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EVALUATIVE EXAM
COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING
May 2021 Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination Review
NAME:
1. The nurse teaches the public that a threat in the
community health with regard to communicable disease
because there are bacteria that are resistant to
antibiotic. Resistant means
A. Does not participate widely in the community
activity
B. Does not have enough strength to kill bacteria.
C. Antibiotics have no effect on the bacteria.
D. The antibiotic has no therapeutic effect to the
bacteria.
2. A father who joined the forum, asked the nurse on
what possible reasons why bacteria becomes resistant?
A. They grow and mutate only, as natural
selection.
B. Unnecessary use and prescription of the nurse.
C. Use of antibiotics in animal feed
D. When a person becomes weak.
3. If investigators find cases find cases of infection
occurring occasionally and irregularly with no specific
pattern, this can be considered as?
A. Sporadic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Tectonic
4. When a disease is present in a population or
community at all times, it is
A. Sporadic
B. Endemic
C. Epidemic
D. Pandemic
5. Who study the microorganism and its effect to the
body?
A. Microbiologist
B. Epidemiologist
C. Immunologist
D. Therapist
6. E. coli is common inside the human body. The
mother asked the public nurse if this could not cause
disease. The best response of the nurse is
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A. Yes, it will never cause disease.
B. Since it is normal in our body, we are already
used to it.
C. Yes, since it is bacteria, it will have effect on our
body some other time.
D. If present on other part of the body, it may
cause infection
7. There are how many links in the fragile chain of
infection?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
8. A client sneezes in front of the nurse. The nurse
noted very small secretions expelled in the air and
eventually settled on the bed linens. This mode of
transmission is considered as
A. Direct contact, since the nurse is present
B. Vector borne
C. Airborne
D. Droplet
9. A student nurse asked the nurse on duty, to what is
the best barrier or defense against infection?
A. Informing or educating, since this serves as
primary prevention.
B. Immune system, since it gives us protection
against infections.
C. Universal precautionary measures, like
wearing gloves and hand washing.
D. Skin is the best barrier against infection.
10. The mother asked the nurse, to what type of
immunity is the most effective and long lasting?
A. Active immunity
B. Natural active immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Passive immunity
11. When antibodies are passed from mother to the
infant through breast-feeding. This is considered as
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
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C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
12. Which intervention should the nurse urge a client
with a cold to use to avoid spreading the infection to
other family member?
A. “Wash your hands after blowing your nose
or sneezing.”
B. “Use a dishwasher or boiling water to clean all
dishes and utensils you have used.”
C. “Have the other members of your family wear
masks until all cold manifestations have subsided.”
D. “Humidify the air in your home with a humidifier
or by running hot shower water to produce steam.”
13. The client, a 70-year-old woman who has mild
congestive heart failure, asks when she should get a flu
shot. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “If you got a flu shot last year, you need to
make sure that you get the new shot exactly 1 year
later.”
B. “You should get a flu shot early in the fall
so that you make enough antibodies before
the flu season arrives.”
C. “Since we don’t know if the flu will come this
year, you should wait until an outbreak of flu in our
area is reported.”
D. “Because flu shots are good for five years at a
time, if you got a flu shot last year you do not need
to get another one this year.”
14. A home care nurse is visiting a client with chronic
bronchitis who states that he feels more short of breath
than usual. Which pulmonary assessment finding alerts
the nurse to the possibility of pneumonia in this client?
A. Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
B. Shallow respirations of 32 per minute
C. Percussion is dull in the left lower lobe
D. Wheezes are audible over the right and left
bronchi
15. Which person is at greatest risk for developing a
“community-acquired” pneumonia?
A. The 40-year-old first-grade teacher
B. The 60-year-old smoker who is also an
alcoholic
C. The 75-year-old with exercise-induced wheezing
D. The 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips
meals and eats only vegetables
16. Which person is a greatest risk for developing
nosocomial pneumonia?
A. The 60-year-old client receiving
mechanical ventilation
B. The 40-year-old client receiving antibiotics for a
surgical wound infection
C. The 60-year-old client in traction for a fractured
femur who also has a cold
D. The 40-year-old client with type 2 diabetes who
has a 50 pack-year smoking history
17. Which set of arterial blood gas values indicates early
pneumonia as the respiratory problem?
