02
BPU
UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA
(U S E P T)
(UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST)
TES BAHASA INGGRIS
PETUNJUK UMUM
1. Pilihlah jawaban yang benar A, B, C, D atau E dengan cara meng clicknya pada soal
dimonitor sesuai dengan pilhan anda.
2. Apabila anda ingin mengubah jawaban, Silahkan click jawaban baru sesuai yang
anda ubah.
3. Apabila anda telah selesai, tetaplah di tempat duduk masing-masing sampai
pengawas selesai mengumpulkan semua naskah soal dan lembar jawaban dan
mengizinkan anda meninggalkan ruangan.
4. Apabila anda berbuat curang,memberikan , meminta jawaban dari orang lain,atau
men JOKI maka anda akan dikenakan sanksi yang telah ditetapkan.
5. Selama Test berlangsung anda dilarang izin keluar.
1
UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST
(USEPT)
SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
In Section 1, there are three parts (Part A, Part B, and Part C) with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis
of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. You are not
allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Read the directions.
PART A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear 30 short conversations between
two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about
the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be
repeated. After you hear a question, read the five possible answers in
your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Now we will begin Part A with the first conversation.
1. (A) She recently purchased
laundry detergent.
(B) She will buy some
detergent for the man.
(C) The Laundromat is
around the corner.
(D) The man can buy
detergent at the store.
(E) She will give detergent
for the man.
(C) The man can get a job
where the woman
works.
(D) The man should keep
his current job.
(E) The man should stop
his job.
3. (A) She did not realize that
their team had won.
(B) Their team nearly lost
the game.
(C) She called to find out
the score of the game.
(D) Their team usually wins
2. (A) The man will find a job
if he continues to look.
(B) The man should look
for a job in a different
field.
2
its games.
(E) Their teams played
well.
changed the
conference time.
(B) He is planning to stay
until the conference is
finished.
(C) He will not attend the
concert.
(D) He will wait for the
Woman.
(E) He will call the woman.
4. (A) The woman should
continue driving.
(B) They will arrive late for
dinner.
(C) He forgot to make
reservations.
(D) He is not sure what is
wrong with the car.
(E) He stopped driving.
8. (A) The woman and the
man have plans to
eat out together
(B) The woman would
prefer to stay
home this evening
(C) The man has changed
his mind about the new
restaurant.
(D) The man is sorry he
cannot join the woman
for dinner.
(E) The man did not leave
for the restaurant.
5. (A) The woman did not
remember her
appointment.
(B) The woman needs to
get a calendar.
(C) The appointment must
be changed to a
different day.
(D) The calendar shows
the wrong month.
(E) The woman shows the
calender.
6.
9. (A) The woman should call
the professor the next
day.
(B) He is cancelling the
choir rehearsal because
of illness.
(C) The woman will feel
better in a day or two.
(D) He will turn up the heat
in the choir room.
(E) The woman will call the
Professor.
(A) He thinks the woman’s
computer is broken.
(B) He worked on the
woman’s computer for
too long.
(C) He sometimes gets
headaches after doing
computer work.
(D) He needs to take
longer break.
(E) he bought a new
Computer.
10.
7. (A) Professor Campbell
3
(A) She does not believe it
will snow.
(B) Snow in October is
unusual.
(C) Canadian winters are
rather long.
(D) Winter is her favorite
season.
(E) He likes the season
(C) He prefers to play in
the gym.
(D) It is not supposed to
rain tomorrow.
(E) The will not play in the
gym.
11. (A) He lost his wallet on a
trip to Germany.
(B) His private lessons did
not help him.
(C) His German tutor
charges him a
reasonable fee.
(D) He plans to continue
taking lessons.
(E) He did not take the
lessons.
12. (A) The committee has
just begun to
write the report.
(B) The report will be
short.
(C) The committee
members have just
become acquainted.
(D) The report is finished
except for the
introduction.
(E) The report is unclaer.
14.
(A) Type the letter as it is.
(B) Change some wording
in his letter.
(C) Send the letter without
typing it.
(D) Check to make sure
his facts are correct.
(E) Type the letter.
15.
(A) It is next to the
Holiday Motel.
(B) It is nicer than the
Holiday Motel.
(C) It is very inexpensive.
(D) It is a little farther than
the Holiday Motel.
(E) It is very popular.
16. (A) She is still using her
economics book.
(B) She knows where the
man can buy the book.
(C) She will talk to
Professor Phillips.
(D) She will lend her book
to the man.
(E) She will call the man.
13. (A) They should play
another time.
(B) They will probably
have to play in the
gym.
17. (A) She no longer teaches
architecture.
(B) She takes photographs
of different subjects.
4
(C) She did not enjoy her
trip to the desert.
(D) She just took down the
display at the student
center.
(E) She learned at the
student center.
movie tonight.
(C) He has already seen
the movie on a big
screen.
(D) He is planning to buy a
tv with a large screen.
(E) He has a new Tv.
18. (A) He rarely sends e-mail
messages.
(B) He thought the woman
read the message.
(C) He will have his
computer repaired later
today.
(D) He was unable to send
an e-mail message.
(E) He did not get e-mail
Message.
21. (A) She did not see the
play last night.
(B) She does not enjoy
going to plays.
(C) She will give her ticket
to the man.
(D) She will meet the man
at the door of the
theater.
(E) She will get the ticket
from the man.
19. (A) He will not get a refund
for a purchase.
(B) He does not feel well
enough to attend a
concert.
(C) A radio program has
been canceled.
(D) A concert will not take
place.
(E) He was happy to join
the concert.
22. (A) She had a hard time
finding a table.
(B) She does not like old
furniture.
(C) The table was not
expensive.
(D) The table needs to be
repaired.
(E) She bought a new
table.
23. (A) He just started
exercising at the gym.
(B) He also feels tired
today.
