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1. What is the essence of asthma
a) Inflammation of airway
b) Allergy
c) Environment pollution
d) Neural mechanism
e) Genetic factors
2. Indications of digitalis in treatment of cor pulmonale includes the following except:
a) The heart failure cannot be controlled by diuretics, even though the infection and respiratory
function have been improved
b) Acute left heart failure
c) Low dose, short half life drugs, short course
d) Combining with potassium
e) Right heart failure without obvious infection
3. Diagnosis of interstitial lung disease depends more on the
a) More than 2 years of dyspnea
b) Chest exam reveals Velcro crackles
c) A restrictive pattern in lung functional test
d) Lung biopsy
e) CT scan findings
4. Indications of mechanical ventilation for severe respiratory patients except
a) Airway secretions increase
b) Consciousness disorder
c) PaO2<45mmHg, PaCO2>70mmHg
d) Hypotension
e) Polyorgans function injury
5. Which strategy/method is not reasonable according to the treatment of pneumothorax
a) Tension-pressure pneumothorax; tube thoracostomy
b) The size of pneumothorax <20%; Conservative treatment
c) Trans-pneumothorax; closed drainage and exhaust
d) O2 inhalation for any type of pneumothorax
e) Sedatives for any type of pneumothorax
6. The possible presence of bronchiectasis may include except
a) Production of large amount of purulent sputum
b) Clubbing of digits
c) Recurrent pneumonia
d) Recurrent hemoptysis
e) Velcro-like crackles of the diseased lung
7. According to the definition of asthma, which item is not true
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a) It is a chronic inflammatory
b) The inflammation may induce bronchoconstriction and airway hyperresponsiveness
c) Recurrent wheezing, expiratory shortness, chest tightness, cough
d) Irreversible limitation of airflow
e) Airway hyperresponsiveness is assessed by bronchoprovocational challenge test
8. Risk factors of pulmonary embolism except
a) Prior DVT
b) Malignancy
c) Age>70
d) Pregnancy
e) Immunosuppressed
9. Classify as an exudate if any of the following except
a) Pleural fluid protein/serum protein> 0.5
b) Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH>0.6
c) Pleural fluid LDH>200IU or 2/3 of upper limit of serum value
d) Pleural cholesterol>45mg/dl
e) Pleural ADA>45IU
10. In normal adults the mitral valve is
a) 1-3cm2
b) 2-4cm2
c) 3-5cm2
d) 4-6cm2
e) 5-7cm2
11. Secondary hypertension including
a) Renal parenchyma hypertension
b) Renal vascular hypertension
c) Primary aldosteronism
d) Pheochromocytoma
e) All of the above
12. ECG P wave and isoelectric line disappears, serration wave appear, F wave frequency: 250-350 /min.
It is
a) Atrial flutter
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Torsades de pointes
d) Ventricular flutter
e) Ventricular fibrillation
13. ECG：sinus rhythm, frequency<60mm, often accompanied by sinus irregularity. It is a)
Sinus
tachycardia
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b) Sinus bradycardia
c) SSS
d) Sinus pause or arrest
e) III-degree AVB
14. Which one is not AMI complications
a) Dysfunction or ruptured of papillary muscle
b) Mitral prolapse and mitral insufficiency
c) Embolism
d) Dyspnea
e) Cardiac aneurysm
15. ECG: Ahead of time wide and malformed QRS complex which is more than 0.12sec. There isn’t P
wave before it and complete compensatory pause it is a) Atrial premature beats
b) Junction premature beats
c) Ventricular premature beats
d) Ventricular tachycardia
e) Ventricular escape beats
16. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy USG manifestation asymmetric septal hypertrophy, in dilating phase ,
septal thickness posterior wall of LV>= a)
1.0
b) 1.3
c) 1.5
d) 1.7
e) 2.0
17. Which one is not the manifestation of left HF
a) Laboring dyspnea
b) Night paroxysmal dyspnea
c) Acute pulmonary edema
d) Cough, sputum, hemoptysis
e) Liver enlargement
18. ECG conduction falls suddenly and unexpectedly without preceding change in PR intervals. It is
a) Mobitz type 1 second degree AV block
b) Mobitz type 2 second degree AV block
c) Mobitz type 1 second degree Sinoatrial block
d) Mobitz type 2 second degree Sinoatrial block
e) Third degree AV block
19. When the mitral valve opening is reduced to ( ) cm2 often referred to as “critical” MS, a LA pressure
of approximately 25mmHg is required to maintain a normal cardiac output
a) 2
b) 4
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c) 6
d) 0.5
e) 1
20. Thrombolytic therapy time window; Onset<12hours, best time ( )
a) <6 hours
b) <3 hours
c) <8 hours
d) <1 hour
e) <4 hours
21. The blood loss more than ( ), the patient would have conscious depression , a thread pulse, severe
oliguria or anuria.
a) 15 %
b) 20 %
c) 25 %
d) 30 %
e) 40 %
22. The following is not true of pyloric channel ulcer ( )
a) Symptom is similar in duodenal ulcer, but night pain and radiative pain is significant
b) Lack of the typical symptoms(rhythmical pain)
c) Easy to obstruction and vomiting
d) Easy to occur complication
e) Medical therapy is usually ineffective
23. The patient with hepatic encephalopathy has the clinical features of sleep but responds to pain and
voice, flapping tremor+EEG abnormal. Which grade should the patient belong to? a) Grade I
b) Grade II
c) Grade III
d) Grade IV
e) Grade V
24. Which of the following is not true about the mechanism of ascites in the patient with liver cirrhosis
( )
a) Portal hypertension>300mmH2O
b) Aldosterone increase
c) ADH increase
d) Effective blood volume increase
e) Hypoalbuminemia
25. The following is true of intestinal tuberculosis ( )
a) Intestinal tuberculosis a kind of chronic non-specific infection caused by Mycobacteria
tuberculosis
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b) Commonly locate in the ileocecum
c) Clinical feature is always constipation but diarrhea
d) If PPD was positive, we can diagnosis intestinal TB
26. The following will not precipitate hepatic encephalopathy ( )
a) Infection
b) Constipation
c) Gastrointestinal bleeding
d) Use of opioid drugs
e) Certain antibiotics
27. What kind of ionic disorder can be seen commonly in CRF? ( )
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hypercalcemia
e) Kaliopenia
28. Content of protein in functional proteinuria is always ( )
a) <2 g/d
b) <1.5 g/d
c) <0.5 g/d
d) <1 g/d
e) <0.8 g/d
29. Which of the following answers is not the reason of urine culture resulting in false (+)
a) Leucorrhea contamination
b) Lay under room T>1hr
c) Technique error
d) Disinfectant was interfused in urine specimen
e) None of them
30. Which of the following can’t be found in Nephrotic syndrome patients?
a) Hyperproteinuria
b) Hypoproteinuria
c) Hematuria with normal shaped RBC’s
d) Hyperlipidemia
e) Edema
31. Which is not the clinical type of primary glomerular disease ( )
a) Acute glomerulonephritis
b) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
c) IgA nephropathy
d) Nephrotic syndrome
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e) Chronic glomerulonephritis
32. ( ) is the fuel used to run all the cells of the body
a) Thyroid hormone
b) Fat
c) Glucose
d) Protein
e) Insulin
33. Type I diabetes is usually diagnosed ( )
a) Before age 10
b) After age 50
c) After age 60
d) Before age 30
e) Before age 40
34. Many people with type 2 diabetes can control their disease with ( )
a) Diet
b) Weight control
c) Exercise
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
35. Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include ( )
a) Under age 25
b) Underweight
c) No family history of diabetes
d) Overweight
e) Smoke
36. Symptoms of diabetes include: ( )
a) Decreased thirst
b) Decreased appetite
c) Unexplained weight loss
d) Lack of urination
e) High blood pressure
37. Which is not the distribution of HSC?
a) Adult spleen
b) Fetus umbilical cord
c) Fetus placenta
d) Adult marrow
e) Fetus liver
38. Which group usually got acute ITP?
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a) Children
b) Women
c) Men
d) Old person
e) Workers
39. Which is the special antibody of SLE( )
a) ANA
b) dsDNA
c) Anti-Sm
d) Anti-SSA
e) Anti-SSB
40. Which of the following is the best way to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement? a)
Decrease in thirst
b) Increase in urine output
c) Blood pressure
d) Increased PaO2
e) Pulse rate decrease
41. Body water content in percentage of body weight is lowest in ( )
a) Well build man
b) Fat woman
c) Well nourished child
d) Fat man
e) New born infant
42. In a patient with multi system trauma , the presence of hypotension along with elevated central
venous pressure is suggestive of ( ) a) Upper airway obstruction
b) Major abdominal bleed
c) Cardio-pulmonary problem
d) Spinal cord injury
e) Blood lose shock
43. 20mmol of potassium chloride in 500ml of 5% dextrose solution is given intravenously to treat a)
Metabolic alkalosis
b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Respiratory acidosis
e) None of the above.
44. A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12hours after an accident, his wound should be
managed by ( )
a) Thorough cleaning and primary repair
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b) Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary closure
c) Primary closure over a drain
d) Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning
e) Thorough cleaning and dressed
45. One of the following is the earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding(
)
a) Tachycardia
b) Decrease HB
c) Oliguria
d) Cold clammy fingers
e) Decrease BP
46. In 3rd degree burns , all are seen except ( )
a) Vesicles are absent
b) Painful
c) Leathery skin
d) Reddish due to Hb infiltration
e) Requires skin grafting
47. Central venous pressure and pulmonary wedge pressure give an accurate assessment of all following
except ( )
a) Tissue perfusion
b) Volume depletion
c) Volume overload
d) Myocardial function
e) None of the above
48. During nutritional assessment of a surgical patient , the status of a muscle protein is indicated by
which one of the following parameters ( ) a) Serum albumin
b) Triceps skin fold thickness
c) Mid-arm circumference
d) Hb level
e) Body weight
49. Modified radical mastectomy: ( )
a) Remove of both pectoralis major and minor
b) Remove of pectoralis minor and preservation of of pectoralis major
c) Remove of pectoralis major and preservation of the minor
d) Both pectoralis major and minor are preserved
e) Remove 1-3 ribs
50. Acute mastitis commonly occurs during (
)
a) Pregnancy
b) Puberty
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c) Lactation
d) Infancy
e) Menstruation
51. Peau d’orange is due to : ()
a) infiltration of cooper’s ligament
b) subcutaneous lymphatic involvement
c) infiltration of the nipple
d) infiltration of tumor to chest wall
e) infiltration of the skin
52. The indication of thyroidectomy except: (
)
a) Cosmetic
b) Tumor
c) Pressure effects
d) Hyperthyroidism
e) Lymphocytic thyroiditis
53. Complication of thyroidectomy include all except: (
)
a) Hoarseness
b) Airway obstruction
c) Hemorrhage
d) Hypercalcemia
e) Spasm
54. Dumpling syndrome occurs due to: (
)
a) Small stomach
b) Hyperosmolar load in intestine
c) Vagolytic action
d) Excessive intake of food
e) Pyloric obstruction
55. Most common site for carcinoma stomach is : ( )
a) Prepyloric
b) Body of stomach
c) Fundus
d) Lesser curvature
e) Greater curvature
56. A 45 yrs male who had chronic duodenal ulcer for the last 6 years presents with worsening of
symptoms. Loss of periodicity of symptoms pain on rising in the morning. Sense of epigastric
bloating and post prandial vomiting. The most likely cause is the development of : ( ) a)
Posterior penetration
b) Gastric outlet obstruction
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c) Carcinoma
d) Pancreatitis
e) Perforation
57. The most common cause of suppurative cholangitis is : (
)
a) Stone in common bile duct
b) Cancer of the ampulla of vater
c) Choledochal cyst
d) Empyema of gallbladder
e) Acute pancreatitis
58. The preferred bypass procedure in case of non-resectable carcinoma of head of pancreas is
a) Cholecystojejunostomy
b) Cholecystogastrostomy
c) Choledochoduodenostomy
d) Choledochojejunostomy
e) Choledochostomy add T-tube drainage
59. All of the following signs are not seen in acute appendicitis except: ( )
a) Rovsing’s sign
b) Murphy sign
c) Boa’s sign
d) Mack wen’s sign
e) Cullen sign’s
60. The treatment of carcinoma rectum 4cm from anal wedge without nodal metastasis
a) Abdominoperineal resection
b) Anterior resection
c) Endoscopy resection
d) Chemotherapy
e) Radiotherapy
61. The most common complication of subarachnoid block is (
)
a) Postoperative headache
b) Total spiral anesthesia
c) Hypoxemia
d) Pneumothorax
e) Diapyesis meningitis
62. Minimal alveolar concentration means that at 1 atmospheric pressure, alveolar concentration at which
of the subjects don’t move in response to a noxious stimulus ( ) a)
5%
b) 25 %
c) 50 %
d) 75 %
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e) 100 %
63. A young man has his head injured in a traffic accident. There is bloody fluid oozing from his right ear
canal and the hearing ability of his right ear is impaired Which of the following nerves may also be
injured: a) Oculomotor nerve, right side
b) Trochlear nerve, right side
c) Trigeminal nerve, right side
d) Abducent nerve, right side
e) Facial nerve, right side
f) Pharyngolaryngeal nerve, right side
64. A 37 year old woman is in a serious automobile accident and sustains a closed head injury. She does
not immediately seek medical attention, but is brought to emergency room 2 hours later by her
brother. On physical examination , there is myriad is and loss of pupillary light reflex. Several hours
later, she is unable to follow a flashlight with her eyes. Which of the following types of herniation is
most likely occurring in this patient?
( )
a) Cerebellar tonsils into foramen magnum
b) Cerebellum upward past the tentorium
c) Cingulate gyrus under the falx
d) Medulla into the foramen magnum
e) Temporal lobe under the tentorium
65. __________ is the typical symptom of esophageal carcinoma
a) Choking feeling
b) Stagnant sensation
c) Progressive dysphagia
d) Retrosternal burning
e) Cough
66. The most common symptom of lung carcinoma is (
)
a) Irritable cough
b) Bloody sputum
c) Chest pain
d) Dyspnea
e) Progressive dysphagia
67. ( ) is the most common sign of blunt thoracic trauma
a) Hemothorax
b) Pulmonary contusion
c) Pneumothorax
d) Rib fracture
e) Heart
68. The diagnosis of bladder tumor depends on (
)
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a) Urine routine test
b) Cystoscopy
c) X-ray
d) Urine bacteriology test
e) CT scan
69. Which is not the pathological change of renal injury ( )
a) Contusion
b) Hematoma
c) Laceration
d) Rupture
e) Renal pedicure injury
70. What is the most important factor for bone healing? ( )
a) Fracture site
b) Blood supply
c) Operation time
d) Fracture classification
e) Age
71. A old woman fell down with silver fork deformity of her wrist, the possible diagnosis is (
) a)
Barton fracture
b) Colles fracture
c) Smith fracture
d) Radial neck fracture
e) Ulnar fracture
72. What is the commonest dislocation for shoulder joint according to the classification?
( )
a) Anterior dislocation
b) Posterior dislocation
c) Medial dislocation
d) Lateral dislocation
e) Center dislocation
73. Extension type fracture do supracondylar fracture of humerus is more likely to injury or compress the
( )
a) Brachial vein
b) Radius nerve
c) Brachial artery
d) Ulnar artery
e) Median nerve
74. Which one is a special sign for fracture? ( )
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a) Pain
b) Swelling
c) Dysfunction
d) Shock
e) Bone crepitus
75. As to the relationship between LDH and nerve root compression, which one is wrong()
a) L3.4 : to L4
b) L4.5 : to L5
c) L5S1 : to S1
d) L5S1 : to L5
e) L2.3 : to L3
76. Suppurative osteomyelitis is usually happened in which joint? ( )
a) Shoulder and elbow joint
b) Hip and knee joint
c) Elbow and hip joint
d) Shoulder and knee joint
e) Elbow and knee joint.
77. Phalen sign is usually in assistant to diagnose which disease? ( )
a) Pyriformis muscle syndrome
b) Ganglion
c) Tennis elbow
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome
e) Cervical spondylosis
78. According to the force direction, pelvic fracture can be classified into 4 types, which one is not
included ? (
) a)
LC fracture
b) APC fracture
c) Avulsion fracture
d) CM fracture
e) VS fracture
79. As to the predilection sites of Ewing’s sarcoma, which site is right? ( )
a) Metaphysis
b) Osteoepiphyis
c) Diaphysis
d) Cartilage
80. Regarding preeclampsia: (
)
a) It occurs more frequently in smokers
b) It can cause upper abdominal pain
c) Proteinuria is often due to coexistent urinary tract infection
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d) Detection of proteinuria in the antenatal clinic in the absence of hypertension is not serious
e) It is never serious unless proteinuria is severe
81. Regarding to ectopic pregnancy: (
)
a) It can always be detected by laparoscopy
b) It may coexist with an intrauterine pregnancy
c) It can not survive beyond 16 weeks
d) It is declining in frequency
e) The intra-uterine device confers protection against ectopic pregnancy
82. Generally, the pregnancy women first feel fetal movement during the ( )
a) 12-14 weeks pregnancy
b) 18-20 weeks pregnancy
c) 24-28 weeks pregnancy
d) 30-32 weeks pregnancy
e) After 33 weeks pregnancy
83. Which of the following is the worst type of fetal heart rate? ( )
a) Acceleration
b) Early deceleration
c) Variable deceleration
d) Late deceleration
e) None of the above
84. A patient at 30 weeks gestation is found to have a 34 week size uterus. The finding may be explained
by all the following conditions except ( ) a)
Polyhydramnois
b) Uterine fibroid
c) Macrosomic fetus
d) Placenta previa
e) Multifetal gestation
85. Regarding normal pregnancy: ( )
a) Pregnancy lasts on average 40 weeks from conception
b) Most women will deliver on expected date
c) If a woman has a long menstrual cycle, the expected date of delivery should be extended to reflect
this
d) Fetuses may be considered independently viable from 20 weeks gestation
e) The puerperium lasts approximately 10 days
86. Regarding physiological change in pregnancy: ( )
a) Cardiac output increases by 20 %
b) Peripheral vascular resistance falls
c) Blood pressure should be measured with the women lying flat
d) Oxygen consumption falls
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e) The uterus can appear less dilated.