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A. pH 7.35, HCO3¯22 mEq/L, PCO2 45 mm
Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg
B. pH 7.30, HCO3¯22 mEq/L, PCO2 60 mm Hg,
PO2 92 mm Hg
C. pH 7.32, HCO3¯17 mEq/L, PCO2 25 mm Hg,,
PO2 98 mm Hg
D. pH 7.30, HCO3¯28 mEq/L, PCO2 62 mm Hg,
PO2 75 mm Hg
18. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis or
collaborative problem for the client with pneumonia?
A. Deficit Fluid Volume
B. Disturbed Sleep Pattern
C. Ineffective Airway Clearance
D. Potential for Pleural Effusion
19. Which person is at greatest risk for developing Drug
Resistant Streptococcus Pneumonia (DRSP)?
A. The 40-year-old registered nurse who works fulltime as a scrub nurse in an ambulatory surgical
center.
B. The 70-year-old woman living with her 4year-old grandson who attends day care 3
days per week.
C. The 50-year-old woman with seasonal asthma
who lives with three teenage children
D. The 60-year-old welder who smokes three packs
of cigarettes per day
20. Which intervention should the nurse implement for
the older client with Ineffective Airway Clearance as a
result of pneumonia?
A. Incentive spirometry 5 to 10 breaths per
session every hour while awake
B. Chest physiotherapy every 4 hours while awake
C. Positioning the client on the unaffected side
D. Oxygen at 45 L/minute by nasal cannula
21. The older client with a chronic respiratory problems
tells the nurse that she doesn’t need the pneumococcal
vaccination because she has already had a flu shot this
year. What is this nurse’s best response?
A. “You are right. A major risk factor for getting
pneumonia is infection with influenza.”
B. “That’s great. Now you are fully protected
against infectious respiratory problems for this
year.”
C. “The flu shot protects you against some
viruses that cause influenza but does not
protect you against bacteria that cause
pneumonia. You need both types of shots.”
D. “Although you have some protection, it would
still be best to get the pneumococcal vaccination so
you would be less like to be a carrier and infect
other people.”
22. Which clinical manifestation in an older client with
pneumonia indicates that the disease is responding to
the therapeutic regimen?
A. The client does not have a cough
B. Urine output is 900 mL for the day
C. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen
saturation of 90%
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D. Tactile fremitus is increased over the affected
lung fields
23. The client who has had repeated episodes of
pneumonia is attempting to stop cigarette smoking with
the use of a nicotine patch. What specific instructions
regarding this therapy should the nurse tells the client?
A. “Abruptly discontinuing this patch can cause
high blood pressure.”
B. “Abruptly discontinuing this patch can cause
nausea and vomiting.”
C. “Smoking while using this patch increases the
risk for pneumonia.”
D. “Smoking while using this patch increases
the risk for a heart attack.”
24. The client with hospital-acquired (nosocomial)
pneumonia caused by a bacterial infection with gramnegative microorganism is receiving treatment with
intravenous amikacin (Amikin). In addition to frequent
respiratory assessment, what other assessment should
the nurse routinely perform to identify a common
complication of this medication?
A. Monitor urine output every shift
B. Perform neuro checks every 2 hours
C. Examine the stool and vomitus for the presence
of blood
D. Monitor the complete white blood cell count and
differential daily
25. Which person is greatest risk for contracting SARS?
A. The 30-year-old nurse providing direct
care to clients with SARS
B. The 50-year-old farmer working directly with
cows and pigs
C. The 60-year-old client with type 2 diabetes
mellitus and renal insufficiency
D. The 70-year-old client residing in an assisted
living environment
26. The client with manifestations of respiratory
infection is suspected of having SARS. In addition to
standard precautions, what other infection control
precautions should the nurse use until the diagnosis is
certain?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions and contact
precautions
D. Droplet precautions and contact precautions
27. Which diagnostic indicator confirms the presence of
active tuberculosis?
A. Positive PPD test
B. The presence of calcified lesions on chest x-ray
C. The presence of M. tuberculosis in a
sputum culture
D. The combined clinical manifestations of weight
loss, night sweats, fever, and cough productive of
mucopurulent bloody sputum
28. The client with tuberculosis asks his nurse when he
will be considered noninfectious. What is the nurse’s
best response?
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A. “When your PPD test is negative.”
B. “When your chest x-ray shows resolution of the
lesions.”
C. “When you have been on the medication at least
6 weeks.”
