Название:
Final test Chilhood pathology 6 semester
Автор:
Кожомкулова Медеровна Диана
1.
Wet fine bubbling rales are heard when:
(Один ответ)
A) Pneumonia
B) Rhinitis
C) Tracheitis
D) Larengitis
2.
Communication between the large and small circle of blood circulation in the fetus is carried out:
(Один ответ)
A) Through the Aranza duct
B) Through the ductus botallus
C) Through the umbilical vein
D) Through the portal vein
3.
The central organs of the human immune system are
(Один ответ)
A) Nasopharyngeal tonsil
B) Palatine tonsils
C) Bone marrow
D) Spleen
4.
Physiological involution of the thymus starts from (in years)
(Один ответ)
A) 1 year
B) 30
C) 40
D) 10
5.
The embryonic period lasts:
(Один ответ)
A) Up to 28 weeks of intrauterine development of the fetus
B) Up to day 75
C) Up to day 10
D) Up to 20 weeks
6.
The right lung has:
(Один ответ)
A) 10 segments
B) 9 segments
C) 11 segments
D) 3 segments
7.
In a child, tissue turgor is determined by:
(Один ответ)
A) on the inner surface of the shoulder and thigh
B) on the outer surface of the shoulder and thigh
C) on the anterior surface of the abdominal wall of the abdomen
D) under the shoulder blade
8.
The second "cross" of the number of neutrophils and lymphocytes occurs at the age of:
(Один ответ)
A) 2-3 years
B) 4-5 years
C) 6-7 years
D) 8-9 years
9.
The enzyme of the pancreas is:
(Один ответ)
A) lipase
B) pepsin
C) renin
D) gastrin
10.
Early childhood is the period
(Один ответ)
A) from 1 -7 years old
B) from 3-5 years old
C) from 1-5 years old
D) from 1-3 years old
11.
In diseases of the biliary tract, the following symptom is determined:
(Один ответ)
A) Kerr
B) Mendel
C) Pasternatsky
D) Dombrowskaya's symptom
12.
General hypotension is typical for:
(Один ответ)
A) rickets
B) meningitis
C) myositis
D) peritonitis
13.
For skin coloration in children in the neonatal period, it is characteristic:
(Один ответ)
A) jaundice increases by the 20 th day after birth
B) physiological catarrh of the skin manifests itself in 1 month
C) pallor of the skin in the first days
D) the greatest intensity of jaundice is 2-3 days after birth
14.
Dry skin is noted when:
(Один ответ)
A) cachexia
B) rickets
C) chorea
D) hypothyroidism
15.
The area of shortening of the percussion sound on the side of the presence of exudate is called:
(Один ответ)
A) Garland triangle
B) Rauchfus triangle
C) Traube space
D) Sokolov's triangle
16.
Respiratory rate in a newborn baby in 1 minute:
(Один ответ)
A) 16-18
B) 30-35
C) 40-60
D) 20
17.
With a lesion of the pancreas, a symptom can be detected by palpation
(Один ответ)
A) Mussy
B) Boass
C) Kerr
D) Pain at Desjardin's point
18.
With a lesion of the pancreas, a symptom can be detected by palpation
(Один ответ)
A) Mussy
B) Boass
C) Kerr
D) Pain at Desjardin's point
19.
Excrements in children of the first year of life who are breastfed:
(Один ответ)
A) golden yellow
B) putty
C) brown
D) with a greenish tint
20.
Pain in the pyloroduodenal zone appears when:
(Один ответ)
A) biliary dyskinesia
B) esophagitis
C) pancreatitis
D) gastroduodenitis
21.
Features of the salivary glands at the time of birth:
(Один ответ)
A) morphologically formed, but the secretory function is low
B) morphologically and functionally immature
C) morphologically and functionally mature
D) morphologically unformed and secretory sufficiently developed
22.
In the first year of life, brown adipose tissue is involved in:
(Один ответ)
A) in the processes of water-salt exchange
B) non-shivering thermogenesis
C) energy metabolism
D) carbohydrate metabolism
23.
The first teeth in a child erupt at the age of:
(Один ответ)
A) 2 months
B) 3-4 months
C) 5-6 months
D) 6-7 months
24.
For a newborn child, a feature of the blood coagulation system is characteristic:
(Один ответ)
A) high activity of coagulation factors
B) low activity of coagulation factors
C) the same as in older children
D) the same as that of a one-year-old child
25.
The transition of the esophagus to the stomach in children is located at the level of:
(Один ответ)
A) 10-11 thoracic vertebra
B) 6-7 thoracic vertebra
C) 7-8 thoracic vertebra
D) 1-2 thoracic vertebrae
26.
A feature of the children's skeleton is:
(Один ответ)
A) a large thickness of the periosteum
B) the periosteum is thin
C) bone protrusions are well expressed
D) intraosseous spaces are large
27.
The morphological features of the muscle tissue of children include:
(Один ответ)
A) a large thickness of muscle fibers
B) not a large number of nuclei in muscle cells
C) smaller thickness of muscle fibers
D) a large amount of connective tissue
28.
The respiratory rate of a one-year-old child:
(Один ответ)
A) 40-60 per minute
B) 20-25 per minute
C) 18-20 per minute
D) 30-35 per minute
29.
Increased moisture content of the skin is observed in:
(Один ответ)
A) the initial period of rickets
B) malnutrition
C) poliomyelitis
D) drop in temperature
30.
Deformation of the chest, characteristic of rickets:
(Один ответ)
A) chicken breast
B) protrusion in the region of the heart
C) unilateral chest enlargement
D) unilateral flattening
31.
Early phase of anaphylactic reaction appears during
(Один ответ)
A) First 20 minutes
B) 12 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 36 hours
32.