(C) The woman will
probably be tired for a
20. (A) He knows that watching
a movie on a small
screen is not ideal.
(B) He will try to come to
the showing of the
5
as teachers.
(E) They go to the student
center.
few days.
(D) The woman should not
sleep so late.
(E) She also needs to
Drink.
27. (A) She might have to buy
a new computer.
(B) She liked her old
computer better.
(C) She might not use all of
the new computer's
features.
(D) She needs to have her
computer repaired.
(E) She might have a new
A new computer.
24. (A) He also had to miss
mark’s party.
(B) He took his sister to
mark’s party.
(C) His sister also had the
flu.
(D) His sister will have a
graduation party soon.
(E) He enjoyed the party.
25. (A) She works at the
bookstore.
(B) She will borrow the
man’s book.
(C) She will help the man
study for a test.
(D) She has an important
exam next week.
(E) She will buy books at
the bookstore.
28. (A) She could base her
presentation on the
article she read.
(B) She could make her
presentation at a later
time.
(C) She should include
several articles by
Chomsky.
(D) She should read all the
sources he
recommended.
(E) She should not show
her presentation.
26. (A) They work at the
student center on
campus.
(B) they do not know how
to get to the student
center.
(C) They are interested in
finding out something
about jobs.
(D) They both plan careers
29. (A) She thinks that the man
should not complain.
(B) She thinks that one tray
will be enough to feed
everyone.
6
(B) Buy a cup of coffee.
(C) Order a sandwich.
(D) Have his cup refilled.
(E) Drink a cup of tea.
(C) She believes that
Norah
is very clever.
(D) She would have
chosen different food
for the party.
(E) She does not know that
the man will complain.
30. (A) Come back this
afternoon.
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations.
After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the five possible answers in your test
book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
(B) Using computers to
increase business
efficiency.
(C) A way to help people
improve their economic
conditions.
(D) The expansion of
international business.
(E) The development of
economics.
31. (A) She will be able to join the
economics seminar.
(B) She finished paying her
loan.
(C) She got an A on her term
paper.
(D) She has a new printer for
her computer.
(E) She has no money to buy
A new computer.
33. (A) It is the topic of his term
paper.
(B) He would like to find a job
32. (A) The importance of paying
back loans promptly.
7
37. (A) A classical temple.
(B) A well-known museum.
(C) A natural landscape.
(D) A modern office building.
(E) A traditional cultures.
there.
(C) His economics professor
did research work there.
(D) Microcredit programs have
been very successful there.
(E) he will contact to professor.
38. (A) Traditional views on the
purpose of a museum.
(C) Traditional notions of
respect for elected leaders.
(D) Traditional forms of
classical architecture.
(B) Traditional values of Native
Americans.
(E) The changing function of
the modern architecture.
34. (A) Cancel her credit card.
(B) Sign up for the economics
seminar.
(C) Type the man’s term paper.
(D) Do research on banks in
Asia.
(E) work in office.
35. (A) The life of a well know
Canadian architect.
(B) The architectural design of
a new museum.
(C) The variety of museums in
Washington D.C.
(D) The changing function of
the modern museum.
(E) Traditional activities on the
purpose of a museum.
36. (A) Both were designed by the
same architect.
(B) Both are located in
Washington D.C.
(C) Both feature similar
exhibits.
(D) Both were built around a
central square.
(E) Both are not similar
exhibits.
8
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After
each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and the questions will
not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the five possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test
pages.
Now we will begin Part C with the first talk.
mass.
(D) Scientists were unable
to balance equations of
energy without it.
(E) It could give energy
Measured.
39. (A) They are examples of
the usual sequence of
observation and
explanation.
(B) They provide evidence
of inaccurate scientific
observation.
(C) Their discovery was
similar to that of the
neutrino.
(D) They were subjects of
1995 experiments at
Los Alamos.
(E) The clearing of the
Experiments.
41. (A) That it carries a large
amount of energy.
(B) That it is a type of
electron.
(C) That it is smaller in size
than previously
thought.
(D) That it has a tiny
amount of mass.
(E) That it brings a small
Energy.
40. (A) Its mass had previously
been measured.
(B) Its existence had been
reported by Los Alamos
National Laboratory.
(C) Scientists were looking
for a particle with no
42. (A) The clearing of New
England forests.
(B) The role of New
England trees in British
9
(B) How they got their
name.
(C) How they hunt.
(D) How they solve
problems.
(E) How they imitate.
shipbuilding.
(C) The development of
shipbuilding industry in
New England.
(D) The role of the British
surveyor general in
colonizing New
England.
(E) The progress of the
economics value.
48. (A) By changing its
appearance.
(B) By imitating signals that
the other spiders send.
(C) By spinning a large
web.
(D) By imitating insects
caught in a web.
(E) By jumping in the web.
43. (A) Law
(B) Mathematics
(C) History
(D) Engineering
(E) Agriculture
49. (A) Avoid attacks by other
Spiders.
(B) Cross some water.
(C) Jump to the edge of the
tray.
(D) Spin a long thread.
(E) Change its appearance.
44. (A) Sugar Maple
(B) Oak
(C) White pine
(D) Birch
(E) Teak
45. (A) Its width
(B) Its height
(C) Its straightness
(D) Its location
(E) its weight
50. (A) It would keep trying to
reach the rock the
same way.
(B) It would try to reach the
rock a different way.
(C) The scientist would
move the spider to the
rock.
(D) The scientist would
place another spider in
the tray.
(E) It would jump to
46. (A) M
(B) %
(C) K
(D) →
(E) L
47. (A) How they swim long
distances.
10
reach the rock
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1
PLEASE STOP WORKING ON
SECTION
11
Section 2
Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is
followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are
to choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) to each question.
Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-5
5
10
15
20
In 1915 a German scientist, Alfred Wegener, published a book that
contained a bold new hypothesis concerning Earth's continents.
