MỤC LỤC
CAM 16 TEST 1 ..................................................................................................................................................... 3
CAM 16 TEST 2 ..................................................................................................................................................... 8
CAM 16 TEST 3 ................................................................................................................................................... 14
CAM 16 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................... 20
CAM 15 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................... 26
CAM 15 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................... 32
CAM 15 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................... 37
CAM 15 TEST 4.................................................................................................................................................... 42
CAM 14 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................... 48
CAM 14 TEST 2 ................................................................................................................................................... 53
CAM 14 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................... 59
CAM 14 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................... 63
CAM 13 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................... 69
CAM 13 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................... 75
CAM 13 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................... 81
CAM 13 TEST 4.................................................................................................................................................... 87
CAM 12 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................... 93
CAM 12 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................... 98
CAM 12 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................. 104
CAM 12 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................. 110
CAM 11 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................. 116
CAM 11 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................. 122
CAM 11 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................. 128
CAM 11 TEST 4.................................................................................................................................................. 133
CAM 10 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................. 139
CAM 10 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................. 143
CAM 10 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................. 149
CAM 10 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................. 154
CAM 9 TEST 1 ................................................................................................................................................... 159
CAM 9 TEST 2 ................................................................................................................................................... 164
CAM 9 TEST 3 ................................................................................................................................................... 169
CAM 9 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................... 174
CAM 8 TEST 1 ................................................................................................................................................... 180
CAM 8 TEST 2 ................................................................................................................................................... 186
CAM 8 TEST 3 ................................................................................................................................................... 192
CAM 8 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................... 198
CAM 7 TEST 1.................................................................................................................................................... 204
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Study Motivation
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CAM 7 TEST 2.................................................................................................................................................... 210
CAM 7 TEST 3.................................................................................................................................................... 216
CAM 7 TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................... 222
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Study Motivation
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GIAI ĐOẠN 3: LUYỆN FULL TEST
CAM 16 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Children’s Engineering Workshops
Tiny Engineers (ages 4-5)
Activities
o Create a cover for an 1 ………………… so they can drop it from a height without breaking it.
o Take part in a competition to build the tallest 2 ………………… .
o Make a 3 ………………… powered by a balloon.
Junior Engineers (ages 6-8)
Activities:
o Build model cars, trucks and 4 ………………… and learn how to program them so they can
move.
o Take part in a competition to build the longest 5 ………………… using card and wood.
o Create a short 6 ………………… with special software.
o Build, 7 ………………… and program a humanoid robot.
Cost for a five-week block: £50
Held on 8 ………………… from 10 am to 11 am
Location
Building 10A, 9 ………………… Industrial Estate, Grasford
Plenty of 10 ………………… is available.
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11 Stevenson’s was founded in
A 1923.
B 1924.
C 1926.
12 Originally, Stevenson’s manufactured goods for
A the healthcare industry.
B the automotive industry.
C the machine tools industry.
13 What does the speaker say about the company premises?
A The company has recently moved.
B The company has no plans to move.
C The company is going to move shortly.
14 The programme for the work experience group includes
A time to do research.
B meetings with a teacher.
C talks by staff.
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Questions 15-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-J, next to Questions 15-20.
Plan of Stevenson’s site
15
16
17
18
19
20
coffee room
warehouse
staff canteen
meeting room
human resources
boardroom
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…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO parts of the introductory stage to their art projects do Jess and Tom agree were
useful?
A the Bird Park visit
B the workshop sessions
C the Natural History Museum visit
D the projects done in previous years
E the handouts with research sources
Questions 23 and 24. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
In which TWO ways do both Jess and Tom decide to change their proposals?
A by giving a rationale for their action plans
B by being less specific about the outcome
C by adding a video diary presentation
D by providing a timeline and a mind map
E by making their notes more evaluative
Questions 25-30
Which personal meaning do the students decide to give to each of the following pictures?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Personal meanings
a childhood memory
hope for the future
fast movement
a potential threat
the power of colour
the continuity of life
protection of nature
a confused attitude to nature
Pictures
25 Falcon (Landseer) ………
26 Fish hawk (Audubon) ………
27 Kingfisher (van Gogh) ………
28 Portrait of William Wells ………
29 Vairumati (Gauguin) ………
30 Portrait of Giovanni de Medici ………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Stoicism
Stoicism is still relevant today because of its 31 ………………… appeal.
Ancient Stoics
o Stoicism was founded over 2,000 years ago in Greece.
o The Stoics’ ideas are surprisingly well known, despite not being intended
for 32 …………………
Stoic principles
o Happiness could be achieved by leading a virtuous life.
o Controlling emotions was essential.
o Epictetus said that external events cannot be controlled but the 33 ………………… people
make in response can be controlled.
o A Stoic is someone who has a different view on experiences which others would consider
as 34 ………………… .
The influence of Stoicism
o George Washington organised a 35 ………………… about Cato to motivate his men.
o The French artist Delacroix was a Stoic.
o Adam Smith’s ideas on 36 ………………… were influenced by Stoicism.
o Some of today’s political leaders are inspired by the Stoics.
o Cognitive Behaviour Therapy (CBT)
– the treatment for 37 ………………… is based on ideas from Stoicism
– people learn to base their thinking on 38 ………………… .
o In business, people benefit from Stoicism by identifying obstacles as 39 ………………… .
Relevance of Stoicism
o It requires a lot of 40 ………………… but Stoicism can help people to lead a good life.
o It teaches people that having a strong character is more important than anything else.
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CAM 16 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Copying photos to digital format
Name of company: Picturerep
Requirements
o Maximum size of photos is 30 cm, minimum size 4 cm.
o Photos must not be in a 1 ……………… or an album.
Cost
o The cost for 360 photos is 2 £……………… (including one disk).
o Before the complete order is sent, 3 ……………… is required.
Services included in the price
o Photos can be placed in a folder, e.g. with the name 4 ……………… .
o The 5 ……………… and contrast can be improved if necessary.
o Photos which are very fragile will be scanned by 6 ……………… .
Special restore service (costs extra)
o It may be possible to remove an object from a photo, or change the 7 ……………… .
o A photo which is not correctly in 8 ……………… cannot be fixed.
Other information
o Orders are completed within 9 ……………… .
o Send the photos in a box (not 10 ………………).
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11 Dartfield House school used to be
A a tourist information centre.
B a private home.
C a local council building.
12 What is planned with regard to the lower school?
A All buildings on the main site will be improved.
B The lower school site will be used for new homes.
C Additional school buildings will be constructed on the lower school site.
13 The catering has been changed because of
A long queuing times.
B changes to the school timetable.
C dissatisfaction with the menus.
14 Parents are asked to
A help their children to decide in advance which serving point to use.
B make sure their children have enough money for food.
C advise their children on healthy food to eat.
15 What does the speaker say about the existing canteen?
A Food will still be served there.
B Only staff will have access to it.
C Pupils can take their food into it.
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Questions 16-18
What comment does the speaker make about each of the following serving points in the Food
Hall?
Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-D, next to Questions 16-18.
A
B
C
D
Comments
pupils help to plan menus
only vegetarian food
different food every week
daily change in menu
Food available at serving points in Food Hall
16 World Adventures
17 Street Life
18 Speedy Italian
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO optional after-school lessons are new?
A swimming
B piano
C acting
D cycling
E theatre sound and lighting
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PART 3
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Assignment on sleep and dreams
21 Luke read that one reason why we often forget dreams is that
A our memories cannot cope with too much information.
B we might other wise be confused about what is real.
C we do not think they are important.
22 What do Luke and Susie agree about dreams predicting the future?
A It may just be due to chance.
B It only happens with certain types of event.
C It happens more often than some people think.
23 Susie says that a study on pre-school children having a short nap in the day
A had controversial results.
B used faulty research methodology.
C failed to reach any clear conclusions.
24 In their last assignment, both students had problems with
A statistical analysis.
B making an action plan.
C self-assessment
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Questions 25-30
Complete the flow chart below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Assignment plan
Decide on research question:
Is there a relationship between hours of sleep and number of dreams?

Decide on sample:
Twelve students from the 25 ……………… department

Decide on methodology:
Self-reporting

Decide on procedure:
Answers on 26 ………………

Check ethical guidelines for working with 27 ………………
Ensure that risk is assessed and 28 ……………… is kept to a minimum

Analyse the results
Calculate the correlation and make a 29 ………………

30 ……………… the research
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Health benefits of dance
Recent findings:
o All forms of dance produce various hormones associated with feelings of happiness.
o Dancing with others has a more positive impact than dancing alone.
o An experiment on university students suggested that dance increases 31 ……………… .
o For those with mental illness, dance could be used as a form of 32 ……………… .
Benefits of dance for older people:
o accessible for people with low levels of 33 ………………
o reduces the risk of heart disease
o better 34 ……………… reduces the risk of accidents
o improves 35 ……………… function by making it work faster
o improves participants’ general well-being
o gives people more 36 ……………… to take exercise
o can lessen the feeling of 37 ………………, very common in older people
Benefits of Zumba:
o A study at The University of Wisconsin showed that doing Zumba for 40 minutes uses up as
many 38 ……………… as other quite intense forms of exercise.
o The American Journal of Health Behavior study showed that:
– women suffering from 39 ……………… benefited from doing Zumba.
– Zumba became a 40 ……………… for the participants.
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CAM 16 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
JUNIOR CYCLE CAMP
The course focuses on skills and safety
o Charlie would be placed in Level 5.
o First of all, children at this level are taken to practise in a 1 …………… .
Instructors
o Instructors wear 2 …………… shirts.
o A 3 …………… is required and training is given.
Classes
o The size of the classes is limited.
o There are quiet times during the morning for a 4 …………… or a game.
o Classes are held even if there is 5 …………… .
What to bring
o a change of clothing
o a 6 ……………
o shoes (not sandals)
o Charlie’s 7 ……………
Day 1
o Charlie should arrive at 9.20 am on the first day.
o Before the class, his 8 …………… will be checked.
o He should then go to the 9 …………… to meet his class instructor.
Cost
o The course costs 10 $…………… per week.
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
According to Megan, what are the TWO main advantages of working in the agriculture and
horticulture sectors?
A the active lifestyle
B the above-average salaries
C the flexible working opportunities
D the opportunities for overseas travel
E the chance to be in a natural environment
Questions 13 and 14. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following are likely to be disadvantages for people working outdoors?
A the increasing risk of accidents
B being in a very quiet location
C difficult weather conditions at times
D the cost of housing
E the level of physical fitness required
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Questions 15-20
What information does Megan give about each of the following job opportunities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 15-20.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Information
not a permanent job
involves leading a team
experience not essential
intensive work but also fun
chance to earn more through overtime
chance for rapid promotion
accommodation available
local travel involved
Job opportunities
15 Fresh food commercial manager …..
16 Agronomist …..
17 Fresh produce buyer …..
18 Garden centre sales manager …..
19 Tree technician …..
20 Farm worker ….
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO points does Adam make about his experiment on artificial sweeteners?
A The results were what he had predicted.
B The experiment was simple to set up.
C A large sample of people was tested.
D The subjects were unaware of what they were drinking.
E The test was repeated several times for each person.
Questions 23 and 24. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO problems did Rosie have when measuring the fat content of nuts?
A She used the wrong sort of nuts.
B She used an unsuitable chemical.
C She did not grind the nuts finely enough.
D The information on the nut package was incorrect.
E The weighing scales may have been unsuitable.
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Questions 25-30.
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
25 Adam suggests that restaurants could reduce obesity if their menus
A offered fewer options.
B had more low-calorie foods.
C were organised in a particular way.
26 The students agree that food manufacturers deliberately
A make calorie counts hard to understand.
B fail to provide accurate calorie counts.
C use ineffective methods to reduce calories.
27 What does Rosie say about levels of exercise in England?
A The amount recommended is much too low.
B Most people overestimate how much they do.
C Women now exercise more than they used to.
28 Adam refers to the location and width of stairs in a train station to illustrate
A practical changes that can influence people’s behaviour.
B methods of helping people who have mobility problems.
C ways of preventing accidents by controlling crowd movement.
29 What do the students agree about including reference to exercise in their presentation?
A They should probably leave it out.
B They need to do more research on it.
C They should discuss this with their tutor.
30 What are the students going to do next for their presentation?
A prepare some slides for it
B find out how long they have for it
C decide on its content and organisation
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Hand knitting
Interest in knitting
o Knitting has a long history around the world.
o We imagine someone like a 31 ……………… knitting.
o A 32 ……………… ago, knitting was expected to disappear.
o The number of knitting classes is now increasing.
o People are buying more 33 ……………… for knitting nowadays.
Benefits of knitting
o gives support in times of 34 ……………… difficulty
o requires only 35 ……………… skills and little money to start
o reduces stress in a busy life
Early knitting
o The origins are not known.
o Findings show early knitted items to be 36 ……………… in shape.
o The first needles were made of natural materials such as wood and 37 ……………… .
o Early yarns felt 38 ……………… to touch.
o Wool became the most popular yarn for spinning.
o Geographical areas had their own 39 ……………… of knitting.
o Everyday tasks like looking after 40 ……………… were done while knitting.
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CAM 16 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Holiday rental
Owner’s names: Jack Fitzgerald and Shirley Fitzgerald
Granary Cottage
o available for week beginning 1 …………….. May
o cost for the week: 2 £……………..
3 …………….. Cottage
o cost for the week: £480
o building was originally a 4 ……………..
o walk through doors from living room into a 5 ……………..
o several 6 …………….. spaces at the front
o bathroom has a shower
o central heating and stove that burns 7 ……………..
o views of old 8 …………….. from living room
o view of hilltop 9 …………….. from the bedroom
Payment
o deposit: £144
o deadline for final payment: end of 10 ……………..
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PART 2
Questions 11-14. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Local council report on traffic and highways
11 A survey found people’s main concern about traffic in the area was
A cuts to public transport.
B poor maintenance of roads.
C changes in the type of traffic.
12 Which change will shortly be made to the cycle path next to the river?
A It will be widened.
B It will be extended.
C It will be resurfaced.
13 Plans for a pedestrian crossing have been postponed because
A the Post Office has moved.
B the proposed location is unsafe.
C funding is not available at present.
14 On Station Road, notices have been erected
A telling cyclists not to leave their bikes outside the station ticket office.
B asking motorists to switch off engines when waiting at the level crossing.
C warning pedestrians to leave enough time when crossing the railway line.
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Questions 15-20. Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 15-20.
Recreation ground after proposed changes
15
16
17
18
19
20
New car park
New cricket pitch
Children’s playground
Skateboard ramp
Pavilion
Notice board
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……
……
……
……
……
……
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PART 3
Questions 21-22. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO benefits of city bike-sharing schemes do the students agree are the most important?
A reducing noise pollution
B reducing traffic congestion
C improving air quality
D encouraging health and fitness
E making cycling affordable
Questions 23-24. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things do the students think are necessary for successful bike-sharing schemes?
A Bikes should have a GPS system.
B The app should be easy to use.
C Public awareness should be raised.
D Only one scheme should be available.
E There should be a large network of cycle lanes.
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Questions 25-30
What is the speakers’ opinion of the bike-sharing schemes in each of the following cities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 25-30.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Cities
25 Amsterdam
26 Dublin
27 London
28 Buenos Aires
29 New York
30 Sydney
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Opinion of bike-sharing scheme
They agree it has been disappointing.
They think it should be cheaper.
They are surprised it has been so successful.
They agree that more investment is required.
They think the system has been well designed.
They disagree about the reasons for its success.
They think it has expanded too quickly.
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
THE EXTINCTION OF THE DODO BIRD
The dodo was a large flightless bird which used to inhabit the island of Mauritius.
History
o 1507 – Portuguese ships transporting 31 ………………. stopped at the island to collect food
and water.
o 1638 – The Dutch established a 32 ………………. on the island.
o They killed the dodo birds for their meat.
o The last one was killed in 1681.
Description
o The only record we have is written descriptions and pictures (possibly unreliable).
o A Dutch painting suggests the dodo was very 33 ………………. .
o The only remaining soft tissue is a dried 34 ………………. .
o Recent studies of a dodo skeleton suggest the birds were capable of rapid 35 ………………. .
o It’s thought they were able to use their small wings to maintain 36 ………………. .
o Their 37 ………………. was of average size.
o Their sense of 38 ………………. enabled them to find food.
Reasons for extinction
o Hunting was probably not the main cause.
o Sailors brought dogs and monkeys.
o 39 ………………. also escaped onto the island and ate the birds’ eggs.
o The arrival of farming meant the 40 ………………. was destroyed.
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CAM 15 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
o
o
o
o
Số câu đúng: …./40
Bankside Recruitment Agency
Address of agency: 497 Eastside, Docklands
Name of agent: Becky 1……………
Phone number: 07866 510333
Best to call her in the 2……………
Typical jobs
o Clerical and admin roles, mainly in the finance industry
o Must have good 3……………… skills
o Jobs are usually for at least one 4………………..
o Pay is usually 5 £…………….. per hour
Registration process
o Wear a 6………………. to the interview
o Must bring your 7……………….. to the interview
o They will ask questions about each applicant’s 8……………….
