1. A husband-and-wife approach Nurse Anna in the Reproductive Health Unit (RHU) in SWU Med.
They come-up with a topic as to when assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which
of the following is the most useful criterion, the answer of Nurse Anna is:
a. Sperm motility
b. Sperm maturity
c. Semen Volume
d. Sperm count
2. At SWU Med’s Reproductive Health Unit (RHU), nurse Barry was assessing a couple who wants to
conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 3 years has undergone many diagnostic
procedures. When the couple is discussing the situation with nurse Barry, the wife states, “We know
several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have
one?”. Nurse Barry come up with a Nursing Care Plan. Which of the following would be the most
pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?
a. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
b. Fear related to the unknown
c. Pain related to numerous procedures.
d. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
3. Nurse Thalia was assisting a Primi patient in her first trimester at the Emergency Room who seek
for consultation. Nurse Thalia knew that in the first trimester of pregnancy, pregnant women most
frequently experience what urinary symptom?
a. Burning
b. Dysuria
c. Frequency
d. Incontinence
4. Patient Nina was having her 8th visit in SWU Med’s Reproductive Health Unit (RHU). She was
assisted by Nurse Myrna and told her complains. Nina was experiencing episodes of heartburn and
flatulence. Nurse Myrna knew that this is common in the second trimester. What Nina were
experiencing are most likely the result of which of the following?
a. Increased plasma HCG levels
b. Decreased gastric acidity
c. Decreased intestinal motility
d. Elevated estrogen levels
5. Student Nurse Jenny was assisting patient Janah at SWU Med’s Reproductive Health Unit (RHU).
During Jenny’s assessment she found out that Janah has already a chloasma. This is expected that
chloasma is being found in which parts of the pregnant women’s body?
a. Breast, areola, and nipples
b. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
c. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
d. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
6. All are vertex fetal presentation except:
a. Right occipitotransvere
b. Right occipitoanterior
c. Right occipitoposterior
d. Right mentoanterior
e. Left occipitoanterior
7. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
a. Fetal movement felt by mother
b. (+) ultrasound
c. Enlargement of the uterus
d. (+) pregnancy test
8. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the Graafian follicle is:
a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Estrogen
9. You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation. Fetal back at the
right side of the mother.Based on these findings. You can hear the fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in
which location?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper vertex (NOTE: QUADRANT)
c. Left lower quadrant
d. Left upper quadrant
10. Which of the following findings in a women would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months
duration?
a. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
b. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striaegravidarum.
c. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency.
d. Braxton Hicks contraction and quickening.
11. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: *
a. Progesterone
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
c. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
d. Estrogen
12. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1. You palpated a soft. Broad mass that moves with the rest of the
mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is:
a. The mass palpated is the back.
b. The presentation is breech.
c. The mass palpated is the buttocks
d. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
13. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is: *
a. Vertical position
b. None of the choices
c. Oblique position
d. Transverse position
14. In the later part of the 3rd trimester. The mother may experience shortness of breath. This
compliant maybe explained as:
a. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy.
b. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen.
c. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards.
d. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones.
15. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round mass at the supra pubic area. The
correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
a. The mass palpated is the small fetal part.
b. The mass is the fetal back.
c. The mass palpated is the head.
d. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
16. A 30 year old multi-para is admitted to the birthing room after initial examination reveals her
cervix to be at 8cm, completely effaced ( 100%) and at 0 stations. What phase of labor is she in? *
a. Latent Phase
b. Transitional Phase
c. Active Phase
d. Expulsive Phase
17. Methergine or Pitocin is prescribed for a woman to treat Postpartum hemorrhage. Before
administration of these medications, the priority nursing assessment is to check the: *
a. Deep Tendon reflex
b. Uterine tone
c. Blood pressure
d. Amount of Lochia
18. A nurse is preparing to perform a fundal assessment on a postpartum client. The initial nursing
action in performing this assessment is which of the following? *
a. Ask the mother to urinate and empty her bladder.
b. Ask the client to lie flat on her back with the knees and legs flat and straight.
c. Massage the fundus gently before determining the level of the fundus.