An important feature of the wheals in children with urticaria is the disappearance of the element
within (in hours)
(Один ответ)
A) 1-24
B) 24-72
C) 1-48
D) 1-12
33.
Informative for the diagnostics of occupational bronchial asthma is considered
(Один ответ)
A) Exposure and elimination syndrome of occupational agent
B) Respiratory failure
C) Asthma attacks regardless of the time of day
D) Systemic allergic reactions
34.
Pollen bronchial asthma intensifies
(Один ответ)
A) Year-round, regardless of the season
B) Only in wet weather
C) Seasonal in cold weather
D) Seasonal in spring and summer time
35.
The age of onset of atopic dermatitis, considered its “early onset”, is
(Один ответ)
A) From 2 to 6 years
B) Up to 2 months
C) Up to 2 years
D) 2 to 6 months
36.
Clinical sign of hypovitaminosis B in children:
(Один ответ)
A) pallor of the skin
B) skin icterus
C) seizures in the corners of the mouth
D) holazium
37.
Auscultation in asthmatic bronchitis is determined:
(Один ответ)
A) dry wheezing and buzzing rales
B) different-sized moist rales
C) bronchial breathing
D) the sound of a cracked pot
38.
The displacement of the apex beat is noted when:
(Один ответ)
A) peritonitis
B) ascites
C) left ventricular hypertrophy
D) flatulence
39.
In children in the neonatal period, there is:
(Один ответ)
A) swelling of the lymph nodes in the neck
B) multiple swelling of the lymph nodes
C) swelling of the mammary glands
D) swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes
40.
In girls during puberty, the type of breathing prevails:
(Один ответ)
A) chest
B) abdominal
C) thoraco-abdominal
D) diaphragmatic
41.
Characteristics of cardiopulmonary murmurs:
(Один ответ)
A) is associated with breathing
B) increases with pressure with a stethoscope
C) auscultated over the left ventricle
D) is auscultated at the Botkin point
42.
With a SCORAD index value of up to 20 points, the course of atopic dermatitis in children is
determined as:
(Один ответ)
A) Severe
B) Mild
C) Moderate
D) Fatal
43.
Skin tests with drugs are only performed by
(Один ответ)
A) Pulmonologist
B) Allergist
C) Therapist
D) Surgeon
44.
Indicators of humoral immunity are
(Один ответ)
A) IgA, M, G
B) Rosette reaction
C) Lysozyme
D) Lymphocyte blast transformation reaction
45.
Peak flow meter allows you to evaluate
(Один ответ)
A) PEF (peak expiratory flow)
B) FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)
C) VC (vital capacity)
D) Tiffno index
46.
Skin prick testing to diagnose allergy in children is reliable if
(Один ответ)
A) Test control and histamine gave a negative reaction
B) Test control, histamine and allergens gave a negative reaction
C) Test control, histamine and allergens gave a positive reaction
D) Test control gave a negative, and histamine - a positive reaction
47.
With normal spirography and suspected bronchospasm in older children, it is necessary to carry
out
(Один ответ)
A) Bronchodilation test
B) Impulse oscillometry
C) Body plethysmography
D) Exercise test
48.
For disturbance of bronchial conductivity in children is not characteristic in
(Один ответ)
A) Nasal polyposis
B) Swelling of the bronchial mucosa
C) Mucus hypersecretion
D) Spasm of bronchial smooth muscle
49.
Parenchymal jaundice occurs when:
(Один ответ)
A) cholelithiasis
B) hepatitis
C) giardiasis
D) hemolytic disease
50.
A dense liver is palpated with:
(Один ответ)
A) leukemia
B) opisthorchiasis
C) cholelithiasis
D) hepatitis
51.
A retracted abdomen is noted when:
(Один ответ)
A) peritonitis
B) biliary dyskinesia
C) gastritis
D) peptic ulcer
52.
The cause of constipation of a functional nature in children:
(Один ответ)
A) Hirschsprung's disease
B) Megacolon
C) Megasigma
D) Alimentary
53.
Name the period of intrauterine development, which corresponds to the embryonic phase:
(Один ответ)
A) 1-2 months
B) 4-5 months
C) 2-3 months
D) 5-6 months
54.
Name the period of intrauterine development, which corresponds to the phase of placentation:
(Один ответ)
A) from 2 months before birth
B) from 5 months before birth
C) from 3 months before birth
D) from 6 months to birth
55.
The neonatal period is limited by age:
(Один ответ)
A) from 1 to 2 weeks
B) 3 to 4 weeks
C) 4 to 5 weeks
D) up to 10 days
56.
The period of infancy is limited by age:
(Один ответ)
A) up to 6 months
B) up to 8 months
C) up to 10 months
D) up to 12 months
57.
The preschool period is limited by age:
(Один ответ)
A) 3-6 years
B) 4-5 years
C) 5-6 years
D) 1-3 years
58.
For the 2nd stage of osteogenesis - the formation of hydroxyapatite crystallization centers with
subsequent mineralization - the following is of decisive importance:
(Один ответ)
A) vitamin D supply
B) the level of fat
C) the level of parathyroid hormone
D) protein supply
59.
Stage 3 of osteogenesis - remodeling and constant self-renewal of the bone - are regulated by:
(Один ответ)
A) parathyroid glands
B) thyroid gland
C) pancreas
D) sex glands
60.
Stage 3 of osteogenesis - remodeling and constant self-renewal of the bone - depends on:
(Один ответ)
A) the availability of vitamin "A"
B) the availability of vitamin "B"
C) the availability of vitamin "D"
D) the availability of vitamin "C"
61.
The ratio of breathing / pulse in a newborn:
(Один ответ)
A) 1:2
B) 1:4
C) 1:3.5
D) 1:2.5
62.
