CHAPTER 8: E-COMMERCE
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A mart card is about the size of a credit card and contains an embedded microprocessor chip for storing important financial and personal
information. (TRUE)
Companies that provide click-and-brick e-commerce still struggle to incorporate online interaction. (FALSE)
Companies use business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce applications for purchase orders. (TRUE)
Each activity in a value adds cost and value to a product or service delivered to a customer. (TRUE)
E-business includes transactions that generate for goods and services. (TRUE)
E-business is part of e-commerce. (FALSE)
E-commerce activities that take place via an organization’s intranet are part of the business-to-consumer (B2B) e-commerce model.
(FALSE)
E-commerce builds on traditional commerce by adding the flexibility that networks offer and the availability of the internet. (TRUE)
E-commerce provides product acknowledgements through phone calls and faxes. (FALSE)
E-commerce, its applications, and its supporting technologies are an example of using Porter’s value chain concept. (TRUE)
Government and nonbusiness organizations refrain from using e-commerce applications. (FALSE)
In the subscription model, an organization uses e-commerce sites to sell digital products and services. (TRUE)
Large corporations, such as General Electric or Boeing, as well as consortiums of several large companies use the buyer-side marketplace
model. (TRUE)
Micropayments are transactions on the Web involving very large amounts of money. (FALSE)
One method of conducting voice-based e-commerce is using e-wallets. (TRUE)
Optimizing a Web site involves editing a site’s content and HTML code to increase its relevance to specific keywords. (TRUE)
Outbound logistics includes tasks associated with receiving, storing, and converting raw materials to finished goods. (FALSE) 18. Popunder ads are more intrusive than pop-up ads. (FALSE)
Service and support are more important in traditional commerce than in e-commerce. (FALSE)
Short-range wireless communication technologies are incompatible with m-commerce applications. (FALSE)
The buyer-side marketplace offers suppliers a direct channel of communication to buyers through online storefronts. (FALSE)
The fulfillment function of the business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce cycle is responsible for delivering products or services to
customers. (TRUE)
The goal of e-commerce differs from the goal of traditional commerce. (FALSE)
The main advantage of HTML over XML is that a user can assign data-type definitions to information on a page. (FALSE)
The third-party exchange market-place model is controlled by sellers and buyers. (FALSE)
The use of e-wallets is restricted to non-portable devices. (FALSE)
The use of the Internet and e-commerce applications to gain a competitive advantage is restricted to multinational companies. (FALSE)
The World Wide Web Consortium has canceled support for micropayments. (TRUE)
Universities are an example of nonbusiness organizations that use e-commerce applications. (TRUE)
Wireless wide area networks (WWANs), 3G, and 4G networks support m-commerce applications. (TRUE)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Which of the following is a supporting activity in a value chain? TECHNOLOGICAL DEVELOPMENT.
Which of the following primary activities in a value chain involves moving and storing products, from the end of the production line to end
users or distribution centers? OUTBOUND LOGICTICS.
In a value chain, service involves: ACTIVITIES TO SUPPORT CUSTOMERS AFTER THE SALE PRODUCTS.
Which of the following primary activities in a value chain involves processing raw materials into finished goods and services?
OPERATIONS.
Which of the following primary activities in a value chain involves movement of materials and parts from suppliers and vendors to
production or storage facilities? INBOUND LOGISTICS.
E-commerce fulfills the product information activity using _____. WEB SITES.
Which of the following is an advantage of e-commerce? IMPROVING CUSTOMER SERVICE.
_____ means all market participants can trade at the same price. PRICE TRANSPARENCY.
The _____ model transfers the old retail model to the e-commerce world by using the medium of the Internet. MERCHANT.
Using _____ model brings sellers and buyers together on the Web and collects commissions on transactions between these parties.
BROKERAGE.
E-commerce sites that use the _____ model collect data on consumers and businesses and then sell this data to other companies for
marketing purposes. INFOREDIARY.
Companies exclusively using businesses-to-consumer (B2C) applications: SELL DIRECTLY TO CONSUMERS.
Buyeasy Inc., an online retail store, sells all its products exclusively through its online application, Buyeasy.com, which is also available on
mobiles. Buyeasy is an example of a PURE-PLAY COMPANY.
Crisis response is an example of a _____ e-government application. GOVERNMENT-TO-GOVERNMENT (G2G).
1
15. E-training for government officials is an example of a _____ application. GOVERNMENT-TO-EMPLOYEE (G2E).
16. Online auction sites that involve business transactions between users of products and services are examples of _____ e-commerce.
CONSUMER-TO-CONSUMER (C2C).
17. _____ is the first activity to be involved in a typical business-to-consumer (B2C) cycle. INFORMATION SHARING.
18. Service and support are even more important in e-commerce than in traditional commerce because e-commerce companies: DO NOT
HAVE A PHYSICAL LOCATION TO HELP MAINTAIN CURRENT CUSTOMERS.
19. The main objectives of _____ are to prevent purchases from suppliers that are not on the approved list of sellers and eliminate the
processing costs of purchases. E-PROCUREMENT.
20. A _____ generates revenue from the fees charged for matching buyers and sellers. THIRD-PARTY EXCHANGE MARKETPLACE.
21. A(n) _____ market concentrates on a specific function or business process and automates this function or process for different industries.
HORIZONTAL.
22. In the _____ model, a group of buyers opens an electric marketplace and invites sellers to bid on announced products or market a request
for quotation (RFQ). BUYER-SIDE MARKETPLACE.
23. By participating in _____ marketplaces, sellers can automate the fulfillment function of business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce.
BUYERSIDE.