d. Ask the client to turn on her side
19. A Nurse is providing instructions to a woman after delivery of a healthy newborn infant, The Nurse
instructs the mother that she should expect normal bowel elimination to return: *
a. Within 2 weeks
b. One day of the delivery
c. 7days postpartum
d. 3 days postpartum
20. Four hours after a difficult labor and birth, a primiparous woman refuses to feed her baby, stating
that she is too tired and wants to sleep. The nurse should: *
a. Record the behavior as infective maternal newborn attachment.
b. Take the baby back to the nursery,.Reassuring the woman that her rest is the priority.
c. Recognize this as a behavior of the taking hold stage.
d. Tell the woman she can rest after she feeds her baby
21. On which of the postpartum days can the client expect lochia serosa? *
a. Days 10-14
b. Days 14-42
c. Days 3 and 4
d. Days 3 to 10
22. A nurse is developing a plan of care a postpartum woman with a small vulvular hematoma. The
nurse includes which specific intervention the plan during the first 12 hours following the delivery of
this client? *
a. measure the fundal height every 4 hours
b. prepare an ice pack for application to the area.
c. Assess the vital signs every 4 hours.
d. Inform healthcare provider of the assessment findings
23. A nurse is monitoring a new mother in the postpartum period for signs if noted in the mother,
would be an early sign of excessive blood loss? *
a. An increase in pulse from 88 to 102 BPM
b. A temperature of 100 degree farrenheit
c. An increase in the Respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths per minute
d. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124 /80mmhg
24. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to cause uterine atony and lead to postpartum
hemorrhage? *
a. Endometritis
b. Cervical and vaginal tears
c. Hypertension
d. Uterine retention
25. What type of milk is present in the breasts 7 to 10 days Postpartum? *
a. Colostrum
b. Hind Milk
c. Mature Milk
d. Transitional
26. The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that the
client is beginning the second stage of labor? Select all that apply. *
a. The cervix is dilated completely
b. The spontaneous urge to push is initiated from perineal pressure
c. The contractions are irregular
d. The membranes have ruptured
e. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid
27. The nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the active stage of the first phase of labor. The
nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the CTG machine. What is the
most appropriate nursing action? *
a. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns
b. Increase the rate of the oxytocin intravenous infusion
c. Place the mother in supine position
d. Administer oxygen via face mask
28. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for a cesarean delivery at 39
weeks AOG. Which assessment finding indicates the need to contact the health care provider? *
a. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/min
b. White blood cell count of 12,000 mm³
c. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats/min
d. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dL
29. The nurse is monitoring a client in active labor and notes that the client is having contractions
every 3 minutes that last 45 seconds. The nurse notes that the fetal heart rate between contractions is
100 beats/min. Which nursing action is the most appropriate? *
a. Encourage the client to continue pushing with each contractions
b. Continue monitoring the fetal heart rate
c. Instruct the client’s coach to continue to encourage breathing techniques
d. Notify the health care provider
30. The nurse is reviewing true and false labor signs with a multiparous client. The nurse determines
that the client understands the sign of true labor if she makes which statement? *
a. “My contractions will increase in duration and intensity
b. “My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around
c. “My contractions will be felt in my abdominal area”
c. “ I won’t be in labor until my baby drops”
31. Nurse Soni assessed a 36 weeks’ gestation client and complains of discomfort with irregularly
occurring contractions. The nurse instructs the client to: *
a. Take 10 grains of aspirin for the discomfort
b. Lie down until they stop
c. Walk around until they subside
d. Time contraction for 30 minutes
32. Nurse Maya is performing a head to toe assessment and history taking of a client who is scheduled