D. “When you have three negative sputum
cultures in a row.”
29. The 95-year-old nursing home resident has a
productive cough, fever, chills, and a history of night
sweats. The client’s PPD test is negative. What is the
nurse’s best action related to infection prevention?
A. Use standard precautions alone because the
client does not have tuberculosis
B. Use standard precautions and airborne
precautions because the client has tuberculosis
C. Use standard precautions and airborne
precautions until a chest x-ray shows the
client does not have tuberculosis
D. Use airborne precautions alone because the
client is taking penicillin therapy for another
respiratory infection
30. How long is the usual course of drug treatment for a
client with active tuberculosis (TB)?
A. 7 to 10 days
B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 2 years
31. The client with active tuberculosis has started
therapy with isoniazid and rifampin. He reports that his
urine now has an orange color. What is the nurse’s best
action?
A. Document the report as the only action
B. Obtain a specimen for culture
C. Test the urine for occult blood
D. Notify the physician
32. Mr. Ubo was admitted with a diagnosis of
tuberculosis (TB). Which would most likely confirm
Mr. Ubo’s diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Creatinine kinase (CK) test
B. Chest X-ray
C. Sputum smear and culture
D. White blood cell count
33. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect
in a patient with TB?
A. Hemoptysis and weight gain
B. Drug cough and blood – streaked sputum
C. Productive cough and afternoon elevated
temperature
D. Night sweats and urticaria
34. The TB diagnosis is confirmed, and Mr. Ubo is put
on respiratory isolation. Mr. Ubo asks why this is
necessary. The nurse should explain that:
A. TB like other respiratory infections
B. TB is admitted via inhalation of droplets
containing diseased nuclei
C. Persons who have been exposed to TB are
sensitized
D. Close contact is necessary for TB transmission
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35. The name for a comprehensive strategy which
primary health services around the world is using to
detect and cure Tb patients:
A. National TB Program
B. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course
(DOTS)
C. Center for Communicable Diseases
D. International TB Control Organization
36. Case Finding of TB by the DOH uses primarily which
diagnostic tests:
A. Chest x-ray and sputum exam
B. Sputum exam and Tuberculoses Test
C. Tuberculosis test and Mantoux test
D. Tuberculin test and chest x-ray
37. Under category I of the new TB treatment program
of the DOH (DOTS) which of the following T.B. patients
are eligible:
A. New TB patients who are sputum positive
B. Relapse TB cases and other cases
C. New TB patients who are sputum negative and
not serious extrapulmonary cases
D. New pulmonary cases with chest x-ray result of
minimal PTB
38. Which of the following is not a role of DOTS
advocate:
A. shares experiences and accomplishments in
terms of cure and referral to TB network
B. Disseminate right information on TB through
available information, Educative and Communication
(IEC) campaign materials
C. Serves as moral support to TB patients and
fellow advocates
D. Provide financial support to indigent TB
patients
39. Ms. Manda Ragat, 22 years old, is admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of infectious hepatitis (Type A).
Bed rest and diagnostic studies are prescribed. An
admission nursing assessment of Ms. Ragat should
reveal which of the following early symptoms of
infectious hepatitis (Type A)?
A. Loss of appetite
B. Ecchymoses
C. Shortness of breath
D. Abdominal distention
40. The nurse should recognize which of the following
factors in Ms. Ragat’s history as most likely to be related
to her diagnosis?
A. Recent recovery from an upper respiratory
infection
B. Being bitten by an insect
C. Contact with a person who was jaundiced
D. Eating home – canned foods
41. The nurse should monitor the results of which of the
following tests to determine the status of Ms. Ragat’s
liver function?
A. Serum transaminase
B. Protein bound iodine
C. Creatinine clearance
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D. Glucose tolerance
42. Bedrest is prescribed for Ms. Ragat. The nurse
should explain that the chief purpose of bedrest is to:
A. Minimize liver damage
B. Reduce the breakdown of fats to
metabolic needs
C. Decrease the circulatory load to reduce cardiac
effort
D. Control spread of disease
43. The nurse is planning care for Ms. Ragat’s
convalescent period. The nurse should expect that Ms.
