue.
• Zinc is found in cells throughout the body. It is
needed for the body's defensive (immune)
system to properly work. It plays a role in cell
division, cell growth, wound healing, and the
breakdown of carbohydrates. Zinc is also
needed for the senses of smell and taste.
• Iodine is an essen al trace mineral not made
by the body so must be obtained by food or
supplements. It is found naturally in some
foods and is added to supplements and some
salt seasonings. Hence option C is correct.
• Although Lead is not made by the human body
and is non-biodegradable and harmful for the
human body, it is found in the human bones
and teeth.
Direc ons: The following Two (7 & 8) items consist
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
your answers to these items using the Codes given.
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Previous year questions with solutions | 147
Q33. Assertion (A): Glycerol is a cons tuent of
shaving cream.
Reason (R): Glycerol is an an sep c.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Glycerol is added to shaving soaps to prevent
rapid drying and so ening the skin. Hence
Asser on is correct but Reason is false.
Q34. Assertion (A): Phenol is commonly used as a
disinfectant.
Reason (R): Phenol is not harmful to living human
ssues even at a very high concentra on.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phenol is an an sep c and disinfectant used in a
variety of se ngs.
• Phenol is an an sep c and disinfectant. It is
ac ve against a wide range of micro-organisms
including some fungi and viruses but is only
slowly effec ve against spores. Phenol has
been used to disinfect skin and to relieve
itching. Hence Assertion is true.
• Exposure to phenol may cause irrita on to the
skin, eyes, nose, throat, and nervous system.
• Some symptoms of exposure to phenol are
weight loss, weakness, exhaus on, muscle
aches, and pain. Severe exposure can cause
liver and/or kidney damage, skin burns,
tremor, convulsions, and twitching. Hence
Reason is false.
Q35. What is the number of triangles that can be
formed whose ver ces are at the ver ces of an
octagon but have only one side common with
that of the octagon?
(a) 16
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 48
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are 2 ver ces that will be used for base
side.
Another 2 ver ces which are adjacent to each
ver ces taken will make common side, so we
have to minus these ae well.
Therefore,
The number of triangles formed with only one
side common with octagon is 8× (8-2 -2) = 32
Q36. A le er is taken out at random from the
word 'ASSAM' and a le er is taken out at random
from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the
probability that the two le ers are the same?
(a) 1/20
(b) 3/20
(c) 1/40
(d) 31/40
Answer: B
Explanation:
In ASSAM, we have 2As, 2Ss, 1 M
In NAGALAND, we have 2Ns, 3As, 1G,1L, 1D
1 letter is taken from each word-That needs to be
the same. So, these can be As only.
So, probability of A taken from ASSAM is 2C1/5C1 =
2/5
and A from NAGALAND is 3C1/8C1 = 3/8
So, required probability = (2/5)*(3/8) = 3/20
Q37. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by
another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a
number of parallelograms. How many
parallelograms can be formed?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 60
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a parallelogram, we need 2 pairs of parallel
lines. So, we can "choose" any two lines from the
first set of 4 parallel lines 'and' choose any two
lines from the second set of 5 parallel lines.
Hence the value we need is
4
C2 × 5C2 = 6 × 10 = 60
Thus 60 parallelograms are formed.
Q38. Three dice are rolled. What is the
probability that at least one die will show 6?
(a) 1/6
Previous year questions with solutions | 148
(b) 1/36
(c) 91/216
(d) 125/216
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dice have values from 1 to 6
So, the probability of Dice 1/Dice2/Dice3 will
show 6 = 1/6
Probability of not showing 6 = 5/6
So, require probability = 6 on only 1 Dice or 6 on
any 2 Dice or 6 on all 3 dice
= 3C1*(1/6)*(5/6)*(5/6) + 3C2*(1/6)*(1/6*(5/6) +
(1/6)*(1/6)*(1/6)
= 75/216 + 15/216 + 1/216
= 91/216
Alternate methodProbability of no 6 by any dice = (5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)
= 125/216
So, required probability = 1 – 125/216 = 91/216
Q39. How many numbers are there between 999
and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is
5?
(a) 2879
(b) 3168
(c) 3200
(d) 3224
Answer: B
Explanation:
There is no digit to be 5 on any place in 4 digits
number from 1000 to 9999 = 8*9*9*9 (because
of at 1000s place 0 and 5 both cannot come so, 8
chances likewise for the unit, 10s and 100s place
5 cannot come so chance will be 9)
= 5832
Total number between 999 and 10000 = 9000
So, required numbers are = 9000 – 5832 = 3168
Q40. Four different toys are to be distributed
among two children such that each child gets at
least one toy. In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 14
Answer:
Explanation:
There are 4 toys to be distributed among 2
children such that each child gets at least 1 toy.
Required ways = 4C1*3C3 + 4C2*2C2 + 4C3*1C1
=4+6+4
= 14 ways.
Q41. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many
different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 310
(d) 1000
Answer:
Explanation: D
There are 10 gates
Total persons = 3
Each person can choose any gate out of 10.
Total ways are 10*10*10 = 1000
Q42. At the conclusion of a party, a total number
of 28 handshakes were exchanged. Every person
in the party shook hands with every other person
who a ended the party. What was the total
number of persons who a ended the party?
(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 28
(d) 56
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let n be the number of people present.
For every handshake, 2 persons are required.
Since each handshake is between two persons, the
total number of handshakes = nC2 =28
n! /{(n-2)! * 2!} = 28
n(n-1) = 56
So, n =8
Previous year questions with solutions | 149
Q43. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite
to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may
accept the invita on. In how many different ways
can Amit's 7 friends a end the party?
(a) 96
(b) 112
(c) 127
(d) 128
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are 7 people he wishes to invite.
Every friend has 2 choices either accept or decline
the invita on.
So, total ways = 2*2*2*2*2*2*2 =27
Now, we know 1 or more may accept the
invita on(given). So, no person is coming to part =
1 way.
So, required ways = 27 – 1
= 128 – 1
= 127
Q44. There are three envelopes with three
different addresses wri en on them. Three
le ers are to be enclosed in these three
envelopes such that one le er goes inside one
envelope without seeing the address wri en on
any envelope. What is the probability that each
of the three le ers goes into the envelope with
correct address wri en on it?
(a) 1/27
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Total no. of ways =3!=6 and favourable no.of ways
=1.
So, required probability = 1/6
Q45. A person and his wife appear in the
interview for the two vacancies of a post. The
probability of the selec on of the husband and
that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5 respec vely.
What is the probability that only one of them will
be selected?
(a) 1/7
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/7
(d) 11/35
Answer:
Explanation: C
Probability of selec on of husband = 1/7, it means
of not selec ng = 6/7
Probability of selec on of wife = 1/5, it means of
not selecting = 4/5
So, only 1 will be selected = “Wife selected, and
husband is not selected” or “husband selected and
wife doesn’t”
= (1/5)* (6/7) + (1/7)* (4/5)
= 6/35 + 4/35
= 10/35
= 2/7
Q46. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6,
2√3, ...?
(a) √3(√2)n-1
(b) √2 (√3)n-1
(c) √3 (√2)n
(d) √2 (√3)n
Answer: A
Explanation:
√6/√3 = 2√3/ √6
√2 = √2
So, this means it is a G.P.
Tn = arn-1 (where Tn = nth term, a = first term, r =
difference)
Tn = √3(√2)n-1
Q47. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20%
and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure
that is formed is a square.
Consider the following statements:
1. The area of the square is 25% less than the area
of rectangle.
Previous year questions with solutions | 150
2. The perimeter of square is approximately 11%
less than the perimeter of rectangle.
3. The diagonal of square is approximately 12%
less than the diagonal of rectangle.
Which of the statements given. above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let length of the rectangle = L, breadth of the
rectangle = B
Area= L*B
Now, length reduced by 20%. So, now length –
(4/5)L
Breadth remains same
So, new figure is square. So, (4/5)L = B
So, New area = (4/5)L*B
1. Difference in area = [{L/B – (4/5) L*B}/ L*B]*100
= 20% (So, wrong as given in the statement 1 to be
25%)
2. perimeter of square = 2(4/5) L + 2B = (8/5) L +
2B
Perimeter of rectangle = 2(L + B)
Difference = [{2L + 2B – (8/5)L – 2B}/ (2(L + B)]*100
= [(2/5)L/ 2(L + (4/5)L]*100 = 11.11% (So, right it is
approx. 11%)
3. Diagonal of rectangle = √(L2 + B2) = √(L2 + (4/5 L)2
= (L/5)*√41
Diagonal of square =side*√2 = (4/5)L*√2
Require
%age
=
[{(√41
4√2)*(L/5)}/(L/5)*√41]*100 = 11.65% (So, right it
is approx. 12%)
Hence op on D.
Direc ons (For the next four items):
Refer to the graphs given below and answer the
items that follow:
Q48. What is the contribu on of EU in the foreign
investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $ Mn.?
(a) 1840
(b) 2000
(c) 460
(d) Cannot be determined with the given data
Answer: D
Explanation:
As per the informa on 23% approval for EU in
1996.
But we don’t know how much inflows out of it.
So, cannot be determined with the given data.
Q49. What are the foreign investment approvals
from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined together in
the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)?
(a) 2240
(b) 5000
(c) 3500
(d) 2600
Answer: A
Explanation:
Foreign investment approval for 1996 = US $ 8000
mn.
Previous year questions with solutions | 151
%age of approval for SAARC, ASEAN and EU = 2 +
3 + 23 =28%
So, 28% of 8000 = 2240
We can clearly see in 1995 ra o of foreign
investment approval to inflows in highest =
9900/2000
Q50. If the net foreign investment inflows for the
year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the
propor on of inflows was to remain the same as
in case of the approvals for the year 1996, what
would be the foreign investment inflows from
NAFTA (in US $ Mn.) If NAFTA got 800 inflow in
1996?
(a) 800
(b) 500
(c) 840
(d) 960
Answer: D
Explanation:
Net foreign investment inflows for 1996 = 2000
Net foreign investment inflows for 1997 increased
by 20% = 1.2*2000 = 2400
Q52. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The
total amount of money with A and B together is
equal to the total amount of money with C and D
together. But the total amount of money with B
and D together is more than the amount of
money with A and C together. The amount of
money with A is more than that with B. Who has
the least amount of money?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Explanation:
A+B=C+D
B+D>A+C
A>B
Now,
B + D > A + C and A > B
⇒B+D>A+C>B+C
B+D>B+C
So, D > C
Now, B + D > A + C ⇒ B + D = A + C + K
Also, A + B = C + D ⇒ B - D = C - A
⇒ 2B = 2C + K
B>C
A>B>C&D>C
Clearly, each one of A, D, and B has more amount
than C. Hence, C has the least amount.
Proportion of inflows with respect to approvals in
1996 = (2000/8000) *100 = 25% or 1/4
As per given propor on is same in the year 1997
with respect to 1996.
So, foreign investment approvals in 1997 = 4*2400
= 9600
Now, NAFTA got $ 700mn in 1996
That is 800/2000)*100 = 40%
So, in 1997 it got 40% of 2400 = 960
Q51. In which year is the ra o of foreign
investment approvals to foreign investment
inflows highest?
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q53. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits
in order to number all the pages of his book. He
starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the
book. How many pages does the book have?
(a) 4892
(b) 2322
(c) 2100
Previous year questions with solutions | 152
(d) 1500
Answer: D
Explanation:
1 digit pages = 1 to 9 = 9
2 digits pages = 10 to 99 = 90
3 digits pages = 100 to 999 = 900
4 digit pages = let’s say x
Now,
Number of digits used ll 999 pages = 9*1 + 90*2
+ 900*3 = 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889
Therefore,
4x + 2889 = 4893
4x = 2004
X = 501
So, total pages are 9 + 90 + 900 + 501 =1500
Direc ons (For the next two items):
Based on the informa on given below, answer the
two items which follow it:
Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along
with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in
that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are
reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the
five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the le
of her husband.
(i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
right.
(ii) C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who
is not si ng on the seat number 2, are not
husband and wife.
(iii) B and R are celebra ng their wedding
anniversary and hence are si ng at the centre.
(iv) A and T are not husband and wife.
(v) D is sea ng on the seat number 3.
Q54. Who is si ing on the seat number 7?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
Answer: C
Explanation:
The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
right.
D is sea ng on the seat number 3
B and R are celebra ng their wedding anniversary
and hence are si ng at the centre.
C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who is
not sit ng on the seat number 2, are not husband
and wife.
A and T are not husband and wife.
So, C is si ng at seat number 7.
Q55. If in the last condi on (v), it is stated that D
sits on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the
seat number 4?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) P or T
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer:
Explanation:
Now, D sits on seat number is 7.
Q56. A 2-member commi ee is to be cons tuted
out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the
Previous year questions with solutions | 153
probability that a commi ee thus formed will
have exactly one woman?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 7/15
(d) 8/15
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total member = 4 + 2 = 6
Commi ee should have exactly 1 woman.
So, required probability = (1 Men and 1 women)
out of toal
= 4C 1 * 2C 1/ 6 C 2
= 8/15
Q57. Match List-I (Commission/Commi ee) with
List-II (Chairman) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Commission/Commi ee)
A. Economic Reforms Commission
B. Commission on Centre-State Rela ons
C. Administra ve Reforms Commission
D. Commi ee on the Preven on of Corrup on
List-II (Chairman)
1. R.S. Sarkaria
2. K. Hanumanthaiya
3. L.K. Jha
4. K. Santhanam
5. D.S. Kothari
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 5 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Economic Administra on Reforms
Commission (EARC) was set up in the early
eigh es to suggest changes in the economic
administra on of the country.
- Its chairman was L.K. Jha, a member of the
Indian Civil Service who had specialised in
the economic affairs of the country.
The agita on for State autonomy led to the
crea on of the R. S. Sarkaria Commission by
the Central Government to recommend
changes in the Centre-State rela onship in
1983.
• The first Administra ve Reform Commission
was established on 5 January 1966. The
Administra ve Reforms Commission was
initially chaired by Morarji Desai, and later on
K. Hanumanthaiya became its chairman when
Desai became the Deputy Prime Minister of
India.
• In 1962, Lal Bahadur Shastri appointed K.
Santhanam to preside over the commi ee on
an -corruption. Because of its thorough
inves ga ve work and recommenda ons, the
Commi ee earned a reputa on as
Santhanam's Commi ee on An -Corrup on.
Hence C is the correct answer.
•
Q58. Consider the following statements:
1. The first report of the Administra ve Reforms
Commission recommended the crea on of Lok
Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
2. Different ar cles under the Cons tu on of
India provide for se ng up the Union Public
Service Commission, the Planning Commission
and the Vigilance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Administra ve Reforms Commission (ARC)
of India (1966–1970) recommended the
se ng up of two special authori es
designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘lokayukta’ for the
redressal of ci zens’ grievances. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Article 315 to 323 contains provisions related
to the Union Public Service Commission but
planning
commission
and
vigilance
commission are not formed under the Ar cles
of Indian Constitution.
Previous year questions with solutions | 154
•
•
Planning Commission is non - Cons tutional
and non-Statutory body.
Vigilance Commission is statutory body
established by the CVC Act of 2003.
Q59. Consider the following statements:
1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House of
Parliament.
2. If any ques on arises whether a bill is a Money
Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the
Public Accounts Commi ee is final.
3. Vote of Credit enables a grant to be approved
by the Parliament in advance of the detailed
examina on of various demands presented to
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Cons tu on lays down a special
procedure for the passing of money bills in the
Parliament.
- A money bill can only be introduced in the
Lok Sabha and that too on the
recommenda on of the President. Thus,
statement 1 is not correct.
• If any ques on arises whether a bill is a money
bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha is final.
- His decision in this regard cannot be
ques oned in any court of law or in the
either House of Parliament or even by the
President. Thus, statement 2 is not
correct.
• Vote of Credit is granted for mee ng an
unexpected demand upon the resources of
India, when on account of the magnitude or
the indefinite character of the service, the
demand cannot be stated with the details
ordinarily given in a budget. Thus statement 3
is not correct.
Q60. Consider the following statements:
1. If forty or more members support an
Adjournment Mo on, only then the related
matter can be taken up for discussion.
2. Under an Adjournment Mo on, even a sub
judice ma er can be taken up for discussion.
3. Under Ar cle 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the Union Finance Minister causes to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament and
'Annual Financial Statement' for each financial
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Adjournment Mo on is introduced in the
Parliament to draw a en on of the House to a
definite ma er of urgent public importance
and needs the support of 50 members to be
admi ed.
• An Adjournment Mo on, should not deal with
any ma er that is under adjudica on by court.
• Under Article 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the President of India (not Union Finance
Minister) causes to be laid before both the
Houses of Parliament and 'Annual Financial
Statement' for each financial year.
Q61. Asser on (A): Recently, the four public
sector general insurance companies have
launched a community-based ‘Universal Health
Insurance Scheme’ .
Reason (R): According to the Cons tu on of India,
the task of promo ng public health primarily rests
with the Union Government.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: B
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 155
•
•
There are 4 public sector general insurance
providers who have implemented Universal
Health Insurance Scheme with the inten on to
enhance people's access of health care
especially for families at or below the poverty
line.
- This Scheme was launched on a
countrywide basis in July 2003. Hence
Assertion is correct.
According to Article 47 in Part IV of Indian
Cons tu on, it is the duty of the State to raise
the level of nutri on and the standard of
living of people and to improve public health.
Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the
Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the
Portuguese.
2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were
ruled by the French.
3. Goa got its freedom in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Portuguese ruled Dadar and Nagar Haveli
un l its libera on in 1954. Subsequently, the
administra on was carried on ll 1961 by an
administrator chosen by the people
themselves. It was converted into a union
territory of India by the 10th Cons tu onal
Amendment Act, 1961.
• The territory of Puducherry comprises the
former French establishments in India known
as Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam.
The French handed over this territory to India
in 1954.
- On 8th June 1948, the French government
had an agreement with the Indian
Government under which it declared that
the people of the French colonies in India
would have the right to choose their own
future status.
-
The French government conducted a
plebiscite on 19th June 1949 in which a
whopping 97% of the people voted in
favour of a merger with India. 7463 votes
were received in favour of the merger and
114 against it.
• India acquired Goa from the Portuguese by
means of a police ac on in 1961.
Hence A is the correct answer.
Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the
President of India.
2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corpora on of
Delhi do not come under the administra ve
purview of the Delhi Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Chief Minister of Na onal Capital Territory
of Delhi is appointed by the Indian President
(not by the lt. governor).
• Municipal Corpora on of Delhi (MCD) is the
municipal corpora on that governs most of
Delhi, India.
- The Municipal Corpora on of Delhi was
replaced by three new bodies, the North
Delhi Municipal Corpora on, the South
Delhi Municipal Corpora on and the East
Delhi Municipal Corpora on in 2012.
- They are controlled by the Government of
India.
• Delhi Police comes under the jurisdic on of
the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA),
Government of India.
Q64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legisla ve Assembly of a State cannot
have more than 450 and not less than 50
members chosen by direct elec on from
territorial cons tuencies.
Previous year questions with solutions | 156
2. The number of members of Legisla ve Council
of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total
membership of the Legisla ve Assembly of
that State subject to a minimum of 40.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Legisla ve assembly of State consists of
representa ves directly elected by the people
on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its
maximum strength is fixed at 500 and
minimum strength at 60.
- It means that its strength varies from 60 to
500 depending on the popula on size of
the state. Thus statement 1 is not correct.
• The maximum strength of the Legisla ve
Council in a state with bicameral legislature is
fixed at one-third of the total strength of the
assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at
40. Thus statement 2 is correct.
Q65. Consider the following statements:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with
maximum popula on of the Scheduled Castes.
2. Punjab has the highest ra o of the Scheduled
Caste popula on to its total popula on.
3. There was a provision for set ng up a Na onal
Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes under the Ar cle 338 of the
Cons tu on of India. However, by a
Cons tu onal Amendment Act, separate
National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
and Na onal Commission for the Scheduled
Tribes have been set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: C
Note: This answer is per the current informa on as
in 2022.
Explanation:
• U ar Pradesh stands first with 20.5% of the
total scheduled caste (SC) popula on,
followed by West Bengal with 10.7%.
- Bihar with 8.2% and Tamil Nadu with 7.2 %
come third and fourth. Thus, statement 1
is not correct.
• As per Census 2011, the State of Punjab, has
the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste
popula on amongst all the States of the
Country.
- The Scheduled Caste popula on in Punjab
is 88.60 lakh which is 31.94% of the total
popula on i.e. 277.43 lakh of the State.
• The 65th Cons tutional Amendment Act of
1990 provided for the establishment of a high
level mul -member Na onal Commission for
SCs and STs under Ar cle 338 in the place of a
single Special Officer for SCs and STs.
- Later the 89th Cons tu onal Amendment
Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined
National Commission for SCs and STs into
two separate bodies, namely, Na onal
Commission for Scheduled Castes (under
Article 338) and Na onal Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (under Ar cle 338-A).
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Cons tu on of India can
be initiated by the introduc on of a Bill for the
purpose in Lok Sabha only.
2. A Bill providing for the forma on of new States
and for the altera on of boundaries or names
of exis ng States in India can be introduced in
the Parliament only on the recommenda on
of the President of India.