for a cesarean delivery in the morning. Which assessment finding of the nurse that would indicate the
need to contact the physician? *
a. Hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL
b. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats per minute
c. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute
d. White blood cell count of 12,000
33. Nurse Lina is caring for a G1P0 client in labor who is receiving Oxytocin (Pitocin) by IV infusion to
stimulate uterine contractions. Which assessment finding of the nurse would indicate that the
Oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped? *
a. A fetal heart rate of 90 beats per minute
b. Increased urinary output
c. Adequate resting tone of the uterus palpated between contractions
d. Three contractions occurring within a 10-minute period
34. Nurse Mary is monitoring a client who is in active labor. Upon monitoring, the nurse notes that the
client is having contractions every 3 minutes that last 45 seconds. She notes that the fetal heart rate
between contractions is 90 BPM. Which of the following nursing intervention would be the most
appropriate? *
a. Encourage the client to continue pushing with each contraction
b. Continue monitoring the fetal heart rate
c. Notify the physician or nurse midwife
d. Encourage the client’s coach to continue to encourage breathing exercises
35. Nurse Lina assessed a G2P1 client in active phase of labor. The nurse observes the client’s amniotic
fluid and knows that it appears normal, because it is: *
a. Milky, greenish yellow, containing shreds of mucus
b. Clear, almost colorless, and containing little white specks
c. Cloudy, greenish-yellow, and containing little white specks
d. Clear and dark amber in color
RBE (2)
1. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
*
a. Lightening
b. Ballotment
c. Psuedocyesis
d. Quickening
2. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”? *
a. Second stage
b. First stage
c. Third stage
d. Fourth stage
3. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? *
a. 15 weeks gestation
b. 5 weeks gestation
c. 10 weeks gestation
d. 20 weeks gestation
4. What instrument is used to detect clear sounds of fetal heart rate during 5 months gestation, in
which we need to auscultate it in the midline suprapubic region? *
a. Stethoscope
b. Cardiotachometer
c. Doppler ultrasound transducer
d. Tocotransducer
5. A nurse is caring for a 32-week-pregnant client. The client asks how the nurse will monitor the
baby’s growth and determine if the baby is “really okay.” Based on current evidence, during the third
trimester, which assessment should the nurse perform to evaluate the fetus for adequate growth and
viability? *
a. Auscultate maternal heart tones.
b. Measure fundal height.
c. Measure the woman’s abdominal girth.
d. Complete a third-trimester ultrasound.
6. A nurse is caring for a 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination
in 1988, spontaneous abortion in 2001, term vaginal delivery in 2003, and currently pregnant again.
Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravity and parity is correct? *
a. G4P1
b. G2P1
c. G3P1
d. G4P2
7. If a pregnant woman is at 20 weeks gestation, at what level should a clinic nurse expect to palpate
the woman’s uterine height? *
a. Two finger-breadths above the symphysis pubis.
b. At the umbilicus.
c. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
d. Two finger-breadths above the umbilicus.
8. A nurse is assessing the fundal height for multiple pregnant clients. For which client should the
nurse conclude that a fundal height measurement is most accurate? *
a. A pregnant client who is obese.
b. A pregnant client with polyhydramnios.
c. A pregnant client with uterine fibroids.
d. A pregnant client experiencing fetal movement.
9. A pregnant woman asks a nurse, who is teaching a prepared childbirth class, when she should
expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse responds that fetal movement. The nurse responds that
fetal movement usually can be felt between which time frame? *
a. 18 and 20 weeks of pregnancy
b. 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy
c. 12 and 16 weeks of pregnancy
d. 22 and 26 weeks of pregnancy
10. Which universal screenings should a nurse complete during the initial prenatal visit? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY. *
a. Testing the urine for protein.
b. Taking the blood pressure.
c. Testing the urine for glucose.
d. Screening for domestic violence.
e. Screening for smoking.
