A
CODE
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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Model Test Paper - 1
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 720
(for NEET-2024)
Complete Syllabus of Class XI
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1.
This paper consists of 180 objective type questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology).
2.
For each correct response 4 marks will be awarded, whereas for each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted
from the total score.
3.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated.
4.
More than one answer will be negatively marked.
5.
Use Blue/Black ink ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
6.
Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle in the answer sheet.
7.
Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once marked.
8.
Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
9.
Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1.
Equation of state for real gas can be written as
3.
a ⎞
⎛
⎜P  2 ⎟ (V – b) = RT
⎝ V ⎠
acceleration of (0.4iˆ  0.3 jˆ) m/s2. What is initial
rate of change of speed?
Where symbols have usual meaning, then dimension
of b is
2.
(1) [M L3 T–2]
(2) [M0 LT–2]
(3) [M0 L3 T0]
(4) [M0 L3 T1]
4.
Two balls are simultaneously projected, first with
speed u1 in vertically upward direction from ground
and the other with speed u 2 in downward from a
height H. They will meet each other after the time
(1)
H
u1u 2
H
(3)
(u2  u1)
A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ  4 jˆ) m/s and
(2)
(1) Zero
(2) 0.5 m/s2
(3) 0.4 m/s2
(4) –0.3 m/s2
The maximum acceleration and retardation that a car
can have is a. The minimum time in which the car
can reach from one station to the other separated by
a distance s on a straight track is
(1)
H
2
s
a
(2)
2s
a
u1  u 22
(3)
H
(4)
(u1  u2 )
(1)
s
4a
(4)
4s
a
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
5.
6.
7.
8.
A boy is throwing balls one by one at regular
intervals of 0.5 s. When he is about to throw fifth
ball, the first ball comes back to his hand. The
velocity with which each ball is thrown is
11.
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is thrown vertically upwards
with speed more than 10 m/s. What is the work done
by gravity in last one second of upward journey?
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(1) 12.5 J
(2) –25 J
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s
(3) –12.5 J
(4) –5 J
A particle is projected horizontally with speed
10 m/s from a point at a height 5 m above the
ground. Then the angle with horizontal at which the
particle will strike the ground
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 15°
12.
If net work done by all the forces is zero, then there
may be some change in
(1) Potential energy and total energy
(2) Kinetic energy and total energy
(3) Potential energy and kinetic energy
(4) Only kinetic energy
A ball weighing 50 g hits a hard surface vertically
with speed 5 m/s and rebounds with the same
speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface
for 0.01 s. The average force exerted by the surface
on the ball is
13.
A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height h with
speed v. If air friction is not ignored then stone will
hit the ground with maximum speed when it is
thrown
(1) 500 N
(2) 50 N
(1) Vertically downwards
(3) 5 N
(4) 750 N
(2) Vertically upwards
Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are kept on a
smooth horizontal surface. The ratio of force exerted
by one block on the other in two different cases is
F
m1
m2
Case 1
m1
(1) m
2
(3)
9.
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
m1  m2
m1 m2
m1
(3) Horizontally
(4) In any direction
14.
F
m2
Case 2
m2
(2) m
1
15.
(4) 1 : 1
What uniform force is required to accelerate a car
weighing 100 kgf from rest to 20 m/s while covering
a distance of 20 m?
(1) 1000 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 10 kN
(4) 2000 N
Calculate the velocity of the centre of mass of the
system of particles shown in figure given below
Y
A body of mass m starting from rest acquires speed
v1 in time t1. Then the power delivered on body at
any time t will be
2
(1) m⎛ t1 ⎞ t
⎜v ⎟
⎝ 1⎠
(3) m ⎛⎜ v1 ⎞⎟t
⎝ t1 ⎠
10 m/s
10 m/s
15 m/s
3
(2) m⎛ v1 ⎞ t
⎜t ⎟
⎝ 1⎠
2 kg 5 kg
2
(4) m ⎛⎜ v1 ⎞⎟ t
⎝ t1 ⎠
10. Rain drops are falling vertically with velocity x m/s.
A cyclist experiences rain drops hitting him with
velocity 2x m/s. The velocity of cyclist may be
(1) x m/s towards north
(2) x 3 m/s towards east
(1) (5 jˆ  10iˆ) m/s
(2) (60iˆ  50 jˆ) m/s
(3) (–60iˆ  50 jˆ) m/s
(4) (5 jˆ) m/s
v
3
(3) 3v
(4) 2 3x m/s towards west
(2)
X
16. A cart of mass 2m is at rest on frictionless rails.
When a man of mass m starts moving on the cart,
the cart recoils with speed v. What is the speed of
man w.r.t. cart?