3. In India, a Bill seeking to amend the
representa on of States in Parliament has to
be passed by a simple majority of both Houses
of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
Previous year questions with solutions | 157
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• An amendment of the Cons tu on can be
initiated only by the introduc on of a bill for
the purpose in either House of Parliament and
not in the state legislatures. Thus, statement 1
is wrong.
• Article 3 of Indian Cons tu on provides for the
formation of new States and for the altera on
of boundaries or names of exis ng States in
India. However there are 2 condi ons in this
regard:
- a bill contempla ng the above changes can
be introduced in the Parliament only with
the prior recommenda on of the
President. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
- before recommending the bill, the
President has to refer the same to the state
legislature concerned for expressing its
views within a specified period.
• Representa on of states in Parliament is
related to the federal structure of the polity
can be amended by a special majority of the
Parliament and also with the consent of half of
the state legislatures by a simple majority.
Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
Q67. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Parliament for a period
(a) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(b) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of six months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(c) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(d) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of one month a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Lok Sabha is not a con nuing chamber. Its
normal term is five years from the date of its
first mee ng a er the general elec ons, a er
which it automatically dissolves.
- The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended
during the period of na onal emergency
be a law of Parliament for one year at a
time for any length of me.
- However, this extension cannot con nue
beyond a period of six months a er the
emergency has ceased to operate.
Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign, and the
legisla on passed by it is subject to judicial
review.
2. In India, the Fundamental Rights and Direc ve
Principles of State Policy are enforceable by
the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The adop on of an independent Judiciary with
the power of judicial review restricts the
sovereignty of Indian Parliament.
- Both the Supreme Court and high courts
can declare the laws enacted by the
Parliament as void and ultra vires
(uncons tu onal), if they contravene any
provision of the Constitu on.
• Only Fundamental Rights are jus ciable and
enforceable, allowing persons to move the
Previous year questions with solutions | 158
courts for their enforcement, if and when they
are violated.
- The Direc ve Principles are non-justiciable
in nature, that is, they are not legally
enforceable by the courts for their
violation.
Q69. Consider the following statements related
to the World War II:
1. Germany a acked the US naval base at Pearl
Harbour.
2. Winston Churchill was the Bri sh Prime
Minister during the World War II.
3. The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as
one of the main causes of the World War II was
signed just before the World War II in 1939.
4. Franklin Roosevelt was the President of the
United States were dropped over the Japanese
ci es of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The a ack on Pearl Harbour was a surprise
military strike by the Imperial Japanese Navy
Air Service upon the United States.
• Winston Churchill was an inspira onal
statesman, writer, orator and leader who led
Britain to victory in the Second World War.
• The Treaty of Versailles was the most
important of the peace trea es of World War
I. It ended the state of war between Germany
and the Allied Powers.
• In August of 1945, the United States was s ll
figh ng in World War II against the na on of
Japan. Having been told about the successful
Trinity Test of an atomic bomb, President
Truman decided to drop an atomic bomb on
Japan on August 6, 1945.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q70. Assertion (A): During the Bri sh rule, the
Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the
provinces where they were in office.
Reason (R): Congress wanted fresh elec ons as it
was frustrated with Jinnah’s campaign of twonation theory.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer:
Explanation:
• When World War II started in 1939, the Bri sh
were figh ng against the Axis Powers.
- The Viceroy of India announced India’s
involvement without consul ng its
representa ve poli cal leaders. Congress
asked for transfer of power in repayment
of their coopera on in war, which the
Bri sh government denied. As a result,
Congress ministries resigned a er 28
Months of power.
Hence option C is correct answer.
Q71. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb released Shahu
from the prison shortly before Aurangzeb died in
1707.
Reason (R): Zulfiqar pointed that Shahu’s return to
his Kingdom would cause a division among the
Marathas who would thus be disabled from
plundering the imperial territories.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Shahu Maharaj I was the Chhatrapa of the
Maratha domain and the grandson of Shivaji.
- In his early life stages, when he was just a
7-year-old boy, he was taken as a prisoner
Previous year questions with solutions | 159
alongside his mother in the year 1689 by
the Mughal forces a er the conflict of
Raigad.
- A er the decease of Aurangzeb in the year
1707 Bahadur Shah released Shahu in the
desire of star ng an interes ng conflict
between the Marathas and expec ng Sahu
to be on the side of Mughals for the
succession fight of the Mughal Rule.
Hence D is the correct answer.
Q72. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Indian Kings)
A. Karikala
B. Rudradaman
C. Milinda
D. Kanishka
List-II (Dynasty)
1. Bacteria Greek
2. Chola
3. Chalukya
4. Kushanas
5. Shakas
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 5
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 2 5 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Karikala was a Chola dynasty king who ruled
southern India.
- He is credited with the construc on of the
flood banks of the river Kaveri. He is
recognised as the greatest of the Early
Cholas.
• Rudradaman I (130–150AD), a Saka monarch
from the Western Kshatrapas dynasty, was a
Saka ruler from the Western Kshatrapas
dynasty. He was the king of Castana's
grandson.
The Milindapañha is set up as a compila on of
ques ons posed by King Milinda to a revered
senior monk named Nagasena.
- This Milinda has been iden fied with
considerable confidence by scholars as the
Greek king Menander of Bactria, in the
dominion founded by Alexander the Great,
which corresponds with much of present
day Afghanistan.
• Kanishka, was an emperor of the Kushan
dynasty.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
•
Q73. During the World War II, Indian soldiers
fought heroically in the Ba le at Monte Cassino.
Where is Monte Cassino located?
(a) Poland
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Ba le of Monte Cassino was a series of
four assaults by the Allies against the Winter
Line in Italy held by Axis forces during the
Italian Campaign of World War II. The inten on
was a breakthrough to Rome.
Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I (Ba les)
A. Battle of Chausa
B. Battle of Ghagra
C. Battle of Kanwah
D. Battle of Talikota
List-II (Fought between)
1. Babar and Rajputs
2. Humayun and Sher Khan
3. Babar and Afghans of Bihar & Bengal
4. Vijayanagar ruler and the Decca Sultanates
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
Previous year questions with solutions | 160
(d) 4 1 3 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Ba le of Chausa was a famous ba le
between the Mughal Emperor, Humayun, and
the Afghan warlord, Sher Shah Suri.
- It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa,
10 miles southwest of Buxar in modern-day
Bihar, India.
• The Battle of Ghagra was the last ba le Babar
fought against the Afghans.
- Sultan Ibrahim Lodi’s brother Mahmud
Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of
Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
Realising the danger Babar marched
against them.
- In the ba le that ensued along the banks
of Ghagra, a tributary of Ganges, Babur
defeated the Afghans.
• Babur decided to take on Rana Sanga of
Chi oor, who as ruler of Mewar, had a strong
influence over Rajasthan and Malwa. Babur
selected Khanwa, near Agra, as a favourable
site for this inevitable encounter.
• The Deccan states, joined hands to wage the
great ba le against their common enemy
Vijayanagar.
- The ba le was fought at Talikota or
Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565 in which
Ramaraya, in spite of his old age,
personally commanded the forces along
with his cousins and brothers.
Hence C is the correct answer.
Q75. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chi oor,
who among the following defended it for four
months?
(a) Uday Singh
(b) Rana Pratap
(c) Bahman Shah
(d) Jaimal
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The ruler of Mewar, Rana Uday Singh, put up
a great fight before losing Chi oor, which was
conquered by Akbar a er a siege of six
months.
Q76. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian
Universi es
(b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
(c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local selfgovernment both for towns and country-side
areas
(d) Lord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar of
1903
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The three universi es of Calcu a, Madras and
Bombay came into existence in 1857 during
Lord Canning. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Lord Dalhousie was credited with the
introduc on of telegraph in India. Calcu a and
Agra were connected by telegraph.
• Lord Ripon is known for introducing the Local
Self Government in 1882.
- His scheme of local self-government
developed the Municipal ins tu ons
which had been growing up in the country
ever since India was occupied by the Bri sh
Crown.
• The Delhi Durbar was held twice more in 1903
and 1911 to proclaim first King Edward VII and
then King George V as Emperor of India.
However, it was the 1903 Delhi Durbar
presided over by Viceroy of India Lord Curzon.
Q77. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given dynas es of
Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Sayyids – Khaljis – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(b) Khaljis – Tughlaqs – Sayyids – Lodis
(c) Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(d) Tughlaqs – Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Five dynas es ruled over the Delhi Sultanate
sequen ally: the Mamluk or Slave dynasty
(1206–1290), the Khalji dynasty (1290–1320),
the Tughlaq dynasty (1320–1414), the Sayyid
Previous year questions with solutions | 161
dynasty (1414–1451), and the Lodi dynasty
(1451–1526).
is no such choice for Baluchistan. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
Q78. Consider the following statements:
According to the Mountba en Plan
1. The Union of India and Pakistan were to be
granted freedom not later than June 1948.
2. The Legisla ve Assembly of Sindh was to
decide whether it wanted to join the
Cons tuent Assembly of India or not.
3. Baluchistan was to decide whether it wanted
to stay with the Indian Union or become
separate.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
In May 1947, Mountba en came up with a plan
under which he proposed that the provinces be
declared independent successor states and then
be allowed to choose whether to join the
cons tuent assembly or not. This plan was called
the ‘Dickie Bird Plan’. The important provisions of
this plan were:
• Bri sh India was to be par oned into two
dominions – India and Pakistan.
• The date for the transfer of power was to be
August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The princely states were given the choice to
either remain independent or accede to India
or Pakistan. The Bri sh suzerainty over these
kingdoms was terminated.
• The legisla ve assembly of Sind would decide
whether to join the Indian cons tuent
assembly or not. It decided to go to Pakistan.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A referendum was to be held on NWFP (NorthWestern Fron er Province) to decide which
dominion to join. NWFP decided to join
Pakistan while Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
boyco ed and rejected the referendum. There
Q79. In the year 1919, what was the reason for
Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a
countrywide Satyagraha would be launched?
(a) He wanted the Government to withdraw the
Rowla Act immediately
(b) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to be sensi ve
to the Khilafat Movement
(c) He wanted the Government to abolish the
Zamindari System to alleviate the miseries of
peasants
(d) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to give at least
the dominion status to India to make Home
Rule possible
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gandhiji wanted the Government to withdraw the
Rowla Act immediately and for this he warned
the Bri sh Government.
• Gandhi started Satyagraha in 1919 against the
Rowla Act because the act laid down
measures which were insul ng and
challenging for the Indians.
Q80. Who among the following introduced the
celebra on of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji
Festivals to bring the Indian society together and
inspire patriotic feelings among the people?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jyo rao Govind Rao Phule
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bal Gangadhar transformed the simple Ganesh
Puja performed at home into a social and public
Ganesh fes val.
• He used the Ganesh Chaturthi and Shiv
Jayan (birth anniversary of Shivaji) fes vals
to create unity and a national spirit among the
people.
Q81. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given Bhak
Saints?
Previous year questions with solutions | 162
(a) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas-Ramdas-Tukaram
(b) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak-Tukaram-Ramdas
(c) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas-Tukaram-Ramdas
(d) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak-Ramdas-Tukaram
Answer: C
• Gurū Nānak (15 April 1469 – 22 September
1539), was the founder of Sikhism and is the
first of the ten Sikh Gurus in the Sikhism
religion.
• Tulsidas (1511–1623) was a Ramanandi
Vaishnava Hindu saint and poet, renowned for
his devo on to the deity Rama.
• He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and
Awadhi but is best known as the author of the
Hanuman Chalisa and of the epic
Ramcharitmanas, a retelling of the Sanskrit
Ramayana based on Rama's life in the
vernacular Awadhi.
• Sant Tukaram Maharaj (1600 - 1650) was a
17th-century Marathi poet, Hindu sant (saint),
popularly known as Tuka, Tukobaraya, Tukoba
in Maharashtra.[4] He was a Sant of Varkari
sampradaya (Marathi-Vaishnav tradi on) that venerates the god Vithoba - in
Maharashtra
• Swami Ramdas (born Vittal Rao on 10 April
1884) was an Indian saint, philosopher,
philanthropist and pilgrim. Swami Ramdas
became a wandering asce c in his late 30s and
later established Anandashram in Kanhangad,
Kerala.
Q82. Match List-I. (Persons) with List-II (Writings)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
LIST I (Persons)
LIST II (Wri ngs)
A. Asvaghosha
1. Buddha Charita
B. Nagarjuna
2. Madhyamika
Sutra
C. Patanjali
3. Vedanta Sangraha
D. Ramanuja
4. Yogasutra
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
3
1
2
(b)
1
2
4
3
(c)
4
2
1
3
(d)
1
3
4
2
Answer: B
• Buddhacharita is an epic poem in the Sanskrit
mahakavya style on the life of Gautama
Buddha by Aśvaghoṣa.
• Madhyamika sutra, also known as
Mūlamadhyamakakārikā, is the founda onal
text of the Madhyamaka school of Mahāyāna
Buddhist philosophy. It was composed by the
Indian philosopher Nāgārjuna.
• The Yoga Sutras was compiled in the early
centuries CE, by the sage Patanjali in India
who synthesized and organized knowledge
about yoga from much older tradi ons.
• Of the nine works that Ramanujacharya
wrote, Vedartha Sangraha was the first. It was
in fact a discourse that he gave in Tirumala.
The tle can be translated as 'Essence of the
meaning of the Vedas.
• Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q83. Match List-I. (Historical Sites) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
LIST I (Historical Site)
LIST II (State)
A. Shore Temple
1. Karnataka
B. Bhimbetka
2. Tamil Nadu
C. Kesava
Temple 3. Kerala
(Hoysala
Monument)
D. Hampi
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Rajasthan
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
5
2
1
(b) 2
4
1
1
(c)
3
4
2
2
(d) 2
5
1
4
Answer: B
• The Shore Temple (c. 725 AD) is a complex of
temples and shrines that overlooks the shore
of the Bay of Bengal. It is located in
Mahabalipuram, about 60 kilometres (37 mi)
south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
• The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an
archaeological site located in the Raisen
District in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Previous year questions with solutions | 163
•
•
•
Chennakeshava Temple, also referred to as
Keshava, Kesava or Vijayanarayana Temple of
Belur, is a 12th-century Hindu temple in the
Hassan district of Karnataka.
Hampi or Hampe, also referred to as the
Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO
World Heritage Site located in Hampi town,
Vijayanagara district, east-central Karnataka.
Hence, correct answer is B.
Q84. Which country among the following is the
biggest producer of cotton?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
(d) United States of America
Answer: A/B
• Different sources cite India or China as the
biggest co on producers in the world.
• According to FAO, India and China both are
the biggest co on producers in the world.
Their rela ve posi on is subject to change
every year.
Q85. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I (Wildlife
List-II (Host Country)
Sanctuary)
A. Bhitar Kanika
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Pachmarhi
2. Karnataka
C. Pocharam
3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Sharavathi
4. Orissa
5. Uttar Pradesh
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 4 2
3
1
(b) 1 3
5
2
(c) 4 3
1
2
(d) 1 2
5
3
Answer: C
• Bhitarkanika Na onal Park is a 145 km2 large
na onal park in northeast Kendrapara district
in Odisha. Hence, A is matched with 4.
• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is a non-use
conserva on area and biosphere reserve in
•
•
the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh.
Hence, B is matched with 3.
Pocharam Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest and
wildlife sanctuary located 15 km from Medak
and 115 km from Hyderabad, Telangana. At
the me of exam, the Sanctuary was located
in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, C is matched with
1.
Sharavathi Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected
wildlife sanctuary in the Western Ghats of
Karnataka. Hence, D is matched with 2.
Q86. Match List-I (Produce) with List-II (Major
Producer State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Produce)
List-II (Major
Producer State)
A. Rubber
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Soyabean
2. Tamil Nadu
C. Groundnut
3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Wheat
4. Kerala
5. Uttar Pradesh
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
5
(b) 5
3
1
4
(c) 4
3
1
5
(d) 5
1
2
4
Answer: C
The sta s cs of state-wise produc on of different
crops in 2004 was different from what it is today.
Thus, data presented here is the latest data
available.
• Natural rubber is cul vated in 16 states in
India. With over 600,000 hectares, Kerala tops
rubber cul va on, followed by Tripura with
over 85,038 hectares under planta on.
Hence, A is matched with 4.
• The major soyabean growing states are
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan,
Karnataka, and Telangana. Hence, B is
matched with 3.
• Groundnut producing States are led by
Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and
Maharashtra. Hence, C is matched with 1.
Previous year questions with solutions | 164
U ar Pradesh is the largest wheat producer
in India, followed very closely by Madhya
Pradesh. Hence, D is matched with 5.
•
Q87. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the
States of the peninsular plateau.
2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana
have the highest propor on of the net sown
area to total geographical area.
3. South-west Monsoon season is termed as the
Kharif season of crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
• In India, cropping intensity is higher in the
States of Northern Plains as compared to
States in peninsular plateau. Various reasons
like fer le soil, plain topography, perennial
rivers etc. are the reasons for this. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
• In Punjab & Haryana, net sown area is around
80% of the total area of the State, which is
much higher than the other States. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• South west monsoon is associated with the
Kharif cropping season. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q88. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Loca on)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I (Country)
List-II (Loca on)
A. Bahamas
1. Europe
B. Belize
2. North America
C. Macedonia
3.North Atlan c Ocean
D. Gabon
4. Africa
5. South America
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 4
1
2
(b) 1 2
5
4
(c) 3 2
1
4
(d) 1 4
5
2
Answer: C
•
•
•
•
The Bahamas, officially the Commonwealth of
The Bahamas, is a country within the Lucayan
Archipelago of the West Indies in the North
Atlan c Ocean. Hence, A is matched with 3.
Belize is a Caribbean country on the northeastern coast of Central America. Hence, B is
most appropriately matched with 2.
Macedonia is a geographical and historical
region of the Balkan Peninsula in Southeast
Europe. Hence, C is matched with 1.
Gabon, officially the Gabonese Republic, is a
country on the west coast of Central Africa.
Hence, D is matched with 4.
Q89. Going from the West of the United States of
America to its East, which one of the following is
the correct sequence of the given major
American ci es?
(a) Houston-Los Angeles-San Francisco-New York
(b) San Francisco-New York-Houston-Los Angeles
(c) Houston-New York-San Francisco-Los Angeles
(d) San Francisco-Los Angeles-Houston-New York
Answer: D
Q90. Match List-1 (Beach Resort) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Beach Resort)
List-II (State)
A. Digha
1. Kerala
B. Covelong
2. West Bengal
C. Cherai
3. Maharashtra
D. Murud-Janjira
4. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2 4
1
3
Previous year questions with solutions | 165
(b) 3 1
4
2
(c) 2 1
4
3
(d) 3 4
1
2
Answer: A
• Digha is a seaside resort town in the state of
West Bengal. Hence, A is matched with 2.
• Covelong Beach is actually Kovalam beach
that is located on the coast of the Bay of
Bengal near a village named Covelong,
Chennai. Hence, B is matched with 4.
• Cherai beach is located in Kochi Taluk, a
suburb of the city of Kochi, in the state of
Kerala. Hence, C is matched with 1.
• Murud-Janjira is the local name of a famous
fort and tourist spot situated on an island just
off the coastal town/city of Murud, in the
Raigad district of Maharashtra. Hence, D is
matched with 3.
Q91. Where are the maximum numbers of major
ports located in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: D
• Tamil Nadu has three major ports located in
its territory: Chennai port, Kamarajar Port
(Ennore) and Chidambaranar Port (Tu corin).
(e) The Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and
become narrow towards the East
Answer: A
• The height of eastern Himalayas is not lower
than of the western half. In fact, highest peaks
of Mt. Everest & Kanchenjunga etc. are
located in the eastern half. Hence, option A is
the correct answer.
• Rest three statements are correct.
Q94. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
(a) Spring tides occur on the full moon day
(b) Neap des occur on the new moon day only
(c) The West Coast of India experiences des four
mes a day
(d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs
Answer: A
• Spring des occur on full moon and new moon
days. Hence, op on A is the correct answer.
• Neap des occur near the me when the
Moon and the Sun are in quadrature. Hence,
option B is incorrect.
• West coast of India experiences des twice a
day.
• Tides do occur in Gulfs as well.
Q92. Which one of the following is not a tributary
of the river Godavari?
(a) Koyna
(b) Manjra
(c) Pranhita
(d) Wardha
Answer: A
The Koyna River is a tributary of the Krishna River.
Q95. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched.
City
River
(a) Ahmedabad :
Sabarma
(b) Hyderabad :
Musi
(c) Lucknow
:
Gomti
(d) Surat
:
Narmada
Answer: D
Surat is located on the banks of Tap river. Hence,
option D is the correct answer.
Q93. Which one of the following is not a correct
statement?
(b) The height of the Western half of the
Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern
half.
(c) The Himalayas are young fold mountains
(d) The Shivalik ranges are made of
unconsolidated river deposits
Q96. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II
(Country) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I (Famous Place)
List-II (Country)
A. Alexandria
1. Turkey
B. Blackpool Pleasure 2. Great Britain
Beach
C. Constan nople
3. Italy
Previous year questions with solutions | 166
D. Florence
4. Greece
5. Egypt
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 1 3
4
2
(b) 5 2
1
3
(c) 1 2
4
3
(d) 5 3
1
2
Answer: B
• Alexandria is a historical city located on the
Mediterranean coast of Egypt. Hence, A is
matched with 5.