24. Media buying is an example of a(n) _____ market. HORIZONTAL.
25. Mobile commerce (m-commerce) is based on the _____ Protocol. WIRELESS APPLICATION.
26. Which of the following is true about mobile commerce (m-commerce) applications? THEY ARE SUPPORTED BY SHORT-RANGE
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION TECNHOLOGIES.
27. A(n) _____ refers to money or scrip that is exchanged electronically. ELECTRONIC.
28. An _____ is a secure, convenient, and portable tool for online shopping that stores personal and financial information, such as credit card
numbers, passwords, and PINs. E-WALLET.
29. _____ is a popular online payment system used on many online auction sites. PAYPAL.
30. Which of the following terms describes on user viewing one ad? AD IMPRESSION.
31. Which of the following terms is computed by dividing the number of clicks an ad gets by the total impressions bought? CLICKTHROUGH RATE (CTR).
32. _____ display ads appear on top of a browser window, blocking the user’s view. POP-UP.
33. A(n) _____ is an artificial intelligence application that can be used for Web marketing. INTELLIGENT AGENT.
34. With _____ technology, information is sent to users based on their previous inquiries, interests, or specifications. PUSH.
35. _____ is a method for improving the volume or quality of traffic to a Web site. SEARCH ENGINE OPTIMIZATION.
36. A Web page displayed when a user first visits a site is called a(n) _____. SPLASH SCREEN.
CENGAGE QUESTIONS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
Service_ is a primary activity in Michael Porter's value chain.*
A __buyer-side marketplace_ is initiated by a group of consumers and enables a customer to bid on specific products or make a
request for quotation (RFQ) at a common place for selling products. *
Which tag is an HTML tag that provides information on the keywords that represent the contents of a Web page? Meta *
_ Bluetooth_ is a short-range wireless communication technology that acts as a supporting technology for mobile commerce (mcommerce) applications. *
_ Human resource management__ is a supporting activity in Michael Porter's value chain. *
_ Peer-to-peer e-commerce plaMCorms_ are community-based marketplaces that enable individuals to communicate directly with
each other and conduct e-commerce operations.*
__Micropayment___ is a method for advertisers to pay for cost per view or cost per click, which is typically one-tenth of a cent. *
A popular application of the __ seller-side marketplace___ model, which is a major business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce model,
is e-procurement. *
A(n) _ e-check_ is the electronic version of a paper check and offers security, speed, and convenience for online transactions. *
Electronic data interchange (EDI) and electronic funds transfer (EFT) are forms of _ business-to-business_ e-commerce. *
For a business that is properly designing and using a social media information system (SMIS), the SMIS would most likely: enable it
to share new and dynamic contents with customers in real time *
In the context of Web marketing, a cookie is: the information a Web site stores on a user's hard drive. *
In the context of Web marketing, any element of a Web page that is clicked counts as a _hit_ to a server. *
In the third-party exchange marketplace model, the sale of medical products is an example of a _ vertical market____. *
Jack is a gamer, and every time he plays at a gaming center, he pays five dollars using a card that he recharges electronically every
week. It is evident that Jack uses _e-cash_ as the mode of payment. *
Price __ transparency___, in e-commerce, means all market participants can trade at the same price *
The ___ mixed__ model, a widely used business model in e-commerce, refers to generating revenue from more than one source. *
Which concept, introduced by Michael Porter, consists of a series of activities designed to meet business needs by adding cost in each
phase of the e-commerce process? value chain *
Which model of e-commerce is an extension of traditional marketing media, such as radio and television? advertising model *
2
20. Which model transfers the old retail model to the e-commerce world by using the medium of the Internet? Merchant *
TRUE / FALSE
1.
2.
3.
Government and nonbusiness organizations are prohibited from using e-commerce applications. False *
In a buyer-side marketplace, a buyer, or a group of buyers, opens an electronic marketplace and invites sellers to bid on announced
products or make a request for quotation. True *
The use of e-wallets is restricted to nonportable devices. False *
CHAPTER 11: ENTERPRISE SYSTEMS
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A customer relationship management (CRM) system consists only of sales automation and customer support activities. (FALSE)
A grocery store offering loyalty cards with discounts to its customers is an example of how transaction can be used in a customer
relationship management (CRM) system. (TRUE)
A key decision in supply chain management (SCM) related to manufacturing is cost. (FALSE)
A supply chain management (SCM) system coordinates the procurement, transformation, and distribution of products. (TRUE)
A traditional electronic data interchange (EDI) uses proprietary protocols and networks. (TRUE)
Attracting new customers is less expensive in comparison with businesses maintaining current customers. (FALSE)
Auctions help determine the price of goods and services when the original set price is too high. (FALSE)
E-distributions offer fast delivery of a wide selection of products and services, usually at lower prices, and they help companies reduce the
time and expense of searching for goods. (TRUE)
For organizations that do not have in-house resources to develop a supply chain management (SCM) system, several vendors offer
comprehensive solutions for this purpose. (TRUE)
Handling unforeseen problems is called “exception management,” and lessons learned during this process can be used in future planning.
(TRUE)
Having modular components is a major factor in the success of enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems because it keeps costs down.
(TRUE)
In a manufacturing firm, management activities in the information flow area of supply chain management (SCM) system consist of
handling credit terms, payment schedules, and consignment and title ownership arrangements. (FALSE)
In a manufacturing firm’s supply chain, raw materials flow from consumers to suppliers. (FALSE)
In an Internet-enabled supply chain management (SCM), the customer service function includes responding to customers’ complaints,
issuing notifications (such as product recalls), and providing around-the-clock customer service. (TRUE)
In general, the best way to gather tacit knowledge is interactively, such as interviewing the employee with specific questions about how he
or she would handle an issue. (TRUE)
Information management is boarder in scope than knowledge management because the latter tends to focus on just explicit knowledge.