(1)
(3) 2x m/s towards south
O
3 kg
(2)
(4)
2v
3
3v
2
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
17. A ball falls on the ground from height h1 and rebounds
upto height h2. Find the coefficient of restitution
h1
(1) h
2
(3)
h2
(2) h
1
h22
h12
(4)
(3)
x
4
towards first
⎞1/ 2
⎛ h2 ⎟
⎜
⎝ h1 ⎠
x
4
away from first
19. If a disc is in pure rolling motion on a table, then the
fraction of its total kinetic energy associated with
rotation is
(1)
(3)
1
(2)
2
2
(4)
3
1
1
2
23. A particle of mass 0.1 kg moving with initial speed
2.5 m/s collides with another particle of same mass
kept initially at rest. If the total kinetic energy
becomes 0.2 J after collision, then the coefficient of
restitution is
(1) e = 1
(2) e > 1
(3) 0 < e < 1
(4) e = 0
(1)
4 2Gm
a2
(2)
4 2Gm
3a2
(4) 6 2
Gm
a2
(3) The gravitational potential is same everywhere
(4) A point mass there will be in neutral equilibrium
26. The orbital speed of a planet revolving in a circular
path of radius a around a star of mass M is
(2)   IL
(1)
dL
dt
Ftl
(2) The gravitational field is zero
dt
(3)  
(4)
(1) The gravitational potential is zero
6
statement from the following
L
(2) Ft
25. Select the incorrect statement regarding the inner
region of a uniform spherical shell
3
torque  is applied, then select the correct
d
Ft
(3) Zero
20. If L is angular momentum of a particle on which
(1)
3
24. Four particles of masses 3m, 4m, 5m and 6m are
placed in cyclic order at four corners of a square of
side a. The gravitational field at centre of square will
be
(2) 4x away from first
(4)
Ml 2
(3) Ftl
18. Two blocks of masses m and 4 m are separated by
a finite distance. If first block is moved by a distance
x towards second, then the displacement of second
body such that position of centre of mass remains
same
(1) 4x towards first
(1)
(3)
(4) L   I
21. A shell is dropped from certain height and it explodes
in its path. After explosion the centre of mass of
fragments moves in
(1) Circular path
(2) Straight line vertically upwards
(3) Parabolic path
(4) Straight line vertically downwards
22. A uniform rod of mass M and length l is struck at its
one end by a force F perpendicular to the rod for a
short time interval t. The angular momentum of the
rod about its centre of mass is
(3)
GM
2a
2GM
a
(2)
(4)
2GM
3a
GM
a
27. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at a
depth 10 km below the earth surface? Radius of
earth is 6400 km and the value of g at the surface of
the earth is 9.80 m/s2
(1) 9.78 m/s2
(2) 9.69 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 9.7 m/s2
28. A particle moves on x-axis according to the equation
x = A + B sint. The maximum speed of the particle
is
(1) A
(2) (A + B)
(3) B
(4) ( A2  B2 )
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
29. The average force on a particle executing SHM, in one
time period is (symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) KA
(2)
(3) Zero
(4)
37. There is an open container having ideal gas. If
temperature is increased then kinetic energy of gas
in the container
KA
2
m2A
2
(3)
5
2
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
(4) Becomes zero
38. Which of the following quantities is zero on an average
for the molecules of an ideal gas in equilibrium?
30. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an
amplitude 5 cm. At what distance, speed of the
1
particle is
times its maximum speed?
2
(1) 2.5 cm
(1) Increases
(1) Kinetic energy
(2) Velocity
(3) Density
(4) Speed
39. If some heat is supplied to a solid then
(2) (2.5) 3 cm
(1) Its temperature must increase
cm
(4) 5 cm
(2) Its internal energy must increase
(3) Kinetic energy of molecules must decrease
31. The ratio of translational kinetic energy to total
kinetic energy in case of a disk under pure rolling?
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 1
(4) It must melt
32. If length of the pendulum of a certain clock is
increased by 4%, how fast or slow does the clock
run during 24 hrs.?
(1) 28.8 minutes fast
(2) 28.8 minutes slow
(3) 14.4 minutes fast
(4) 7.2 minutes slow
33. The displacement of a particle on a string carrying a
travelling wave is given by y = 10 sin(3.14x – 314t),
where x is in cm and t is in second. What is the
minimum distance between two particles always
having same phase?
(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 0.5 cm
(4) 2.5 cm
(2) Waves in a string
(3) Sound waves
(4) Light waves
(2) 327°C
(3) 927°C
(4) –123°C
(2) 2.08 mm
(3) 2.02 mm
(4) 2.01 mm
41. An amount Q of heat is added to a diatomic ideal
gas in a process in which the gas performs a work
Q
on its surroundings. The increase in the
2
translational kinetic energy of the gas is
(1)
(2) 32 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) Zero
(2)
2
Q
(4)
5
g
3Q
10
Q
10
g
(1)
(2)
r
36. A string fixed at both ends is vibrating in one of the
modes for which the distance between adjacent
nodes is 16 cm, then the minimum possible length
of the string is
(1) 16 cm
Q
42. Which of the following curve represents correctly the
variation of value g from centre of earth with distance
r?