11. Patient Camile who is a multi-gravid patient state that she “waddles” when she walks. Nurse
Myrna’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause? *
a. The large size of the newborn
b. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
c. Excessive weight gain
d. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
12. Student Nurse Anton was asked by his clinical instructor as to what is the average amount of
weight gained during pregnancy. His appropriate response will be: *
a. 24 to 30 lb
b. 15 to 25 lb
c. 25 to 40 lb
d. 12 to 22 lb
13. Nurse Barry is talking with a pregnant patient on her 35th week of gestation who is experiencing
aching swollen, leg veins, nurse Barry would explain that this is most probably the result of which of
the following? *
a. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
b. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
d. Thrombophlebitis
14. Nurse Myrna was conducting a health education at SWU Med’s Reproductive Health Unit (RHU) to
the service patients. She discusses the different signs that a pregnant woman will experience in her
pregnancy. She mentioned that cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the
following? *
a. Presumptive signs
b. Probable signs
c. Positive signs
d. Diagnostic signs
15. As part of nurse Myrna’s health education to the pregnant women, she emphasizes her discussion
about presumptive signs of pregnancy. Which of the following is a presumptive sign/s? *
a. Positive serum pregnancy test
b. Hegar sign
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Skin pigmentation changes
16. The nurse has been working with a laboring client and notes that she has been pushing effectively
for 1 hour. What is the client’s primary physiological need at this time? *
a. Consume oral foods and fluids
b. Change positions frequently
c. Rest between contractions
d. Ambulation
17. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for a cesarean delivery. After
the client is transferred to the delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, the
nurse should place the client in which position? *
a. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups
b. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
c. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated
d. Semi-fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees
18. A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the
nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by: *
a. Closing the doors to the room
b. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
c. Drying the infant in a warm blanket
d. Warming the crib pad
19. A nurse in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. The nurse is
preparing to measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would most appropriately: *
a. Place the tape measure under the infant's head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front
just above the eyes
b. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant’s head, wrap around across the ears, and measure
across the infant’s mouth.
c. Wrap the tape measure around the infant’s head and measure just above the eyebrows.
d. Place the tape measure under the infant's head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above
the eyes
20. A postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with
hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse provides which most appropriate instructions to
the mother? *
a. Switch to bottle-feeding the baby for 2 weeks
b. Continue to breast-feed every 2-4 hours
c. Feed the newborn infant less frequently
d. Stop the breastfeeding and switch to bottle-feeding permanently
21. Using Leopold’s maneuvers, the nurse palpates a round, firm, movable body part in the fundal
portion of the uterus and a long, smooth surface on the mother’s right side. Based on these findings,
the nurse expects to auscultate fetal heart tones in which maternal quadrant? *
a. Lower right
b. Lower left
c. Upper left
d. Upper right
22. A nulliparous client is late in the transition phase of the first stage of labor. She becomes restless
and very irritable and tells her partner to stop touching her hand and leave her alone. The best
response by the nurse is which of the following? *
a. Reassure the partner that the patient does not mean what has been said and encourage the partner
to ignore it
b. Explain to the partner that the patient’s behavior is normal and help the partner continue to coach
the patient
c. Tell the partner that this is a good time to leave the room and take a break.
d. Inform the partner that a nurse would be more effective to coach at this time
23. The nurse is caring for the client who is in labor. Which of the following nursing action reflects
application of the gate control theory during labor? *
a. Turn the patient onto her left side
b. Administer pain medication when the patient is dilated by 4 cm
c. Massage the client’s back
d. Encourage the client to save strength by resting between contractions
24. The nurse is providing care for a patient who delivered 30 minutes ago. The patient has an IV of
lactated Ringer’s with 25 units Pitocin infusion. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient’s
lochia is excessive. Vital signs are BP 156/98; P 84; R 20; T 98˚F. The nurse informs the health care
provider of the findings, and the following order is received: methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg
IM now. The most appropriate response by the nurse is which of the following? *
a. Request an order of IV administration of the medication in this emergency situation
b. Question the order because the medication is contraindicated for this patient
c. Administer the medication and reevaluate the bleeding within 30 minutes
d. Do not administer the medication but increase the rate of the IV fluids
25. The nurse is assessing the client two hours after delivery of a 9-lb infant. Which problem should
receive the highest priority? *
a. Redness and edema of the perineum
b. Uterus displacement on the left side of the abdomen
c. Breast tenderness and dripping of colostrum from nipples
d. Extreme thirst and complaints of pain in the perineum
26. The nurse is reviewing results for clients who are having antenatal testing. The assessment data
from which client warrants prompt notification of the health care provider and a further plan of care?
*
a. Multigravida who had positive oxytocin challenge test
b. Primigravida whose infant has a biophysical profile of 9
c. Multigravida whose infant has a reactive nonstress test
d. Primigravida who reports fetal movement 6 times in 2 hours
27. The nurse is caring for the client 1 hour after delivery should be most concerned with: *
a. Moderate amount of lochia rubra
b. Temperature of 101˚F
c. Distended bladder
d. Clear discharge from the breast
28. The nurses in an OB ward are having their endorsement from night to am shift. Which of the
following assessment findings, noted from the night shift, would require the am nurse to see first on
their morning rounds? *
a. The client who is 32 weeks gestation with terbutaline (Brethine) intravenously.
b. One day postpartum client who has changed two peri-pads in the last 6 hours.
c. The diabetic obstetric client with blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
d. The client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting for 50 seconds.
