Cloud Computing Questions
1. What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?
a. Capacity planning
b. Flexible metering
c. Policy compliance
d. Rapid elasticity
2. Which tool helps to create Cloud services?
a. Service management tool
b. Service creation tool
c. Service monitoring tool
d. Service planning tool
3. Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical
resources?
a. Grid Computing
b. Utility computing
c. Virtualization
d. Self provisioning
4. Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?
a. Resource utilization
b. Resource pooling
c. Resource planning
d. Resource reservation
5. Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?
a. Centralize services and resources
b. Automate resource classification
c. Automate service provisioning
d. Customize services and resources
6. Which is a benefit of RAID?
a. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
b. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set
c. Improves storage system performance
d. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks
7. Which statement is true about FC SAN?
a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
b. Has limited ability to share resources
c. Enables object level access to data
d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
8. Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support
new business initiatives dynamically?
a. Manageability
b. Availability
c. Capacity
d. Flexibility
9. Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and
availability of a RAID set?
a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level
b. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
c. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
d. Number of drives in a RAID set and Type of RAID implementation
10. Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized
storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data
center?
a. Scalability
b. Flexibility
c. Security
d. Availability
11. What is stored in virtual machine log file?
a. Information of virtual machine’s activities
b. Virtual machine’s RAM contents
c. Virtual machine BIOS information
d. Information of virtual machine’s configuration
12. Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual
machine can consume?
a. Share
b. Limit
c. Reservation
d. Priority
13. Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical
CPUs?
a. Hyper-threading
b. Multi-core
c. Load balancing
d. Ballooning
14. Which optimization technique is used to detect identical pages in the
memory?
a. Transparent page sharing
b. Memory ballooning
c. Memory swapping
d. Cache flushing
15. Which is the primary function of hypervisor?
a. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical
machine
b. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual
machine
c. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
d. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
16. Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a
storage array?
a. File system locking
b. Virtual machine clustering
c. Raw device mapping
d. Virtual storage mapping
17. What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering?
a. RAID type, storage type, policies
b. Storage type, storage group, policies
c. Storage group, RAID group, storage type
d. Storage group, RAID group, group policy
18. What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism?
a. DRAM
b. FC drive
c. Solid state drive
d. SATA drive
19. When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN?
a. Performance is predominant
b. Security is more important
c. Storage space efficiency is paramount
d. High availability is predominant
20.
What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a
time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool?
a. Thin LUN extent
b. Thin LUN capacity
c. Thin LUN factor
d. Thin LUN set size
21. Which is a benefit of network virtualization?
a. Enhanced storm control
b. Increased resource acquisition
c. Improved manageability
d. Better policy control
22. Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a virtual
machine port group without queuing or dropping frames?
a. Burst size
b. Peak bandwidth
c. Share
d. Limit
23. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers,
which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?
a. Power and energy
b. Management
c. Infrastructure
d. Operational
24. Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single
network connection?
a. NIC Teaming
b. Multipathing
c. Port group
d. Trunking
25. What is enabled by using NIC teaming?
a. Balance traffic across physical servers
b. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority
c. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical
NIC failure
d. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network
links
26. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud
computing?
a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
b. Services are provisioned based on their deman
c. Metering services are created when required from the resource
pools.
d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
27. Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology?
a. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports
b. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports
c. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_ports
d. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports
28. What correctly describes application virtualization?
a. Encapsulates operating system resources and the application
b. Increases application and CPU utilization
c. Provides interoperability between different application versions
d. Breaks dependencies between application interface and processing
logic
29. What is true about application encapsulation?
a. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine
b. Requires a built-in agent at the remote server
c. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS
d. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built–in
agent
30. What is true about application streaming?
a. Requires no agent at client machine
b. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built–in
agent on the application
c. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine
d. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts
31. When is a connection broker a mandatory component of Virtual Desktop
Infrastructure architecture?
a. Desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool
b. High-end graphic applications are used
c. Additional security is required
d. Dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user
32. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational
expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
On-premise Private Cloud
External Private Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
33. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
34. What is true about virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?
a. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the server
b. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent support
c. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server
d. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on client
machine
35. What is an advantage of image based backup approach?
a. Single pass information collection
b. Reduced RPO
c. Eliminate site failures
d. Reduced VM failures
36. Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism?
a. Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disks
b. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks
c. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk
d. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk
37. What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is
reverted from its snapshot?
a. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot
creation
b. Current guest OS configurations are preserved
c. Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS
d. Settings are lost and need manual configuration
38. What is the Cloud service model offered by Cloud Foundry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
39. What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after
an array-to-array migration is performed?
a. Virtual disks are maintained at both source and target arrays
b. Virtual disks are only maintained at the source array
c. Virtual disks are deleted from the source array after they are copied
to the target array
d. Virtual disks are deleted from both source and target arrays
40. Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual
machine (VM)?
a. VM template
b. VM snapshot
c. VM clone
d. VM backup
41. Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?
a. Operating system
b. Storage space
c. Middleware
d. Database
42. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Syncplicity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software-as-a-Service
Platform-as-a-Service
Infrastructure-as-a-Service
Virtualization-as-a-Service
43. Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?
a. EMC Atmos online
b. Salesforce.com
c. Google App Engine
d. EMC Mozy
44. Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering?
a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b. Google App Engine
c. Salesforce.com
d. EMC Mozy
45. Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering?
a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b. Google App Engine
c. Microsoft Azure
d. EMC Mozy
46. Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a
group of organizations with shared concerns?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Private Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Public Cloud
Community Cloud
47. Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud?
a. Management software
b. Storage array
c. Network identity pool
d. Service catalog
48. Which option best describes ‘resource bundling’ in Cloud service creation
procedure?
a. Bundling application, platform software, and migration tools
b. Integrating virtual machine, virtual network, and virtual volume
c. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services
d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools
49. Which is a key activity in ‘problem management’?
a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible
b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures
c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB
d. Transferring problem history to incident management
50. Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing
utilization of IT resources?
a. Service asset and configuration management
b. Financial management
c. Compliance management
d. Capacity management
51. Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?
a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual
infrastructure across data centers
b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory, and storage capacity
c. Create zone sets and include nodes into zones
d. Create virtual machines and allocate them specified resources
52. Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data
confidentiality and integrity?
a. Copy and move restrictions
b. Authorization
c. Trusted computing base
d. Encryption
53. What is the primary goal of a security audit?
a. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement
b. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentiality
c. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrity
d. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability
54. Which security goal is achieved by data shredding technique?
a. Preventing data loss
b. Preventing data manipulation
c. Ensuring data confidentiality
d. Enabling data encryption
55. Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services?
a. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloud
b. Business Continuity
c. Risk Assessment
d. Disaster management
56. How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model?
a. Implemented by the Cloud Consumer
b. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider
c. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer together
d. Implemented by a 3rd party provider
57. Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses?
a. Public
b. Private
c. Hybrid
d. Community
58. Which Cloud adoption phase enables consumer to explore the geographic
location to store their data?
a. Assessment
b. Proof of concept
c. Migration
d. Optimization
59. Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled
applications?
a. Hybrid
b. Forklift
c. Private
d. Public