35. The velocity of sound at 27°C is v then velocity will
be 2v at
(1) 54°C
(1) 2.04 mm
(3)
34. Which of the following is longitudinal wave?
(1) X-rays
40. A square hole of diagonal 2 mm is made in a metal
plate at 0°C. What will be its diagonal length at
100°C? ( = 20 × 10–5/°C)
g
g
(3)
(4)
r
(4)
r
r
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
43. The curve shown in figure shows PV diagram of a
gas in different processes. Which curve represents
the adiabatic process?
P
A
(1)
Fl
2AY
(2)
(3)
Fl
4AY
(4) Zero
B
(1) A
C
V
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
D
45. If T be the time period of oscillation of a body
executing SHM, then time taken by particle to move
from mid point of mean position and extreme
position to extreme will be
44. A uniform rod of length l, area of cross-section A and
Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by a force F as
shown. The increase in the length of the rod is
(1)
F
l/2
Fl
AY
(3)
l/2
T
8
T
12
(2)
T
4
(4)
T
6
CHEMISTRY
50. The total number of orbitals in nth shell is given as
46. The number of electrons in 1g of SO42– is
( NA = Avogadro number, S = 32 g, O = 16 g)
(1)
(3)
NA
96
25NA
48
(2)
NA
48. Percentage of water of crystallisation in blue vitriol
(CuSO4·5H2O) is (Cu = 63.5 g)
(3) 44
(4) 52
49. On taking 10 g each of N2
process. At the end
(1) Only (A)
(2) (A) & (B)
(3) (A), (B) & (C)
(4) (B) & (C)
52. The correct de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in
3rd orbit of H-atom will be
(4) AB3
(2) 40
(B) O+2 and N–2
(C) O2– and N+2
3
(1) 36
(4) 2n2
(A) CO2 and N2O
A
47. Atomic masses of two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are
respectively 30 and 60. If their binary compound
contains 60% of ‘A’ by mass, the empirical formula
of compound will be
(1) A B
(2) A B
(3) AB2
(2) 2(n + 1)
(3) n2
51. Isoelectronic pair of molecules among the options
given below is
2
(4) N
2
(1) (2n + 1)
(1) 1.036 nm
(2) 10.36 nm
(3) 10.36 pm
(4) 1.036 Å
53. Frequency of quantum emitted when an electron
makes transition from 4th energy level to ground state
in H-atom will be
and H2 in Haber’s
(1) 56.6 g NH3 is formed and H2 is consumed
completely
(1) 2.81 × 1014 Hz
(2) 2.81 × 1015 Hz
(3) 2.81 × 1016 Hz
(4) 2.81 × 1019 Hz
54. What prediction can be made regarding bond
formation between K and Ne?
(2) 12.14 g NH3 is formed and H2 is consumed
completely
(3) 56.6 g NH3 is formed and N2 is consumed
completely
(1) Ionic
(2) Covalent
(3) Metallic
(4) No bond at all
55. The elements Lanthanum and Actinium belong to
(4) 12.14 g NH3 is formed and N2 is consumed
completely
(5)
(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
56. Arsenic forms two oxides, one of which contains
60% and the other 75% of the element. Hence
equivalent weight of arsenic is in the ratio
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 13 : 15
(4) 2 : 1
(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 6.02 × 1021
(4) 6.02 × 1023
(1) Frequency () = 7.5 ×
Hz
(2) x < y < z
(3) x < z < y
(4) z < y < x
Fe2O3(s) + 3 H2(g)
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 9
(4) 27
if absolute entropies (in JK–1 mole–1) are
A = 130, B = 203, C = 152
(4) All of these
Which of the following transitions requires the
greatest quantity of energy absorbed by a hydrogen
atom?
(1) n = 1 to n = 2
(2) n = 2 to n = 4
(3) n = 3 to n = 6
(4) n = 1 to n = 
(1) 4s
(2) 3d
(3) 5f
(4) 6p
Fe2+
(1) 255 JK–1
(2) 377 JK–1
(3) 355 JK–1
(4) –377 JK–1
68. For the reaction P  Q, H = +10 cal mol–1 and
S = –20 JK mol–1. This reaction is
(1) Non-spontaneous at all temperature
(2) Non-spontaneous at low temperature
(3) Non-spontaneous at high temperature
(4) Spontaneous at high temperature
61. The orbital having maximum number of nodes
69. The concentration of [H+] and [OH–] in a 0.1 M
aqueous solution of 2% ionised weak acid is
(1) 0.02 × 10–2 M and 5 × 10–11 M
(Z = 26) is not
(2) 1 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–11 M
(3) 2 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–12 M
(1) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
(4) 3 × 10–2 M and 4 × 10–13 M
(2) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
70. At 18°C, the solubility product of AgCl is
1.8 × 10–10. In a solution the conc. of [Ag+] is
4 × 10 –3 mol / litre. The conc. of [Cl –] requires to
precipitate AgCl from this solution be greater than
(3) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
(4) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
63. At same temperature and pressure which of the
following pair will have highest KE?