• Blackpool Pleasure Beach is an amusement
park situated on Blackpool's South Shore, in
the county of Lancashire, North West
England. Hence, B is matched with 2.
• Constan nople was the capital of the Roman
Empire, and later, the Eastern Roman Empire
(also known as the Byzan ne Empire), the
La n Empire (1204–1261), and the O oman
Empire (1453–1922). Officially renamed
Istanbul in 1930, the city is today the largest
city and financial centre of the Republic of
Turkey (1923–present). It remains the largest
city in Europe. Hence, C is matched with 1.
• Florence is a city in Central Italy. Hence, D is
matched with 3.
Q97. Consider the following statements:
1. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a World Heritage
Site recognized by the UNESCO.
2. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth
bear and hoolock gibbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
• Kaziranga Na onal Park is located in the
Golaghat and Nagaon districts of the state of
Assam.
• The park, which hosts two-thirds of the
world's great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a
UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
•
Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth
bear and hoolock gibbon. Hence, statement 2
is also correct.
Q98. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (Location)
and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Indian Ins tute of Public Administra on
B. V.V. Giri Na onal Labour Ins tute
C. National Ins tute of Financial Management
D. National Law School of India University
List-II (Loca on)
1. Fardiabad
2. Bangalore
3. NOIDA
4. Mumbai
5. Delhi
Code:
A B C
D
(a) 1 2
4
3
(b) 5 3
1
2
(c) 1 3
4
2
(d) 5 2
1
3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Institutes
Headquarters
Indian Institute of Public Delhi
Administration
V. V. Giri National Labour Noida
Institute
National Ins tute of Financial Faridabad
Management
National Law School of India Mumbai
University
Q99. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in
Najaf located?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Iraq
(c) Iran
(d) Kuwait
Answer: B
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 167
•
Imam Ali Shrine, the holiest site of Shia
Muslims and one of the most important
sites of Najaf. Najaf is located in Iraq.
Q100. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in
news recently?
(a) Americans bombed the terrorist training
camps set up over there by the Janaweed
mili amen of Sudan
(b) Thousands of black African civilians were
killed or displaced by the Janaweeds who
are supported by the Arab-dominated
Sudan's Government
(c) Bird flu started from there
(d) A dam over the river Blue Nile was swept
away killing thousands of people
Answer: B
Explanation:
• In 2003, Sudanese government forces
launched the first of 2 major offensives
against rebels in Darfur.
• In 2004, the US State Department
accused
Sudan
of
joining
its
government military forces with the
Arab Janjaweed (“men with guns on
horses or camels”) militias to target and
carry out genocidal violence against
African tribal villages populated by
Black Africans.
Q101. What was the total expenditure on
educa on both by the Central and State
Governments during the year 2002-03 as an
approximate percentage of the Gross Domes c
Product?
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q102. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Na ons Organisa on:
1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no
member-nation has veto power.
2 In the Security Council, all permanent
members must vote in the affirma ve if a
resolu on is to pass.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• All five permanent members have
exercised the right of veto at one me or
another.
• Decisions of the Security Council on
procedural ma ers shall be made by an
affirmative vote of nine members.
• Decisions of the Security Council on all
other ma ers shall be made by an
affirmative vote of nine members including
the concurring votes of the permanent
members
Q103. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Census 2001 of India:
1. For the first me, the country has
witnessed a faster growth in female
Previous year questions with solutions | 168
literary compared to that of males during
the decade 1991-2001.
2. During the decade 1991-2001, the ruralurban literacy gap con nued to diverge
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b)
2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• As per the Census 2001, The literacy rate
recorded an increase of 13.17 percentage
points to from 1991 to 2001, the highest
increase in any one decade.
• During the decade the 1991-2001, ruralurban literacy gap con nued to diverge:
o The rate of growth of literacy in the
decade ending 2001 has been
higher in the rural areas, at 14.75
per cent as compared to the 7.2 per
cent increase in urban areas.
Despite
these
improvements
literacy in urban areas was 80.3 per
cent and that in rural areas 59.4 per
cent.
Q104. Match List-I (Railway Zone) with List-II
(Headquarters) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Railway Zone)
A. East-Central Railway
B. North-Western Railway
C. North-Central Railway
D. South-Western Railway
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Hubli
2. Allahabad
3. Hajipur
4. Jabalpur
5. Jaipur
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
5
2
1
(b) 2
1
4
5
(c) 3
1
2
5
(d) 2
5
4
1
Answer: A
Explanation
Railway Zone
East-Central Railway
North-Western Railway
North-Central Railway
South-Western Railway
Headquarter
Hajipur
Jaipur
Allahabad
(Prayagraj)
Hubli
Q105. Consider the following statements:
1. The average popula on density of India is
between 600-700 persons per square
kilometer.
2. 2002-2007 is the dura on of the Tenth
Five-Year Plan.
3. Installed electricity genera on capacity in
India is in excess of 2 lakh Megawa .
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: As the ques on is based on latest trends,
students are advised to prepare the latest trends
related to important parameters (Like GPD,
Infla on, Electricity genera on etc.) for the
examina on.
Explanation:
• As per the latest Data of the government for
July 2022, Total Installed electricity genera on
of India is 4,03,760 MW.
• Tenth Five Year Plan was implemented during
the dura on of 2002-2007 with following
targets:
o Attain 8% GDP growth per year.
o Reduc on of poverty rate by 5% by
2007.
o Providing gainful and high-quality
employment at least to the addi on to
the labour force.
o Reduc on in gender gaps in literacy
and wage rates by at least 50% by 2007.
o 20-point program was introduced.
Previous year questions with solutions | 169
o Target growth: 8.1% – growth
achieved: 7.7%.
o The Tenth Plan was expected to follow
a regional approach rather than
sectoral approach to bring down
regional inequali es.
o Expenditure of ₹43,825 crore (US$5.5
billion) for tenth five years.
Q106. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (City)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth
B. Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda
Vidya Prathishthan
C. Central Ins tute of Indian Languages
D. Central Ins tute of English and Foreign
Language
List-II (City)
1. Hyderabad
2. Varanasi
3. Mysore
4. Tirupa
5. Ujjain
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
3
1
5
(b) 4
5
3
1
(c) 2
5
3
1
(d) 4
3
1
5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Institutes
City
Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth Tirupati
Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Ujjain
Veda Vidya Prathishthan
Central Ins tute of Indian Mysore
Languages
Central Ins tute of English and Hyderabad
Foreign Language
Q107. Who among the following are the Bharat
Ratna recipients?
1. Amartya Sen
2. Gulzari Lal Nanda
3. M.S. Swaminathan
4. Satyajit Ray
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation
Recipient of Bharat Ratan Year
Award
Satyajit Ray
1992
Gulzarilal Nanda
1997
Amratya Sen
1999
Q108. Match List-I (Outstanding Sports persons
at the Athens Olympics) with List-II (Country) and
select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List-I (Outstanding Sports persons at the
Athens Olympics)
A. Michael Phelps
B. Ian Thorpe
C. Yulia Nesterenko
D. Nicolas Massu
List-II (Country)
1. Belarus
2. United States of America
3. Australia
4. Chile
5. Sweden
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
1
3
(b) 1
3
5
4
(c) 2
3
1
4
(d) 1
4
5
3
Answer: C
Explanation
Athlete
Country
Event
Michael Phelp
United
Swimming
States of
America
Ian Thorpe
Australia
Swimming
Previous year questions with solutions | 170
Yulia Nesterenko
Nicolas Massu
Belarus
Chile
Athlete
T ennis
Q109. Who won the 100-metre race for men in
the Athens Olympics in August, 2004?
(a) Maurice Greene
(b) Jus ne Gatlin
(c) Asafa Powell
(d) Francis Obekwelu
Answer: B
Explanation
• Justine Gatlin has won the Gold Medal for
Men’s 100 metre race for men in Athens
Olympics 2004.
Q110. Who among the following Indian film
directors/actors was honoured with the Order of
the Bri sh Empire (OBE) in year 2004?
(a) Naseeruddin Shah
(b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Shekhar Kapoor
(d) Om Puri
Answer: D
Explanation
• Om Puri has honorary Officer of the
Order of the British Empire (OBE) in
2004 for his contributions to the British film
industry.
Q111. Match List-I (Dis nguished Women) with
List-II (Known As) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Distinguished Women)
A. Maria Sharapova
B. Aung San Suu Kyi
C. Asma Jahangir
D. Norah Jones
List-II (Known As)
1. Human rights ac vist
2. Political leader
3. Singer
4. Sportsperson
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
2
3
4
(b) 4
3
2
1
(c) 1
3
2
4
(d) 4
2
1
Answer: D
Explanation
Person
Maria Sharapova
Aung San Suu Kyi
Asma Jahangir
Norah Jones
3
Profession
T ennis
Myanmar
Politician
Pakistan
Human Right
Activist
American
Singer
Q112. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book) and
select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List-I (Author)
A. Bill Clinton
B. Henry Kissinger
C. Nelson Mandela
D. Hillary Clinton
List-II (Book)
1. Between Hope and History
2. Living History
3. Diplomacy
4. Long Walk to Freedom
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
3
1
(b) 1
3
4
2
(c) 2
3
4
1
(d) 1
4
3
2
Answer: D
Explanation
Book
Author
Between Hope and History
Bill Clinton
Living History
Hillary
Clinton
Diplomacy
Nelson
Mandela
Long Walk to Freedom
Henry
Kissinger
Previous year questions with solutions | 171
Q113. Match List-1 (Dis nguished Women) with
List-II (Known As/Area) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dis nguished Women)
A. Shanta Sinha
B. Kalpana Lajmi
C. Romila Thapar
D. Radha Reddy
List-II (Known As/Area)
1. Film Direc on
2. Community Leadership
3. Dancer
4. Historian
5. Business-woman
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 4
3
5
1
(c) 2
3
4
1
(d) 4
1
5
3
Answer: D
Explanation
Women
Area
Shanta Sinha
Community Leadership
She is an Indian anti-child
labour activist.
She is the founder of
Mamidipudi
Venkatarangaiya
Foundation
Kalpana Lajmi
Film Director
She was an Indian film
director, producer and
screenwriter.
Romila Thapar
Historians
She is an Indian historian.
Her principal area of
study is ancient India, a
field in which she is preeminent.
Radha Reddy
Indian Kuchipudi Dancer
Q114. Asser on (A): In its Global Development
Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has
categorised India as a less indebted country for the
year 2002.
Reason (R): During the last decade, India’s
outstanding external debt has considerable
reduced.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not
the correct explana on of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: Latest Edi on of the Reports released by
Interna onal Organiza ons are important for the
examina on, in these reports India Specific
Findings are the most important for the
examina on.
Q115. Consider the following statements:
India had plan holiday during 1966-69 due to
1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
2. Severe drought for two successive years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The government had to declare "Plan
Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).
The Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pak
War of 1965, which caused the Third Five Year
Plan to fail, were the primary causes of the
plan holidays. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• During 1966-67, there was the problem of
drought but it was not the reason behind the
plan holiday. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Therefore, A is the right answer.
Q116. Consider the following statements:
1. The members of the Employees' Provident
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Insurance Scheme.
Previous year questions with solutions | 172
2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was
introduced for the industrial workers.
3. Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
restricted to establishments employing 20 or
more persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The members of the Employees' Provident
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Insurance Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• The Employee's Pension Scheme (EPS) was
introduced in the year 1995 with the main
aim of helping employees in the organised
sector. All employees who are eligible for the
Employees Provident Fund (EPF) scheme will
also be eligible for EPS. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.
• Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
restricted to establishments employing 20 or
more persons. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• Therefore, C is the right answer.
Q117. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explanation of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Asser on (A): In the organiza onal structure of
the modern companies, the trend is towards wider
span of control.
Reason (R): Narrow span of control discourages
autonomy.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Span of control or span of management is
a dimension of organiza onal design
measured by the number of subordinates
that report directly to a given manager.
• This concept affects organiza on design in
a variety of ways, including speed of
communication
flow,
employee
motiva on, repor ng rela onships, and
administra ve overhead.
Span
of
management has been part of the
historical discussion regarding the most
appropriate design and structure of
organiza ons.
• A small, or narrow, span of control results
in each manager supervising a small
number of employees, while a wide span of
management
occurs
when
more
subordinates report directly to a given
manager.
• A small span of management would make
it necessary to have more managers and
more layers of management to oversee the
same number of opera ve employees than
would be necessary for an organiza on
using a wider span of management. The
narrower span of management would
result in more layers of management and
slower communica ons between lowerlevel employees and top level managers of
the firm. Recent moves to downsize
organiza ons
and
to
eliminate
unnecessary posi ons has resulted in
many organiza ons moving to wider
spans of management and the elimina on
of layers of middle-level managers.
Previous year questions with solutions | 173
•
•
•
The trend in recent years has been to
move toward wider spans of control to
reduce costs, speed decision making,
increase flexibility and empower
employees. Therefore, asser on is
correct.
A narrow span of control also discourages
autonomy among employees since every
employee is closely guided by a supervisor
since every supervisor has very few
subordinates to supervise. Therefore,
reason is also correct.
Hence the correct answer will be op on A.
Q118. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
•
•
Asser on (A): Unity of command cannot always
be strictly applied in prac ce.
Reason (R): Workers should report to different
supervisors for different aspects or tasks technical,
financial, administra ve etc.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Unity of command: An employee should
receive orders from only one superior as
shown in the figure below.
•
•
This principle is against the Taylor’s
func onal foremanship where mul ple
superiors oversee the subordinate. As per
Fayol if there is no unity of command it will
lead to conflict as subordinate will never
know whom to obey. Adop on of this
principle leads to clarity about work
whereas viola on will lead to confusion
about what to do and what not to do.
However, Unity of command cannot
always be strictly applied in prac ce,
because no manager has all the required
skills. For example, a marke ng manager
will not have the knowledge regarding the
work done in the produc on department.
Therefore, if an employee of marke ng
employee has a doubt regarding
production department, in that case, the
employee is bound to visit the produc on
manager and that is a grave viola on of
unity of command. Therefore, asser on is
correct.
Moreover, globaliza on has forced the
Indian companies to create mul ple
business divisions, and therefore workers
should report to different supervisors for
different aspects or tasks technical,
financial, administra ve etc. and that will
lead to a higher specializa on in the work
profile of different employees. Therefore,
reason is also correct.
Hence the correct answer will be op on A.
Previous year questions with solutions | 174
Q119. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explanation of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Asser on (A): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
is useful in a manufacturing company. It does not
find application in service industry.
Reason (R): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
enables a high level of interac on and
coordina on along the supply chain.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Enterprise resource planning (ERP) is a
platform companies use to manage and
integrate the essen al parts of their
businesses.
Many
ERP
so ware
applica ons are cri cal to companies
because they help them implement
resource planning by integra ng all the
processes needed to run their companies
with a single system.
•
•
ERP applica ons also allow the different
departments to communicate and share
informa on more easily with the rest of
the company. It collects informa on about
the ac vity and state of different divisions,
making this informa on available to other
parts, where it can be used produc vely.
An ERP so ware system can also integrate
planning, purchasing inventory, sales,
marke ng, finance, human resources, and
more.
•
•
•
ERP so ware can be used by variety of
companies, ERP so ware has expanded to
include nearly all types of businesses.
Typically, each company will have its own
specific reasons to implement an ERP
solution. Therefore, assertion is incorrect.
he components of an ERP system depend
on the organiza on's needs. However,
there are key features that each ERP
should include. Generally, packages
include finance, human resource, logis cs
and
manufacturing,
supply
chain
management, and customer rela onship
management and ERP also streamlines
various components of the Supply chain,
therefore the reason is correct.
Hence the correct answer will be op on D.
Previous year questions with solutions | 175
Q120. Consider the following statements
concerning United Arab Emirates:
1. Oman is one of the seven Emirates which form
the United Arab Emirates.
2. Dubai is the capital of United Arab Emirates.
3. Fishing and tourism are the key industries of
United Arab Emirates.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The United Arab Emirates is an elec ve
monarchy formed from a federa on of seven
emirates.
•
•
•
UAE’s seven emirates are Abu Dhabi, Dubai,
Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al
Khaimah and Fujairah. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
Abu Dhabi is the capital city of Dubai. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
Fishing and tourism are the key industries of
United Arab Emirates. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2002
PART- A
SPOTTING ERRORS
Direc ons (for the next Five items) :
i.
In this sec on a number of sentences are
given. Each sentence has three underlined
parts. indicated by (a), (b) and (c). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is an error.
ii.
If you find an error in any one of the underlined
parts (a, b, c), indicate your response by
blackening the le er related to that part in the
Answer Sheet provided. If a sentence has no
error. indicate this by blackening (d) which
stands for "No error".
Errors may belong to grammar, usage or idiom.
Examples P and Q have been solved for you
P. (a) My friend and myself
(b) Study together
(c) During holidays
(d) No error
Q. (a) The rice from Dehradun is
(b) More superior
(c) To that of Saharanpur
(d) No error
Explanation: The correct answer for P is le er 'd'
because the sentence has no mistake in it. The
correct answer for Q is 'b' because the mistake in
the sentence is in the part carrying the le er 'b'.
Mrupal.org
Q1. (a) Choose only
(b) Such friends
(c) That you can trust
(d) No error
Q2. (a) While he was digging sand
(b) a large mass fell
(c) and buried him completely
(d) No error
Q3. (a) The book is well printed and a rac vely
bound
(b) making together
(c) an a rac ve volume
(d) No error
Q4. (a) A li le younger
(b) to myself we, both were
(c) devoted to cricket and boa ng
(d) No error
Q5. (a) He had no sooner
(b) arrived than
Previous year questions with solutions | 176
(c) he was asked to leave again
(d) No error
Direc ons (for the next three items):
Select the most suitable word from (a), (b), (c)
and (d) given below each sentence to fill in the
blanks
Q6. The Rajputs always fought _____________
the last man.
(a) upto
(b)
ll
(c) to
(d)
for
Q7. I have been surfing internet._________ the
last two hours.
(a) since
(b)
for
(c) from
(d)
right from
Q8. You should be considerate __________ your
employees and I assure you of your success in
every walk of life.
(a) for
(b)
to
(c) upon
(d)
on
Direc ons (for the Five items which follow):
Match words in Last I with the words/group of
words in the List-II such that they convey the
same meaning or sense. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists
Q9. List-I
A. Obsequious
B. Obstreperous
C. Inveterate
D. Impecunious
List-II
1. Dishonest
2. Having li le or no money
3. Too willing to obey
4. Noisy and unruly
5. Deep-rooted
6. Fearless
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3
4
5
2
(b) 2
6
5
3
(c) 3
6
1
2
(d) 2
4
1
3
Q10. List-I
A. Cadaverous
B. Prodigal
C. Decadence
D. Gratuitous
List-II
1. Falling to lower moral level
2. Jubila on
3. Something done or given unnecessarily
4. Looking very pale
5. Stout or well-built
6. Extravagant
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
5
1
6
(b) 1
6
2
3
(c) 4
6
1
3
(d) 1
5
2
6
Q11. List-I
A. Dile ante
B. Profligate
C. Prescient
D. Parochial
List-II
1. A person with futuris c vision
2. Miserly
3. A person who studies or does something
without
serious
interest
or
understanding
4. To show narrow interest
5. Wasteful
6. Pungent remarks
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 6
4
2
3
(b) 3
5
1
4
(c) 6
5
2
4
(d) 3
4
1
5
Q12. List-I
A. Iconoclast
B. Humdinger
C. Mar net
D. Callow
List-II
1. Immature and inexperienced
Previous year questions with solutions | 177
2. Person who a acks established customs
3. Excellent person or thing
4. Popular leader
5. Mysterious plot
6. Person who imposes strict discipline
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 6
3
4
1
(b) 2
5
6
3
(c) 6
5
4
3
(d) 2
3
6
1
Q13. List-I
A. Adjunct
B. Contiguous
C. Consanguine
D. Recluse
List-II
1. Same family rela onship
2. Diametrically opposite places
3. A person who has withdrawn from
society
4. Enthusias c person
5. Thing that is less important and not
essen al
6. Neighbouring
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 5
1
2
3
(b) 4
6
1
5
(c) 5
6
1
3
(d) 4
1
2
5
Direc ons (for the Five items which follow): Each
of the following five items carries a phrase/idiom.
Select the correct answer out of the four given
choices (a), (b), (c) or (d) which conveys the
closest meaning of the given phrase/idiom.
Q14. The world is one's oyster
(a) One feels that nobody in the world would
help him/her.
(b) The feeling one gets when he lands in an
unfamiliar country.
(c) One is able to enjoy all the pleasures and
opportuni es that life has to offer.
(d) When one has an uphill task to perform
Q15. To go for the jugular?
(a) To work very hard for the success.
(b) To make a fierce destruc ve a ack on the
weakest point in an opponent’s
argument.
(c) To go in for the costliest thing.
(d) To go in for dishonest means.