87. Which of the following are risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease: (
)
a) No barrier contraception
b) Use of the oral contraceptive pill
c) Multiple sexual partners
d) Pregnancy
e) Clip sterilization
88. Polyhydramnios means the amniotics fluid is more than (
)
a) 1500 ml
b) 2000 ml
c) 3000 ml
d) 2500 ml
e) 1000 ml
89. The earliest sign of MgSO4 toxicity is ( )
a) Respiratory rate decrease
b) Heart rate decrease
c) Knee jerks is absent or slow
d) Urinary output decrease
e) Hypotension
90. The children’s two crossings in WBC counts occur (
)
a) 1-3d, 2-3 y
b) 4-6d, 4-6 y
c) 7-9d, 7-8 y
d) 4-6d, 4-6 m
e) 4-6m, 4-6 y
91. A neonate , Gestational age: 39weeks , forceps delivery , 1 min Apgar score: 6marks, 5min Apgar
score: 10marks, have lethargy 2 days later. Physical examination:
RR: 32 times/min, HR: 95 times/min, bulging anterior fontanelle, lower muscle tone, moro
reflex disappeared. The most likely diagnosis is (
) a)
Aspiration syndrome
b) Neonatal wet lung
c) Neonatal hyaline membrane disease
d) Hypoxia ischemic encephalopathy
e) Hypoglycemia
92. For neonatal sepsis, the most common way to getting infection is (
)
a) Intrauterine infection
b) Umbilical and skin infection
c) Respiratory tract infections
d) Delivery tract infections
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e) Digestive tract infection
93. The human body’s main source of vitamin D is ( )
a) Plants in ergosterol
b) Skin synthesis
c) From egg yolk
d) From animal liver
e) From breast milk
94. 1 year old children , cough 3d, fever 1d, rough lung sound and coarse moisture rales, the most likely
diagnosis is (
)
a) Upper respiratory tract infection
b) Bronchitis
c) Bronchopneumonia
d) Bronchial asthma
e) Bronchiolitis
95. The feature of P2 in ASD is (
)
a) Accentuated
b) Weaker
c) Split
d) Do not split
e) Fixed and split
96. Which kind of congenital heart disease usually has complication of cerebral brain abscess a) Atrial
septal defect
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Patent ductus arteriosus
d) Tetralogy of fallot
e) Dextrocardia
97. At present, the first choice drug to treat nephrotic syndrome is ( )
a) steroid
b) Chinese medicine
c) Immunosuppressant
d) Diuresis
e) Antibiotics
98. The total volume of the first day rehydration for children with severe dehydration is ( ) a)
60-90
ml/kg
b) 90-120 ml/kg
c) 120-150 ml/kg
d) 150-180 ml/kg
e) 180-210 ml/kg
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99. 2 years old boy, mental retardation, upslanting palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, protruding tongue,
in curved and short 5th fingers, simian crease, reliable test to confirm the diagnosis ( ) a)
Serum
FT3, FT4
b) Serum TSH
c) Serum TT3, TT4
d) Long bone Xray
e) Chromosome karyotype
2015 ( A )
INTERNAL MEDICINE PART ( TOTAL 40 POINTS)
1. The performance of asthma patients in lung functional tests may have , except(
)
a) PEF≤ 70 %
b) PEF variability ≥ 20 %
c) Positive bronchodilatation test: FEV1>12% or >180ml in response to Ventolin
d) Exercise testing : FEV1 decreases 15% after exercise
e) DLCO decreased
2. The diagnostic evidence for interstitial lung disease in lung functional tests except (
a) FEVI/FVC ratio remains normal
b) FEV1/FVC ratio increased
c) DLCO reduced
d) FEV1/FVC ratio decreased
e) A restrictive pattern
3. The treatment of pleural effusion depends on the ( )
a) The volume of the pleural effusion
b) with or without compressing syndrome
c) etiology
d) patient’s age
e) characters of pleural effusion
4. Indications of mechanical ventilation for severe respiratory patients except (
)
a) airway secretions increase
b) Consciousness disorder
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
c) PaO2<45mmHg, PaCO2>70 mmHg
d) Hypotension
e) Polyorgans function injury
The characteristics of Legionella pneumophilia pneumonia are as followings except :
a) The cough is usually non productive
b) 1/3 patients have exudative pleural effusion
c) Unilateral or bilateral apparent extrapulmonary findings as gastrointestinal symptoms
d) Some patients have nervous system symptoms, others may have renal function abnormity
e) Some patients may have hypernatremia
Which one about pulmonary embolism (PE) clinical syndromes is not true (
)
a) Patients with massive PE present may show systemic arterial hypotension
b) Pulmonary infarction usually indicates a moderate to massive PE
c) Dyspnea is the most frequent symptom of PE
d) Patients with moderate PE may have right ventricular hypokinesis on echocardiogram but
normal systemic arterial pressure
e) Patients with small to moderate PE have both normal right heart function and normal systemic
arterial pressure
About pulmonary artery hypertension, which one is not true (
)
a) Pulmonary hypertension due to increased vascular resistance is a prerequisite for cor
pulmonale
b) The increase in pulmonary vascular resistance may be an atomic or vasomotor in origin
c) The mean pulmonary artery pressure is over or equal to 20mmHg at rest, which suggests the
apparent pulmonary hypertension
d) If the mean pulmonary artery pressure is lower than 20mmHg at rest, but can be elevated than
20mmHg after exercise, which should be called hidden pulmonary hypertension
e) Insidious onset of shortness of breath usually may be the main symptom of PAH
Treatments target on acute exacerbation of pulmonary artery hypertension include the following
except:
a) Control of infection
b) Oxygen therapy
c) Diuretics
d) Beta-2 receptor blocker
e) Calcium channel blocker
The possible presence of bronchiectasis may include except:
a) Production of a large amount of purulent sputum
b) Clubbing of the digits
c) Recurrent pneumonia
d) Recurrent hemoptysis
e) Velcro-like crackles of the diseased lung
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10. Which one about TB introductions is not true: (
)
a) Pathogenic materials of tubercle bacillus lie on the cell wall
b) Drug resistant strains of TB promotes TB increasing
c) Respiratory spreading is the only route of TB infection
d) The phenomenon of different response between the primary infection and secondary infection
is termed “Koch phenomenon” in TB infection
e) Acute miliary tuberculosis is commonly seen in children and adolescents , whereas sub-acute
or chronic miliary tuberculosis common in adults.
11. Cardiac compression and artificial breath frequency: (
)
a) 15:2
b) 10:1
c) 30:2
d) 30:1
e) 5:1
12. A HP patient BP: 160/90mmHg, and he has AP, so his HP grades and HP cardiovascular risk
grades standard is: ( )
a) Grade 2 medium risk
b) Grade 2 high risk
c) Grade 2 very high risk
d) Grade 3 high risk
e) Grade 3 very high risk
13. HP diagnosis standard is : ( )
a) SBP >130mmHg and DBP >85 mmHg
b) SBP ≥140mmHg and(or) DBP ≥90 mmHg
c) SBP >140mmHg and (or) DBP >90 mmHg
d) SBP ≥150mmHg and(or) DBP ≥90 mmHg
e) SBP ≥130mmHg and DBP ≥85 mmHg
14. ECG: P wave disappear, f wave appear and vary in size, shape and interval, the frequency is about
350-600/min, R-R interval is irregular absolutely. ( )
a) atrial flutter
b) atrial fibrillation
c) torsades de pointes
d) ventricular flutter
e) ventricular fibrillation
15. ECG: Ahead of time wide and malformed QRS complex which is more than
0.12s. There isn’t P wave before it, and complete compensatory pause. It is: ( )
a) atrial premature beats
b) junction premature beats
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c) ventricular premature beats
d) ventricular tachycardia
e) ventricular fibrillation
16. If II, III, AVF, ST segment elevation in ECG, which location of AMI: (
)
a) High lateral wall
a) Anteroseptal wall
b) Extensive anterior wall
c) Inferior wall
d) Strictly posterior wall
17. Which one is not the manifestation of left HF: (
)
a) Laboring dyspnea
b) Night paroxysmal dyspnea
c) Acute pulmonary edema
d) Cough, sputum, hemoptysis
e) Hepatic-cervical vein reflux
18. ECG: sinus rhythm , Frequency>100/min, gradually start and end. It is: ( )
a) Sinus tachycardia
b) Sinus bradycardia
c) Sinus irregularity
d) Atrial tachycardia
e) AV node reentry tachycardia
19. About Digitalis which one is wrong: ( )
a) Increase myocardial strength
b) Fit for HF with enlarged ventricle volume in end dilating stage
c) When digitalis poisoning patients have all kinds of arrhythmia
d) Fit for pulmonary hypertension
e) When digitalis poisoning we should complement Kalium, antiarrhythmic drug,
defibrillator is forbidden
20. Differential diagnosis of AP including: (
)
a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Intercostal neuralgia, rib cartilage inflammation
c) Heart neurosis
d) Digestive disease
e) All of the above
21. The following is not true of the ascites of tuberculous peritonitis: ( )
a) ADA decrease
b) Exudation
c) Specific gravity> 1.018
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d) Protein concentration>30g/l
e) WBC>500/mm3
22. The following is true of haemetemesis: (
)
a) When it occurs in a patient with alcoholic liver disease. It is always due to esophageal
varies
b) When it is caused by gastric ulcer, abdominal pain usually occurs at night
c) When it occurs in patients over 70years of age who may have arthritis, usually indicates
malignancy
d) When it occurs after repeated retching, it is suggestive of an esophageal tear
e) When it is caused by duodenal ulcer, a partial gastrectomy is usually necessary.
23. The following statement is not true of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) They cannot be given as suppositories to avoid gastrointestinal complications
b) They may have a role in the prevention of colon cancer
c) They can produce gastric erosions in elderly people causing occult blood loss
d) They cause gastric erosions by stimulating gastric acid secretion
e) They may exacerbate long standing colitis
24. The following is true of Crohn’s disease: ( )
a) Mainly locate in sigmoid colon
b) Commonly continuously locate
c) Rarely form fistula
d) In biopsy, we can see caseous granulomas
e) Under colonscope – “cobblestone” appearance
25. The following will not precipitate hepatic encephalopathy: ( )
a) Infection
b) Constipation
c) Gastrointestinal bleeding
d) Use of opioid drugs
e) Certain antibiotics
26. The following is not true about the complication of ulcerative colitis
a) Toxic megalon
b) Colon canceration
c) Hemorrhage
d) Perforation
e) Asymmetric colitis
27. The following is not true about H.Pylori: ( )
a) Causes ulceration in the duodenum
b) Causes Barrett’s metaplasia in the oesophagus
c) Is associated with hypergastrinemia
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d) Is often resistant to certain antibiotics
e) Can convert urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide.
28. Which is not predisposing factor of urinary tract infection?
a) Urinary deformity
b) Bad immune
c) Uncontrolled HBp
d) Genetic factors
e) Use instrument
29. Male 54y, repeated fatigue & sore waist for more than 1 year, has found gross Hematuria & foam
urine for 3 days after catching a cold 2 days. Once was showed proteinuria 2 years ago when
physical examination for work, but didn’t pay attention. Bp: 160/100mmHg, no edema, urine
volume is normal , urine (pro++), RBC(10-20/Hp), abnormality, rate: 80%, cast : 1-2 /Hp
Blood:Hp120g/l;Cr:130umol/l. What disease do you think mostl like?
a) AGN
b) CGN
c) Concealed nephritis
d) PRGN
e) ENS
30. Male ,21y, main complain “cough, sore throat 10 days, hematuria 1day.” examined pharynx, tonsil
enlargement IIo, eyelid & bilateral ankle edema, Bp:150/90mmHg, P:8.5bpm, R:20bpm, urine (pro
++), RBC: 30-40 /Hp, abnormality rate:70%. Blood( WBC:12.2*109/l, neu:85%, Hb:140g/l, RBC:
3.9*1012/l, Plt:257*109/l, Cr:59umol/l, C3:0.05mmol/l. What is the diagnosis can you probably
make?
a) AGN
b) CGN
c) RPGN
d) NS
e) CRF
31. Which of the following, is not the complication of NS? (
)
a) Infection
b) Thrombosis
c) Acute renal failure
d) Protein & lipid metabolism disturbance
e) Chronic renal failure
32. Which is the most common pathogen of urinary tract infection?
a) P.Aeruginosa
b) E.coli
c) Klebsiella
d) Proteus
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e) S.Epidermis
33. Gestational diabetes occurs: ( )
a) Only in pregnancy
b) Only in infancy
c) Only adults over 40
d) Only in teens
e) Only in adults over 30
34. The most common diabetic complication of the eye ( )
a) Cataracts
b) Dry eyes
c) Nearsightedness
d) Retinopathy
e) Blind
35. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include (
a) Weight loss
b) Constipation
c) Rapid heartbeat
d) Loose stools
e) Dry eyes
36. Grave’s disease is also known as: ( )
)
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Type 1 diabetes
c) Type 2 diabetes
d) Hypothroidism
e) Gestational diabetes
37. Excess glucose is stored in the body in the ( )
a) Fat and muscle cells
b) Pancreas
c) Gallbladder
d) Kidneys
e) Leg
38. Which is not distribution of HSC?( )
a) Adult spleen
b) Fetus umbilical cord
c) Fetus placenta
d) Adult marrow
e) Fetus liver
39. Which group usually got acute ITP?( )
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a) Children
b) Women
c) Men
d) Old person
e) Workers
40. Which is the first choice for RA(
a) NSAIDS
b) MTX
c) CTX
d) SASP
e) LEF
)?
SURGERY PART ( TOTAL 40 POINTS)
41. For a patient of gastric outlet obstruction, the fluid management is (
)
a) Normal saline
b) Hypertonic saline
c) Sodium bicarbonate to counteract aciduria
d) Hypotonic saline without potassium
e) Normal saline with potassium
42. Recognized complication frequently a/w enteral feeding( )
a) Constipation
b) Diarrhea
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hyperglycemia
e) Hypernatremia
43. In third degree circumferential burn in the arm and forearm region, which of the
following is the most important for monitoring( )
a) Blood gases
b) Carboxy-oxygen level
c) Macroglobinuria cryoglobinuria
d) Peripheral pulse and circulation
e) Electrolyte level
44. Late death in burns is due to (
)
a) Sepsis
b) Hypovolemia
c) Contractures
d) Neurogenic
e) None of the above
45. Initial treatment in a management of trauma (
)
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a) Airway
b) IV fluid
c) Fracture stabilization
d) Do not shift
e) None of the above
46. Which of the following is the best way to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement?
a) Decrease in thirst
b) Increase in urine output
c) Blood presssure
d) Increased PaO2
e) Pulse rate decrease
47. Body water content in percentage of body weight is lowest in ( )
a) Well-build man
b) Fat woman
c) Well nourished
d) Fat man
e) New born infant.
48. In a patient with multi system trauma, the presence of hypotension along with elevated
central venous pressure is suggestive of ( )
a) Upper airway obstruction
b) Major abdominal bleed
c) Cardio-pulmonary problem
d) Spinal cord injury
e) Blood loss shock
49. 20mmol of potassium chloride in 500ml of 5% dextrose solution is given intravenously
to treat ( )
a) Metabolic alkalosis
b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Respiratory acidosis
e) None of the above
50. Earliest symptoms of colonic carcinoma: ( )
a) Pain
b) Diarrhea or constipation
c) Abdominal mass
d) Abdominal distension
e) Vomiting.
51. Sentinel pile indicates:(
)
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a) Carcinoma rectum
b) Internal hemorrhoids
c) Perianal fistula
d) Anal fissure
e) All above
52. Investigation to diagnose carcinoma head of pancreas are following
except : (
)
a) X-ray abdomen
b) CT scan
c) USG
d) ERCP
e) PTC
53. All are true about acute pancreatitis except: (
)
a) Gallstone and alcohol are common
b) Serum amylase level increase after 72 hours of attack
c) Can cause ARDS
d) Can present with shock
e) Can lead to kidney function failure
54. Which is true about pancreatic carcinoma: (
)
a) Body is the most common site
b) Pain, fever and jaundice are the most common symptoms
c) Most lead to cholangitis
d) 80% cases respond well to resection
e) Painless jaundice
55. Spontaneous rupture of the liver occurs in: (
)
a) Hepatoma
b) Portal hypertension
c) Spherocytosis
d) Secondary deposits
e) Obstructive jaundice
56. Which is true about hepatocellular carcinoma: ( )
a) Most prevalent malignancy
b) Low propensity of vascular involvement
c) Alcoholic cirrhosis does not predispose to it
d) Associated with HBV and HCV
e) Prognosis is good
57. Best investigation for gall bladder: (
)
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a) OCG
b) PTC
c) Ultrasound
d) Intravenous cholangiogram
e) ERCP.
58. Charcot’s syndrome is seen in : ( )
a) Acute pancreatitis
b) Hemobilia
c) Stone in the bile duct
d) Chronic cholecystitis
e) Acute cholecystitis
59. Most common site for carcinoma stomach is : ( )
a) Prepyloric
b) Body of stomach
c) Fundus
d) Lesser curvature
e) Greater curvature
60. A 45 years male who had chronic duodenal ulcer for the last 6 years. Presents with
worsening of symptoms. Loss of periodicity of symptoms pain on rising in the morning.
Sense of epigastric bloating and post-prandial vomiting. The most likely cause is the
development of: a) Posterior penetration
b) Gastric outlet obstruction
c) Carcinoma
d) Pancreatitis
e) Perforation
61. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:
a) Breast abscess
b) Fibroadenoma
c) Duct papilloma
d) Fat necrosis of breast
e) None of the above
62. The most common complication of subarachnoid block is (
)
a) Postoperative headache
b) Total spinal anesthesia
c) Hypoxemia
d) Pneumothorax
e) Diapyesis meningitis
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63. Minimal alveolar concentration means that at 1 atmospheric pressure, alveolar
concentration at which______ of the subjects don’t move in response to a noxious
stimulus.
a) 5 %
b) 25 %
c) 50 %
d) 75 %
e) 100 %
64. A 37 year old woman is in a serious automobile accident and sustains a closed head
injury. She does not immediately seek medical attention, but
is brought to the emergency room 2 hours later by her brother.