(1) N2, CO
(1) x = y = z
A(s)  B(s) + 2C(s)
(3) Momentum (mv) = 1.66 × 10–27 kg ms–1
62. The number of d electrons in
equal to that of
Ratio of Kp and Kc in increasing order is
67. The entropy change for the reaction is
(2) Wave number () = 2.5 × 106 m–1
60.
H2 + I 2
Kc = 27. Hence, ratio of molar conc. of H2(g) and
H2O(g) is
59. A wavelength of 400 nm corresponds to
1014
PCl3 + Cl2
2 Fe(s) + 3 H2O(g)
SO2 + 2 H2S  3S + 2 H2O
(4) 6
2 SO3
66. For the following equilibria
58. 2 mole of H2S and 11.2 L SO2 at NTP react to form
x mole of sulphur ; x is
(3) 11.2
x : 2 SO2 + O2
z : 2 HI
(1) 6.02 × 1018
(2) 3
65. For the following gaseous equilibria x, y and z at
300 K
y : PCl5
57. An unknown amino acid has 0.032% sulphur. If each
molecule has one S-atom only, 1 g of amino acid
has
molecules
(1) 1.5
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
(1) 4.5 × 10–8 mol/litre
(2) 7.2 × 10–12 mol/litre
(2) N2O, CO2
(3) 4.0 × 10–3 mol/litre
(3) D2, He
(4) All have equal KE
64. One molecule is moving at a speed of 1 ms–1 and
two molecules are moving at 2 ms–1. Hence, root
mean square velocity is
(4) 4.5 × 10–7 mol/litre
71. The number of electrons lost or gained during the
change, Fe + H2O  Fe3O4 + H2
(1) 1 ms–1
(2) 1.27 ms–1
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3 ms–1
(4) 1.73 ms–1
(3) 6
(4) 8
(6)
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
72. Normal Al-AlCl3 coupled with normal hydrogen
electrode gives an emf of 1.66 V. The standard
oxidation electrode potential of aluminium is
81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) SiO2 exists in different crystalline form
(1) –1.66 V
(2) +1.66 V
(2) Eight membered ring structure is present in SiO2
(3) –0.83 V
(4) +0.83 V
(3) SiO2 is inert
(4) SiO2 is having very high melting point and boiling
point
73. The number of  electrons in 0.2 mol of vinyl cyanide
according to Lewis formula is
(1) 2.4 NA
(2) 4.8 NA
(3) 1.2 NA
(4) 3.6 NA
82. Producer gas is
74. Heterolysis of C—Cl bond of methyl chloride gives
Cl – ion and another cationic species. The hybrid
state of C atom during the process changes from
(1) sp3—sp2
(3)
sp2—sp
(2) CO + H2
(3) CO + N2
(4) CO + H2 + N2
83. Which is not applicable to borax?
(1) It is used as a flux in soldering
(2) sp2—sp3
(4)
(1) CO + CO2
sp3—sp
(2) It contains five B—O—B bonds
75. In the solid state of hydrogen flouride, which is true?
(3) It is obtained from tincal ore
(1) Angle HFH is 180°
(4) It is used in micro-cosmic test
(2) Angle FHF is 90°
84. Red coloured complex ion formed on adding FeCl3 to
sodium extract is
(3) Angle HFH is <180° but > 90°
(4) Angle FHF is < 180° but > 90°
76. Among the elements A(Z = 2), B(Z = 7), C(Z = 9),
D(Z = 10), the element with smallest size and
highest ionisation energy is
(1) [Fe(CN)4]4–
(2) [Fe(CNS)]2+
(3) [Fe(CNS)3]+
(4) [Fe(CN)6]3–
85. C5H12 has a symmetrical structure. Its name is
(1) A
(2) B
(1) n-pentane
(3) C
(4) D
(2) 2-methyl butane
77. Which type of hydrides are non-stoichiometric
hydrides?