Q16. To follow the primrose path
(a) To follow one's objec ves very
steadfastly.
(b) To go on wandering.
(c) To trek to the mountains.
(d) To go in for pursuit of pleasure or an easy
life.
Q17. A bee in one's bonnet
(a) To be very enterprising
(b) To be very mid and shy
(c) To have an imprac cal idea
(d) To have a par cular idea which occupies
one's thoughts con nually
Q18. To take a rain-check
(a) To decline an offer but promise to accept
it later.
(b) To go through the weather report.
(c) To proceed on sightseeing.
(d) To take to farming as a source of
livelihood.
COMPREHENSION
Direc ons:
In this sec on you have one short passage. A er
the passage you will find several ques ons based
on the passage. First, read Passage and answer the
ques ons based on it. Examples I and J are solved
for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragma c or
otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely
and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security
and happiness. Different forms of life at different
levels of existence make up the teeming denizens
of this earth of ours. And, no ma er whether they
belong to the higher groups such as human beings
Previous year questions with solutions | 178
or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings
primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is
as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even
the lowliest insect strives for protec on against
dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of
us wants to live and not to die, so do all other
creatures.
I.
The author's main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible
in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of
all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to
preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assump ons or
steps is essen al in developing the author's
position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding
goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is
iden fied with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and
lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness
and life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author's main
point is 'peace and security are the chief goals
of all living beings', which is response (c). So 'c'
is the correct answer.
J. The best assump on underlying the passage is
'The will to survive of a creature is iden fied
with a desire for peace', which is response (b).
So 'b' is the correct answer.
PASSAGE
When you buy a car, examine carefully the
important features of the model you are
considering. Many a buyer of the latest models has
got into trouble by buying a car too broad or too
long for his garage. Furthermore a long car is much
harder to manoeuvre in traffic and much more
difficult to park. Another feature is the comfort
afforded. Are the seats nice and durably
upholstered? Is there enough glass area to give the
driver a good view in all direc ons, par cularly to
the rear? It should be remembered that the
heavier and more powerful a car is, the more
expensive it will be to operate. High powered
motors require expensive high-octane petrol. The
greater weight means greater tyre wear and
enlarged brakes. The old cliché is s ll true; it is not
the ini al cost but the upkeep which ma ers!
Q19. According to this passage, the two factors
that the buyer of a new car should keep in mind
are
(a) its price and size
(b) its model and upholstery
(c) its size and the comfort it offers
(d) its upholstery and glass area
Q20. The size of the car should be in accordance
with
(a) the money one can afford to pay
(b) the size of the garage the buyer has
(c) the width of the road where the buyer
lives
(d) the volume of traffic on the road
Q21. The writer favours a car with a wide glass
area so that the driver can
(a) enjoy the scene outside while driving
(b) have a good view of the rear
(c) roll down the glasspanes to get enough
fresh air
(d) display his beau ful upholstery with pride
Q22. It is very expensive to maintain a large car
because it
(a) is heavy
(b) requires more space for parking
(c) needs changing its tyres more frequently
(d) needs more durable upholstery
Q23. While buying a new car, one should specially
consider its
(a) price
(b) maintenance cost
(c) upholstery
(d) brakes
Direc ons (for the next Four items):
In this sec on you find a number of sentences,
parts of which are underlined. You may also find
Previous year questions with solutions | 179
only a group of words which is underlined. For
each underlined part, four words/phrases are
listed below. Choose the word/phrase nearest in
meaning to the underlined part.
Example E is solved for you.
E.
His style is quite transparent.
(a) verbose
(b) involved
(c) lucid
(d) wi y
Explanation: In item E the word "lucid" is nearest
in meaning to the word "transparent". So 'c' is the
correct answer.
Q24. I rather like the quaint li le house at the end
of the street.
(a) old
(b) quiet
(c) unusual
(d) haunted
Q25. If she con nues to spend her me in such a
frivolous manner, she will fail in her
examina ons.
(a) frigh ul
(b) leisurely
(c) non-serious
(d) calculated
Q26. Sanguine as he is in his a tude to life and
its problems, he cannot but be no ced wherever
he goes.
(a) optimis c
(b) enthusias c
(c) realis c
(d) dispassionate
Q27. One's remonstration against social ills has to
be consistent to be fruitful.
(a) outrage
(b) demonstra on
(c) protest
(d) cri cism
Direc ons (for the next Three items):
ANTONYMS
In this sec on each item consists of a word or a
phrase which is underlined in the sentence given.
It is followed by four words or phrases. Select the
word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in
meaning of the underlined word or phrase.
Example F has been solved for you.
F.
Lucy is a smart girl.
(a)
lazy
(b)
ac ve
(c)
indecent
(d)
casual
Explanation: The word which is nearest to the
opposite in meaning of the underlined word.
"smart" is "lazy". So 'a' is the correct answer.
Q28. The advice rendered to him sounded to be
quite sagacious.
(a) stupid
(b) shallow
(c) imprac cable
(d) insincere
Q29. The Indian cultural fair was held at Rome in
a grandiose manner.
(a) unobtrusive
(b) unimposing
(c) unimpressive
(d) simple
Q30. His voice sounded haughty when I spoke to
him over the telephone.
(a) pleasant
(b) humble
(c) so
(d) cheerful
Previous year questions with solutions | 180
Part - B
Q31. The device to convert alterna ng current
into direct current is
(a) Transformer
(b) Rec fier
(c) Alternator
(d) Condenser
Q32. Combus on of a candle is a
(a) Photochemical reac on
(b) Exothermic reac on
(c) Physical change
(d) Endothermic reac on
Q33. Which of the following is a chemical
compound?
(a) Air
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Mercury
Q34. A and B ran over a distance star ng from the
same place. The distance-time graph is shown:
Q35. Consider the following statements
regarding the Nuclear Power Programme of India
:
1. Pressurised heavy water reactors have been set
up at Kaiga (Karnataka) and Rawatbhata
(Rajasthan).
2. Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata is one
of the five Research Centres under the
Department of Science and Technology.
3. India has a vast resource of Thorium and the
third stage of Indian Nuclear Power Programme
envisages the use of Thorium for power
genera on.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q36. Carbohydrates are stored in the body as
(a) Sugars
(b) Starch
(c) Glucose
(d) Glycogen
Q37. Bacteria and viruses cause
(a) Allergies
(b) Non-communicable diseases
(c) Degenera ve diseases
(d) Infec ous diseases
Consider the following statements:
1. A ran throughout the given period of me with
uniform velocity.
2. A ran throughout the given period of me with
uniform accelera on.
3. B stopped running a er 2 hours.
4. A ran faster than B near the 2-hr stage.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q38. Substances which are obtained from micro
organisms but used to destroy micro organisms
are
(a) An gens
(b) An bio cs
(c) An bodies
(d) An sep cs
Direc ons: The following Two (8 & 9) items consist
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
Previous year questions with solutions | 181
your answers to these items using the Codes given.
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Q39. Assertion (A): A bus and a car (with lower
weight than that of the bus) moving at the same
velocity, are brought to rest on a level road by
applying brakes which exert same retarding force.
The car will travel lesser distance before coming to
rest.
Reason (R): The kine c energy to be destroyed is
equal to the work done by the retarding force.
Q40. Asser on (A): A train has come out of the
platform and is accelera ng. If a person si ng in
the train and facing engine, throws up a coin, it will
fall ahead of him.
Reason (R): A force acts on the coin whose
magnitude is equal to the product of the mass of
the coin and accelera on of the train.
Q41. Consider the following statements:
1. Intel's Pen um IV is an opera ng system used
in PCs.
2. During boo ng period of a PC, the opera ng
system is first loaded.
3. Analogue computers are useful only in
scien fic field while digital computers have
applica on in scien fic as well as in business,
administra ve func ons.
4. Micro-computer is another name for microprocessor.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Median
Second quar le
5th Décile
All the above three
Q43. A town 'P' is located in a par cular district.
The town 'A' is west of 'P'. Town 'T' is east of 'P'.
Town 'K' is east of 'B' but west of 'T' and 'A'. They
are all in the same district. Which town is the
farthest west?
(a) P
(b) K
(c) B
(d) A
Q44. A factory has three belt conveyors fi ed in
its loading sta on. Conveyors 'A' and 'B'
opera ng simultaneously li all the goods in the
same me during which the goods can be li ed
by the conveyor 'C' opera ng alone. Conveyor 'B'
li s all the goods five hours faster than conveyor
'A' but four hours slower than the conveyor 'C'
The dura ons of me required to li all the
goods, individually by the conveyors 'A', 'B' and
'C' are
(a) 17, 12, 8 hrs.
(b) 15, 10, 6 hrs.
(c) 16, 11, 7 hrs.
(d) 14, 9, 5 hrs.
Q45. According to a certain code
*
means 'greater than'
+
means 'less than'
÷
means 'equal to'
% means 'plus'
If A * X, B ÷ Z, Y + C; then the rela on. between
ABC and XYZ is
(a) ABC + XYZ
(b) (ABC % XYZ) * (2XYZ)
(c) (2XYZ) * (ABC % XYZ)
Q42. Which positional value divides the series
into equal parts?
(d) (ABC/3) + (XYZ/4)
Previous year questions with solutions | 182
Q46. What is the maximum number of pieces 1
cm in diameter and 20 cm long that can be
cut out of a cylindrical wooden block 20 cm
in length and 3 cm in diameter?
(a) 4
(a) Pune
(c) 6
(b) Warangal
(d) 7
(c) Bangalore
Q47. A group of boys decided to buy a few
casse es whose price was between Rs.200/and Rs.250/-. But at the me of purchase,
two of the boys declined to contribute as a
result of which the remaining boys had to
pay Rs. 1/- more than they had originally
planned. What was the price of the casse es
if the boys contributed equally and in whole
number of rupees?
(a) Rs. 220/(b) Rs. 210/(c) Rs. 230/(d) Rs. 240/Direc ons (for next Five items): Sumeet, Philips,
Wasim, Bishan and Chetan are five players of
the College Cricket team and their home
towns are Surat, Pune, Warangal, Bangalore
and Chandigarh but not in that order. The
five specialist slots of spinner, pace bowler,
wicket-keeper, batsman and the captain are
held by them, again not in the order of their
names stated above.
(i) Their names, home towns and the speciali es
do not start with the same le er.
(ii) Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain and
they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore.
(iv)
(vi) The captain's hometown is Pune while the
batsman does not hail from Warangal.
Q48. The spinner's hometown is
(b) 5
(iii)
(v) The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicket-keeper
Sumeet is neither a wicket-keeper nor a
batsman.
Pune is not Bishan's home town.
(d) Chandigarh
Q49. Chandigarh is hometown of
(a) Philips
(b) Wasim
(c) Bishan
(d) Sumeet
Q50. Who is the pace bowler?
(a) Bishan
(b) Sumeet
(c) Wasim
(d) Chetan
Q51. Who is the spinner?
(a) Wasim
(b) Bishan
(c) Chetan
(d) Philips
Q52. Chetan's hometown is
(a) Bangalore
(b) Warangal
(c) Surat
(d) Pune
Q53. A and B stand in a circular ring with 10
other persons. If the arrangement of 12
Previous year questions with solutions | 183
persons is randomly done, the chance, that
there are exactly 3 persons between A and B
is
(a) 3/12
(b) 2/11
(c) 2/13
(d) 3/11
Q54. 15 men can complete a work in 280 days.
They started the work and a er every 10
days, 15 addi onal men were employed. In
how many days the work was completed?
(a) 70 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 55 days
(d) 50 days
Q55. Bag 'A' contains 5 white and 2 black balls.
Bag 'B' contains 2 white and 3 black balls. If
any one bag is chosen and a ball is taken out
of it at random, what is the probability that
the ball is black?
(d) 4:1
Q57. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
probability that the product of the two
numbers on the two dice is an even number
is
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/4
(c) 5/16
(d) 3/8
Q58. The flowers in a basket become double
every minute and the basket gets full in one
hour. In how much me, the basket was 1/32
full?
(a) 12 minutes
(b) 32 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 55 minutes
(a) 31/70
Q59. If X is mortal, Y is wise. If Z is not good, A
will suffer. Y is not wise, if A suffers. If B is a
slave, X is immortal. If A suffers, what
follows?
(b) 1/2
(a) X is mortal
(c) 5/12
(b) B is a slave
(d) 3/5
(c) Z is good
Q56. Three containers have their volumes in the
ra o 3: 4: 5. They are full of mixtures of milk
and water. The mixtures contain milk and
water in the ra o of 4:1, 3:1 and 5:2
respec vely. The contents of all these three
containers are poured into a fourth
container. The ra o of milk and water in the
fourth container is
(d) Y is wise
(a) 5:2
(b) 157: 53
(c) 151 48
Q60. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take
tea while 9 take tea but not coffee. How
many persons in this group take coffee but
not tea?
(a) 27
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 11
Previous year questions with solutions | 184
Q61. How many lines other than those shown in
the figure are required to join each comer
with another?
(a) red
(b) white
(c) green
(d) blue
(a) 56
(b) 48
(c) 20
(d) 32
Q62. Two pipes 'A' and 'B' can fill a tank in 15
minutes and 20 minutes respec vely. Both
the pipes are opened together but a er 4
minutes, pipe 'A' is turned off. What is the
total time required to fill the tank?
(a) 12 mt 30 sec
(b) 14 mt 40 sec
(c) 10 mt 20 sec
(d) 11 mt 45 sec
Direc ons (For next Two items): A cube has six
faces, each of a different colour. The red face
is opposite to black. The green face is
between red and black. The blue face is
adjacent to white. The brown face is
adjacent to blue. The red face is the bo om
most face.
Q63. The four colours adjacent to green are
(a) red, black, blue and white
(b) red, black, brown and blue
(c) red, black, brown and white
(d) red, brown, blue and white
Q64. The face opposite to the brown face is
Q65. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of
Lok Sabha and State Legisla ve Assemblies
from 5 years to 6 years
(b) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on
the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya
Sabha
(d) One third members of the Rajya Sabha re re
on the expiry of every third year
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. For the three All-India Services, there are 24
State cadres including three joint cadres.
2. Union Public Service Commission is the cadre
controlling authority for Indian Administra ve
Service.
3. Staff Selec on Commission is entrusted with
the task of making recruitment to all the Group
'B' and Group 'C' posts under the Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q67. Consider the following statements:
1. Part 'B' of the Budget speech of the finance
minister includes descrip on of the ini a ves
on economic front to be taken up by the
Government for the coming year in addi on to
direct and indirect tax proposals.
2. The receipts on account of the par al
disinvestment of Central Government's
holdings in the equity capital of public sector
enterprises are revenue receipts.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Previous year questions with solutions | 185
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q68. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Q69. Assertion (A): Point of order is raised to
cri cize a policy of the government.
Reason (R): It is an important tool of legisla ve
control.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Q70. Who of the following is the Chairman of
Planning Commission in India?
(a) Finance Minister of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India
(d) Home Minister of India
Q71. Who among the following became the
President of India without having been the Vice –
President?
(a) Shri V. V. Giri
(b) Shri Venkataraman
(c) Shri N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Shri Zakir Hussain
(b) Yuan Chwang
(c) Fa Hien
(d) Nicolo Con
Q74. Who among the following was a great
protagonist of the 'Doctrine of Lapse'?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Wellesley
Q75. Chauri Chaura is known in the history of
India's struggle for freedom because
(a) Gandhiji launched his first Satyagraha in India
from this place
(b) Gandhiji withdrew his Satyagraha movement
when an irate mob set fire to a police sta on
and burnt some policemen
(c) Hundreds of freedom fighters were shot dead
at this place by the police
(d) Gandhiji sat on a hunger strike
Q76. The 'Grand Trunk Road' connects
(a) Kolkata and Mumbai
(b) Delhi and Chennai
(c) Kolkata and Amritsar
(d) Tirupa and Ludhiana
Q77. The Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930
culminated in the signing of a pact in 1931 by
Gandhiji and
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Wavell
(d) Lord Curzon
Q72. Nalanda University flourished during the
reign of which of the following rulers?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) Harsha
Q78. Dhanvantari was
(a) a famous General of Chandragupta Maurya
(b) a noted physician in the Court of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya
(c) a famous drama st who lived during the me
of Harsha
(d) a musician in the Court of Ashoka
Q73. The foreign traveller who visited India
during Vijayanagar period was?
(a) Megasthenes
Q79. Which leader is called the ‘father' of India's
social reform movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
Previous year questions with solutions | 186
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) G.K. Gokhale
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
(b) San Francisco-Salt Lake City-Pi sburgh-Boston
(c) Salt Lake City-San Francisco-Boston-Pi sburgh
(d) San Francisco-Pi sburgh-Salt Lake City-Boston
Q80. Match List-I. (Classical Dance Form) with
List-II (State) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
LIST I (Classical Dance
LIST II (State)
Form)
E. Bharat Natyam
5. Odisha
F. Kathakali
6. Tamil Nadu
G. Kuchipudi
7. Manipur
8. Andhra Pradesh
9. Kerala
Code:
A
B
C
(a)
4
3
1
(b)
2
5
4
(c)
4
5
1
(d)
2
3
4
Q84. La tude of a place is indicative of its
(a) me
(b) altitude
(c) amount of rainfall
(d) temperature
Q81. Consider the following statements :
1. Bermuda situated in Western Atlan c Ocean
is a United Kingdom Overseas Territory.
2. 38th Parallel divided boundary between North
and South Vietnam before unifica on.
3. Bahamas situated near Florida is one of the
states of USA.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Q82. Consider the following statements :
1. Falkland Islands are situated in Pacific Ocean.
2. Red Sea separates Sudan from Egypt.
3. England, Norway, Denmark surround North Sea.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q83. Which is the correct sequence of the given
American ci es from West to East?
(a) Salt Lake City-Pi sburgh-San Francisco-Boston
Q85. Consider the following statements :
1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical proper es and
is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops.
2. Black soil is suitable for co on, groundnut.
3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after sowing
in June.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Q86. Consider the following statements : While it
is 6:30 AM (Sunday) in London, it is around
1. 2.30 AM (Sunday) in Honolulu (Hawaii)
2. 8.30 PM (Saturday) in Honolulu (Hawaii)
3. 3.30 PM (Sunday) in Tokyo
4. 1:30 AM (Sunday) in Tokyo
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Q87. Consider the following statements:
1. Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich
and is at 0° Longitude.
2. Interna onal Date Line, on the map appears
as a straight line along 180° Longitude.
3. While crossing Interna onal Date Line from
east to west, one gains a day.
4. Tropic of Cancer lies at 23½° La tude S.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Previous year questions with solutions | 187
Q88. Consider the following statements :
According to Census 2001
1. The literacy rate increase for males is more
than that of the females during last one
decade.
2. Amongst the States and Union Territories,
Delhi has the highest popula on density while
Sikkim has the lowest.
3. The correct sequence of popula on in
descending order of Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka is Tamil
Nadu-Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan-Karnataka.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q89. Match List-I (Park/Sanctuary) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I (Park/Sanctuary)
List-II (State)
A. Keoladeo Na onal 1. Assam
Park
B. Corbe Na onal Park 2. Kerala
C. Kaziranga Sanctuary
3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Periyar Sanctuary
4. Rajasthan
5. U aranchal
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2 5
4
1
(b) 4 3
1
2
(c) 2 3
4
1
(d) 4 5
1
2
Q90. Match List-I (Mul -purpose river valley
projects) with List-II (State) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Mul -purpose
List-II (State)
river valley projects)
A. Purna Project
1. Gujarat
B. Bhima Project
2. Maharashtra
C. Kakrapara Project
3. Uttaranchal
D. Tehri Dam Project
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Karnataka
Code:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
1
2
1
2
B
2
5
3
4
C
5
1
5
1
D
3
3
4
3
Q91. Match List-I (City) with List-II (River Passing
through the city) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (City)
List-II (River passing
through the city)
A. Nasik
1. Krishna
B. Surat
2. Cauvery
C. Ujjain
3. Godawari
D. Vijayawada
4. Shipra
5. Tap
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 5
4
1
(b) 4 1
3
2
(c) 3 1
4
2
(d) 4 5
3
1
Q92. Recently, Cannes Film Fes val was held in
(a) Switzerland
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) England
Q93. Shri Kiran Karnik is the
(a) President of NASSCOM
(b) Chairman of the Board of Control of Cricket for
India
(c) Chairman of Maharashtra State Public Service
Commission
(d) Managing Director of Engineers India Ltd.