On physical examination, there is mydriasis and loss of pupillary light
reflex. Several hours later , she is unable to follow a flash light with her
eyes. Which of the following types of herniation is most likely occurring
in this patient? (
)
a) Cerebellar tonsils into the foramen magnum
b) Cerebellum upward past the tentorium
c) Cingulate gyrus under the falx
d) Medulla into foramen magnum
e) Temporal lobe under the tentorium
65. A young man has his head injured in a traffic accident. There is bloody fluid oozing
from his right ear canal and the hearing ability of his right
ear is impaired. Which of the following nerves may also be injured:
a) Oculomotor nerve, right side
b) Trochlear nerve, right side
c) Trigeminal nerve, right side
d) Abducent nerve, right side
e) Facial nerve, right side
f) Pharyngolaryngeal nerve, right side
66. ________ is the typical symptom of esophageal carcinoma
a) Choking feeling
b) Stagnant sensation
c) Progressive dysphagia
d) Retrosternal burning
e) Cough
67. The most common symptom of lung carcinoma is___________
a) Irritable cough
b) Bloody sputum
c) Chest pain
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d) Dyspnea
e) Progressive dyspnea
68. _______ is the most common sign of blunt thoracic trauma.
a) Hemothorax
b) Pulmonary contusion
c) Pneumothorax
d) Rib fracture
e) Heart broken
69. The diagnosis of bladder tumor depends on (
)
a) Urine routine test
b) Cystoscopy
c) X-ray
d) Urine bacteriology test
e) CT scan
70. Which is not the pathological change of renal injury (
)
a) Contusion
b) Hematoma
c) Laceration
d) Rupture
e) Renal pedicle injury
71. The optimal time for debridement is within(
)hours, which is also the latent
period for germs a) 2-4 hours
b) 4-6 hours
c) 6-8 hours
d) 8-10 hours
e) 10-12 hours
72. A boy has his knee injured in the basketball game, the examination shows his
knee swelling, pain, dysfunction with posterior drawer
test(+), the possible diagnosis is ( ).
a) Anterior cruciate ligament injury
b) Posterior cruciate ligament
c) The bones around the knee joint fracture
d) Meniscus
e) The knee joint spasm
73. The brachial artery is usually injured or compressed, which one is wrong
a) Humerus shaft fracture
b) Humerus neck fracture
c) Extension type fracture of supracondylar fracture of humerus
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d) Flexion type fracture of supracondylar fracture of humerus
e) Colles fracture
74. Which one is the common sign of fracture?(
)
a) Swelling
b) Deformity
c) Abnormal movement
d) Bone crepitus
e) Shock
75. Which one is stable fracture? (
)
a) Oblique fracture
b) Spiral fracture
c) Comminuted fracture
d) Greenstick fracture
e) Multiple fracture
76. As to the relationship between LDH and nerve root compression, which one is
wrong(
) a)
L3.4 : to L4
b) L4.5: to L5
c) L5S1: to S1
d) L5S1: to L5
e) L2.3 : L3
77. Suppurative osteomyelitis is usually happened in which joint? ( )
a) Shoulder and elbow joint
b) Hip and knee joint
c) Elbow and hip joint
d) Shoulder and knee joint
e) Elbow and knee joint
78. Phalen sign is usually in assistant to diagnose which disease? ( )
a) Pyriformis
b) Ganglion
c) Tennis elbow
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome
e) Cervical spondylosis
79. According to the force direction, pelvic fracture can be classified into 4 types,
which one is not included?( )
a) LC fracture
b) APC fracture
c) Avulsion fracture
d) CM fracture
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e) VS fracture
80. As to the predilection sites of Ewing’s sarcoma, which site is right? (
a) Metaphysis
b) Osteoepiphysis
c) Cortex
d) Diaphysis
e) Cartilage
)
DEPARTMENT OF GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
( TOTAL 10 POINTS )
81. The main sign of onset of labor is ( )
a) Show
b) Regulatory uterine contraction
c) Cervical softening
d) Fixation of fetal presentation
e) Obscure abdominal pain
82. All of following may cause persistent occiput posterior position and persistent
occiput transverse position except a) Transverse narrowing of the midpelvis
b) Gynecoid type
c) Platepelloid and android pelvis
d) Hypotonic uterine dysfunction
e) Cephalopelvic disproportion
83. If the postpartum hemorrhage immediately onset after a large baby was
delivered, the most possible cause is
a) Uterine atony
b) Fetal factors
c) Genital tract laceration
d) Coagulopathy
e) Ovary dysfunction
84. Puerperium is defined as the ______ subsequent weeks after birth during which
normal pregnancy involution occurs.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 3
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85. According to the FIGO staging of cervical cancer, if the cervical cancer
invasion to stroma is no deeper than 3mm and no wider than 7mm in horizontal
spread, is stage is
a) Stage1 A1
b) Stage1 A2
c) Stage1 B1
d) Stage1 B2
e) None of the above
86. Main cause of uterine prolapse of uterus
a) Long-standing chronic cough
b) Long-standing constipation
c) Delivery injury and early manual labor during puerperium
d) Atrophy of aging and attenuation of the supporting structure
e) Congenital hypoplasia of pelvic tissue
87. Which one is wrong about the labor course?
a) In primiparous the first stage lasts about 11-12 hours
b) The second stage begins from fully dilation of the cervix to the complete
delivery of the fetus
c) The first stage means from regular uterine contraction to full dilatation of
cervix
d) The upper limit of 3rd stage is 30 min
e) The upper limit of second stage is 1 hrs
88. Main therapeutic method of ovarian cancer is
a) Hormone therapy
b) Radiotherapy
c) Chemotherapy
d) Surgery+chemotherapy
e) Immunological therapy
89. The big fontanelle at the left anterior position, the fetal position most
possible is
a) LOP
b) ROP
c) ROA
d) LOA
e) LOT
90. Which one is the indication of artificial abortion?
a) Pregnancy: 12-14 weeks
b) Acute genital inflammation
c) Acute stage of some chronic disease
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d) Pregnancy < 10 weeks
e) Body temperature over 37.50C for 2 times ( interval>4hrs) before operation
PEDIATRICS PART ( TOTAL 10 POINTS)
91. The children’s crossings in WBC counts occur (
)
a) 1-3d, 2-3 y
b) 4-6 d, 4-6 y
c) 7-9d, 7-8 y
d) 4-6d, 4-6 m
e) 4-6m, 4-6 y
92. A neonate , GA:39 weeks, forceps deliver, 1 min Apgar score: 6 marks, 5min
Apgar score: 10marks, have lethargy 2 days later. Physical examination:
cyanosis, RR: 32times/min. HR:95times/min, bulging anterior fontanellle,
lower muscle tone, moro reflex disappereared.
The most likely diagnosis is (
)
a) Aspiration syndrome
b) Neonatal wet lung
c) Neonatal hyaline membrane disease
d) Hypoxia ischemic encephalopathy
e) Hypoglycemia
93. To the nervous reflex in newborn, which is abnormal ( )
a) Rooting reflex is positive
b) Moro reflex is negative
c) Symmetric positive of Kernig’s sign
d) Symmetric positive of babinski’s sign
e) Grasp reflex is positive
94. The human body’s main source of vitamin D is (
)
a) Plants in ergosterol
b) Skin synthesis
c) From egg yolk
d) From animal liver
e) From breast milk
95. 5-year old child, fever and dry cough 2 weeks, has been given penicillin and
cephalosporin for 7 days, but no use. P/E: poor spirit, breathing steadily,
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coarse lung sound. Chest x-ray: cloud-like big patch shadow at the bottom of
right lung. The most likely yet diagnosis is ( )
a) Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia
b) Adenovirus pneumonia
c) Chlamydia pneumonia
d) Mycoplasma pneumonia
e) Bronchopneumonia
96. The feature of P2 in ASD is (
)
a) Accentuated
b) Weaker
c) Split
d) Do not split
e) Fixed and split
97. The main pathophysiological changes in Eisenmenger syndrome is
a) Right ventricular hypertrophy
b) Aorta displacement
c) Pulmonary hypertension
d) Ventricular septal defect
e) Less blood in the lung
98. At present, the first choice drug to treat nephrotic syndrome is (
)
a) Steroid
b) Chinese medicine
c) Immunosuppressant
d) Diuresis
e) Antibiotics
99. The total volume of the first day rehydration for children with severe
dehydration is ( )
a) 60-90 ml/kg
b) 90-120 ml/kg
c) 120-150 ml/kg
d) 150-180 ml/kg
e) 180-210 ml/kg
100. 1 year old boy, can’t sit, climb and stand by himself, can’t speak any word,
has a musty or mousy urine odor. P/E: pale skin, brown hair, Which is the
first choice test to confirm the diagnosis a) IQ
b) CT scan
c) EEG
d) FeCl3 in the urine
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e) bone age
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2018GRADUATIONPAPER
1) The concentration of inhilated O2 (FiO2) ( )
a) 21+4 *L/MIN
b) 31+4 *L/MIN
c) 35+4 *L/MIN
d) 37+4 *L/MIN
e) 42+4 *L/MIN
2) Streptococcus pneumonia treatment first choice ( )
a) Penicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
e) Clindamycin
3) Mycoplasma pneumonia treatment first choice: ( )
a) Penicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
e) Vancomycin
4) The functional factor produce pulmonary hypertension not include
a) Hypoxia
b) Hypercapnia
c) Respiratory acidosis
d) Hypocapnia
e) Cyanosis
5) The mechanism of respiratory failure not include (
)
a) Hypoventilation of alveolar
b) Ventilation-perfusion imbalance
c) Pulmonary arteriovenous shunts
d) Consumption of O2 decrease
e) The shortness of oxygen
6) The performance of asthma patients in lung functional may have, except (
)
a) PEF<=70% predicted
b) PEF variability >=20 %
c) Positive bronchodilatation test: FEV1> 12% or 180ml in response to Ventolin
d) Exercise testing: FEV1 decreases 15% after exercise
e) DLCO decreased
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7) The diagnostic evidence for interstitial lung disease in lung functional tests except ( )
a) FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal
b) FEV1/FVC ratio increased
c) DLCO reduced
d) FEV1/FVC ratio decreased
e) A restrictive pattern
8) The treatment of pleural effusion depends on the (
)
a) The volume of pleural effusion
b) With or without compressing syndrome
c) Etiology
d) Patient’s age
e) Characters of pleural effusion
9) Inflamed and roughened pleural surfaces grate against each other as they are
momentarily and repeatedly delayed by increased friction. These movements produce
creaking sounds known as a (
)
a) Crackles
b) Rhonchi
c) Pleural rub
d) Stridor
e) None of the above
10) A wheeze that is entirely or predominantly inspiratory is called (
)
a) Crackles
b) Mediastinal crunch
c) Stridor
d) Pleural rub
e) Rales
11) Which of the following statement about vesicular is incorrect ( )
a) Insp>exp
b) Exp>insp
c) Soft>low
d) Most of the lungs
e) None of the above
12) About Digitalis, which one is wrong (
)
a) Increase myocardial strength
b) Fit for HF with enlarged ventricle volume in end dilating stage
c) When digitalis poisoning patients have all kinds of arryhythmia
d) Fit for pulmonary hypertension
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13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
e) When digitalis poisoning we should complement kalium, antiarrhythmic drug,
defibrillator is forbidden
Which one is not the manifestation of left HF ( )
a) Laboring dyspnea
b) Night paroxysmal dyspnea
c) Acute pulmonary edema
d) Liver enlargement
e) Cough, sputum, hemoptysis
Which disease can increase the afterload of heart? (
)
a) Septal defect
b) Aortic incompetence
c) Mitral inadequacy
d) Hypertension
e) Patent ductus arteriosus
Which is the most common bacteria in urinary tract infection.( )
a) Escherichia coli
b) Klebsiella
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Staphylococcus aureus
e) Proteus
Which of the following is not the diagnosis standard of the nephrotic syndrome( )
a) Proteinuria >3.5 g/d
b) Serum albumin <30 g/L
c) Edema
d) Hyperlipidemia
e) Hematuria
What is proteinuria (
)
a) Protein>150mg/l in urine
b) Protein>300mg/l in urine
c) Protein>200mg/l in urine
d) Protein>450mg/l in urine
e) Protein >3.5g/l in urine
Which of the following is not the characteristics of minimal glomerular abnormalities(
)
a) Podocytic process fuse
b) Not always relapse
c) Often in kids
d) Spontaneous alleviate
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19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
e) Sensitive to glucocortical hormone
Which one of the following is used for hyperthyroidism ?
a) Propylthiouracil
b) Acarbose
c) Levothyroxine
d) Metformin
e) None of the above
Which one of the following is associated with galactorrhea?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Breast cancer
c) Fibrocystic breast disease
d) Adrenal insufficiency
e) Graves’s disease
Which of the followings is a cause of thyrotoxicosis characterized by decreased
radioactive iodine uptake?
a) Grave’s disease
b) Subacute thyroiditis
c) Toxic multinodular goiter
d) Solitary toxic thyroid nodule
e) All of the above.
Which of the following is the change of Graves’ disease? (
)
a) T3 ↑ T4↑ TSH↓
b) T3↓ T4↓ TSH↑
c) T3↓ T4↓ TSH↓
d) T3↑ T4↑ TSH↑
e) None of the above
Which is the specific for RA ( Rheumatoid Arthritis)?
a) RF (Rheumatoid factor)
b) ANA (antinuclear antibody)
c) Anti-CCP antibody
d) CRP ( C-reactive protein)
e) ESR ( Erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
The following is not true about the mechanisms of ascites in the patient with liver
cirrhosis
a) Portal hypertension >300mmH2O
b) Aldosterone↑
c) ADH↑
d) Effective blood volume ↑
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e) Hypoalbuminemia
25) The following is not true of the ascites of tuberculous peritonitis:
a) ADA↓
b) Exudation
c) Specific gravity>1.018
d) Protein concentration>30g/l
e) WBC>500/mm3
26) A young man suffer from chronic diarrhea for about 1 year, he had anus abscess
before, colonoscope showed longitudinal ulcer, biopsy found non-caseous granulomas.
What is the diagnosis for the case?
a) Crohn’s disease
b) Ulcerative colitis
c) Intestinal tuberculosis
d) Colon carcinoma
e) Enteritis
27) The following is not true of pyloric channel ulcer
a) Symptom is similar to duodenal ulcer, but night pain and radiative pain is
insignificant
b) Lack of typical symptoms( rhythmical pain)
c) Easy to obstruction and vomiting
d) Easy to occur complication
e) Medical therapy is usually uneffective
28) The following is true of intestinal tuberculosis:
a) Intestinal tuberculosis is a kind of chronic non-specific infection caused by
Mycobacteria tuberculosis
b) Commonly locate in ileocaecum
c) Clinical feature is always constipation but diarrhea
d) If PPD was positive, we can diagnosis intestinal TB
e) Treatment should be extended to 2-6 weeks
29) The following is not true about the endocrine disturbances in patient with liver
cirrhosis:
a) Corticosteroid ↑
b) Estrogen↑
c) Aldosterone↑
d) Androgen ↓
e) melanotropin↑
30) The following is not belonged to the manifestation of the portal hypertension.
a) Splenomegaly
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31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
b) Ascites
c) Esophageal varices
d) Hemorrhoids formation
e) Jaundice
The heart rate range of sinus tachycardia is usually between (
a) 100-180 times/minute
b) 80-100 times/minute
c) 60-80 times/minute
d) 180-200 times/minute
e) 200-220 times/minute
Which of the following is not a sign of cardiac tamponade (
a) Jugular venous distention
b) Blood pressure drops, pulse pressure become smaller
c) Odd pulse
d) First heart sound sthenia
e) Heart sound is far away
What is the most common side effect of ACEI?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Cough
d) Edema
Which group usually got chronic ITP?
a) Children
b) Women
c) Men
d) Old person
e) Workers
Which one is the specific sign of anemia
a) Fatigue
b) Koilonychias
c) Palpitation
d) Dyspnea
e) Nausea
Chloroma is usually can be seen in (
) type leukemia
a) M2
b) M3
c) M4
d) M5
)
)
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37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
e) M0
Secondary hypertension including: (
)
a) Renal parenchyma hypertension
b) Renal vascular hypertension
c) Primary aldosteronism
d) Pheochromocytoma
e) All of the above
ECG: P wave and isoelectric line disappear, serration ( F ) wave appear. F wave
frequency: 250-350/min. It is:
a) Atrial flutter
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Torsades de pointes
d) Ventricular flutter
e) Ventricular fibrillation
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy UCG manifestation: asymmetric septal hypertrophy in
dilating phase, septa thickness/posterior wall of LV≥ ( )
a) 1.0
b) 1.3
c) 1.5
d) 1.7
e) 2.0
Which one is not AMI complications:
a) Dysfunction or rupture of papillary muscle
b) Mitral prolapse and mitral insufficiency
c) Embolism
d) Dyspnea
e) Cardiac aneurysm
Which is not the purpose of premedication before anesthesia?
a) Makes the patient emotionally stable
b) Reduce adverse effects of anesthetics
c) Wake up quickly after surgery
d) Diminish dosage of anesthetics
e) Strengthen the anesthetic effect
Which procedure is correct for CPR? ( )
a) External compression of cardiac systole, 30 times, and then mouth-tomouth
breath, twice
b) External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth to mouth
breath, twice, if two resuscitator available
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43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
c) External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, twice, if one resuscitator available
d) External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, once
e) External compression of cardiac systole 20 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, once
Which anesthetic can elevate blood pressure and increase heart rate? ( )
a) Thiopentone
b) Ketamine
c) Halothane
d) Isoflurane
e) Lidocaine
What is the most serious complication of epidural anesthesia?
a) Hypotension
b) Total spinal block
c) Diapyesis meningitis
d) Traction reflex
e) Shock
Which is not the side effect of succinylcholine? ( )
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Postoperative myalgia
c) Malignant fever
d) Hypokalemia
e) Increased intracranial pressure
On account of shock, which of the following is wrong, ( )
a) Renal blood flow decreased, when the glomerular filtration rate decreased
b) Effective circulating blood volume ↓
c) Shock inhibitory stage pathological change of microcirculation blood capillary
volume increase
d) Shock compensatory period when coronary artery contraction is not obvious
e) The nature of the shock is hypotension.