Advantages of using an agency
o The 9………………. you receive at interview will benefit you
o Will get access to vacancies which are not advertised
o Less 10……………… is involved in applying for jobs
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Matthews Island Holidays
11 According to the speaker, the company
A has been in business for longer than most of its competitors.
B arranges holidays to more destinations than its competitors.
C has more customers than its competitors.
12 Where can customers meet the tour manager before travelling to the Isle of Man?
A Liverpool
B Heysham
C Luton
13 How many lunches are included in the price of the holiday?
A three
B four
C five
14 Customers have to pay extra for
A guaranteeing themselves a larger room.
B booking at short notice.
C transferring to another date.
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Questions 15-20.
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Timetable for Isle of Man holiday
Activity
Notes
Introduction by manager
Hotel dining room has view of the
15……………..…
Day 1
Arrive
Day 2
Tynwald Exhibition and Peel
Tynwald may have been founded in
16……………..… not 979.
Day 3
Trip to Snaefell
Travel along promenade in a tram; train to
Laxey; train to the 17……………..…of Snaefell
Day 4
Free day
Company provides a 18……………..… for local
transport and heritage sites.
Day 5
Take the 19……………..… railway
train from Douglas to Port Erin
Free time, then coach to Castletown –
former 20……………..… has old castle.
Day 6
Leave
Leave the island by ferry or plane
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
What did findings of previous research claim about the personality traits a child is likely to have
because of their position in the family?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 21-26
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Personality Traits
outgoing
selfish
independent
attention-seeking
introverted
co-operative
caring
competitive
Position in family
21 the eldest child ………….
22 a middle child ………….
23 the youngest child ………….
24 a twin ………….
25 an only child ………….
26 a child with much older siblings ………….
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Questions 27 and 28. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
27. What do the speakers say about the evidence relating to birth order and academic success?
A There is conflicting evidence about whether oldest children perform best in intelligence tests.
B There is little doubt that birth order has less influence on academic achievement than socioeconomic status.
C Some studies have neglected to include important factors such as family size.
28. What does Ruth think is surprising about the difference in oldest children’s academic
performance?
A It is mainly thanks to their roles as teachers for their younger siblings.
B The advantages they have only lead to a slightly higher level of achievement.
C The extra parental attention they receive at a young age makes little difference.
Questions 29 and 30. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO experiences of sibling rivalry do the speakers agree has been valuable for them?
A learning to share
B learning to stand up for oneself
C learning to be a good loser
D learning to be tolerant
E learning to say sorry
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The Eucalyptus Tree in Australia
Importance
● it provides 31……………. and food for a wide range of species
● its leaves provide 32…………….. which is used to make a disinfectant
Reasons for present decline in number
A) Diseases
(i) ‘Mundulla Yellows’
● Cause
– lime used for making 33……………… was absorbed
– trees were unable to take in necessary iron through their roots
(ii) ‘Bell-miner Associated Die-back’
● Cause
– 34………….. feed on eucalyptus leaves
– they secrete a substance containing sugar
– bell-miner birds are attracted by this and keep away other species
B) Bushfires
William Jackson’s theory:
● high-frequency bushfires have impact on vegetation, resulting in the growth of 35…………….
● mid-frequency bushfires result in the growth of eucalyptus forests, because they:
– make more 36……………. available to the trees
– maintain the quality of the 37……………….
● low-frequency bushfires result in the growth of 38 ‘……………….. rainforest’, which is:
– a 39………………. ecosystem
– an ideal environment for the 40……………… of the bell-miner
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CAM 15 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 4
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
17th
Festival information
Type of event
a concert
Details
performers from Canada
18th
a ballet
company called 1……………
19th-20th (afternoon)
a play
type of play: a comedy called
Jemima has had a good
2………….
20th (evening)
a 3………… show
show is called 4………….
Date
Questions 5-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Workshops
o Making 5…………….. food
o (children only) Making 6……………..
o (adults only) Making toys from 7……………… using various tools
Outdoor activities
o Swimming in the 8………………
o Walking in the woods, led by an expert on 9……………….
See the festival organiser’s 10………………. for more information
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Minster Park
11 The park was originally established
A as an amenity provided by the city council.
B as land belonging to a private house.
C as a shared area set up by the local community.
12 Why is there a statue of Diane Gosforth in the park?
A She was a resident who helped to lead a campaign.
B She was a council member responsible for giving the public access.
C She was a senior worker at the park for many years.
13 During the First World War, the park was mainly used for
A exercises by troops.
B growing vegetables.
C public meetings.
14 When did the physical transformation of the park begin?
A 2013
B 2015
C 2016
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Questions 15-20. Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 15-20.
15
16
17
18
19
20
statue of Diane Gosforth …………..
wooden sculptures
…………..
playground
…………..
maze
…………..
tennis courts
…………..
fitness area
…………..
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO groups of people is the display primarily intended for?
A student from the English department
B residents of the local area
C the university’s teaching staff
D potential new students
E students from other departments
Questions 23 and 24. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What are Cathy and Graham’s TWO reasons for choosing the novelist Charles Dickens?
A His speeches inspired others to try to improve society.
B He used his publications to draw attention to social problems.
C His novels are well-known now.
D He was consulted on a number of social issues.
E His reputation has changed in recent times.
Questions 25-30. What topic do Cathy and Graham choose to illustrate with each novel?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30.
Topics
A poverty
B education
C Dickens’s travels
D entertainment
E crime and the law
F wealth
G medicine
H a woman’s life
Novels by Dickens
25 The Pickwick Papers
…………..
26 Oliver Twist
…………..
27 Nicholas Nickleby
…………..
28 Martin Chuzzlewit
…………..
29 Bleak House
…………..
30 Little Dorrit
……………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Agricultural programme in Mozambique
How the programme was organised
o It focused on a dry and arid region in Chicualacuala district, near the Limpopo River.
o People depended on the forest to provide charcoal as a source of income.
o 31…………….……. was seen as the main priority to ensure the supply of water.
o Most of the work organised by farmers’ associations was done by 32…………….…….
o Fenced areas created to keep animals away from crops.
o The programme provided
– 33…………….……. for the fences
– 34…………….……. for suitable crops
– water pumps.
o The farmers provided
– labour
– 35…………….……. for the fences on their land.
Further developments
o The marketing of produce was sometimes difficult due to lack of 36…………….……..
o Training was therefore provided in methods of food 37…………….……..
o Farmers made special places where 38…………….……. could be kept.
o Local people later suggested keeping 39…………….……..
Evaluation and lessons learned
o Agricultural production increased, improving incomes and food security.
o Enough time must be allowed, particularly for the 40…………….……. phase of the
programme.
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CAM 15 TEST 3
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Employment Agency: Possible Jobs
First Job
Administrative assistant in a company that produces 1…………….……. (North London)
Responsibilities
o data entry
o go to 2…………….……. and take notes
o general admin
o management of 3…………….…….
Requirements
o good computer skills including spreadsheets
o good interpersonal skills
o attention to 4…………….…….
Experience
o need a minimum of 5…………….……. of experience of teleconferencing
Second Job
Warehouse assistant in South London
Responsibilities
o stock management
o managing 6…………….…….
Requirements
o ability to work with numbers
o good computer skills
o very organised and 7…………….…….
o good communication skills
o used to working in a 8…………….…….
o able to cope with items that are 9…………….…….
Need experience of
o driving in London
o warehouse work
o 10…………….……. service
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Street Play Scheme
11 When did the Street Play Scheme first take place?
A two years ago
B three years ago
C six years ago
12 How often is Beechwood Road closed to traffic now?
A once a week
B on Saturdays and Sundays
C once a month
13 Who is responsible for closing the road?
A a council official
B the police
C local wardens
14 Residents who want to use their cars
A have to park in another street.
B must drive very slowly
C need permission from a warden.
15 Alice says that Street Play Schemes are most needed in
A wealthy areas
B quiet suburban areas.
C areas with heavy traffic.
16 What has been the reaction of residents who are not parents?
A Many of them were unhappy at first.
B They like seeing children play in the street.
C They are surprised by the lack of noise.
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Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO benefits for children does Alice think are the most important?
A increased physical activity
B increased sense of independence
C opportunity to learn new games
D opportunity to be part of a community
E opportunity to make new friends
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO results of the King Street experiment surprised Alice?
A more shoppers
B improved safety
C less air pollution
D more relaxed atmosphere
E less noise pollution
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
What Hazel should analyse about items in newspapers:
o what 21…………………………. the item is on
o the 22…………………………. of the item, including the headline
o any 23…………………………. accompanying the item
o the 24…………………………. of the item, e.g. what’s made prominent
o the writer’s main 25………………………….
o the 26…………………………. the writer may make about the reader
Questions 27-30
What does Hazel decide to do about each of the following types of articles?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 27-30
A She will definitely look for a suitable article.
B She may look for a suitable article.
C She definitely won’t look for an article.
Types of articles
27 national news item
28 editorial
29 human interest
30 arts
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……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Early history of keeping clean
Prehistoric times:
o water was used to wash off 31……………..
Ancient Babylon
o soap-like material found in 32…………… cylinders
Ancient Greece:
o people cleaned themselves with sand and other substances
o used a strigil – scraper made of 33………………
o washed clothes in streams
Ancient Germany and Gaul:
o used soap to colour their 34………………
Ancient Rome:
o animal fat, ashes and clay mixed through action of rain, used for washing clothes
o from about 312 BC, water carried to Roman 35……………… by aqueducts
Europe in Middle Ages:
o decline in bathing contributed to occurrence of 36……………….
o 37………………. began to be added to soap
Europe from 17th century:
o 1600s: cleanliness and bathing started becoming usual
o 1791: Leblanc invented a way of making soda ash from 38………………
o early 1800s: Chevreul turned soapmaking into a 39………………
o from 1800s, there was no longer a 40……………… on soap.
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CAM 15 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Customer Satisfaction Survey
Customer details
Name:
Occupation:
Reason for travel today:
Sophie Bird
1……………..
2……………..
Journey information
Name of station returning to:
Type of ticket purchased:
Cost of ticket:
When ticket was purchased:
Where ticket was bought:
3……………..
Standard 4……………… ticket
5 £…………….
Yesterday
6………………
Satisfaction with journey
Most satisfied with:
Least satisfied with:
the wifi
the 7…………….. this morning.
Satisfaction with station facilities
Most satisfied with:
how much 8…………… was provided
Least satisfied with:
lack of seats, particularly on the 9………………
Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied with: the 10……………… available
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16
11
12
13
14
15
16
café
toilets
formal gardens
outdoor gym
skateboard ramp
wild flowers
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……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What does the speakers say about the adventure playground?
A Children must be supervised.
B It costs more in winter.
C Some activities are only for younger children.
D No payment is required.
E It was recently expanded.
Questions 19 and 20
What does the speaker say about the glass houses?
A They are closed at weekends.
B Volunteers are needed to work there.
C They were badly damaged by fire.
D More money is needed to repair some of the glass.
E Visitors can see palm trees from tropical regions.
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Presentation about refrigeration
21 What did Annie discover from reading about icehouses?
A why they were first created
B how the ice was kept frozen
C where they were located
22 What point does Annie make about refrigeration in ancient Rome?
A It became a commercial business.
B It used snow from nearby.
C It took a long time to become popular.
23 In connection with modern refrigerator, both Annie and Jack are worried about
A the complexity of the technology.
B the fact that some are disposed of irresponsibly.
C the large number that quickly break down.
24 What do Jack and Annie agree regarding domestic fridges?
A They are generally good value for money.
B There are plenty of useful variations.
C They are more useful than other domestic appliances.
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Questions 25-30
Who is going to do research into each topic?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 25-30.
People
A Annie
B Jack
C both Annie and Jack
Topics
25 the goods that are refrigerated
26 the effects on health
27 the impact on food producers
28 the impact on cities
29 refrigerated transport
30 domestic fridges
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……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
How the Industrial Revolution affected life in Britain
19th century
● For the first time, people’s possessions were used to measure Britain’s 31…………….. .
● Developments in production of goods and in 32……………… greatly changed lives.
MAIN AREAS OF CHANGE
Manufacturing
● The Industrial Revolution would not have happened without the new types of 33………………
that were used then.
● The leading industry was 34………………. (its products became widely available).
● New 35…………….. made factories necessary and so more people moved into towns.
Transport
● The railways took the place of canals.
● Because of the new transport:
– greater access to 36………………. made people more aware of what they could buy in shops.
– when shopping, people were not limited to buying 37……………… goods.
Retailing
● The first department stores were opened.
● The displays of goods were more visible:
– inside stores because of better 38………………. .
– outside stores, because 39……………… were bigger.
● 40………………. that was persuasive became much more common.
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CAM 14 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
CRIME REPORT FORM
Type of crime: theft
Personal information
Name:
Louise Taylor
Nationality:
1 ……………….
Date of birth:
14 December 1977
Occupation:
interior designer
Reason for visit:
business (to buy antique 2………………)
Length of stay:
two months
Current address:
3 ………………. Apartments (No 15)
Details of theft
Items stolen:
Date of theft:
– a wallet containing approximately 4 £ …………….
– a 5 ………………
6 ………………
Possible time and place of theft
Location:
outside the 7…………… at about 4 pm
Details of suspect: – some boys asked for the 8……………. then ran off
– one had a T-shirt with a picture of a tiger
– he was about 12, slim build with 9…………… hair
Crime reference number allocated
10…………….
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PART 2
Questions 11-20
Induction talk for new apprentices
Questions 11 and 12. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO pieces of advice for the first week of an apprenticeship does the manager give?
A get to know colleagues
B learn from any mistakes
C ask lots of questions
D react positively to feedback
E enjoy new challenges
Questions 13 and 14. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the manager say mentors can help with?
A confidence-building
B making career plans
C completing difficult tasks
D making a weekly timetable
E reviewing progress
Questions 15-20
What does the manager say about each of the following aspects of the company policy for
apprentices?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 15-20.
A It is encouraged.
B There are some restrictions.
C It is against the rules.
Company policy for apprentices
15 Using the internet
…………….
16 Flexible working
…………….
17 Booking holidays
…………….
18 Working overtime
…………….
19 Wearing trainers
…………….
20 Bringing food to work …………….
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PART 3
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Cities built by the sea
21 Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities
A contain nearly half the world’s population.
B include most of the world’s largest cities.
C are growing twice as fast as other cities.
22 According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers
A may bring pollution to the cities.
B may reduce the land available for agriculture.
C may mean the countryside is spoiled by industry.
23 What mistake was made when building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s?
A There were not enough for them.
B They were made of unsuitable materials.
C They did not allow for the effects of climate change.
24 What do Rob and Carla think that the authorities in Miami should do immediately?
A take measures to restore ecosystems
B pay for a new flood prevention system
C stop disposing of waste materials into the ocean
25 What do they agree should be the priority for international action?
A greater coordination of activities
B more sharing of information
C agreement on shared policies
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Questions 26-30
What decision do the students make about each of the following parts of their presentation?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.
Decisions
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Parts of the presentation
26 Historical background
27 Geographical factors
28 Past mistakes
29 Future risks
30 International implications
Blog
use visuals
keep it short
involve other students
check the information is accurate
provide a handout
focus on one example
do online research
……………..
……………..
……………..
……………..
……………..
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PART 4
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Marine renewable energy (ocean energy)
Introduction
More energy required because of growth in population and 31…………………..
What’s needed:
● renewable energy sources
● methods that won’t create pollution
Wave energy
Advantage: waves provide a 32………………… source of renewable energy
Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems
Onshore systems may use a reservoir
Problems:
● waves can move in any 33…………………..
● movement of sand, etc. on the 34…………………… of the ocean may be affected
Tidal energy
Tides are more 35…………………. than waves
Planned tidal lagoon in Wales:
● will be created in a 36…………………. at Swansea
● breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines
● rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity
● stored water is released through 37………………….., driving the turbines in the reverse direction
Advantages:
● not dependent on weather
● no 38…………………… is required to make it work
● likely to create a number of 39…………………..
Problem:
● may ham fish and birds, e.g. by affecting 40…………………. and building up silt
Ocean thermal energy conversion
Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels
Water brought to the surface in a pipe
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CAM 14 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
TOTAL HEALTH CLINIC
PATIENT DETAILS
Personal information
o Name
o Contact phone
o Date of birth
o Occupation
o Insurance company
Julie Anne Garcia
1…………………
2…………………, 1992
works as a 3………………….
4…………………. Life Insurance
Details of the problem
o Type of problem:
pain in her left 5…………………..
o When it began:
6…………………. ago
o Action already taken: has taken painkillers and applied ice
Other information
o Sports played
o Medical history
Blog
- belongs to a 7…………………. club
- goes 8…………………. regularly
- injured her 9………………… last year
- no allergies
- no regular medication apart from 10………………..
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PART 2
Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Visit to Branley Castle
11 Before Queen Elizabeth I visited the castle in 1576,
A repairs were carried out to the quest rooms.
B a new building was constructed for her.
C a fire damaged part of the main hall.