Q94. Knesset is the name of the Parliament of
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Israel
(d) Spain
Q95. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I
Previous year questions with solutions | 188
A. Dennis Tito
B. Colin Powell
C. Jacques Chirac
D. Donald H. Rumsfeld
List-II
1. President of France
2. Defence Secretary, USA
3. Secretary of State, USA
4. First space tourist
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 1
3
4
2
(b) 4
2
1
3
(c) 1
2
4
3
(d)
4
3
1
2. TERI
3. NIIT
4. FICCI
Code:
A B
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 3
2
Q96. Match List-I (Football World Cup/Year) with
List-II (Host Country) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Football World Cup/Year)
A. 1986
B. 1990
C. 1994
D. 1998
List-II (Host Country)
1. Italy
2. Mexico
3. France
4. USA
5. Spain
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 5
3
2
1
(b) 2
1
4
3
(c) 5
1
2
3
(d) 2
3
4
1
Q97. Match List-I (Person) with List-II
(Organiza on) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Rajendra S. Pawar
B. Ashok Soota
C. R.S. Lodha
D. R.K. Pachauri
List-II (Organiza on)
1. CII
C
2
1
1
2
D
3
4
3
4
1
3
2
1
Q98. Raksha Kavach' is
(a) a new safety equipment designed for the
soldiers of Indian Army
(b) an an -collision device to prevent
collision between trains designed by the
Konkan Railway Corpora on
(c) a new design for earthquake resistant
buildings
(d) a new device for the Indian airports for
the safe landing of aircra s
Q99. Consider the following statements in
respect of Soccer World Cup :
1. Prior to FIFA-2002 Cup, Brazil had won
the World Cup four mes.
2. Indomitable Lions' is the nickname for
Cameroon team.
3. 'Azzurri' is the nickname for the Italian
team.
4. Senegal,
Slovenia
and
Ecuador
par cipating in FIFA-2002 are the only
teams par cipa ng in the World Cup for
the first me.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Q100. Recently, Government disinvested stake in
VSNL, IBP and IPCL to
(a) Bhar Telesonic, Reliance and GAIL,
respec vely
(b) Tata Group of Industries, Indian Oil
Corpora on and Reliance, respec vely
(c) Bhar Telesonic, Royal Dutch Shell and
Pfizer, respec vely
Previous year questions with solutions | 189
(d) Motorala, Kuwait Petroleum
Ranbaxy, respec vely
and
Q101. Stockholm Syndrome is a mental condi on
experienced by
(a) the young persons who take up jobs in
the industry a er passing out from the
Management Schools
(b) persons who migrate from rural areas to
urban ci es, during the earlier stages of
their stay
(c) drug-addicts in the rehabilitation centres
(d) hostages and kidnap vic ms in which
positive feelings develop towards their
captors
Q102.
Match
List-I
(Football
World
Cup/Year) with List-II (Host Country) and select
the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I (Prominent Football Player)
A. Michael Owen
B. Luis Figo
C. Gabriel Batistuta
D. Raul Gonzalez
List-II (Country)
1. Italy
2. Spain
3. Portugal
4. Argen na
5. England
6. Brazil
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 5
2
4
3
(b) 6
3
1
2
(c) 5
3
4
2
(d) 6
2
1
3
Q103. Match List-I (City) with List-II
(Establishment) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (City)
A. Arkonnam
B. Allahabad
C. Kamptee
D. Mhow
List-II (Establishment)
1. Central Air Command HQ
2. Naval Air Base
3. Ins tute of Military Law
4. Coast Guard District HQ
5. College of Combat
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2
5
3
1
(b) 3
1
4
5
(c) 2
1
3
5
(d) 3
5
4
1
Q104. Match List-I (Library) with List-II (City) and
select the correct answer
List-I (Library)
A. National Library
B. State Central Library
C. Connemara Public Library
List-II (City)
1. New Delhi
2. Kolkata
3. Mumbai
4. Chennai
Code:
A B
C
(a) 1
3
4
(b) 2
3
4
(c) 1
4
3
(d) 2
4
3
Q105. Crop Yield Formula on Unit which has
developed sta s cal models to forecast crop
yield works under the control of
(a) Ministry of Water Resources
(b) Department of Agriculture and Co
operation
(c) India Meteorological Department
(d) Department of Food and Public
Distribu on
Q106. East Timor, the latest independent na on
in the world was ruled by
(a) Indonesia (b)
Australia
(c) Malaysia
(d)
Philippines
Previous year questions with solutions | 190
Q107. What is the chronological sequence of the
following developments?
(a) National Aluminium Company Ltd. :
Bhubaneswar
(b) Indian Bureau of Mines : Dhanbad
(c) National Film Archives of India : Pune
(d) National Archives of India : New Delhi
Q108. Sagar Samrat' is the name of
(a) an island near Port Blair
(b) a drilling ship in Bombay High
(c) an island near Maldives
(d) name of a 5-star hotel in Goa
Q109. Which tourist des na on from amongst
the following will be developed as an
interna onal des na on for tourism according
to the Budget 2002-03?
(a) Port Blair
(b) Hampi
(c) Pushkar
(d) Nalanda
Q110. Shri Rajender Singh won the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for
(a) Emergent leadership
(b) Community leadership
(c) Illiteracy eradica on
(d) Bio-technology
Q111. Which among the following became the
first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Kim Campbell
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
Q112. Who among the following wrote the book
Algebra of Infinite Jus ce?
(a) Anita Desai
(b) Vikram Seth
(c) Arundha Roy
(d) Rohington Mistry
Q113. Consider the following statements:
1. The demand for commodi es having a large
number of close subs tutes is less elas c than
the commodi es having a smaller number of
subs tutes
2. Luxury items have a highly elas c demand
3. The commodi es whose consump on cannot
easily be postponed have less elas c demand
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q114. Consider the following statements:
1. Launching of Fourth five-year plan was
postponed and three annual plans had to be
resorted to between 1966 to 1969.
2. Fi h five-year plan was terminated a year
earlier.
3. Eighth five-year plan commenced in 1992
instead of 1990.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q115. Assertion (A): Macro-economic deals with
the study of aggregates and averages.
Reason (R): Central problem of macro-economics
is the determina on of income and employment
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Previous year questions with solutions | 191
Solutions
PART- A
SPOTTING ERRORS
Direc ons (for the next Five items):
i. In this sec on a number of sentences are
given. Each sentence has three underlined
parts. indicated by (a), (b) and (c). Read
each sentence to find out whether there is
an error. If you find an error in any one of
the underlined parts (a, b, c), indicate your
response by blackening the le er related
to that part in the Answer Sheet provided.
If a sentence has no error. indicate this by
blackening (d) which stands for "No error".
ii. Errors may belong to grammar, usage or
idiom. Examples P and Q have been solved
for you
P.
(a) My friend and myself
(b) Study together
(c) During holidays
(d) No error
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The correct answer for P is le er 'd'
because the sentence has no mistake in it.
Q.
(a) The rice from Dehradun is
(b) More superior
(c) To that of Saharanpur
(d) No error
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct answer for Q is 'b'
because the mistake in the sentence is in the part
carrying the letter 'b'.
Q1. (a) Choose only
(b) Such friends
(c) That you can trust
(d) No error
Answer: (c)
Explanation: ‘as’ will be used in place of ‘that’ as
rela ve pronoun, because rela ve pronoun is used
in the form of ‘as’ a er ‘such’.
Ex. He is such a good man as can help you.
Q2. (a) While he was digging sand
(b) a large mass fell
(c) and buried him completely
(d) No error
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Use ‘the’ before ‘sand’ as ‘the’ is
used to refer to specific or particular nouns.
Q3. (a) The book is well printed and a rac vely
bound
(b) making together
(c) an attrac ve volume
(d) No error
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Use ‘it’ a er ‘making’. “The book is
well-printed and a rac vely bound making
altogether an a rac ve volume.” The sentence
has two clauses, “The book is well-printed and
attrac vely bound,” and “making altogether an
attrac ve volume.” The first clause has a noun,
book, and it talks about it, however, the second
clause does not have a noun and so it is not clear
that what subject or object it is referring to. The
second clause needs a noun or pronoun to
complete its meaning. As the second clause is also
talking about the book men oned in the first
clause, it requires a pronoun for the book. So, the
second clause needs ‘it’ as an object for verb
‘making.’ Hence, the second clause should be” and
“making it altogether an a rac ve volume.”
Hence, the word or phrase that must be changed
for the sentence to be correct is indicated by
Op on (b). Op on (b) is the correct answer.
Q4. (a) A li le younger
(b) to myself we, both were
(c) devoted to cricket and boa ng
(d) No error
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Use ‘than’ in place of ‘to’. "Than'' in
the sentence is a conjunc on, a word connec ng
two complete sentences. When you add the
implied verb at the end, it sounds more logical:
She's younger than I am.
Previous year questions with solutions | 192
Q5. (a) He had no sooner
(b) arrived than
(c) he was asked to leave again
(d) No error
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The sentence has no mistake in it.
Direc ons (for the next three items):
Select the most suitable word from (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given below each sentence to fill in the blanks
Q6. The Rajputs always fought _____________
the last man.
(a) upto
(b) ll
(c) to
(d) for
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Definition of to the last man: until all
the men in a group are killed, defeated, etc. They
vowed to fight to the last man.
Q7. I have been surfing internet._________ the
last two hours.
(a) since
(b) for
(c) from
(d) right from
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The word 'for' is used to show a
period of me, be it in the past, present or future.
The word 'since' is used to refer to a me that has
begun in the past and is s ll con nuing. Use ‘from’
to mean the star ng me and ‘to’ for the end or
finish me. Note: To can be a synonym of until and
ll so it’s perfectly correct to use for with un l or
ll.
Q8. You should be considerate __________ your
employees and I assure you of your success
in every walk of life.
(a) for
(b) to
(c) upon
(d) on
Answer: (b)
Explanation: ‘to’ is used to show what somebody’s
opinion or feeling about something is and it is also
used to show somebody’s a tude or reac on to
something.
Direc ons (for the Five items which follow):
Match words in Last I with the words/group of
words in the List-II such that they convey the
same meaning or sense. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists
Q9. List-I
A. Obsequious
B. Obstreperous
C. Inveterate
D. Impecunious
List-II
1. Dishonest
2. Having little or no money
3. Too willing to obey
4. Noisy and unruly
5. Deep-rooted
6. Fearless
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
4
5
2
(b)
2
6
5
3
(c)
3
6
1
2
(d)
2
4
1
3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Obsequious means obedient or
atten ve to an excessive or servile degree.
Obstreperous means noisy and difficult to control.
Inveterate means having a par cular habit,
ac vity, or interest that is long-established and
unlikely to change.
Impecunious means having little or no money.
Q10. List-I
A. Cadaverous
B. Prodigal
C. Decadence
D. Gratuitous
List-II
1. Falling to lower moral level
2. Jubilation
3. Something done or given unnecessarily
4. Looking very pale
5. Stout or well-built
6. Extravagant
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
5
1
6
(b)
1
6
2
3
(c)
4
6
1
3
Previous year questions with solutions | 193
(d)
1
5
2
6
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Cadaverous means very pale, thin, or
bony.
Prodigal means spending money or using
resources freely and recklessly; wastefully
extravagant.
Decadence means moral or cultural decline as
characterized by excessive indulgence in pleasure
or luxury.
Gratuitous means done without good reason;
uncalled for.
Q11. List-I
A. Dilettante
B. Profligate
C. Prescient
D. Parochial
List-II
1. A person with futuris c vision
2. Miserly
3. A person who studies or does something
without serious interest or understanding
4. To show narrow interest
5. Wasteful
6. Pungent remarks
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
6
4
2
3
(b)
3
5
1
4
(c)
6
5
2
4
(d)
3
4
1
5
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Dilettante means a person who
cultivates an area of interest, such as the arts,
without real commitment or knowledge.
Profligate means recklessly extravagant or
wasteful in the use of resources.
Prescient means having or showing knowledge of
events before they take place.
Parochial means having a limited or narrow
outlook or scope.
Q12. List-I
A. Iconoclast
B. Humdinger
C. Martinet
D. Callow
List-II
1. Immature and inexperienced
2. Person who attacks established customs
3. Excellent person or thing
4. Popular leader
5. Mysterious plot
6. Person who imposes strict discipline
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
6
3
4
1
(b)
2
5
6
3
(c)
6
5
4
3
(d)
2
3
6
1
Answer:(d)
Explanation: Iconoclast means a person who
attacks or cri cizes cherished beliefs or
ins tu ons.
Humdinger means a remarkable or outstanding
person or thing of its kind.
Mar net means a person who demands complete
obedience; a strict disciplinarian.
Callow means (of a young person) inexperienced
and immature.
Q13. List-I
A. Adjunct
B. Con guous
C. Consanguine
D. Recluse
List-II
1. Same family rela onship
2. Diametrically opposite places
3. A person who has withdrawn from society
4. Enthusias c person
5. Thing that is less important and not essen al
6. Neighbouring
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a)
5
1
2
3
(b)
4
6
1
5
(c)
5
6
1
3
(d)
4
1
2
5
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Adjunct means a thing added to
something else as a supplementary rather than an
essen al part.
Previous year questions with solutions | 194
Contiguous means sharing a common border;
touching.
Consanguine means rela ng to or deno ng people
descended from the same ancestor.
Recluse means a person who lives a solitary life
and tends to avoid other people.
Direc ons (for the Five items which follow): Each
of the following five items carries a phrase/idiom.
Select the correct answer out of the four given
choices (a), (b), (c) or (d) which conveys the
closest meaning of the given phrase/idiom.
Q14. The world is one's oyster
(a) One feels that nobody in the world would help
him/her.
(b) The feeling one gets when he lands in an
unfamiliar country.
(c) One is able to enjoy all the pleasures and
opportunities that life has to offer.
(d) When one has an uphill task to perform
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The world is one's oyster means that
the person being spoken about has every
advantage necessary to achieve what he wishes to
achieve, and to enjoy life.
an easy life that is full of pleasure but bad for
them.
Q17. A bee in one's bonnet
(a) To be very enterprising
(b) To be very mid and shy
(c) To have an imprac cal idea
(d) T o have a par cular idea which occupies one's
thoughts con nually
Answer: (d)
Explanation: To have a bee in one's bonnet means
to be obsessed with a certain idea, to be
preoccupied with something.
Q18. To take a rain-check
(a) To decline an offer but promise to accept it
later.
(b) To go through the weather report.
(c) To proceed on sightseeing.
(d) To take to farming as a source of livelihood.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: To take a rain-check means an
offered or requested postponement of an
invita on un l a more convenient, usually
unspecified me.
COMPREHENSION
Q15. To go for the jugular?
(a) To work very hard for the success.
(b) To make a fierce destruc ve attack on the
weakest point in an opponent’s argument.
(c) To go in for the costliest thing.
(d) To go in for dishonest means.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: To go for the jugular means to a ack
quickly and savagely in the most vicious and
effec ve way possible.
Q16. To follow the primrose path
(a) To follow one's objec ves very steadfastly.
(b) To go on wandering.
(c) To trek to the mountains.
(d) To go in for pursuit of pleasure or an easy life.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: If you lead someone down the
primrose path, you encourage that person to live
Direc ons:
In this sec on you have one short passage. A er
the passage you will find several ques ons based
on the passage. First, read Passage and answer the
ques ons based on it. Examples I and J are solved
for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragma c or
otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely
and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security
and happiness. Different forms of life at different
levels of existence make up the teeming denizens
of this earth of ours. And, no ma er whether they
belong to the higher groups such as human beings
or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings
primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is
as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even
the lowliest insect strives for protec on against
Previous year questions with solutions | 195
dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of
us wants to live and not to die, so do all other
creatures.
I. The author's main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in
nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to
preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assump ons or steps
is essential in developing the author's
position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is iden fied
with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life,
and pain and death
Explanation:
I.
The idea which represents the author's main
point is 'peace and security are the chief goals
of all living beings', which is response (c). So
'c' is the correct answer.
J.
The best assump on underlying the passage
is 'The will to survive of a creature is iden fied
with a desire for peace', which is response (b).
So 'b' is the correct answer.
PASSAGE
When you buy a car, examine carefully the
important features of the model you are
considering. Many a buyer of the latest models has
got into trouble by buying a car too broad or too
long for his garage. Furthermore a long car is much
harder to manoeuvre in traffic and much more
difficult to park. Another feature is the comfort
afforded. Are the seats nice and durably
upholstered? Is there enough glass area to give the
driver a good view in all direc ons, par cularly to
the rear? It should be remembered that the
heavier and more powerful a car is, the more
expensive it will be to operate. High powered
motors require expensive high-octane petrol. The
greater weight means greater tyre wear and
enlarged brakes. The old cliché is s ll true; it is not
the ini al cost but the upkeep which ma ers!
Q19. According to this passage, the two factors
that the buyer of a new car should keep in mind
are
(a) its price and size
(b) its model and upholstery
(c) its size and the comfort it offers
(d) its upholstery and glass area
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In the given passage the two factors
that are mentioned to keep in mind while buying a
car are its model and upholstery. Therefore op on
(b) is the correct answer here.
Q20. The size of the car should be in accordance
with
(a) the money one can afford to pay
(b) the size of the garage the buyer has
(c) the width of the road where the buyer lives
(d) the volume of traffic on the road
Answer: (b)
Explanation: As men oned in the second line of
the passage that the buyer get into trouble while
buying a car too long or too broad for his garage
hence size of the car should be in accordance with
the size of the garage the buyer has.
Q21. The writer favours a car with a wide glass
area so that the driver can
(a) enjoy the scene outside while driving
(b) have a good view of the rear
(c) roll down the glasspanes to get enough fresh
air
(d) display his beau ful upholstery with pride
Answer: (b)
Explanation: According to the passage the writer
favours a car with a wide glass area so that the
driver can have a good view of the rear. Therefore,
option (b) is the correct answer.
Q22. It is very expensive to maintain a large car
because it
Previous year questions with solutions | 196
(a) is heavy
(b) requires more space for parking
(c) needs changing its tyres more frequently
(d) needs more durable upholstery
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer as it
is men oned in the paragraph that the greater
weight means greater tyre wear and enlarged
brakes and that’s why it is expensive to maintain a
large car.
Q23. While buying a new car, one should
specially consider its
(a) price
(b) maintenance cost
(c) upholstery
(d) brakes
Answer: (b)
Explanation: It is given in the passage that The old
cliché is s ll true; it is not the ini al cost but the
upkeep which ma ers!. Which basically means
that the maintenance cost should be considered
by the buyer specifically. Therefore, op on (b) is
the correct answer.
Direc ons (for the next Four items):
In this sec on you find a number of sentences,
parts of which are underlined. You may also find
only a group of words which is underlined. For
each underlined part, four words/phrases are
listed below. Choose the word/phrase nearest in
meaning to the underlined part.
Example E is solved for you.
E. His style is quite transparent.
(a) verbose
(b) involved
(c) lucid
(d) witty
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In item E the word "lucid" is nearest
in meaning to the word "transparent". So 'c' is the
correct answer.
Q24. I rather like the quaint li le house at the
end of the street.
(a) old
(b) quiet
(c) unusual
(d) haunted
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Quaint means a rac vely unusual or
old-fashioned.
Haunted means to have a disquie ng or harmful
effect on.
Q25. If she con nues to spend her me in such a
frivolous manner, she will fail in her
examina ons.
(a) frigh ul
(b) leisurely
(c) non-serious
(d) calculated
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Frivolous means behaving in a silly
way and not taking anything seriously.
Frigh ul means very unpleasant, serious, or
shocking.
Leisurely used to describe an ac on that is done in
a relaxed way, without hurrying.
Calculated means (of an ac on) done with full
awareness of the likely consequences.
Q26. Sanguine as he is in his a tude to life and
its problems, he cannot but be no ced wherever
he goes.
(a) op mis c (b) enthusias c
(c) realis c
(d) dispassionate
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Sanguine means op mis c or
posi ve, especially in an apparently bad or difficult
situation.
Op mis c means hopeful and confident about the
future.
Enthusias c means having or showing intense and
eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
Realis c means having or showing a sensible and
prac cal idea of what can be achieved or
expected.
Dispassionate means not influenced by strong
emo on, and so able to be rational and impartial.
Q27. One's remonstra on against social ills has
to be consistent to be fruitful.
(a) outrage
(b) demonstra on
(c) protest
(d) cri cism
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Remonstra on means the act of
expressing earnest opposi on or protest.
Previous year questions with solutions | 197
Outrage means an extremely strong reac on of
anger, shock, or indigna on.
Demonstra on means an act of showing that
something exists or is true by giving proof or
evidence.
Cri cism means the expression of disapproval of
someone or something on the basis of perceived
faults or mistakes.
Direc ons (for the next Three items):
ANTONYMS
In this sec on each item consists of a word or a
phrase which is underlined in the sentence given.
It is followed by four words or phrases. Select the
word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in
meaning of the underlined word or phrase.
Example F has been solved for you.
F. Lucy is a smart girl.
(a) lazy
(b) ac ve
(c) indecent
(d) casual
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The word which is nearest to the
opposite in meaning of the underlined word.
"smart" is "lazy". So 'a' is the correct answer.
Q28. The advice rendered to him sounded to be
quite sagacious.
(a) stupid
(b) shallow
(c) imprac cable
(d) insincere
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Sagacious means having or showing
keen mental discernment and good judgement;
wise or shrewd. ‘Stupid’ is opposite in meaning of
‘sagacious’.
Shallow means of li le depth.
Imprac cable means (of a course of ac on)
impossible in practice to do or carry out.
Insincere means not expressing genuine feelings.
Q29. The Indian cultural fair was held at Rome in
a grandiose manner.
(a) unobtrusive
(b) unimposing
(c) unimpressive
(d) simple
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Grandiose means impressive and
imposing in appearance or style, especially
preten ously so. Therefore, ‘unimpressive’ is the
antonym of ‘grandiose’.
