Chapter 22: The Child With Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
Evolve Resources for Wong’s Essentials of Pediatric Nursing, 11th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which condition in a child would alert a nurse for increased fluid requirements?
a. Fever
b. Mechanical ventilation
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
ANS: A
Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface
area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be
monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid
overload in children. Increased ICP does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children.
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2. The term melena suggests bleeding from which area of the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Perianal or rectal area
b. Hemorrhoids or anal fissures
c. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract
d. Lower GI tract
ANS: C
Melena is denatured blood from the upper GI tract or bleeding from the right colon. Blood
from the perianal or rectal area, hemorrhoids, or lower GI tract would be bright red.
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3. Which type of dehydration is defined as “dehydration that occurs in conditions in which
electrolyte and water deficits are present in approximately balanced proportion”?
a. Isotonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. All types
ANS: A
Isotonic dehydration is the correct term for this definition and is the most frequent form of
dehydration in children. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds
the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss
in excess of electrolyte loss and is usually caused by a proportionately larger loss of water or a
larger intake of electrolytes. This definition is specific to isotonic dehydration.
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4. An infant is brought to the emergency department with dehydration. Which physical
assessment finding does the nurse expect?
a. Puffy appearance
b. Bradycardia
c. Poor skin turgor
d. Brisk capillary refill
ANS: C
Clinical manifestations of dehydration include poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, and
tachycardia. The infant would have prolonged capillary refill, not brisk.
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5. Which pathogen is the most common cause of diarrhea-associated hospitalization in children?
a. Norovirus
b. Shigella organisms
c. Rotavirus
d. Salmonella organisms
ANS: C
Rotavirus is the most frequent viral pathogen that causes diarrhea in young children. Giardia
(parasite) and Salmonella are bacterial pathogens that cause diarrhea. Shigella is a bacterial
pathogen that is uncommon in the United States.
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6. A child is admitted with bacterial gastroenteritis. Which lab results of a stool specimen
confirm this diagnosis?
a. Eosinophils
b. Occult blood
c. pH less than 6
d. Neutrophils
ANS: D
Neutrophils and red blood cells in stool indicate bacterial gastroenteritis. Protein intolerance
and parasitic infections are suspected in the presence of eosinophils. Occult blood may
indicate pathogens such as Shigella, Campylobacter, or hemorrhagic Escherichia coli strains.
A pH of less than 6 may indicate carbohydrate malabsorption or secondary lactase
insufficiency.
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7. Which therapeutic management treatment is implemented for children with Hirschsprung
disease?
a. Daily enemas
b. Low-fiber diet
c. Permanent colostomy
d. Surgical removal of the aganglionic colon
ANS: D
Most children with Hirschsprung disease require surgical rather than medical management.
Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and
restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative
management may include enemas and low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet, until the child
is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung disease is
usually temporary.
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8. Which clinical manifestation would be suggestive of acute appendicitis?
a. Left upper quadrant pain
b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding
c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating
d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point
ANS: D
Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized, usually periumbilical. The pain localizes
to the right lower quadrant at McBurney point. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and
is extremely painful to the child. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain
that is relieved by eating are not signs of acute appendicitis.
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9. When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse would be alert to recognize that
which condition or symptom is a sign of perforation?
a. Bradycardia
b. Anorexia
c. Sudden relief from pain
d. Decreased abdominal distention
ANS: C
Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation.
Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Anorexia is already a clinical
manifestation of appendicitis. Abdominal distention usually increases.
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10. Which statement is most descriptive of Meckel diverticulum?
a. It is more common in females than in males.
b. It is acquired during childhood.
c. Bright red rectal bleeding.
d. Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.
ANS: C
Bloody stools are often a presenting sign of Meckel diverticulum. It is associated with mild to
profuse intestinal bleeding. It is twice as common in males as in females, and complications
are more frequent in males. Meckel diverticulum is the most common congenital
malformation of the GI tract and is present in 1% to 4% of the general population. The
standard therapy is surgical removal of the diverticulum.
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11. A nurse is admitting a child with Crohn disease and the parents ask the nurse, “How is this
disease different from ulcerative colitis?” Which statement would the nurse make when
answering this question?
a. “With Crohn disease the inflammatory process can involve any part of the GI
tract.”
b. “There is no difference between the two diseases.”
c. “The inflammation with Crohn disease is limited to the colon and rectum.”
d. “Ulcerative colitis is characterized by skip lesions.”