12 In 1982, the castle was sold to
A the government.
B the Fenys family.
C an entertainment company.
13 In some of the rooms, visitors can
A speak to experts on the history of the castle.
B interact with actors dressed as famous characters.
C see models of historical figures moving and talking.
14 In the castle park, visitors can
A see an 800-year-old tree.
B go to an art exhibition.
C visit a small zoo.
15 At the end of the visit, the group will have
A afternoon tea in the conservatory.
B the chance to meet the castle’s owners.
C a photograph together on the Great Staircase.
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Questions 16-20
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 16-20
Branley Castle
16
17
18
19
20
Starting point for walking the walls
Bow and arrow display
Hunting birds display
Traditional dancing
Shop
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…..
…..
…..
…..
…..
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PART 3
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Woolly mammoths on St Paul’s Island
21 How will Rosie and Martin introduce their presentation?
A with a drawing of woolly mammoths in their natural habit
B with a timeline showing when woolly mammoths lived
C with a video clip about woolly mammoths
22 What was surprising about the mammoth tooth found by Russell Graham?
A It was still embedded in the mammoth’s jawbone.
B It was from an unknown species of mammoth.
C It was not as old as mammoth remains from elsewhere.
23 The students will use an animated diagram to demonstrate how the mammoths
A became isolated on the island.
B spread from the island to other areas.
C coexisted with other animals on the island.
24 According to Martin, what is unusual about the date of the mammoths’ extinction on the
island?
A how exact it is
B how early it is
C how it was established
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Questions 25-30
What action will the students take for each of the following sections of their presentation?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Actions
make it more interactive
reduce visual input
add personal opinions
contact one of the researchers
make detailed notes
find information online
check timing
organise the content more clearly
Sections of presentation
25 Introduction
26 Discovery of the mammoth tooth
27 Initial questions asked by the researchers
28 Further research carried out on the island
29 Findings and possible explanations
30 Relevance to the present day
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………………
………………
………………
………………
………………
………………
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PART 4
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The history of weather forecasting
Ancient cultures
 many cultures believed that floods and other disasters were involved in the creation of the
world
 many cultures invented 31………………… and other ceremonies to make the weather gods
friendly
 people needed to observe and interpret the sky to ensure their 32………………….
 around 650 BC, Babylonians started forecasting, using weather phenomena such
as 33………………….
 by 300 BC, the Chinese had a calendar made up of a number of 34…………………. connected
with the weather
Ancient Greeks
 a more scientific approach
 Aristotle tried to explain the formation of various weather phenomena
 Aristotle also described haloes and 35…………………..
Middle Ages
 Aristotle’s work considered accurate
 many proverbs, e.g. about the significance of the colour of the 36…………………., passed on
accurate information.
15th-19th centuries
 15th century: scientists recognised value of 37…………………. for the first time
 Galileo invented the 38………………….
 Pascal showed relationship between atmospheric pressure and altitude
 from the 17th century, scientists could measure atmospheric pressure and temperature
 18th century: Franklin identified the movement of 39…………………..
 19th century: data from different locations could be sent to the same place
by 40…………………
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CAM 14 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Flanders Conference Hotel
Customer Services Manager: Angela
Date available
● weekend beginning February 4th
Conference facilities
● the 1 …………………………. room for talks
(projector and 2 ………………………….. available)
● area for coffee and an 3 …………………………
● free 4 …………………………… throughout
● a standard buffet lunch costs 5 $ …………………………….. per head
Accommodation
● Rooms will cost 6 $ ……………………………… including breakfast.
Other facilities
● The hotel also has a spa and rooftop 7 ……………………………..
● There’s a free shuttle service to the 8 ……………………………….
Location
● Wilby Street (quite near the 9 …………………………)
● near to restaurants and many 10 ……………………………..
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO activities that volunteers do are mentioned?
A decorating
B cleaning
C delivering meals
D shopping
E childcare
Questions 13 and 14. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO ways that volunteers can benefit from volunteering are mentioned?
A learning how to be part of a team
B having a sense of purpose
C realising how lucky they are
D improved ability at time management
E boosting their employment prospects
Questions 15-20. What has each of the following volunteers helped someone to do?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 15-20
What volunteers have helped people to do
A overcome physical difficulties
B rediscover skills not used for a long time
C improve their communication skills
D solve problems independently
E escape isolation
F remember past times
G start a new hobby
Volunteers
15 Habib
16 Consuela
17 Minh
18 Tanya
19 Alexei
20 Juba
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………………
………………
………………
………………
………………
………………
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PART 3
Questions 21-26
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Background on school marching band
It consists of around 21…………………… students.
It is due to play in a 22……………………. band competition.
It has been invited to play in the town’s 23…………………….
They have listened to a talk by a 24……………………..
Joe will discuss a 25……………………. with the band.
Joe hopes the band will attend a 26…………………… next month.
Questions 27-30
What problem does Joe mention in connection with each of the following band members?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 27-30.
A
B
C
D
E
F
Band members
27 flautist
28 trumpeter
29 trombonist
30 percussionist
Blog
Problems
makes a lot of mistakes in rehearsals
keeps making unhelpful suggestions
has difficulty with rhythm
misses too many rehearsals
has a health problem
doesn’t mix with other students
………………
………………
………………
………………
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PART 4
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Concerts in university arts festival
Concert 1
 Australian composer: Liza Lim
 studied piano and 31………………….. before turning to composition
 performers and festivals around the world have given her a lot of commissions
 compositions show a great deal of 32…………………. and are drawn from various cultural
sources
 her music is very expressive and also 33…………………….
 festival will include her 34…………………… called The Oresteia
 Lim described the sounds in The Oresteia as 35……………………..
 British composers: Ralph Vaughan Williams, Frederick Delius
Concert 2
 British composers: Benjamin Britten, Judith Weir
 Australian composer: Ross Edwards
 festival will include The Tower of Remoteness, inspired by nature
 The Tower of Remoteness is performed by piano and 36……………………..
 compositions include music for children
 celebrates Australia’s cultural 37……………………..
Concert 3
 Australian composer: Carl Vine
 played cornet then piano
 studied 38……………………. before studying music
 worked in Sydney as a pianist and composer
 became well known as composer of music for 39………………………
 festival will include his music for the 1996 40………………………..
 British composers: Edward Elgar, Thomas Adès
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CAM 14 TEST 4
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-7
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Enquiry about booking hotel room for event
Andrew is the Events Manager
Rooms
Adelphi Room
o number of people who can sit down to eat: 1………………….
o has a gallery suitable for musicians
o can go out and see the 2………………… in pots on the terrace
o terrace has a view of a group of 3……………………
Carlton Room
o number of people who can sit down to eat: 110
o has a 4……………………
o view of the lake
Options
Master of Ceremonies:
o can give a 5………………… while people are eating
o will provide 6………………… if there are any problems
Accommodation:
o in the hotel rooms or 7…………………
Questions 8-10
What is said about using each of the following hotel facilities?
Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 810.
Hotel facilities
Availability
8 outdoor swimming pool ……
A included in cost of hiring room
9 gym ……
B available at extra charge
10 tennis courts ……
C not available
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PART 2
Questions 11-16
What information does the speaker give about each of the following excursions?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-16
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Information
all downhill
suitable for beginners
only in good weather
food included
no charge
swimming possible
fully booked today
transport not included
Excursions
11 dolphin watching ……
12 forest walk
……
13 cycle trip
……
14 local craft tour ……
15 observatory trip ……
16 horse riding
……
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Questions 17 and 18. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the speaker say about the attraction called Musical Favourites?
A You pay extra for drinks.
B You must book it in advance.
C You get a reduction if you buy two tickets.
D You can meet the performers.
E You can take part in the show.
Questions 19 and 20. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does the speaker say about the Castle Feast?
A Visitors can dance after the meal.
B There is a choice of food.
C Visitors wear historical costume.
D Knives and forks are not used.
E The entertainment includes horse races.
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PART 3
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 What does Trevor find interesting about the purpose of children’s literature?
A the fact that authors may not realise what values they’re teaching
B the fact that literature can be entertaining and educational at the same time
C the fact that adults expect children to imitate characters in literature
22 Trevor says the module about the purpose of children’s literature made him
A analyse some of the stories that his niece reads.
B wonder how far popularity reflects good quality.
C decide to start writing some children’s stories.
23 Stephanie is interested in the Pictures module because
A she intends to become an illustrator.
B she can remember beautiful illustrations from her childhood.
C she believes illustrations are more important than words.
24 Trevor and Stephanie agree that comics
A are inferior to books.
B have the potential for being useful.
C discourage children from using their imagination.
25 With regard to books aimed at only boys or only girls, Trevor was surprised
A how long the distinction had gone unquestioned.
B how few books were aimed at both girls and boys.
C how many children enjoyed books intended for the opposite sex.
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Questions 26-30
What comment is made about each of these stories?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Comments
translated into many other languages
hard to read
inspired a work in a different area of art
more popular than the author’s other works
original title refers to another book
started a new genre
unlikely topic
Stories
26 Perrault’s fairy tales
27 The Swiss Family Robinson
28 The Nutcracker and the Mouse King
29 The Lord of the Rings
30 War Horse
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…………………
…………………
…………………
…………………
…………………
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PART 4
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The hunt for sunken settlements and ancient shipwrecks
ATLIT-YAM
o was a village on coast of eastern Mediterranean
o thrived until about 7,000 BC
o stone homes had a courtyard
o had a semicircle of large stones round a 31…………………
o cause of destruction unknown – now under the sea
o biggest settlement from the prehistoric period found on the seabed
o research carried out into structures, 32………………… and human remains
TRADITIONAL AUTONOMOUS UNDERWATER VEHICLES (AUVs)
o used in the oil industry, e.g. to make 33………………….
o problems: they were expensive and 34…………………..
LATEST AUVs
o much easier to use, relatively cheap, sophisticated
Tests:
o Marzamemi, Sicily: found ancient Roman ships carrying architectural elements made
of 35………………
Underwater internet:
o 36……………… is used for short distance communication, acoustic waves for long distance
o plans for communication with researchers by satellite
o AUV can send data to another AUV that has better 3…………………, for example
Planned research in Gulf of Baratti:
o to find out more about wrecks of ancient Roman ships, including
– one carrying 38………………… supplies; tables may have been used for cleaning
the 39…………………
– others carrying containers of olive oil or 40…………………
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CAM 13 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
COOKERY CLASSES
Cookery Class
The Food Studio
Bond’s Cookery
School
The 7………….
Centre
Blog
Focus
Other Information
how to 1………… and
cook with seasonal
products
● small classes
● also offers 2………… classes
● clients who return get a 3…………
discount
food that is 4………….
● includes recipes to strengthen
your 5………….
● they have a free 6…………. every
Thursday
mainly 8………… food
● located near the 9…………
● a special course in skills with
a 10…………. is sometimes available
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 13
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Traffic Changes in Granford
11 Why are changes needed to traffic systems in Granford?
A The number of traffic accidents has risen.
B The amount of traffic on the roads has increased.
C The types of vehicles on the roads have changed.
12 In a survey, local residents particularly complained about
A dangerous driving by parents.
B pollution from trucks and lorries.
C inconvenience from parked cars.
13 According to the speaker, one problem with the new regulations will be
A raising money to pay for them.
B finding a way to make people follow them.
C getting the support of the police.
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Questions 14-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 14-20
Proposed traffic changes in Granford
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
New traffic lights
Pedestrian crossing
Parking allowed
New ‘No Parking’ sign
New disabled parking spaces
Widened pavement
Lorry loading/unloading restrictions
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…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 Why is Jack interested in investigating seed germination?
A He may do a module on a related topic later on.
B He wants to have a career in plant science.
C He is thinking of choosing this topic for his dissertation.
22 Jack and Emma agree the main advantage of their present experiment is that it can be
A described very easily.
B carried out inside the laboratory.
C completed in the time available.
23 What do they decide to check with their tutor?
A whether their aim is appropriate
B whether anyone else has chosen this topic
C whether the assignment contributes to their final grade
24 They agree that Graves’ book on seed germination is disappointing because
A it fails to cover recent advances in seed science.
B the content is irrelevant for them.
C its focus is very theoretical.
25 What does Jack say about the article on seed germination by Lee Hall?
A The diagrams of plant development are useful.
B The analysis of seed germination statistics is thorough.
C The findings on seed germination after fires are surprising.
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Questions 26-30
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 26-30
A container B soil
E height
F colour
C weight
G types
D condition
H depths
Stage in the experiment
Select seeds of different 26…………… and sizes.
↓
Measure and record the 27……………. and size of each one.
↓
Decide on the 28……………… to be used.
↓
Use a different 29…………….. for each seed and label it.
↓
After about 3 weeks, record the plant’s 30……………… .
↓
Investigate the findings.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Effects of urban environments on animals
Introduction
Recent urban developments represent massive environmental changes. It was previously thought
that only a few animals were suitable for city life, e.g.
● the 31……………. – because of its general adaptability
● the pigeon – because walls of city buildings are similar to 32……………..
In fact, many urban animals are adapting with unusual 33…………….
Recent research
● Emilie Snell-Rood studied small urbanised mammal specimens from museums in Minnesota.
– She found the size of their 34…………….. had increased.
– She suggests this may be due to the need to locate new sources of 35……………. and to deal
with new dangers.
● Catarina Miranda focused on the 36……………. of urban and rural blackbirds.
– She found urban birds were often braver, but were afraid of situations that were 37……………
● Jonathan Atwell studies how animals respond to urban environments.
– He found that some animals respond to 38……………… by producing lower levels of hormones.
● Sarah Partan’s team found urban squirrels use their 39…………….. to help them communicate.
Long-term possibilities
Species of animals may develop which are unique to cities. However, some changes may not
be 40…………….. .
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CAM 13 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
South City Cycling Club
Name of club secretary: Jim Hunter
Membership
● Full membership costs $260; this covers cycling and 1……………………… all over Australia
● Recreational membership costs $108
● Cost of membership includes the club fee and 2………………………
● The club kit is made by a company called 3………………………
Training rides
● Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness
● Level B: speed about 4……………………… kph
● Weekly sessions
– Tuesdays at 5.30 am, meet at the 5………………………
– Thursdays at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the 6………………………
Further information
● Rides are about an hour and a half
● Members often have 7……………………… together afterwards
● There is not always a 8……………………… with the group on these rides
● Check and print the 9……………………… on the website beforehand
● Bikes must have 10………………………
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Information on company volunteering projects
11 How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee?
A two hours per week
B one day per month
C 8 hours per year
12 In feedback almost all employees said that volunteering improved their
A chances of promotion.
B job satisfaction.
C relationships with colleagues.
13 Last year some staff helped unemployed people with their
A literacy skills.
B job applications.
C communication skills.
14 This year the company will start a new volunteering project with a local
A school.
B park.
C charity.
15 Where will the Digital Inclusion Day be held?
A at the company’s training facility
B at a college
C in a community centre
16 What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day?
A fill in a form
B attend a training workshop
C get permission from their manager
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Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO things are mentioned about the participants on the last Digital Inclusion Day?
A They were all over 70.
B They never used their computer.
C Their phones were mostly old-fashioned.
D They only used their phones for making calls.
E They initially showed little interest.
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO activities on the last Digital Inclusion Day did participants describe as useful?
A learning to use tablets
B communicating with family
C shopping online
D playing online games
E sending emails
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Planning a presentation on nanotechnology
21 Russ says that his difficulty in planning the presentation is due to
A his lack of knowledge about the topic.
B his uncertainly about what he should try to achieve.
C the short time that he has for preparation.
22 Russ and his tutor agree that his approach in the presentation will be
A to concentrate on how nanotechnology is used in one field.
B to follow the chronological development of nanotechnology.
C to show the range of applications of nanotechnology.
23 In connection with slides, the tutor advises Russ to
A talk about things that he can find slides to illustrate.
B look for slides to illustrate the points he makes.
C consider omitting slides altogether.
24 They both agree that the best way for Russ to start his presentation is
A to encourage the audience to talk.
B to explain what Russ intends to do.
C to provide an example.
25 What does the tutor advise Russ to do next while preparing his presentation?
A summarise the main point he wants to make
B read the notes he has already made
C list the topics he wants to cover
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Questions 26 – 30
What comments do the speakers make about each of the following aspects of Russ’s previous
presentation?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Comments
lacked a conclusion
useful in the future
not enough
sometimes distracting
showed originality
covered a wide range
not too technical
Aspects of Russ’s previous presentation
26 structure
…………….
27 eye contact
…………….
28 body language
…………….
29 choice of words …………….
30 handouts
…………….