(FALSE)
Knowledge management draws on concepts of organizational leaning and organizational culture. (TRUE)
One drawback of a well-designed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is an increase in inventory costs. (FALSE)
One of the disadvantages of an e-marketplace is that a single platform for prices means that there are fewer bargains. (FALSE)
Online auctions are ineffective for selling excessive inventory. (FALSE)
Organizations can pay external agencies for additional data about their potential customers. (TRUE)
Several IT tools are needed to implement a personalization system. (TRUE)
Supply chains exist in both service and manufacturing organizations. (TRUE)
Tacit knowledge can be captured easily in data repositories. (FALSE)
The goal of collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR) is to improve operational efficiency and manage inventory.
(TRUE)
Transmitting across the Internet involves lower security risks than traditional electronic data interchange (EDI). (FALSE)
Typically, an organization hosting an online auction collects transaction fees for the service. (TRUE)
Using the Internet and Web protocols for electronic data interchange (EDI) increases the cost of transmitting documents. (FALSE)
With a structured process of sharing information among supply chain members, retailers can compare customer demands or sales forecasts
with a manufacturer’s order forecast. (TRUE)
With the advent of XML, more organizations have shifted toward traditional electronic data interchange (EDI). (FALSE)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
In service organization, one of the major links in the supply chain includes DISTRIBUTION CENTERS.
3
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Overseeing order transmissions is part of the INFORMATION flow in a manufacturing firm’s supply chain management (SCM) system.
In a manufacturing firm’s supply chain management (SCM) system, handling credit terms and payment schedules are a part of the
FINANCES flow.
Which of the following is a key decision in supply chain management (SCM) related to manufacturing? LOCATION
Which of the following is a key decision about inventory in supply chain management (SCM) related to manufacturing? HOW MUCH
SHOULD BE ORDERED?
Which of the following elements plays a major role in implementing a supply chain management (SCM) system? THE INTERNET
A(n) ELECTRONIC DATA INTERCHANGE is a supply chain management (SCM) technology that enables business partners to send an
receive information on business transactions.
By using THE INTERNET AND ESTABLISHED WEB PROTOCOLS for the electronic exchange of information, companies can
improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain process.
Which of the following statements is true of traditional electronic data interchange (EDI)? EDI IS MORE BENEFICIAL WHEN
THERE ARE MORE COMPANIES IN THE EDI NETWORK.
In the context of internet-enabled supply chain management (SCM), bargaining and renegotiating prices and term agreements are a part of
PURCHASING/PROCUREMENT activities.
In the context of internet-enabled supply chain management (SCM) system activities, providing real-time stock information and
replenishing stock quickly is a part of INVENTORY MANAGEMENT.
In the context of Internet-enabled supply chain management (SCM), handling returned goods and out-of-stock notifications to customers is
a part of ORDER PROCESSING activities.
In the context of Internet-enabled supply chain management (SCM) system activities, coordinating just-in-time (JIT) inventory programs
with vendors and suppliers is a part of PRODUCTION SCHEDULING.
E-MARKETPLACES help businesses maintain a competitive edge in the supply by solving time-constraint problems for international
trade and making it possible to conduct business around the clock.
E-DISTRIBUTORS are common examples of e-marketplaces.
In the context of e-marketplaces, a company can purchase a(n) MAINTENANCE, REPAIR, AND OPERATIONS package that might
include services from different vendors, but the e-distributor coordinates them into one package for customers.
A HORIZONTAL market concentrates on coordinating a business process or function involving multiple vendors.
AUCTIONS help determine the price of goods and services when there is no set price in the marketplace.
An online auction is based on the BROKERAGE business model of e-commerce.
In a(n) REVERSE AUCTION, companies invite sellers to submit bids for products and services.
The main goal of a(n) CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT system is to improve services offered to customers and use
consumer contact information for targeted marketing.
Marketing strategies in a customer relationship management (CRM) system focus on LONG-TERM RELATIONSHIPS WITH
CUSTOMERS.
DATA-MINING TOOLS are effective in tracking and analyzing customers’ buying patterns, which help businesses meet customers’
needs.
E-commerce sites use E-MAIL to send notifications on new products and services.
ON-PREMISE CRM is one of the approaches used for implementing customer relationship management (CRM) applications that is often
used by organizations with an established IT infrastructure, and is implemented much like any other IT system.
The customer relationship management (CRM) feature known as WEB-BASED CRM is used to automate e-mail, call logs, and campaign
management.
Using PERSONALIZATION requires gathering a lot of information about customers’ preferences and shopping patterns, and some
customers get impatient with answering long surveys about their preferences.
COLLABORATIVE FILTERING is a search for specific information or patterns, using input from multiple business patterns and data
sources.
One drawback of collaborative filtering (CF) is that IT NEEDS A LARGE SAMPLE OF USERS AND CONTENT TO WORK WELL.
KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT is a technique used to improve customer relationship management (CRM) systems by identifying,
storing, and disseminating information facts about how to perform tasks.
Explicit knowledge is FORMAL knowledge.
The UNIFIED DATABASE component of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system collects and analyzes relevant internal and
external data and information needed by other functions.
The HUMAN RESOURCES component of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system provides information on assessing job
candidates.