Peritonitis in patients after treatment capacity : Bp 80/60mmHg, CVP:5cmH2O, urine
volume 20ml/h. At this time should be taken into account (
)
a) ARF
b) Hypovolemic shock
c) Acute heart failure
d) ARDS
e) Uncontrolled infections
Is true about the shock ( )
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a) Usually in a rapid loss of blood in shock, more than 10% of the total blood
volume
b) Uncontrolled hemorrhagic shock, should first rapid infusion of 10% ~ 50 %
c) Traumatic shock, do not belong to hypovolemic shock
d) The treatment principle of septic shock is infection controlling the first place
e) Septic shock caused by Gram(-ve) bacilli release of endotoxin
49) Female patient, 54, acute pancreatitis, post-operative fasting water still, gastrointestinal
decompression, infusion and anti-infection treatment, oxygen uptake 5L/min, arterial
blood gas analysis showed that pH value of 7.46, PaO2 55mmHg, PaCO2 33 mmHg :
X-ray is see double lung slice broader point shape shadow, ECG in sinus tachycardia.
The patient is possible: ( )
a) ARF
b) ARDS
c) Postoperative atelectasis
d) Pulmonary infection
e) COPD
50) On account of oliguria stage, which of the following is wrong ( )
a) Hypokalemia
b) Water intoxication
c) Hyponatremia
d) Hypochondria
e) Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
51) The indication of blood transfusion: (
)
a) Acute massive blood loss
b) Anemia and hypoalbuminemia
c) Overwhelming infection
d) Dysfunction of coagulation
e) All of the above
52) These alterations are usually somatic events, although germline mutations can
predispose a person to heritable or familial cancer (
)
a) Appendix
b) Operation
c) Oncogenes
d) Bacterium
e) Treatment
53)What is the most common complication of blood tansfusion? ( )
a) non-hemolytic febrile transfusion
b) anaphylactic response
c) hemolytic reaction
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d) transfusion-related acute lung injury
e) transfusion –associated graft versus host disease
54) Excessive hemorrhage is associated with ( ), which is proportional to the
volume of blood loss
a) Pain
b) Coagulopathy
c) Sepsis
d) Malnutrition
e) Fever
55) Which organ is the most common organ injury of the abdominal injuries (
)
a) Liver
b) Bladder
c) Small bowel
d) Stomach
e) Diaphragm
56) The intracranial pressure of adult is ( )
a) 50-100mmH2O
b) 50-100 mmHg
c) 70-200 mmHg
d) 100-200 mmHg
57) Which of the following is not the consequences of increased intracranial
pressure
a) Compromise blood perfusion to brain
b) Brain herniation
c) Pulmonary edema
d) Cushing’s triad
e) Enlargement of ventricles
58) Which of the following is not correct treatment for skull base fracture (
)
a) Elevation of head
b) Obstruction of nasal cavity or ear canal if there is CSF leakage
c) Administration of antibiotics even there is no fever
d) Ask the patient not to cough or sneeze
e) Surgery should be done on patients with sustained CSF leakage
59) The typical feature of acute subdural hematoma on CT scan is (
)
a) Crescent shaped high density lesion beneath skull
b) Crescent shaped low density lesion beneath skull
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c)
d)
e)
60)
Shuttle shaped high density lesion beneath skull
Shuttle shaped low density lesion beneath skull
Irregular shaped high density lesion in cortex
The following treatment for increased intracranial pressure are correct
except ( )
a) Administration of mannitol
b) Large volume fluid intake
c) Use barbitals for those with pneumonia
d) Use barbitals for those with epilepsy
e) Surgery can be done to get rid of the cause of increased ICP
61) Which test is the most likely positive for meniscus injury? ( )
a) ADT test
b) McMurray test
c) PDT test
d) Thompson test
e) Dugas sign
62) Which test is the most likely positive for posterior cruciate ligament injury?
a) ADT test
b) McMurray test
c) PDT test
d) Thompson test
e) Dugas sign
63) Which is the most common dislocation for shoulder joint? ( )
a) Anterior dislocation
b) Posterior
c) Central dislocation
d) Lateral dislocation
e) Inferior dislocation
64) Which important structure could be injured by the fracture of humeral
surgical neck?
a) Radial artery
b) Brachial artery
c) Axillary nerve
d) Radial nerve
e) Ulnar nerve
65) What is the typical deformity for radial nerve injury? (
)
a) Square shoulder
b) Claw hand
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c)
d)
e)
66)
Wrist drop
Ape hand
Foot drop
How long should the reduced dislocated shoulder be suspended with a
triangular sling. ( )
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks
e) 5 weeks
67) Which bone fracture is evaluated by Bohler’s angle?
a) Calcaneus
b) Talus
c) Navicular
d) Cuboid
e) Metatarsals
68) Which test is the most likely positive for anterior cruciate ligament injury?
a) ADT test
b) Mcmurry test
c) PDT test
d) Thompson test
e) Dugas sign
69) Which test is the most likely positive for Achilles tendon rupture?
a) ADT test
b) Mcmurry test
c) PDT test
d) Thompson test
e) Dugas sign
70) Which is the most common dislocation for hip joint?
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Central dislocation
d) Lateral dislocation
e) Inferior dislocation
71) Which one increases with prostatic cancer ( )
a) White blood cell
b) CEA
c) PSA
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d) BTA
e) AFP
72) Which is the most common type of bladder cancer? ( )
a) clear cell
b) sarcomatoid cell
c) transitional cell
d) papillary cell
e) chromophobe cell
73) The diagnosis of bladder tumor depends on: ( )
a) Urine routine test
b) Cystoscopy
c) X-ray
d) Urine bacteriology test
e) CT scan
74) Which is not the pathological change of renal injury ( )
a) Contusion
b) Hematoma
c) Laceration
d) Rupture
e) Renal pedicle injury
75) PSA of ______________ng/ml or lower is normal. ( )
a) 100
b) 15
c) 4
d) 12
76) Most commonly fractured rib are (
)
a) 5-8 rib
b) 2-4 rib
c) 4-7 rib
d) 10-12 rib
e) None of the above
77) Generally, how much volume of pneumothorax requires surgical treatment?
a) 10 %
b) 15 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %
e) More than 30 %
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78) Which of the following pathogenic factors is most associated with lung
cancer? ( )
a) Atmospheric pollution
b) Smoking
c) Genetic factors
d) Low immunity
e) Pulmonary chronic infection
79) Which of the following is not the cause of spontaneous pneumothorax?
()
a) Severe coughing
b) Pulmonary bulla
c) Abrupt change of climate
d) Lung infection
e) Chest trauma
80) What is the best treatment for tension pneumothorax? (
)
a) Thoracocentesis
b) Closed thoracic drainage
c) Exploratory thoracotomy
d) Pulmonary bubble resection
e) Oxygen inhalation therapy
81) On the same period contraception description, is true
a) Sperm into female reproductive tract can survive for 5 to 6 days
b) Egg from the ovary can survive 3 to 4 days
c) From a physiological point of view in 5 days after ovulation is fertile,
the rest of the time is not easy to conceive, so called safety period
d) Safety period contraception is very reliable
e) Cycle for 28~30 days, more than in the 14 days before the next
menstrual ovulation
82) IUD routine of menstrual clean after
a) 1~5 days
b) 2~7 days
c) 3~7 days
d) 4~8 days
e) 5~9 days
83) Which of the following is not the IUD extraction indications
a) Plans to have
b) Placed period has expired need to replace
c) In perimenopausal women
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84)
85)
86)
87)
88)
89)
d) Menopause for more than two years
e) Convert other contraceptive measures or sterilization
What is the main reason of prolapse of uterus
a) Birth trauma
b) Operation injury
c) Increased abdominal pressure
d) Floor dysgenesis
e) Pelvic floor tissue degeneration
Cervical polyp treatment which of the following is the most appropriate?
a) Electrocoagulation
b) Polyp and sent for pathological examination
c) Topical anti-inflammatory
d) Cervical conization
e) Microwave treatment
Early pregnancy diagnosis, which of the following is the most accurate?
a) Menopause with nausea, vomiting
b) In vaginal congestion become soft, showing purple blue
c) Uterine enlargement
d) Ultrasonic Doppler examination demonstrated a fetal heart sound
e) Felt fetal movement
Early pregnancy black pus syndrome refers to:
a) Uterus increased soft
b) Uterus was forward flexion
c) Uterine isthmus soft, uterine body and cervix is not connected
d) Cervical congestion become soft, showing purple blue
e) Nipple and areola color deepened, with brown nodules around the areola
At the beginning of pregnant women of fetal movement time in:
a) 14~16 weeks
b) 16~18 weeks
c) 18~20 weeks
d) 20~24 weeks
e) Over 24 weeks
Which of the followings is not the complications of placental abruption
a) DIC and coagulation defects
b) Postpartum hemorrhage
c) Acute renal failure
d) Amniotic fluid infection
e) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
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90) Women in each stage of life, a stage which is the longest
a) Neonatal
b) Childhood
c) Maturehood
d) Adolescent sexual maturity
e) Menopause
91) The approximate average values of weight, length and head circumference
in 1 year old children are
a) Weight 15kg, length65cm, head circumference 46 cm
b) Weight 15kg, length 75cm, head circumference 50 cm
c) Weight 10kg, length 75cm, head circumference 46 cm
d) Weight 10kg, length 65cm, head circumference 46 cm
e) Weight 10kg, length 85cm, head circumference 35 cm
92) Which is the first step for asphyxiated infant
a) Initiate respiration
b) Positive-pressure ventilation
c) Clear airway
d) Drug treatment
e) Resume circulation
93) The most common cause of acute infection diarrhea in infants is
a) Rotavirus
b) Enteric adenoviruses
c) Escherichia coli
d) Systemic infections
e) Parasitic infection
94) The major manifestation of bronchiolitis is
a) Fever
b) Airway hyperresponsiveness
c) Wheezing
d) Silent lung
e) Airway remodeling
95) The very important etiology of congenital heart disease is
a) X-ray
b) Drug
c) Virus infection
d) Metabolic disease
e) Genetic factors
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96) A 1 year-old presents fever for 2 days with frequently vomiting and
Convulsion. Physical examination reveals a lassitude boy with bulging
anterior fontanel, rigidity neck and positive brudzinki sign. His CSF
examination shows a turbid appearance, increased protein, WBC of
1*109/L with 80% neutrophil, glucose of 2.0mmol/L and chloride of
98mmol/L. The most possible diagnosis is
a) Tubercular meningitis
b) Epidemic encephalitis B
c) Viral meningitis
d) Mycotic meningitis
e) Purulent meningitis
97) The complication of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric age group is
a) Primary peritonitis
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Renal venous thrombosis
e) All of above
98) Which lab results can be found in nutritional iron deficiency anemia
a) Serum iron concentration↓, total iron-binding capacity↓, transferrin
saturation↓
b) Serum iron concentration↓, total iron-binding capacity↓, transferrin
saturation ↑
c) Serum iron concentration↓, total iron-binding capacity ↑, transferrin
saturation normal
d) Serum iron concentration ↓, total iron-binding capacity↑, transferrin
saturation↓
e) Serum iron concentration↓, total iron-binding capacity↑, transferrin
saturation↑
99) The normal systolic blood pressure of 8-year old is
a) 90 mmHg
b) 96 mmHg
c) 101 mmHg
d) 110 mmHg
e) 115 mmHg
100) Which is the most valuable clinical manifestation in predicting the severity
of diarrhea
a) Egg-soup like stools more than times a day
b) Vomiting 4~5 times a day
c) Fever (390C)
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d) Decreased skin turgor, and absence of tears when crying
e) Mucous stools with foul smell
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OBJECTIVES ( PAST QUESTIONS)
INTERNAL MEDICINE
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER
1. What is the essence of Asthma
A. Inflammation of airways
B. Allergic
C. Environment pollution
D. Neural mechanism
E. Genetic factors
2. Indications of digitalis in the treatment of cor pulmonale except:
A. The heart failure cannot be controlled by diuretics, even though the infection and
respiratory function have been improved
B. Acute left heart failure
C. Low dose, short-half-life drugs, short course
D. Combining with potassium
E. Right heart failure without obvious infection
3. Diagnosis of Interstitial lung disease (ILD) depends more on the
A. More than 2 years dyspnea
B. Chest exam reveals Velcro crackles
C. A restrictive pattern in lung function test
D. Lung biopsy
E. CT scan findings
4. Indication of mechanical ventilation for severe respiratory patients EXCEPT
A. Airways secretions increase
B. Consciousness disorder
C. PaO2<45mmHg, PaCO2>70 mmHg
D. Hypotension
E. Polyorgans function injury
5. Which strategy / method is not reasonable according to the treatment of pneumothorax
A. Tension-pressure pneumothorax: tube thoracotomy
B. The size of pneumothorax<20%: conservation treatment
C. Trans-pneumothorax: closed drainage and exhaust
D. O2 inhalation for any types of pneumothorax
E. Sedatives for any types of pneumothorax
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6. The possible presence of Bronchiectasis may include EXCEPT
A. Production of large amount of purulent sputum
B. Clubbing of the digits
C. Recurrent pneumonias
D. Recurrent hemoptysis
E. Velcro-like crackles of decreased lung
7. Which is about TB inductions is NOT TRUE
A. Pathogenic materials of tuberclobacillus on the cell wall
B. Drug-resistant strains of TB promotes TB Increasing
C. Respiratory spreading is the only roots of TB infection
D. The phenomenon of different response between the primary infection and secondary
infection is termed as “Koch phenomenon” in TB infection
E. Acute military tuberculosis is commonly seen in children and adolescents, whereas
subacute or chronic military tuberculosis common in adults
8. The following is NOT TRUE about the mechanism of ascites in the patient with liver
cirrhosis
A. Portal hypertension>300mmH2O
B. Aldosterone increase
C. ADH increase
D. Effective blood volume increase
E. hypoabluminemia
9. The following is NOT TRUE about the complication of ulcerative colitis
A. Toxic megacolon
B. Colon canceration
C. Hemorrhage
D. Perforation
E. Asymmetric colitis
10. The following is TRUE of Intestinal Tuberculosis
A. Intestinal Tuberculosis is a kind of chronic non-specific infection is caused by
mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Commonly locate in ileocaecum
C. Clinical feature is always constipation but diarrhea.
D. If PDD was positive, we can diagnose intestinal TB
E. Treatment should be extend to 2-6 weeks.
11. The following is NOT TRUE of the ascites of Tuberculous peritonitis
A. ADA decrease
B. Exudation
C. Specific gravity > 1.018
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D. Protein concentration>30g/L
E. WBC>500/MM3
12. The following is TRUE of hematemesis
A. When it occurs in patient with alcoholic liver disease, it is always due to esophageal
varices
B. When it caused by gastric ulcer, abdominal pain usually occur at night
C. When it occurs in patients over 70years of age who may arthritis, usually indicates
malignancy.
D. When it occurs after repeated retching, it suggestive of esophageal tear
E. When it is caused by duodenal ulcer, a partial gastrectomy is usually necessary.
13. The following is TRUE of crohns disease
A. Mainly located in sigmold colon
B. Commonly continuously locate
C. Rarely form fistula
D. In biopsy, we can see caseous gramulomas
E. Under colonscopy------“cobblestone” appearance
14. The following is NOT TRUE about Helicbacter pylori
A. Causes ulceration in duodenum
B. Causes barretts metaplasia in esophagus
C. Is associated with hypergastrinaemia
D. Is often resistant to certain antibiotics
E. Can convert urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide
15. The international standard of anemia for man is
A. Hb<100g/L B. Hb<110g/L
C. Hb<120g/L
D. Hb<130g/L
E. Hb<140g/L
16. The CML patients may die in months in
A. Chronic phase
B. Accelerated phase
C. Blastic phase
D. Multiply phase
E. Apotosis phase
17. Which of the following may cause AA?
A. Erythromycin
B. Chloromycetin
C. Aspirin
D. Penicillin
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E. Tienam
18. Which of the following is NOT involved in the emergency treatment for ITP?
A. PLT transfusion
B. IVIG
C. Plasma exchange PE
D. Prednisone
E. Antibiotics
19. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas were separated from Hodgkin’s disease by recognition of the *
( )early in the twentieth century. A. Sternberg –Reed cells
B. Naja cells
C. Lise cell
D. Anna cell
E. Rose cell
20.The symptoms and signs of iron deficiency are
A. Glossitis, Cheilosis *(fissures at the corners of mouth)
B. Koilonychias (spooning of the fingernails)
C. Plummer –Vinson syndrome
D. Neuropsychic damages
E. All of above
21. The concentration of inhilated O2 ( FiO2)
A. 21+4
*L/MIN
B. 31+4
*L/MIN C.
35+4
*L/MIN D.