According to Wegener, all the landmasses on Earth were once united in
a giant supercontinent. This primeval landmass, which he named
Pangaea, broke apart, forming the continents and oceans as we know
them today.
Wegener's book was not translated into English until the end of the
1920s. By then, Wegener’s notion of continental drift-the fragmentation
of Pangaea and the slow movement of the resulting continents away
from each other-was already a topic of hot debate in geological circles in
many parts of the world. An American geologist, F. B. Taylor, had written
a long article in support of continental drift. But most other geologists
could not conceive of the possibility that whole continents might be
mobile, functioning like giant rafts.
Wegener had marshalled a good deal of circumstantial evidence:
fossil plants and animals from widely separated locales; climatic
environments (as indicated by sedimentary rocks) unlike those now
prevailing; and the remarkable fact that the coastlines of continents,
especially those of South America and Africa, can be made to fit so well
with each other, suggesting that the continents had once been actually
joined together. Plausible as continental drift was to those who believed
this evidence, there was one major problem: the process or mechanism
that causes continents to move remained unexplained.
12
25
30
As sometimes happens when a new scientific concept emerges,
the hypothesis of continental drift failed to gain credibility among many
geologists, in part because the mechanisms proposed by Wegener
himself, as well as others, were implausible. Wegener suggested that
Earth's gravitational force, which is slightly weaker at the equator than
elsewhere, was capable of gradually pulling the continents apart. Taylor
proposed that the Moon was torn from Earth in what is today the Pacific
Basin, and that the continents have been steadily moving into the gap
thereby created. Such notions damaged the credibility of the entire
continental drift hypothesis. It was only in the 1950s, when scientists
discovered that ocean floors move and spread, that Wegener's theory
gained general acceptance among geologists.
1.
2.
What does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) Wegener's explanation
of how oceans
influence continental
drift.
(B) Wegener's theory of
continental drift and
how it was received by
scientists.
(C) Geological theories that
preceded Wegener's
theory of continental
drift.
(D) Geological concepts
developed by Wegener
that gained
immediate acceptance.
(E) Wegener had
marshalled a good deal
of circumstantial
evidence.
The word "bold“ in line 2 is
closest in meaning to
(A) convincing
(B) daring
(C) complex
(D) attractive
(E) Simple
13
3.
The word "primeval" in line
4 is closest in meaning to
(A) Movable
(B) Very big
(C) Very ancient
(D) Assumed
(E) Very strong
4.
According to the second
paragraph, how did most
geologists view Wegener's
theory by the end of the
1920s?
(A) They found it extremely
difficult to accept.
(B) They knew little about it
because Wegener's
book had not yet been
translated.
(C) They considered it
possible but waited for
more evidence.
(D) They agreed that
continents move but
rejected proposed
explanations of how
they move.
(E) They had written a long
article in support of
continental drift
5.
(C) Forests
(D) Coasts
(E) Continents
The word "locales" in line
16 is closest in meaning to
(A) Places
(B) Distances
Questions 6-10
Although the deep-sea anglerfish has been a subject of curiosity
for a long time, it is still very much a mystery to scientists. This type of
fish has escaped close scientific observation because it lives deep at the
bottom of the ocean. For this reason, scientists have not had many
5 chances to follow the anglerfish around in its natural environment.
Furthermore, because the anglerfish inhabits the deep dark waters of
the ocean, it cannot be examined in the same way that scientists study
many other fish in the laboratory. However, we do know some things
about the anglerfish. What we do know, we've gathered mainly from
10 anglerfish that have gotten caught in the nets of fishing boats.
The anglerfish comes in many shapes and sizes. Its length can
range from about twenty centimeters to over three meters. However, all
anglerfish have a few things in common. They all have a large head with
small eyes and a huge mouth filled with sharp, see-through teeth. The
15 anglerfish attracts its food, usually other small sea animals, with a
strange green glow given off by a long rodlike outgrowth over its mouth.
In the darkness of the deep sea, the anglerfish waves the shining "rod"
around until it catches the eye of another sea creature. When the
curious creature spots the glowing tip of the antenna, it cannot help but
20 swim closer for a better look. Then, in a split second, the creature is
swallowed up and eaten by the anglerfish. In this way, the anglerfish
uses its antenna much like a fishing rod to lure prey to it. That is why it is
called an anglerfish-because "angler" is just another word for someone
who fishes.
Although the anglerfish's ability to "fish" using its rod is a unique
25
one, it is not the anglerfish itself that produces the light which attracts
other sea creatures. The green glowing light is produced by a type of
special bacteria called photobacteria. Scientists do not know exactly why
photobacteria collect on the tip of the anglerfish's antenna, but they
thrive there. The large amount of salt in the ocean's water allows them to
survive and multiply. Although these green glowing bacteria cannot be
seen in small groups-that is, they are invisible in small groups-they
reproduce on the tip of the rod until there are so many of them that they
glow brightly. By doing this, the bacteria help the anglerfish to survive in
deep dark places near the ocean floor, places where very few sea
14
creatures are well adapted to live.
6.
7.
8.
(A) Made
(B) Placed
(C) Changed
(D) Learned
(E) Caught
What is the passage mainly
about?
(A) The unusual places
where fish live
(B) The unique features of
an odd fish
(C) Experiments scientists
use to learn about fish
(D) Modem fishing
Techniques
(E) close scientific
observation
9.
Why do scientists know so
little ' about the deep-sea
anglerfish?
(A) It is not a fish that is
eaten by humans.
(B) It is a shy fish that
hides from humans.
(C) It lives far below the
surface of the ocean.
(D) It was believed to be an
extinct species of fish.
(E) It has been a subject of
curiosity for a long time.
10.
The word "gathered" in line
9 is closest in meaning to
What is probably true about
the size of the anglerfish?
(A) Its size varies greatly.
