REVISION NO.: INITIAL
May 4, 2010
C P L – Air Law
1.
If an emergency situation, which endangers the safety of the aircraft or
persons, necessitates the taking of action, which involves a violation of
regulations or procedures by any crewmember, the pilot-in-command shall
submit a report on any such violation to the CAAP within:
10 days
7 days
2 days
2. Which statement is true regarding right of way for taxiing aircraft in the
manuevering area of an aerodrome for one aircraft overtaking the other?
Aircraft with higher takeoff weight has the right of way.
The overtaking aircraft has the right of way.
An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft has the right of way
3. The primary purpose of filing a plan is for:
search and rescue.
safety of flight.
to secure clearance from ATS.
4. If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight…..
30 minutes after sunset.
1 hour after sunset.
at sunset.
5. _______ of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including one flight
of not less than 300 nautical miles in the course of which not less than three
full stop landings at different point shall have been made.
Fifteen hours
Thirty hours
Ten hours
6. Who among the following persons is required by CAAP to file a flight plan?
Pilot in command.
Aircraft mechanic
Aircraft owner.
7. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that
clearance, unless the pilot…..
receives an amended clearance or less an emergency.
requests an amended clearance.
is operating VFR on top.
8. Aerial photography is prohibited in the Philippines without proper authorization
from…..
Philippine Air Force
NAMRIA
CAAP
9. All flights of civil aircraft over the Manila Flight Information Region and landing
at Philippine aerodrome shall be carried out in accordance with……….
the current regulations and policies.
at the discretion of the civil aircraft operator.
policy procedures of the civil aircraft operator.
10. If weather conditions are such that it requires designating an alternate airport
on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the
first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport,
fly thereafter…
45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
1 hour at normal cruising speed.
30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
11. An applicant for CPL shall be a qualified person who is a citizen of the
Philippines or:
a qualified citizen of a foreign country granting similar rights and privileges
to citizens of the Philippines; subject, however to existing treaty or treaties,
and agreements entered into by the Philippines government with foreign
countries, and subject
any citizen of foreign country.
executive to Filipino nationals only.
12. Pilot regulation pertaining to blood alcohol and rest period before a pilot is
eligible to fly an aircraft…..
alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 12 hours passes between bottle
and throttle.
alcohol level in the blood is below 0.04% and that at least eight (8) hours
passes between bottle and throttle.
alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 8 hours of rest period.
13. A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than ______ of flight time or
150 hours of flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training.
300 hours
200 hours
400 hours
14. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot an aircraft carrying
passengers during the period from one hour after sunset to one hour before
sunrise unless he has made at least __________ to full stop during such
period within the preceeding 90
10 take-offs and landings.
5 take-offs and landings.
15 take-offs and landing.
15. Sunset or sunrise, which requires sun to be below the earth horizon by 3
degrees, is called……
astronomical sunset or sunrise.
aeronautical sunset or sunrise.
civil sunset or sunrise.
16. The maximum flying time a pilot can log within a period of 30 days.
90 hours
100 hours
80 hours
17. Regulations which refer to "Commercial Operations" relate to that person
who….
for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by aircraft in air
commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier
for Compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of
persons or property, as an air carrier.
is the owner of a small scheduled airline.
18.
Air traffic services in the Philippines are provided by the Civil Aviation
Authority of the Philippines, administrated by the Chief, Air Traffic Service
with the exception of…
Military and private aerodromes
Military aerodromes only.
Private aerodromes only.
19. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become
familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must…..
list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate take-off
and landing performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and
the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
20. What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation
of the airplane?
Pilot in command
Airplane owner/operator.
Certificate holder
21. A CPL applicant shall have established his medical fitness on the basis of
compliance with the following medical requirements:
second class medical
third class medical.
first class medical.
22. How many hours of instrument time of which not more than five hours may
be instrument ground are required for CPL?
Five
Twenty
Ten
23. The minimum age for obtaining a commercial pilot's license is…..
20 years old.
16 years old.
18 years old.
24. Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have visibility and distance from
cloud of:
horizontal 5 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.
horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
horizontal 4 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.
25. How does a pilot indicate a desire for flight gun signal in case of radio failure
during the day?
Rock wings.
Flash landing lights.
Pitch aircraft nose.
26. Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They
are….
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the
pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found
competent in formation.
not authorized, when operated so closed to another aircraft then can create
a collision hazard.
27. Which of the following are considered aircraft class rating?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider and lighter-than-air.
Single-engine land, multiengine-land, single-engine sea, and multi engine.
Transport, normally, utility and acrobatic.
28.
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to
perform a procedure turn when…..
manuevering at radar vectoring altitudes.
manuevering at minimum safe altitudes
receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.
29. What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
All flight time while acting as second in command regardless of aircraft crew
requirements.
All flight time, while acting as second in command aircraft requiring more
than one pilot.
Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole
manipulation of the control.
30.
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane
approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to
right.
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single engine
airplane is to the right.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.
31. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot an aircraft carrying
passengers unless within the preceeding __________ he had made at least
5 take-offs and landing to a full stop in aircraft at the same category, class
and type of aircraft to be flown.
120 days
60 days
90 days
32. A holder commercial pilot license shall have the privileges to exercise all the
privilege of a__________.
Private pilot.
Glider pilot.
Free balloon pilot.
33. Required flight crewmember's seatbelts must be fastened:
only during take-off and landing
only during takeoff and landing when passengers are abroad the aircraft.
while the crewmembers are at their stations
34. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
Airplane A; the pilot shall alter course to the right to pass.
35. On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may
not operate below, or continue the approach unless the…….
approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that
approach.
aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal
landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
36. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Airplane, the airplane pilot should alter course to the left pass.
37. What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet
MSL?
29.92" Hg.
Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
38. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy
condition?
The lead mechanic responsible for the aircraft.
Owner or operator of that aircraft.
Pilot in command or operator.
39. The holder of a commercial pilot license shall have the privilege to……
to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any aircraft having
a gross weight not exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)
to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation.
A & B are correct.
40. Name the two aircraft documents required for all aircraft in operations.
Aircraft engine logbook and owner's manual.
Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
Aircraft logbook and aircraft inspection logbook.
41. Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are….
not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the
pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
42. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled
airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible
when….
passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.
passing FL 180.
changing control facilities.
43. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A certificated aircraft mechanic
The owner or operator.
The pilot in command.
44. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of
the……
pilot in command of that aircraft.
owner or operator of that aircraft.
pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft.
45. Whenever a distress call and/or message is intercepted on radiotelephony or
radio telegraph by a pilot-in command of an aircraft, other than a search
aircraft, he shall….
ignore the distress call or message.
at his discretion continue his flight.
plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
46. In the manner of compliance, what is the basic difference between ATC
procedure and CAR?
Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
Optional for CAR and mandatory for ATC.
Both mandatory.
47. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate
their personal possession when…..
carrying passengers only.
piloting for hire only.
acting as pilot in command
48. When are flight plans filed?
60 minutes before ATA.
60 minutes before ETA.
60 minutes before ETD.
49. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying……
at 3,000 ft. AGL or more, based on true course.
at 3,000 ft. MSL or more, based on magnetic heading.
more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.
50. Flight plan shall be kept for a period of……
1 month after the date of filling.
6 months after the date of filling.
15 days after the date of filling