37+4
*L/MIN
E. 42+4 *L/MIN
21. Streptococcus pneumonia treatment first choice
A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampicin
E. Clindamycin
22. Mycoplasma pneumonia treatment first choice
A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Isoniazid
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D. Rifampicin
E. Vancomycin
23. The functional factor produce pulmonary hypertension NOT include
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Hypocapnia
E. Cyanosis
24. The mechanism of respiratory failure NOT include
A. Hypoventilation of alveolar
B. Ventilation –perfusion imbalance
C. Pulmonary arteriovenous shunts
D. Consumption of O2 decrease
E. The shortness of oxygen
25. The performance of asthma patients in lung functional test may have EXCEPT
A. PEF ≤70% Predicted
B. PEF variability ≥ 20 %
C. Positive Broncho dilatation test: FEVI >12% or >180Mi in response to ventolin
D. Exercise testing : FEVI decrease 15% after exercise
E. DLCO decreased
26. The diagnostic evidence for Interstitial lung disease (ILD) in lung functional tests
EXCEPT
A. FEVI/FVC ratio normal
B. FEVI/FVC ratio increased
C. DLCO reduced
D. FEVI/FVC ratio decreased
E. A restrictive pattern
27. The treatment of pleural effusion depends on the
A. The treatment of pleural effusion
B. With or without compressing syndrome
C. Etiology
D. Patients age
E. Characters of pleural effusion
28. Which is type I respiratory failure in these blood gas analysis?
A. PaO2 60mmHg, PaCO2 58 mmHg
B. PaO2 40mmHg, PaCO2 47 mmHg
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29.
30.
31.
32.
C. PaO2 55mmHg, PaCO2 66 mmHg
D. PaO2 40mmHg, PaCO2 80 mmHg
E. PaO2 50mmHg, PaCO2 60 mmHg
Which group of disease belong to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. Asthma, bronchiectasia
B. Chronic bronchitis, asthma, bronchiectasia
C. Chronic bronchitis, with airflow obstruction, pulmonary emphysema
D. Chronic bronchitis , pulmonary emphysema
E. Chronic bronchitis without airflow obstruction, pulmonary emphysema
The following is NOT TRUE about the mechanism of ascites in the patient liver cirrhosis
A. Portal hypertension >300mmH2o
B. Aldosterone increase
C. ADH increase
D. Effective blood volume increase
E. Hypoablbuminemia
The following is NOT TRUE of the ascites of tuberculous peritonitis
A. ADA decrease
B. Exudation
C. Specific gravity >1.018
D. Protein concentration>30g/L
E. WBC>500/mm3
A young man suffer from chronic diarrhea for about 1year, he had anus abscess before,
colonscope showed longitudinal ulcer, biopsy found non-caseous granulomas. What is the
diagnosis for the case
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Intestinal tuberculosis
D. Colon carcinoma
E. Enteritis
33. The following is NOT TRUE of pyloric channel Ulcer:
A. Symptom is similar to duodenal ulcer, but night pain and radioactive pain is
insignificant
B. Lack of the typical symptoms (rhythmical pain)
C. Easy to obstruction and vomiting
D. Easy to occur complication
E. Medical therapy is usually uneffective
34. The following is TRUE of intestinal tuberculosis
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A. Intestinal tuberculosis is a kind of chronic non-specific infection is caused by
mycobacteria Tuberculosis
B. Commonly locate in ileocaecum
C. Clinical feature is always constipation but diarrhea
D. If PDD was positive, we can diagnose intestinal TB
E. Treatment should be extend to 2-6 weeks
35. Which is not distribution of HSC(Hematopoietic stem cell)
A. Adult spleen
B. Fetus umbilical cord
C. Fetus placenta
D. Adult marrow
E. Fetus liver
36. Which group usually got acute ITP
A. Children
B. Women
C. Men
D. Old person
E. workers
37.Which one is the specific sign of anemia
A. PICA
B. Fatigue
C. Palpitation
D. Dyspnea
E. Nausea
38.Which one not belong to Normochromic, normocytic anemia
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Iron Deficiency Anemia
C. Hemolytic Anemia
D. Anemia of acute hemorrhage
E. Aplastic anemia
39.Which group usually got chronic ITP?
A. Children B. Women
C. Men
D. Old person
E. Workers
40. Aggravating heart failure factors, except（）
A. infection ,especially respiratory infection
B. arrhythmias,AF
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C. inhibit RAS and sympathetic system
D. rapid intravenous infusion
E. pulmonary embolism
41.Clinical manifestation of right heart failure, except（）
A. pulmonary basal rales bilaterally or right-side
B. peripheral edema , most mark in dependent parts
C. nausea, vomit
D. distention of jugular veins
E. liver enlarged
42.Reducing mortality of heart failure（）
A. digitalis
B. furosemide
C. sodium nitroprusside(SNP)
D. ACE inhibitor
E.β- excitant
43.Treatment of digitalis poisoning, except（）
A. suitable for cardioerter
B. tachycadia: supply K+ , Lidocain iv
C. bradicadia：atropin iv
D. bradicadia：not suitable for pacemaker E. drug withdrawal
44.Reducing mortality of heart failure（）
A. β- blocker
B. furosemide
C. sodium nitroprusside(SNP)
D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
E. Dobutamine
45. Which following is not risk factor of atherosclerosis？（）
A. hypertension
B. lipid disorder
C. diabetes mellitus
D. Smoking
E. Alcohol
46. The typical location of angina pectoris is（）
A. behind the mid sternum
B. apex of heart
C. precordial region
D. upper abdomen
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E. Xiphoid
47. The final diagnosis of angina pectoris is ( )
A) ECG
B) Radionuclide
C) Echocardiography
D) coronary angiography
E) X-ray of heart
48. Which is the most common noninvasive method in the diagnosis of angina pectoris
（ )
A) ECG
B) radionuclide
C) echocardiography
D) coronary angiography
E) X-ray of heart
49. What is the mainly death cause of acute myocardial infarction within 24 hours A)Heart
failure
B)cardiogenic shock
C)arrhythmia
D)cardiac rupture
E)cerebral embolism
51. 50-year-old, female, suffering from angina more than two years, the sudden onset
severe chest pain than before due to emotional, suspected acute myocardial infarction, which of the
following is most valuable to the diagnosis. （）
A.ST segment depression
B.the T wave is inverted
C.the Q wave is greater than 1 / 5 of the R wave in lead
D. myoglobin increased
E. GPT elevated
52. Which is not predisposing factor of urinary tract infection?
A. Urinary deformity
B. Bad immune
C. Uncontrolled HBp
D. Genetic factors
E. Use instrument
53. In urinalysis, which can best describe the reason of proteinuria
A. Functional proteinuria
B. Glomerular proteinuria
C. Tubule proteinuria
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D. Overflow proteinuria E. All the above
54. Which is the most common pathogen of AGNs prodromic infection?
A. E.coli
B. β-hemolytic streptococcus
C. Virus
D. Mycoplasma
E. Parasite
55. Which is not deteriorating factor of CRF (Chronic Renal Failure)?
A. Blood volume↓
B. Infection
C. Cardiac angina
D. HF & serious arrhythmia
E. Renal toxic drug
56.
Male, 23years old, main complain “cough, sore throat 10 days, hematuria for 1day.”
Exam: red pharynx, tonsil enlargement II
, eyelid & bilateral ankle edema, Bp:
150/90mmgh, P: 85bpm, R: 20bpm. urine→protein++,Rbc:30-40/Hp, deformity
rate:70%.Blood→
WBC:12.2X10
/l, Neu:85%,Hb:140g/l,RBC:3.9X10¹²/l, Plt:257X10 /l, Cr:59µmol/l,
C₃:0.05mmol/l. what diagnosis can you probably make
A. AGN
B. CGN
C. RPGN
D. NS
E. CRF
57.
Sinus tachycardia:frequency﹥____/min, gradually state and end
A. 110 B. 90
C. 150 D.
100
E. 120
58.
ECG: P wave and isoelectric line disappear, serration (F) wave appear. F wave frequency:
250-350/min. It is
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Torsades de pointes
D. Ventricular flutter
E. Ventricular fibrillation
59.
ECG: conduction fails suddenly and unexpectedly without a preceding change in PR
intervals.
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It is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mobitz type I second-degree AV block
Mobitz type II second-degree AV block
Mobitz type I second-degree Sinoatrial block
Mobitz type I second-degree Sinoatrial block
Third-degree AV block
60.
When the mitral valve opening is reduced to ___cm², often referred to as “critical” MS, a
LA pressure of approximately 25mmHg is required to maintain a normal cardiac
output(CO)
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6
D. 0.5
E. 1
61.
A HP (Hypertension) patient BP:160/90mmHg, and he has AP (Angina Pectoris), so his
HP
(Hypertension) grades and HP (Hypertension) cardiovascular risk grades standard is
A. Grade2 medium risk
B. Grade2 high risk*
C. Grade2 very high risk
D. Grade3 high risk
E. Grade3 is very high risk
62.
HP diagnosis standard is
A. SBP﹥130mmHg and DBP﹥85 mmHg
B. SBP≥140mmHg and (or) DBP≥90 mmHg
C. SBP﹥140mmHg and (or)DBP﹥90 mmHg
D. SBP≥150mmHg and (or)
DBP≥90mmHg E. SBP≥130mmHg and DBP≥85 mmHg
63.
If II III aVf ST segment elevation in ECG, which location of AMI:
A. High lateral wall
B. Anteroseptal wall
C. Extensive anterior wall
D. Inferior wall
E. strictly wall
64.
Which one is not the manifestation of left heart failure HF
A. Laboring dyspnea
B. Night paroxysmal dyspnea
C. Acute pulmonary edema
D. Cough, sputum, hemoptysis
E. hepatic-cervical vein reflux
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65.
B.
C.
D.
E.
66.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
About digitalis which one is right A. Decrease myocardial strength
Not fit for HF with enlarged ventricle volume in end dilating stage
when digitalis poisoning patients have not any kinds of arrhythmia
Not fit pulmonary HTN
When digitalis poisoning we should not complement kalium
ECG: sinus rhythm, frequency ＜ 60/min often accompanied by sinus irregularity. It is
Sinus tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
SSS
Sinus pause or arrest E. III -degree AVB
The endocrine system
Releases chemicals into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body
Releases hormones that alter the metabolism activities of many different tissues and
organs
Produces effects that can last for hours, days or even longer
Can alter gene activity of cells E. All of the above
A 72 years old man complains of tremor and inability to concentrate. On exam, he has a
heart rate of 100beats per minute. He has longer goiter with many nodules. He has fine
tremor. His serum T4 is very high and TSH is very low. Treatments that are likely to
improve his symptoms are
Iodine therapy
Ethanol injection of his thyroid ( PEI )
6 weeks of Methimazole
Radio Active Iodine therapy
All of above
A patient complains of “sandy” sensation in his eyes, weight loss, and a tremor. His
extraocular muscles are inflamed. His thyroid is diffusely enlarged and non-tender. The
most likely diagnosis is
Iodine deficiency
Sub-acute thyroiditis
Graves’ disease
Silent thyroiditis
A lack of or decrease in insulin hormone receptors on cells can result in
Diabetes insipidus
Type I diabetes mellitus
Type II diabetes mellitus
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus ( IDDM )
Juvenile diabetes
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71.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
72.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
73.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
74.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
76.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 25 years old woman is three months pregnant. She has a large goiter. Her exam is
otherwise normal. Her thyroid tests are normal. You recommend
Cassava five times weekly
Fish three times weekly
Formula milk for the baby when it is born
A very low salt diet
All of the above
Which heart disease below have best prognosis
Acute myocardial infarction
Heart failure
Congenital heart disease
Rheumatic heart disease
Pulmonary heart disease
Which one is not the inducement of AP (Angina Pectoris)
Labor
Exciting
hungry
Cold
Angry
Unstable AP (Angina Pectoris) should be managed as same as myocardial infarction in
hospitalization except
Thrombolytic therapy
Intervention operation
Medicine usage
Life style change
Low lipid intake
Which valve is most commonly involved in Valvular Heart Diseaase
Mitral valve
Aortic valve
Tricuspid valve
pulmonary valve
Other valve
Subacute pericarditis refer to onset within
2weeks to 2 months
4weeks to 4 months
6weeks to 6 months
8weeks to 8 months
10weeks to 10 months
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77.
Subacute infective endocarditis mainly caused by
A. Streptococci
B. Staphylococcus
C. Coronavirus
D. Fungus
E. Mycoplasma
78.
What is not feature of dilated cardiomyopathy
A. All chambers enlarge
B. Ventricular wall movement is weak
C. Low voltage in ECG
D. Occasionally pathological Q wave appear
E. Contract ability increase
79.
ECG: P wave disappear, f wave appear and very in size shape and interval, the frequency
is about 350-600/min, R-R interval is irregular, it is
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Torsades de pointes
D. Ventricular flutter
E. Ventricular fibrillation
80.
Which of the followings indicates hyperthyroidism
A. T3↓, T4↓, TSH↑
B. T3 N，T4 N, TSH↑
C. T3↓, T4 N, TSH N
D. T3↑, T4↑, TSH↓
E. None of the above
81.
The most common type of pituitary tumor
A. TSH tumor
B. ACTH tumor
C. FSH tumor
D. PRL tumor
E. GH tumor
82.Which kind of insulin can be used by intravenous drop:
A. Lispro/Aspart
B. Regular insulin
C. NPH
D. Glargine
E. All the above
82.
Which of the following medicine is used for treatment of hypothtroidism
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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
83.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
84.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
85.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
86.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
87.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
88.
A.
Levothyroxine sodium
PTU
Bromocriptine
Metformin
All of above
The most common pathogen of urinary tract infection is
Proteus
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
“Peg-shaped” process is characteristic of
Membranous nephropathy
Acute glomerulonephritis
Minimal change
Tubular necrosis
focal segmental lesion
Which of the following is not the complication of the NS (Nephrotic Syndrome)
Infection
Thrombosis
Bleeding tendency
Acute renal failure
Metabolism disturbance of protein
Which of the following is not a diagnosis standard of the nephrotic syndrome
Proteinuria﹥3.5g/d
Serum albumin﹤30g/L
Edema
Hyperlipidemia
Hematuria
Endocapillary proliferative is characteristic of
Membranous nephropathy
Minimal change
IgA nephropathy
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute progressive glomerulonephritis
Which is the complication of chronic renal failure
Anemia
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B.
C.
D.
E.
89.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
90.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
92.
A.
B.
C.
Metabolism acidosis
hypertension
infection
All the above
The following is the characteristic of Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis except:
Pathology is crescent glomerulonephritis
Rapidly deteriorate of renal failure
Hematuria
Hypertension
Hyperlipidemia
Which is the principle of using glucocortical hormone in nephritic syndrome
Initiate with enough dose
Retrench it slowly and regularly
Long term maintain
All of above
None of above
Which is not the clinical type of primary glomerulonephritis diseases:
Acute glomerulonephritis
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
IgA nephropathy
Nephrotic Syndrome
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Which is the protein restriction standard in Chronic Renal Failure CRF diet
0.5 g/kg.d
0.6 g/kg.d
﹤0.6 g/kg.d
D. ﹤0.5 g/kg.d
E. 0.7 g/kg.d
93.
Which of the medicine belongs to Class IC anti-arrhythmia
A. Quinindium
B. Lidocaine
C. β- blocker
D. Propafenone
94.
About digitalis which one is wrong?
A. Increase myocardial strength
B. Fit for heart failure with enlarged ventricle volume in dilating stage
C. When digitalis poisoning patients have all kinds of arrhythmia
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D. fit for pulmonary hypertension
E. When digitalis poisoning we should complement kalium, anti-arrhythmic drug,
defibrillator is forbidden.
95.
Which one is not the manifestation of left heart failure?
A. Laboring dyspnea
B. Night paroxysmal dyspnea
C. Acute pulmonary edema
D. Cough, sputum, haemoptysis
E. Liver enlargement
96.
Which disease can increase the afterload of heart?
A. Hypertension
B. Aortic incompetence
C. mitral inadequacy
D. Septal defect
E. Patent ductus arteriosus
97.
A patient with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium, of the following, which one
is the most likely side effect of his therapy？
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypoaldosteroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Diabetes insipidus
E. E. None of above
98.
Which one of the following is used for hypothyroidism?
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Levothyroxine
D. Metformine
E. None of above
99.
Which of the following is a cause of thyrotoxicosis characterized by decreased radioactive
iodine uptake?
A. Graves’ disease
B. Subacute thyroiditis
C. Toxic multinodular goiter
D. Solitary toxic thyroid nodule
E. All above
100.
In a patient with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and elevated free thyroxine (T4), the
presence of thyroid TSH receptor site antibodies (TRAbs) would indicate which one of the
following?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
101.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
103.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
104.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
105.
A.
D.
E.
106.
B.
C.
Toxic multinodular goiter
Graves’ disease
Hashimotos ( lymphadenoid)thyroiditis
Toxic adenoma
Subacute (giant cell) thyroiditis
Which is the most specific of RA?
RF
ANA
ESR
Anti-CCP
E. CRP
Which is the most usual adverse events of NSAIDS (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
drugs?
Gastrointestinal adverse events
Hepatoxicity
Renal effects
Heamatological reaction
Hyperglycemia
The blood pressure for stage 3 hypertension is
Systolic BP 160-179mmHg and Diastolic BP 100-109 mmHg
Systolic BP 130-139mmHg and Diastolic BP 85-89 mmHg
Systolic BP 140-159mmHg and Diastolic 90-99 mmHg
Systolic BP ≥180mmHg and Diastolic BP ≥110 mmHg
E. Systolic ≥140mmHg and Diastolic BP ﹤90 mmHg
Complication of hypertension in Coronary Heart Disease except:
Angina
Myocardial infarction
Coronary Revascularization
Heart failure
Arrhythmia
In older patients with isolated systolic hypertension (ISH) the goal is to lower systolic BP
to
Below 160-170 mmHg B. Below 170-180 mmHg C. Below 130-140 mmHg
Below 120-130 mmHg
Below 140-150 mmHg
Category of Atrial fibrillation, Paroxysmal AF A. ≤10 days
≤7 days
≤15 days
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D. ≤1 months
E. ≤1 year
107.
Class II Anti-arrhythmic drugs are β-blockers, behalf of the name of medicine is
A. Lidocaine
B. Amiodarone
C. Metoprolol
D. Verapamil
E. Digitalis
108.
The ECG features of Preexcitation syndrome: P-R﹤____ s;
A. 0.20 B. 0.12 C. 0.22 D. 0.24
E. 0.10
109.
Which is not the adverse events of NSAIDS (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
A. Gastrointestinal adverse events
B. Hepatoxicity
C. Renal effects
D. Hematological reaction
E. Hyperglycemia
110.