(B) Its size helps it catch
prey.
(C) Its size is thb same as
that of other deep-sea
fish.
(D) Its size is not known for
certain.
(E) Itself that produces the
light which attracts
other sea creatures
The word "it" in line 19
refers to
(A) The sea creature
(B) The antenna
(C) The green glow
(D) The deep-sea
anglerfish
(E) The glowing bacteria
Questions 11-15
5
In colonial New England during the seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries, the term "family" referred to all persons, related by blood or
not, who lived together as members of a household under a single head.
Families served many social and economic functions. The family was,
first of all, a business, an absolutely central agency of economic
production and exchange. Each household was more or less selfsufficient, and its various members were inextricably united in the work
of providing for their fundamental material wants. Work, indeed, was a
wholly natural extension of family life and merged with all of the family's
15
10
15
20
25
other activities.
The family was also a school. Parents were charged by law to
attend to the education of all the children in their immediate care. Most
people had little chance for any other sort of academic education,
though "common schools" were just beginning to appear by the end of
the seventeenth century. At the same time, the family was a vocational
institute. However deficient it may have been in transmitting the formal
knowledge and skills of reading and writing, it clearly served to prepare
its young for effective, independent performance in the larger economic
system. For the great majority of persons, who became farmers, this
learning process was instinctive and almost unconscious. But it applied
with equal force to the various trades and crafts of the time, which were
usually learned in the home of a master craftsperson.
The family was many other things too. It was a house of correction.
Idle persons and even criminals were sentenced by the court to live as
servants in the families of more reputable citizens. The family was also a
welfare institution that provided several different kinds of welfare service.
It was occasionally a hospital, at least insofar as certain individuals
thought to have medical knowledge would receive sick persons into their
homes for day-to-day care and treatment. It was an orphanage in that
children whose parents had died were straightaway transferred into
another household (often that of a relative). It was a home for the aged
and infirm who, no longer able to care for themselves, were usually
incorporated into the households of their grown children.
16
11.
What aspect of life in
colonial New England is the
passage mainly about?
(A) The various roles
played by the family.
(B) The different types of
education that children
received.
(C) The contribution that
families made to
reducing crime.
(D) The size of the average
Family.
(E) Natural extension of
family life.
12.
AIl of the following are
mentioned in the passage
as functions of the colonial
American family EXCEPT
(A) Meeting the material
needs of its members.
(B) Providing treatment for
persons who were ill.
(C) Providing housing for
officials of the court.
(D) Providing basic
education to its
members.
(E) Providing for their
fundamental material
wants.
13.
The word "inextricably" in
line 7 is closest in meaning
to
(A) Ultimately
(B) Complexly
(C) Informally
(D) Inseparably
(E) Usually
17
14.
The word "it" in line 20
refers to
(A) Family
(B) The larger economic
system
(C) The great majority of
persons
(D) This learning process
(E) Medical knowledge
15.
According to the third
paragraph, why were some
persons sentenced to work
as servants?
(A) To provide them with
vocational training
(B) To correct their
behavior
(C) To make the work of
the court easier
(D) To help families too
poor to hire servants
(E) To transfer into another
household
Section 2
Reading Comprehension
Questions 16 – 20.
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
A seventeenth-century theory of burning proposed that
anything that burns must contain material that the theorists called
“phlogiston.” Burning was explained as the release of phologiston
from the combustible material to the air. Air was thought
essential, since it had to provide a home for the released
phlogiston. There would be a limit to the phlogiston transfer, since
a given volume of air could absord only so much phlogiston.
When the air had become saturated, no additional amounts of
phlogiston could leave the combustible substance, and the
burning would stop. Burning would also stop when the
combustible substance was emptied of all its phlogiston.
Although the phlogiston theory was self-consistent, it was
awkward because it required that imaginative, even mysterious,
properties be ascribed to phlogiston. Phlogiston was elusive. No
one had ever isolated it and experimentally determined its
properties. At times it seemed to show a negative weight: the
residu left after burning weighed more than the material before
burning. This was true, for example, when magnesium burned.
Sometimes phlogiston seemed to show a positive weight, when,
for example, wood burned, the ash weighed less than the strating
material. And since so little residue was left when alcohol,
kerosene, or high-grade coal burned, these obviously different
materials were thought to be pure or nearly pure phlogiston.
In the eighteenth century, Antoine lavoisier, on the basis of
careful experimentation, was led to propose a different theory of
burning, one that required
a constituent of air- later shown to be oxygen- for combustion.
Since the weight of the oxygen is always, added, the weight of the
products of combustion, including the evolved gases, would
always be greater than the weight of the starting material.
Lavoisier’s interpretation was more reasonable and
straightforward than that of the phlogiston theorists. The
phlogiston theory, always clumsy, became suspect,
eventually fell into scientific disrepute, and was replaced by new
ideas.
18
weight.
(B) Leaves no residue after
burning.
(C) Was thought to be made
of nearly pure phlogiston.
(D) Was thought to contain no
phlogiston.
(E) Was more reasonable and
straightforward.
16. What does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) The cheminal composition
of phlogiston.
(B) Attempts to explain what
happens when materials
burn.
(C) Limitations
of
seventeenth-century
scientific theories.
(D) The characteristics of the
residue left after fires.
(E) A different theory of
burning.
20. Which of the following is true
of both the phlogiston theory
of burning and Lavoisier’s
theory of burning?
(A) Both theories propose that
total
weight
always
increases during burning.
(B) Both
theories
are
considered
to
be
reasonable
and
straightforward.
(C) Both
theories
have
difficulty explaining why
residue
remains
after
burning.
(D) Both theories recognize
that air is important to
combustion.
(E) Both
theories
explain
propose that total weight
always decreases during
burning.