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Episodic memory
● the ability to recall details, e.g. the time and 31……………………. of past events
● different to semantic memory – the ability to remember general information about
the 32……………………., which does not involve recalling 33……………………. information
Forming episodic memories involves three steps:
Encoding
● involves receiving and processing information
● the more 34……………………. given to an event, the more successfully it can be encoded
● to remember a 35……………………., it is useful to have a strategy for encoding such information
Consolidation
● how memories are strengthened and stored
● most effective when memories can be added to a 36……………………. of related information
● the 37……………………. of retrieval affects the strength of memories
Retrieval
● memory retrieval often depends on using a prompt, e.g. the 38……………………. of an object
near to the place where you left your car
Episodic memory impairments
● these affect people with a wide range of medical conditions
● games which stimulate the 39……………………. have been found to help people with
schizophrenia
● children with autism may have difficulty forming episodic memories – possibly because their
concept of the 40……………………. may be absent
● memory training may help autistic children develop social skills
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CAM 13 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Moving to Banford City
Linda recommends living in suburb of Dalton
Accommodation
● Average rent: 1 £…………… a month
Transport
● Linda travels to work by 2……………
● Limited 3…………… in city centre
● Trains to London every 4……………. minutes
● Poor train service at 5……………
Advantages of living in Banford
● New 6…………… opened recently
● 7…………… has excellent reputation
● Good 8…………… on Bridge Street
Meet Linda
● Meet Linda on 9………….. after 5.30 pm
● In the 10…………… opposite the station
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16
What advantage does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Advantages
not dependent on season
enjoyable
low risk of injury
fitness level unimportant
sociable
fast results
motivating
Physical activities
11 using a gym
……………
12 running
……………
13 swimming
……………
14 cycling
……………
15 doing yoga
……………
16 training with a personal trainer ……………
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Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?
A lack of time
B loss of confidence
C too much effort required
D high costs
E feeling less successful than others
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?
A write goals down
B have achievable aims
C set a time limit
D give yourself rewards
E challenge yourself
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Project on using natural dyes to colour fabrics
21 What first inspired Jim to choose this project?
A textiles displayed in an exhibition
B a book about a botanic garden
C carpets he saw on holiday
22 Jim eventually decided to do a practical investigation which involved
A using a range of dyes with different fibers.
B applying different dyes to one type of fiber.
C testing one dye and a range of fibers.
23 When doing his experiments, Jim was surprised by
A how much natural material was needed to make the dye.
B the fact that dyes were widely available on the internet.
C the time that he had to leave the fabric in the dye.
24 What problem did Jim have with using tartrazine as a fabric dye?
A It caused a slight allergic reaction.
B It was not a permanent dye on cotton.
C It was ineffective when used on nylon.
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Questions 25 – 30
What problem is identified with each of the following natural dyes?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Natural dyes
25 turmeric
26 beetroot
27 Tyrian purple
28 logwood
29 cochineal
30 metal oxide
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Problems
It is expensive.
The colour is too strong.
The colour is not long-lasting.
It is very poisonous.
It can damage the fabric.
The colour may be unexpected.
It is unsuitable for some fabrics.
It is not generally available
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The sleepy lizard (tiliqua rugosa)
Description
● They are common in Western and South Australia
● They are brown, but recognisable by their blue 31…………….
● They are relatively large
● Their diet consists mainly of 32…………….
● Their main predators are large birds and 33………………
Navigation study
● One study found that lizards can use the 34………………. to help them navigate
Observations in the wild
● Observations show that these lizards keep the same 35……………… for several years
What people want
● Possible reasons:
– to improve the survival of their young
(but little 36……………… has been noted between parents and children)
– to provide 37………………. for female lizards
Tracking study
– A study was carried out using GPS systems attached to the 38……………… of the lizards
– This provided information on the lizards’ location and even the number of 39………………
taken
– It appeared that the lizards were trying to avoid one another
– This may be in order to reduce chances of 40………………..
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CAM 13 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Alex’s Training
Alex completed his training in 2014
About the applicant:
● At first, Alex did his training in the 1……………… department.
● Alex didn’t have a qualification from school in 2……………… .
● Alex thinks he should have done the diploma in 3……………… skills.
● Age of other trainees: the youngest was 4………………. .
Benefits of doing training at JPNW:
● Lots of opportunities because of the size of the organisation.
● Trainees receive the same amount of 5……………… as permanent staff.
● The training experience increases people’s confidence a lot.
● Trainees go to 6…………….. one day per month.
● The company is in a convenient 7……………… .
Advice for interview:
● Don’t wear 8………………. .
● Don’t be 9………………. .
● Make sure you 10……………… .
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The Snow Centre
11 Annie recommends that when cross-country skiing, the visitors should
A get away from the regular trails.
B stop to enjoy views of the scenery.
C go at a slow speed at the beginning.
12 What does Annie tell the group about this afternoon’s dog-sled trip?
A Those who want to can take part in a race.
B Anyone has the chance to drive a team of dogs.
C One group member will be chosen to lead the trail.
13 What does Annie say about the team relay event?
A All participants receive a medal.
B The course is 4 km long.
C Each team is led by a teacher.
14 On the snow-shoe trip, the visitors will
A visit an old gold mine.
B learn about unusual flowers.
C climb to the top of a mountain.
15 The cost of accommodation in the mountain hut includes
A a supply of drinking water.
B transport of visitors’ luggage.
C cooked meals.
16 If there is a storm while the visitors are in the hut, they should
A contact the bus driver.
B wait until the weather improves.
C use the emergency locator beacon.
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Questions 17 – 20
What information does Annie give about skiing on each of the following mountain trails?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17-20
A
B
C
D
E
F
Mountain trails
17 Highland Trail
18 Pine Trail
19 Stony Trail
20 Loser’s Trail
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Information
It has a good place to stop and rest.
It is suitable for all abilities.
It involves crossing a river.
It demands a lot of skill.
It may be closed in bad weather.
It has some very narrow sections.
…………….
…………….
…………….
…………….
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Labels giving nutritional information on food packaging
21 What was Jack’s attitude to nutritional food labels before this project?
A He didn’t read everything on them.
B He didn’t think they were important.
C He thought they were too complicated.
22 Alice says that before doing this project,
A she was unaware of what certain foods contained.
B she was too lazy to read food labels.
C she was only interested in the number of calories.
23 When discussing supermarket brands of pizza, Jack agrees with Alice that
A the list of ingredients is shocking.
B he will hesitate before buying pizza again.
C the nutritional label is misleading.
24 Jack prefers the daily value system to other labelling systems because it is
A more accessible.
B more logical.
C more comprehensive.
25 What surprised both students about one flavour of crisps?
A The percentage of artificial additives given was incorrect.
B The products did not contain any meat.
C The labels did not list all the ingredients.
26 What do the students think about research into the impact of nutritional food labelling?
A It did not produce clear results.
B It focused on the wrong people.
C It made unrealistic recommendations.
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Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things surprised the students about the traffic-light system for nutritional labels?
A its widespread use
B the fact that it is voluntary for supermarkets
C how little research was done before its introduction
D its unpopularity with food manufacturers
E the way that certain colours are used
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things are true about the participants in the study on the traffic-light system?
A They had low literacy levels.
B They were regular consumers of packaged food.
C They were selected randomly.
D They were from all socio-economic groups.
E They were interviewed face-to-face.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The history of coffee
Coffee in the Arab world
● There was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
● 1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
● 1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the 31……………… of every coffee house.
Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)
● Coffee shops were compared to 32………………. .
● They played an important part in social and 33………………. changes.
Coffee and European colonization
● European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies.
● Types of coffee were often named according to the 34……………….. they came from.
● In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on 35………………… .
● In Java, coffee was used as a form of 36…………………. .
● Coffee became almost as important as 37…………………. .
● The move towards the consumption of 38………………….. in Britain did not also take place in the
USA.
Coffee in the 19th century
● Prices dropped because of improvements in 39…………………. .
● Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at 40…………………. .
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CAM 12 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
FAMILY EXCURSIONS
Cruise on a lake
● Travel on an old steamship
● Can take photos of the 1……………. that surround the lake
Farm visit
● Children can help feed the sheep
● Visit can include a 40-minute ride on a 2……………..
● Visitors can walk in the farm’s 3……………. by the lake
● 4……………. is available at extra cost
Cycling trips
● Cyclists explore the Back Road
● A 5…………….. is provided
● Only suitable for cyclists who have some 6……………..
– Bikes can be hired from 7……………. (near the Cruise Ship Terminal)
● Cyclists need:
– a repair kit
– food and drink
– a 8……………. (can be hired)
● There are no 9……………… or accommodation in the area
Cost
● Total cost for whole family of cruise and farm visit: 10 $……………….
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Talk to new kitchen assistants
11 According to the manager, what do most people like about the job of kitchen assistant?
A the variety of work
B the friendly atmosphere
C the opportunities for promotion
12 The manager is concerned about some of the new staff’s
A jewellery.
B hair styles.
C shoes.
13 The manager says that the day is likely to be busy for kitchen staff because
A it is a public holiday.
B the head chef is absent.
C the restaurant is almost fully booked.
14 Only kitchen staff who are 18 or older are allowed to use
A the waste disposal unit.
B the electric mixer.
C the meat slicer.
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Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
According to the manager, which TWO things can make the job of kitchen assistant stressful?
A They have to follow orders immediately.
B The kitchen gets very hot.
C They may not be able to take a break.
D They have to do overtime.
E The work is physically demanding.
Questions 17 – 20
What is the responsibility of each of the following restaurant staff?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17-20
Responsibilities
A training courses
B food stocks
C first aid
D breakages
E staff discounts
F timetables
Restaurant staff
17 Joy Parkins
18 David Field
19 Dexter Wills
20 Mike Smith
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……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 23
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Paper on Public Libraries
21 What will be the main topic of Trudie and Stewart’s paper?
A how public library services are organised in different countries
B how changes in society are reflected in public libraries
C how the funding of public libraries has changed
22 They agree that one disadvantage of free digitalised books is that
A they may take a long time to read.
B they can be difficult to read.
C they are generally old.
23 Stewart expect that in the future libraries will
A maintain their traditional function.
B become centres for local communities.
C no longer contain any books.
Questions 24 – 30
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
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Study of local library: possible questions
whether it has a 24…………….. of its own
its policy regarding noise of various kinds
how it’s affected by laws regarding all aspects of 25………………
how the design needs to take the 26……………. of customers into account
what 27…………….. is required in case of accidents
why a famous person’s 28………………. is located in the library
whether it has a 29………………. of local organisations
how it’s different from a library in a 30…………………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Four business values
Many business values can result in 31……………… .
Senior managers need to understand and deal with the potential 32……………… that may result.
Collaboration
During a training course, the speaker was in a team that had to build a 33………………. .
Other teams experienced 34…………….. from trying to collaborate.
The speaker’s team won because they reduced collaboration.
Sales of a 35…………….. were poor because of collaboration.
Industriousness
Hard work may be a bad use of various company 36………………. .
The word ‘lazy’ in this context refers to people who avoid doing tasks that are 37………………… .
Creativity
An advertising campaign for a 38……………….. was memorable but failed to boost sales.
Creativity should be used as a response to a particular 39………………. .
Excellence
According to one study, on average, pioneers had a 40……………… that was far higher than that of
followers.
Companies that always aim at excellence may miss opportunities.
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CAM 12 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Events during Kenton Festival
Start date: 16th May
Opening ceremony (first day)
● In town centre, starting at 1…………………………
The mayor will make a speech
A 2…………………………will perform
Performance of a 3……………. about Helen Tungate (a 4…………………………)
Evening fireworks display situated across the 5…………………………
Other events
● Video about relationships that children have with their 6…………………………
Venue: 7…………………………House
● Performance of 8…………………………dances
Venue: the 9…………………………market in the town centre
Time: 2 and 5 pm every day except 1st day of festival
● Several professional concerts and one by children
Venue: library
Time: 6.30 pm on the 18th
Tickets available online from festival box office and from shops which have the
festival 10…………………………in their windows
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Theatre trip to Munich
11 When the group meet at the airport they will have
A breakfast.
B coffee.
C lunch.
12 The group will be met at Munich Airport by
A an employee at the National Theatre.
B a theatre manager.
C a tour operator.
13 How much will they pay per night for a double room at the hotel?
A 110 euros
B 120 euros
C 150 euros
14 What type of restaurant will they go to on Tuesday evening?
A an Italian restaurant
B a Lebanese restaurant
C a typical restaurant of the region
15 Who will they meet on Wednesday afternoon?
A an actor
B a playwright
C a theatre director
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Questions 16-20
What does the man say about the play on each of the following days?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Days
16 Wednesday
17 Thursday
18 Friday
19 Saturday
20 Monday
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Comments
The playwright will be present.
The play was written to celebrate an anniversary.
The play will be performed inside a historic building.
The play will be accompanied by live music.
The play will be performed outdoors.
The play will be performed for the first time.
The performance will be attended by officials from the town.
…………..
…………..
…………..
…………..
…………..
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Scandinavian Studies
21 James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child
A he was often taken to Denmark.
B his mother spoke to him in Danish.
C a number of Danish people visited his family.
22 When he graduates, James would like to
A take a postgraduate course.
B work in the media.
C become a translator.
23 Which course will end this term?
A Swedish cinema
B Danish television programmes
C Scandinavian literature
24 They agree that James’s literature paper this term will be on
A 19th century playwrights.
B the Icelandic sagas.
C modern Scandinavian novels.
25 Beth recommends that James’s paper should be
A a historical overview of the genre.
B an in-depth analysis of a single writer.
C a study of the social background to the literature.
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Questions 26 – 30
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
bullet points
film
notes
structure
student paper
textbook
documentary
How James will write his paper on the Vikings
He’ll read a 26……………. and choose his topic.
↓
He’ll borrow a 27…………….. from Beth.
↓
He’ll plan the 28……………… of the paper.
↓
He’ll read some source material and write 29……………… .
↓
He’ll write the paper using 30……………. .
↓
He’ll write the complete paper.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Conflict at work
Conflict mostly consists of behaviour in the general category of 31…………………………
Often a result of people wanting to prove their 32…………………………
Also caused by differences in 33…………………………between people 34 ‘…………………………’
conflicts: people more concerned about own team than about company
Conflict-related stress can cause 35……………. that may last for months
Chief Executives (CEOs)
Many have both 36…………………………and anxiety
May not like to have their decisions questioned
There may be conflict between people who have different 37…………………………
Other managers
A structure that is more 38…………………………may create a feeling of uncertainly about who staff
should report to.
Minimising conflict
Bosses need to try hard to gain 39…………………………
Someone from outside the company may be given the role of 40…………………………in order to
resolve conflicts.
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CAM 12 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
PUBLIC LIBRARY
The library re-opened last month
The library now has
o a seating area with magazines
o an expanded section for books on 1…………….
o a new section on local 2……………
o a community room for meetings (also possible to 3……………. there)
o a new section of books for 4…………….
For younger children
o the next Science Club meeting: experiments using things from your 5……………
o Reading Challenge: read six books during the holidays
For adults
o this Friday: a local author talks about a novel based on a real 6……………
o IT support is available on Tuesday – no 7……………. is necessary
o free check of blood 8…………… and cholesterol levels (over 60s only)
Other information
o the library shop sells wall-charts, cards and 9……………
o evenings and weekends: free 10…………… is available
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?
A 16-30 years
B 31-42 years
C 43-54 years
D 55-64 years
E over 65 years
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?
A Clients make new friends.
B Clients learn a useful skill.
C Clients learn about a different culture.
D Clients are excited by the risk involved.
E Clients find them good value for money.
Questions 15 – 17
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
15 How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
A by adding to the number of locations
B by increasing the range of levels
C by employing more teachers
16 Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?
A They only use organic foods.
B They have an international focus.
C They mainly involve vegetarian dishes.
17 What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
A Clients receive individual tuition.
B The tutors are also trained guides.
C Advice is given on selling photographs.
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Questions 18 – 20
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Fitness Holidays
Location
Main focus
Other comments
Ireland and Italy
general fitness
● personally designed programme
● also reduces 18…………..
Greece
19……………. control
● includes exercise on the beach
Mountain biking
● wide variety of levels
● one holiday that is specially
designed for 20……………
Morocco
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
Complete the flow-chart below
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 21-26.
A patterns
E employees
B names
C sources
D questions
F solutions G headings H officials
STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY
RESEARCH
Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also 21…………….
Identify a problem or need
Select interviewees – these may be site 22…………… , visitors or city 23………………
Prepare and carry out interviews. If possible, collect statistics.
Check whether 24……………. of interviewees can be used.
↓
ANALYSIS
Select relevant information and try to identify 25………………
Decide on the best form of visuals
↓
WRITING THE CASE STUDY
Give some background before writing the main sections
Do NOT end with 26………………
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Questions 27 – 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The Horton Castle site
27 Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
A the publicity is poor.
B it is difficult to get to.
C there is little there of interest.
28 Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
A covering the investment costs.
B finding a big enough space for it.
C dealing with planning restrictions.
29 What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
A There is a lot of unemployment.
B There are few people of working age.
C There are opportunities for skilled workers.
30 According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
A insist visitors have a guide.
B make visitors keep to the paths.
C limit visitor numbers.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The effects of environmental change on birds
Mercury (Hg)
● Highly toxic
● Released into the atmosphere from coal
● In water it may be consumed by fish
● It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on 31……………..
Research on effects of mercury on birds
● Claire Varian-Ramos is investigating
– the effects on birds’ 32……………… or mental processes, e.g. memory
– the effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s 33………………. )
● Findings:
– songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less 34……………….
