Points
Awarded
42.0
0
Points
Missed
13.0
0
Percentage
76.4
%
1.
Complex communities of microorganisms on surfaces are called
A) Colonies
B) Biofilms
C) Biospheres
D) Flora
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
2.
A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for
another is called
A) Mutualism
B) Competition
C) Synergism
D) Commensalism
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
3.
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
A) Intestine
B) Skin
C) Vagina
D) Blood
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
4.
Chitin is a component of the cell wall of
A) Algae
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Viruses
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
5.
Which of the following organisms produces toxins that target cholesterol?
A) Aeromonas hydrophila
B) Escherichia coli
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
6.
Formic acid is a fermentation product of
A) Streptococcus
B) Klebsiella
C) Clostridium
D) Actinomyces
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
7.
All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A) Peritoneum
B) Urethra
C) Vagina
D) Mouth
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
8.
Bacterial endotoxins are
A) Proteins in the cell wall
B) Secreted into the environment
C) Components of the gram-positive cell wall
D) Components of the gram-negative cell wall
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
9.
Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?
A) Airborne
B) Insect
C) Foodborne
D) Bodily fluid
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
10.
Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for
pathogens?
A) Skin
B) Gastrointestinal tract
C) Respiratory tract
D) Conjunctiva
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
11.
Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as
A) Iatrogenic infections
B) Local infections
C) Exogenous infections
D) Endogenous infections
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
12.
The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as
A) Virulence
B) Strength
C) Resistance
D) Competence
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
13.
The virulence factors of bacteria include
A) Size, adhesion, resistance, mutation
B) Colonization, invasion, toxins, adhesion
C) Toxins, evasion of body defenses, motility, size
D) Colonization, chemotaxis, fermentation, toxins
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
14.
Health care–associated infections are also known as
A) Incidental infections
B) Accidental infections
C) Nosocomial infections
D) Secondary infections
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
15.
Rod-shaped bacteria, some of which are endospore forming, are referred to as
A) Cocci
B) Bacilli
C) Spirals
D) Vibrios
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called
A) Diplococci
B) Streptococci
C) Tetrads
D) Sarcinae
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
17.
The causative agent for Lyme disease is a
A) Spirillium
B) Spirochete
C) Vibrio
D) Diplococcus
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
18.
Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of
A) Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B) Anaerobic gram-negative rods
C) Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
D) Spirochetes
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
19.
Legionella and Neisseria are examples of
A) Facultative anaerobic gram-negative rods
B) Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
C) Spirochetes
D) Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
20.
Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of
A) Gram-positive cocci
B) Gram-negative cocci
C) Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
D) Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
21.
Plasmodium is a type of
A) Algae
B) Protozoan
C) Slime mold
D) Helminth
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
22.
The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host
to host is
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Balantidium coli
D) Entamoeba histolytica
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
23.
Whooping cough is caused by
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
24.
Which of the following cannot be and should not be treated with antibiotics?
A) Strep throat
B) Tuberculosis
C) Common cold
D) Diphtheria
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
25.
The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
26.
Strep throat is caused by which of the following organisms?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus faecalis
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
27.
Tuberculosis is caused by an organism of the genus
A) Klebsiella
B) Bordetella
C) Chlamydia
D) Mycobacterium
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
28.
There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
29.
The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is
A) Noroviruses
B) Adenoviruses
C) Rotaviruses
D) Caliciviruses
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
30.
Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus
A) Escherichia
B) Salmonella
C) Vibrio
D) Acinetobacter
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
31.
Botulism is a disease caused by the production of a potent neurotoxin by bacteria of the
genus
A) Staphylococcus
B) Klebsiella
C) Salmonella
D) Clostridium
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
32.
Meningococcal meningitis is caused by
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
33.
Otitis media is commonly caused by which microorganism?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
34.
Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus belonging to the family
A) Rhabdoviridae
B) Reoviridae
C) Picornaviridae
D) Bunyaviridae
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
35.
Which of the following is the causative agent for fungal meningitis, mostly in
immunocompromised patients?
A) Trypanosoma brucei
B) Listeria meningitis
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
36.
The agent causing West Nile encephalitis belongs to which of the following?
A) Arboviruses
B) Parvoviruses
C) Flaviviruses
D) Paramyxoviruses
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
37.
Toxoplasmosis is caused by the organism Toxoplasma gondii, which is a
A) Bacterium
B) Protozoan
C) Virus
D) Fungus
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
38.
The toxic condition caused by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood is referred to as
A) Bacteremia
B) Septicemia
C) Shock
D) Bloodborne infection
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
39.
Malaria is caused by a
A) Virus
B) Bacterium
C) Helminth
D) Protozoan
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
40.
Animals that are capable of transmitting infectious disease are called
A) Vectors
B) Pathogens
C) Carriers
D) Parasites
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
41.
Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called
A) Endogenous infections
B) Chronic infections
C) Iatrogenic infections
D) Fatal infections
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
42.
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea?
A) Treponema
B) Neisseria
C) Mycoplasma
D) Ureaplasma
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
43.
The secondary stage of syphilis includes which of the following time periods after the
primary stage?
A) 2 to 10 weeks
B) 2 to 4 days
C) 5 to 10 days
D) 1 year
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
44.
The causative agent for chancroid is
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Ureaplasma urealyticum
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
45.
Which of the following organisms typically causes sexually transmitted toxic shock
syndrome?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
46.
The three types of hepatitis virus that can be transmitted through sexual activity are
A) A, B, and C
B) B, C, and D
C) A, B, and D
D) A, C, and D
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
47.
The fungi most commonly associated with reproductive system infections are
A) Aspergillus, Tinea-related species, Candida albicans
B) Candida species, Rhizopus, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Stachybotrys, Aspergillus niger, Microsporum species
D) Candida albicans, Tinea-related species, Epidermophyton floccosum
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
48.
The only currently known STI that is transmitted by a protozoan is
A) Giardiasis
B) Malaria
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Syphilis
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
49.
Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
A) Hantavirus
B) Malaria
C) Tuberculosis
D) Chlamydia
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
50.
Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease?
A) AIDS
B) Ebola
C) West Nile virus
D) Tuberculosis
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
51.
CDC stands for
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) Children’s Disease Center
C) Central Disaster Control Center
D) Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
52.
All of the following are general metabolic or structural targets for antimicrobial drugs
except
A) Lipid synthesis inhibition
B) Protein synthesis inhibition
C) Interference with nucleic acid synthesis
D) Interference with cell wall synthesis
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
53.
Which of the following is not a common characteristic used in the selection of an
antimicrobial drug?
A) Selective toxicity
B) Ease of delivery to the site of infection
C) Ability to administer intravenously
D) Potential for allergic reaction
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Points Earned:
1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
54.
The term bacteriostatic means that bacteria
A) Are killed by the antimicrobial drug
B) Show continuous growth
C) No longer can multiply
D) No longer cause disease
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
55.
All of the following are free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria except
A) Clostridium
B) Bacillus
C) Rhizobium
D) Azotobacter
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Points Earned:
0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C