17. The word “it” in line 5 refers to
(A) Burning
(B) Phlogiston
(C) Combustible material
(D) Air
(E) Magnesium
18. The word “properties” in line
14 is closest in meaning to
(A) Interpretations
(B) Locations
(C) Characteristics
(D) Virtues
(E) Substance
19. The
author
mentions
“magnesium” in line 18 as an
example of a substance that
(A) Seemed
to
have
phlogiston with a negative
Questions 21 - 25
(5)
Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth
century when coke was first used instead of charcoal for refining
iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its
use in architecture to items such as chains and tie bars for
supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the improvement in
refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams,
columns, and girders. During the nineteenth century further
19
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting
iron into steel Which made the material more commercially viable.
Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges,
because its strength was far greater than that of stone or timber,
but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly.
By 1800 a complete internal iron skeleton for buildings had been
developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber
beams, but it generally remained concealed. Apart from its low
cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in its strength, its
resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result,
iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more
traditional styles of architecture during the nineteenth century, but
it was invariably concealed.
Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the
new building types spawned by the Industrial Revolution: in
factories, warehouses, commercial offices exhibition halls, and
railroad stations, where its practical advantages far outweighed its
lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age
explored the potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans
that surpassed the great vauits of medieval churches and
cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great
Exhibition of 1851, covered an area of 1848 feet by 408 feet in
prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris
Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest
height achieved so far with the Halle does Machines, spanning
362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these
achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as
expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural advantages,
had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in
the more traditional styles of architecture was slower to develop.
21. What does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) Advances
in
iron
processing
in
the
eighteenth and nineteenth
centuries.
(B) The
effects
of
the
Industrial Revolution on
traditional
architectural
styles.
(C) Advantages of stone and
timber over steel as a
building material.
(D) The evolution of iron in
architecture during the
1800’s.
(E) The styles of architecture
during
the
nineteenth
century.
20
22. Iron replaced stone and
timber in the building of
bridges because iron was
considered
(A) More beautiful
(B) New and modern
(C) Much stronger
(D) Easier to transport
(E) More expensive
25. The paragraph following the
passage
most
probably
discusses
(A) the gradual inclusion of
exposed iron in traditional
styles of architectural
(B) further improvements in
iron processing methods
(C) the return to traditional
building materials dor use
in commercial structures
(D) the desreased use of
stone and timber as a
building material
(E) prefabricated units of
glass set in iron frames.
23. The word “it” in line 15 refers
to
(A) industrial architectural
(B) internal iron skeleton
(C) stone
(D) strength
(E) timber
24. The word “appeal” in line 16 is
closest in meaning to
(A) adjustment
(B) assignment
(C) attraction
(D) attempt
(E) Achievements
Questions 26 - 30
The most easily recognizable meteorites are the iron variety,
although they only represent about 5 percent of all meteorite falls.
They are composed of iron and nickel along with sulfur, carbon,
and traces of other elements. Their composition is thought to he
(5) similar to that of Earth's iron core and indeed they might have
once made up the core of a large planetoid that disintegrated long
ago. Due to their dense structure, iron meteorites have the best
chance of surviving an impact, and most are found by farmers
plowing their fields.
(10)
One of the best hunting grounds for meteorites is on the
glaciers of Antarctica where the dark stones stand out in stark
contrast to the white snow and ice. When meteorites fall on the
continent they are embedded in the moving ice sheets. At places
where the glaciers move upward against mountain ranges,
(15) meteorites are left exposed on the surface. Some of the
meteorites that have landed in Antarctica are believed to have
conic from the Moon and even as far away as Mars, when large
impacts blasted out chunks of material and hurled them toward
Earth. Perhaps the world's largest source of meteorites is the
(20) Nullarbor Plain, an area of limestone that stretches for 400 miles
along the southern coast of Western and South Australia. The
pale, smooth desert plain provides a perfect backdrop for spotting
meteorites, which are usually dark brown of black. Since very little
21
erosion takes place, the meteorites are well preserved and are
(25) found just where they landed. Over 1,000. fragments from 150
meteorites that fell during the last 20,000 years have been
recovered. One large iron meteorite, called the Mundrabilla
meteorite, weighed more than 11 tons.
Stony meteorites, called chordates, are the most common
type and make up more than 90 percent of all falls. But because
they are similar to Earth materials and therefore erode easily, they
are often difficult to find. Among the most ancient bodies in the
solar system are the carbonaceous chondrites that also contain
carbon compounds that might have been the precursors of life on
Earth.
(B) identifying
26. What is the passage mainly
(C) cooling
about?
(D) falling
(A) Finding meteorites on
(E) spotting
Earth’s surface
(B) How the composition of
29. Where was teh Mundrabilla
meteorites is similiar to
meteorite discovered?
that of Earth
(A) On the Nullarbos Plain
(C) Why most meteorites do
(B) In a field
not survive impact with
(C) On a mountain
Earth
(D) In Antarctica
(D) The origins of meteorites
(E) on the continent
(E) where the glaciers move
upward against mountain
30. According to the passage,
ranges
stony meteorites are
(A) composed of fragmented
27. The word “embedded” in line
materials
13 is closest in meaning to
(B) less likely to be discovered
(A) Isolated
than iron meteorites
(B) encased
(C) mostly lost in space
(C) enhanced
(D) found
only
on
the
(D) enlarged
Nullarbor Plain
(E) preserved
(E) found by farmers
28. The word “spotting” in line 22
is closest in meaning to
(A) removing
22
Questions 31 - 35
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
A pioneering set of experiments has been important in the
revolution in our understanding of animal behavior-a revolution
that eroded the behaviorist dogma that only humans have minds.
These experiments were designed to detect consciousness that
is, signs of self-awareness or self-recognition-in animals other
han humans.