– this may have a negative effect on birds’ 35……………..
● Lab-based studies
– allow more 36……………… for the experimenter
Implications for humans
● Migrating birds such as 37………………. containing mercury may be eaten by humans
● Mercury also causes problems in learning 38………………
● Mercury in a mother’s body from 39……………… may affect the unborn child
● New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s energy 40………………
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CAM 12 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the note below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Cycle tour leader: Applicant enquiry
Name: Margaret Smith
About the applicant:
● wants a 1………….. job
● will soon start work as a 2…………….
● has led cycle trips in 3………………
● interested in being a leader of a cycling trip for families
● is currently doing voluntary work with members of a 4……………… club
● available for five months from the 1st of 5……………..
● can’t eat 6……………..
Contact details:
● address: 27 7…………….. Place, Dumfries
● postcode: 8…………….
Interview:
● interview at 2.30 pm on 9……………..
● will plan a short 10…………… about being a tour guide
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Visiting the Sheepmarket area
11 Which is the most rapidly-growing group of residents in the Sheepmarket area?
A young professional people
B students from the university
C employees in the local market
12 The speaker recommends the side streets in the Sheepmarket for their
A international restaurants.
B historical buildings.
C arts and crafts.
13 Clothes designed by entrants for the Young Fashion competition must
A be modelled by the designers themselves.
B be inspired by aspects of contemporary culture.
C be made from locally produced materials.
14 Car parking is free in some car parks if you
A stay for less than an hour.
B buy something in the shops.
C park in the evenings or at weekends.
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Questions 15 – 20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 15-20
15
16
17
18
19
20
The Reynolds House
The Thumb
The Museum
The Contemporary Art Gallery
The Warner Gallery
Nucleus
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……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 24
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Presentation of film adaptations of Shakespeare’s plays
Stages of presentation
Work still to be done
Introduce Giannetti’s book containing
a 21…………… of adaptations
Organise notes
Ask class to suggest the 22…………….
adaptations
No further work needed
Present Rachel Malchow’s ideas
Prepare some 23……………
Discuss relationship between adaptations
and 24………….. at the time of making the
film
No further work needed
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Questions 25 – 30
What do the speakers say about each of the following films?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Comments
clearly shows the historical period
contains only parts of the play
is too similar to another kind of film
turned out to be unpopular with audiences
presents the play in a different period from the original
sets the original in a different country
incorporates a variety of art forms
Films
25 Ran
26 Much Ado About Nothing
27 Romeo & Juliet
28 Hamlet
29 Prospero’s Books
30 Looking for Richard
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……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Noise in Cities
Past research focused on noise level (measured in decibels) and people’s responses.
Noise ‘maps’
● show that the highest noise levels are usually found on roads
● do not show other sources of noise, e.g. when windows are open or people’s neighbours are in
their 31……………
● ignore variation in people’s perceptions of noise
● have made people realize that the noise is a 32…………….. issue that must be dealt with
Problems caused by noise
● sleep disturbance
● increase in amount of stress
● effect on the 33……………. of schoolchildren
Different types of noise
Some noises can be considered pleasant e.g. the sound of a 34……………… in a town
To investigate this, researchers may use methods from 35……………… sciences e.g. questionnaires
What people want
Plenty of activity in urban environments which are 36……………… , but also allow people to relax
But architects and town planners
● do not get much 37…………….. in acoustics
● regard sound as the responsibility of engineers
Understanding sound as an art form
We need to know
● how sound relates to 38……………….
● what can be learnt from psychology about the effects of sound
● whether physics can help us understand the 39…………….. of sound
Virtual reality programs
● advantage: predict the effect of buildings
● current disadvantage: they are 40……………..
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CAM 11 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
HIRING A PUBLIC ROOM
Example
● the Main Hall – seats 200
Room and cost
o the 1………….. Room – seats 100
o Cost of Main Hall for Saturday evening: 2 £……………
+ £250 deposit (3…………… payment is required)
o Cost includes use of tables and chairs and also 4……………..
o Additional charge for use of the kitchen: £25
Before the event
o Will need a 5……………. licence
o Need to contact caretaker (Mr Evans) in advance to arrange 6…………….
During the event
o The building is no smoking
o The bank should use the 7…………….. door at the back
o Don’t touch the system that controls the volume
o For microphones, contact the caretaker
After the event
o Need to know the 8……………. for the cleaning cupboard
o The 9…………….. must be washed and rubbish placed in black bags
o All 10……………. Must be taken down
o Chairs and tables must be piled up
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD for each answer.
Fiddy Working Heritage Farm
Advice about visiting the farm
Visitors should
o take care not to harm any 11……………..
o not touch any 12…………….
o wear 13…………….
o not bring 14……………. into the farm, with certain exceptions.
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Questions 15-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I, next to Questions 15-20.
15
16
17
18
19
20
Scarecrow
…………..
Maze
…………..
Café
…………..
Black Barn
…………..
Covered picnic area …………..
Fiddy House
…………..
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 30. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Study on Gender in Physics
21 The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in
A physics.
B psychology or physics.
C science, technology, engineering or mathematics.
22 The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate
A what kind of women choose to study physics.
B a way of improving women’s performance in physics.
C whether fewer women than men study physics at college.
23 The female physics students were wrong to believe that
A the teachers marked them in an unfair way.
B the male students expected them to do badly.
C their test results were lower than the male students’.
24 Miyake’s team asked the students to write about
A what they enjoyed about studying physics.
B the successful experiences of other people.
C something that was important to them personally.
25 What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects?
A to reduce stress
B to strengthen verbal ability
C to encourage logical thinking
26 What surprised the researchers about the study?
A how few students managed to get A grades
B the positive impact it had on physics results for women
C the difference between male and female performance
27 Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by
A the length of the writing task.
B the number of students who took part.
C the information the students were given.
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28 Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of
A two different writing tasks.
B a writing task with an oral task.
C two different oral tasks.
29 The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities
A were most effective when done by all-women groups.
B had no effect on the performance of men or women.
C improved the results of men more than of women.
30 What will Lisa and Greg do next?
A talk to a professor
B observe a science class
C look at the science timetable
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40. Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Ocean Biodiversity
Biodiversity hotspots
● areas containing many different species
● important for locating targets for 31……………
● at first only identified on land
Boris Worm, 2005
● identified hotspots for large ocean predators, e.g. sharks
● found the ocean hotspots:
– were not always rich in 32………………
– had higher temperatures at the 33……………..
– had sufficient 34…………….. in the water
Lisa Ballance, 2007
● looked for hotspots for marine 35……………..
● found these were all located where ocean currents meet
Census of Marine Life
● found new ocean species living:
– under the 36………………
– near volcanoes on the ocean floor
Global Marine Species Assessment
● want to list endangered ocean species, considering:
– population size
– geographical distribution
– rate of 37……………….
● Aim: to assess 20,000 species and make a distribution 38………………. for each one
Recommendations to retain ocean biodiversity
● increase the number of ocean reserves
● establish 39……………… corridors (e.g. for turtles)
● reduce fishing quotas
● catch fish only for the purpose of 40……………..
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CAM 11 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Enquiry about joining Youth Council
Example
Name: Roger Brown
Age: 18
Currently staying in a 1……………. during the week
Postal address: 2 17, ……………… Street, Stamford, Lincs
Postcode: 3……………..
Occupation: student and part-time job as a 4……………..
Studying 5…………… (major subject) and history (minor subject)
Hobbies: does a lot of 6……………., and is interested in the 7……………..
On Youth Council, wants to work with young people who are 8……………..
Will come to talk to the Elections Officer next Monday at 9…………….. pm
Mobile number: 10……………
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
New staff at theatre
Which TWO changes have been made so far during the refurbishment of the theatre?
A Some rooms now have a different use.
B A different type of seating has been installed.
C An elevator has been installed.
D The outside of the building has been repaired.
E Extra seats have been added.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facilities does the theatre currently offer to the public?
A rooms for hire
B backstage tours
C hire of costumes
D a bookshop
E a café
Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO workshops does the theatre currently offer?
A sound
B acting
C making puppets
D make-up
E lighting
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Questions 17-20
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 17-20.
Ground floor plan of theatre
17
18
19
20
box office
……
theatre manager’s office ……
lighting box
……
artistic director’s offices ……
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Rocky Bay field trip
21 What do the students agree should be included in their aims?
A factors affecting where organisms live
B the need to preserve endangered species
C techniques for classifying different organisms
22 What equipment did they forget to take on the Field Trip?
A string
B a compass
C a ruler
23 In Helen’s procedure section, Colin suggests a change in
A the order in which information is given.
B the way the information is divided up.
C the amount of information provided.
24 What do they say about the method they used to measure wave speed?
A It provided accurate results.
B It was simple to carry out.
C It required special equipment.
25 What mistake did Helen make when first drawing the map?
A She chose the wrong scale.
B She stood in the wrong place.
C She did it at the wrong time.
26 What do they decide to do next with their map?
A scan it onto a computer
B check it using photographs
C add information from the internet
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Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO problems affecting organisms in the splash zone are mentioned?
A lack of water
B strong winds
C lack of food
D high temperatures
E large waves
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO reasons for possible error will they include in their report?
A inaccurate records of the habitat of organisms
B influence on behaviour of organisms by observer
C incorrect identification of some organisms
D making generalisations from a small sample
E missing some organisms when counting
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
DESIGNING A PUBLIC BUILDING: THE TAYLOR CONCERT HALL
Introduction
The designer of a public building may need to consider the building’s
o function
o physical and 31…………….. context
o symbolic meaning
Location and concept of the Concert Hall
On the site of a disused 32………………
Beside a 33………………
The design is based on the concept of a mystery
Building design
It’s approached by a 34……………… for pedestrians
The building is the shape of a 35……………….
One exterior wall acts as a large 36………………
In the auditorium:
o the floor is built on huge pads made of 37………………
o the walls are made of local wood and are 38……………… in shape
o ceiling panels and 39………………. on walls allow adjustment of acoustics
Evaluation
Some critics say the 40…………….. style of the building is inappropriate
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CAM 11 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1 – 6. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Free activities in the Burnham area
The caller wants to find out about events on
A 27 June.
B 28 June.
C 29 June.
Số câu đúng: …./40
1 The ‘Family Welcome’ event in the art
gallery begins at
A 10 am.
B 10.30 am.
C 2 pm.
4 Where will the 4 pm concert of Latin
American music take place?
A in a museum
B in a theatre
C in a library
2 The film that is now shown in the ‘Family
Welcome’ event is about
A sculpture.
B painting.
C ceramics.
5
A
B
C
3 When do most of the free concerts take
place?
A in the morning
B at lunchtime
C in the evening
The boat race begins at
Summer Pool.
Charlesworth Bridge.
Offord Marina.
6 One of the boat race teams
A won a regional competition earlier this
year.
B has represented the region in a national
competition.
C has won several regional competitions.
Questions 7-10. Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Paxton Nature Reserve
7 Paxton is a good place for seeing rare ………………. all year round.
8 This is a particularly good time for seeing certain unusual ………………….
9 Visitors will be able to learn about ………………. and then collect some.
10 Part of the ………………. has been made suitable for swimming.
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Changes in Barford over the last 50 years
11 In Shona’s opinion, why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days?
A The buses are old and uncomfortable.
B Fares have gone up too much.
C There are not so many bus routes.
12 What change in the road network is known to have benefited the town most?
A the construction of a bypass
B the development of cycle paths
C the banning of cars from certain streets
13 What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre?
A lack of parking spaces
B lack of major retailers
C lack of restaurants and cafés
14 What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford?
A There is no hospital.
B New medical practices are planned.
C The number of dentists is too low.
15 The largest number of people are employed in
A manufacturing.
B services.
C education.
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Questions 16-20
What is planned for each of the following facilities?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Facilities
16 railway station car park
17 cinema
18 indoor market
19 library
20 nature reserve
Blog
Plans
It will move to a new location.
It will have its opening hours extended.
It will be refurbished.
It will be used for a different purpose.
It will have its opening hours reduced.
It will have new management.
It will be expanded.
……………
……………
……………
……………
……………
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 26
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Subject of drawing
Change to be made
A 21…………… surrounded by trees
Add Malcolm and a 22……………. noticing
him
People who are 23……………. outside the
forest
Add Malcolm sitting on a tree trunk
and 24……………..
Ice-skaters on 25…………….. covered with ice
Add a 26……………… for each person
Questions 27-30
Who is going to write each of the following parts of the report?
Write the correct letter, A-D, next to Questions 27-30.
A
B
C
D
Helen only
Jeremy only
both Helen and Jeremy
neither Helen nor Jeremy
Parts of the report
27 how they planned the project
28 how they had ideas for their stories
29 an interpretation of their stories
30 comments on the illustrations
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
ETHNOGRAPHY IN BUSINESS
Ethnography: research which explores human cultures
It can be used in business:
o to investigate customer needs and 31…………….
o to help companies develop new designs
Examples of ethnographic research in business
Kitchen equipment
o Researchers found that cooks could not easily see the 32…………….. in measuring cups.
Cell phones
o In Uganda, customers paid to use the cell phones of entrepreneurs.
o These customers wanted to check the 33…………….. used.
Computer companies
o There was a need to develop 34………………. to improve communication between system
administrators and colleagues.
Hospitals
o Nurses needed to access information about 35…………….. in different parts of the hospital.
Airlines
o Respondents recorded information about their 36…………….. while travelling.
Principles of ethnographic research in business
o The researcher does not start off with a hypothesis.
o Participants may be selected by criteria such as age, 37………………. or product used.
o The participants must feel 38……………… about taking part in the research.
o There is usually direct 39………………. of the participants.
o The interview is guided by the participant.
o A lot of time is needed for the 40……………… of the data.
o Researchers look for a meaningful pattern in the data.
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CAM 11 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 7
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Event
Jazz band
Cost
Example
Tickets
available for £
15
Số câu đúng: …./40
Venue
The 1………….
school
Duck races
£1 per duck
Start behind
the 3………….
Flower show
Free
6…………. Hall
Notes
Also appearing: Carolyn Hart
(plays the 2…………)
Prize: tickets for 4………… held at
the end of the festival.
Ducks can be bought in
the 5………….
Prizes presented at 5 pm by a wellknown 7………….
Questions 8-10
Who is each play suitable for?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10
A mainly for children
B mainly for adults
C suitable for people of all ages
Plays
8 The Mystery of Muldoon
9 Fire and Flood
10 Silly Sailor
Blog
…………..
…………..
…………..
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16
What does the speaker say about each of the following collections?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Comments
was given by one person
was recently publicised in the media
includes some items given by members of the public
includes some items given by the artists
includes the most popular exhibits in the museum
is the largest of its kind in the country
has had some of its contents relocated
Collections
11 20th- and 21st-century paintings
12 19th-century paintings
13 Sculptures
14 ‘Around the world’ exhibition
15 Coins
16 Porcelain and glass
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Questions 17-20
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 17-20.
Basement of museum
17
18
19
20
restaurant
café
baby-changing facilities
cloakroom
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…………..
…………..
…………..
…………..
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO characteristics were shared by the subjects of Joanna’s psychology study?
A They had all won prizes for their music.
B They had all made music recordings.
C They were all under 27 years old.
D They had all toured internationally.
E They all played a string instrument.
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO points does Joanna make about her use of telephone interviews?
A It meant rich data could be collected.
B It allowed the involvement of top performers.
C It led to a stressful atmosphere at times.
D It meant interview times had to be limited.
E It caused some technical problems.
Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO topics did Joanna originally intend to investigate in her research?
A regulations concerning concert dress
B audience reactions to the dress of performers
C changes in performer attitudes to concert dress
D how choice of dress relates to performer roles
E links between musical instrument and dress choice
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Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
27 Joanna concentrated on women performers because
A women are more influenced by fashion.
B women’s dress has led to more controversy.
C women’s code of dress is less strict than men’s.
28 Mike Frost’s article suggests that in popular music, women’s dress is affected by
A their wish to be taken seriously.
B their tendency to copy each other.
C their reaction to the masculine nature of the music.
29 What did Joanna’s subjects say about the audience at a performance?
A The musicians’ choice of clothing is linked to respect for the audience.
B The clothing should not distract the audience from the music.
C The audience should make the effort to dress appropriately.
30 According to the speakers, musicians could learn from sports scientists about
A the importance of clothing for physical freedom.
B the part played by clothing in improving performance.
C the way clothing may protect against physical injury.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere
Rattan Lal:
o Claims that 13% of CO2 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils
o Erosion is more likely in soil that is 31…………….
o Lai found soil in Africa that was very 32……………
o It was suggested that carbon from soil was entering the atmosphere
Soil and carbon:
o plants turn CO2 from the air into carbon-based substances such as 33……………
o some CO2 moves from the 34……………. of plants to microbes in the soil
o carbon was lost from the soil when agriculture was invented
Regenerative agriculture:
o uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and 35……………..
o e.g. through year-round planting and increasing the 36…………… of plants that are grown
California study:
o taking place on a big 37…………….. farm
o uses compost made from waste from agriculture and 38………………
Australia study:
o aims to increase soil carbon by using 39……………… that are always green
Future developments may include:
o reducing the amount of fertilizer used in farming
o giving farmers 40……………. for carbon storage, as well as their produce
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CAM 10 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 – 6
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA
Name:
Andrea Brown
Address:
24 1…………. Road
Postcode:
BH5 2OP
Phone:
(mobile) 077 8664 3091
Heard about company from: 2…………..