Unobtrusive means not conspicuous or a rac ng
atten on.
Unimposing means not imposing or impressive in
appearance.
Simple means easily understood or done;
presen ng no difficulty.
Q30. His voice sounded haughty when I spoke to
him over the telephone.
(a) pleasant
(b) humble
(c) so
(d) cheerful
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Haughty means arrogantly superior
and disdainful. ‘Humble’ is opposite in meaning of
‘haughty’. Therefore, op on (b) is the correct
answer.
Pleasant means giving a sense of happy
sa sfac on or enjoyment.
Cheerful means no ceably happy and op mis c.
So means having a pleasing quality involving a
subtle effect or contrast rather than sharp
definition.
Previous year questions with solutions | 198
Q31. The device to convert alterna ng current
into direct current is
(a) Transformer
(b) Rec fier
(c) Alternator
(d) Condenser
Answer: B
Explanation:
A rec fier is a device that converts alterna ng
electric current into direct current. It may be an
electron tube (either a vacuum or a gaseous type),
vibrator, solid-state device, or mechanical device.
Hence option B is correct.
• A transformer is a device that transfers electric
energy from one alterna ng-current circuit to
one or more other circuits, either increasing
(stepping up) or reducing (stepping down) the
voltage.
• An alternator is an electrical generator that
converts mechanical energy to electrical
energy in the form of alterna ng current.
• A Condenser is a device for reducing a gas or
vapour to a liquid. Condensers are employed
in power plants to condense exhaust steam
from turbines and in refrigera on plants to
condense refrigerant vapours, such as
ammonia and fluorinated hydrocarbons.
Q32. Combus on of a candle is a
(a) Photochemical reac on
(b) Exothermic reac on
(c) Physical change
(d) Endothermic reac on
Answer: B
Explanation:
The combus on of a candle is an exothermic
reac on. Hence option B is correct.
• An exothermic reac on is a chemical reac on
that releases energy in the form of light or
heat. The burning of the candle is an
exothermic reac on.
Q33. Which of the following is a chemical
compound?
(a) Air
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Mercury
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ammonia (NH3) is a chemical compound while
Oxygen and Mercury are elements and Air is a
heterogeneous mixture. Hence op on C is
correct.
• A chemical element is a species of atoms that
have a given number of protons in their nuclei,
including the pure substance consis ng only of
that species. For example, Sodium, Lithium,
Oxygen, Hydrogen etc. are elements.
• A chemical compound is any substance
composed of identical molecules consis ng of
atoms of two or more chemical elements
which are chemically linked by chemical
bonds. For example, Water (H2O) is a chemical
combina on of Hydrogen and Oxygen
elements in a fixed ra o and is thus called a
chemical compound.
• A mixture is a combina on made up of two or
more chemical components that are not
chemically linked but are physically present
together. It can be of two kinds (viz.)
o Homogeneous
mixture
A
homogeneous mixture is a mixture in
which the composi on is uniform
throughout the mixture. All solu ons
would be considered homogeneous.
For example a sugar solu on has
uniform distribu on of sugar par cles
throughout the mixture making it a
homogeneous mixture.
o Heterogeneous
mixture
–
A
heterogeneous mixture is a mixture
with a non-uniform composi on. For
example, Air which may have different
gases present in a non-uniform
manner.
Previous year questions with solutions | 199
Q34. A and B ran over a distance star ng from the
same place. The distance-time graph is shown:
Consider the following statements:
1. A ran throughout the given period of me with
uniform velocity.
2. A ran throughout the given period of me with
uniform accelera on.
3. B stopped running a er 2 hours.
4. A ran faster than B near the 2-hr stage.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stetement-1 is correct: A ran throughout the
given period of me with uniform velocity as the
slope of the graph does not change.
Statement-2 is correct: As the velocity of A
remains constant, it can be said that A ran with a
zero accelera on.
Statement-3 is correct: B stopped running a er 2
hours. A er, 2 hours the distance travelled by B is
not increasing though me is increasing which
means B stopped after 2 hours.
Statement-4 is correct: A ran faster than B near
the 2-hr stage. A was running while B stopped
hence this can be said.
Distance-Time graph
If an object moves along a straight line, the
distance travelled can be represented by a
distance- me graph.
• In a distance- me graph, the gradient of the
line is equal to the speed of the object. The
•
greater the gradient (and the steeper the line)
the faster the object is moving.
An increasing gradient on the distance- me
graph represents accelera on while a
reducing gradient indicates decelera on.
Q35. Consider the following statements
regarding the Nuclear Power Programme of India
:
1. Pressurised heavy water reactors have been set
up at Kaiga (Karnataka) and Rawatbhata
(Rajasthan).
2. Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata is one
of the five Research Centres under the
Department of Science and Technology.
3. India has a vast resource of Thorium and the
third stage of Indian Nuclear Power Programme
envisages the use of Thorium for power
genera on.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Government has accorded administra ve
approval and financial sanc on for construc on of
10 indigenous 700 MW Pressurized Heavy Water
Reactors (PHWRs) in fleet mode.
• The reactors are planned at Kaiga, Karnataka
(Kaiga-5&6), Gorakhpur, Haryana (GHAVP3&4), Chutka, Madhya Pradesh (Chutka-1&2)
and Mahi Banswara, Rajasthan (Units-1 to 4).
• The Rajasthan Atomic Power Project (RAPP),
located in Rawatbhata in the north Indian
state of Rajasthan, currently has six
pressurised heavy water reactor (PHWR)
units, opera ng with a total installed capacity
of 1,180MW. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata is
one of the five Research Centres under the
Department of Atomic Energy. Hence
Statement 2 is incorrect.
• India’s three-stage nuclear power programme
was formulated by Homi Bhabha in the 1950s.
Previous year questions with solutions | 200
o The first two stages, natural uraniumfueled heavy water reactors and
plutonium-fueled
fast
breeder
reactors, are intended to generate
sufficient fissile material from India’s
limited uranium resources, so that all
its vast thorium reserves can be fully
u lized in the third stage of thermal
breeder reactors. Hence Statement 3 is
correct.
Q36. Carbohydrates are stored in the body as
(a) Sugars
(b) Starch
(c) Glucose
(d) Glycogen
Answer: D
Explanation:
The carbohydrates act as the primary supply of
energy in the body. It breaks down into smaller
units of sugar such as glucose and fructose.
• The Glucose is absorbed and used to generate
energy in the body. The excess Glucose is
stored in the muscles and liver as Glycogen.
• Thus, Carbohydrates are stored in the form of
Glycogen in the human body. Hence option D
is correct.
Q37. Bacteria and viruses cause
(a) Allergies
(b) Non-communicable diseases
(c) Degenera ve diseases
(d) Infec ous diseases
Answer: D
Explanation:
Infec ous diseases are disorders caused by
organisms — such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or
parasites.
• Allergies occur when the immune system
reacts to a foreign substance — such as pollen,
bee venom or pet dander — or a food that
doesn't cause a reaction in most people.
• A disease in which the func on or structure of
the affected ssues or organs changes for the
worse over me. Osteoarthri s, osteoporosis,
and Alzheimer disease are examples.
•
Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) are
medical condi ons or diseases that are not
caused by infec ous agents. These are chronic
diseases of long dura on, and generally with
slow progression and are the result of a
combina on of gene c, physiological,
environmental and behavioural factors.
Q38. Substances which are obtained from micro
organisms but used to destroy micro organisms
are
(a) An gens
(b) An bio cs
(c) An bodies
(d) An sep cs
Answer: B
Explanation:
An an biotic is a chemical substance, produced by
micro-organisms, which has the capacity to inhibit
the growth of and even to destroy bacteria and
other micro-organisms.
• Alexander Fleming derived the first an bio c,
Penicillin, in 1928 from a fungi called
Penicillium.
• Antigens are any substance that causes the
body to make an immune response against
that substance.
o An gens include toxins, chemicals,
bacteria, viruses, or other substances
that come from outside the body.
• Antibodies are proteins that protect when an
unwanted substance enters the body.
Produced by one’s immune system, an bodies
bind to these unwanted substances in order to
eliminate them from the system. Another
word for an body is immunoglobulin.
• An an sep c is a substance that stops or
slows down the growth of microorganisms.
They're frequently used in hospitals and other
medical se ngs to reduce the risk of infec on
during surgery and other procedures.
Direc ons: The following Two (8 & 9) items consist
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
Previous year questions with solutions | 201
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
your answers to these items using the Codes given.
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q39. Assertion (A): A bus and a car (with lower
weight than that of the bus) moving at the same
velocity, are brought to rest on a level road by
applying brakes which exert same retarding force.
The car will travel lesser distance before coming to
rest.
Reason (R): The kine c energy to be destroyed is
equal to the work done by the retarding force.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
• When a car and a bus are moving with the
same velocity, and weight of the car is less than
that of the bus, then the Kinetic Energy (K.E.)
of the bus will be higher than that of the car
as KE (Ek) is given as:
•
•
•
•
The KE is to be destroyed to stop the car/bus
by the work done by the retarding force as per
Work-Energy theorem.
When one tries to stop the car/bus, it does not
stop immediately. "Stopping distance" refers
to the distance the vehicle travels while the
brake is opera ng.
By defini on of work (work = force x distance),
the car's kine c energy is equal to the braking
force mul plied by the stopping distance. The
equation can be written as:
Here, as the braking force is same, the
stopping distance depends on the KE of the
•
vehicle. As car has lower KE, its stopping
distance will be less.
Hence both Asser on and Reason are correct,
and Reason is the correct explana on of the
Asser on.
Q40. Asser on (A): A train has come out of the
platform and is accelera ng. If a person si ng in
the train and facing engine, throws up a coin, it will
fall ahead of him.
Reason (R): A force acts on the coin whose
magnitude is equal to the product of the mass of
the coin and accelera on of the train.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a person si ng in an accelera ng train
throws the coin in air, it falls behind him. Hence
Asser on is incorrect.
• As the coin is tossed, the coin has certain
speed acquired from the moving train. It thus
moves up with the same speed and comes
down with the same speed.
• As the train is accelera ng, the speed of the
person will be more than that of the coin, thus
the coin is slower and falls behind him.
• A force acts on the coin whose magnitude is
equal to the product of the mass of the coin
and accelera on of the train but it is not the
reason for the coin falling ahead of him. Hence
A is false but R is true.
Q41. Consider the following statements:
1. Intel's Pen um IV is an opera ng system used
in PCs.
2. During boo ng period of a PC, the opera ng
system is first loaded.
3. Analogue computers are useful only in
scien fic field while digital computers have
applica on in scien fic as well as in business,
administra ve func ons.
4. Micro-computer is another name for microprocessor.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Previous year questions with solutions | 202
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Pen um 4 was a series of single-core central
processing units (CPU) for desktop PCs and
laptops. The series was designed by Intel and
launched in November 2000. Therefore
statement 1 is incorrect.
• The opera ng system is loaded through a
bootstrapping process, more succinctly
known as boo ng. A boot loader is a program
whose task is to load a bigger program, such
as the opera ng system. Therefore statement
2 is correct.
• An Analog computer stores data con nuously
in the form of physical quan es and perform
calcula ons with the help of measures. They
are used in the calcula on of physical
variables such as voltage, pressure,
temperature, speed. Whereas, A Digital
computer is the most commonly used type of
computer and they are extensively used for
solving complex problems in the field of
engineering & technology, design, research
and data processing. Therefore statement 3 is
correct.
• Microcomputers are also called as personal
computers and in general parlance, the
microprocessor, also known as the Central
Processing Unit (CPU), is the brain of all
computers and many household and
electronic devices. Therefore statement 4 is
incorrect.
Hence the correct answer will be option B.
Q42. Which posi onal value divides the series
into equal parts?
(a) Median
(b) Second quar le
(c) 5th Décile
(d) All the above three
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The middle value in a sorted, ascending or
descending list of numbers is known as the
median. This is why the median is termed as a
positional average of the data set because it
divides the whole data set into two equal
•
•
•
parts, containing an equal number of
elements.
Quartiles are values from the dataset which
divide the whole data sets into four equal
parts. The first quar le value or Q1 has 25%
elements of the data set below it. Likewise, Q2
has 50% elements below it and it divides the
data set into exactly two equal parts.
Decile divides a data set into 10 equal parts,
segregated by 9 posi onal elements, named
D1, D2, …, and D9. Out of these 9 values, D5 is
the middlemost value which divides the
whole dataset into two equal parts.
Hence the correct answer is op on D.
Q43. A town 'P' is located in a par cular district.
The town 'A' is west of 'P'. Town 'T' is east of 'P'.
Town 'K' is east of 'B' but west of 'T' and 'A'. They
are all in the same district. Which town is the
farthest west?
(a) P
(b) K
(c) B
(d) A
Answer: C
Explanation:
As per the given informa on
So, Town B is the farthest west.
Q44. A factory has three belt conveyors fi ed in
its loading sta on. Conveyors 'A' and 'B'
opera ng simultaneously li all the goods in the
same me during which the goods can be li ed
by the conveyor 'C' opera ng alone. Conveyor 'B'
li s all the goods five hours faster than conveyor
'A' but four hours slower than the conveyor 'C'
The dura ons of me required to li all the
goods, individually by the conveyors 'A', 'B' and
'C' are
(a) 17, 12, 8 hrs.
(b) 15, 10, 6 hrs.
(c) 16, 11, 7 hrs.
(d) 14, 9, 5 hrs.
Answer: B
Our
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Explanation:
Let conveyor B li s all the goods in X hours.
Conveyor A li s all goods in X + 5
Conveyor C li s all goods in X – 4 hours.
(d) (ABC/3) + (XYZ/4)
So, conveyor B takes 1/x me to li in 1 hour
Conveyor A takes 1/(x+5) hours to li in 1 hour
Conveyor C takes 1/(x-4) hours to li in 1 hour.
As per the given informa on
Answer: B
Explanation:
A > X, B = Z, Y < C
From this we got to know that ABC > XYZ
Now, according to the ques on, to li all goods,
Conveyor A + Conveyor B = Conveyor C
1/(x+5) + 1/x = 1/(x-4)
Take LCM on the le side
So, op on B: (ABC % XYZ) * (2XYZ) will be the
answer because from this, ABC + XYZ > 2XYZ
That is ABC > XYZ
Hence it is the right answer.
(x+5+x)/x(x+5) = 1/(x-4)
2x+5/x2+5x = 1/(x-4)
(2x+5) *(x-4) = x2 + 5x
2x2 - 8x + 5x – 20 = x2 + 5x
x2 - 8x - 20 = 0
x2 - 10x + 2x – 20 = 0
x(x-10) + 2(x-10) = 0
(x-10) *(x+2) = 0
So, x= 10, -2
But x cannot be nega ve here.
So, X = 10
Hence Conveyor B takes X = 10 hours.
Conveyor A take X + 5 = 10 + 5 = 15 hours
Conveyor C takes X - 4 hours = 10 – 4 = 6 hours
Q46. What is the maximum number of pieces 1
cm in diameter and 20 cm long that can be
cut out of a cylindrical wooden block 20 cm
in length and 3 cm in diameter?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q45. According to a certain code
*
means 'greater than'
+
means 'less than'
÷
means 'equal to'
% means 'plus'
If A * X, B ÷ Z, Y + C; then the rela on. between
ABC and XYZ is
(a) ABC + XYZ
Radius (r) of given cylindrical wooden block = 3/2
cm (because Diameter = 2*radius)
Length (h) = 20cm
The volume of the block = πr2h = π*(3/2)2*(20) =
45 π
Now we need to find max number of pieces of 1
cm in diameter. So, radius = 1/2 cm, length =
20cm
So, volume of the required block = πr2h =
π*(1/2)2*(20) = 5 π
(b) (ABC % XYZ) * (2XYZ)
(c) (2XYZ) * (ABC % XYZ)
So, max pieces = 45 π/5 π = 9 pieces.
Previous year questions with solutions | 204
Q47. A group of boys decided to buy a few
casse es whose price was between Rs.200/and Rs.250/-. But at the me of purchase,
two of the boys declined to contribute as a
result of which the remaining boys had to
pay Rs. 1/- more than they had originally
planned. What was the price of the casse es
if the boys contributed equally and in the
whole number of rupees?
(a) Rs. 220/(b) Rs. 210/-
Bangalore, and Chandigarh but not in that
order. The five specialist slots of the spinner,
pace bowler, wicketkeeper, batsman, and
captain are held by them, again not in the
order of their names stated above.
(i) Their names, hometowns, and special es do
not start with the same le er.
(ii) Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain and
they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore.
(c) Rs. 230/-
(iii) Sumeet is neither a wicketkeeper nor a
batsman.
(d) Rs. 240/-
(iv) Pune is not Bishan's hometown.
Answer: A
(v) The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper
Explanation:
Let the total number of boys= Y
(vi) The captain's hometown is Pune while the
batsman does not hail from Warangal.
Let the price of casse es = Rs. C
Q48. The spinner's hometown is
According to ques on,
(a) Pune
{C/(Y-2)} – {C/Y} = 1
(b) Warangal
(CY – CY + 2C)/ Y(Y-2) = 1
(c) Bangalore
2C = Y2 – 2Y
(d) Chandigarh
So, if we put the value of Y = 22. (We also know C
to be between 200 and 250.)
Answer: B
Then 2C = (22)2 – 2(22)
2C = 484 – 44
2C = 440
C = 220.
So, the cost price of the casse es is Rs.220
Direc ons (for next Five items): Sumeet, Philips,
Wasim, Bishan, and Chetan are five players
on the College Cricket team and their
hometowns are Surat, Pune, Warangal,
Explanation:
As per the given informa on
Captain- Neither Wasim nor Philips. Also Chetan
cannot be Captain(because of same star ng
le er), Also Bishan doesn’t hail from Pune but
Captain does. So, only op on le for Captain
– Sumeet
Previous year questions with solutions | 205
Now, Philips cannot be from Bangalore as given
in (ii).
The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper. So, the only op on le is
Chetan.
Further, Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain
and they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore. So, Bishan is the only op on le to
be from Surat.
Now, Philips cannot be from Bangalore as given
in (ii).
Now, Philips is from Warangal and Wasim is from
Chandigarh.
The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper. So, the only op on le is
Chetan.
the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
Further, Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain
and they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore. So, Bishan is the only op on le to
be from Surat.
Now, Philips is from Warangal and Wasim is from
Chandigarh.
the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
This is the final arrangement.
So, spinner’s hometown is Warangal
Q49. Chandigarh is the hometown of
(a) Philips
(b) Wasim
(c) Bishan
This is the final arrangement.
So, Chandigarh is the hometown of Wasim.
(d) Sumeet
Answer: B
Explanation
As per the given informa on
Captain- Neither Wasim nor Philips. Also Chetan
cannot be Captain(because of same star ng
le er), Also Bishan doesn’t hail from Pune but
Captain does. So, only op on le for Captain
– Sumeet
Q50. Who is the pace bowler?
(a) Bishan
(b) Sumeet
(c) Wasim
(d) Chetan
Answer: A
Explanation:
As per the given informa on
Previous year questions with solutions | 206
Captain- Neither Wasim nor Philips. Also Chetan
cannot be Captain(because of same star ng
le er), Also Bishan doesn’t hail from Pune but
Captain does. So, only op on le for Captain
– Sumeet
(d) Philips
Answer: D
Explanation:
As per the given informa on
Captain- Neither Wasim nor Philips. Also Chetan
cannot be Captain(because of same star ng
le er), Also Bishan doesn’t hail from Pune but
Captain does. So, only op on le for Captain
– Sumeet
Now, Philips cannot be from Bangalore as given
in (ii).
The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper. So, the only op on le is
Chetan.
Further, Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain
and they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore. So, Bishan is the only op on le to
be from Surat.
Now, Philips is from Warangal and Wasim is from
Chandigarh.
the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
Now, Philips cannot be from Bangalore as given
in (ii).
The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper. So, the only op on le is
Chetan.
Further, Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain
and they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore. So, Bishan is the only op on le to
be from Surat.
Now, Philips is from Warangal and Wasim is from
Chandigarh.
the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
This is the final arrangement.
So, Bishan is a pace bowler.
Q51. Who is the spinner?
(a) Wasim
This is the final arrangement.
(b) Bishan
So, Philips is a spinner.
(c) Chetan
Previous year questions with solutions | 207
Q52. Chetan's hometown is
(a) Bangalore
(b) Warangal
(c) Surat
(d) Pune
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the final arrangement.
So, Chetan’s hometown is Bangalore.
As per the given informa on
Captain- Neither Wasim nor Philips. Also Chetan
cannot be Captain(because of same star ng
le er), Also Bishan doesn’t hail from Pune but
Captain does. So, only op on le for Captain
– Sumeet
Q53. A and B stand in a circular ring with 10
other persons. If the arrangement of 12
persons is randomly done, the chance, that
there are exactly 3 persons between A and B
is
(a) 3/12
(b) 2/11
(c) 2/13
(d) 3/11
Answer: B
Now, Philips cannot be from Bangalore as given
in (ii).
Explanation:
The player who hails from Bangalore is a
wicketkeeper. So, the only op on le is
Chetan.