ANS: A
The chronic inflammatory process of Crohn disease involves any part of the GI tract from the
mouth to the anus but most often affects the terminal ileum. Crohn disease involves all layers
of the bowel wall in a discontinuous fashion, meaning that between areas of intact mucosa,
there are areas of affected mucosa (skip lesions). The inflammation found with ulcerative
colitis is limited to the colon and rectum, with the distal colon and rectum the most severely
affected. Inflammation affects the mucosa and submucosa and involves continuous segments
along the length of the bowel with varying degrees of ulceration, bleeding, and edema.
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12. Which is used to treat moderate to severe inflammatory bowel disease?
a. Antacids
b. Antibiotics
c. Corticosteroids
d. Antidiarrheal medications
ANS: C
Corticosteroids, such as prednisone and prednisolone, are used in short bursts to suppress the
inflammatory response in inflammatory bowel disease. Antacids and antidiarrheal
medications are not drugs of choice in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease.
Antibiotics may be used as an adjunctive therapy to treat complications.
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13. Why are bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole prescribed for a child with
a peptic ulcer?
a. Eradicate Helicobacter pylori
b. Coat gastric mucosa
c. Treat epigastric pain
d. Reduce gastric acid production
ANS: A
The drug therapy combination of bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole is
effective in the treatment of H. pylori and is prescribed to eradicate it.
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14. Which is a clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis?
a. Abdominal rigidity
b. Substernal retraction
c. Palpable olive-like mass
d. Marked distention of lower abdomen
ANS: C
Visible gastric peristaltic waves that move from left to right across the epigastrium and weight
loss are observed in pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation or a rounded
abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower
abdomen, is distended.
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15. Which describes an invagination of one segment of bowel within another?
a. Atresia
b. Stenosis
c. Herniation
d. Intussusception
ANS: D
Intussusception occurs when a proximal section of the bowel telescopes into a more distal
segment, pulling the mesentery with it. The mesentery is compressed and angled, resulting in
lymphatic and venous obstruction. Invagination of one segment of bowel within another is the
definition of intussusception, not atresia, stenosis, or herniation.
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16. The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. While waiting for a
radiologist-guided pneumoenema to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown
stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate?
a. Notify practitioner
b. Measure abdominal girth
c. Auscultate for bowel sounds
d. Plan to move forward with procedure.
ANS: A
Passage of a normal brown stool indicates that the intussusception has reduced itself. This is
immediately reported to the practitioner, who may choose to alter the diagnostic-therapeutic
care plan. The first action would be to report the normal stool to the practitioner.
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17. Which is an important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease?
a. Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education.
b. Help child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary.
c. Teach proper hand washing and standard precautions to prevent disease
transmission.
d. Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms.
ANS: A
The main consideration is helping the child adhere to dietary management. Considerable time
is spent explaining to the child and parents about the disease process, the specific role of
gluten in aggravating the condition, and foods that must be restricted. Referral to a nutritionist
would help in this process. The most severe symptoms usually occur in early childhood and
adult life. Dietary avoidance of gluten should be lifelong. Celiac disease is not transmissible
or stress related.
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18. An infant with short bowel syndrome will be discharged home on total parenteral nutrition
(TPN) and gastrostomy feedings. Which would be included in the discharge teaching?
a. Prepare family for impending death.
b. Teach family signs of central venous catheter infection.
c. Teach family how to calculate caloric needs.
d. Secure TPN and gastrostomy tubing under diaper to lessen risk of dislodgment.
ANS: B
During TPN therapy, care must be taken to minimize the risk of complications related to the
central venous access device, such as catheter infections, occlusions, or accidental removal.
This is an important part of family teaching. The prognosis for patients with short bowel
syndrome depends in part on the length of residual small intestine. It has improved with
advances in TPN. Although parents need to be taught about nutritional needs, the caloric
needs and prescribed TPN and rate are the responsibility of the health care team. The tubes
should not be placed under the diaper due to risk of infection.
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19. Parents of a child undergoing an endoscopy to rule out peptic ulcer disease (PUD) from H.
pylori ask the nurse, “If H. pylori is found, will my child need another endoscopy to know that
it is gone?” Which is the nurse’s best response?
a. “Yes, the only way to know the H. pylori has been eradicated is with another
endoscopy.”
b. “We can collect a stool sample and confirm that the H. pylori has been eradicated.”
c. “A blood test can be done to determine that the H. pylori is no longer present.”
d. “Your child will always test positive for H. pylori because after treatment it goes
into remission but can’t be completely eradicated.”
ANS: B
An upper endoscopy is the procedure initially performed to diagnose PUD. A biopsy can
determine the presence of H. pylori. Polyclonal and monoclonal stool antigen tests are an
accurate, noninvasive method to confirm H. pylori has been eradicated after treatment. A
blood test can identify the presence of the antigen to this organism, but because H. pylori was
already present, it would not be as accurate as a stool sample to determine whether it has been
eradicated. H. pylori can be treated and, once the treatment is complete, the stool sample can
determine that it was eradicated.