29. A multiparous client tells the nurse that she experienced afterbirth pains while breastfeeding her
infant. The nurse should instruct the client to: *
a. Lie prone with a small pillow under the abdomen
b. Empty her bladder every 2 to 3 hours
c. Offer the infant a bottle at next feeding
d. Administer a p.r.n. order of simethicone (Mylicon).
30. A client, who has a vaginal delivery 2 hours earlier, has just been transferred to the postpartum
unit from labor and delivery. Which of the following nursing care goals is of the highest priority? *
a. The client will have a moderate lochial flow
b. The client will breastfeed her baby every 2 hours
c. The client will ambulate in the hallways every shift.
d. The client will consume a nutritious diet
31. A patient is placed on bed rest at home for mild preeclampsia at 38 weeks’ gestation. Which of the
following must the nurse teach the patient regarding her condition? *
a. Limit fluids to 1 liter per day.
b. Check her temperature 4 times daily
c. Eat a sodium–restricted diet
d. Report swollen hands and face
32. A nurse remarks to a 38 week gravid client, “It looks like your face and hands are swollen.” The
client responds, “Yes, you’re right. Why do you ask?” the nurse’s response is based on the fact that
the changes may be caused by which of the following? *
a. Altered glomerular filtration
b. Cardiac failure
c. Altered splenic circulation
d. Hepatic insufficiency
33.Late deceleration patterns are noted when assessing the monitor tracing of a woman whose labor
is being induced with an infusion of Pitocin. The woman is in a side-lying position, and her vital signs
are stable and fall within a normal range. Contractions are intense, last 90 seconds, and occur every 1
1/2 to 2 minutes. The nurse’s immediate action would be to: *
a. Stop the Pitocin
b. Administer oxygen via a tight mask at 8 to 10 liters/minute
c. Elevate the woman’s legs
d. Change the woman’s position
34. Miss Kathrine asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the assessment of a G1P0 30
weeks AOG client to describe the process of quickening. Which of the following statements if made by
the student indicates an understanding of this term? *
a. “It is the thinning of the lower uterine segment.”
b. “It is the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.”
c. “It is the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.”
d. “It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.”
35. Patient XY is a G3P2 client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate in the ER. Nurse
Denise is assigned to care for the client and determines that the magnesium therapy is effective if: *
a. Scotomas are present
b. Seizures do not occur
c. The blood pressure decreases
d. Ankle clonus in noted
RBE (3)
1. Nursing interventions in the Early Essential Newborn Care within 90 minutes to 6 hours of life are
the following, except: *
a. Check for birth injuries, malformation and defects
b. Inject Hepatitis A
c. Give a single dose of Vitamin K
d. Weigh the baby and record
Other:
2. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect Down Syndrome in an
infant?
a,Transverse palmar crease
b.Small tongue
c.Large nose
d. Restricted joint movement
3. Nurse Lora, is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy regarding
measures to assist in reducing breast tenderness. The Nurse tells the client:
a. Avoid wearing bra
b. Wash the nipples and areola area daily with soap and massage the breasts with lotion
c. Wear tight- fitting blouses or dresses to provide support
d. Wash the breast with warm water and keep them dry.
4. A postpartum woman has just returned to the OB from delivery room, the nurse transferred her to
her bed but did not put the side rails. The client fell and was injured. What kind of liability does the
nurse have?
a.None
b. Negligence
c. Intentional tort
d. Assault and battery
5. For healthy infants and children > 2 months who are not given BCG at birth, PPD prior to BCG
vaccination is necessary. This statement is: *
True
False
Other:
6. A nurse is assessing a laboring client who is morbidly obese. The nurse is unable to determine the
fetal position. Which is the most accurate method of determining fetal position in this client? *
a. Inspection of the fetal abdomen
b. Palpation of the abdomen
c. Vaginal examination
d. Ultrasound
Option 5
7. A new pregnant client (G1P0) presents at clinic and states that she is anxious regarding her
pregnancy, her prenatal care, and her labor and birth. Which teaching need is priority during the first
trimester?