Which is not belong to connective tissue disease?
A. RA (rheumatoid arthritis)
B. SLE(systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Scleroderma
D. Systemic vasculitis
E. SpA(Seronegative spondyloarthropathies)
111.
Which is the major adverse event of MTX(Methotrexate)
A. Hepatic dysfunction
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Renal effects
D. Opportunistic infection
E. Mouth Ulceration
112.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of the Minimal glomerular abnormalities:
A. Podocytic process fuse
B. Not always relapse
C. Often in kids
D. Spontaneous alleviate
E. Sensitive to glucocortical hormone
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SURGERY
1. The typical symptom of Lumbar intervertebral disc herniation is ( )
A. Low back pain
B. weakness in lower limbs
C. lumbago with sciatica
D. sciatica
E. Limited lumbar motion
2. The immediate treatment required after the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is (
A. Anti-infection
B. surgery
C. supportive treatment
D. Limb immobilization
E. physic cooling
3. Positive pick-up test can be seen in ( )
A. tuberculosis of Shoulder joint
B. tuberculosis of hip joint
C. tuberculosis of knee joint
D. tuberculosis of ankle joint
E. tuberculosis of lumbar spine
4. In the sunlight like X-ray showed periosteal reaction disease:
A .bone cyst
B. giant cell tumor
C. osteochondroma
D. osteosarcoma
5. The complication of pelvic fracture not include : A. injury of sciatic nerve
.B urethral injury
C rectal injury
D spinal cord injury
)
6.male .35Y. After jumping from the height, the lower limbs feel weak immediately, For the diagnosis,
examination is preferred is ( )
A .MRI
B .CT
C .X-ray
D. B-ultrasonic
7. X-ray shows bamboo like change, is common seen in ( )
A. Spinal tuberculosis
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B. spinal tumor
C. spondylitis ankylopoietica
D. degenerative spinal arthritis
8. Lumbar intervertebral disc herniation most seen in：( )
A.T12-L1
B. L1-2
C. L3-4
D. L4-5
9.The following is most significant for early diaginosis of acute osteomyelitis is(
A. B-ultrasonic
B. .leucocyte count
C. CT
D. X-ray
E. Local stratified puncture smear and culture
10. The classification of spinal fracture according the shape of fracture not include:
A. Compression fracture
B. blowout fracture
C. Chance fracture
D.fracture-dislocation
E. vertical shear fracture
11.The predilection site of bone and joint tuberculosis is
A. Shoulder joint
B. elbow joint
C. spine
D. hip joint
E. knee joint
12.The treatment of osteosarcoma is (
)
A. Chemotherapy
B. radiotherapy
C .surgery resection
D. chemotherapy and radical therapy
E. radiotherapy and radical surgery
13. The best treatment time of spinal cord injury was ( ) hours after injury.
A.6
B. 12
C. 36
D 48
E 72
)
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14. the first choice to diagnosis pelvic fracture is A. X-ray
B. MRI
C. nuclide bone scan
D. CT
15. The first step of treatment for serious trauma should be: A. Debridement.
B. Relieve pain and sedation
C. Blood transfusion.
D. Establish adequate air way.
E. Antibiotics
16. A male, 25ys, hit by a car on abdomen 5hs before, has severe abdominal pain. Physical
examination: Bp: 6.4/3.2kPa(50/25mmHg), P:120/min,looked acute ill, abdominal rigidity,
obvious tenderness and rebound tenderness, punctured fluid is incoagulable blood. The main
treatment is
A. Operation
B. Infusion solution
C. Infusion blood
D. Abdominal irrigation
E. Hemostatic
17. . The most vulnerable hollow organ in abdomen is
A. clon
B. stmach
C. small intestine D rectum
E duodenum
18. The most valuable method for diagnosis of visceral injury in abdomen is
A.US
B abdominal puncture and lavage
C abdominal tenderness
D、X-ray examination
E isotope scanning
19. The puncture fluid of abdomen is incoagulable blood, we should think about
A. rupture of hollow organ
B. rupture of parenchymal organ C retroperitoneal hematoma
D mistakenly puncture into abdominal
vessel
E hematoma of anterior abdominal wall
20. The main principle of treatment in abdominal injury combined with hemorrhagic shock
A. rapid infusion
B. large amount of hemostatics
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C. blood infusion
D. large amount of antibiotics
E. laparotomy and hemostasis ,and active antishock at the same time
21. The key point for diagnosis of closed abdominal injury is confirming
A. shock
B. visceral injury
C. abdominal wall injury
D. retroperitoneal hematoma
E. head injury
22. The most valuable symptom and sign in closed abdominal injury is
A. abdominal tenderness
B. peritoneal irritation sign C hyperactive bowel sounds
D hypoactive bowel sounds
E nausea and vomiting
23. The most important for diagnosis of hemorrhagic abdominal injury is
A. hypochondria injury combined with rib fracture
B. hemoglobin 80g/L，RBC 2.5×1012 /L
C. obvious tenderness and rebound tenderness in left hypochondria region
D. incoagulable blood in abdominal puncture fluid
E、BP80/60mmHg，P110/m
24. Which is incorrect about diagnosis of liver rupture
A. injury of right hypochondrial region
B. local pain and tenderness
C. gradual decline of Hb
D. increased heart rate
E. must wait for blood in abdominal puncture fluid
25. For diagnosis of stomach rupture in closed abdominal injury, the most significant is
A. increase of WBC
B. abdominal rebound tenderness and rigidity
C. fixed tenderness
D. subphrenic free air
E. detected abdominal fluid in US
26. The best treatment for severe colon injury is
A. suture
B. bowel resection and anastomosis
C. enterostomy
D. short cut anastomosis of intestine
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E. none of the above
27. The main clinical manifestation of rupture of abdominal hollow organ is
A. symptom of gastrointestinal tract
B. peritoneal irritation sign
C. symptom of general infection
D. pneumoperitoneum
E. enteroparalysis
28. In closed abdominal injury, which does not support visceral injury
A. early shock
B. peritoneal irritation sign
C. pneumoperitoneum
D. possitive shifting dullness
E. bowel sound active
29. In which one we cannot use abdominal puncture
A. children and the aged
B. psychosis
C. severe abdominal distension D coma
E medical history not clear
30. Male,32y,epigastrium squeezed 2 hours earlier, he feels abdominal pain、nausea、abdominal
distension, for excluding pancreatic injury, the most valuable examination is
A. fluoroscopy of chest and abdomen
B. barium fluoroscopy of gastrointestinal tract
C. duodenoscopy
D. abdominal ultrasonic examination
E. celiac arteriography
31. Male,34y, injured by a crashing object in abdomen, physical examination: cold clammy limbs,
abdominal tenderness, rebound tenderness and rigidity, positive shifting dullness and bowel
sound disappear, which one we cannot do A diagnostic abdominal puncture
B closely monitor basic vital sign
C volume replacement and anti-shock
D use analgesics and depressants
E anti-infection
32. Closed abdominal injury, persistent abdominal pain, BP: 80/60mmHg, P: 120/min, diagnosis has
not be confirmed, we should do
A. analgesic of morphine
B. drinking water
C. luminal sedation
D. walk to radiology department for fluoroscopy
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E. active volume replacement and anti-shock
33. Female, 50y, epigastrium was crushed by bicycle handle bars, epigastrium eminent in recent 3
months, epigastric distention and nausea vomiting after meal. Physical examination: there is a
cystic mass of 18cm*13cm in epigastrium. And shifting down of transverse colon seen in barium
meal. The most possible diagnosis is
A. cystadenoma of pancreas
B. retroperitoneal hematoma
C. pancreatic pseudocyst
D. mesenteric cyst
E. subcapsular hematoma of spleen
34. Which is not correct about diagnosis of liver rupture
A. injury in right hypochondrial region
B. local pain and tenderness
C. gradual decline of hemoglobin
D. increased of heart rate
E. must wait for abdominal puncture for blood
35. The most common abdominal external hernia is
A. Femoral hernia
B. Incisional hernia
C. Indirect inguinal hernia
D. Direct inguinal hernia
E. Umbilical hernia
36. One of the characteristics of indirect inguinal hernia is
A. may coexist with direct hernia
B. most common on the left
C. may feel shocking when coughing behind spermatic cord
D. usually the hernia content cannot be completely returned
E. the superficial ring may be dilated to more than 2cm, the hernia mass may fall down into the
scrotum
37. One of the characteristics of direct inguinal hernia is
A. including complete and incomplete
B. hernia mass is located medially to inguinal and superiorly to the pubic tubercle
C. no severe defect at posterior wall of inguinal canal
D. including congenital and acquired
E. liable to incarceration because of much content 38. Which is most easily incarcerated? A.
Incisional hernia
B. femoral hernia
C. umbilical hernia
D. indirect hernia
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E. direct hernia
39. The diagnostic basis for indirect hernia during operation is
A. hernia ring is medial to inferior epigastric artery
B. hernia ring is not in the Hesselbach triangle
C. hernia sac is under the pubic tubercle
D. hernia ring is lateral to inferior epigastric artery
E. hernia sac is in the inguinal canal
40. Which is most important during operation for incarcerated hernia? A. to
confirm the incarcerated intestine higher location or lower location
B. to confirm it is indirect or direct hernia
C. think about the surgical procedure selection
D. distinguish the vitality of hernia content
E. acquaintance of disturbance of electrolytes and acid-base
41. Which is wrong about Hesselbach triangle? A. the position where direct
hernia protrude
B. the base of it is inguinal ligament
C. the lateral side of it is inferior epigastric artery
D. the medial side of it is linea alba
E. the internal ring of indirect hernia is lateral to it
42. What is the main cause for incarceration of indirect hernia?
A. the hernia ring is small and there is adhesion of hernia content
B. the hernia ring is small and sudden increase of intra-abdominal pressure
C. the hernia ring is big and let more hernia content protrude
D. muscle tonus contracts internal ring
E. muscle tonus contracts external ring 43. Which is wrong about strangulated hernia?
A. Intestinal wall lose elasticity
B. Intestinal wall lose gloss
C. disappear beat of mesentery artery
D. bloody exudate in hernia sac
E. still existing peristalsis
44. The most important cause of external abdominal hernia is
A. chronic cough
B. constipation for a long period
C. dysuria
D. there is abdominal wall weakness or defect
E. long work which leads to increased intra-abdominal pressure
45. The most common content of indirect hernia is
A. Caecum
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B. appendix
C. greater omentum
D. urinary bladder
E. small intestine
46. Only part of the hernia content can be given back into abdomen and the intestinal wall has no
blood circulatory disorder A. reducible hernia
B. irreducible hernia
C. incarcerated hernia
D. strangulated hernia
47. The most common external abdominal hernia is
A. Femoral hernia
B. incisional hernia
C. indirect hernia
D. umbilical hernia
E. direct hernia
48. What forms the external ring of inguinal canal?
A. conjoined tendon
B. transversus abdominis
C. internal oblique abdominis
D. external oblique aponeurosis
E. superficial fascia
49. The three border of Hesselbach triangle is?
A. Inferior epigastric artery, conjoined tendon, inguinal ligament
B. conjoined tendon, inguinal ligament and lateral margin of rectus abdominis
C. conjoined tendon, inguinal ligament
D. Inferior epigastric artery, inguinal ligament and lateral margin of rectus abdominis
E. Inferior epigastric artery, lateral margin of rectus abdominis and pectineal ligament
50. The main differential points about incarcerated hernia and strangulated hernia are?
A. the hernia mass cannot be given back
B. if the hernia mass has tenderness
C. the patient has vomiting in strangulated hernia
D. the patient has shock in strangulated hernia
E. the hernia content has blood circulatory disorder in strangulated hernia
51. The most important pathogenic factors of incisional hernia is
A. suture techniques is not good enough
B. abdominal distention and severe cough
C. incisional infection
D. too long drain
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E. too long incision
52. The most important differential points of indirect hernia and direct hernia is
A. the shape of indirect hernia is oval or pyriform
B. the mass of indirect hernia often fall into the scrotum
C. indirect hernia often seen in children and young people
D. put the mass back and press the internal ring, the mass do not protrude, that is indirect hernia
E. insert the external ring by finger, have the feeling of shock when cough, that is indirect hernia
53. Which is wrong about strangulated hernia?
A. The exudate become to hematodes
B. color of the stuck intestine become to cardinal
C. accompanied by acute mechanical intestinal obstruction
D. lead to cellulitis of hernia covering
E. spontaneous break leading to fecal fistula
54. The hernia sac of indirect hernia is located at ____ of the spermatic cord
A. medially
B. laterally
C. front
D. back
E. below
55. Which is error about clinical manifestation of primary hyperthyroidism? A. diffuse enlarged
thyroid.
B. Normal size thyroid
C. Assymetric enlarged thyroid.
D. Pressure on trachea.
E. Multinodular enlarged thyroid.
56.Recurrent migratory phlebitis is common for ( ) A.
Arteriosclerosis Obliteraris.
B. Acute Arterial Embolism
C .Deep Venous thrombosis
D .Arterio-venous fistula
E. Thromboangitis obliterans
57.The most common factor for Acute pancreatitis is
A .Biliary tract disease
B. Alcoholism
C. duodenal juice reflux
D. Trauma
E .Diabetes
58.For severe ischemia, ankle brachial index(ABI) usually be: ( )
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A. ABI>1.0
B. 0.5< ABI <1.0
C. ABI<0.5
D.ABI>0.5
E.0<ABI<0.25
59.In high risk population HCC (Hepatocellular carcinoma)is best detected by( )
A.USG
B.CT
C.MRI
D.ERCP
E.PTC
60. Most common cause of death in early acute pancreatitis is ( )
A. Renal failure
B. cardiac failure
C. Respiratory failure
D. uncontrolled coagulopathy
E. Hypocalcemia
61.ideal treatment of alkaline reflux gastritis after billroth 1 and billroth 11 gastrectomy is ( )
A. conversion of billrothI to billrothII
B. Roux en Y gastro jejunostomy
C. Tetal gastrectomy
D. conservative management
E. vagotomy
62.Surgical treatment of bleeding Type 1 gastric ulcer is (
)
A. Wedge resection of the gastric ulcer
B. Oversewing of the vessel at the ulcer base
C. Distal gastrectomy
D .Distal gastrectomy along with truncal vagotomy
E. highly selective vagotomy
63.Child's classification from next aspects except (
)
A. Bilirubin
B. Albumin
C. Ascites
D. Enceph
E. Hematemesis or melena.
64.True about pancreatic carcinoma (
)
A. body is the most common site
B. pain, fever and jaundice are the most common
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C. most lead to cholangitis
D .80% cases respond well to resection.
E. painless jaundice
65.The preferred bypass procedure in case of non-resection carcinoma of head pancreas is ( )
A. cholecystojejunostomy.
B. Cholecystogastrostomy
C. choledochoduodenostoy
D. Choledochojejunostomy
E. Choledochostomy add T-tube drainage
66.earliest symptoms of colonoic carcinoma( )
A. pain
B. diarrhea or constipation
C. abdominal mass
D. abdominal distention
E. vomiting
67.sentinel pile indicates( )
A. carcinoma rectum
B. internal hemorrhoids
C. perianal fistula
D. Anal fissure
E. All above
68.During a boxing match, a contestant is “knocked out” by a blow to the lateral skull. He recover
after a few minutes, and is asymptomatic for the next 12 hours. He then develops a severe headaches,
changes in mental status, nausea ,and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?(
)
A .basilar skull fracture
B. Epidural hemorrhage
C .Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. subarachnoid
69.A young male has his head injured in a traffic accident. There is bloody fluid oozing from his
right ear canal and the hearing ability of his right ear is impaired.
Which of the following nerves may also be injured:( )
A. oculomotor nerve, right side
B. Trochlear nerve, right side
C. trigeminal nerve, right side
D. abducent nerve, right side
E. Facial nerve, right side
70. The most common symptom of lung carcinoma is ()
A. Irritable cough
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B. bloody sputum
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea
E. Difficulty swallowing
71.( )is the most common cause of death from malignant in both men and women
A. Gastric cancer
B. lung carcinoma
C. Primary liver cancer
D. Carcinoma of rectum
E. esophageal carcinoma
72.Which ribs are more easily fractured?(
)
A.1-2
B.3-4
C.4-7
D.8-10
E.11-12
73.Which one increases with prostatic cancer:
A. white blood cell
B.CEA
C.PSA
D.BTA
E.AFP
74.Which is the most common type of bladder cancer?
A clear cell
B .sarcomatoid
C. transitional cell
D. papillary cell
E. chromophobe cell
75.which inhalation anesthetic can cause liver injury?
A. N2O
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Enflurane
E. Etomidate
76. Which muscle relaxant is easier causes histamine release?
A. Succinycholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
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D. Tubocurarine
E. Cisatracurium
77. Local anesthetics are eliminated by .
A. Skin
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Kidney
E. Brain
78. The onset of local anesthetics is associated with
.
A. PKa
B. Lipophic
C. Protein binding
D. CO
E. MAP
79. The purpose of test dose of local anesthetic agent for epidural anesthesia is.
A.To prevent local anesthetic toxicity
B.To prevent hypotension
C.To prevent total spinal anesthesia
D.To prevent extensive block
E.Shock
80. The most frequent complication of spinal anesthesia after anesthesia is
.
A. Respiratory depression
B.Hypotension
C.Headache
D.Urine retention
E.Shock
81. The most frequent complication of epidural anesthesia after anesthesia is.
A.Total spinal block
B.Anesthesia failure
C.Hypotension
D.Extensive level of block
E.Shock
82. Which procedure is correct for CPR?
A.External compression of cardiac systole, 30 times, and then mouth-to-mouth breath,
twice
B.
External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, twice, if two resuscitator available
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C.
External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, twice, if one resuscitator available
D.
External compression of cardiac systole 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, once
E.
External compression of cardiac systole 20 times, and then mouth-to-mouth
breath, once
83. What is compulsory for premedication before general anesthesia?
A.Pethidine
B.Diazepam
C.Atropine
D.Barbiturate
E.Lidocaine
84. Which inhalation anesthetic is explosive?
A.N2O
B.Halothane
C.Diethyl ether
D.Isoflurane
E.Lidocaine
85.Which anesthetic can elevate blood pressure and increase heart rate? A.
Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C .Halothane
D .Isoflurane
E.Lidocaine
86. Which muscle relaxant can produce fasciculation?
A. Succinycholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Tubocurarine
E. Atracurium
87. The complication of general anesthesia not including
.
A. .Blood pressure and heart rate fluctuate
B. Injury of throat
C.CO2 accumulation
D. Aspiration
E.Heart arrest
88. What is the most serious complication of epidural anesthesia?
A. Hypotension
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B. Total spinal block
C. .Diapyesis meningitis
D. Traction reflex
E. Shock
89. The first choice of drugs for cardiac arrest is .
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Lidocaine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Adrenaline
E. Atropine
90. The fundamental problem of shock is:
A. cell hypoxia induced by low organs perfusion
B. hypotension
C. acid poisoning
D. cardiac insufficiency
E. none of the above
91.The common characteristics of each type of shock is:
A. decreased blood pressure decreased
B. central venous pressure
C. pulse pressure reduction
D. decreased urine output
E.
effective circulating blood volume reduction
92. On account of shock, which of the following is wrong
A. renal blood flow decreased, when the glomerular filtration rate decreased
B. effective circulating blood volume↓
C. Shock compensatory period when coronary artery contraction is not obvious
D. The nature of the shock is hypotension
E. Shock inhibitory stage pathological change of microcirculation blood capillary
volume increase
93.Peritonitis in patients after treatment capacity :Bp80/60 mmHg，CVP:5cmH2O，urine
volume 20ml/h At this time should be taken into account
A
ARF
B
ARDS
C
hypovolemic shock
D
acute heart ffailure
E
uncontrol infections
94. Is true about the shock
A.Usually in a rapid loss of blood in shock, more than 10% of the total blood volume
：
，
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B
Uncontrolled hemorrhagic shock, should first rapid infusion of 10% ~ 50%
glucose solution, and then a lot of blood transfusion
C
Traumatic shock, do not belong to hypovolemic shock
D
Septic shock caused by G- bacilli release of endotoxin
E. The treatment principle of septic shock is infection control in the first place
95. Female patient, 54, acute pancreatitis, postoperative fasting water still, gastrointestinal
decompression, infusion and anti-infection treatment, oxygen uptake 5L/min, arterial blood gas
analysis showed that pH value of 7.46, PaO2 55 mmHg, PaCO2 33 mmHg; Xray is see double
lung slice broader point shape shadow, ECG in sinus tachycardia. The patient is possible:
A
ARF
B
COPD
C
Postoperative atelectasis
D
pulmonary infection
E
ARDS
95. For a male, body fluid is--------- percent of weight
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
E. 80
96. For patients with hypotonic dehydration, the extracellular osmotic pressure is-------A.
Increase
B. Normal
C. Decrease
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hypokalemia
97. The normal concentration of K+ is -------A. 5.5-6.5 B. 3.5-4.5
C. 3.5-5.5
D. 4-6
E. 5-7
98. For patients with hypertonic dehydration, the concentration of Na+ is more than -------mmol/L
A. 130
B. 140
C. 150
D. 160
E. 170
99. ( ) is a cyclic undecapeptide isolated from a fungus. It is a potent immunosuppressant and
the first compound identified that can inhibit immunocompetent lymphocytes specifically
and reversibly.
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A. Azathioprine
B. Corticosteroids ( Prednisone )
C. Cyclosporine
D. FK506
E. Mycophenola Mofetil ( MMF )
100. The cause of tetanus is
A. Gram staining positive anaerobic bacilli
B. Gram staining positive anaerobic Clostridium spp
C. Gram staining negative Escherichia coli
D. Gram negative staining anaerobic Bacteroides
E. Gram negative staining proteus
101. Which test is most likely positive for anterior cruciate ligament injury?
A. ADT test
B. Mcmurry test
C. PDT test
D. Thompson test
E. Dugas sign
102. Which test is most likely positive to Achilles tendon rupture?
A. ADT test
B. Mcmurry test
C. PDT test
D. Thompson test
E. Dugas sign
103. Which is the most common dislocation of hip joint?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Central dislocation
D. Lateral dislocation
E. Inferior dislocation
104. Which important structure could be injured by the supracondylar farcture of humerus?
A. Radial artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Axillary nerve
D. Radial nerve
E. Ulnar nerve
105. What is the typical deformity of ulnar nerve injury?
A. Square shoulder
B. Claw hand
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C. Wrist drop
D. Ape hand
E. Foot drop
106. Which one is the early stage complication of fracture?
A. Bed sore
B. Fat embolism
C. Ischemic necrosis
D. Traumatic arthritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
107. Which bone fracture is commonly fixed by tension band wiring technique?
A. Calceneus
B. Patellar
C. Tibial plateau
D. Humerus
E. Clavicle
108. The typical symptom of lumbar intervertrbral disc herniation is ( ).
A. Low back pain
B. Weakness in lower limbs
C. Lumbago with sciatica
D. Sciatica
E. Limited lumbar motion
109. The immediate treatment required after the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is ()
A. Anti-infection
B. Surgery
C. Supportive treatment
D. Limb immobilization
E. Physic cooling
110. Positive pick-up test can be seen in:
A. Tuberculosis of shoulder joint
B. Tuberculosis of hip joint
C. Tuberculosis of knee joint
D. Tuberculosis of the ankle joint
E. Tuberculosis of lumbar spine
111. In the sunlight like X-ray showed periosteal reaction disease:
A. Bone cyst
B. Giant cell tumor
C. Osteochondroma
D. Osteosarcoma
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112. The complication of pelvic fracture not include:
A. Injury of sciatic nerve
B. Urethral injury
C. Rectal injury
D. Spinal cord injury
113. Male, 35Y. After jumping from the height, the lower limbs feel weak immediately. For the
diagnosis, examination preferred is ()
A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-ray
D. B-ultrasonic
114. X-ray shows bamboo like change, is common seen in ()
A. Spinal tuberculosis
B. Spinal tumor
C. Spondylitis ankylopoietica
D. Degenerative spinal arthritis
115. Which organ is the most common organ injury of the abdominal injuries
A.Liver
B.Bladder
C. small bowel
D. stomach
E.diaphragm
116.What is the worst prognosis for breast cancer
A.Paget’s Disease
B.Intraductal papilloma
C.Inflammatory carcinoma
D.Fibroadenoma
E.ductal breast carcinoma
117.What is the main manifestation of the solid organs injuries?
A. diarrhea
B. Hemorrhage
C. pain
D. peritonitis
E.fever
118. What is the main manifestation of the hollow organs injuries？
A.Hemorrhage
B.shock
C. pain
D. peritonitis
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E.fever
119.What is the most common inguinal hernia?
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Inguinal hernia
C..Incisional hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Spigelian hernia
120. What is the most important factor for bone healing
A. Fracture
B. Blood supply
C. Operation time
D. Fracture classification
E. Age
121.Neer classification divides the proximal humerus into--------- parts
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E.
6
122.An old woman fell down with silver fork deformity of her wrist, the possible diagnosis A.
Barton fracture
B. Colles fracture
C. Smith fracture
D. Radial neck fracture
E. Ulnar fracture
123.Extension type of supracondylar fracture of humerus is more likely to injury or compress
the
A. Brachial vein
B. Radius nerve
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Median nerve
124.Which one is the special sign for fracture
A. Pain
B. Swelling
C. Dysfunction
D. Shock
E. Bone crepitus
125.Which intravenous anesthetic can increase stomach pressure?
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A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate
E. Enflurane
126.Which inhalation anesthetic can cause liver injury?
A. N2O
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Enflurane
E. Etomidate
127.Which muscle relaxant is easier causes histamine release?
A. Succinycholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Tubocurarine
E. Cisatracuriun
128.Local anesthetics are eliminated by
A. Skin
B. liver
C. lung
D. kidney
E. Brain
129.The onset of local anesthetic is associated with
A. PKa
B. Lipophic
C. Protein binding
D. CO
E. MAP
130.The Purpose of test dose of local anesthetic agent for epidural anesthesia is
A. To prevent local anesthetic toxicity
B. To prevent hypotension
C. To prevent total spinal anesthesia
D. To prevent extensive block
E. Shock
131.The most frequent complication of spinal anesthesia after anesthesia is
A. Respiratory
B. Hypotension
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C. Headache
D. Urine retention
E. Shock
132.The most frequent complication of epidural anesthesia after anesthesia is?
A. Total spinal block
B. Anesthesia failure
C. Hypotension
D. Extensive level of block
E. Shock
133.Which procedure is correct for CPR?
A. External compression of cardiac systole, 30 times, and then mouth-to- mouth breathe,
twice
B. External compression of cardiac systole, 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth breath,
twice, if two resuscitator available.
C. External compression of cardiac systole, 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth breath,
twice, if one resuscitator available.
D. External compression of cardiac systole, 15 times, and then mouth-to-mouth breath,
twice, once.
E. External compression of cardiac systole, 20 times, and then mouth-to-mouth breath,
twice, once.
134.The most suitable way to inject drugs for cardiac resuscitation is
A. Intravenous injection
B. Intracardiac injection
C. Intramascular injection D. intratracheal injection .
E.
Per os
135.As to the relationships between nerve roots and neurological examination, which one is
wrong
A. Muscle strength decrease in ankle and toes dorsal flexion means S1 is compressed
B. Sensation decrease in lateral malleolus and lateral foot means S1 is compressed
C. Muscle strength decrease in ankle and toes dorsal flexion means L5 is compressed
D. Sensation decrease in anter-lateral calf and medial foot means L5 is compressed
136.According to the force direction, pelvic fracture can be classified into 4 types which one
is not included
A. LC fracture
B. APC fracture
C. Avulsion fracture
D. CM fracture
137.Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis usually happen in which site
A. Tibia and femur
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B. Ilium and sacrum
C. Spine and pelvis
D. Humerus and scapula
138.As to the predilection sites of Ewings Sarcoma which site is right?
A. Metaphysis
B. Osteoepiphysis
C. Cortex
D. Diaphysis
139.Phalens sign is usually in assistant to diagnose which disease?
A. Pyriformis muscle syndrome
B. Ganglion
C. Tennis Elbow
D. Carpel tunnel syndrome
140.Which of the following is the best way to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement?
A. Decrease in thirst
B. Increase in urine output
C. Blood pressure
D. Increased PaO2
E. Pulse rate decrease
141.Body water content in percentage of body weight is lowest in
A. Well build man
B. Fat Woman
C. Well-nourished child
D. Fat man
E. Newborn infant
142.In patient with multisystem trauma, the presence of hypotension along with elevated
central venous pressure is suggestive of
A. Upper airway obstruction
B. Major abdominal bleed
C. Cardio-pulmonary problem
D. Spinal cord injury
E. Blood lose shock
143.20mmol of potassium chloride in 500ml of 5% dextrose solution is given intravenously to
treat
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
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E. None of the above
144.A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident, his
wound should be managed by
A. Through cleaning and primary repair
B. Through cleaning with debridement of all the dead and devitalized tissue without
primary closure
C. Primary closure the a drain
D. Covering the defected with split skin draft after cleaning
E. Through cleaning and dressing
145.One of the following is the earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding
A. Tachycardia
B. Decreased HB
C. Oliguria
D. Cold clammy fingers
E. Decreased BP
146.In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except
A. Vesicles are absent
B. Painful
C. Leathery skin
D. Reddish due to HB infiltration
E. Requires skin grafting
147.CVP (Central Venous Pressure) and pulmonary wedge pressure give an accurate
assessment of all the following except
A. Tissue perfusion
B. Volume depletion
C. Volume overload
D. Myocardial Function
E. None of the above
148.During nutritional assessment of surgical patient, the status of muscle protein is indicated
by which one of the following parameters
A. Serum albumin
B. Triceps skinfold thickness
C. . Mid-arm circumference
D. HB level
E. Body weight
149.Nonspecific infection not includes
A. Furuncle
B. Carbuncle
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C. Cellulitis
D. Erysipelas
E. Tuberculosis
150.All of following regarding special signs for fracture are true, Except:
A. Deformity
B. Abnormal movement
C. Dysfunction
D. Bony crepitus
151.All of the following regarding principals of fracture treatment are true, Except:
A. Relief swelling and pain
B. Reduction
C. Fixation
D. Rehabilitation
152.A 45-year man slip down to the ground and got injured of his right shoulder. The PE for
him are the followings: square shoulder, limitation of the joint, Dugas sign (+), local
tenderness. The most appropriate diagnosis for this parent is:
A.Clavical fracture
B. Shoulder Dislocation
C. Scapula fracture
D. Proximal humerus fracture
153.All of the following regarding special signs of femoral neck fracture are true, Except:
A. External rotation and shorten deformity
B. Axis Percussion pain
C. Local tenderness
D. Bottom margin of Bryant triangle becomes longer
154.According to the force direction, pelvic fracture can be classified into 4 types, which one
is not included?
A. LC fracture
B. APC fracture
C. Avulsion fracture
D. CM fracture
155.A 21-year old presents to your office after injuring her knee in soccer game. She states
that the knee clicks when she walks and has “locked” on several occasions. On exam
there is effusion and the knee is grossly stable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Bursitis
D. Medical collateral ligament tear
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156.The active anterior drawer test (90 degree quadriceps active test) is used to assess the
integrity of the:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
D. lateral collateral ligament
157.As to the predilection sites of osteosarcoma, which site is wrong?
A. Shaft of femur
B. Proximal tibia
C. Proximal humerus
D. Metaphysis of distal femur
158.As the following, which one is not the order of surgery for lumbar spondylolisthesis
A. Decompression
B. Reduction
C. Relieve pain
D. Stability
159.As to the relationship between LDH and nerve root compression, which one is wrong
A. L3.4 : to L4
B. L4.5 : to L5
C. L5S1 : to S1
D. L5S1 : to L5
160.A patient has sharp, shooting, burning pain located in lower back and radiating to the
lower leg. The pain decreases with standing but increases with bending or sitting. The
physical examination reveals weakness and asymmetric reflexes. The straight leg raise
test is positive. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis? A.
Spondylolisthesis
B. Herniation of lumbar disc
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Spinal stenosis
161.Which of the following is the most common malignant tumor of the bone
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
162.Which of the following is the best way to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement?
A. Decrease in thirst
B. Increased in urine output
C. Blood pressure
D. Increased PaO2
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E. Pulse rate decrease
163.Body water content in percentage of body is lowest in
A. Well-build man
B. Fat woman
C. well-nourished child
D. Fat man
E. New born infant
164.In patient with multisystem trauma, the presence of hypotension along with elevated
central venous pressure is suggestive of
A. Upper airway obstruction
B. Major abdominal bleed
C. Cardio-pulmonary problem
D. Spinal cord injury
E. Blood lose shock
165.20mmol of potassium chloride in 500ml of 5% dextrose solution is given intravenously to
treat
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. None of the above
166.A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident, his
wound should be managed by
A. Through cleaning and primary repair
B. Through cleaning with debridement of all the dead and devitalized tissue without
primary closure
C. Primary closure the a drain
D. Covering the defected with split skin draft after cleaning
E. Through cleaning and dressing
167.One of the following is the earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding
A. Tachycardia
B. Decreased HB
C. Oliguria
D. Cold clammy fingers
E. Decreased BP
168.In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except
A. Vesicles are absent
B. Painful
C. Leathery skin
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D. Reddish due to HB infiltration
E. Requires skin grafting
169.Signs and symptoms of acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction except:
A. Fever
B. Tachycardia
C. Anemia
D. Agitation
E. Hypotension
170.All of the following regarding the healing standards for fracture except.
A. Disappear of abnormal movement in the local part
B. Disappear of local tenderness
C. 3 months after injury
D. An obscure fracture line shows in the radiography.
171.All of the following regarding principles of fracture treatment are true except,
A. Relief swelling and pain
B. Reduction
C. Fixation
D. Rehabilitation
172.The most serious complication of fibular neck fracture is?
A. Mal union
B. Nevus peroneus communis injury
C. Lateral collateral ligament lesion
D. Discontinuity
173.A 26 years old student present to your office after injury her knee in a soccer game. A
swollen and dysfunction knee joint were shown in PE. In MRI an obvious higher signal
and discontinuity of ACL were found in the femoral terminated point. If you want to
make the diagnosis of ACL rupture, the following special tests are useful EXCEPT
A. ADT (anterior drawer test)
B. Lachman test
C. McMurray-Fouche test
D. Pivot shift test
174.As to the relationship between LDH and nerve root compression, which one is wrong.
A. L3,4: to L4
B. L4,5: to L5
C. L5S1: to S1
D. L5S1: to L5
175.A 52 year old presents to you and complaining about her right night shoulder pain for 6
months. As to the ROM range of movement) of shoulder, there’s an obviously limitation
of active movement but negative active motion. The most likely diagnosis is:
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A. Shoulder dislocation
B. RCT(rotator cuff tear)
C. Adhesive capsulitis of shoulder
D. Proximal humerus fracture
176.Which of the following is the most common malignant tumor of the bone.
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Fibro sarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
177.According to the force direction, pelvic fracture can be classified into 4 types, which one
is not included?
A. LC fracture
B. APC fracture
C. Avulsion fracture
D. CM fracture
178.A patient has sharp, shooting, burning pain located in the lower back and radiating to the
lower leg. The pain decreases with standing but increases with bending or sitting. The
physical examination reveals weakness an asymmetric reflexes. The straight leg raise test
is positive. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Spondylolisthesis
B. Herniation of lumbar disc
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Spinal stenosis
179.A 21 year old presents to your office after injury her knee in a soccer game she states that
the knee clicks when she walks and has locked on several occasions. On examination
there is an effusion and the knee is grossly stable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Bursitis
D. Medial collateral ligament tear.
180.Minimal alveolar concentration means that at atmospheric pressure, alveolar
concentration at which…….of the subjects don’t move in response to a noxious stimulus.