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20. A child has recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) and a dairy-free diet has been prescribed for 2
weeks to rule out which disease or condition?
a. Lactose intolerance
b. Celiac disease
c. Sensitivity to high sugar content
d. Peptic ulcer disease
ANS: A
Treatment for RAP involves providing reassurance and reducing or eliminating symptoms.
Dietary modifications may include removal of dairy products to rule out lactose intolerance.
Fructose is eliminated to rule out sensitivity to high sugar content, and gluten is removed to
rule out celiac disease. A dairy-free diet would not rule out peptic ulcer disease.
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MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A nurse is admitting an infant with biliary atresia. Which are clinical manifestation are typical
in biliary atresia? (Select all that apply.)
a. Jaundice
b. Vomiting
c. Hepatomegaly
d. Absence of stooling
e. Dark urine
ANS: A, C, E
Jaundice is the earliest and most striking manifestation of biliary atresia. It is first observed in
the sclera and may be present at birth but is usually not apparent until age 2 to 3 weeks.
Vomiting is not associated with biliary atresia. Hepatomegaly and abdominal distention are
common but occur later. Stools are large and lighter in color than expected because of the lack
of bile.
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2. Which is correct concerning hepatitis B? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hepatitis B cannot exist in carrier state.
b. Hepatitis B can be prevented by HBV vaccine.
c. Hepatitis B infection can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother.
d. Principal mode of transmission for hepatitis B is fecal-oral route.
e. The average incubation period is 120 days.
ANS: B, E
The vaccine elicits the formation of an antibody to the hepatitis B surface antigen, which is
protective against hepatitis B. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding
mother, especially if the mother’s nipples are cracked. The onset of hepatitis B is insidious.
Immunity develops after one exposure to hepatitis B. Hepatitis B has a carrier state. The
fecal-oral route is the principal mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Hepatitis B is
transmitted through the parenteral route.
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3. A neonatal nurse is planning care for a newborn with known tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF).
Which interventions would the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Positioning with head elevated.
b. Implement feedings after radiographs
c. Nasogastric tube insertion with continuous low wall suction
d. Initiate IV fluids
e. Antibiotic therapy if there is a concern of aspiration
ANS: A, C, D, E
The most desirable position for a newborn who has TEF is supine (or sometimes prone) with
the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. This positioning minimizes the
reflux of gastric secretions at the distal esophagus into the trachea and bronchi, especially
when intra-abdominal pressure is elevated. It is imperative to immediately remove any
secretions that can be aspirated. Until surgery, the blind pouch is kept empty by intermittent or
continuous suction through an indwelling double-lumen or Replogle catheter passed orally or
nasally to the end of the pouch. In some cases, a percutaneous gastrostomy tube is inserted
and left open so that any air entering the stomach through the fistula can escape, thus
minimizing the danger of gastric contents being regurgitated into the trachea. The gastrostomy
tube is emptied by gravity drainage. Feedings through the gastrostomy tube and irrigations
with fluid are contraindicated before surgery in an infant with a distal TEF. A nasogastric tube
to low intermittent suctioning could not be accomplished because the esophagus ends in a
blind pouch in TEF.
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4. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which
prescribed orders would the nurse anticipate implementing? (Select all that apply.)
a. NPO for 24 hours
b. Administration of analgesics for pain
c. Ice bag to the incisional area
d. IV fluids continued until tolerating PO
e. Clear liquids as the first feeding
ANS: B, D, E
Feedings are usually instituted soon after a pyloromyotomy surgery, beginning with clear
liquids and advancing to formula or breast milk as tolerated. IV fluids are administered until
the infant is taking and retaining adequate amounts by mouth. Appropriate analgesics should
be given around the clock because pain is continuous. Ice should not be applied to the
incisional area as it vasoconstricts and would reduce circulation to the incisional area and
impair healing.
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5. A nurse is conducting dietary teaching on high-fiber foods for parents of a school-age child
with constipation. Which would the nurse suggest be implemented in the diet? (Select all that
apply.)
a. White rice
b. Popcorn
c. Beans
d. Bran pancakes
e. Raw carrots
ANS: B, C, D, E
High-fiber foods include popcorn, beans, bran pancakes, and raw carrots. Unrefined (brown)
rice is high in fiber, but white rice is not. Raw fruits, especially those with skins or seeds,
other than ripe banana or avocado, are high in fiber.
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