a. Sexual relations with her spouse
b. Fetal growth and development
c. Labor and delivery options
d. Completion of preparations for the baby
Other:
8. The following statement is true with regards to Hib vaccine, except: *
a. A booster dose is given between age 12-15 months with an interval of 6 months from the third dose
b. Given intramuscularly (IM)
c. Given at the earliest possible age after birth preferably within the first 2 months of life
d. Given as a 3-dose primary series with a minimum age of 6 weeks and a minimum interval of 4 weeks
Other:
9. In IMCI you will be guided by color coding to classify patient. Please check the box which color the
following classification belongs: *
a. Yellow- Treatment at Outpatient Facility
b. Green- Home Management
c. Pink - Urgent Referral
Home Management
Treatment at Outpatient Facility
Urgent Referral
In the Early Essential Newborn Care, the time bound for non-separation of baby from mother is:
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 minutes
c. 15 seconds
d. 90 minutes
Other:
A nurse is teaching a woman who wishes to travel by airplane during the first 36 weeks of her
pregnancy. Which is the primary risk of air travel for this woman that the nurse should address?
a. Preterm labor
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Spontaneous miscarriage
d. Nausea and vomiting
Other:
A woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 7 weeks. What is the primary nursing intervention for a
woman who is bleeding during the first trimester?
a. Monitor vital signs
b. Prepare equipment for examination.
c. Have oxygen available.
d. Assess family’s response to the situation.
Other:
In collecting blood specimen for newborn screening it is obtain from: *
a. Vastus lateralis muscle
b. heel of the infant
c. finger of the infant
d. toes of the infant
Other:
For the newborn screening the timing of specimen collection for normal term newborn is:
a. 2 weeks of age or at discharge whichever is earlier
b. 3 weeks of age
c. After nursery discharge
d. Before nursery discharge or 3rd day of life
Other:
A nurse is caring for a woman with decreased fetal movement at 35 weeks gestation. Interventions
have been ordered by the physician. Prioritize the prescribed interventions in the order in which they
should be performed. Check box according to priority. *
a. First- Prepare for biophysical profile
b. Second- Prepare for nonstress test
c. Third- Palpate for fetal movement
d. Fourth- Apply and explain the external fetal monitor
Prepare for nonstress test
Prepare for biophysical profile
Palpate for fetal movement
Apply and explain the external fetal monitor
For DTP vaccine the minimum interval between booster doses should be at least: *
4 months
4 years
18 months
6 years
Other:
A nurse is taking the health of a new, pregnant client. Which medical conditions are most likely to be
risk factors for complications during pregnancy? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY *
Diabetes
Previous pregnancy
Controlled chronic hypertension
Anemia
Hemorrhage with a previous pregnancy
Option 6
Other:
A first-trimester pregnant woman asks a nurse if the activities in which she participates are safe in the
first trimester. Which activity should the nurse verify as a safe activity during the client’s first
trimester? *
Hair coloring
Hot tub use
Sauna use
Sexual activity
Other:
A nurse should recommend which preconceptual supplement as a preventive measure to decrease
the incidence of neural tube defects?
Folic acid supplementation
Iron supplementation
Vitamin C supplementation
Vitamin B6 supplementation
Other:
Mrs. Delina is now in the third stage of labor. Which signs indicate that the placenta is delivered by
Schultz mechanism? *
A. the fetal side is out first
B. the meaty portion is out first
C. there is more external bleeding
D. all of these
A nurse is assessing a prenatal client. Which findings should be most concerning to the nurse?
Prioritize the nurse’s assessment findings at the first prenatal visit from the most significant finding to
the least significant finding. Check box according to priority. *
First- Current smoking
Second- Intense pelvic pain
Third- Current bleeding and cramping
Fourth- Previous varicella infection
Current bleeding and cramping
Previous varicella infection
Current smoking
Intense pelvic pain
A laboring client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension. A nurse suspects
aortocaval compression. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately? *
Turning the client onto her left side
Turning the client onto her right side
Positioning the bed in reverse Trendelenburg’s position