Which of the following components of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system provides business-to-consumer (B2C) information
related to order status and business-to-business (B2B) information related to suppliers and business partners? E-COMMERCE
Which of the following is a disadvantage of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system? NEED FOR EXTENSIVE TRAINING
4
CHAPTER 10: BUILDING SUCCESSFUL INFORMATION SYSTEMS
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A disadvantage of extreme programming (XP) is lack of feedback from users. (FALSE)
A major advantage of a request for proposal (RFP) is its short time frame that makes it quite appealing. (FALSE)
A request for information (FRI) is not suitable for complex projects. (TRUE)
An advantage of rapid application development (RAD) is its broad focus, which often facilitates future development. (FALSE)
An example of an externally identified problem would be management voicing concern about an organization’s lack of a competitive edge
in the marketplace. (FALSE)
During implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), in phased-in-phased-out conversion, an analyst introduces an
information system in only a limited area of an organization. (FALSE)
During the planning phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the systems designer must define the symptoms rather than the
underlying problem. (FALSE)
During the planning phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), analysts investigate a proposed solution’s feasibility and
determine how best to represent the solution to management to get funding. (TRUE)
Establishing evaluation criteria often gives rise to subjectivity issues during the systems development life cycle (SDLC) process. (FALSE)
Examples of tangible benefits include improved employee morale, better customer satisfaction, and improved communication. (FALSE)
External users are normally part of a company’s task force. (FALSE)
Flowcharts are tools used in the structured systems analysis and design (SSAD) model for data analysis. (FALSE)
In a PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique) or CPM (Critical Path Method) network, the critical path takes the shortest time to be
completed. (FALSE)
In comparison to extreme programming (XP), in agile methodology, there is more emphasis on team coding and less emphasis on limiting
the project’s scope. (FALSE)
Information system projects are often an extension of existing systems or involve replacing an old technology with a new one. (TRUE)
Is it important to project an organization’s growth rate when designing information systems. (TRUE)
It is easier to modify a complete system than a prototype. (FALSE)
Normally, a task force for the planning phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC) only includes representatives from the IT
department along with the top management. (FALSE)
Only tangible benefits should be included in an economic feasibility study since intangible benefits cannot be quantified. (FALSE)
Outsourcing decreases the risk of leaking confidential information to competitors. (FALSE)
Self-sourcing improves flexibility in responding to users’ information needs. (TRUE)
Service-oriented architecture (SOA) advocates that core business functions and the dynamic functions that change all the time should be
decoupled. (TRUE)
Systems development life cycle (SDLC) develops the entire system at once, whereas extreme programming (XP) uses incremental steps to
improve an information system’s quality. (TRUE)
The creation of a system specifications document indicates the beginning of the analysis phase of the systems development life cycle
(SDLC). (FALSE)
The object-oriented approach treats process and data independently and is a sequential approach that requires completing the analysis
before beginning the design. (FALSE)
The systems development life cycle (SDLC) model is likely to be used if a particular problem is “ad hoc,” meaning it is a one-time
problem. (FALSE)
Users and top management should not be included in the construction phase of a prototype because construction is purely a technical
matter. (FALSE)
Using the joint application design (JAD) approach results in the collected requirements for the application being too narrow and one
dimensional in focus. (FALSE)
While using PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique) and CPM (Critical Path Method) techniques, activities that are not on the
critical path are more inflexible than those activities on the critical path. (FALSE)
Workflow plans, floor plans, statistical information, project sequence diagrams, and timeliness or milestone charts are all useful supporting
documentation for an economic feasibility study. (TRUE)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is also known as the WATERFALL MODEL.
During the PLANNING phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC) model, an information systems designer must define the
problem an organization faces, taking care not to define symptoms rather than the underlying problem.
INTERNAL USERS are employees who will use information system regularly, and they can offer important feedback on the system’s
strengths and weaknesses.
External users of an organization’s information system are ITS CUSTOMERS, CONTRACTORS, AND SUPPLIERS.
5
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
JOINT APPLICATIONS DESIGN (JAD) centers on a structured in which users and system professionals come together to develop an
application.
ECONOMIC feasibility assesses an information system’s costs and benefits.
OPPORTUNITY costs measure what an individual would miss by not having an information system or feature.
Which of the following is an example of a tangible benefit of an information system? INCREASED COMPANY PROFITS
OPERATIONAL feasibility is the measure of how well a proposed solution will work in an organization and how internal and external
customers will react to it.
SCHEDULING feasibility is concerned with whether a new system can be completed on time.
LEGAL feasibility is concerned with issues such as political repercussions of using information system and whether the system takes the
Information Privacy Act into account.
In the REQUIREMENTS-GATHERING AND ANALYSIS phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), a problem is defined
and alternatives are generated for solving it.
The SYSTEM SPECIFICATIONS document, which indicates the start of the design phase, is created during the requirements-gathering
and analysis phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC)
A DATA FLOW DIAGRAM is a tool used in structured systems analysis and design (SSAD) analysis model that helps break down a
complex process into simpler, more manageable, and more understandable subprocesses.
A FLOWCHART is a tool used in structured systems analysis and design (SSAD) analysis model that illustrates the logical steps in a
process but does not show data elements and associations.
A CONTEXT DIAGRAM is a tool used in structured systems analysis and design (SSAD) analysis model that shows a process at a more
general level and is helpful for showing top management and the task force how a process works.
A CONCEPTUAL DATA MODEL is a tool used in structured systems analysis and design (SSAD) analysis model that helps analysts
understand the data requirements and information system must meet by defining data elements and showing the associations between them.
During the DESIGN phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), analysts choose the solution that is the most realistic and offers
the highest payoff for an organization.
In the design phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the CONCEPTUAL design is an overview of the system and does not
include hardware or software choices.
In the design phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the LOGICAL design indicates hardware and software, such as
specifying Linux servers and Windows clients.
During the design phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the PHYSICAL design is created for a specific platform, such as
choosing Dell servers running Ubuntu Linux and Java for the programming language.
Computer-aided systems engineering (CASE) tools are typically used during the DESIGN phase of the systems development life cycle
(SDLC).