(1) Hydrides of group 7, 8, 9
(3) 2, 2-dimethyl propane
(4) 1-methyl butane
86. cis-trans isomerism is shown by
(2) Hydrides of group 3, 4, 5
(3) Hydrides of group 14, 15
R
(4) Hydrides of group 1, 2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
R
78. What is false about ice?
(1) It has open cage like structure
(2) Each O atom is surrounded by four H atoms
87. Which has maximum stability?
(3) Each O atom has four H-bonds around it
(4) Mass of its unit volume is less than that of water
(1)
79. A solution of MgCl2 in water has pH
(1) <7
(2) >7
(3) 7
(4) 14
(2)
+
(3)
80. Which of the following represents the correct order
of covalent character among the iodides of alkali
metals?
+
(4)
88. Which is incorrect comparison of the b.p. of
alkanes?
(1) LiI > NaI > KI > RbI > CsI
>
(1)
(2)
>
(4)
<
(2) NaI > KI > RbI > CsI > LiI
(3) LiI > CsI > RbI > KI > NaI
(3)
(4) CsI > RbI > KI > NaI > LiI
(7)
>
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
89. How many monochloro-isomeric products are
obtained when cyclohexane is treated with chlorine
in presence of sunlight?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
90. By oxidative ozonolysis A(C4H8) changes to
CH3COOH. Thus, A is
(1)
(2)
(3) CH3CH
CHCH3
(4) CH3CH2CH
CH2
BOTANY
91. Find the correct match
Column-I
97. The deficiency of which micronutrient results in little
leaf disease
Column-II
a. Clamp connection (i) Albugo
(1) Iron
(2) Boron
b. LSD
(ii) Agaricus
(3) Zinc
(4) Copper
c.
(iii) Cercospora
Coenocytic
98. Find the odd one w.r.t. active mineral absorption
(1) Against concentration gradient
mycelium
d. Tikka disease
(2) Not affected by ETS inhibitors
(iv) Claviceps
(3) Shows saturation effect
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Carrier protein is essential
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
99. Comparatively more energy consuming pathway of
carbon fixation is
92. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in presence of
(1) Secondary growth
(1) PCR cycle
(2) Seed habit
(2) Cooperative photosynthesis
(3) Double fertilization
(3) CAM cycle
(4) Precocious male gametophyte
(4) PCO cycle
93. Find the correct statement w.r.t. glycoprotein
synthesizing organelle
100. An example of chemotropic movement is
(1) Movement of chloroplasts in leaf cells
(1) Unicisternal in fungi
(2) Movement of pollen tube in carpel
(2) Maturing face is convex
(3) Movement of antherozoid towards archegonia
(3) Cis face receive material from vacuole or
lysosome
(4) Rhythmic movement of petiole in Desmodium
gyrans
(4) Autolysis
94. If a somatic cell contains 20 picogram DNA in its
nucleus at the end of S-phase, what will be the
amount of DNA in egg cell?
(1) 5 picogram
(2) 10 picogram
(3) 20 picogram
(4) 40 picogram
101. Members of eubacteria having two layered cell wall
show the presence of
(1) Low lipid and high muramic acid
(2) Diaminopimelic acid and absence of teichoic acid
(3) 150-200 Å thick wall and porins
(4) L-lysine and dipicolinic acid
95. Dorsiventral leaf does not show
(1) Palisade parenchyma
102. Pigments associated with complementary chromatic
adaptations in
are distributed in/on
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Stomata
(1) Cyanobacteria; chromoplasm
(4) Motor cells
(2) Cyanobacteria; inner surface of thylakoid
membrane
96. Which one of the following cells shows negative
turgor pressure?
(3) Dinoflagellates; plastids
(1) Opened stomata
(4) Brown algae; cytoplasm
(2) Fully turgid cell
103. A ribbon like flagellum in whirling whips is found in
(3) Partially turgid cell
(1) Sulcus
(4) Plasmolysed cell
(3) Anterior part of body (4) Posterior part of body
(8)
(2) Cingulum
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
104. Spore bearing part is separated from rest of
sporangiophore in asexual life cycle of Rhizopus by
(1) Annulus
(2) Columella
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Suspensor
105. Fertile layer of gill in mushroom is
consists of
(3) Mustard; Tetradynamous
(4) China rose; Monoadelphous
112. The fruit developing from spadix is called
which
(1) Balausta
(2) Berry
(3) Sorosis
(4) Syconus
113. Which one of the following families shows floral
characters A3+3 G(3) ?