The structure of the dermis in children is characterized by:
(Один ответ)
A) cellular structure, with a large number of cellular elements
B) fibrous structure with a large number of cellular elements
C) highly developed elastic fibers
D) well-developed elastic fibers
63.
IgE-mediated drug reactions in children appear as
(Один ответ)
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Vasculitis
D) Anaphylaxis
64.
Adaptive immunity factors are
(Один ответ)
A) Immunoglobulins
B) Phagocytes
C) Lysozyme
D) Interferons, complement
65.
Immune complexes in SLE are
(Один ответ)
A) Serum proteins for protective antibacterial purposes
B) Proteins that enhance phagocytosis
C) Antigen-antibody complexes
D) γ-fraction of globular proteins
66.
Evaluation of the efficacy of broncholitic therapy with inhaled short-acting β 2-agonists (SABA) in
the relief of bronchial asthma exacerbation in children is carried out after _____ minutes
(Один ответ)
A) 25
B) 40
C) 30
D) 20
67.
Alternative therapy in the second step treatment of bronchial asthma in children with low-dose
inhaled glucocorticosteroids are
(Один ответ)
A) Long acting β2 agonists
B) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
C) Antihistamines
D) Monoclonal antibodies to IgE
68.
External therapy of atopic dermatitis in children in the exacerbation phase consists in the
application
(Один ответ)
A) Products that improve microcirculation and skin trophism
B) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory creams and ointments
C) Fungicides and regenerating agents
D) Topical glucocorticosteroids
69.
Used in the treatment of atopic dermatitis in children, pimekrolimus is available in the form
(Один ответ)
A) Lipocream
B) Cream
C) Ointment
D) Spray
70.
Diagnostics of autoimmune diseases in children includes the detection of
(Один ответ)
A) Immune complexes
B) Autoantigens
C) Autocytokines
D) Autoantibodies
71.
Acidic urine reaction can occur in healthy children as a result of:
(Один ответ)
A) meat overload
B) drink plenty of water
C) physical overload
D) insufficient fluid intake
72.
In the general urinalysis, the protein is normally:
(Один ответ)
A) necessarily detected
B) not defined
C) increased
D) non-constant value
73.
The functional unit of the kidney is:
(Один ответ)
A) nephron
B) kidney capsule
C) capillaries of the glomerulus
D) kidney parenchyma
74.
Microscopic examination of urine does not determine:
(Один ответ)
A) leukocytes
B) erythrocytes
C) protein
D) salt
75.
Uncharacteristic for atopic dermatitis in children is
(Один ответ)
A) Fatal outcome
B) Chronic relapsing course
C) Presence of periodic exacerbations
D) The presence of age-related features of clinical manifestations
76.
The main place of differentiation and ontogenesis of B-lymphocytes is considered
(Один ответ)
A) The lymph nodes
B) Thymus
C) Bone marrow
D) Spleen
77.
The function of the spleen in the postnatal period does not include:
(Один ответ)
A) erythropoiesis
B) synthesis of immunoglobulins
C) destruction of erythrocytes
D) destruction of platelets
78.
The content of reticulocytes in peripheral blood in the first 24-48 hours of a newborn's life is:
(Один ответ)
A) 1-7%
B) 8-42%
C) 42-50%
D) 1-2%
79.
For the red blood of a newborn is not typical:
(Один ответ)
A) anisocytosis
B) macrocytosis
C) microcytosis
D) reticulocytosis
80.
For anemia it is NOT typical:
(Один ответ)
A) pallor of the skin
B) pallor of mucous membranes
C) tachycardia
D) hemorrhagic rash
81.
For the hematopoietic system of the newborn is NOT typical:
(Один ответ)
A) functional lability
B) functional stability
C) slight vulnerability
D) the possibility of returning to the embrionic type of hematopoiesis
82.
White blood cell (WBC) count at birth:
(Один ответ)
A) 4-5x109
B) 7-10x109
C) 18-20x109
D) 20-30x109
83.
The content of hemoglobin A in peripheral blood at the time of birth is:
(Один ответ)
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
84.
Time of occurrence of lymphopoiesis:
(Один ответ)
A) 1st month of intrauterine development
B) 2nd month of intrauterine development
C) 3rd month of intrauterine development
D) 4th month of intrauterine development
85.
The color index of the blood in the first 10 days of life is:
(Один ответ)
A) 0.9
B) 1.0
C) 1.2
D) 1.4
86.
The term "oliguria" means:
(Один ответ)
A) an increase in the daily amount of urine
B) decrease in the daily amount of urine
C) violation of the rhythm of urine excretion
D) the predominance of nighttime diuresis over daytime
87.
The number of reticulocytes in blood in the first 5-7 days of a child's life:
(Один ответ)
A) progressively decreases
B) rises sharply
C) completely disappears
D) after an initial decline, it rises again
88.
Absolute contra-indication for the introduction of live viral vaccines if child has:
(Один ответ)
A) Immunodeficiency
B) Anemia
C) Congenital malformation
D) Intestinal dysbacteriosis
89.
According to the conclusion of which specialist children with recurrent bronchitis removed from
the register?
(Один ответ)
A) allergist
B) pulmonologist
C) pediatrician
D) surgeon
90.
Blood eosinophilia is identified in:
(Один ответ)
A) Frontitis
B) Acute purulent sinusitis
C) Allergic bronchitis
D) Acute rhinosinustitis
91.
What control studies are carried out for children with bronchial asthma in the interictal period?
(Один ответ)
A) ECG
B) Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
C) Complete blood count (CBC)
D) Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), Complete blood count (CBC)
92.