Ragat will have the most difficulty with:
A. Relieving pain
B. Regulating bowel elimination
C. Maintaining a sense of well being
D. Preventing respiratory complications
44. Chickenpox and herpes zoster (also known as
shingles), are caused by the same viral agent:
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Shigella
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Varicella zoster
45. Ten-year-old Allen is diagnosed with chicken pox.
To prevent the spread of chicken pox among other
children, the school nurse instructs Allen’s mother to
keep him at home until:
A. 24 hours treatment is started
B. Acute symptoms have subsided
C. All vesicular lesions have dried
D. 48 hours after antibiotic treatment
46. Tess, 19 years old, came to the clinic because of
fever and appearance of vesicular skin eruptions on her
chest and face. The physician gave a diagnosis of
chicken pox. The nursing diagnosis to be considered in
the presence of the vesicles is/are the following:
A. Disturbance in body image and
impairment of skin integrity
B. Disturbance in body image
C. Alteration of fluid volume
D. Actual impairment of skin integrity
47. Sixty one percent of the total admissions in San
Lazaro Hospital from January to March 1993 consisted of
measles cases. Knowing this, which of the following
measures would you recommend to reduce the exposure
of other children at high risk?
A. Keeping sick children out of school for at least 4
days after appearance of
the rashes
B. All of these measures
C. A respiratory isolation of patients in hospital
from onset of catarrhal stage through 4th day of
appearance of rashes
D. Immunization of susceptible contacts
48. A viral infection characterized by red blotchy rash
and Koplik’s spots in the mouth is:
A. Rubeola
B. Rubella
C. Chicken pox
D. Mumps
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49. Using live virus vaccines against measles is
contradicted in children receiving corticosteroids or
antineoplastics or irradiation therapy because these
children may:
A. Have had the disease or have been immunize
previously
B. Be unlikely to need this protection during their
shortened life span
C. Be allergic to rabbit serum, which is used as a
basis for these vaccines
D. Be susceptible to infection because of
their depressed immune response
50. Children with measles should be kept from school,
for how many days?
A. 4 days before the rash appear
B. 4 days after the rash appear – 5days
C. 4 days after the Koplik's spots disappear
D. 4 days before the incubation period
51. A client that will be receiving a vaccine for measles
was found to have untreated TB. The nurse should
A. Refer the new case to the doctor
B. Assess the severity of the TB
C. Do not give the vaccine
D. Give the vaccine and anti TB drugs after
52. Mary has received her primary immunizations, so her
mother asks the nurse which ones she should receive
prior to starting kindergarten. The nurse suggests the
following booster doses.
A. DTP, OPV
B. Measles, DTP
C. OPV, rubella
D. DTP, tuberculin test
53. Which of the following statements about diphtheria
is false?
A. Immunity is often acquired through complete
immunization series of diphtheria toxoid.
B. Infants born to immune mothers may be
protected up to 5 months.
C. Diphtheria transmission is increased in the
hospitals, households, schools, and other crowded
area.
D. Recovery from clinical attack is always followed
by a lasting immunity to the disease.
54. Nursing care of the patient with diphtheria should
include the following:
A. Encouragement of fluids
B. Omission of bath in severe cases
C. Planned nursing care to conserve patient’s
energy
D. Early ambulation
55. The nurse should make sure the availability of the
following machine to clients with diphtheria
A. Suction machine
B. Nebulizer
C. ECG machine
D. Pulse oximeter
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56. Mr. Camo has leprosy and is considered contagious
due to its airborne and its contact transmission. What
type of leprosy has the treatment duration of 6-9
months?
A. The infectious type
B. Tuberculoid type
C. Borderline type
D. Lepromatous type
57. The patient with multibacillary leprosy will take
supervised dose of the following drugs for 24 months:
A. Rifampicin, PZA, lamprene
B. Rifampicin, dapsone, lamprene
C. Rifampicin, INH, lamprene
D. Dapsone, INH, lamprene
58. In relation to the public health implications of
gonorrhea diagnosed in a 16-year-old, the nurse should
be most interested in:
A. Finding the client’s contacts
B. Interviewing the client’s parents
C. The reasons for the client’s promiscuity
D. Instructing the client about birth control
measures
59. The nurse teaches a client that gonorrhea is highly
infectious and:
A. Is easily cured
B. Occurs very rarely
C. Can produce sterility
D. Is limited to the external genitalia
60. When a client is diagnosed as having gonorrhea, the
nurse should expect the physician to order:
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Colistin (Cortisporin)
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. Dactinomycin (Actinomycin)
61. A female client is very upset with her diagnosis of
gonorrhea and asks the nurse, “What can I do to
prevent getting another infection in the future? The
nurse is aware that the teaching has been understood
when the client states, “My best protection is to:
A. Douche after every intercourse.”
B. Avoid engaging in sexual behavior
C. Insist that my partner use a condom.”
D. Use a spermicidal cream with intercourse.”
62. In relation to the public health implications of
gonorrhea diagnosed in a 16-year-old, the nurse should
be most interested in:
A. Finding the client’s contacts
B. Interviewing the client’s parents
C. The reasons for the client’s promiscuity
D. Instructing the client about birth control
measures
63. When teaching a client about the drug therapy for
gonorrhea, the nurse should state that it:
A. Cures the infection
B. Prevents complications
C. Controls its transmission
D. Reverses pathologic changes
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64. A client cannot understand how syphilis was
contracted because there has been no sexual activity for
several days. As part of teaching, the nurse explains that
the incubation period for syphilis is about:
A. 48 to 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 6 weeks
D. 4 months
65. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the:
A. Tertiary stage
B. Primary stage
C. Incubation stage
D. Secondary stage
66. The nurse is reviewing Mr. McDonald’s physical
examination and laboratory test. An important finding in
malaria is:
A. Splenomegaly
B. Leukocytes
C. Elevated sedimentation rate
D. Erythrocytes
67. Mr. McDonald asks the nurse how he could have
prevented the disease. The nurse should explain that
prophylaxis for the control of malaria includes:
A. Vaccination
B. Client isolation
C. Prompt detection and effective treatment
D. Antibiotic therapy
68. A serious complication of acute malaria is:
A. Anemia and cachexia
B. Congested lungs
C. Changes in water and electrolyte balance
D. Impaired peristalsis
69. Whenever quinine is used, the nurse should be alert
to symptoms of severe circhonism which include:
A. Tinnitus decreased auditory acuity nausea
B. Deafness, vertigo and severe visual, GI,
and central nervous system disturbances
C. Pruritus, urticarial, and difficulty in breathing
D. Leg cramps, fever, and swollen painful joints
70. Which of the following symptoms are common to
typhoid fever?
A. Rapid Pulse
B. Slow Pulse
C. High Temperature
D. Sub-normal Temperature
71. Complications which may occur in typhoid fever are:
A. Bronchitis
B. Nephrosis
C. Hemorrhage
D. Osteomyelitis
72. General measures to be used in the control of
typhoid fever:
A. Immunization of all milk cows
B. Pasteurization of milk supply
C. Supervision of carrier
D. Rigid inspection of beef sold for human
consumption
73. The portal entry in typhoid fever is the:
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A. Upper respiratory tract
B. Genitourinary tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Skin
74. The most common incubation period of typhoid
fever is:
A. 1 to 7 days
B. 7 to 14 days
C. 14 to 21 days
D. 21 to 28 days
75. Ms. Castro, a 34 year old computer programmer is
admitted to the hospital with a wound that is swollen
and painful. The diagnosis of tetanus is suspected. The
nurse must observe Ms. Castro for a symptom of tetanus
that could be life threatening. The nurse should assess
Ms. Castro for:
A. Muscle rigidity
B. Spastic voluntary muscle contractions
C. Restlessness and irritability
D. Respiratory tract spasms
76. The physician orders additional antibiotic therapy
with ampicillin. After 3 days, Ms. Castro has an urticarial
response. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is
administered to:
A. Destroy histamine in tissues and reverse the
urticarial response
B. Inhibit release of vasoactive substances and
dilate tissue capillaries
C. Metabolize histamine and inhibit release of
substances causing intense itching
D. Compete with histamine for receptors and
interfere with vasodilation
77. Ms. Castro asks the nurse about immunizations
against tetanus. The nurse explains that the major
benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is
that it:
A. Stimulates plasma cells directly
B. Provides high titer of antibodies
C. Provides immediate active immunity
D. Stimulates long–lasting passive immunity
78. A characteristic manifestation of rabies includes:
A. Diarrhea
B. Memory loss
C. Urinary stasis
D. Pharyngeal spasm
79. The primary intervention for a bite from an animal
suspected to have rabies is
A. Assessment of the bitten area
B. Give prompt vaccination
C. Thoroughly wash the bite area
D. Admission in a rabies facility
80. The nurse should do the following nursing actions in
caring a client with rabies on excitation phase?