(1) Basidiocarp; Primary mycelium
(2) Hymenium; Monokaryotic mycelium
(3) Trama; Dikaryotic mycelium
(4) Hymenium; Secondary mycelium
(1) Liliaceae
(2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Brassicaceae
(4) Asteraceae
114. Root endodermal cells with casparian strips are
interrupted by thin walled cells just outside the
106. Foliose lichens attach to the substratum usually with
the help of
(1) Protophloem patches (2) Metaphloem patches
(1) Rhizoid
(3) Metaxylem patches (4) Protoxylem patches
(2) Rhizine
115. Vessels of same size are uniformly distributed
throughout the growth are
(3) Holdfast
(1) Homoxylous and nonporous wood
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Advanced type and ringporous wood
107. Which one of the following is the basis of classification of organisms, adopted by cytotaxonomist?
(3) Primitive type and diffuse porous wood
(1) Sequencing of DNA and RNA
(4) Advance type and heteroxylous wood
(2) Secondary metabolites
116. In mature dicot stem, the young elements of
secondary xylem lie in
(3) Meiotic behaviour of chromosomes and their
number
(1) Peripheral part of extra-steler region
(4) All microscopic and biochemical evidences
(2) Just outside the pith
108. Non-embryonic atracheophytes with oogamous type
reproduction are
(3) Just below vascular cambium
(4) Away from vascular cambium
(1) Riccia and Funaria
117. Which one of the following organelles is involved in
mobilisation of reserves during starvation period?
(2) Chlamydomonas and Batrachospermum
(3) Spirogyra and Anabaena
(1) Sphaerosome
(2) Glyoxysome
(4) Ulothrix and Anthoceros
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Lysosome
109. Vascular amphibians as heterosporous form are
118. Cytokinesis in some lower plants occurs
(1) All ferns and conifers
(1) In centripetal manner
(2) Mosses and hornworts
(2) In centrifugal manner
(3) Spike moss and bird’s nest moss
(3) By cell plate formation
(4) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(4) By fusion of phragmoplast and vesicles
110. Inflorescence with short main axis and unequal
pedicels is
119. The chromosomes are replicated but the chromatids
are not distinguishable due to the presence of
nucleoprotein core between them in
(1) Characterised by unisexual flowers in acropetal
order
(2) Bearing involucre at the base of flowers
(1) Diakinesis
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene
120. Separation of chromatid segments occurs in between
two gaps in
(3) Having dimorphic bracts
(4) Found in some members of Brassicaceae
(1) Anaphase I
111. Contorted aestivation in corolla is shown by
family which shows
stamens
(2) Anaphase II
(1) Onion; Epiphyllous
(3) Pachytene
(2) Pulses; Diadelphous
(4) Diplotene
(9)
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
129. Select incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. precursor
molecules
121. What is true for passive water absorption?
(1) Root cells have active role in water absorption
(2) Rate of absorption is increased by respiratory
stimulator
(1) Alkaloids
– Oxaloacetate
(2) Glutamate
– -ketoglutaric acid
(3) A negative pressure is commonly found in xylem
sap
(3) Phytochrome
– Succinyl CoA
(4) Pyrimidines
– Acetyl CoA
(4) It uses metabolic energy
130. The net gain of ATP from complete oxidation of a
molecule of glucose in liver cell and muscle cell is
respectively
122. Transpiration rate is decreased by
(1) Low atmospheric pressure
(2) High root/shoot ratio
(1) 36 and 38
(3) Compact mesophyll with more palisade tissues
(2) 38 and 36
(4) Low relative humidity
(3) 38 and 38
(4) 36 and 36
123. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
for soil-less production of plants?
131. Pyruvic acid produced in glycolysis is directly
reduced by NADH in
(1) Useful in knowing the role of an essential
element in the physiology of plants
(1) Acetic acid fermentation
(2) Useful in areas having thin, infertile and dry soil
(2) Ethyl alcohol fermentation
(3) Control of soil borne pathogens
(3) Lactic acid fermentation
(4) The cost of setting up this system is very low
124. During root nodules formation, degradation of cell
wall and formation of an infection thread is caused 132.
by
(4) More than one option is correct
Normally bolting occurs at the
(1) Onset of vegetative phase
(1) Plants nod factor
(2) Onset of reproductive phase
(2) Bacterial nod factor
(3) Warm night
(3) Flavinoids and betains
(4) Short day length
(4) Nitrogenase and polygalacturonase
133. ABA is antagonistic to auxin in which one of the
following functions?
125. NADP reductase enzyme is located in/on
(1) Cytoplasm of mesophyll
(1) Rooting
(2) Stroma of chloroplast
(2) Flowering
(3) Outer surface of thylakoid membrane
(3) Cambium activity
(4) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane
(4) Parthenocarpy
126. In PCO cycle, transaminase enzyme is required in
an organelle namely
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Glyoxisome
134. Far red light is inhibitory for seed germination in
(1) Bean and Lily
(2) Maize and Phlox
(3) Nigella and Onion
127. Additional ATP molecules required in the synthesis
of three molecules of glucose in C4 plants is
(1) 36
(2) 24
(3) 90
(4) 54
(4) Lactuca and Lepidium
135. The physiological process which brings about
ripeness to flower without having any role in induction
and can be replaced by derivative of acetyl CoA is
128. First step of biosynthetic pathway of substrate
entrant molecule of TCA cycle in mitochondrial
matrix requires
(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Yarovization
(1) Citrate synthetase (2) Decarboxylase
(3) Stratification
(3) Transacetylase
(4) Impaction
(4) Dehydrogenase
(10)
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following group of animals have radial
symmetry?