Infection transmitted by the mother of the child during pregnancy may be a risk factor
(Один ответ)
A) pathology of the central nervous system, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection,
trophic disorders
B) intrauterine infection
C) trophic disorders
D) intrauterine infection, trophic disorders
93.
How often should anthropometry be performed on a child in the 1st year of life?
(Один ответ)
A) 1 time in 6 months
B) 1 time per month
C) 1 time per week
D) 1 time in 3 months
94.
How often should a child's physical development be assessed in the 1st year of life?
(Один ответ)
A) 1 time per month
B) 1 time per week
C) 1 time in 3 months
D) 1 time per year
95.
How often should a child's psychomotor development be assessed in the first year of life?
(Один ответ)
A) 1 time in 6 months
B) 1 time per month
C) 1 time in 3 months
D) 1 time per year
96.
Until what age can the large fontanel be palpated in a child
(Один ответ)
A) up to 7 years
B) under 18 years old
C) up to 12-18 months
D) up to 5 years
97.
The average heart rate of a newborn is:
(Один ответ)
A) 110-140 bpm
B) 60-80 bpm
C) 80-100 bpm
D) 160- 180 bpm
98.
The average respiratory rate in a newborn is:
(Один ответ)
A) 30 - 40 per minute
B) 20 - 30 per minute
C) 40 - 50 per minute
D) 60 - 70 per minute
99.
The timing of the introduction of the first complementary foods with mixed feeding in infants
(Один ответ)
A) 5-5.5 months
B) 4-4.5 months
C) 4.5-5 months
D) 6-6.5 months
100.
For supplementary feeding with mixed feeding in infants, it is preferable to use:
(Один ответ)
A) adapted mixtures
B) non-adapted mixtures
C) whole milk
D) medicinal mixtures
101.
The protein fraction that prevails in cow's milk:
(Один ответ)
A) casein
B) globulin
C) albumin
D) lactoglobulin
102.
In children breakdown of carbohydrates at the level of the small intestine occurs to the form of:
(Один ответ)
A) monosaccharides
B) disaccharides
C) polypeptides
D) dextrins
103.
In children breakdown of proteins at the level of the small intestine occurs to the stage of:
(Один ответ)
A) amino acids
B) disaccharides
C) polypeptides
D) dextrins
104.
In children breakdown of fat at the level of the small intestine occurs to the stage of:
(Один ответ)
A) monoglycerols
B) disaccharides
C) polypeptides
D) dextrins
105.
Increased salivation by the salivary glands in a child occurs to:
(Один ответ)
A) 1-2 months
B) 1 year
C) 3-4 months
D) 2-3 years
106.
An increase in the size of the abdomen in children is NOT observed in:
(Один ответ)
A) malabsorption syndrome
B) megacolon
C) lymphogranulomatosis
D) gastritis
107.
Acute abdomen syndrome in a child is NOT characterized by:
(Один ответ)
A) abdominal pain
B) disturbance of stool discharge
C) Shchetkin-Blumberg positive symptom
D) Shchetkin-Blumberg negative symptom
108.
In a respiratory system foreign body most often enters:
(Один ответ)
A) the upper lobe on the left
B) segment 8
C) segment 10
D) lower lobe of the right lung
109.
Hematuria in a child may be of extrarenal origin due to:
(Один ответ)
A) disturbance of the urination process
B) iron deficiency anemia
C) kidney injury
D) violations of coagulation and thrombosis
110.
Choose a definition for chronic renal failure:
(Один ответ)
A) a condition caused by irreversible loss of functioning nephrons and kidney tissues
B) a condition caused by the restoration of functioning nephrons
C) impaired renal function due to damage to nephrons
D) violation of all functions
111.
The occurrence of congenital heart defects in children is NOT affected by:
(Один ответ)
A) a hereditary factor
B) illness of the mother during pregnancy
C) taking medications during pregnancy
D) malnutrition
112.
Multiple chronic enlargements of lymph nodes in children are typical for:
(Один ответ)
A) syphilis
B) tuberculosis intoxication
C) tonsillitis
D) chronic bronchitis
113.
Skin in a newborn baby is:
(Один ответ)
A) rich in water
B) does not differ in morphological maturity
C) is not covered with vernix caseosa
D) characterized by maturity of local immunity
114.
Breathing in which a weak breath sound is heard above the lung fields in a child is called:
(Один ответ)
A) puerile
B) amphoric
C) tracheal
D) bronchial
115.
For the caecum and appendix in newborns and infants, it is not typical:
(Один ответ)
A) high location of the caecum
B) wide open entrance to the appendix
C) poorly developed elastic layer
D) poorly developed muscle layer
116.
The edge of the liver can be palpated in a child:
(Один ответ)
A) up to 5-7 years
B) up to 1-3 years
C) up to 3-5 years
D) up to 8-10 years
117.
The child's skin does not perform the following function:
(Один ответ)
A) protective
B) hematopoiesis
C) thermoregulation
D) respiratory
118.
Palpation of lymph nodes does NOT evaluate:
(Один ответ)
A) size
B) number
C) mobility
D) transparency
119.
Dense liver is palpable in:
(Один ответ)
A) leukemia
B) opisthorchiasis
C) cholelithiasis
D) hepatitis
120.
The physiological volume of the stomach in a newborn is:
(Один ответ)
A) 50 ml
B) 80 ml
C) 7 ml
D) 3 ml
121.
Which of the following acts can a one year old child perform?
(Один ответ)
A) Sits down from standing position
B) Drinks from cup
C) Speaks one or two words with meaning
D) Rings bell purposefully
122.
Prevention and treatment of iron deficiency anemia
(Один ответ)
A) maltofer
B) diet
C) paracetamol
D) pancreatin
123.
What dose of vitamin D is prescribed to a woman in the last three months of pregnancy?