The scientific investigation of an experience as private as
consciousness is frustratingly beyond the usual tools of the
experimental psychologist. This may be one reason that many
researchers have shied away from the notion of mind and
consciousness in nonhuman animals. In the late1960's, however,
psychologist Gordon Gallup devised a test of the sense of self:
the mirror test. If an animal were able to recognize its reflection in
a mirror as "self," then it could be said to possess an awareness
of self, or consciousness. It is known that a cat or a dog reacts to
its own image in mirror, but often it treats it as that of another
individual whose behavior very soon becomes puzzling and
boring.
The experiment called for fanuliarizing the animal with the
mirror and then marking the animal's forehead with a red spot. If
the animal saw the reflection as just another individual, it might
wonder about the curious red spot and might even touch the
mirror. But if the animal realized that the reflection was of itself, it
would probably touch the spot on its own body. The first time
Gallup tried the experiment with a chimpanzee, the animal acted
as if it knew that the reflection was its own, it touched the red spot
on its forehead. Gallup' report of the experiment, published in a.
1970 article, was a milestone in our understanding of animal
minds and psychologists wondered how widespread selfrecognition would prove to be.
31. The word “dogma” in line 3 is
closest in meaning to
(A) evaluation
(B) proof
(C) intention
(D) belief
(E) reflection
32. Which
of
the
following
statements best describes the
behaviorist
position
with
regard to consciousness in
23
nonhuman animals?
(A) Most nonhuman animals
show
signs
of selfconsciousness
(B) Most nonhuman animal
can
be taught selfconsciousness
(C) Chimpanzees are the only
nonhuman animal that
have a human level of
self- consciousness
(D) Nonhuman animal do not
possess
selfconsciousness
(E) Understanding of animal
behavior-a revolution
(E) consciousness in
nonhuman animals
34. The phrase ”shied away from”
in line 10 is closest in
meaning to
(A) approached
(B) avoided
(C) respected
(D) allowed
(E) designed
33. The author suggests that
researchers
before
1960
probably avoided studying
nonhuman
animal
consciousness because they
(A) did non wish to experiment
with live animal subjects
(B) were
discouraged
by
earlier
unsuccessful
experiments that studied
human consciousness
(C) had not yet devised
adequate
research
methods
for
animal
consciousness
experiments
(D)lacked
the
necessary
laboratory equipment
35. The chimpanzee in Gallup’s
first experiment responded to
the mirror test by touching
(A) its own forehead
(B) the researcher’s forehead
(C) the red spot on the mirror
(D) the red spot on another
chimpanzee
(E) the sense of self
Questions 36 - 40
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the
twentieth century were marked by the development of an
international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines,
floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The
(5) Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements
of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The
glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often
deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored
device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on
(10) ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau
glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had
been generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for
decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen
color combinations and innovative techniques.
(15)
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the
Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle
(1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (18431933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a
24
great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely
(20) copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a
brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian,
Japanese, and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorativ
arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued
(25) throughout the mid-1920’s. It was eventually to be overtaken by a
new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been
present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small
avant-garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism
emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First
World War. The basic tenet of the movement-that function should
determine from-was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic
code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any
ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new
design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the
styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an
entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass
to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of
contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.
36. What does paragraph 1
mainly discuss?
(A) Design elements in the
Art Nouveau style
(B) The popularity of the Art
Nouveau style
(C) Production techniques
for art glass
(D) Color combinations
typical of the Art
Nouveau style
(E) The new taste
demanded dramatic
effects of contrast
38. Para.1 mentions that Art
Nouveau glass was
sometimes similar to which
aspect of ancient buried
glass
(A) The distortion of the
glass
(B) The appearance of the
glass surface
(C) The shapes of the glass
objects
(D) The size of the glass
objects
(E) conventions of the
preceding decades
37. The word “one” in line 5
refers to
(A) century
(B) development
(C) style
(D) coloration
(E) reaction
39. What is the main purpose of
paragraph 2?
(A) To compare different Art
Nouveau styles
(B) To give examples of
famous Art Nouveau
artists
(C) To explain why Art
25
Nouveau glass was so
popular in the United
States
(D) To show the impact Art
Nouveau had on other
cultures around the
world
(E) To imitate the iridescent
surface
(A) clearly distinguished
between art and design
(B) appealed to people who
liked complex painted
designs
(C) reflected a common
desire to break from the
past
(D) was easily interpreted
by the general public
(E) was eventually to be
overtaken
40. It can be inferred from the
passage that one reason
Functionalism became
popular was that It .....
Questions 41-45
During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal
glaciers, traveling perhaps only a couple of inches per day.
However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers move
forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often
(5) progresses along a glacier like a great wave, proceeding from one
section to another. Subglacial streams of meltwater water
pressure under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the
friction between ice and rock, thus freeing the glacier, which
rapidly sliders downhill Surge glaciers also might be influenced by
(10) the climate, volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of
these glaciers exist in the same area as normal glaciers, often
almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska’s Hubbard Glacier advanced
toward the sea, retreated, and advanced again 500 years later.
(15) Since 1895, this seventy-mile-long river of ice has been flowing
steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200
feet per year. In June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as
much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a western tributary, called
Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet a day. Hubbard’s surge
(20) closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500
feet wide and up to 800 feet high, whose caged waters threatened
the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are
heading toward the sea. If enough surge glaciers reach the ocean
(25) and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could rise off the
seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the
Southern Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would
26
plunge into the ocean, causing sea levels to rise even higher,
which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious
cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would
increase Earth’s Albedo and lower global temperatures, perhaps
enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears to have
occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between
glacations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean
dramatically, spawning the beginning of the Ice Age.
41. What is the main topic of the
passage?
(A) The classification of
different types of surge
glaciers
(B) The causes and
consequences of surge
glaciers
(C) The definition of a surge
glacier
(D) The history of a
particular surge glacier
(E) glaciers exist in the
same area as normal
glaciers
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
wave
machine
boat
Waters
44. Which of the following does
the author mention as a
possible cause of surging
glaciers?