A. 5 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
E. 100 percent
181.The first choice of drugs for cardiac arrest is....?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
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B. Lidocaine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Adrenaline
E. Atropine
182.What pathogenic bacteria is the primary cause of erysipelas?
A. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
B. Staphylococcus
C. Coli bacillus
D. Gram-positive anaerobic clostridium
E. Clostridium septicum.
183.Non-specific infection not includes;
A. Furuncle
B. Carbuncle
C. Cellulitis
D. Erysipelas
E. Tuberculosis
184.Clinical features of gas gangrene NOT include?
A. Myonecrosis
B. Palpable crepitus
C. Mottled discolouration
D. Acute renal failure
E. Retention of urine
185.The most common tetanus-prone injuries is….?
A. Abscess
B. A puncture wound
C. Child birth
D. Operation
E. Contusion
186.The composition of granulation tissue NOT include:
A. Macrophage
B. New blood vessels
C. Endothelial cell.
D. Matrix
E. Fibroblasts
187.Debridement involves the next, except:
A. Suture
B. Hemostasis
C. Needle inspiration
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D. Repair the wound tissue
E. Remove infected tissue
188.Which kind of the wound should be treated by debridement as treated by debridement as
soon as possible?
A. Spleen rupture
B. Laceration
C. Carbuncle
D. Contusion
E. Abscess
189.Factors that affecting wound healing NOT include:
A. Necrosis tissue
B. Poor blood supply
C. Malnutrition
D. Diabetes
E. Exudation
190.Minimal alveolar concentration means that at atmospheric pressure, alveolar
concentration at which…….of the subjects don’t move in response to a noxious stimulus.
A. 5 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
E. 100 percent
191.The first choice of drugs for cardiac arrest is....?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Lidocaine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Adrenaline
E. Atropine
192.The complication of general anesthesia not including
A. Blood pressure and heart rate fluctuate
B. Injury of throat
C. CO₂ accumulation
D. Aspiration
E. Heart arrest
193.On account of shock, which of the following is true:
A. Renal blood flow decreased, which the glomerular filtration rate increased
B. Effective circulating period volume increased
C. Shock compensatory period when coronary artery contraction is obvious
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D. The nature of the shock is hypotension
E. Shock inhibitory stage pathological change of microcirculation blood capillary volume
increase
194.Female patients, 54, acute pancreatitis, postoperative fasting water still, gastrointestinal
decompression, infusion and anti-infection treatment, oxygen uptake 5L/min, arterial
blood gas analysis showed the pH value of 7.46, PaO₂ 55mmHg, PaCO₂ 33mmHg; Xray is
see double lung slice broader point shape shadow, ECG in sinus tachycardia. The patient is
possible:
A. AFF
B. ARDS
C. Postoperative atelectasis
D. Pulmonary infection
E. COPD
195.On account of oliguria stage, which of the following is wrong
A. Water intoxication
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypochondria
E. Hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphatemia
196.Which one is not the necessary treatment of the lateral epiccondylitis of humerus?
A. Resting of elbow
B. No carrying weights
C. Physiotherapy
D. Do operation as soon as possible
E. Take NSAIDS
197.Which one is NOT chronic trauma of locomotion system
A. Chronic trauma of soft tissue
B. Chronic trauma of bones
C. Chronic injury of spinal cord
D. Chronic trauma of cartilage
E. Peripheral nerve entrapment
198.Which one is NOT the infection pathway of acute suppurative arthritis
A. Hematogenous dissemination
B. Aspiration
C. Direct spread from vicinal suppurative focus
D. Infection of open injury of joints
E. Iatrogenic Reasons
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199.________ are genes whose overactivity causes cells to become cancerous. They act in a
genetically dominant fashsion with respect to the normal version of the gene
(protooncogene).
A. Oncogenes
B. Cancer
C. Tumor
D. Apoptosis
E. Nuclear
200.Based on Total Energy Expenditure can be estimated using predictive equation
A. TEE + REE + Stress Factor
B. TEE + REE + Activity Factor
C. TEE + Stress Factor + Activity Factor
D. REE + Stress Factor + Activity Factor
E. TEE + Stress Factor + Activity Factor
201.______ is a cyclic undecapeptide is from a fungus. It is potent immunosuppressant and
the first compound identified that can inhibit immunocompetent lymphocytes specifically
and reversibly
A. Azathioprine
B. Corticosteroids ( Prednisone )
C. Cyclosporine
D. FK506
E. Mycophenola Mofetil ( MMF )
202.Which test is the most likely positive for anterior cruciate ligament injury
A. ADT test
B. Mcmurry test
C. PDT test
D. Thompson test
E. Dagas sign
203.Which test is the most likely positive for Achilles tendon sign
A. ADT test
B. McMurry test
C. PDT test
D. Thompson test
E. Dugas sign
204.Which is the most common dislocation for hip joint
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Central dislocation
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D. Lateral dislocation
E. Inferior dislocation
205.Which important structure could be injured for Supracondylar fracture of humerus
A. Radial artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Axillary Nerve
D. Radial Nerve
E. Ulnar Nerve
206.Which is the typical deformity for ulnar nerve injury
A. Square shoulder
B. Claw hand
C. Wrist drop
D. Ape hand
E. Foot drop
207.Normal serum potassium concentration for adults
A. 1.0-2.5 mmol/L
B. 2.0-3.0 mmol/L
C. 2.5-3.5 mmol/L
D. 3.5-5.0 mmol/L
E. 5.0-6.5 mmol/L
208.Which type of dehydration is most likely to occur in coma patient
A. Hypertonic dehydration
B. Isotonic dehydration
C. Hypotonic dehydration
D. Hypernatremia
E. Isotonic
209.Internal environment refers to
A. Extracellular Fluid
B. Intracellular fluid
C. Interstitial fluid
D. Plasma Body fluid
PEDIATRICS
1) 6-year old boy, he was given diagnosis of congenital heart disease 4 years ago, had cyanosis in lower
extremities 6 months ago, the most likely diagnosis is
A. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary hypertension
B. Atrial septal defect with pulmonary hypertension
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2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
C. Patent ductus arteriosus with pulmonary hypertension
D. Patent ductus arteriosus with heart failure
E. Great vessels deformity with pulmonary hypertension
The feature of S2 in ASD is
A. accentuated
B. Weaker
C. Split
D. do not split
E. Fixed splitting
The most important period for heart development in pregnancy period is A. 2 to 8 weeks
B. 9 to 16 weeks
C. 3 to 5 months
D. 6 to 8 months
E. 8 months later
1-year-old children, recurrent respiratory tract infections, had pneumonia 2 times. fever, cough,
shortness of breath, crying for 3 days. P/E: RR 62 times / min, heart rate 190 times / min. cyanosis
lips, fine to moderate moisture rales can be heard at the lower part of the lung. Low heart sound,
grade Ⅲ, systolic murmur can be heard in the third and fourth left intercostal space, thrill can be
palpated at the same place as the murmur, P2 is accentuated. The liver can be palpated 3 cm below the
rib border, the most likely diagnosis is ( )
A. Atrial septal defect with heart failure
B. Ventricular septal defect with heart failure
C. Patent ductus arteriosus with pneumonia and heart failure
D. Ventricular septal defect with pneumonia and heart failure
E. Atrial septal defect with pneumonia
Pulmonary artery segment decreased can be seen in ( )
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Pulmonary valve expansion
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
Which kind of congenital heart disease usually has complication of cerebral brain abscess
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. Dextrocardia
The main pathophysiological changes in Eisenmenger syndrome is
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A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. aorta displacement
C. pulmonary hypertension
D. Ventricular septal defect
E. less blood in the lung
8) The common clinical manifestations of Tetralogy of Fallot is ( )
A. squatting position
B. hypertension
C. Heart Failure
D. Pneumonia
E. Differential cyanosis
9) 7-year-old boy, shortness of breath after birth, may occur syncope after activities , auscultation:
ejection-type systolic murmur is maximal in the 2nd to 4rd left intercostal space .To confirm the
diagnosis, which is the most valuable test（ ）?
A. Blood gas analysis
B. X-ray
C. Doppler echocardiography
D. ECG examination
E. Blood biochemical examination
10) 5-year-old child, fever and dry cough 2 weeks , has been given penicillin and cephalosporin for 7 d,
but no use. P/E: poor spirit, breathing steadily, coarse lung sound. Chest x-ray: cloud-like big patch
shadow at the bottom of right lung. The most likely diagnosis is（ ）
A. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia
B. Adenovirus pneumonia
C. chlamydia pneumonia
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
E. Bronchopneumonia
11) Which chamber is the main part enlarged because of ventricular septal defect with significant
pulmonary hypertension ( )
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. Left ventricular E. Pulmonary artery
12)Which immunoglobulin can transfer to the fetus through the placenta？
A IgA
B IgM
C IgD
D IgG
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E IgE
13)The two peaks of growth and development in children are:
A school-age, adolescence
B toddler age, school-age
C infancy, adolescence
D infancy, pre-school
E infancy, school age.
14)The common index assessing children physical growth :
A. weight and length
B. language development
C. intellect development
D. reaction to stimulus
E. motor development
15) .Which one is the quickest and most effective method to screen pulmonary TB?
A. Acid-fast smear of sputum
B. Chest X ray
C.chest CT scan
D.ESR
E.TB antibody
16) The appearing times of physical spinal curvatures in normal children are :
A 2m 3m 6 m
B 3m 6m
12
m
C 3m 9m
12
m
D 4m 6m 12
m
E 6m 9m 12 m
17) 1-year infant with convulsion， which one is normal ;
A neck rigidity
B kernig sign is positive
C Babinski sign is symmetrical positive
D grasp reflex is positive
E moro reflex is positive
18). 3-month girl, chief complaint : sudden pale with irritability. The first thing you should pay attention
is
A. whether preterm infant or not
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B. whether have neonatal jaundice or not
C. the urine color
D. Stool
E. Fontanel
19) An infant can move his head from side to side while following a moving object, can lift his head
from a prone position 45 degrees off the examining table,smiles when encouraged, and makes
cooling sounds. He cannot maintain a seated position. The most likely age of the infant is: a. 1
month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months
e. 12 months
20) Based on WHO
exclusive breastfeeding should last
A 澝 4 months
B、6 months
C 澝 7 months
D 澝 12 months
E 澝 24 months
21) Which is the suitable feeding method for normal 3 months infant
A.8
sugared milk900ml
additional water 350 ml
B.8
sugared milk880ml
additional water320ml
C.8
sugared milk700ml
additional water350ml
6 Kg
D.8％sugared milk600ml，additional water300ml
E.8
sugared milk500ml, additional water350ml
22). The children’s two crossings in WBC counts occur
A 1-3 d, 2-3 y
B 4-6d, 4-6 y
C 7-9d, 7-8 y
D 4-6d, 4-6 m
E 4-6m, 4-6 y
23). To neonatal wet lung, it is inappropriate
A mostly cesarean section children
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B also known as transient tachypnea of newborn
C tachypnea appears 2-5h after birth D usually mild respiratory distress
E poor prognosis
24) Which of the following characteristics of newborns do not meet
A 澝 premature infant irregular breathing, and even apnea
B、neonatal heart rate : 90-160 / min
C 澝 The first passage time of meconium is more than 24h after birth
D 澝 kidney function is immature
E 澝 have some primary reflexes
25) To the appearance of full-term infants , which is not appropriate
A ruddy skin, less lanugo
B hair well-organized
C cartilage develops good, ears stiffness
D nails reach or exceed the fingertips
E breast nud diameter <4 mm
26. Newborn, 10h after birth, blood routine test: WBC 22 X 109 / L, N 65%, L35%, show us:
A abnormal
B normal
C leukemia
D anemia
E bacteria infection
27. ABO blood group incompatibility in new blood when giving exchange transfusion,
we should choose:
A 澝 ABO blood group is the same as the infant’s
B 澝 “O”RBC and “o”plasma
C 澝 RBC is the same as infant’s, plasma is the same as mother’s
D、 “O”RBC and “AB”plasma
E 澝 none of the above
28. Newborns, GA: 36 weeks, birth weight 2100g, breast-feeding, presents jaundice
the first 2 days after birth, bilirubin : 220μmol / L, yellow stool and urine, good feeding,
jaundice disappeared gradually after 3 weeks. The diagnosis is
A HDN
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B physiological jaundice
C breastfeeding jaundice
D septicemia
E congenital biliary atresia
29. To HDN, which is the main ways to reduce serum bilirubin:
A.albumin infusion
B 澝 using sodium phenobarbital
C 澝 as soon as possible infusion of 50% glucose
D、 phototherapy
E 澝 IgG 300μg , im
30. To pathologic neonatal jaundice, which is not correct:
A、 appear time: 2-3d, peak time:4-6d
B 澝 serum total bilirubin> 221μmol / L
C 澝 serum conjugated bilirubin concentration> 26μmol / L
D 澝 serum bilirubin increase rapidly > 85μmol / L
E 澝 jaundice reoccur
31. If the antibody release test is positive, which is the inappropriate treatment A 澝 phototherapy
B 澝 albumin treatment
C 澝 correct acidosis
D、 antibiotics
E 澝 exchange transfusion if necessary
31. Hb: 100g/L, mother’ s blood type : “o” and Rh“+”, baby’s blood type : “A” and Rh“+”, which
test you should give
A 澝 blood culture
B 澝 liver function
C 澝 blood routine test
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D 澝 CSF test
E、 specific antibody in serum
32. The purpose of amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling offered to any woman who will be 35
years of age or older at the time of delivery is to detect whether the fetus has:
A PKU
B Congenital hypothyroidism
C Chromosome abnormalities
D Spinal bifida
33 Currently the treatment of DS is:
A. Supplementation of multivitamins
B. Gene therapy
C. antibiotics
D. symptomatic
34. What is the appropriate time for newborn screening of PKU:
A.Immediately after birth
B.24 hours after birth
C 48 hours after birth
D.72 hours after birth
35. A one year old child admitted to you with brown hair, unable to roll over and mousy odor, what is the
most possible diagnosis:
A. Down syndrome
B. PKU
C.Turner syndrome
D.Congenital hypothyroidism
36. What type of diet should a typical PKU infant take?
A Low phenylalanine diet
B High phenylalanine diet
C BH4
D L-dopa.
37. A 3-year old girl presented growth retardation.PE
body length 75cm, witless expression, thick
protruding tongue, dry brittle hair, bulging abdomen, umbilical hernia. Which item is the most
helpful test to make the diagnosis?
A karyotypes
B GH level
C IQ evaluation
D Thyroid function
38 neonatal Apgar score for the mild asphyxia
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A 1-3
B 2-4
C 4-5
D 4-7
E 8-10
39.newborns just after delivery, heart rate 96 times / min, Slow, irregular respiration, active movement,
good reaction to stimulus, pink body,blue extremities. The Apgar score is
A9
B l0
C8
D7
E5
40. 7-day old boy, full-term infant, vaginal delivery, no asphyxia. Fever lasts for 2 days with
cough and vomiting. Physical examination: foaming in the mouth, cyanosis around the mouth, nasal
flaring ,retraction, physical examinations for the lung ,heart and abdomen : normal. The most likely
diagnosis is
A neonatal congenital pneumonia
B neonatal aspiration pneumonia
C neonatal wet lung
D neonatal pneumonia (getting infections after birth) E lung hypoplasia
41. 2-day old boy, gestational age: 39 weeks, vaginal delivery, chief complaints: cyanosis and
apnea, which is not the likely diagnosis;
A neonatal intracranial hemorrhage
B meconium aspiration syndrome
C neonatal pneumonia
D neonatal hyaline membrane disease E neonatal purulent meningitis
42 Full-term infant, cesarean section, has dyspnea, nasal flaring and cyanosis 2 hours after birth.
Lung auscultation: a little moisture rales. Symptoms improve after 1 day treatment with oxygen
administration and other symptomatic treatment. The most likely diagnosis is
A meconium aspiration syndrome
B neonatal pneumonia
C neonatal hyaline membrane disease
D wet lung
E congenital heart disease
43 Neonate, GA: 32 weeks. 1min Apgar score: 6 marks, 5 min: 8 marks. He has progressive dyspnea
and cyanosis 3 hours after birth, lung auscultation: coarse sound and moisture rales at the end of
inspiration.
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The most likely reason for dyspnea is
A a large amount of amniotic fluid aspirated
B meconium block the bronchi
C congenital infection
D surfactant deficiency
E reserve a lot of lung fluid
44. The most likely diagnosis is
A pneumonia
B amniotic fluid aspiration syndrome
C wet lung
D hyaline membrane disease
E persistent pulmonary hypertension
45 The most likely chest X-ray change is
A X-ray can be seen hyperinflation
B ground glass opacity and air bronchograms
C coarse pulmonary densities and air leak syndrome
D lobar streaky densities
E prominent central vascular markings and fluid in the minor fissure
46. The emergency treatment is A keep warm
B correct acidosis
C giving antibiotics
D adrenal hormone
E mechanical ventilation
47. 5-month girl, 7kg, has eczema on her face, present diarrhea after birth, pass stool more than 6 times
a day, poor spirit, normal stool microscopy , the most likely diagnosis is
A. fungal enteritis
B. infantial diarrhea
C. persistent diarrhea
D. virus enteritis
E. physiological diarrhea
48. The tonic of normal maintenance solution is ( )
A. isotonic
B. 1 / 2
C. 1 / 3
D. 2 / 3
E. 1 / 5
49. The total volume of the first day rehydration for children with severe dehydration is
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A. 60-90 ml/kg
B. 90-120 ml/kg
C. 120-150 ml/kg
D. 150-180 ml/kg
E. 180-210 ml/kg
50. To correct severe dehydration, what kind of solution we should choose first
A澝2 2
1 solution
20 ml/kg
B澝4 3
2 solution
20 ml/kg
C、2:1 solution ，20 ml/kg
D 澝 5%sodium bicarbonate 40 ml/kg
51 To compensate moderate hypotonic dehydration, what kind of solution we should choose
A澝2 2
1 solution
B、4：3：2 solution C 澝
2:1 solution
D 澝 2:6:1 solution
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