(Один ответ)
A) 100-200 IU per day
B) 250-500 IU per day
C) 500-1000 IU per day
D) 1000-1500 IU per day
124.
Specific antenatal prophylaxis with vitamin D is not carried out in pregnant women over 35 years
of age with diseases of:
(Один ответ)
A) cardiovascular system
B) respiratory system
C) nervous system
D) urinary system
125.
Specific prevention of rickets is carried out in the 1st year of life
(Один ответ)
A) from 1 month to a year
B) from 2 months to a year
C) from 3 months to a year
D) from 4 months to a year
126.
The prophylactic dose of vitamin D in the 1st year of life is
(Один ответ)
A) 10 IU per day
B) 100 IU per day
C) 400 IU per day
D) 1000 IU per day
127.
In what cases it is possible not to prescribe the prevention of rickets with vitamin D?
(Один ответ)
A) breastfeeding
B) formula feeding with plain formula
C) artificial feeding with an adapted mixture
D) mixed feeding using plain formula
128.
The first complementary foods on breastfeeding are introduced:
(Один ответ)
A) at 5-6 months
B) at 6-7 months
C) at 7-8 months
D) at 8-9 months
129.
The body weight of a child by one year increases:
(Один ответ)
A) 2 times
B) 3 times
C) 4 times
D) 5 times
130.
За первый год жизни ребенок вырастает на:
(Один ответ)
A) 25 см
B) 10 см
C) 15 см
D) 30 см
131.
Head circumference increases on average during the first year of life
(Один ответ)
A) 3cm
B) 5cm
C) 10 cm
D) 15 cm
132.
Puerile breathing heard in children
(Один ответ)
A) early age
B) school age
C) adolescence
D) 2nd period of childhood
133.
Children in the 1st year of life, on average, begin to sit in
(Один ответ)
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
134.
Teeth in the first year of life on average appear:
(Один ответ)
A) from 1 month
B) from 1.5 months
C) from 2 months
D) from 6 months
135.
What is the average number of teeth in a one year old child?
(Один ответ)
A) 3 teeth
B) 4 teeth
C) 5 teeth
D) 8 teeth
136.
A 7 year old boy with reduced height and weight for age for past one year is likely to have
(Один ответ)
A) Glomerulonephritis
B) Lymphoma
C) Chronic infection
D) Measles
137.
Two carpal bones are radiologically seen in the wrist Xray of most of the children by the end of
(Один ответ)
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 4 years
138.
Of the following, which is NOT considered a major Jones criteria for rheumatic fever
(Один ответ)
A) Carditis
B) Erythema Marginatum
C) Subcutaneous Nodules
D) Arthralgia
139.
What can be seen in both bacterial endocarditis and acute rhematic fever
(Один ответ)
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Subcutaneous Nodules
C) Petechiae
D) Erythema Marginatum
140.
If dietary iron is not provided, infants begin to deplete their iron stores by:
(Один ответ)
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
141.
Patients deficient in early complement elements have a susceptiblilty to:
(Один ответ)
A) viruses
B) fungus
C) encapsulated bacteria
D) protozoa
142.
The most common bacterial pathogens for neonatal osteomyelitis are:
(Один ответ)
A) H. influenza,Moraxella catarrhalis and Pneumococcus
B) N. gonnorhea, Bacteroides and Enterobacter
C) Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, S. Aureus
D) Actinomycetes Isralei, Pseudomonas, Peptostreptococcus
143.
With respect to the TORCH infections, neonates usually acquire this infection during delivery
through the birth canal
(Один ответ)
A) Rubella
B) Herpes Simplex
C) Syphilis
D) Trichonosis
144.
A 15 year old boy comes to your office for follow up of his reactive airway disease. He describes
his symptoms as daily and also experiencing nocturnal symptoms approximately 2x per week.
Spirometry performed in your office reveal that his FEV1/ PEFR is 75% of his predicted value.
These results classify his severity of asthma as:
(Один ответ)
A) Severe persistent
B) Moderate persistent
C) Mild persistent
D) Mild intermittent
145.
Bacteriological examination of the pharynx is mandatory for all conditions, with the exception of:
(Один ответ)
A) follicular tonsillitis
B) acute respiratory infection
C) lacunar tonsillitis
D) diphtheria
146.
The incubation period for acute respiratory infection is:
(Один ответ)
A) From several hours to several days
B) At least 7 days
C) 11 – 21 days
D) 7– 9 days
147.
For which disease is always indicated hospitalization of the patient:
(Один ответ)
A) Acute respiratory disease
B) Tonsillitis
C) Measles
D) Meningococcal infection
148.
The presence of a small-spotted rash is characteristic:
(Один ответ)
A) For sore throat
B) For the flu
C) For scarlet fever
D) For chicken pox
149.
Acute infectious diseases of the upper respiratory tract are characterized by:
(Один ответ)
A) Increase in body temperature above 40 degrees
B) The duration of the fever period is more than 7-10 days
C) Fever for no more than 3-5 days
D) Prolonged subfebrile condition
150.
Acute upper respiratory infections are NOT characterized by the presence of:
(Один ответ)
A) Nasopharyngitis
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Decreased appetite in the febrile period
D) Cough
151.
The indication for prescribing an antibiotic for acute respiratory infections is:
(Один ответ)
A) Duration of rhinitis more than 3 days
B) Cough duration more than 3 days
C) Having a wet cough
D) Duration of fever for more than 3 days
152.
What is NOT an indication for hospitalization for acute respiratory infections
(Один ответ)
A) Prolonged febrile condition in an infant
B) The presence of uncontrollable vomiting
C) Complete refusal to eat and drink a baby
D) One-time liquid stool in an infant
153.