(1) Sponges
143. Which of the following function cannot be related to
sympathetic nervous system?
(1) Constricts arteries and raises blood pressure
(2) Molluscs
(2) Erection of body hair
(3) Adult echinoderms (4) Round worms
137. The most widely distributed connective tissue in the
body which also forms the internal framework of
many solid organs is
(1) Blood
(3) Constricts the bronchi
(4) Relaxes gall bladder
144. Which of the following corpuscles are present in the
epidermis and are sensitive to touch?
(2) Areolar connective tissue
(1) Pacinian corpuscles
(3) Adipose connective tissue
(2) Krause corpuscles
(4) Fibrous connective tissue
(3) Ruffini’s corpuscles
138. Crypts of Lieberkuhn – intestinal glands in the
human ileum are
(1) Simple gland tubular
(4) Merkel’s disc
145. Which of the following part/layer of adrenal gland is
responsible for the release of gonado-corticoids?
(2) Compound tubular gland
(1) Zona glomerulosa
(3) Simple saccular glands
(2) Zona fasciculata
(4) Simple branched tubular
(3) Zona reticularis
139. Which of the following structure can be related to
excretory functions in Periplaneta?
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Fat body
(3) Nephrocytes
(4) Adrenal medulla
146. On the basis of formation of anus which amongst
the following organism is the odd one out?
(4) All of these
(1) Hirudinaria granulosa
140. Which of the following is the longest segment
present in the leg of Periplaneta?
(1) Coxa
(2) Femur
(3) Tibia
(4) Trochanter
141. Which of the following laryngeal cartilage is signet
ring shaped or forms a complete ring?
(2) Anopheles
(3) Unio
(4) Asterias
147. All fishes are bilateral symmetrical but which one
has clasper?
(1) Anabas – Climbing perch
(1) Corniculate cartilage
(2) Exocoetus – Flying fish
(2) Cuneiform cartilage
(3) Anguilla – Fresh water eel
(3) Arytenoid cartilage
(4) Cricoid cartilage
142. Which of the following condition does not result in
shifting of oxy-Hb dissociation curve to the right?
(4) Pristis – Sting ray
148. Write the name of order of organisms which have all
mammalian characteristic features but also show
Echolocation
(1) Increase in pCO2
(1) Edentata
(2) Increase in pH
(2) Chiroptera
(3) Increase in body temperature
(3) Rodentia
(4) Excess of 2, 3, DPG
(4) Lagomorpha
(11)
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
155. Which of the following statement is correct?
149. Which of the following has phosphodiester bond?
(1) ATP
(2) Adenylic acid
(1) Six thin filaments surround each thick filament in
skeletal muscle fibre
(3) DNA
(2) Titin filaments anchor the Z disc to sarcolemma
(4) ADP
(3) T-tubule is present in all type of muscles
150. Nucleotides contain sugar, nitrogenous bases and
phosphate group. Which of the following has a single
phosphate group?
(1) Coenzyme-A
(2) ATP
(3) FAD
(4) FMN
(4) All of these
156. CNS contains neurons and glial cells. Which of the
following glial cell is responsible for repair of
damaged areas of nervous tissue?
(1) Astrocytes
(2) Oligodendrocytes
151. All of the following are the functions of testosterone,
except
(3) Schwann cells
(1) Catabolic effect on carbohydrate and fat
metabolism
(4) Microglia
157. Which of the following consists symbiotic microorganisms
(2) Regulates libido
(3) Stimulates aggressiveness
(1) Duodenum
(2) Jejunum
(4) Maintains low pitched sound
(3) Ileum
(4) Caecum
152. Action of the cyanide over the enzyme cytochrome
oxidase demonstrates which type of enzyme
inhibition?
158. With respect to the action of parasympathetic nerve
on gall bladder, which of the following hormones
performs the similar function?
(1) Competitive
(2) Non-competitive
(1) Enterogastrone
(3) Allosteric
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Cholecystokinin
153. Match the following
Column I
a. Simple branched
saccular gland
b. Compound saccular
gland
c. Simple tubular
(3) Urogasterone
Column II
(4) Enterocrinin
(i) Submandibular
159. Vitamin A promotes normal vision and it takes part
in synthesis of retinal pigments. Deficiency of it
leads to which of the following
salivary gland
(ii) Mammary gland in
human
(iii) Sebaceous gland
(2) Scurvy
(3) Xerophthalmia
(4) Rickets
160. Maximum amount of oxygen delivered by one litre of
blood to tissue during exercise is
gland
d. Compound tubulo-
(1) Beri-beri
(iv) Axillary sweat gland
saccular gland
(v) Intestinal gland
(1) 50 ml
(2) 150 ml
(3) 200 ml
(4) 75 ml
161. On the basis of action, which set of hormones is
similar?