A. Wearing mask for protection
B. Avoid to be bitten
C. Keep the room well lighted to provide safety
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D. Rotating the injection site for rabies
vaccine
81. The complication of aquiring mumps virus is
A. Neck lymphadenopathy
B. pharyngeal swelling
C. Heart block
D. Orchitis
82. A mother came to the nurse and asked if she could
give which of the following food to her daughter with
Mumps?
A. Her favorite bisquits to relieve her hunger
B. Cold fruit drink to provide her energy and
vitamins
C. Plain cereal food, just make sure they’re
not hot
D. Cold acidic drinks, to relieve swelling
83. The source of infection for mumps virus is
A. Contaminated fishes
B. Airborne through fomites
C. Secretion of the mouth and nose
D. Direct inoculation with the skin
84. Falariasis infection needs immunochromatographic
test for accurate detection and this should be done in
the
A. Acute stage of infection
B. Chronic stage of infection
C. Same night of being bitten
D. Can be done at day time
85. Select all that apply in preventing filariasis.
1. Environmental sanitation
2. Wearing jackets and socks
3. Use of mosquito nets
4. Planting neem tree
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 , 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. A client with positive microfilariae in the blood can
be given with
A. Ampcillin
B. Praziquantel
C. Hetrazan
D. Quinine
87. Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing
responsibility and controlling it’s spread is a priority once
outbreak has been observed. An important role of the
community health nurse in the prevention and control of
Dengue H-fever includes:
A. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping
water containers covered
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B. Conducting strong health education
drives/campaign directed towards proper garbage
disposal
C. Explaining to the individuals, families,
groups and community the nature of the
disease and its causation
D. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides
88. Community health nurses should be alert in
observing a Dengue suspect. The following is NOT an
indicator for hospitalization of H-fever suspects?
A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting
B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Cough of 30 days
D. Persistent headache
89. The community health nurses primary concern in the
immediate control of hemorrhage among patients with
dengue is:
A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. Providing warmth through light weight covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs
leading to shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest
90. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a
truly positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever?
A. Prolonged bleeding time
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within
1cm square
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
91. Which of the following is the most important
treatment of patients with Dengue H-fever?
A. Give aspirin for fever
B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient
D. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena
92. A client suspected pertussis is highly communicable
during
A. The appearance of first symptom
B. Convalescent stage
C. Paroxysmal stage
D. Catarrhal stage
93. The following are possible complications of
whooping cough.
1. Conjunctival hemorrhage
2. Rerinal dettachment
3. Epistaxis
4. Rectal prolapsed
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. The nurse is providing health education regarding
the meal plan for the child with pertussis. The meal plan
should be
A. DAT: Favorite sweets
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B. Soft diet: Cold ice cream as tolerated
C. Small frequent feedings
D. Therapeutic biscuits with vitamins
95. The nurse instructed the visitors not to cuddle and
let the child play always. The visitor asked why, the
nurse best reply?
A. So that you will not be infected too
B. So that the child can rest
C. So that the child will not be prone to other
infections
D. So that you will not harbor the
microorganism when you cuddle him
96. When doing your information drive about bacillary
dysentery, you should inform the public on which of the
following information? EXCEPT
A. Housefly as the major vector
B. Transmission occurs by eating contaminated
food
C. It has an incubation period of 1- 4 days.
D. This is also called as Shigellosis
97. When a mother came to the BHC and told the nurse
that his son might be suffering with dysentery, the nurse
should ask which of the following question to increase
the suspicion of dysentery?
A. Did he had a recent travel?
B. Does he have any mosquito bites?
C. What is the color of the stool?
D. What was his latest food eaten?
98. The client complains of spasms in his rectum. This is
known as
A. Diarrhea
B. Catarrhal
C. Tenesmus
D. Coryza
99. As a nurse, you can encourage the S.O of the client
with dysentery to do which of the following actions?
A. Give the stool when he is not busy
B. Encourage the client to ambulate around
the hospital
C. Offer clients all types of food as long as
tolerated
D. Cut the S.O’s long nails
100.
The most common mode of transmission of
hookworm infection is?
A. Ingesting contaminated water only
B. Airborne, infected droplets
C. Direct contact, barefoot
D. Vector borne
TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY INC.
EVAL EXAM - CDN
REFRESHER COURSE
Page 8