The presence of a vesicular rash is characteristic:
(Один ответ)
A) For acute respiratory infection
B) For lacunar tonsillitis
C) For chickenpox
D) For scarlet fever
154.
The presence of exanthema is NOT typical:
(Один ответ)
A) For scarlet fever
B) For whooping cough
C) For rubella
D) For infectious mononucleosis
155.
Which skin lesion is most likely NOT to spontaneously resolve?
(Один ответ)
A) hemangioma
B) lymphangioma
C) mongolian spot
D) milia
156.
Head control is possible in an infant by _____ months
(Один ответ)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
157.
For congenital hypertrophic pylorostenosis is characteristic
(Один ответ)
A) onset of vomiting at an average of 21 days of age
B) no visible peristalsis of the stomach
C) presence of hypernatremia, hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis
D) the appearance of vomiting of unchanged milk, the volume of vomit does not exceed the
volume of feeding
158.
With gastroesophageal reflux in a child of the first year of life, the most frequently detect
(Один ответ)
A) vomiting with curdled milk
B) increased stool
C) constipation
D) pinpoint rash
159.
When assessing the severity of condition of a patient with hemorrhagic syndrome, should be
considered
(Один ответ)
A) severity of edema
B) degree of dehydration
C) everity of heart failure
D) degree of blood loss
160.
In moderate anemia, the level of hemoglobin in children over 6 months is ______ g/l
(Один ответ)
A) 40-59
B) 91-80
C) 89-70
D) 90-110
161.
In the process of osteogenesis there are ________ stages
(Один ответ)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
162.
The possibility of the rapid development of the edema of the voice cords in children is due to
(Один ответ)
A) narrowness of the glottis
B) features of the muscular apparatus of the larynx
C) an abundance of lymphoid tissue with a good blood supply
D) the state of the vocal cords
163.
Which of intrauterine infections is not the decoding of the abbreviation "TORCH-infection"?
(Один ответ)
A) Cytomegalovirus infection
B) Rubella
C) Ornithosis
D) Herpes
164.
Which of the conditions of the digestive system of a newborn can be classified as transient?
(Один ответ)
A) Regurgitation
B) Pylorospasm
C) Vomiting
D) Transient intestinal catarrh
165.
Physiological jaundice of a full-term newborn is visualized at the level of unconjugated bilirubin:
(Один ответ)
A) Up to 34 µmol/l
B) Above 105-120 µmol/l
C) 35 to 55 µmol/l
D) From 56 to 104 µmol/l
166.
Physiological jaundice, unlike pathological, is characterized by the following feature:
(Один ответ)
A) Occurs on 2-3 days of life
B) Appears at birth
C) Appears on the first day of life
D) Appears in the second week of life
167.
Phototherapy is used to treat:
(Один ответ)
A) Hyperbilirubinemia of the newborn
B) Skin infections
C) Fetal hepatitis
D) Atresia of the biliary tract
168.
The main causes of physiological weight loss in newborns are all except:
(Один ответ)
A) The formation of lactation in mother
B) Loss of water through the skin and lungs when breathing
C) Drying up of the umbilical cord
D) Removal of vernix caseosa
169.
In a newborn child, all the sutures of the skull are open, except for:
(Один ответ)
A) Sagittal
B) Frontal
C) Coronal
D) Occipital
170.
Knowing the fetal blood flow, with the hematogenous route of infection among the internal
organs, primarily affected is
(Один ответ)
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Brain
D) Kidneys
171.
Congenital heart disease most often occurs with congenital
(Один ответ)
A) Listeriosis
B) Syphilis
C) Rubella
D) Toxoplasmosis
172.
Clinical manifestations of rubella intrauterine infection are:
(Один ответ)
A) Pemphigus on the palms and feet, rhinitis
B) Deafness, cataract, microcephaly, congenital heart disease
C) Hypotrophy, jaundice, pustular rash on the skin
D) Purulent discharge from the umbilical wound, conjunctivitis, jaundice
173.
The diagnosis of fetal hepatitis is confirmed by
(Один ответ)
A) Increasing the level of unconjugated bilirubin
B) An increase in the level of conjugated bilirubin and transaminase activity
C) Increasing the level of residual nitrogen
D) Hyperkalemia
174.
The etiological factor of fetal hepatitis cannot be
(Один ответ)
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Listeria
C) Hepatitis virus
D) Mother's alcoholism
175.
Signs of hemolytic disease of the newborn do NOT include:
(Один ответ)
A) Jaundice
B) Anemia
C) Hemorrhagic rash
D) Reticulocytosis
176.
For the treatment of hemolytic disease of the newborn is NOT used:
(Один ответ)
A) Infusion therapy
B) Phototherapy
C) Hormonal therapy
D) Blood transfusion
177.
The etiological factor in neonatal pneumonia is NOT:
(Один ответ)
A) Viruses
B) Hypotrophy
C) Bacteria
D) Mycoplasma
178.
The most common pneumopathies in newborns are the following types, except:
(Один ответ)
A) Meconium aspiration
B) Transient tachypnea
C) Primary atelectasis
D) Hyaline membrane disease
179.
If a residual-organic lesion of the central nervous system is suspected, the following diagnostic
methods are used, except:
(Один ответ)
A) Neurosonography
B) Fibrogastroduodenoscopy
C) Dopplerography of cerebral vessels
D) Magnetic resonance or computed tomography of the brain
180.
With hypotrophy of the l stage, the subcutaneous fat layer is thinned:
(Один ответ)
A) on the face
B) on the stomach
C) on the hands
D) on the hips
181.
With malnutrition of the l stage, it is NOT characteristic:
(Один ответ)
A) reduction of the fat layer on the torso
B) flattening of the weight curve
C) body weight deficit more than 30%
D) muscle hypotension
182.