A PROOF-OF-CONCEPT prototype shows users how a particular task that was not technically feasible can be done.
During the IMPLEMENTATION phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), a solution is transferred from paper to action, and
a team configures the system and procures components for it.
During the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), in PARALLEL conversion, the old and new systems run
simultaneously for a short time to ensure to new system works correctly.
During the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), in PHASED-IN-PHASED-OUT conversion, as each
module of a new system in converted, the corresponding part of an old system is retired.
During the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), in PLUNGE conversion, and old system is stopped and a
new system implemented.
During the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), in PILOT conversion, the analyst introductions and
information system in only a limited area of an organization, such as a division or department.
With ONSHORE outsourcing, an organization chooses an outsourcing company in the same country.
With NEARSHORE outsourcing, an organization chooses an outsourcing company in a neighboring country, such as when a U.S.
organization chooses a company in Canada or Mexico.
With OFFSHORE outsourcing, an organization chooses an outsourcing company in any part of the world (usually a country farther away
than a neighboring country), as long as it can provide the needed services.
During the MAINTENANCE phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), an information system is operating, enhancements and
modifications to the system have been developed and tested, and hardware and software components have been added or replaced.
SERVICE-ORIENTED ARCHITECTURE (SOA) is a philosophy and software and system development methodology that focuses on
the development use, and reuse of small, self-contained blocks of codes to meet the software needs of an organization.
RAPID APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (RAD) uses an iterative process that repeats the design, development, and testing steps as
needed, based on feedback from users.
EXTREME PROGRAMMING (XP) is a method for developing software applications and information system projects in which a project
is divided into smaller functions and developers cannot go on to the next phase until the current phase is finished.
6
CHAPTER 14: EMERGING TRENDS, TECHNOLOGIES, AND APPLICATIONS
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
A cave automatic virtual environment (CAVE) uses holographic devices that create, capture, and display images in true 3D form. (TRUE)
A data glove can also be used as an output device, much like a keyboard. (FALSE)
A disadvantage of push technology is that users do not get the information they need in a timely fashion. (FALSE)
A disadvantage of the application service provider (ASP) model is that it is highly expensive. (FALSE)
A QR (quick response) code offers a smaller storage capacity compared to standard UPC barcodes. (FALSE)
A radio frequency identification (RFID) tag provides a unique identification for a credit or debit card carrying the tag. (TRUE)
Active radio frequency identification (RFID) tags have no internal power supply. (FALSE)
Before virtual reality (VR) technology, even the best graphics programs used a two-dimensional environment to illustrate a
threedimensional object. (TRUE)
Biometrics offer a high degree of accuracy that is not possible with other security measures. (TRUE)
Bluetooth has line-of-sight limitations. (FALSE)
Cloud computing offers many of the advantages and disadvantages of distributed computing. (TRUE)
Compared with Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX), Wireless Fidelity (Wi-Fi) theoretically has faster data
transfer rates and a longer range. (FALSE)
Grid computing has been used in bioinformation and financial applications. (TRUE)
Head-mounted displays (HMDs) can incorporate stereo sound into a virtual reality (VR) environment to make it more convincingly real.
(TRUE)
in a virtual reality (VR) technology, the everyday physical world is referred to as the “home environment.” (TRUE)
In a virtual world, users communicate solely using voices. (FALSE)
In an exocentric environment, users can interact with objects. (FALSE)
In the context of virtual reality (VR), stereo sound and tactile sensations enhance the feeling of being immersed in a three-dimensional real
world. (TRUE)
In the context of virtual reality (VR), telepresence technology allows users to move around freely by combining interactive environments
with cameras, monitors, and other devices. (FALSE)
Nanomaterials have been applied as coatings on eyewear for increased comfort. (TRUE)
Nanotechnology is being developed to make computers much faster and smaller, with more memory. (TRUE)
People can enter other cave automatic virtual environments (CAVEs) in other locations, no matter how far away they are geographically.
(TRUE)
Pull technology is adequate for marketing certain products and services and for providing customized information. (FALSE) 24. Push
technology benefits both users and vendors. (TRUE)
Push technology can be effective for both business-to-commerce (B2C) and business-to-business (B2B) marketing. (TRUE)
QR (quick response) codes can be read by smartphones that are equipped with cameras. (TRUE)
Utility computing can work with the software as a service (SaaS) model. (TRUE)
Virtual reality helps extend the capabilities of the disabled. (TRUE)
When using radio frequency identification (RFID), there are some technical problems and issues of privacy and security. (TRUE) 30.
Wireless Fidelity (Wi-Fi) can be used farther distances indoors than outdoors. (FALSE)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
With PUSH technology, a Web server delivers information to users who have signed up for this service instead of waiting for them to
request the information be sent to them.
2. Network administrators use PUSH technology to get antivirus updates to be automatically downloaded on employees’ workstations.
3. SOFTWARE AS A SERVICE (SaaS) is also known as “on-demand software.”
4. With the SOFTWARE AS A SERVICE (SaaS) model, users do not need to be concerned with new software versions and compatibility
problems because the application service providers (ASPs) offer the most recent version of the software.
5. Which of the following issues is faced by application service providers (ASPs)? PRIVACY ISSUES
6. Which of the following is an advantage of application service providers (ASPs)? ASPs MAKE CERTAIN THAT SOFTWARE IS
KEPT UP TO DATE, BASED ON USERS’ REQUESTS.
7. A disadvantage of an application service provider (ASP) is that IT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT AN APPLICATION WILL
FULLY MEET AN ORGANIZATION’S NEEDS.
8. VIRTUAL REALITY uses computer-generated three-dimensional images to create the illusion of interaction in a real-world environment.