Possible self-drive tours
Trip One:
o Los Angeles: customer wants to visit some 3…………. parks with her children
o Yosemite Park: customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a 4……………
Trip Two:
o Customer wants to see the 5………….. on the way to Cambria
o At Santa Monica: not interested in shopping
o At San Diego, wants to spend time on the 6…………..
Questions 7-10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Trip One
Number
of days
12 days
Total distance
Price
(per person)
£525
7……….. km
Trip Two
9 days
980 km
9 £………..
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Includes
●
●
●
●
●
●
accommodation
car
one 8………….
accommodation
car
10…………
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO facilities at the leisure club have recently been improved?
A the gym
B the tracks
C the indoor pool
D the outdoor pool
E the sports training for children
Questions 13-20
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THEN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Joining the leisure club
Personal Assessment
o New members should describe any 13…………….. .
o The 14……………… will be explained to you before you use the equipment.
o You will be given a six-week 15…………….. .
Types of membership
o There is a compulsory £90 16……………… fee for members.
o Gold members are given 17……………… to all the LP clubs.
o Premier members are given priority during 18………………. hours.
o Premier members can bring some 19………………. every month.
o Members should always take their 20……………… with them.
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 25. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Global Design Competition
21 Students entering the design competition have to
A produce an energy-efficient design.
B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.
C develop a new use for current technology.
22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers
A more appealing.
B more common.
C more economical.
23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used
A for decoration.
B to switch it on.
C to stop water escaping.
24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide
A changes back to a gas.
B dries the dishes.
C is allowed to cool.
25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide
A is released into the air.
B is disposed of with the waste.
C is collected ready to be re-used.
Questions 26-30. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
o John needs help preparing for his 26…………….. .
o The professor advises John to make a 27…………….. of his design.
o John’s main problem is getting good quality 28………………. .
o The professor suggests John apply for a 29………………. .
o The professor will check the 30……………… information in John’s written report.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
THE SPIRIT BEAR
General facts
o It is a white bear belonging to the black bear family.
o Its colour comes from an uncommon 31…………….. .
o Local people believe that it has unusual 32…………….. .
o They protect the bear from 33…………….. .
Habitat
o The bear’s relationship with the forest is complex.
o Tree roots stop 34……………. along salmon streams.
o The bears’ feeding habits provide nutrients for forest vegetation.
o It is currently found on a small number of 35…………….. .
Threats
o Habitat is being lost due to deforestation and construction of 36……………… by logging
companies.
o Unrestricted 37……………… is affecting the salmon supply.
o The bears’ existence is also threatened by their low rate of 38………………. .
Going forward
o Interested parties are working together.
o Logging companies must improve their 39…………….. of logging.
o Maintenance and 40…………….. of the spirit bears’ territory is needed.
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CAM 10 TEST 2
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Transport Survey
Travelled to town today: by bus
Name: Luisa 1……………
Address: 2…………… White Stone Rd
Area: Bradfield
Postcode: 3……………
Occupation: 4……………
Reason for visit to town: to go to the 5……………
Suggestions for improvement:
o better 6……………
o have more footpaths
o more frequent 7……………..
Things that would encourage cycling to work:
o having 8…………… parking places for bicycles
o being able to use a 9…………… at work
o the opportunity to have cycling 10……………. on busy roads
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
New city developments
11 The idea for the two new developments in the city came from
A local people.
B the City Council.
C the SWRDC.
12 What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
A its architectural style
B its heating system
C its method of water treatment
13 Local newspapers have raised worries about
A the late opening date.
B the cost of the project.
C the size of the facilities.
14 What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
A whose statue will be at the door
B the exact opening times
C who will open it
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Questions 15-20
Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the playground?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 15-20
Features
A ancient forts
B waterways
C ice and snow
D jewels
E local animals
F mountains
G music and film
H space travel
I volcanoes
Areas of the world
15 Asia
16 Antarctica
17 South America
18 North America
19 Europe
20 Africa
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………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth?
A camping
B climbing
C collecting
D hunting
E reading
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island?
A to examine ancient carvings
B to experience an isolated place
C to formulate a new theory
D to learn survival skills
E to study the impact of an extreme environment
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Questions 25-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The later life of Thor Heyerdahl
25 According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east
was impossible due to
A the fact that Eastern countries were far away.
B the lack of materials for boat building.
C the direction of the winds and currents.
26 Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl’s raft journey?
A to overcome a research setback
B to demonstrate a personal quality
C to test a new theory
27 What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey?
A the fact that he was the first person to do it
B the speed of crossing the Pacific
C the use of authentic construction methods
28 Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island?
A to build a stone statue
B to sail a reed boat
C to learn the local language
29 In Olivia’s opinion, Heyerdahl’s greatest influence was on
A theories about Polynesian origins.
B the development of archaeological methodology.
C establishing archaeology as an academic subject.
30 Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver’s textbook?
A Its style is out of date.
B Its content is over-simplified.
C Its methodology is flawed.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
THE FUTURE OF MANAGEMENT
Business markets
o greater 31…………… among companies
o increase in power of large 32……………. companies
o rising 33…………….. in certain countries
External influences on businesses
o more discussion with 34……………… before making business decisions
o environmental concerns which may lead to more 35……………..
Business structures
o more teams will be formed to work on a particular 36…………….
o businesses may need to offer hours that are 37……………… , or the chance to work remotely
Management styles
o increasing need for managers to provide good 38……………..
o changes influenced by 39…………….. taking senior roles
Changes in the economy
o service sector continues to be important
o increasing value of intellectual property
o more and more 40…………….. workers
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CAM 10 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1 – 10
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
Early Learning Childcare Centre
Enrolment Form
Parent or guardian: Carol Smith
Personal Details
Child’s name: Kate
Age: 1……………
Address: 2……………. Road, Woodside, 4032
Phone: 3345 9865
Childcare Information
Days enrolled for: Monday and 3……………
Start time: 4…………… am
Childcare group: the 5…………… group
Which meal/s are required each day? 6…………….
Medical conditions: needs 7……………
Emergency contact: Jenny 8…………… Phone: 3346 7523
Relationship to child: 9……………
Fees
Will pay each 10……………
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust?
A Children make up most of the membership.
B It’s the country’s largest conservation organisation.
C It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices.
D It employs several dolphin experts full-time.
E Volunteers help in various ways.
Questions 13-15. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
13 Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award?
A It has brought in extra money.
B It made the work of the trust better known.
C It has attracted more members.
14 Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of
A noise.
B oil leaks.
C movement of ships.
15 Alice became interested in dolphins when
A she saw one swimming near her home.
B she heard a speaker at her school.
C she read a book about them.
Questions 16-20. Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about?
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.
Dolphins
A Moondancer
B Echo
C Kiwi
D Samson
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Comments
16 It has not been seen this year. ……
17 It is photographed more than the
others. ……
18 It is always very energetic. ……
19 It is the newest one in the scheme. ……
20 It has an unusual shape. ……
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PART 3
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Theatre Studies Course
21 What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?
A the stories his grandfather told him
B the times when he watched his grandfather working
C the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22 In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
A repetition of words and phrases.
B scenery painted in dull colours.
C long pauses within conversations.
23 What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group?
A He likes to have clear guidelines.
B He copes well with stress.
C He thinks he is a good leader.
24 To support the production, research material was used which described
A political developments.
B changing social attitudes.
C economic transformations.
25 What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
A one person forgetting their words
B an equipment failure
C the injury of one character
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Questions 26-30
What action is needed for the following stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.
Action
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
be on time
get a letter of recommendation
plan for the final year
make sure the institution’s focus is relevant
show ability in Theatre Studies
make travel arrangements and bookings
ask for help
Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option
26 in the second year of the course
27 when first choosing where to go
28 when sending in your choices
29 when writing your personal statement
30 when doing the year abroad
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……
……
……
……
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 40. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
‘Self-regulatory focus theory’ and leadership
Self-regulatory focus theory
People’s focus is to approach pleasure or avoid pain
Promotion goals focus on 31…………..
Prevention goals emphasise avoiding punishment
Factors that affect people’s focus
The Chronic Factor
o comes from one’s 32…………..
The 33…………… Factor
o we are more likely to focus on promotion goals when with a 34……………
o we are more likely to focus on prevention goals with our boss
How people’s focus affects them
Promotion Focus: People think about an ideal version of themselves, their 35…………… and their
gains.
Prevention Focus: People think about their ‘ought’ self and their obligations
Leaders
Leadership behaviour and 36……………. affects people’s focus
Transformational Leaders:
o pay special attention to the 37……………. of their followers
o passionately communicate a clear 38…………….
o inspire promotion focus in followers
Transactional Leaders:
o create 39…………… to make expectations clear
o emphasise the results of a mistake
o inspire prevention focus in followers
Conclusion
Promotion Focus is good for jobs requiring 40…………….
Prevention Focus is good for work such as a surgeon
Leaders’ actions affect which focus people use
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CAM 10 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1 – 6
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Số câu đúng: …./40
THORNDYKE’S BUILDERS
Customer heard about Thorndyke’s from a friend
Name:
Address:
Edith 1………….
Flat 4,
2………….. Park Flats
(Behind the 3…………..)
Phone number: 875934
Best time to contact customer: during the 4……………
Where to park: opposite entrance next to the 5……………
Needs full quote showing all the jobs and the 6……………
Questions 7-10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Area
Work to be done
Notes
Replace the 7………… in the door
Fix tomorrow
Paint wall above the 8…………..
Strip paint and plaster
approximately
one 9…………. in
advance
Kitchen
Garden
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One 10………… needs replacing
(end of garden)
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
MANHAM PORT
11 Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
A It was safe from enemy attack.
B It was convenient for river transport.
C It had a good position on the sea coast.
12 What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?
A the improvement in mining techniques
B the increase in demand for metals
C the discovery of tin in the area
13 Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?
A shortage of fuel
B poor transport systems
C lack of skills among local people
14 What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?
A The workers went away.
B Traditional skills were lost.
C Buildings were used for new purposes.
15 What did the Manham Trust hope to do?
A discover the location of the original port
B provide jobs for the unemployed
C rebuild the port complex
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Questions 16-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Tourist attractions in Manham
Place
Features and activities
copper mine
specially adapted
miners’ 16………… take
visitors into the mountain
the mine is 17………….. and
enclosed – unsuitable for
children and animals
village school
classrooms and a special
exhibition of 18………….
a 19…………… is
recommended
‘The George’
(old sailing ship)
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Advice
the ship’s wheel (was lost but children shouldn’t use
has now been restored)
the 20……………
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement?
A communication
B design
C IT
D marketing
E organisation
Questions 23 and 24. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura’s work placement?
A updates for its software
B cost savings
C an improved image
D new clients
E a growth in sales
Questions 25-30. What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the
work placement?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.
Sources of information
A company manager
B company’s personnel department
C personal tutor
D psychology department
E mentor
F university careers officer
G internet
Stages of the work placement procedure
25 obtaining booklet
26 discussing options
27 getting updates
28 responding to invitation for interview
29 informing about outcome of interview
30 requesting a reference
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………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 33. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Nanotechnology: technology on a small scale
31 The speaker says that one problem with nanotechnology is that
A it could threaten our way of life.
B it could be used to spy on people.
C it is misunderstood by the public.
32 According to the speaker, some scientists believe that nano-particles
A should be restricted to secure environments.
B should be used with more caution.
C should only be developed for essential products.
33 In the speaker’s opinion, research into nanotechnology
A has yet to win popular support.
B could be seen as unethical.
C ought to be continued.
Questions 34-40. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Uses of Nanotechnology
Transport
o Nanotechnology could allow the development of stronger 34……………..
o Planes would be much lighter in weight.
o 35…………… travel will be made available to the masses.
Technology
o Computers will be even smaller, faster, and will have a greater 36……………..
o 37……………. energy will become more affordable.
The Environment
o Nano-robots could rebuild the ozone layer.
o Pollutants such as 38……………. could be removed from water
o There will be no 39……………. from manufacturing.
Health and Medicine
o New methods of food production could eradicate famine.
o Analysis of medical 40……………. will be speeded up.
o Life expectancy could be increased.
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CAM 9 TEST 1
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Question 1 - 10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
JOB ENQUIRY
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
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Work at: a restaurant
Type of work: 1 …………..
Number of hours per week: 12 hours
Would need work permit
Work in the: 2.............. branch
Nearest bus stop: next to 3……………
Pay: 4 £ ………….. an hour
Extra benefits:
- a free dinner
- extra pay when you work on 5 …………….
- transport home when you work 6 …………….
Qualities required:
- 7 …………..
- ability to 8 …………….
Interview arranged for: Thursday 9 ……………. at 6 p.m
Bring the names of two referees
Ask for: Samira 10 ……………
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PART 2
Questions 11-16
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
o
o
o
o
o
o
SPORTS WORLD
a new 11 ……………. of an international sports goods company
located in the shopping center to the 12 ……………. of Bradcaster
has sports 13 ……………and equipment on floors 1 – 3
can get you any item within 14 …………… days
shop specializes in equipment for 15 ……………
has a special section which just sells 16 ……………
Questions 17 and 18
Choose the correct letter A. B or C.
17. A champion athlete will be in the shop
A. on Saturday morning only.
B. all day Saturday.
C. for the whole weekend.
18. The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win
A. gym membership.
B. a video.
C. a calendar.
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters. A-E
Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?
A. You need to reserve a place.
B. It is free to account holders.
C. You get advice on how to improve your health.
D. It takes place in a special clinic.
E. It is cheaper this month.
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PART 3
Questions 21-30. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Course Feedback
21. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that
A. he was not nervous.
B. his style was good.
C. the presentation was the best in his group.
22. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations?
A. Their presentations were not interesting.
B. They found their presentations stressful.
C. They didn‘t look at the audience enough.
23. After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt
A. delighted.
B. dissatisfied.
C. embarrassed.
24. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
A. not very happy
B. really pleased
C. fairly confident
25. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
A. They are polite to each other.
B. They agree to take turns in speaking.
C. They know each other well.
26. Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now?
A. She finds the other students' opinions more interesting.
B. She is making more of a contribution.
C. The tutor includes her in the discussion.
27. To help her understand lectures, Hiroko
A. consulted reference materials.
B. had extra tutorials with her lecturers.
C. borrowed lecture notes from other students.
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28. What does Spiros think of his reading skills?
A. He reads faster than he used to.
B. It still takes him a long time to read.
C. He tends to struggle with new vocabulary.
29. What is Hiroko’s subject area?
A. environmental studies
B. health education
C. engineering
30. Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should
A. learn more vocabulary.
B. read more in their own subject areas.
C. develop better reading strategies.
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PART 4
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer
Mass Stranding of Whales and Dolphins
Mass stranding: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die.
Common in areas where the 31 ...................... can change quickly.
Several other theories:
Parasites
e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ 32 ...................... , which they depend on for
navigation
Toxins
Poisons from 33 ...................... or ...................... are commonly consumed by whales
e.g. Cape Cod (1988) - whales were killed by saxitoxin
Accidental Strandings
Animals may follow prey ashore. e.g. Thurston (1995)
Unlikely because the majority of animals were not 34 ...................... when they stranded
Human Activity
35 ...................... from military tests are linked to some recent standings
The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales
o were all 36......................
o were not in a 37 ......................
Group Behavior
o More strandings in the most 38 ...................... species of whales
o 1994 dolphin stranding — only the 39 ...................... was ill
Further Reading
Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) gives information about stranding 40 ......................
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CAM 9 TEST 2
PART 1
Question 1 - 10
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Số câu đúng: …./40
Accommodation Form - Student Information
Type of accommodation
: half of residence
Name
Anu 1 …………………………
Date of birth
2 …………………………
Country of Origin
India
Course of Study
3…………………………
Number of years planned in hall
4…………………………
Preferred catering arrangement
half board
Special dietary requirements
no 5 ……………………… (red)
Preferred room type
Priorities in choice of hall
a single 6 ………………………..
the 7 …………………………
badminton
to be with other students who are 8
…………………………
to live outside the 9…………………………
to have a 10 ………………………… area for socialising
Contact phone number
667549
Interests
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PART 2
Questions 11-13
Complete the table below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
Parks and open spaces
Name of place
Of particular interest
Open
Halland Common
source of River Ouse
24 hours
Holt Island
many different 11…………………
between 12…………………
and …………………
Longfield Country Park
reconstruction of a 2,000- year-old
13………………… with activities for
children
daylight hours
Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Long field Park
14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will
A. prepare food with herbs.
B. meet a well-known herbalist.
C. dye cloth with herbs.
15. For the activity on Wednesday,
A. only group bookings are accepted.
B. visitors should book in advance.
C. attendance is free.
16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should
A. come in suitable clothing.
B. make sure they are able to stay for the whole day.
C. tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do.
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Questions 17-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter A-L, next to questions 17-20.