With stage II hypotrophy, the subcutaneous fat layer is thinned:
(Один ответ)
A) only on the face
B) on the trunk and limbs
C) only on the stomach
D) only on the hips
183.
Appetite with malnutrition of l stage
(Один ответ)
A) no appetite
B) decreased appetite
C) have an appetite
D) increased appetite
184.
What values of body weight deficit in % should be in an infant if he has grade II hypotrophy?
(Один ответ)
A) 5–9%
B) 10–19%
C) 20–29%
D) 30–39%
185.
Appetite with malnutrition II degree:
(Один ответ)
A) no appetite
B) decreased appetite
C) have an appetite
D) increased appetite
186.
With malnutrition of the II degree, the child:
(Один ответ)
A) calm, balanced
B) irritable, restless
C) mobile, active
D) cheerful
187.
With hypotrophy III degree, the subcutaneous fat layer is thinned:
(Один ответ)
A) only on the trunk and limbs
B) only on the stomach
C) only on the hips
D) on the face, body and limbs
188.
The percentage of body weight deficit with malnutrition III degree is:
(Один ответ)
A) 15–19%
B) 20–25%
C) 25–29%
D) 30% and more
189.
Appetite with malnutrition III degree:
(Один ответ)
A) no appetite
B) decreased appetite
C) have an appetite
D) increased appetite
190.
With malnutrition of the III degree, the child:
(Один ответ)
A) apathetic
B) irritable, restless
C) mobile, active
D) cheerful
191.
The development of celiac disease is associated with:
(Один ответ)
A) with congenital lactose intolerance
B) with congenital pancreatic hypoplasia
C) with galactose intolerance
D) with intolerance to cereal protein
192.
Symptoms of celiac disease are, EXCEPT:
(Один ответ)
A) weight loss
B) recurrent obstructive bronchitis
C) growth retardation
D) anemia
193.
Symptoms of celiac disease may include:
(Один ответ)
A) growth retardation
B) cervical lymphadenitis
C) febrile temperature
D) enuresis
194.
For laboratory verification of celiac disease, the following is carried out:
(Один ответ)
A) urinalysis for daily oxalate excretion
B) duration of bleeding and blood clotting
C) study of protein fractions of serum and transaminases
D) study of antibodies to tissue transglutaminase and reticulin
195.
For instrumental verification of celiac disease, the following is carried out:
(Один ответ)
A) morphological study of the biopsy of the mucous membrane of the small intestine
B) x-ray examination of the stomach and duodenum
C) irrigography
D) colonoscopy and colon biopsy
196.
When treating celiac disease, exclude from the diet:
(Один ответ)
A) products containing cow's milk
B) products from rye, wheat, barley, oats
C) beef and lamb products
D) fish products
197.
Cystic fibrosis is:
(Один ответ)
A) acquired disease
B) hereditary autosomal recessive disease
C) hereditary autosomal dominant disease
D) hereditary disease associated with sex
198.
Symptoms of cystic fibrosis may include the following, EXCEPT:
(Один ответ)
A) "fatty" stool
B) rectal prolapse
C) malnutrition
D) frequent urination
199.
The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis can be confirmed by the following test:
(Один ответ)
A) chest x-ray
B) determining the concentration of chlorides in sweat
C) cytological examination of the bone marrow
D) bacteriological analysis of feces
200.
In the treatment of the intestinal form of cystic fibrosis, the following is prescribed
(Один ответ)
A) glucocorticosteroids
B) anabolic agents
C) enzyme preparations
D) antibacterial agents
201.
The term "rickets" does NOT include:
(Один ответ)
A) Hypovitaminosis of vitamin D in children
B) Vitamin D dependence
C) Achondropathy
D) Vitamin D deficiency
202.
Ricketogenic diseases include:
(Один ответ)
A) Spasmophilia
B) Febrile seizures
C) Nephrogenic osteopathy
D) Epilepsy
203.
The source of ergocalciferol in the body:
(Один ответ)
A) Meat products
B) Plant-based food
C) Breast milk
D) Egg yolk
204.
The source of cholecalciferol in the body is:
(Один ответ)
A) Rice groats
B) Buckwheat
C) Mango juice
D) Breast milk or adapted milk formulas
205.
The second hydroxylation of vitamin D3 metabolites occurs:
(Один ответ)
A) In brain cells
B) In the interstitial tissue of the lungs
C) In the cells of the gastric mucosa
D) In the tubular epithelium
206.
The first hydroxylation of provitamin D3 occurs:
(Один ответ)
A) In liver cells
B) In the interstitial tissue of the lungs
C) In the cells of the gastric mucosa
D) In the tubular epithelium
207.
The primary link in the violation of phosphorus-calcium homeostasis in the case of vitamin Ddeficient rickets is:
(Один ответ)
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Phosphaturia
D) Hypocalcemia
208.
The action of dihydrocholecalciferol is:
(Один ответ)
A) In inhibition of IgA production
B) In accelerating bone maturation
C) In promoting calcium absorption in the intestine
D) In accelerating sexual development
209.
A prerequisite for the development of vitamin D-deficient rickets is:
(Один ответ)
A) Increasing the production of parathyroid hormone
B) Increased production of cortisol
C) Decreased production of alkaline phosphatase
D) Loss of phosphorus salts by the body
210.
Rickets can NOT be:
(Один ответ)
A) Deficiency rickets
B) Dependent
C) Resistant
D) Immune
211.
Vitamin D-deficient rickets is the most common:
(Один ответ)
A) In young adults
B) At the age of 10-12 years
C) In the first year of life
D) Ages 3-6
212.
Vitamin D-dependent forms of rickets are characterized by:
(Один ответ)
A) Dominant inheritance
B) Recessive inheritance
C) Polygenic conditioning
D) Occurrence only under the influence of environmental factors
213.