9. SIMULATION refers to giving objects in a virtual reality (VR) environment texture and shading for a three-dimensional (3D) appearance.
10. INTERACTION refers to enabling users to act on objects in a virtual reality (VR) environment, such as using a data glove up and move
objects.
11. In the context of virtual reality (VR) technology, IMMERSION refers to giving users the feeling of being part of an environment by using
special hardware and software.
7
12. In the context of virtual reality (VR) technology, TELEPRESENCE refers to giving users the sense that they are in another location, even
one geographically far away, and can manipulate objects as though they are actually in that location.
13. In the context of virtual reality (VR) technology, NETWORKED COMMUNICATION refers to allowing users in different locations to
interact and manipulate the same world at the same time by connecting two or more worlds.
14. The most common technology used with an egocentric virtual environment is A HEAD-MOUNTED DISPLAY (HMD).
15. In the context of virtual reality (VR) technology, the main technology used in an exocentric environment is 3D GRAPHICS.
16. The WALKER components of a virtual reality (VR) system is an input device that captures and records movements of a user’s feet as the
user turns in different directions.
17. A cave automatic virtual environment (CAVE) is a virtual environment consisting of a CUBE-SHAPED room in which the walls are rear
projection screens.
18. One major obstacle to using virtual reality (VR) technology is that not enough FIBER OPTIC CABLES are currently available to carry
out the data transmission needed for a VR environment capable of re-creating a conference.
19. Users interact via avatars in a(n) VIRTUAL WORLD.
20. Club Penguin is a widely used VIRTUAL WORLD.
21. A RADIO FREQUENCY INDENTIFICATION TAG is a small electronic device consisting of a microchip and an antenna and performs
the same tasks as bar codes.
22. PASSIVE radio frequency identification (RFID) tags have no internal power supply.
23. ACTIVE radio frequency identification (RFID) tags can be embedded in a stickier or under the human or animal skin.
24. A(n) QR (QUICK RESPONSE) CODE is a matrix consisting of black modules arranged in a square pattern on a white background.
25. Which of the following technologies could be used to prevent one coworker from checking in for another in an organization?
BIOMETRICS
26. Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) is designed for wireless METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORKS (MANs)
27. Which of the following is an advantage of Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)? IT IS FAST AND EASY TO
INSTALL
28. Bluetooth can be used to create a PERSONAL AREA NETWORK (PAN), to communicate among computerized devices.
29. In grid computing, each participant in a grid is referred to as a TAG.
30. An advantage of grid computing is IMPROVED RELIABILITY, meaning that if one node on the grid fails, another node can take over.
31. One advantage of grid computing is SCALABILITY, meaning more nodes can be added for additional computing power without affecting
the network’s operation.
32. CLOUD COMPUTING incorporates many recent technologies under one platform including the software as a service (SaaS) model and
Web 2.0.
33. UTILITY computing is also known as on-demand computing.
34. Nanotechnology incorporates techniques that involve the structure and composition of materials on a NANOSCALE.
35. NANOMATERIALS have been added to sports gear, such as tennis and golf balls and tennis rackets, to make them more durable and
improve their responsiveness.
CHAPTER 12: MANAGEMENT SUPPORT SYSTEMS TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
A database management system (DBMS) is used for creating, modifying, and maintaining the database in a decision support system (DSS).
(TRUE)
A decision support system (DSS) should incorporate the human element as well as hardware and software. (TRUE)
A decision support system (DSS) should use both internal and external data. (TRUE)
A decision support system (DSS) uses the what-if analysis feature to support decision making. (TRUE)
A decisions support system (DSS) can do a follow-up assessment on how well a solution is performing. (TRUE)
A decisions support system (DSS) typically provides support only for the managerial and higher organizational levels. (TRUE)
A geographic information system (GIS) can integrate maps and database data with queries. (TRUE)
An executive information system (EIS) includes statistical analysis techniques for summarizing and structuring data. (TRUE)
Criteria are goals and objectives that decisions makers establish in order to achieve certain performance levels. (TRUE)
Each type management support system is designed with its own goals and objectives. (TRUE)
Exception or variance reporting is a useful technique that managers use to flag data that is unusual or out of normal boundaries. (TRUE)
Executive information system (EIS) designers should focus on simplicity when developing a user interface. (TRUE)
Generally, information technologies are more useful in the design phase than in the intelligence and choice phases. (FALSE)
Improving communication and expediting learning are among the main objectives of a decision support system (DSS). (TRUE)
In a decision support system (DSS), a managerial designer defines issues that involve the technological aspects of the system. (FALSE)
In a decision support system (DSS), a model base management system (MBMS) performs tasks similar to a database management system
(DBMS) in accessing, maintaining, and updating models in the model base. (TRUE)
In a decision support system (DSS), the technical designer is the liaison between users and designers. (FALSE)
In the context of electronic meeting systems, the main drawback of video teleconferencing is that participants cannot share text and
graphics. (TRUE)
8
19. In the design phase of the decision-making process, a decision maker examiners an organization’s environment for conditions that need
decisions. (FALSE)
20. Information technologies are a major support tool for making unstructured decisions. (FALSE)
21. Information technology provides a high level of support for the design phase of the decision-making process. (FALSE)
22. Real-time computer conferencing used in electronic meeting systems includes video capability. (FALSE)
23. Related technologies for group support, such as electronic meeting systems (EMSs) and computer-mediated communication (CMC), are
considered full-function GSSs because they contain decision-making tools. (FALSE)
24. Structured decisions are challenging because they involve multiple criteria, and often users have to choose between conflicting objectives.