(A) The decline in sea levels
(B) The occurrence of
unusually large ocean
waves
(C) The shifting Antarctic ice
shelves
(D) The pressure of
meltwater underneath
the glacier
(E) freeing the glacier
42. The word “intervals” in line 3
is closest in meaning to
(A) records
(B) speeds
(C) distances
(D) periods
(E) normal
45. Yakutat is the name of
(A) an Alaskan town
(B) the last ice age
(C) a surge glacier
(D) an Antarctic ice shelf
(E) a formidable ice dam
43. The author compares the
surging motion of a surge
glacier to the movement of a
(A) fish
27
Questions 46-50
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in
which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social
group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other
cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may
gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process
of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally
through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual
personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce
consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.”
It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders
have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized
as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that
particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social
groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are
typically two different leadership roles that are held by different
individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes
the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to
instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive leadership,
on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective
well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are less
concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing
emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize
tension and conflict among them. Group members expect
expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the
group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary
relationship to other group members. They give orders and may
discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s
goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary
relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when
someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are
quick to lighten a serious moment with humor ,and try to resolve
issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in
these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive
more personal affection from group members; instrumental
leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may
enjoy a mote distant respect
28
46. What does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) The problems faced by
leaders
(B) How leadership differs
in small and large
groups
(C) How social groups
determine who will lead
them
(D) The role of leaders in
social groups
(E) Different leadership
roles
a similar set of
characteristics
(E) Social groups
determine who will lead
them
49. Which of the following
statements about leadership
can be inferred from
paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an
effective leader of a
particular group may not
be an effective leader in
another group.
(B) Few people succeed in
sharing a leadership role
with another person.
(C) A person can best learn
how to be an effective
leader by studying
research on leadership.
(D) Most people desire to be
leaders but can produce
little evidence of their
qualifications.
(E) People minimize tension
and conflict among
them.
47. The passage mentions all of
the following ways by which
people can become leaders
EXCEPT
(A) Recruitment
(B) Formal election process
(C) Specific leadership
training
(D) Traditional cultural
patterns
(E) Evidence of their
qualifications
48. In mentioning “natural
leaders” in lines 10-11, the
author is making the point
that
(A) Few people qualify as
“natural leaders”
(B) There is no proof that
“natural leaders” exist
(C) “Natural leaders’ are
easily accepted by the
members of a social
group
(D) “Natural leaders” share
50. The passage indicates that
instrumental leaders
generally focus on
(A) ensuring harmonious
relationships
(B) sharing responsibility
with group members
(C) identifying new
leaders
(D) achieving a goal
(E) give orders
29
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2
30
31
Section 3: Structure
Time: 25 minutes
Directions: Questions 1 – 40 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each
sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
4. It is said that United Stales
literature ........ individualy and
identity in the twentieth
century, after long imitation of
European models.
(A) Was
(B) Achieved
(C) To achieve
(D) Achieving
(E) Achieve
1. Hanya Holm is a dancer,
choreographer, and .....
(A) Ance that she teaches
(B) Her teaching of dance
(C) To teach dancing
(D) Dance teacher
(E) That to teach
2. Despite is fishike form, the
whale is............and will drown
if submerged too long.
(A) An animal breathers air that
(B) An animal that berathes air
(C) An animal breathes air
(D) That an animal breathes air
(E) An that animal breathes air
5. A nation’s merchant marine is
made up of its commercial
ships and the people ..... them.
(A) They operate
(B) Who operate
(C) They operate of
(D) Do they operate
(E) To be operated
3. Under the influence of Ezra
Pound, Hilda Doolittle became
associated with the imagists
and ..... into one of the most
original poets of the group.
(A) Developed
(B) To be developing
(C) Who developed
(D) Developing it
(E) Is developed
6. ……including climate, mineral
content, and the permanency
of surface water, wetland may
be mossy, grassy, scrubby, or
wooded.
(A) Depending
on
many
factors
(B) Many factors depending
32
on
(C) Factors
depending
on
many
(D) On many factors depending
(E) Depend many factors
11. Color and light, taken
together, ..... the aesthetic
impact of the interior of a
building.
(A) Very powerfully influence
(B) Very influence powerfully
(C) Powerfully very influence
(D) Influence powerfully very
(E) Influence very powerful
7. A microscope can reveal
vastly ..... detail than is visible
to the naked eyes.
(A) Than more
(B) Than more
(C) More than
(D) More
(E) That more than
12.Portland,
.......,is
located
primarily
on
two
hilly
peninsulas overlooking Casco
Bay and its many island.
(A) Which Maine's largest city
(B) Maine's largest city where
(C) Is Maine's largest city
(D) The largest Maine’s city
(D) Maine's largest city
(E) Where city maine’s largest
8.The term "ice age" refers to
any of several periods of time
when glaciers covered
considerably more of Earth's
surface ......
(A) As is today
(B) Than today is
(C) Than they do today
(D) That today
(E) Is that today
13. Total color blindness ..... as
the result of a defect in the
retina.
(A) a rare condition that
(B) a rare condition
(C) that a rare condition
(D) Is a rare condition
(E) a rare that condition
9. Industrialization has been
responsible for ..... most
radical of the environmental
changes caused by humans.
(A) a
(B) the
(C) some of which
(D) which are the
(E) which some of
14.Cells,first identified by the
early microscopists, began to
be considered ........ in the
nineteenth century.
(A) Them as microcosm of
living organisms
(B) The microcosm of living
organisms
(C) The microcosm of living
organisms to be
(D) As which, the microcosm
10. Helium is not flammable and,
next to hydrogen ,is .......
(A) Known the lightest gas
(B) Lightest the known gas
(C) The lightest gas known
(D) The known gas lightest
(E) The gas lightest known
33
19. Most of ..... archaeologists
know about prehistoric
cultures is based on studies
of material remains.