17. bird hide ……………………
18. dog walking area………………..
19. flower garden ...............
20. wooded area…………………….
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PART 3
Questions 21-24. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Self-Access Center
21 Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because
A. they enjoy the variety of equipment.
B. they like being able to work on their own.
C. it is an important part of their studies.
22 Some teachers would prefer to
A. close the Self-Access Centre.
B. move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere.
C. restrict access to the Self-Access Centre.
23 The students' main concern about using the library would be
A. the size of the library.
B. difficulty in getting help.
C. the lack of materials.
24 The Director of Studies is concerned about
A. the cost of upgrading the center.
B. the lack of space in the center.
C. the difficulty in supervising the center.
Questions 25-30. Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer
Necessary improvements to the existing Sell-Access Center
Equipment
o Replace computers to create more space.
Resources
o The level of the 25 ................. materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown.
o Update the 26 ................. collection.
o Buy some 27 ................. and divide them up.
Use of the room
o Speak to the teachers and organize a 28 ................. for supervising the center.
o Install an 29 .................
o Restrict personal use of 30................. on computers.
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PART 4
Complete the notes below
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Business Culture
Power Culture
Characteristics of organization
o small
o 31 ………………….. power source
o few rules and procedures
o communication by 32 …………………..
o can act quickly
Disadvantage:
o might not act 33 …………………..
Suitable employee:
o not afraid of 34 …………………..
o doesn't need job security
Advantage:
Role culture
Characteristics of organization
o large, many 35 …………………..
o specialized departments
o rules and procedure, e.g. job
o 36 ………………….. and rules for
discipline
Advantages
o economies of scale
o successful when 37 …………………..
ability is important
Disadvantages
o slow to see when 38 ………………….. is
needed
o slow to react
Suitable employee:
o does not want 39 …………………..
Task culture
Characteristics of organization
o project orientated
o in competitive market or making product with short life
o a lot of delegation
Advantage: 40 …………………..
Disadvantages: no economies of scale or special expertise
Suitable employee:
o likes to work in groups
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CAM 9 TEST 3
PART 1
Questions 1-5
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Apartments
Rose Garden
Apartments
Blue Bay Apartments
2………………..
Apartments
The Grand
Facilities
studio flat
large salt-water
swimming pool
Số câu đúng: …./40
Other information
entertainment programme:
Greek dancing
- just 1………………..meters
from beach
- near shops
terrace
water sports
Greek paintings
3………………..
- overlooking 4………………..
- near a supermarket and a
disco
Cost
£219
£275
£490
5 £…………..
Questions 6-10
GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS
Insurance Benefits
Maximum Amount
Cancellation
6. £……………..
Hospital
£600. Additional benefit allows a 7……….to
travel to resort.
8…………….. departure
Up to £1000. Depends on reason
Personal belongings
Up to £3000; £500 for one 9………………..
Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10…………………
Direct phone line: 543216
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PART 2
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Winridge Forest Railway Park
11. Simon's idea for a theme park came from
A. his childhood hobby.
B. his interest in landscape design.
C. his visit to another park.
12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
A. the weather was expected to be good.
B. the children weren't at school.
C. there were fewer farming commitments.
13. Since opening, the park has had
A. 50.000 visitors.
B. 1.000.000 visitors.
C. 1,500.000 visitors.
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Questions 14-18
What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H. next to questions 14-18.
Area of work
A. advertising
B. animal care
C. building
D. educational links
E. engine maintenance
F. food and drink
G. sales
H. staffing
People
14. Simon (the speaker) .......
15. Liz .......
16. Sarah .......
17. Duncan .......
18. Judith .......
Questions 19 and 20
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer
Feature
Railway
Go-Kart arena
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Size
1.2 km
19...................m2
Biggest challenge
Making tunnels
Removing mounds
on the track
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Target age group
20…………year-olds
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PART 3
Questions 21-30
Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Study Skills Tutorial - Caroline Benning
Dissertation topic: the 21 .......……………………
Strengths:
o 22 ........................................
o computer modeling
Weaknesses:
o lack of background information
o poor 23 …...................... skills
Possible strategy
peer group discussion
Benefits
increases 24…………….
use the 26………… services
provides structured
programme
are a good source of
reference
consult study skills books
Problems
dissertations tend to contain
the same 25……………
limited 27…………..
can be too 28……………
Recommendations: • use a card index
• read all notes 29 …………………………
Next tutorial date: 30 ………………………… January
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PART 4
Questions 31 and 32
Choose the correct letter A. B or C.
31. The owners of the underground house
A. had no experience of living in a rural area.
B. were interested in environmental issues.
C. wanted a professional project manager.
32. What does the speaker say about the site of the house?
A. The land was quite cheap.
B. Stone was being extracted nearby.
C. It was in a completely unspoiled area.
Questions 33-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
The Underground House
Design
o Built in the earth, with two floors
o The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of 33...................
o Photovoltaic tiles were attached
o A layer of foam was used to improve the 34 ................... of the building
Special features
o To increase the light, the building has many internal minors and 35...................
o In future, the house may produce more 36 ................... than it needs
o Recycled wood was used for the 37 ................... of the house
o The system for processing domestic 38 ................... is organic
Environmental issues
o The use of large quantities of 39................... in construction was environmentally harmful
o But the house will have paid its 'environmental debt' within 40 ...................
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CAM 9 TEST 4
PART 1
Questions 1-4
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Số câu đúng: …./40
Health Centers
Doctor’s name
Example Dr Green
Name of centre
The Harvey Clinic
The 2…………..……..health
practice
The Shore Lane Health Centre
Dr. Fuller
Advantage
especially good
with 1…………..……..
offers 3…………..……..
appointments
Dr 4…………..……..
Questions 5-6. Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following are offered free of charge at Shore Lane Health Centre?
A. acupuncture
B. employment medicals
C. sports injury therapy
D. travel advice
E. vaccinations
Questions 7-10. Complete the table below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Subject of talk
Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre
Date/Time
Location
th
Giving up smoking
25 Februar at 7pm
Room 4
Healthy eating
1st March at 5 pm
Avoiding injuries
during exercise
9th March at 9………
The 8………….
(Shore Lane)
Room 6
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Study Motivation
Notes
Useful for people with
asthma
or 7………....problems
anyone welcome
For all 10………….
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PART 2
Questions 11-13
Label the diagram below
Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-E, next to questions 11-13.
A electricity indicator
B on/off switch
C reset button
D time control
E warning indicator
Water heater
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Questions 14-18
Where can each of the following items be found?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter: A-G. next to questions 14-18.
Locations
A. in box on washing machine
B. in cupboard on landing
C. in chest of drawers
D. next to window in living room
E. on shelf by back door
F. on top of television
G.under kitchen sink
14. pillows .......
15. washing powder .......
16. key .......
17. light bulbs .......
18. map .......
Questions 19 and 20
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
The best place to park in town - next to the station
Phone number for takeaway pizzas - 19 ...........................
Railway museum closed on 20 …………………...
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21. In her home country, Kira had
A. completed a course.
B. done two years of a course.
C. found her course difficult.
22. To succeed with assignments, Kira had to
A. read faster.
B. write faster.
C. change her way of thinking.
Questions 23-25
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
23. Kira says that lecturers are easier to ......................... than those in her home country.
24. Paul suggests that Kira may be more ......................... than when she was studying before.
25. Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that ......................... them
very much.
Questions 26-30
Answer the questions below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
26. How did the students do their practical sessions? ....................................
27. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? ....................................
28. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? ....................................
29. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel? ....................................
30. In addition to the language. what do overseas students need to become familiar with?
....................................
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PART 4
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Wildlife in city gardens
31. What led the group to choose their topic?
A. They were concerned about the decline of one species.
B. They were interested in the effects of city growth.
C. They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon.
32. The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by
A. consulting some official documents.
B. taking large-scale photos.
C. discussions with town surveyors.
33. The group asked garden owners to
A. take part in formal interviews.
B. keep a record of animals they saw.
C. get in contact when they saw a rare species.
34. The group made their observations in gardens
A. which had a large number of animal species.
B. which they considered to be representative.
C. which had stable populations of rare animals.
35. The group did extensive reading on
A. wildlife problems in rural areas.
B. urban animal populations.
C. current gardening practices.
36. The speaker focuses on three animal species because
A. a lot of data has been obtained about them.
B. the group were most interested in them.
C. they best indicated general trends.
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Questions 37-40
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer
Animals
Reason for population increase in
gardens
Comments
suitable stretches of water
massive increase in urban
population
Hedgehogs
safer from 38…………….. when in cities
easy to 39……………..them
accurately
Song thrushes
- a variety of 40…………….. to eat
- more nesting places available
large survey starting soon
37……………..
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CAM 8 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1 and 2
Choose the correct letter A, B or C
In the library George found a brochure.
Số câu đúng: …./40
1. In the lobby of the library George saw
A. a group playing music.
B. a display of instruments.
C. a video about the festival.
2. George wants to sit at the back so they can
A. see well.
B. hear clearly.
C. pay less.
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Questions 3-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
SUMMER MUSIC FESTIVAL
BOOKING FORM
NAME:
ADDRESS:
POSTCODE:
TELEPHONE:
Date
5 June
17 June
22 June
George O’Neill
3 …………………., Westsea
4 …………………..
5 ………………….
Event
Price per ticket
No. Of tickets
Instrumental group
– Guitarrini
£7.50
2
Singer (price includes
6 ………………….
in the garden)
£6
2
7 …………………….
(Anna Ventura)
£7.00
1
Spanish Dance & Guitar Concert
8 £ …………………
9 …………………
23 June
NB Children / Student / Senior Citizens have 10 ………………… discount on all tickets.
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PART 2
Question 11-15
Question 11-15
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
The Dinosaur Museum
11. The museum closes at ……………… p.m. on Mondays.
12. The museum is not open on ……………… .
13. School groups are met by tour guides in the ……………… .
14. The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including ……………… minutes for the guided tour.
15. There are ………………. behind the museum where students can have lunch.
Question 16-18
Choose THREE letters, A-G
Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?
A. food
B. water
C. cameras
D. books
E. bags
F. pens
G. worksheets
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?
A. build model dinosaurs
B. watch films
C. draw dinosaurs
D. find dinosaur eggs
E. play computer games
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PART 3
Questions 21-24. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
FIELD TRIP PROPOSAL
21. The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A. should be re-ordered in some parts.
B. needs a contents page.
C. ought to include more information.
22. The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra
A. inserted subheadings.
B. used more paragraphs.
C. shortened her sentences.
23. What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A. Separate points were not clearly identified.
B. The headings were not always clear.
C. Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.
24. Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A. articles she read.
B. movies she saw as a child.
C. photographs she found on the internet.
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Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A. climate change
B. field trip activities
C. geographical features
D. impact of tourism
E. myths and legends
F. plant and animal life
G. social history
Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
28. The tribal park covers ……………………… hectares.
29. Sandra suggests that they share the ……………………… for transport.
30. She says they could also explore the local ……………………… .
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PART 4
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Geography
Studying geography helps us to understand:
o The effects of different processes on the 31...................... of the Earth
o The dynamic between 32...................... and population
Two main branches of study:
o physical features
o human lifestyles and their 33......................
Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical
and 34 ...................... geography, and also cartography
Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the
associated 35 ......................
What do geographers do?
o find data – e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of 36..................... using
computer and satellite technology
o analyse data – identify 37..................... e. g. cause and effect
o publish findings inform of:
a) maps
– easy to carry
– can show physical features of large and small areas
– BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some 38 .....................
b) aerial photos
– can show vegetation problems, 39..................... density, ocean floor etc.
c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations
– used for monitoring 40..................... conditions etc.
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CAM 8 TEST 2
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-3
Complete the form below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
TOTAL INSURANCE INCIDENT REPORT
Name: Michael Alexander
Address: 24 Manly Street, 1 ................ , Sydney
Shipping agent: 2 ....................
Place of origin: China
Date of arrival: 3....................
Reference number: 601 ACK
Questions 4-10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Item
Damage
Cost to repair/ replace
Television
The 4 ................ needs to be
replaced
not known
The 5................
cabinet.
The 6................ of the cabinet is
damaged
7$
Dining room table
A 8................ is split
$200
Set of china
Six 9................ were broken
about 10 $ ………………
in total
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PART 2
Question 11Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11. According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are
A. education and entertainment.
B. research and education.
C. research and entertainment.
Questions 12-14
Label the plan below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
12. ................
13. ................
14. ................
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Questions 15-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
15. When are the experimental areas closed to the public?
A. all the year round
B. almost all the year
C. a short time every year
16. How can you move around the park?
A. by tram, walking or bicycle
B. by solar car or bicycle
C. by bicycle, walking or bus
17. The rare breed animals kept in the park include
A. hens and horses.
B. goats and cows.
C. goats and hens.
18. What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section?
A. to save unusual animals
B. to keep a variety of breeds
C. to educate the public
19. What can you see in the park at the present time?
A. the arrival of wild birds
B. fruit tree blossom
C. a demonstration of fishing
20. The shop contains books about
A. animals.
B. local traditions.
C. the history of the park.
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PART 3
Questions 21-24. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Honey Bees in Australia
21. Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past?
A. Queensland
B. New South Wales
C. several states
22. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they
A. attack native bees
B. carry parasites
C. damage crops.
23. What point is made about Australian bees?
A. Their honey varies in quality.
B. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
C. They are sold to customers abroad.
24. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
A. the country’s economy would be affected.
B. they could be used in the study of allergies.
C. certain areas of agriculture would benefit.
Questions 25-30. Complete the summary below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Looking for Asian honey bees
Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only 25 ............., and cough up small bits of skeleton and
other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for 26 ..................
They collect the pellets and take them to a 27 ................ for analysis.
Here 28 ..................... is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the 29 ................... of
Asian bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more 30 .................. than searching for live Asian
bees.
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PART 4
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
RESEARCH ON QUESTONS ABOUT DOCTORS
31. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got
A. advice form personal friends in other countries.
B. help from students in other countries.
C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.
32. What types of people were included in the research?
A. young people in their first job
B. men who were working
C. women who were unemployed
33. Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was
A. to get a wide range of data.
B. to limit people’s responses.
C. to guide people through interviews.
34. What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain?
A. Current concerns are misrepresented by the press.
B. Financial issues are critical to the government.
C. Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.
35. Shona needs to do further research in order to
A. present the government with her findings.
B. decide the level of extra funding needed.
C. identify the preferences of the public.
36. Shona has learnt from the research project that
A. it is important to plan projects carefully.
B. people do not like answering questions.
C. colleagues do not always agree.
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Questions 37-40
Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
gave false data
decided to stop participating
refused to tell Shona about their job
kept changing their mind about participating
became very angry with Shona
was worried about confidentiality
People interviewed by Shona
37. a person interviewed in the street ……….
38. an undergraduate at the university ……….
39. a colleague in her department ……….
40. a tutor in a foreign university ……….
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CAM 8 TEST 3
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-3. Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Rented Properties Customer’s Requirements
Name: Steven Godfrey
 No. of bedrooms: four
 Preferred location: in the 1.............. area of town
 Maximum monthly rent: 2. £...................
 Length of let required: 3....................
 Starting: September 1st
Questions 4-8. Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Oakington
Avenue
Rented Properties Customer’s Requirements
Monthly
Rooms
Problem
rent
living/dining room, separate
kitchen
£550
no 4 ..............
Mead
Street
Hamilton
Road
Devon
Close
large living room and kitchen,
bathroom and a cloakroom
living room, kitchen-diner, and a 6
...................
living room, dining room, small
kitchen
Address
£580
the 5 .............. is too
large
£550
too 7 ...............
8 £..............
none
Questions 9 and 10:
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
A. museum
B. concert hall
C. cinema
D. sports centre
E. swimming pool
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PART 2
Questions 11-16. Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTRE
Well known for: 11 ....................
Complex consists of:
 concert rooms
 theatres
 cinemas
 art galleries
 public library
 restaurants
 a 12 .................
Historical background:
 1940 - area destroyed by bombs
 1960s-1970s - Centre was 13 ................. and built
 in 14 ...................... - opened to public
Managed by: the 15 ..............
Open: 16 ....................... days per year
Questions 17-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Day
Monday and
Tuesday
Wednesday
Saturday and
Sunday
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Time
Event
‘The Magic Flute’
7.30 p.m (opera by Mozart)
8.00
18. ‘......................’
p.m
(Canadian film)
11 a.m
to 10
20. ‘......................’
p.m
(art exhibition)
Venue
Ticket Price
17...................... from £8.00
19.
Cinema 2
£......................