(FALSE)
25. The administration and builder modules of an executive information system (EIS) cannot be combined into a single module. (FALSE)
26. The costs and benefits of decision support system (DSSs) are easy to assess because these systems are focused on efficiency rather than
effectiveness. (FALSE)
27. The costs of using group support systems (GSSs) are high as decision makers are made to travel more. (FALSE)
28. The most notable disadvantage of a Web-based group support system (GSS) is its inability to use open network standards. (FALSE) 29.
Unstructured decision are often used in sales forecasting. (FALSE)
30. When benefits are intangible, the design team should associate the benefit with measurable factor, such as increased sales. (TRUE)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
STRUCTURED decisions can be automated because a well-defined standard operating procedure exists for these types of decisions.
Record keeping, payroll, and simple inventory problems are examples of STRUCTURED tasks.
SEMISTRUCTURED decisions include a structured aspect that benefits from information retrieval, analytical models, and information
systems technology.
Sales forecasting is an example of a(n) SEMISTRUCTURED task.
UNSTRUCTURED decisions are typically one-time decisions, with no standard operating procedure pertaining to them.
Research and development is an example of a(n) UNSTRUCTURED decision.
A merger is a type of SEMISTRUCTURED decision at the strategic management level.
Resolving conflicts between two divisions is a type of UNSTRUCTURED decisions at the tactical management level.
Setting queue priorities is a type of UNSTRUCTURED decision at the operational management level.
Plant location is a type of STRUCTURED decision at the strategic management level.
Semistructured and unstructured decisions are challenging because they INVOLVE MULTIPLE CRITERIA.
During the INTELLIGENCE phase of the decision-making process, decision maker examines the organization’s environment for
conditions that need decisions.
In the DESIGN phase of the decision-making process, the objective is to define criteria for the decision, generate alternatives for meeting
the criteria, and define associations between the criteria and the alternatives.
The CHOICE phase of the decision-making process starts with analyzing each alternative and its relationship to the criteria to determine
whether it is feasible.
A(n) DECISION SUPPORT SYSTEM, which is used in the choice phase of the decision-making process, help sort through possible
solutions to choose the best one for an organization.
In the IMPLEMENTATION phase of the decision-making process, an organization devises a plan for carrying out the alternative selected
in the previous phase and obtains the resources the execute the plan.
The DSS ENGINE is a component of a decision support system (DSS), which manages and coordinates the other major components.
The MODEL BASE component of a decision support system (DSS) includes mathematical and statistical models that, along with the
database, enable a DSS to analyze information.
USERS comprise the most important category of roles in a decision support system (DSS) environment because they are the ones using the
DSS.
In the decision support system (DSS) environment, a MANAGERIAL DESIGNER is responsible for specifying data requirements, what
models are needed, how these models might be used, and how users want to view the results.
In the decision support system (DSS) environment, a MANAGERIAL DESIGNER focuses on how the DSS is implemented and usually
addresses questions about data storage, file structure, user access, response time, and security measures.
In the decision support system (DSS) environment, the MODEL BUILDER acts as a liaison between users and designers.
According to Peter G. Keen, a former MIT professor, which of the following is a benefit of a decision support system (DSS)? FAST
RESPONSE TO UNEXPECTED SITUATIONS
An executive information system (EIS) is a branch of DECISION SUPPORT SYSTEM (DSS).
The ADMINISTRATION module of an executive information system (EIS) is responsible for managing data access.
The BUILDER module of an executive information system (EIS) is used by developers to configure data mapping and screen sequencing.
The RUNTIME module of an executive information system (EIS) is responsible for using the system.
Which of the following tasks is performed by managers for which an executive information system (EIS) is useful? SPOTTING TRENDS
The intervention aspect of a(n) GROUP SUPPORT SYSTEM (GSS) reduces communication barriers and introduces order and efficiency
into situations that are inherently unsystematic and inefficient.
9
30. Which of the following geographic objects of a geographic information system (GIS) is most likely used to show the location of an airport?
POINTS
31. Which of the following geographic objects of a geographic information system (GIS) is most likely used to show a street or a river? LINES
32. Which of the following geographic objects of a geographic information system (GIS) is most likely used to show a particular zip code or a
large tourist attraction? AREAS
33. Tracking changes in ridership on mass-transit systems is a part of the URBAN PLANNING geographic information system (GIS)
application.
34. Dispatching personnel and equipment to crime and fire locations is a part of the GOVERNMENT geographic information system (GIS)
application.
35. Which of the following factors is important to ensure that key decision makers are involved in designing a management support system
(MSS)? KEEPING LINES OF COMMUNICATION OPEN
CHAPTER 13: INTELLIGENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
An artificial (AI) technologies are only concerned with storing, retrieving, and working with data. FALSE
An expert system duplicates and preserves the expertise of scarce experts and can incorporate the expertise of many experts. TRUE
An expert system is an excellent choice when well-structure numerical problems are involved. FALSE
An expert system is not a good choice when a lot of human expertise is needed to tackle a problem and a single expert cannot tackle the
problem on his or her own. FALSE
Artificial intelligence (AI) applications and technologies offer true human intelligence. FALSE
Artificial intelligence (AI) technologies can only be integrated into the model base component of a decision support system (DSS). FALSE
Artificial neural networks (ANNs) can supply an explanation for the solution it finds. FALSE
Case-based reasoning (CBR) systems solve a problem by going through a series of if-then-else rules. FALSE
Decision makers use “what-is” analysis to monitor the effect of a change in one or more variables. FALSE
Developments in artificial intelligence-related fields, such as expert systems and natural-language processing, will affect the future
development of the robotics industry. TRUE
Every artificial neural network (ANN) has to be trained, and when organizational policies change, the network needs to be retrained so that
it can mimic the new policies. TRUE
For expert systems to be successful, they must be applied to an activity that human experts have not handled in the past. FALSE
Fuzzy logic has been used in search engines, chip design, and database management systems. TRUE
Fuzzy logic is designed to help computers simulate certainly in common situations. FALSE
Genetic algorithms (GAs) are already used with neutral networks and fuzzy logic systems to solve scheduling, engineering design, and
marketing problems. TRUE
Genetic algorithms (GAs) can examine complex problems without any assumptions of what the correct solution should be. TRUE
In backward chaining, an expert system evaluates all the “if-then-else” conditions before making the final recommendation. FALSE
Intelligence agents are used for virtual catalogs. TRUE
Intelligence agents demonstrate autonomy, which is the ability to work and cooperate with other agents to achieve a common objective.