In the occurrence of vitamin D-resistant forms of rickets, the leading role is played by:
(Один ответ)
A) Malabsorption
B) Alimentary factor
C) Bad social conditions
D) Tubulopathy
214.
For the diagnosis of deficient rickets, it is NOT required to determine:
(Один ответ)
A) Serum calcium levels
B) Serum phosphorus levels
C) Blood glucose concentrations
D) Serum alkaline phosphate activity
215.
The prophylactic dose of vitamin D per day is:
(Один ответ)
A) 100 IU
B) 400-500 IU
C) 1000 IU
D) 2000 IU
216.
The prophylactic dose of vitamin D per day is:
(Один ответ)
A) 10 micrograms
B) 80 micrograms
C) 60 micrograms
D) 40 micrograms
217.
The course therapeutic dose of vitamin D in deficient rickets is:
(Один ответ)
A) 1000 IU
B) 300,000 IU
C) 2 million IU
D) 3 million IU
218.
The hypocalcemic variant of deficient rickets is NOT characterized by the presence of:
(Один ответ)
A) Laryngospasm
B) Seizures
C) Exicosis
D) Clinical signs of rickets
219.
Treatment with therapeutic doses of vitamin D requires control of:
(Один ответ)
A) Calciuria
B) Body temperature
C) Blood pressure
D) ECG
220.
The leading etiological factor for the occurrence of deficiency states in young children is:
(Один ответ)
A) Hereditary
B) Immune
C) Alimentary (food)
D) Climate
221.
For hypocalcemic seizures, it is NOT indicated:
(Один ответ)
A) Parenteral administration of 0.5% diazepam solution
B) Oral phenobarbital
C) Intravenous administration of 25% magnesium sulfate solution
D) Intravenous injection of 10% calcium gluconate solution
222.
When intoxicated with vitamin D, it is necessary:
(Один ответ)
A) Carrying out a glucose tolerance test
B) Antibiotic prescription
C) Conducting a course of immunomodulatory therapy
D) Carrying out detoxification measures
223.
The following are more prone to iron deficiency anemia
(Один ответ)
A) Children of the first year of life
B) Children aged 2-3 years
C) Children aged 6-8
D) Children aged 9-10
224.
The following are NOT predisposed to iron deficiency:
(Один ответ)
A) Premature babies in the first months of life
B) Children from multiple pregnancies
C) Full-term babies in the first months of life
D) Older children with malabsorption syndrome
225.
Hypovitaminosis in children of the first year of life usually does not develop:
(Один ответ)
A) With late introduction of complementary foods
B) With celiac disease
C) With cystic fibrosis
D) With the timely introduction of complementary foods
226.
Vitamin D-deficient rickets can be :
(Один ответ)
A) Atopic
B) Autoimmune
C) Recurrent
D) Immunocomplex
227.
Deficiency rickets can be:
(Один ответ)
A) Vitamin A-deficient
B) Vitamin B-deficient
C) Vitamin C–deficient
D) Vitamin D–deficient
228.
Vitamin D-deficient rickets is characterized by
(Один ответ)
A) Combination with other deficient conditions
B) The development of persistent disability of the child
C) The development of primary immunodeficiency
D) The development of persistent contracture of the joints
229.
The bone sign of rickets is:
(Один ответ)
A) Damage to the metaepiphyseal zones
B) Polyarthritis
C) Synovitis
D) Arthrosis
230.
Spasmophilia does not appear:
(Один ответ)
A) Symptom of Trousseau
B) Symptom of Chvostek
C) Meningeal symptoms
D) Laryngospasm
231.
What is not characteristic of vitamin D intoxication?
(Один ответ)
A) Hyperthermia
B) Lethargy
C) Decreased appetite
D) Intestinal dysfunction
232.
In convulsive syndrome against the background of hypocalcemia, along with anticonvulsant
therapy, the following is slowly administered intravenously:
(Один ответ)
A) calcium gluconate 10% solution - 0.2 ml / kg (20 mg / kg) after preliminary dilution with 20%
glucose solution 2 times
B) glucose 20% solution - 1.0 ml / kg (200 mg / kg) followed by hospitalization in the
endocrinology department
C) vitamin B1 - 100 mg IV
D) vitamin B6 - 1 g
233.
What pathology includes neuropathic dyspepsia?
(Один ответ)
A) acute abdomen
B) intestinal obstruction
C) protozoan invasions
D) functional dyspepsia
234.
Specify the symptom of gastric dyspepsia:
(Один ответ)
A) flatulence
B) constipation
C) vomiting
D) hyperthermia
235.
Specify the functional cause of vomiting in young children:
(Один ответ)
A) violation of the feeding regimen
B) incomplete bowel rotation
C) chalazia of cardia
D) esophageal atresia
236.
Specify the cause of congenital mechanical intestinal obstruction:
(Один ответ)
A) fecal stones
B) necrotizing enterocolitis
C) thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
D) pyloric stenosis
237.
Specify the cause of acquired mechanical intestinal obstruction:
(Один ответ)
A) anomalies of the intestinal vessels
B) fecal stones
C) mesenteric defects
D) enteritis
238.
What physiological reactions are NOT observed in vomiting and nausea?
(Один ответ)
A) tachycardia
B) hypersalivation
C) decreased gastric secretion
D) swelling on the legs
239.
Which symptom is NOT characteristic of intestinal dyspepsia?
(Один ответ)
A) drooling
B) flatulence
C) diarrhea
D) rumbling in the stomach
240.
Specify the cause NOT typical for chronic diarrhea:
(Один ответ)
A) lactose intolerance
B) dolichosigma
C) celiac disease
D) cystic fibrosis