Gallery 1
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PART 3
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Latin American studies
21. Paul decided to get work get work experience in South American because he wanted
A. to teach English there
B. to improve his Spanish
C. to learn about Latin American life
22. What project work Paul originally intend to get involved in?
A. construction
B. agriculture
C. tourism
23. Why did Paul change form one project to another?
A. His first job was not well organized.
B. He found doing the routine work very boring.
C. The work was too physically demanding.
24. In the village community, he leant how important it was to
A. respect family life.
B. develop trust.
C. use money wisely.
25. What does the Paul say about his project manager?
A. He let Paul do most of the work.
B. His plans were too ambitious.
C. He was very supportive of Paul.
26. Paul was surprised to be given
A. a computer to use.
B. so little money to live on.
C. an extension to his contract.
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Questions 27-30
What does Paul decide about each of the following modules?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30.
A. He will do this.
B. He might do this.
C. He won’t do this.
Module
27. Gender Studies in Latin America ……….
28. Second Language Acquisition ……….
29. Indigenous Women’s Lives ……….
30. Portuguese Language Studies ……….
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PART 4
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Trying to repeat success
31. Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes
are
A. more attractive.
B. more frequent.
C. more straightforward.
32. Most research into the repetition of success in business has
A. been done outside the United States.
B. produced consistent findings
C. related to only a few contexts.
33. What does the speaker say about consulting experts?
A. Too few managers ever do it.
B. It can be useful in certain circumstances.
C. Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice.
34. An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because
A. some details are difficult for workers to explain
B. workers choose not to mention certain details.
C. details are sometimes altered by workers.
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Questions 35-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Setting up systems based on an existing process
Two mistakes
Manager tries to:
o improve on the original process
o create an ideal 35 .................. from the best parts of several processes
Cause of problems
o information was inaccurate
o comparison between the business settings was invalid
o disadvantages were overlooked, e.g. effect of changes on 36 ..................
Solution
o change 37 .................
o impose rigorous 38 ..................
o copy original very closely:
- physical features of the 39 ...................
- the 40 .................. of original employees
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CAM 8 TEST 4
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
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West Bay Hotel - details of job
Newspaper advert for temporary staff
Vacancies for 1 ...............
Two shifts
Can choose your 2 .................... (must be the same each week)
Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a 3 .................
A 4 .............. is provided in the hotel
Total weekly pay: £231
Dress: a white shirt and 5 ................. trousers (not supplied); a 6 .................. (supplied)
Starting date: 7 ..................
Call Jane 8 ............. (Service Manager) before 9 ................ tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
She'll require a 10 ................
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PART 2
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Improvements to Red Hill Suburb
11. Community groups are mainly concerned about
A. pedestrian safety.
B. traffic jams.
C. increased pollution.
12. It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be
A. extended
B. buried
C. repaired
13. The expenses related to the power lines will be paid for by
A. the council.
B. the power company.
C. local businesses.
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Questions 14-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-20.
14. tree ................
15. wider footpaths ................
16. coloured road surface ................
17. new sign ................
18. traffic lights ................
19. artwork ................
20. children’s playground ................
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PART 3
Questions 21-22
Choose TWO letters A-E.
In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course?
A. He is receiving money from the government.
B. His family are willing to help him.
C. The college is giving him a small grant.
D. His local council is supporting him for a limited period.
E. A former employer is providing partial funding.
Questions 23-24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
A. She is not sufficiently challenged.
B. The activity interferes with her studies.
C. She does not have enough time.
D. The activity is too demanding physically.
E. She does not think she is any good at the activity.
Questions 25-26
Choose the correct letters A, B or C.
25. What does Dan say about the seminars on the course?
A. The other students do not give him a chance to speak.
B. The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students.
C. The preparation for seminars takes too much time.
26. What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
A. They are an inefficient way of providing guidance.
B. They are more challenging than she had expected.
C. They are helping her to develop her study skills.
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Questions 27-30
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Advice on exam preparation
Make sure you know the exam requirements
⇓
Find some past papers
⇓
Work out your 27 ..................... for revision and write them on a card
⇓
Make a 28 ................... and keep it in view
⇓
Divide revision into 29 ................... for each day
Write one 30 ....................... about each topic
⇓
Practise writing some exam answers
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PART 4
Questions 31-36
Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings
Which painting styles have the following features?
Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to questions 31-36.
Painting Styles
A. Dynamic
B. Yam
C. Modern
Features
31. figures revealing bones .........
32. rounded figures .........
33. figures with parts missing .........
34. figures smaller than life size .........
35. sea creatures .........
36. plants .........
Questions 37-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Rainbow Serpent Project
Aim of project: to identify the 37 ................ used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent
Yam Period
o environmental changes led to higher 38 ..............
o traditional activities were affected, especially 39 ..............
Rainbow Serpent image
o similar to a seahorse
o unusual because it appeared in inland areas
o symbolises 40 .................... in Aboriginal culture
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CAM 7 TEST 1
PART 1
Questions 1-5. Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Transport from Airport to Milton
Distance: 147 miles
Options:
Car hire:
– don’t want to drive
– (1) ……….
– expensive
Greyhound bus
– $15 single, $27.50 return
– direct to the 2……….
– long 3……….
Airport Shuttle
– 4………. service
– every 2 hours
– $35 single, $65 return
– need to 5……….
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 6-10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD OR/AND A NUMBER for each answer.
AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM
To: Milton
Date: 6……….
No of Passengers: One
Bus Time: 7……….PM
Type of ticket: Single
Name: Janet 8……….
Flight No: 9……….
From: London Heathrow
Address in Milton: Vacation Motel, 24, Kitchener Street
Fare: $36
Credit Card No: (Visa) 10……….
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PART 2
Questions 11-16. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
11. PS Camping has been organising holidays for
A. 15 years.
B. 20 years.
C. 25 years.
12. The company has most camping sites in
A. France.
B. Italy.
C. Switzerland.
13. Which organised activity can children do every day of the week?
A. football
B. drama
C. model making
14. Some areas of the sites have a “no noise” rule after
A. 9.30 pm.
B. 10.00 pm.
C. 10.30 pm.
15. The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping
A. can be charged on an annual basis.
B. is included in the price of the holiday.
C. must be taken out at the time of booking.
16. Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive
A. a free gift.
B. an upgrade to a luxury tent.
C. a discount.
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Questions 17-20. What does the speaker say about the following items?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 17-20:
A. They are provided in all tents.
B. They are found in central areas of the campsite.
C. They are available on request.
17. barbecues _______
18. toys _______
19. cool boxes _______
20. mops and buckets _______
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PART 3
Questions 21-23
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE
Individuals bring different:
o ideas
o 21……….
o learning experiences
Work behaviour differences are due to:
o personality
o 22……….
Effects of diversity on companies:
o Advantage: diversity develops 23……….
o Disadvantage: diversity can cause conflict
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Questions 24-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
24. Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are
A. potential leaders.
B. open to new ideas.
C. good at teamwork.
25. Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to
A. form successful groups.
B. balance conflicting needs.
C. deal with uncooperative workers.
26. Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who
A. can think independently.
B. will obey the system.
C. can solve problems.
27. Janice believes managers should
A. demonstrate good behaviour.
B. encourage co-operation early on.
C. increase financial incentives
Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
28. All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company’s ………. .
29. When managing change, increasing the company’s ………. may be more important than
employee satisfaction.
30. During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of ………. .
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PART 4
Questions 31-35
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
SEMINAR ON ROCK ART
Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in 31……….
Rock art in Namibia may be
o paintings
o engravings
Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints
They were used to help 32……….learn about tracking
But:
o Why are the tracks usually 33……….?
o Why are some engravings realistic and others unrealistic?
o Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half 34……….?
More recent explanation:
Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with 35……….
Comment:
Earlier explanation was due to scholars over-generalising from their experience of a different
culture.
Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below:
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
36. If you look at a site from a ………., you reduce visitor pressure.
37. To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that ……….
38. Undiscovered material may be damaged by ……….
39. You should avoid ………. or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.
40. In general, your aim is to leave the site ……….
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CAM 7 TEST 2
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS ANDIOR A NUMBER for each answer.
CAR INSURANCE
Name: Patrick Jones
Address: 1 ............., Greendale.
Contact number: 730453
Occupation: 2 .............
Size of car engine: 1200cc
Type of car:
- Manufacturer: Hewton
- Model: 3 .................
- Year: 1997
Previous insurance company: 4 ..................
Any insurance claims in the last five years: Yes
If yes, give brief details: Car was 5 ............ in 1999.
Name(s) of other driver(s): Simon 6 ...............
Relationship to main driver: 7 ..............
Uses of car:
- social
- 8 .............
Start date: 31 January
Recommended Insurance arrangement
Name of company: 9 ..................
Annual cost: 10 $ ................
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PART 2
Questions 11 and 12
Label the map below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Question 13 to 18
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and or numbers for each answer.
Attraction
Further information
Stop A:
Main Booking Office
First boot: 8 a.m.
Last boat: 13 ……….pm
Palace
has lovely 14……….
Stop B:
15……….
has good 16………. of city centre
Stop C:
Museum
bookshop specialising in the 17………. of
the local area
Stop D:
Entertainment
Complex
– 18………. cinema
– bowling alley
– video games arcade
Question 19 and 20
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR NUMBERS for each answer.
19. How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? ……….……….
20. Where can you catch in Number One Sightseeing Tour from? ……….……….
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PART 3
Question 21 to 26
Choose the correct letter A, B. or C.
21. The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because
A. New Zealand is a member of Antarctic treaty.
B. Christchurch is geographically well-positioned.
C. the climate of Christchurch is suitable.
22. One role of Antarctic Centre is to
A. provide expeditions with suitable equipment.
B. provide researchers with financial assistance.
C. ensure that research is internationally relevant.
23. The purpose of the visitor’s center is to
A. provide accommodation.
B. run training sessions.
C. show people what Antarctica is like.
24. Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is
A. unlike any other country.
B. extremely beautiful.
C. too cold for tourists.
25. According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because
A. of the shape of the continent.
B. it is surrounded by a frozen sea.
C. it is an extremely dry continent.
26. Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because
A. he has done his own research in the area.
B. there is geological evidence of this.
C. it is very close to South America.
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Question 27 and 28
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD AND/OR TWO NUMBERS for each answer.
Antarctic treaty
Date
Event
1870
Polar Research meeting
27 ………. to ……….
1st International Polar Year
1957
Antarctic Treaty was proposed
1959
Antarctic Treaty was 28……….
Question 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A- E.
Which two achievements of Antarctic Treaty was mentioned by the speaker
A no military use.
B animals protected
C historic sites preserved
D no nuclear testing
E fishing rights protected
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PART 4
Question 31 to 35.
Correct letter A, B or C.
Left and right Handedness in sports.
31. Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realised
A. how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness.
B. the relevance of connections he made with music.
C. the impressive size of his research project.
32. Anita feels that the findings on the handedness will be of value in
A. helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses.
B. aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game.
C. developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople.
33. Anita feels that most sports coaches
A. know nothing about the influence of handedness.
B. focus on the wrong aspects of performance.
C. underestimate what science has to offer sport.
34. A German study showed there was a greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who
A. started playing instruments in early youth.
B. play a string instrument such as the violin.
C. practice a great deal on their instrument.
35. Studies on ape behaviour show that
A. apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful.
B. apes have the same proportion of left-and-right handers as humans.
C. more apes are left-handed than right-handed.
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Questions 36-40
Complete the table below
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Sport
Best laterality
Hockey
mixed laterality
- hockey stick has to be used in 36 ...............
- mixed-handed players found to be much more
37 ............ than others
Tennis
single laterality
- gives a larger relevant field of 38 .............
- cross-lateral players make 39 ............. too late
Gymnastics
cross laterality
- gymnasts’ 40 ............... is important for
performances
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CAM 7 TEST 3
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1 and 2. Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Type of job required: Part-time
Student is studying 1 .................
Student is in the 2 ............. year of the course.
Questions 3–5. Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Position Available
Where
Problem
Receptionist
in the 3................
evening lectures
4................
in the Child Care Centre
too early
Clerical Assistant
in the 5................
evening lectures
Questions 6–10. Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
STUDENT DETAILS
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Name:
Anita Newman
Address:
6................
Room No. 7................
Other skills:
Speaks some Japanese
Position available:
8................ at the English Language Centre
Duties:
Respond to inquiries and 9................
Time of interview:
Friday at 10................ a.m.
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PART 2
Questions 11-16. Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY
11. On the holiday, you will be walking for
A. 6 days.
B. 8 days.
C. 10 days.
12. What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?
13. Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one
A. student.
B. teacher.
C. school.
14. When you start the trek you must be
A. interested in getting fit.
B. already quite fit.
C. already very fit.
15. As you walk you will carry
A. all of your belongings.
B. some of your belongings.
C. none of your belongings.
16. The Semira Region has a long tradition of
A. making carpets.
B. weaving blankets.
C. carving wood.
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Questions 17-20
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
ITINERARY
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Day 1
arrive in Kishba
Day 2
rest day
Day 3
spend all day in a 17................
Day 4
visit a school
Day 5
rest day
Day 6
see a 18................with old carvings
Day 7
rest
Day 8
Swim in a 19................
Day 9
visit a 20................
Day 10
depart from Kishba
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.
OCEAN RESEARCH
The Robotic Float Project
o Float is shaped like a 21................
o Scientists from 22................have worked on the project so far
Questions 23-25. Complete the diagram below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE OPERATIONAL CYCLE
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Questions 26-30
In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things?
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, next to questions 26-30.
A. At present
B. In the near future
C. In the long-term future
26. understanding of El Niño
27. understanding of climate change
28. naval rescues
29. sustainable fishing practices
30. crop selection
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PART 4
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Hotels and the tourist industry
31. According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel?
A. impressed with the facilities
B. depressed by the experience
C. concerned at the high costs
32. According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to
A. provide for the demands of important guests.
B. create a comfortable environment.
C. offer an individual and personal welcome.
33. The company focused their research on
A. a wide variety of hotels.
B. large, luxury hotel chains.
C. exotic holiday hotels.
34. What is the impact of the outside environment on a hotel guest?
A. It has a considerable effect.
B. It has a very limited effect.
C. It has no effect whatsoever.
Questions 35-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
A company providing luxury serviced apartments aims to:
o cater specifically for 35 ................ travellers
o provide a stylish 36 ................. for guests to use
o set a trend throughout the 37 ..................... which becomes permanent
Traditional holiday hotels attract people by:
o offering the chance to 38 ................... their ordinary routine life
o making sure that they are cared for in all respects - like a 39 ..............
o leaving small treats in their rooms - e.g. cosmetics or 40 ...............
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CAM 7 TEST 4
PART 1
Số câu đúng: …./40
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
HOMESTAY APPLICATION
Surname: Yuichini
First name: 1 ...............
Sex: female
Nationality: Japanese
Passport number: 2 .................
Age: 28 years
Present address: Room 21C, Willow College
Length of homestay: approx 3 ..................
Course enrolled in: 4 ................
Family preferences: no 5 ..................
no objection to 6 .....................
Questions 7-10
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
7. What does the student particularly like to eat? .....................
8. What sport does the student play? .....................
9. What mode of transport does the student prefer? .....................
10. When will the student find out her homestay address? .....................
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PART 2
Questions 11-14.
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11. What kind of tour is Sally leading?
A. a bus tour
B. a train tour
C. a walking tour
12. The original buildings on the site were
A. houses.
B. industrial buildings.
C. shops.
13. The local residents wanted to use the site for
A. leisure.
B. apartment blocks.
C. a sports centre.
14. The Tower is at the centre of the
A. nature reserve.
B. formal gardens.
C. Bicentennial Park.
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Questions 15-17
Label the plan below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Questions 18-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Nature Reserve
Blog
Area
Facility
Activity
The Mangroves
boardwalk
18 ...............
Frog Pond
outdoor classroom
19 ...............
The Waterbird Refuge
20 ...............
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PART 3
Questions 21 and 22
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The presentation will last 15 minutes. There will be 21 ............... minutes for questions.
The presentation will not be 22 ...............
Questions 23-26.
What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation?
A They will definitely include this topic.
B They might include this topic.
C They will not include this topic.
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.
23. Geographical Location ...............
24. Economy ...............
25. Overview of Education System ...............
26. Role of English Language ...............
Questions 27-30.
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Information/visual aid
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Where from?
Overhead projector
the 27 ...............
Map of West Africa
the 28 ...............
Map of the islands
a tourist brochure
Literacy figures
the 29 ...............
30 ............... on school places
as above
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PART 4
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter A, B or C
Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)
31 The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is
A. the history of monosodium glutamate.
B. the way monosodium glutamate works.
C. where monosodium glutamate is used
32 In 1908, scientists in Japan
A. made monosodium glutamate.
B. began using kombu.
C. identified glutamate.
33 What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956?
A. It began to be manufactured on a large scale.
B. The Japanese began extracting it from natural resources.
C. It became much more expensive to produce.
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Questions 34-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

MSG contains
o glutamate (78.2%)
o sodium (12.2%)
o 34 ............... (9.6%)

Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as 35 ............... and 36...............
MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.
In 1908 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a 37 ...............
Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so 38 ............... naturally.
John Prescott suggests that:
o sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.
o 39 ............... tells us that a food contains toxins.
o sourness tells us that a food is spoiled.
o saltiness tells us that a food contains 40 ...............




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