FALSE
Personal agents can serve as search engine, site reminders, or personal surfing assistants. FALSE
Personal robots have unlimited mobility and unlimited vision. FALSE
Problems involving the five sense, such as taste or smell are not suitable for expert systems. TRUE
Robots are inconsistent when used in the workplace. FALSE
Robots are one of the most successful applications of artificial intelligence (AI). TRUE
Rules used in the Artificial intelligence (AI) field come from a diverse group of experts in areas such as mathematics, psychology,
economics, anthropology, medicine, engineering, and physics. TRUE
Some robots have limited vision that is useful for locating and picking up objects, as long as the objects are isolated from other objects.
TRUE
The explanation facility component of an expert system works with the knowledge base management system (KBMS) to ensure that the
knowledge base is as up to date as possible. FALSE
The knowledge acquisition facility component of a typical expert system manipulates a series of rules by using techniques, such as forward
and backward chaining. FALSE
The user interface component providers user-friendly access to an expert system. TRUE
What-is analysis is used in systems that have the capability to report real-time information and predict what could happen in the future.
FALSE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
One of the requirements of a computer that can support artificial intelligence (AI) is to BE ABLE TO DEAL WITH NEW
10
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
SITUATIONS BASED ON PREVIOUS LEARNING.
In the artificial intelligence (AI) field, KNOWLEDGE engineers try to discover “rules of thumb” that enable computers to perform tasks
usually handled by humans.
In the context of the decision-making analyses that use information technology, WHAT-IF analysis is available in spreadsheet programs
such as Microsoft Excel.
ROBOTS perform well at simple, repetitive tasks and can be used to free workers from tedious or hazardous jobs.
VARIABLE ASSEMBLY LANGUAGE (VAL) is a programming language for controlling robots.
Which of the following statements is true of personal robots? THEY HAVE LIMITED MOBILITY 7.
EXPERT systems have been
one of the most successful artificial intelligence (AI)-related technologies.
DEBDRAL was the first system developed to determine the chemical structure of molecules.
PORTBLUE is an example of an expert system that can be applied to various financial applications.
COGITO is an expert system used for monitoring consumer sentiments in blogs, comment sections, and Web-based articles.
In the context of expert systems, HEURISTICS consists of common sense, rules of thumb, educated guesses, and instinctive judgements.
In the context of an expert system, a(n) KNOWLEDGE ACQUISITION FACILITY works with the knowledge base management system
to ensure that the knowledge base is as up to date as possible.
The knowledge base component of an expert system must include HEURISTIC KNOWLEDGE, which consists of rules related to a
problem or discipline.
META-KNOWLEDGE is a knowledge base component of an expert system and enables an expert system to learn from experience and
examine and extract relevant facts to determine the path to a solution.
The EXPLANATION FACILITY component of an expert system is important because it helps give users confidence in the system’s
results.
In the context of the components of an expert system, a(n) INFERENCE ENGINE is similar to the model base component of a decision
support system (DSS).
In forward chaining technique used by the inference engine component of an expert system, the IF condition is evaluated first.
In backward chaining technique used by the inference engine component, an expert system starts with the THEN condition.
Intelligent agents are also known as BOTS.
INTELLIGENT AGENTS are software capable of reasoning and following rule-based processes.
The ADAPTABILITY characteristic of an intelligent agent demonstrates the agent’s ability to learn from previous knowledge and go
beyond information given previously.
The AUTONOMY characteristic of an intelligent agent demonstrates the agent’s ability to operate with minimum input.
The HUMANLIKE INTERFACE characteristic of an intelligent agent demonstrates its capability to interact with users in more natural
language.
The MOBILITY characteristic of an intelligent agent demonstrates the agent’s ability to migrate from one platform to another with a
minimum of human intervention.
Intelligent agents demonstrate REACTIVITY, the ability to select problems or situations that need attention and act on them.
A VIRTUAL catalog displays product descriptions based on customers’ previous experiences and preferences.
SHOPPING AND INFORMATION AGENTS can serve as search engine, site reminders, or personal surfing assistants.
A(n) PERSONAL AGENT can be used to automatically fill out Web forms.
Data-mining agents work with a DATA WAREHOUSE, detecting trends and discovering new information and relationships among data
items that were not readily apparent.
MONITORING AND SURVEILLANCE agents usually track and report on computer equipment and network systems to predict when a
system crash or failure might occur.
FUZZY LOGIC is designed to help computers simulate vagueness and uncertainty in common situations.
TVs that adjust screen color and texture for each frame and stabilize the volume based on the viewer’s location in the room are
demonstrating FUZZY LOGIC.
NATURAL-LANGUAGE PROCESSING was developed so that users could communicate with computers in human language.
The size and complexity of the human language has made developing NATURAL-LANGUAGE PROCESSING systems difficult.
Explanation capabilities can be added to a decision support system (DSS) by integrating it with a(n) EXPERT SYSTEM.
In essence, CONTEXTUAL computing allows for tailoring a course of action to a user in a particular situation and environment based on
what it knows about the user.
11