2 102 a) π΄ = 1+0.02804 + (1+0.02636)2 = 98.7734 π΅= 3 3 103 + + = 101.5295 2 (1 + 0.02458)3 1 + 0.02804 (1 + 0.02636) b) 98.7734 = 2 102 + 1 (1 + πππ) (1 + πππ)2 1 1+πππ Denote =π₯ 2 + 102π₯ 2 − 98.7734 = 0 π₯1 = −2+√22 −4×102×(−98.7734) 2×102 = π₯2 = −2−√22 −4×102×(−98.7734) 2×102 < 0 => Not accepted 1 1+πππ −2+200.75 204 = 0.974 1 = 0.974 => πππ = 0.974 − 1 = 0.026377 = 2.6377% ππππ΄ = 2.6377% ππππ΅ = c) π·π΄ = π·π΅ = 3 3 103 + + = 101.547 2 (1 + 0.0246484)3 1 + 0.0246484 (1 + 0.0246484) 2 102 +2∗(1+0.026377)2 ] 1+0.026377 [1∗ = 1.981 98.7734 3 [1 ∗ 1 + 0.0246484 + 2 ∗ 3 103 +3∗ ] 2 (1 + 0.0246484) (1 + 0.0246484)3 = 2.914 101.5295 βπππππ +0.2% d) π΄= π΅= πππππ βπ = − 1+π × π· = − 1+0.026 × 1.981 = −0.3862% βπππππ βπ +0.2% =− ×π· =− × 2.914 = −0.5688% πππππ 1+π 1 + 0.0246 New YTM of A= 2.6%+0.2%=2.8% 2 102 New Price of π΄ = 1+0.028 + (1+0.028)2 = 98.3934 Actual percentage change is 98.3934−98.7734 × 98.7734 100% = −0.3847% New YTM of B= 2.46%+0.2%=2.66% 3 3 103 New Price of π΅ = 1+0.0266 + (1+0.0266)2 + (1+0.0266)3 = 100.9542 Actual percentage change is e) πΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦ = 100.9542−101.5295 × 101.5295 100% = −0.56662% 1 πΆπΉ1 πΆπΉ2 πΆπΉπ [1∗2∗(1+π) 1 +2∗3∗(1+π)2 +β―+π∗(π+1)∗(1+π)π ] (1+π)2 πΆπΉ1 πΆπΉ2 πΆπΉπ + +β―+(1+π) π (1+π)1 (1+π)2 1 2 102 +2∗3∗ [1 ∗ 2 ∗ ] (1 + 0.026)1 (1 + 0.026)2 (1 + 0.026)2 πΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦π΄ = = 5.62 98.7734 βπππππ πππππ = −π·π ∗ βπ + 1 2 ∗ πΆ ∗ βπ2 = −1.981 ∗ 1 1 + 0.026377 ∗ 0.002 + 1 ∗ 5.62 ∗ 0.0022 2 = −0.384% πΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦π΅ = βπππππ πππππ 1 3 3 103 [1 ∗ 2 ∗ +2∗3∗ +3∗4∗ ] 1 + 0.0246 (1 + 0.0246)2 (1 + 0.0246)2 (1 + 0.0246)3 101.5295 = −π·π ∗ βπ + 1 2 ∗ πΆ ∗ βπ2 = −2.914 ∗ 1 ∗ 0.002 + ∗ 10.99 ∗ 0.0022 1 + 0.0246484 2 = −0.5666% 1 a) Risk-free asset payoff π΄ππ = (1) with price πππ ≤ 1 1 b) (1) π1 = 4π1 + 2π2 + 0π3 = 2 (2) π2 = 0π1 + 0π2 + 4π3 = 2 (3) πππ = π1 + π2 + π3 ≤ 1 From (2) π3 = 0.5 From (1) π2 = 1 − 2π1 Plug into (3): πππ = π1 + 1 − 2π1 + 0.5 ≤ 1 −π1 + 1.5 ≤ 1 = 10.99 1 −π1 ≤ −0.5 π1 ≥ 0.5 From (1) π1 = 0.5 − 0.5π2 0.5 − 0.5π2 ≥ 0.5 −0.5π2 ≥ 0 π2 ≤ 0 Price π2 cannot be negative => π2 = 0 π1 = 0.5 π3 = 0.5 πππ = 0.5 + 0 + 0.5 = 1 Price of the second Arrow security if zero. This can provide arbitrage opportunity If we short sell π΄1 and π΄2 , we would receive π1 + π2 = 4 We invest this into 4 risk-free assets and in the next period we receive 4 units no matter what ist he state