So, total number of ways to be arranged around
a circle = (12 -1)! = 11! Ways
Further, Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain
and they do not belong to either Surat or
Bangalore. So, Bishan is the only op on le to
be from Surat.
Now, Philips is from Warangal and Wasim is from
Chandigarh.
the batsman does not hail from Warangal.
There are total 12 persons A + B + 10 others.
Now, exactly 3 persons are to be arranged in
between A and B. So, 10P3
Now, A and B can interchange their posi ons = 2!
Ways
Also, the remaining 7 can also interchange their
positions with each other. So, 7! Ways
So, total ways in arranging all with the condi on of
exactly 3 in between A and B = 2! * 10P3 * 7! Ways
= 2*(10! /7!) * 7! = 2*10! Ways
So, the chance(Probability) = 2*10! / 11!
= 2/11
Previous year questions with solutions | 208
It means 7*10 = 70 days
Q54. 15 men can complete a work in 280 days.
They started the work and a er every 10
days, 15 addi onal men were employed. In
how many days the work was completed?
(a) 70 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 55 days
(d) 50 days
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ini al Men = 15.
These 15 men can finish the work in 280 days.
Total Work = 15 * 280 men-days = 4200 mendays
They work for 10 days. So, work done = 15*10
men-days.
Now 15 more men were added, and they worked
for 10 days= 30*10 men days
Similarly for the next days
15*10 + 30*10 + ……………….+ nth term = 15*280
10(15 + 30 + ………….nth term) = 15*280
So, this makes an AP.
So, work will be done in 70 days.
Q55. Bag 'A' contains 5 white and 2 black balls.
Bag 'B' contains 2 white and 3 black balls. If
any one bag is chosen and a ball is taken out
of it at random, what is the probability that
the ball is black?
(a) 31/70
(b) 1/2
(c) 5/12
(d) 3/5
Answer: B
Explana on:
Bag A = 5White, 2 Black balls
Bag B = 2 White, 3 Black balls.
Probability of selec ng a bag = 1/2
Now, the Probability of picking a black ball = from
bag A or from bag B = 2C1/5C1 + 3C1/5C1
= 2/5 + 3/5
=1
So, required probability = (1/2) *1
= 1/2
Sum= (n/2) *{2a + (n-1)d}
Where n is the nth term, a= first element, d is the
difference
n2 +n = 56
Q56. Three containers have their volumes in the
ra o 3: 4: 5. They are full of mixtures of milk
and water. The mixtures contain milk and
water in the ra o of 4:1, 3:1 and 5:2
respec vely. The contents of all these three
containers are poured into a fourth
container. The ra o of milk and water in the
fourth container is
So, n = 7, -8 (but n cannot be nega ve)
(a) 5:2
So, n=7
(b) 157: 53
15 * 280 = 10[(n/2) *{2*15 +(n-1)15}]
15*28 = (n/2) *(15 + 15n)
30*28 = 15n + 15n2
Previous year questions with solutions | 209
(c) 151: 48
(a) 1/2
(d) 4:1
(b) 3/4
Answer: B
(c) 5/16
Explanation:
(d) 3/8
Let the volumes be 3x,4x, and 5x respec vely.
Answer: B
Container with volume 3x:
Explanation:
Milk = (4/ 4+1) *3x = 12x/5
Total number of outcome is 6*6 = 36.
Water = (1/ 4+1) *3x = 3x/5
Now, according to the ques on we need the
product of numbers on two dice to be even.
Container with volume 4x:
We know “odd* even = even” as well as
“even*even = even”
Milk = (3/3+1) *4x = 12x/4
Water = (1/ 3+1) *4x = 4x/4
Container with volume 5x:
Milk = (5/5+2) *5x = 25x/7
But odd*odd = odd. So, the possibility of the odd
number on the first dice is 3 (1, 3, 5) and
similarly for 2nd dice.
So, the number of outcomes when the product
will be odd = 3*3 = 9 ways.
Water = (2/5+2) *5x = 10x/7
So, required probability = 36 – 9/36
Total milk = 12x/5 + 12x/4 + 25x/7
= 27/36
= 314x/35
= 3/4
Total water = 3x/5 + 4x/4 + 10x/7
Q58. The flowers in a basket become double
every minute and the basket gets full in one
hour. In how much me, the basket was 1/32
full?
= 106x/35
(a) 12 minutes
The ra o of milk to water in the 4th container =
314x/35: 106x/35
=157: 53
(b) 32 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 55 minutes
Answer: D
Q57. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
probability that the product of the two
numbers on the two dice is an even number
is
Explanation:
As per the given informa on,
Previous year questions with solutions | 210
The flower gets double every minute.
(c) 25
Basket in 60 minutes gets full
(d) 11
So,
Answer: B
Basket in 59 minutes will be ½ full
Explanation:
Basket in 58 minutes will be ¼ full
There are total 36 persons.
Basket in 57 minutes will be 1/8 full
9 persons take Tea but not coffee (it means only
tea)
Basket in 56 minutes will be 1/16 full
Basket in 55 minutes will be 1/32 full.
Total persons who take tea (only Tea + both tea
and coffee) = 16.
So, this is the final answer 55 minutes.
So, persons who take both coffee and tea = 16 –
9 = 7.
Q59. If X is mortal, Y is wise. If Z is not good, A
will suffer. Y is not wise if A suffers. If B is a
slave, X is immortal. If A suffers, what
follows?
So, persons who take coffee but not tea (only
coffee) = total – only tea – both tea and coffee
=36 - 9 – 7 = 20
(a) X is mortal
Q61. How many lines other than those shown in
the figure are required to join each corner
with another?
(b) B is a slave
(c) Z is good
(d) Y is wise
Answer: B
Explanation:
If A suffers, it means Y is not wise. (given). Also, If
A suffers, it means Z is not good (given)
If Y is not wise, So, X is not mortal or immortal.
(a) 56
If X is immortal, So B is a slave (given)
(b) 48
So, B is slave follows.
(c) 20
(d) 32
Q60. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take
tea while 9 take tea but not coffee. How
many persons in this group take coffee but
not tea?
(a) 27
(b) 20
Answer: C
Explanation:
The number of diagonals in a polygon of n sides is
given by n(n-3)/2
Hence in an octagon (number of sides = 8) is given
by 8(8–3)/2 = 20.
Previous year questions with solutions | 211
adjacent to the white. The brown face is
adjacent to the blue. The red face is the
bottommost face.
Q62. Two pipes 'A' and 'B' can fill a tank in 15
minutes and 20 minutes respec vely. Both
the pipes are opened together but a er 4
minutes, pipe 'A' is turned off. What is the
total time required to fill the tank?
Q63. The four colours adjacent to green are
(a) 12 mt 30 sec
(b) red, black, brown and blue
(b) 14 mt 40 sec
(c) red, black, brown and white
(c) 10 mt 20 sec
(d) red, brown, blue and white
(d) 11 mt 45 sec
Answer: C
Answer: B
Explanation:
(a) red, black, blue and white
Explanation:
Amount of water filled by pipe A in one minute =
1/15
Amount of water filled by pipe B in one minute =
1/20
So, both pipes were opened for 4 minutes.
So, the amount of water filled by both pipes in 4
minutes = 4* (1/15 + 1/20)
= 7/15
So, remaining amount = 8/15
ABEF = Red
GHDC = Black
Now, pipe A is turned off, So, this will be filled by
pipe B. let’s say in x minutes
ABCD = Green
So, x*(1/20) = 8/15
EFGH = Blue
X = 32/3 minutes it means 10 minutes 40 seconds
AFGD = White
BCHE = Brown
So, total me taken = 4 minutes + 10 minutes 40
seconds
So, Red, black, white and brown are adjacent to
Green.
= 14 minutes 40 seconds
Q64. The face opposite to the brown face is
Direc ons (For the next Two items): A cube has
six faces, each of a different colour. The red
face is opposite to black. The green face is
between red and black. The blue face is
(a) red
(b) white
(c) green
Previous year questions with solutions | 212
(d) blue
Answer: B
•
Explanation:
•
ABEF = Red
GHDC = Black
ABCD = Green
EFGH = Blue
AFGD = White
BCHE = Brown
So, White is opposite to brown face.
Q65. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of
Lok Sabha and State Legisla ve Assemblies
from 5 years to 6 years
(b) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on
the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya
Sabha
(d) One third members of the Rajya Sabha re re
on the expiry of every third year
Answer: D
Explanation:
• 42nd Cons tutional Amendment of 1976
raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state
legisla ve assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
However, the 44th Amendment of 1978
restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and
•
the state legisla ve assemblies to 5 years.
Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
The normal term of Lok Sabha is five years
from the date of its first mee ng a er the
general elec ons, a er which it automa cally
dissolves.
- However, the President is authorised to
dissolve the Lok Sabha at any me even
before the completion of five years.
- Prime
Minister
can
recommend
dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at
any me. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
The Cons tu on lays down a special
procedure for the passing of money bills in the
Parliament.
- A money bill can only be introduced in the
Lok Sabha and that too on the
recommenda on of the President. Thus,
statement 3 is correct.
The Rajya Sabha (first cons tuted in 1952) is a
continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent
body and not subject to dissolution.
- However, one-third of its members re re
every second year.
- Their seats are filled up by fresh elec ons
and presiden al nominations at the
beginning of every third year. Hence
Statement 4 is not correct.
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. For the three All-India Services, there are 24
State cadres including three joint cadres.
2. Union Public Service Commission is the cadre
controlling authority for Indian Administra ve
Service.
3. Staff Selec on Commission is entrusted with
the task of making recruitment to all the Group
'B' and Group 'C' posts under the Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: None of the above, as Op ons given in
the Ques on above are as per 2002 informa on
which has been modified over the period of me.
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 213
•
•
•
A er being selected for the IAS, candidates are
allocated to "Cadres." There is one cadre for
each Indian State that is 21 Cadres in all,
except for three joint cadres: AssamMeghalaya, Manipur-Tripura, and Arunachal
Pradesh - Goa – Mizoram - Union Territories
(AGMUT). Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
The Cons tu on visualises the UPSC to be the
‘watch-dog of merit system’ in India.
- However UPSC is not concerned with the
classifica on of services, pay and service
condi ons, cadre management, training,
and so on. Thus, statement 2 is not
correct.
Staff Selec on Commission is entrusted to
make recruitment to
- All Group “B” posts in the various
Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of
India and their A ached and Subordinate
Offices which are in the pay scales the
maximum of which is Rs.10,500 or below
and
- All non-technical Group “C” posts in the
various Ministries/Departments of the
Govt. of India and their A ached and
Subordinate Offices, except those posts
which are specifically exempt from the
purview of the Staff Selec on Commission.
- Hence NOT ALL jobs in Group B and C.
Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
Q67. Consider the following statements:
1. Part 'B' of the Budget speech of the finance
minister includes descrip on of the ini a ves
on economic front to be taken up by the
Government for the coming year in addi on to
direct and indirect tax proposals.
2. The receipts on account of the par al
disinvestment of Central Government's
holdings in the equity capital of public sector
enterprises are revenue receipts.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The budget is a statement of the es mated
receipts and expenditure of the Government
of India in a financial year.
- In addi on to the es mates of receipts and
expenditure, the budget contains certain
other elements.
- Part B of the Budget Speech contains
details of economic and financial policy of
the coming year, that is, taxa on
proposals, prospects of revenue, spending
programme and introduc on of new
schemes/projects. Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
• Revenue Receipts are receipts which do not
have a direct impact on the assets and
liabili es of the government. It consists of the
money earned by the government through tax
(such as excise duty, income tax) and non-tax
sources (such as dividend income, profits,
interest receipts). Hence Statement 2 is
correct.
Q68. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Answer:
Explanation:
• The CAG is appointed by the President of India
by a warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG,
before taking over his office, makes and
subscribes before the president an oath or
affirmation.
Q69. Assertion (A): Point of order is raised to
cri cize a policy of the government.
Reason (R): It is an important tool of legisla ve
control.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
Previous year questions with solutions | 214
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: D
Explanation:
• A point of order is an extraordinary process
which, when raised, has the effect of
suspending the proceedings before the House
and the member who is on her/his legs gives
way.
- This is meant to assist the Speaker in
enforcing the Rules, Direc ons and
provisions of the Cons tu on for
regula ng the business of the House.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It should essentially refer to procedure and
relate to the business before the House at the
moment and is considered to be an important
tool of legisla ve control. Hence statement 2
is correct.
Q70. Who of the following is the Chairman of
Planning Commission in India?
(a) Finance Minister of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India
(d) Home Minister of India
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prime Minister of India was the ex – officio
chairman of the Planning Commission.
Q71. Who among the following became the
President of India without having been the Vice –
President?
(a) Shri V. V. Giri
(b) Shri Venkataraman
(c) Shri N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Shri Zakir Hussain
Answer: C
Explanation:
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was an Indian poli cian
who served as the sixth president of India, serving
from 1977 to 1982.
• Beginning a long poli cal career with the
Indian Na onal Congress Party in the
independence movement, he went on to hold
several key offices in independent India—as
the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, a
two- me Speaker of the Lok Sabha and a
Union Minister—before becoming the Indian
President.
Q72. Nalanda University flourished during the
reign of which of the following rulers?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) Harsha
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Nalanda was an acclaimed Mahavihara, a large
Buddhist monastery in the ancient kingdom of
Magadha in India.
• The site is located about ninety five kilometres
southeast of Patna near the town of Bihar
Sharif and was a centre of learning from the
fi h century CE to c. 1200 CE.
• Nalanda flourished under the patronage of the
Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries, and
later under Harsha, the emperor of Kannauj.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q73. The foreign traveller who visited India
during Vijayanagar period was?
(a) Megasthenes
(b) Yuan Chwang
(c) Fa Hien
(d) Nicolo Con
Answer: D
Explanation:
Nicolo De Con was Italian merchant, scholar, and
a traveller who visited the Vijayanagar Kingdom
during the me of Dev Raya II.
• He le an account in the Travels of Nicolo
Conti.
Hence Option D is the correct answer.
Q74. Who among the following was a great
protagonist of the 'Doctrine of Lapse'?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer: A
Explanation:
Previous year questions with solutions | 215
The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexa on policy
followed widely by Lord Dalhousie when he was
India’s Governor-General from 1848 to 1856.
• It was used as an administra ve policy for the
extension of British Paramountcy.
Hence option A is the correct Answer.
Q75. Chauri Chaura is known in the history of
India's struggle for freedom because
(a) Gandhiji launched his first Satyagraha in India
from this place
(b) Gandhiji withdrew his Satyagraha movement
when an irate mob set fire to a police sta on
and burnt some policemen
(c) Hundreds of freedom fighters were shot dead
at this place by the police
(d) Gandhiji sat on a hunger strike
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Chauri Chaura is a town in Gorakhpur district
of Uttar Pradesh.
• On 4th February, 1922, this town witnessed a
violent incident - a large crowd of peasants set
on fire a police sta on that killed 22
policemen.
• Due to this incident Mahatma Gandhi called
off the Non-Coopera on Movement (192022). Hence option B is the correct answer.
(c) Lord Wavell
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer: A
Explanation:
•
•
Gandhi-Irwin Pact, was an agreement signed
on March 5, 1931, between Mohandas K.
Gandhi, leader of the Indian na onalist
movement, and Lord Irwin, Bri sh viceroy
(1926–31) of India.
It marked the end of a period of civil
disobedience (satyagraha) in India against
Bri sh rule that Gandhi and his followers had
initiated with the Salt March (March–April
1930).
Q78. Dhanvantari was
(a) a famous General of Chandragupta Maurya
(b) a noted physician in the Court of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya
(c) a famous drama st who lived during the me
of Harsha
(d) a musician in the Court of Ashoka
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dhanvantari was a well-known physician during
reign of Chandragupta Vikramaditya and was one
of Chandragupta Vikramaditya's nine diamonds.
Q76. The 'Grand Trunk Road' connects
(a) Kolkata and Mumbai
(b) Delhi and Chennai
(c) Kolkata and Amritsar
(d) Tirupa and Ludhiana
Answer: C
Explanation:
This route started from Kabul in Afghanistan to
Chi agong in Bangladesh. It covered Khyber
Bypass and connected ci es like Rawalpindi,
Amritsar, A ari, Delhi, Mathura, Varanasi, Patna,
Kolkata in India, Dhaka and Chi agong.
Q79. Which leader is called the ‘father' of India's
social reform movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) G.K. Gokhale
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
Answer: B
Explanation:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the father of Modern
India's Renaissance and a reless social reformer
who inaugurated the age of enlightenment and
liberal reformist modernisa on in India.
Q77. The Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930
culminated in the signing of a pact in 1931 by
Gandhiji and
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Linlithgow
Q80. Match List-I. (Classical Dance Form) with
List-II (State) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
LIST I (Classical Dance
LIST II (State)
Form)
Previous year questions with solutions | 216
A. Bharat Natyam
B. Kathakali
C. Kuchipudi
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Odisha
Tamil Nadu
Manipur
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Code:
A
B
C
(a)
4
3
1
(b)
2
5
4
(c)
4
5
1
(d)
2
3
4
Answer: B
• Bharatanatyam is a major form of Indian
classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• Kathakali is na ve to the Malayalam-speaking
southwestern region of Kerala.
• Kuchipudi originates from a village named
Kuchipudi in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q81. Consider the following statements :
1. Bermuda situated in Western Atlan c Ocean
is a United Kingdom Overseas Territory.
2. 38th Parallel divided boundary between North
and South Vietnam before unifica on.
3. Bahamas situated near Florida is one of the
states of USA.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: A
• Bermuda is a British Overseas Territory in the
Western Atlantic Ocean. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
• 38th North Parallel divided the North and
South Korea from 1945 ll 1950. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Bahamas, officially the Commonwealth of
The Bahamas, is a country within the Lucayan
Archipelago of the West Indies in the Atlan c.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Q82. Consider the following statements :
1. Falkland Islands are situated in Pacific Ocean.
2. Red Sea separates Sudan from Egypt.
3. England, Norway, Denmark surround North Sea.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: D
• The Falkland Islands, or the Malvinas Islands,
is an archipelago in the South Atlan c Ocean.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Red Sea separated the African con nent with
the Arabian Peninsula. Egypt and Sudan share
a land border. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
• The North Sea is a sea of the Atlan c Ocean
between Great Britain, Norway, Denmark,
Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and
France.
Q83. Which is the correct sequence of the given
American ci es from West to East?
(a) Salt Lake City-Pi sburgh-San Francisco-Boston
(b) San Francisco-Salt Lake City-Pi sburgh-Boston
(c) Salt Lake City-San Francisco-Boston-Pi sburgh
(d) San Francisco-Pi sburgh-Salt Lake City-Boston
Answer: B
Previous year questions with solutions | 217
Q84. La tude of a place is indicative of its
(a) me
(b) altitude
(c) amount of rainfall
(d) temperature
Answer: D
• La tude of a place is indica ve of the
temperature of the place. Hence, op on D is
the correct answer.
• Longitude of a place is indica ve of me of the
place.
Q85. Consider the following statements :
1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical proper es and
is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops.
2. Black soil is suitable for co on, groundnut.
3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn a er sowing
in June.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: B
• Alluvial soil is rich in chemical proper es and
is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Black soil is suitable for co on & groundnut.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Rabi crops are reaped in spring a er sowing in
post monsoon season in month of
October/November. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
Q86. Consider the following statements : While it
is 6:30 AM (Sunday) in London, it is around
1. 2.30 AM (Sunday) in Honolulu (Hawaii)
2. 8.30 PM (Saturday) in Honolulu (Hawaii)
3. 3.30 PM (Sunday) in Tokyo
4. 1:30 AM (Sunday) in Tokyo
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: B
• Tokyo, Japan is 8 hours ahead of London, UK.
So, the me in Tokyo would be around 2.30
PM.
• London, UK is 11 hours ahead of Honolulu,
Hawaii, USA. So, the me in Honolulu would
be around 7:30 PM. Hence, op on B is the
correct answer.
Q87. Consider the following statements:
1. Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich
and is at 0° Longitude.
2. Interna onal Date Line, on the map appears
as a straight line along 180° Longitude.
3. While crossing Interna onal Date Line from
east to west, one gains a day.
4. Tropic of Cancer lies at 23½° La tude S.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: C
• Prime Meridian is a meridian (a line of
longitude) in a geographic coordinate system
at which longitude is defined to be 0°. It is
derived, but differs slightly, from the
Greenwich Meridian, the previous standard.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Interna onal Date Line (IDL) is an
interna onally accepted demarca on on the
surface of Earth, running between the South
Pole and North Pole and serving as the
boundary between one calendar day and the
next. It passes through the Pacific Ocean,
roughly following the 180° line of longitude
Previous year questions with solutions | 218
•
•
and devia ng to pass around some territories
and island groups. It is not a straight line.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
While crossing Interna onal Date Line from
east to west, one gains a day. While crossing
it towards the east one loses a day. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Tropic of Cancer lies at 23½° La tude N.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Q88. Consider the following statements :
According to Census 2001
1. The literacy rate increase for males is more
than that of the females during last one
decade.
2. Amongst the States and Union Territories,
Delhi has the highest popula on density while
Sikkim has the lowest.