(A) These
(B) What
(C) Which
(D) Their
(E) Who
of living organisms
(E) The microcosom organism
living
15. ..... no conclusive evidence
exists, many experts believe
that the wheel was invented
only once and then diffused
to the rest of the world
(A) Even
(B) But
(C) Although
(D) So
(E) That
20. Flag Day is a legal holiday
only
in
the
state
of
Pennsylvania, ......... Betsy
Ross
sewed
the
first
American flag.
(A) Which
(B) Where
(C) That
(D) What
(E) Whom
16. In her time, Isadora Duncan
was ..... today a liberated
woman.
(A) Calling what we would
(B) Who would be calling
(C) What we would call
(D) She would call it
(E) What calling it
21. Coinciding with the
development of jazz in New
Orleans in the 1920’s ..... in
blues music.
(A) Was one of the greatest
(B) One of the greatest periods
(C) Was of the greatest
periods
(D) The greatest periods
(E) The periods greatest
17. ..... around stones that are
sun-warmed, even the
smallest of the stones creates
tiny currents of warm air.
(A) The cool air
(B) If the air is cool
(C) That the air cools
(D) The cooler the air
(E) The air cool that
22. Speciation , ........, results
when an animal population
becomes isolated bv some
factor, usually geographic.
(A) Form biological species
(B) Iological species are
formed
(C) Which forming biological
species
(D) The formation of biological
18. Beef cattle ......... of all
livestock for economic growth
in certain geographic regions.
(A) The most are important
(B) Are the most important
(C) The most important are
(D) That
are
the
most
important
(E) Are most important that
34
worms, and snails ..... for
their food by probing the
ground with their long bills.
(A) And searching
(B) And to search
(C) And search
(D) And searches
(E) And to searching
species
(E) Biological forming species
22. Most free frogs change color
to harmonize .....
backgrounds.
(A) With its
(B) Within such
(C) With their
(D) For its
(E) For with
27.One of the most difficult
problems in understanding
sleep is determining what .....
(A) The functions of sleep is
(B) Is the functions of sleep
(C) The functions of sleep are
(D) Are the functions of sleep
(E) The sleeping function of
23.The tongue is capable of
many
motions
and
configurations and plays a
vital role in chewing, .....
(A) swallowed, and speaking.
(B) swallowing, and speaking
(C) swallowed, and spoke
(D) swallow, and speak
(E) swallow and speaking
28.In an area first explored by
Samuel de Champlain, .....
(A) Establishment of the city
of Halifax in 1749.
(B) In 1749 the city of Halifax
established.
(C) In 1749, establishing the
city of Halifax.
(D) The city of Halifax was
established in 1749.
(E) Establishing the city of
Halifax in 1949.
24.Instead of being housed in
one
central
bank
in
Washington, the Federal
Reserve system ..... twelve
districts.
(A) Is division into
(B) Are divided up to
(C) Are dividing onto
(D) Is divided into
(E) Will devide
29. ..... Nat Turner who led a
revolt against slavery in
Virginia in 1831.
(A) Where was
(B) It was
(C) He was
(D)That he was
(E) When he was
25.Philodendrons of various
kinds are cultivated for their
.....
(A) Beautifully foliage
(B) Foliage beautifully
(C) Beautiful foliage
(D) Beauty foliage
(E) Foliage beautiful
30. William Walker’s mural, “Wall
of Respect,” .... an outdoor
wall in Chicago, deals with
26.Kiwi birds mainly eat insects,
35
(B) Hollow teeth which are
called
(C) Hollow teeth are called
(D) Hollow teeth call
(E) Hollow teeth calling
social
(A) Covers
(B) Covers it
(C) Which covers
(D) Which it covers
(E) Covering which
35. The annual worth of Utah’s
manufacturing is greater than
.....
(A) That of its mining and
farming.
(B) Mining and farming
combination.
(C) That mining and farming
combined.
(D) Of its combination mining
and farming.
(E) That mined and farmed
combining
31. The most elaborate of all bird
nests .......dome communal
structure built by social
weavebirds.
(A) Larger
(B) Largely is
(C) The large
(D) Is the large
(E) Is largest
32. The museum on Ellis Island,
a former immigration station,
contains
documents
and
artifacts
........
to
four
centuries of United States
immigration.
(A) Related them
(B) Related
(C) Related that
(D) Be related
(E) That related
36. Since prehistoric people first
applied natural pigments to
cave walls, ...... have painted
to express themselves.
(A) When artists
(B) Artists
(C) Artists who
(D) That artists
(E) When artist
33. The photoperiodic response
of algae actually depends on
the duration of darkness .....
(A) The light is not on
(B) And not on light
(C) But is not on the light
(D) Is not on light
(E) The light is on not
37. It is proving less ..... for drug
makers to market directly to
patient
(A) Cost and more profit
(B) Costly and more
profitable
(C) Costly and more
profitably
(D) Costing and more
profitably
(E) Cost and more profit
34. Some snakes have ..... fangs
that they use to poison their
victims.
(A) Hollow teeth are calling
36
38. Any acid can, in principle,
neutralize any base, although
...... between some of the
more reactive compounds.
(A) Side reactions can occur
(B) The occurrence of side
reactions can
(B) The occurrence of side
reactions can
(C) Can side reactions occur
(D) Side reactions that can
occur
(E) Eactions side that can
(A) On all another
(B) On all others
(C) On all the others
(D) On all other
(E) On all any other
40. Pleasing to look at and touch,
beads come in shapes,
colors, and materials ....... to
handle and to sort them.
(A) That almost compel one
(B) One compels
(C) That compel almost
(D) One is almost compelled
(E) Compel that
39. Like snakes, lizards can be
found ..... continents except
Antarctic
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 3
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