of the world 4 0 In the future we have liaibilities of π΄1 = (2) and π΄2 = (0) 0 4 In the states 1 and 3 we just have zero profit In the state 2 we have 2 units of profit risklessly c) π΄1 = 4π1 + 2π2 = 2 π΄2 = 4π3 = 1 π΄3 = 1π1 + 1π2 + 1π3 = 1 4π3 = 1 π3 = 1 = 0.25 4 1π1 + 1π2 + 0.25 = 1 1π1 + 1π2 = 0.75 4(0.75 − π2 ) + 2π2 = 2 => 3 − 4π2 + 2π2 = 2 −2π2 = −1 π2 = 0.5 1π1 + 0.5 = 0.75 π1 = 0.25 Risk-free rate is ππ = 1 1 π1 +π2 +π3 − 1 = − 1 = 0% 1 bo I NPV PV a) c1= -(1+r)c0+w1 c1= -1.1c0 +110 Approximately should invest 57 in one project and get 90 in t=1 90 Value of the company after investment= 100 + (1.1 − 57) = 124.8181 b) Rate of return= 120 − 100 1 = 0.2 = 20% 120 Value of the company after investment=Current Value + NPV=100 + ( 1.1 − 100) = 109.0909 c) The two shareholders would agree on the amount of investment only under the conditions of the perfect capital market. The shareholder who wants to consume more today can borrow at 10%, and the shareholder who wants to consume more tomorrow can invest at 10%. d) Shareholder on the left wants to consume approximately 85 today. He must borrow 85-43 = 42 000 EUR at 10% Shareholder on the right wants to consume approximately 40 today. He can lend 43-40 = 3 000 EUR at 10% e) Yes, both would agree but the shareholder on the right most likely would change his optimal consumption a) Variances: π21 = 0.42 = 0.16, π22 = 0.22 = 0.04 Covariances: π1,2 = π1,1 × π1 × π2 = −0.5 ∗ 0.4 ∗ 0.2 = −0.04 ( 0.16 −0.04 −0.04 ) 0.04 b) Portfolio: Expected return: ππ = π€1 π1 + π€2 π2 + (1 − π€1 − π€2 )πππ Variance of portfolio return: ππ2 = π€12 π12 + π€22 π22 + 2π€1 π€2 π1,2 Min ππ2 = π€12 π12 + π€22 π22 + 2π€1 π€2 π1,2 s.t Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ = π€1 π1 + π€2 π2 + (1 − π€1 − π€2 )πππ Where Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ is the required return (investor wants to receive this return, e.g. 10% or 15%) FOCs: πππ2 ππ€1 πππ2 ππ€2 = 2π€1 π12 + 2π€2 π1,2 = 0 = 2π€2 π22 + 2π€1 π1,2 = 0 From (1): π€1 = − π€2 π1,2 π12 Plug into the constraint: Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ = − Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ = − π€2 π1,2 π12 π€2 π1,2 π12 Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ − πππ = − π1 + π€2 π2 + (1 + π€2 π1,2 π12 π1 + π€2 π2 + πππ π1,2 π12 π1 + π2 + Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −π ππ ππ (π1 −πππ )+(π2 −πππ ) π2 1 π€1 = − π1,2 π12 π12 π1 + π€2 π2 + πππ + πππ Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ − πππ = π€2 (− π€2 = − π1,2 π€2 π1,2 (− π1,2 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −π ππ ππ =− π€2 π1,2 π12 π€2 π1,2 πππ π1,2 π12 − − π€2 ) πππ π12 − πππ π€2 − πππ π€2 − πππ ) = π€2 (− π1,2 π12 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ 0.04 (0.08−0.02)+(0.05−0.02) 0.16 )= (π1 −πππ )+(π2 −πππ ) π2 1 (π1 − πππ ) + (π2 − πππ )) = Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −π ππ ππ π2 (π1 −πππ )+(π2 −πππ )π 1 1,2 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ 0.015 = Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ (0.08−0.02)+(0.05−0.02) 0.16 0.04 = Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ 0.18 For example, if Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ = 10%, then π€1 = 0.44 and π€2 = 5.33 and π€ππ = 1 − 0.44 − 5.33 = −4.77 if Μ Μ Μ Μ ππ = 6%, then π€1 = 0.22 and π€2 = 2.66 and π€ππ = 1 − 0.22 − 2.66 = −1.88 (c) Equation for the portfolio frontier: 2 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ Min ππ2 = ( 0.18 a) (100 − π0 ) × 1.06 = π1 π1 = 106 − 1.06π0 Slope of CML is -1.06 c1= -(1+r)c0+w1 c1= -1.06c0 +106 CML=-1.06 2 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ ) π12 + ( 0.015 ) π22 + 2 Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ 0.015 × Μ Μ Μ Μ Μ −0.02 ππ 0.015 π1,2 1 π(π0 , π1 ) = ln(1 + π0 ) + ln(1 + π1 ) 4 ππ 1 = ππ0 π0 + 1 ππ 1 = ππ1 4π1 + 4 - ππ ππ0 ππ ππ1 =− 1 π0 +1 1 4π1 +4 =− 4π1 +4 π0 +1 At the optimum the slope of the indifference curve must be equal to the slope of CML: − 4π1 +4 π0 +1 = −1.06 4π1 + 4 = 1.06(π0 + 1) π1 = 1.06π0 4 + 1.06−4 4 = 0.265π0 − 0.735 Plug into the CML: 0.265π0 − 0.735 = 106 − 1.06π0 1.325π0 = 106.735 π0∗ = 80.55 π1∗ = 20.61 Check: I have 100 and consume 80.55, the rest (100-80.55 = 19.45) is invested at 6%. Next year I receive 20.61 exactly what I want to consume. 1 (b) π(80.55. 20.61) = ln(1 + 80.55) + 4 ln(1 + 20.61) = 5.1695 CML π1 = 106 − 1.06π0 π1 = 50 1) Find π0 from CML 50 = 106 − 1.06π0 1.06π0 = 56 => π0 = 52.8301 2) Find π0 from utility function 1 ln(1 + π0 ) + ln(1 + 50) = 5.1695 4 ln(1 + π0 ) + 0.982956 = 5.1695 ln(1 + π0 ) = 5.1695 − 0.982956 = 4.1865 1 + π0 = π 4.1865 = 65.7921 π0 = 64.7921 The optimality condition is − 4π1∗ +4 π0∗ +1 = −1.06 Check both cases a) In two years we have π΄ = ( 0 420 ) and π΅ = ( ) 420 0 Prices ππ΄ = 180 and ππ΅ = 220 Pure discount bond brings the payoff of π·π΅ = ( 100 ) 100 Price of DB must be such that there is no arbitrage opportunity (based on the law of one price) ππ·π΅ = 100 420 × 220 + 100 420 × 180 = 52.38 + 42.86 = 95.2381 b) i) Annually: 95.2381 × (1 + π)2 = 100 => π = ( 100 ) 0.5 95.2381 − 1 = 2.4695% 4 π ii) Semi-annually: 95.2381 × (1 + ) = 100 => π = 2 × [( 2 iii) Monthly: 95.2381 × (1 + π 12 ) 24 = 100 => π = 12 × [( iv) Continuously: 95.2381 × π 2π = 1 00 => π 2π = lim (1 + π→∞ π π ) π×π 100 95.2381 1 4 100 95.2381 ) − 1] = 2.4544% 1 24 100 95.2381 ) − 1] = 2.4420% => 2π = ln 100 95.2381 => π = 2.4395% = π ππ c) Assume there are three asset prices: π1 , π2 and π3 Discrete returns: π2 = π2 −π1 π1 , π3 = π3 −π2 π2 , average return πΜ = √π2 × π3 , discrete returns are not additive π π π2 +π3 π1 π2 2 Cont. returns: π2 = ln ( 2), π3 = ln ( 3) , average return πΜ = , cont returns are additive With the help of additivity we can compute variances, covariances and other statistical characteristics of the asset returns a) πΆπ΅1 = 3 1+0.02 103 + (1+0.02)2 = 2.94 + 99 = 101.94 πΆπ΅2 = 100 = 82.03 1.0210 3 103 +2∗ 2.94 99 1 + 0.02 (1 + 0.02)2 = 1× +2× = 0.02884 + 1.942319 = 1.97 101.94 101.94 101.94 1∗ π·1 = π·2 = 100 1.0210 10∗ 82.03 = 10 b) π = 20 × 101.94 + 30 × 82.03 = 2038.8 + 2460.9 = 4499.7 π·π = π€1 × π·1 + π€2 × π·2 = 2038.8 4499.7 × 1.97 + 2460.9 4499.7 × 10 = 0.8926 + 5.4690 = 6.3616 c) At t = 10 πΉπ = 20 × (3 × 1.029 + 103 × 1.028 ) + 30 × 100 = 5485.32 or πΉπ = 4499.7 × 1.0210 At t = 6.36 πΉπ = 20 × (3 × 1.025.36 + 103 × 1.024.36 ) + 30 × 100 1.0210−6.36 = 5103.85 or πΉπ = 4499.7 × 1.026.36 d) Sketch discuss later e) 3 103 +2∗ 1 + 0.025 (1 + 0.025)2 = 1.95 101.94 1∗ π·1 = π·2 = 100 1.02510 10∗ 82.03 = 9.52 Price change π·π = π€1 × π·1 + π€2 × π·2 = 2038.8 4499.7 × 1.95 + 2460.9 4499.7 × 9.52 = 0.8835 + 5.2065 = 6.09 NPV I PV a) πππππππ‘1 = 42 30 − 1 = 0.4 = 40% πππππππ‘2 = 21 − 1 = 0.05 = 5% 20 πππππππ‘3 = 52 − 1 = 0.4 = 4% 50 b) π΄π£πππππ πππ‘π’ππ = 115 100 − 1 = 0.15 = 15% max amount can consume today: 100 max amount of consumption in t=1: 115 c) Should invest in project 1 (invest 30 and get 42) since rate of return higher than interest rate NPV = 42/1.1 - 30 PV = 42/1.1 d) (π€0 − π0 ) × (1 + π) = π1 (π€0 − π0 ) × (1 + π) = π1 π€0 = 100 + πππ = 100 + ππ − πΌ (π€0 − π0 ) × (1 + 0.1) = π1 Assume we do not know what is π€0 We know that the point π0 = 70 and π1 = 42 belongs to the CML 42 (π€0 − 70) × 1.1 = 42 => π€0 = + 70 = 108.18 1.1 π€1 = 108.18 × 1.1 = 119 π1 = 119 − 1.1π0 Max amount today: If π1 = 0, π0 = 119 1.1 = 108.18 Max amount tomorrow: If π0 = 0, π1 = 119 e) 119 − 1.1π0 = π1 ππ 1 = ππ0 π0 + 1 ππ 1 = ππ1 10π1 + 10 - ππ ππ0 ππ ππ1 =− 1 π0 +1 1 10π1 +10 =− 10π1 +10 π0 +1 = −1.1 10π1∗ + 10 = 1.1(π0∗ + 1) 10(π1∗ + 1) = 1.1(π0∗ + 1) (π1∗ + 1) = π1∗ = 1.1(π0∗ +1) 10 1.1(π0∗ +1) − 10 1 π1∗ = 0.11π0∗ + 0.11 − 1 = 0.11π0∗ − 0.89 Plug into CML: 119 − 1.1π0∗ = 0.11π0∗ − 0.89 1.1π0∗ + 0.11π0∗ = 119 + 0.89 1.21π0∗ = 119.89 π0∗ = 119.89 1.21 = 99.08 π1∗ = 0.11 × 99.08 − 0.89 = 10 Need to borrow 99.08 – (100 – 30) = 29.08 in period 0 Investor has 100 today Invest 30 into the project that brings tomorrow 42 The rest amount (100- 30) he consumes today Additionally he borrows 29.08 today and in total consumes 70 + 29.08 = 99.08 Tomorrows comes and he receives 42. But he must repay 29.08*1.1 = 32. He can consume tomorrow only 42 – 32 = 10 a) 1 year forward rate t=1 (1 + π1 )(1 + π1,1 ) = (1 + π2 )2 π1,1 = (1 + 0.00323)2 − 1 = 0.0059 = 0.59% 1 − 0.00053 5-year forward rate t=2 5 (1 + π2 )2 (1 + π5,2 ) = (1 + π7 )7 1 π5,2 (1 + 0.01153)7 5 =( ) − 1 = 0.0149 = 1.49% (1 + 0.00323)2 t=10 5 (1 + π10 )10 (1 + π5,10 ) = (1 + π15 )15 1 π5,10 (1 + 0.01678)15 5 =( ) − 1 = 0.0213 = 2.13% (1 + 0.01452)10 t=15 5 (1 + π15 )15 (1 + π5,15 ) = (1 + π20 )20 1 π5,15 (1 + 0.01745)20 5 =( ) − 1 = 0.1011 = 10.11% (1 + 0.01678)15 t=20 5 (1 + π20 )20 (1 + π5,20 ) = (1 + π25 )25 1 π5,20 (1 + 0.01637)25 5 =( ) − 1 = 0.1577 = 15.77% (1 + 0.01745)15 t=25 5 (1 + π25 )25 (1 + π5,25 ) = (1 + π30 )30 1 π5,25 (1 + 0.01673)30 5 =( ) − 1 = 0.0961 = 9.61% (1 + 0.01637)25 b) ? Ρ) d) 3 1−0.00053 3 1+0.00595 3 103 3 103 + (1+0.00323)2 + (1+0.00603)3 = 107.14 + (1+0.00595)2 + (1+0.00595)3 = 107.13 a) A4 can be a call option on A1 with strike 130 A4 can be a call option on A3 with strike 80 A5 can be a put option on A1 with strike 130 A5 can be a put option on A3 with strike 80 b) On the left hand side of the equation we have price of call (c) and price of bond with the face value of K Their future payoffs are: max{S1 – K, 0} + K = max{S1, K} On the right hand side we have price of put (p) and price of stock (S0) Their future payoffs are: max{K – S1 ,0} + S1 = max {K, S1} Since the payoffs are equal, prices of two portfolios must also be equal (call + bond and stock + put) a) π0 = 2 − πΌ => πΌ = 2 − π0 1 1 1 5 5 5 π1 = (2 − π0 )(4 + 2 − (2 − π0 )) = (2 − π0 )(4 + π0 ) = (8 − 2π0 − π02 ) a) π΄ = 4 1+π1 104 + (1+π 2 2) = 103.845 π΅= 2 102 + = 99.981 1 + π1 (1 + π2 )2 πΆ= 5 105 105 + + = 100.363 2 (1 + π3 )3 1 + π1 (1 + π2 ) π·= 100 = 62.275 (1 + π7 )7 Subtract (B) from (A): 103.845 − 99.981 = 3.864 = 4 2 104 102 − + − 1 + π1 1 + π1 (1 + π2 )2 (1 + π2 )2 2 2 + 1 + π1 (1 + π2 )2 2 2 = 3.864 − (1 + π2 )2 1 + π1 Plug into B 3.864 − 2 102 + = 99.981 (1 + π2 )2 (1 + π2 )2 3.864 + 102 = 99.981 (1 + π2 )2 100 = 96.117 (1 + π2 )2 1 (1 + π2 )2 100 2 =( ) − 1 = 0.019999 96.117 π2 = 2% 2 2 = 3.864 − (1 + 0.02)2 1 + π1 2 = 1.922 1 + π1 1 + π1 = 1.04 => 0.04 π1 = 4% 5 5 105 + + = 100.363 1 + 0.04 (1 + 0.02)2 (1 + π3 )3 105 = 100.363 − 9.613 (1 + π3 )3 1 105 3 π3 = ( ) − 1 = 0.05 = 5% 90.75 1 100 100 7 62.275 = => π7 = ( ) − 1 = 0.07 = 7% 7 (1 + π7 ) 62.275 π1 = 4%, π2 = 2% π3 = 5% π7 = 7% Forward rate from t=3 to t=7 4 (1 + 0.05)3 ∗ (1 + π1,4 ) = (1 + 0.07)7 4 (1 + π1,2 ) = (1 + 0.07)7 (1 + 0.05)3 1 π1,4 = 1.387134 − 1 = 0.08524 ≈ 8.5% b) πΉπππ πππππ = 4 1+0.04 + 4 (1+0.02)2 + 104 (1+0.05)3 = 3.8462 + 3.8447 + 89.84 = 97.5299 This bond is overpriced by the market We can short sell this bond at 100 now Split this amount into three parts: Invest 3.8462 at 4% for 1 year 3.8447 at 2% for 2 years 89.84 at 5% for 3 years After 1 year we have 4 and we can pay this amount as an obligation for the bond After 2 years we have 4 and we can pay After 3 years we have 104.001 and we an pay There is a risk-free profit 0.001 from each bond c) π΄ = 4 104 1+πππ Denote + (1+πππ)2 = 103.845 1 1+πππ =π₯ 4π₯ + 104π₯ 2 − 103.845 = 0 π₯1 = −4+√4 2 −4×104×(−103.845) 2×104 = 0.9802 π₯2 = −4−√4 2 −4×104×(−103.845) 2×104 < 0 => Not accepted 1 1+πππ = 0.9802 => πππ = 1 − 0.9802 4 π·= [1 ∗ 1 + 0.0202 + 2 ∗ π·π = 104 (1 + 0.0202)2 103.845 4 104 +2∗ ] 1+0.0202 (1+0.0202)2 [1∗ d) ) π·π· = 103.845 100 (1+0.07)7 7∗ 62.275 1 = 2.02% ] = 1.9622 1 1 ∗ (1+0.0202) = 1.9622 ∗ (1+0.0202) = 1.9233 = 6.9 1 100 [6 ∗ 7 ∗ ] (1 + 0.07)2 (1 + 0.07)7 πΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦ = = 36.684 62.275 βπ π·πππππ ππ’πππ‘πππ = π· ∗ ( )∗π 1+π π·ππππππ·π’πππ‘πππ = 6.9 ∗ 0.005 ∗ 62.275 = 2.008 1 + 0.07 Price change with dollar duration? π·ππππππΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦ = πΆ ∗ ππππ‘πππ π 1 π·πππππ πππππ πβππππ = ∗ π·ππππππΆπππ£ππ₯ππ‘π¦ ∗ βπ 2 2 π·πππππ πππππ πβππππ = 1 ∗ 36.684 ∗ 0.0052 = 0.000459 ≈ 0.0459% 2 Sharpe’s ratio: SR for A: SR for B: SR for C: (ππ −ππ ) ππ 10%−2% 8% 20%−2% 10% 8%−2% 5% =1 = 1.8 = 1.4 The best portfolio would consist or both investors from the risk-free asset and asset B If there is a risk-free asset, investors are looking for the investment where (ππ −ππ ) ππ is maximized