3. The correct sequence of popula on in
descending order of Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka is Tamil
Nadu-Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan-Karnataka.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: D
• During 1991 – 2001, literacy rate of males
increased by 11.72 percentage points while
female literacy rate increased by 14.87.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• In 2001 Census, Delhi had the highest
popula on density while Arunachal Pradesh
had the lowest. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
• Correct order of popula on is Tamil Nadu
(62.1 million) – Madhya Pradesh (60.3 miliion)
– Rajasthan (56.4 million) – Karnataka (52.7
million). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q89. Match List-I (Park/Sanctuary) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I (Park/Sanctuary)
List-II (State)
A. Keoladeo Na onal 1. Assam
Park
B. Corbe Na onal Park
C. Kaziranga Sanctuary
D. Periyar Sanctuary
2. Kerala
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Rajasthan
5. U aranchal
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 2 5
4
1
(b) 4 3
1
2
(c) 2 3
4
1
(d) 4 5
1
2
Answer: D
• Keoladeo National Park is a famous avifauna
sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. Hence, A is
matched with 4.
• Corbe Na onal Park is in U arakhand.
Hence, B is matched with 5.
• Kaziranga NP is located in Assam. Hence, C is
matched with 1.
• Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala.
Hence, D is matched with 2.
Q90. Match List-I (Mul -purpose river valley
projects) with List-II (State) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Mul -purpose
List-II (State)
river valley projects)
A. Purna Project
1. Gujarat
B. Bhima Project
2. Maharashtra
C. Kakrapara Project
3. Uttaranchal
D. Tehri Dam Project
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Karnataka
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 1 2
5
3
(b) 2 5
1
3
(c) 1 3
5
4
(d) 2 4
1
3
Answer: B
• Purna river project is located in the State of
Maharashtra. Hence, A is matched with 2.
• Bhima project is located in Karnataka. Hence,
B is matched with 5.
• Kakrapara project is located in Gujarat. Hence,
C is matched with 1.
• Tehri Dam project is located in U arakhand.
Hence, D is matched with 3.
Previous year questions with solutions | 219
Q91. Match List-I (City) with List-II (River Passing
through the city) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (City)
List-II (River passing
through the city)
A. Nasik
1. Krishna
B. Surat
2. Cauvery
C. Ujjain
3. Godavari
D. Vijayawada
4. Shipra
5. Tap
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 5
4
1
(b) 4 1
3
2
(c) 3 1
4
2
(d) 4 5
3
1
Answer: A
• Nasik is located along the banks of river
Godavari. Hence, A is matched with 3.
• Surat is located along banks of Tap river.
Hence, B is matched with 5.
• Ujjain is located along the banks of Shipra.
Hence, C is matched with 4.
• Vijayawada is located along Krishna river.
Hence, D is matched with 1.
Q92. Recently, Cannes Film Festival was held in
(a) Switzerland
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) England
Answer: B
Explanation
• The Cannes Festival un l 2003 called the
Interna onal Film Festival and known in
English as the Cannes Film Fes val, is an
annual film fes val held in Cannes,
France.
Q93. Shri Kiran Karnik is the
(a) President of NASSCOM
(b) Chairman of the Board of Control of
Cricket for India
(c) Chairman of Maharashtra State Public
Service Commission
(d) Managing Director of Engineers India
Ltd.
Answer: A
Explanation
• Kiran Karnik was serving as the President
of NASSCOM in 2001.
Q94. Knesset is the name of the Parliament of
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Israel
(d) Spain
Answer: C
Explanation
• Knesset is the name of the Parliament
of Israel.
Q.95 Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I
A. Dennis Tito
B. Colin Powell
C. Jacques Chirac
D. Donald H. Rumsfeld
List-II
1. President of France
2. Defence Secretary, USA
3. Secretary of State, USA
4. First space tourist
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
3
4
2
(b) 4
2
1
3
(c) 1
2
4
3
(d) 4
3
1
2
Answer: D
Person
Associated
With
Dennis Tito
First
Space
Tourist
Colin Powell
Secretary of
State USA
Jacques Chirac
President of
France
Previous year questions with solutions | 220
Donald H. Rumsfeld
Defence
Secretary,
USA
Q.96 Match List-I (Football World Cup/Year) with
List-II (Host Country) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Football World Cup/Year)
A. 1986
B. 1990
C. 1994
D. 1998
List-II (Host Country)
1. Italy
2. Mexico
3. France
4. USA
5. Spain
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
3
2
1
(b) 2
1
4
3
(c) 5
1
2
3
(d) 2
3
4
1
Answer: B
Explanation
Football World Cup
Host Country
1986
Mexico
1990
Italy
1994
USA
1998
France
2022
Doha, Qatar
Q.97 Match List-I (Person) with List-II
(Organiza on) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Rajendra S. Pawar
B. Ashok Soota
C. R.S. Lodha
D. R.K. Pachauri
List-II (Organiza on)
1. CII
2. TERI
3. NIIT
4. FICCI
Code:
A
B
(a) 4
2
(b) 3
1
(c) 4
1
(d) 3
2
Answer: D
Explanation
Person
Rajendra S Pawar
Ashok Soota
R.S.Lodha
R.K.Pachauri
C
3
4
3
4
D
1
2
2
1
Organiza on
NIIT
CII
FICCI
TERI
Q.98 Raksha Kavach' is
(a) a new safety equipment designed for the
soldiers of Indian Army
(b) an an -collision device to prevent
collision between trains designed by the
Konkan Railway Corpora on
(c) a new design for earthquake resistant
buildings
(d) a new device for the Indian airports for
the safe landing of aircra s
Answer: B
Explanation
• Raksha Kavach is an an -collision device to
prevent collision between trains designed
by the Konkan Railway Corpora on.
Q.99 Consider the following statements in
respect of Soccer World Cup :
1. Prior to FIFA-2002 Cup, Brazil had won
the World Cup four mes.
2. Indomitable Lions' is the nickname for
Cameroon team.
3. 'Azzurri' is the nickname for the Italian
team.
4. Senegal,
Slovenia
and
Ecuador
par cipating in FIFA-2002 are the only
teams par cipa ng in the World Cup for
the first me.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
Previous year questions with solutions | 221
Explanation
• China, Ecuador, Senegal, and Slovenia
made their World Cup debuts in FIFA 2002.
• FIFA World Cup 2022 will take place in
Qatar.
• La'ebb is the mascot of the Qatar 2022.
• Adidas 2022 World Cup ball is called "Al
Rihla."
Q.100 Recently, Government disinvested stake in
VSNL, IBP and IPCL to
(a) Bhar Telesonic, Reliance and GAIL,
respec vely
(b) Tata Group of Industries, Indian Oil
Corpora on and Reliance, respec vely
(c) Bhar Telesonic, Royal Dutch Shell and
Pfizer, respec vely
(d) Motorala, Kuwait Petroleum and
Ranbaxy, respec vely
Answer: B
Explanation
• Government has disinvested its Stake in
VSNL, IBP and IPCL to Tata Group of
Industries, Indian Oil Corpora on and
Reliance, respec vely
Q.101 Stockholm Syndrome is a mental condi on
experienced by
(a) the young persons who take up jobs in
the industry a er passing out from the
Management Schools
(b) persons who migrate from rural areas to
urban ci es, during the earlier stages of
their stay
(c) drug-addicts in the rehabilitation centres
(d) hostages and kidnap vic ms in which
positive feelings develop towards their
captors
Answer: D
Explanation
• Stockholm syndrome is a coping
mechanism to a cap ve or abusive
situa on.
• This condi on applies to situa ons
including child abuse, coach-athlete
abuse, rela onship abuse and sex
trafficking.
Q.102
Match
List-I
(Football
World
Cup/Year) with List-II (Host Country) and select
the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I (Prominent Football Player)
A. Michael Owen
B. Luis Figo
C. Gabriel Ba stuta
D. Raul Gonzalez
List-II (Country)
1. Italy
2. Spain
3. Portugal
4. Argen na
5. England
6. Brazil
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
2
4
3
(b) 6
3
1
2
(c) 5
3
4
2
(d) 6
2
1
3
Answer: C
Explanation
Player
Country
Michael Owen
England
Luis Figo
Portugal
Gabriel Batistuta
Argen na
Raul Gonzalez
Spain
Q.103 Match List-I (City) with List-II
(Establishment) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (City)
A. Arkonnam
B. Allahabad
C. Kamptee
D. Mhow
List-II (Establishment)
1. Central Air Command HQ
2. Naval Air Base
3. Ins tute of Military Law
4. Coast Guard District HQ
Previous year questions with solutions | 222
5. College of Combat
Code:
A
B
C
(a) 2
5
3
(b) 3
1
4
(c) 2
1
3
(d) 3
5
4
Answer: C
Explanation
City
Arkonnam
Allahabad
Kamptee
Mhow
D
1
5
5
1
Establishments
Naval Air Base
Central
Air
Command Hq
Ins tute
of
Military Law
College
of
Combat
Q.104 Match List-I (Library) with List-II (City) and
select the correct answer
List-I (Library)
A. National Library
B. State Central Library
C. Connemara Public Library
List-II (City)
1. New Delhi
2. Kolkata
3. Mumbai
4. Chennai
Code:
A B
C
(a) 1
3
4
(b) 2
3
4
(c) 1
4
3
(d) 2
4
3
Answer: B
Explanation
Library
City
National Library
Kolkata
State Central Library
Mumbai
Connemara Public Library
Chennai
Q.105 Crop Yield Formula on Unit which has
developed sta s cal models to forecast crop
yield works under the control of
(a) Ministry of Water Resources
(b) Department of Agriculture and Co
operation
(c) India Meteorological Department
(d) Department of Food and Public
Distribu on
Answer: B
Explanation
• Crop Yield Forma on unit works under
the Department of Agriculture and Co
opera on.
Q.106 East Timor, the latest independent na on
in the world was ruled by
(a) Indonesia
(b) Australia
(c) Malaysia
(d) Philippines
Answer: A
Explanation
• East Timor declared itself independent
from Portugal in 1975, but was invaded by
Indonesia.
• It became the first new sovereign state of
the twenty-first century on 20 May 2002.
Q.107 Which of the following pair is not correctly
matched ?
(a) National Aluminium Company Ltd. :
Bhubaneswar
(b) Indian Bureau of Mines : Dhanbad
(c) National Film Archives of India : Pune
(d) National Archives of India : New Delhi
Answer: B
Explanation
Indian Bureau of Mines is headquartered at
Nagpur.
Q.108 Sagar Samrat' is the name of
(a) an island near Port Blair
(b) a drilling ship in Bombay High
(c) an island near Maldives
(d) name of a 5-star hotel in Goa
Answer: B
Explanation
• Sagar Samrat is an oil drilling pla orm in
Mumbai high, which is 176 kilometres
away from the coastline of Mumbai.
Previous year questions with solutions | 223
Q.109 Which tourist des na on from amongst
the following will be developed as an
interna onal des na on for tourism according
to the Budget 2002-03?
(a) Port Blair
(b) Hampi
(c) Pushkar
(d) Nalanda
Answer: B
Explanation
• According to union budget 2002-03,
Hampi will be developed as an
interna onal destina on for tourism.
Q.110 Shri Rajender Singh won the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for
(a) Emergent leadership
(b) Community leadership
(c) Illiteracy eradica on
(d) Bio-technology
Answer: B
Explanation
• Rajendra Singh is the winner of Stockholm
Water Prize' 2015.
• He has been honoured by Asia's most
pres gious Ramon Magsaysay Award'
2001, for Community Leadership.
Q.111 Which among the following became the
first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Kim Campbell
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
Answer: D
Explanation
• Sirimavo Bandaranaike was the first
woman Prime Minister of the World.
• She was the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka
(then the Dominion of Ceylon) in 1960.
Q.112 Who among the following wrote the book
Algebra of Infinite Jus ce?
(a) Anita Desai
(b) Vikram Seth
(c) Arundha Roy
(d) Rohington Mistry
Answer: C
Explanation
• Arunda Roy has wri en the book
“Algebra of Infinite Jus ce”
Q113. Consider the following statements:
1. The demand for commodi es having a large
number of close subs tutes is less elas c than
the commodi es having a smaller number of
subs tutes
2. Luxury items have a highly elas c demand
3. The commodi es whose consump on cannot
easily be postponed have less elas c demand
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The extent of responsiveness of demand with
change in the price is not always the same.
The demand for a product can be elas c or
inelas c, depending on the rate of change in
the demand with respect to change in price of
a product. Elastic demand is the one when the
response of demand is greater with a small
proportionate change in the price. On the
other hand, inelas c demand is the one when
there is rela vely a less change in the demand
with a greater change in the price.
• Therefore, the demand for commodi es
having a large number of close subs tutes is
more elas c than the commodi es having a
smaller number of subs tutes because
whenever there is a change in prices of
commodi es having close subs tutes there
will be dras c change in the demand of that
commodity. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Luxury items Luxury items have a highly elas c
demand. Since these items are not necessity
therefore, change in prices of these items lead
to dras c change in the demands of these
items. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Previous year questions with solutions | 224
•
•
The commodi es whose consump on cannot
easily be postponed have less elas c demand.
Since these commodi es belong to the
necessity class of goods e.g., flour, salt, sugar
etc. Therefore, irrespec ve of change in prices
of these goods, demand of these commodi es
does not get affected too much. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, B is the right answer.
Q114. Consider the following statements:
1. Launching of Fourth five-year plan was
postponed and three annual plans had to be
resorted to between 1966 to 1969.
2. Fi h five-year plan was terminated a year
earlier.
3. Eighth five-year plan commenced in 1992
instead of 1990.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The government had to declare "Plan
Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).
The Sino-Indian War and the Indo-Pak War,
which caused the Third Five Year Plan to fail,
were the primary causes of the plan
holidays. Therefore, the Fourth five-year
plan was postponed. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
•
•
The new approach was “Rolling Plan”. It
terminated the fi h five-year plan in
1977-78 and launched its own sixth five-year
plan for period 1978-83 and
called
it
rolling plan.
The
Janata
Party government rejected the Fifth Five-Year
Plan and introduced a new Sixth Five-Year
Plan (1978–1980).
The plan
was
terminated in 1978, its fourth year, due to
change in the Government at the Centre.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Eight Five Year Plan was not introduced
in 1990 and the following years 1990-91 and
•
1991-92 were treated as Annual Plans. This
was largely because of the economic
instability. India faced a crisis of foreign
exchange reserves during this
me.
Therefore, Eighth five-year plan commenced
in 1992 instead of 1990. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
Therefore, D is the right answer.
Q115. Assertion (A): Macro-economic deals with
the study of aggregates and averages.
Reason (R): Central problem of macro-economics
is the determina on of income and employment.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Macroeconomics is the branch of economics
that deals with the structure, performance,
behavior, and decision-making of the whole,
or aggregate, economy. Hence, statement (A)
is correct.
• The central issues in Macroeconomics relate
to the overall level of employment, growth
rate of na onal output, general price level and
stability of the economy. Hence, statement
(R) is correct.
• Though both the statements are correct but R
is not the correct explana on of A. Therefore,
B is the right answer.
05
Our 6 step
formula to
become
APFC in EPFO
• What is the 6 step formula?
• Our legacy - Our Students
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 226
What is the 6-Step Formula?
Set a
clear goal
#1
Always remember that if you are not sure about WHY you want to take certain actions, it is
most likely that the action won’t yield results. Even if it does, you will not be satisfied with
the result. Same is the case with APFC exam, you need to have the clarity in your mind that
why you wish to prepare, is it because of money & power, prestige, job security, social
service or is it the postings in metro cities that motivate you to take this exam. Whatever
may be the factor, you have to have your goal crystal clear to be always motivated & act
consistently to get success.
#2
Understand
the exam
The syllabus and previous year questions are like the 2 headlights of your car of
preparation. You miss one of these and your car will meet with an accident, let me
guarantee you this right here! The biggest blunder aspirants like you commit is that they do
not define the scope of the syllabus of the examination and prepare under the impression
that anything and everything can be asked in the examination which is even remotely
related to the syllabus! Hell no! This is NOT the case. Download and print a copy of the
syllabus and then do the same for previous year questions (link has been provided above).
Go through the syllabus atleast 10 times and then go through the previous year questions
(year wise) and see for yourself what are the important topics and in what depth they need
to be studied for the examination. Believe me, more than 90% of the so-called sincere
aspirants do not do this.
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 227
#3
Shortlist
Resources
Based on step 2 above, now is the time to shortlist your study sources - be it coaching
material, books, websites, magazines, or the like! And remember, once you prepare a list of
the resources that you are going to follow, DO NOT get swayed by new material that keeps
flooding the market through telegram, Facebook, websites, advertisements, etc! Keep your
head down and focus on completing your study sources. Yes, once you are done with your
sources, you can move to a secondary source but not before that!
#4
Plan a
Strategy
This is a very important step - you must plan a strategy for yourself. This strategy is for ‘you’
and ‘you’ alone. Do not compare your strategy with others, some like studying early in the
morning, some like to burn the midnight oil, some can sit at a stretch for 6 hours, some
study for 2 hours and take a break and then study again. Some study on all 7 days, some
study for 5 days and take a 2-day break. Whatever! The point or the goal is to have a
strategy that ‘works’ for ‘you’. It is not meant to earn shower of praises from your parents,
friends or peers!
Execute with
consistency
#5
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 228
Ah consistency! The ever-elusive thing! The secret to developing consistency is to make
‘micro easy targets’. How? Let's compare 2 situations. Student A makes a plan that he will
study 8 hours everyday starting tomorrow and sets a goal for himself for the next day cover 50 pages of current affairs magazine, 20 pages of constitution of India from a book,
50 questions of arithmetical reasoning and read 20 pages of history. He starts his day full of
energy but towards the end of the day finds himself in quite an uncomfortable position
realizing that only 50% of the target has been covered. He is not able to sleep comfortably
that night and gets up the next morning tired and frustrated. Now he has to complete the
pending tasks of Day 1 as well as cover whatever he decided for Day 2 as well! Quite an
uphill task, don’t you think?
On the other hand, Student B makes a plan that he will also study 8 hours a day and sets a
goal of completing 20 pages of current affairs magazine, 10 pages of constitution of India
and 10 questions of arithmetical reasoning. What will happen is that this student will
complete his target ahead of schedule and having done that feel elated, joyful and full of
confidence! This will lead to a good night’s sleep and hence even higher energy for the next
day!
Getting my rhythm? This is how you make ‘micro and ‘easy’ targets and achieve them daily
and move ahead with consistency.
#6
Develop
Faith
Always think from your mind and feel from your heart. If you reverse this sentence, you will
get trapped in ‘emotions’. Being emotional isn’t bad at all, it’s good! Getting trapped in
emotions is what is bad! Once you complete step 1-5, you will start to develop faith in
yourself. Have a little trust on your mentors as well, talk to them, mail them, get in touch and
see how they can help you!
After you learn and understand this 6 Step Formula to dominate APFC Exam, you can
literally apply it on any examination you are taking or might take in the future!
The above formula will always help you set a clear goal and plan all your activities around
that one clear goal.
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 229
Do you wish to dig in deep to know more about this
6-Step formula and how
YOU can be benefitted
from this?
To get all your answers:
• Scan QR code
• Register for FREE UPSC APFC Domination Workshop
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 230
Our Legacy - Our Students
Rank
Rank
Rank
4
3
Rank
8
10
Mr. Om Prakash Birda
Mr. Vidyanta
Mr. Gokul Suresh
Mr. Bishnu Sharma
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
11
Rank
18
Mr. Shubham Agarwal
Mr. Amit Joy
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
34
Rank
40
Rank
Rank
30
32
Mr. Animesh Kumar
Ms. Nisha Panwar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Rank
41
43
Mr. Kapil Gupta
Mr. Ashish Yadav
Mr. Ashok P
Mr. Rajat Singh
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
48
Mr. Vishal Harmalkar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
58
Rank
49
Rank
Rank
52
56
Mr. Yash Anand
Mr. Kunwar Vikram
Mr.Skanda Kumar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
66
Mr. Banoth Kethan
Mr. Abhishek Sisodia
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Rank
67
Mr. Tarun Aggarwal
Mr. Jithin VJ
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
75
Rank
72
Rank
79
Rank
86
91
Mr. Zaki Anwar Naqvi
Mr. Sunny Sahay
Mr. Debopam De
Mr. Aman Chauhan
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 231
Rank
Rank
93
Rank
Rank
98
97
99
Ms. Divya Joshi
Mr. Sunny Sahay
Mr. Prashant Srivastava
Mr. Krishnachaitanya
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Rank
101
103
Rank
Rank
107
113
Mr. Jalaj Kashyap
Mr. Ishan Mishra
Mr. Agrit Tyagi
Ms. Rupinder Kaur
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Rank
114
116
Rank
Rank
119
126
Ms. Anushree
Ms. Kiran Chillar
Mr. Rahul Shrivastava
Mr. Ramraj Meena
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Rank
128
131
135
Mr. Shubham Pathak
Mr. UnnikrishnanA K
Mr. Maulik Thakkar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
UPSC EPFO EO/AO
Rank
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 232
What Our Toppers have to Say About Us
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 233
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 234