(1) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v)
(1) Progesterone and adrenaline
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv)
(2) Estrogen and insulin
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(ii)
(3) TCT and calcitriol
(4) Catecholamines and cortisol
154. Which of the following cranial nerve associated with
movement of eye ball along with accommodation
reflex ?
162. Which of the following hormone is secreted by
anterior pituitary?
(1) Occulomotor
(2) Pathetic
(1) Thyroxine
(2) TSH
(3) Abducens
(4) All of these
(3) Calcitonin
(4) PTH
(12)
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
163. FSH and LH show the synergistic effect but which
of the following hormone shows the antagonistic
effect to insulin hormone?
(1) Glucocorticoid
(2) GH
(3) Glucagon
(4) All of these
169. Which of the following is mismatch w.r.t. resiratory
structure?
164. On the basis of chemical nature which hormone is
the odd one out?
(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) hCG
(4) Aldosterone
(2) FSH
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Progesterone
(2) Cockroach – Trachea
(3) Mammal – Lungs
(4) Birds – Alveoli
170.
b
c
f
e
g
Graphical representation of
pulmonary volumes and
pulmonary capacities
166. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. lipid soluble
hormones
On the basis of above graphical representation which
one of the following represents the ERV?
(1) Steroid and thyroid hormones are lipid soluble
hormones and readily pass through the plasma
membrane of a target cell into the cytoplasm
(1) a + b
(2) These bind to specific intracellular receptor
proteins forming a complex that enters the
nucleus and bind to specific regulatory sites on
chromosomes
(3) d – (f + g)
(2) a + b + e
(4) d – (a + b + g)
171. Contraction of which of the following respiratory
muscles is involved in forceful expiration?
(3) The action of lipid soluble hormones are faster
and shorter than the actions water soluble
hormones
(1) Diaphragm
(2) External intercostal muscle
(4) Aldosterone and cortisol are lipid soluble
hormones
(3) Abdominal muscle
(4) Both (2) & (3)
167. In cockroach, haemocoel is differentiated into three
chambers pericardial sinus, perivisceral sinus and
perineural sinus. Which of the following structures
are present in pericardial sinus?
172. During high blood pressure, regulations of heart beat
and circulation are controlled by
(1) Hypothalamus
a. Heart
b. Alary muscles
c. Alimentary canal
d. Mesenterone
(2) Medulla oblongata
e. Malpighian tubules
f. Lateral tracheal trunk
(3) Pons varolii
(4) Premotor area of cerebrum
g. Nerve cord
(1) a, b and c
(2) a & b only
(3) a, b, f and g
(4) a, b, c, e and g
173. Main fat digesting enzyme is
(1) Amylopsin
168. Match the column I with column II
Column I
d
a
165. During gestation period which of the following
hormone has the highest concentration in blood?
(1) LH
(1) Fish – Gills
(2) Rennin
Column II
a. Achlorhydria
(i) Damage to hunger
centre
b. Haustration
(ii) Colour of fecal matter
c.
Sterocobilin
(iii) Fe deficiency anemia
d.
Anorexia
(iv) Segmentation
movement
(3) Enterokinase
(4) Steapsin
174. Which of the following is related with mesonephric
kidney?
(1) Malpighian body is present
(2)
Loop of Henle is present
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Vasa recta is present
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) All of these
(13)
Model Test Paper for NEET-2024
Test - 1 (Code-A) XI Syllabus
175. How many ATP molecules are utilized in each urea
cycle in liver?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
176. Polycythaemia is characterised by
178. Diluting segment of loop of Henle is
(3) PCT
(4) DCT
(1) Paracoel and diocoel
(2) Diocoel and metacoel
(2) Increase in RBC content
(3) Metacoel and subarachnoid space
(3) Decrease in WBC content
177. P–Q interval lengthens in an ECG represents
(2) Ascending limb
179. Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius connects
(1) Decrease in O2 content
(4) Increase in CO2 content
(1) Descending limb
(4) Two lateral ventricle
180. The ratio of receptors to bipolar cells to ganglion
cells is
within the fovea of eye
(1) Myocardial infarction
(1) 2 : 1 : 1
(2) Heart muscles receive insufficient oxygen
(2) 2 : 3 : 1
(3) Acute myocardial infarction
(3) 1 : 1 : 1
(4) Arteriosclerotic heartdiseases
(4) 1 : 2 : 3
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(14)
A
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MODEL TEST PAPER-1
(for NEET-2024)
Complete Syllabus of Class XI
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