ANESTHESIOLOGY
PRELIMS:
1. The cranial nerve innervates the
superior oblique muscle.
a. Occulomotor nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. Abducens nerve
d. Optic nerve
d. Middle superior dental and
palatine nerves.
6. Which nerve below supplies motor
function to the buccinator muscle?
a. Trigeminal nerve (CN V).
b. Facial nerve (CN VII).
c. Vagus nerve (CN X).
2. The nasopharyngeal nerve arises
from the:
a. Infraorbital nerve
b. Pterygopalatine ganglion
c. Sphenopalatine ganglion
d. Semilunar ganglion
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).
7. The nerve to the mylohyoid muscle is a
branch of the
a. Opthalmic nerve (CN V1).
3. These are constrictions or gaps
between adjoining schwann cells.
a. Myelin sheath
b. Ionic channels
c. Axon cervices
d. Nodes of Ranvier
4. Local anesthetics interfere with how the
impulses travel down the length of the
nerve.
b. Maxillary nerve (CN V2).
c. Mandibular nerve (CN V3).
d. Facial nerve (CN VII).
8. Which nerve listed below is the largest of
the 12 cranial nerves and is the principal
general sensory nerve to the head,
particularly the face?
a. Vagus nerve (CN X).
a. TRUE
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
b. FALSE
c. Facial nerve (CN VII).
d. Trigeminal nerve (CN V).
5. The maxillary first molar is innervated by
the
a. Anterior superior alveolar and
middle superior alveolar nerves.
b. Middle superior alveolar and
posterior superior alveolar nerves.
c. Posterior superior alveolar and
inferior dental nerves.
9. Which division of the trigeminal nerve
listed below passes through the foramen
ovale and supplies motor innervation to the
tensor veli palatine, tensor tympani, muscles
of mastication, and the anterior belly of the
digastric and mylohyoid muscle?
a. Opthalmic division (V1).
b. Maxillary division (V2).
c. Mandibular division (V3).
d. None of the above.
is due to liberation of which of the following
neurotransmitter substance?
a. Acetylcholine.
10. Which cranial nerve listed below
provides motor innervation that allows for
movement of the mandible?
b. Hydroxylcholine.
c. Cholinesterase.
d. Acetylsalicylic acid.
a. Trigeminal nerve (CN V).
b. Olfactory (CNI).
c. Facial nerve (CN VII).
d. Vagus nerve (CN X).
14. Which of the following is not a
transmitter substance released by the nerve
cells at the time of impulse transmission?
a. GABA.
11. How do local anesthetics affect the nerve
membrane?
a. They increase potassium flux.
b. They increase the membrane
excitability by increasing the
membrane's permeability to sodium
ions.
c. They decrease the membrane's
permeability to sodium ions and
reduce the membrane excitability.
d. They increase the calcium and
chloride flux.
12. Which of the following innervates the
buccal gingiva of the maxillary second
premolar?
b. Succinylcholine.
c. Dopamine.
d. Acetylcholine.
15. The best monitor of the level of
analgesia is
a. respiration.
b. muscle tension.
c. verbal response.
d. eye movements.
16. The synthesis of procaine by
____________ in 1905 initiated a new era in
local anesthesia.
a. Buccal nerve.
a. Niemann.
b. Middle superior alveolar nerve.
b. Koller.
c. Anterior superior alveolar nerve.
c. Halsted.
d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
d. Einhorn.
17. The maxillary first and second premolars
are innervated by the
13. Alteration of the cell membrane
permeability following a threshold stimulus
a. ASA nerve
b. MSA nerve and PSA nerve.
d. Glutamate.
c. PSA nerve.
d. MSA nerve.
22. The pain pathway that extends from the
spinal cord to the ventroposteromedial
(VPM) nucleus of the thalamus.
18. The first synthetic amide local anesthetic
synthesized in 1943 is
a. Spinothalamic tract.
a. Xylocaine.
b. Trigemino pontoamygdaloid tract.
b. Procaine.
c. Spinoreticulothlamic tract.
c. Cocaine
d. none of the above.
d. none of the above
19. He introduced epinephrine as a
"chemical tourniquet" in 1903
23. The pain pathway that extends from the
spinal cord to the intralaminar nucleus of the
thalamus.
a. Alfred Einhorn.
a. Spinothalamic tract.
b. Carl Koller.
b. Spino pontoamygdaloid tract.
c. Heinrich Braun.
c. Spinoreticulothalamic tract.
d. William Halsted.
d. none of the above.
20. In the absence of MSAN, pulpal
innervation of the mesiobuccal root of
maxillary first molar as well as roots of the
maxillary premolars comes from
24. The trigeminal nucleus is composed of
a. 2 motor nuclei and 3 sensory
nuclei.
a. Nasopalatinenerve.
b. PSA nerve.
c. ASA nerve.
d. Anterior or greater palatine nerve.
21. The following are peripheral mediators
of pain, EXCEPT
a. Prostaglandin.
b. Bradykinin.
c. Histamine.
b. 2 sensory nuclei and 2 motor
nuclei.
c. 3 sensory nuclei and a motor
nucleus.
d. 2 sensory nuclei and a motor
nucleus.
25. This theory proposes that pain is not a
separate entity, but results from overstimulation of other primary sensations
(touch, light, sound, etc.)
a. Specificity theory (Rene
Descartes, Muller, Von Frey) 1644.
b. Central summation (pattern)
theory (Goldscheider) 1894.
c. Sensory interaction theory
(Noordenbos).
d. Gate control theory (Melzack and
Wall) 1965.
26. This part provides metabolic support for
the entire neuron (pseudo-unipolar neuron)
and does not participate in the transmission
of impulse
29. The entire nerve conduction process
requires
a. 3 secs.
b. 1 sec.
c. .7 msec.
d. 3 msec.
30. During the repolarization state, sodium
moves against its concentration gradient
outside of the nerve membrane. This process
requires the expenditure of energy in the
form of
a. phosphorous.
a. axon.
b. ATP.
b. cell body.
c. ADP.
c. dentrite.
d. chemical energy.
d. both a and c.
31. It refers to the leaping of impulse from
one node to the next.
a. saltatory conduction.
27. Which of the following specialized cells
produce myelin sheath in the CNS
b. osmosis.
a. Schwann cells.
c. sodium pump.
b. chromaffin cells.
d. filtration.
c. acinar cells.
d. Oligodendrocytes.
28. This refers to the magnitude of the
decrease in negative transmembrane
potential that is necessary to initiate an
action potential (impulse)
a. Threshold potential.
b. intensity.
32. At a certain point during nerve
conduction process, a new impulse can be
initiated at this time but only by a stronger
than normal stimulus. This condition is
known as
a. absolute refractory period.
b. impulse propagation.
c. relative refractory period.
d. none of the above.
c. firing threshold.
d. none of the above.
33. Which nerve listed below provides taste
sensation on the tongue?
a. Vagus nerve (CN X).
d. Inferior alveolar nerve.
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).
c. Facial nerve (CN VII).
d. Trigeminal nerve (CN V).
38. The inferior alveolar nerve is the largest
branch of the mandibular division.
a. The statement is true.
34. General sensation on the anterior 2/3rd
of the tongue is provided by which of the
following nerves?
a. Vagus nerve (CN X).
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).
c. Facial nerve (CN VII).
d. Trigeminal nerve (CN V).
35. Which of the following are meningeal
branches of the trigeminal nerve that
innervate the dura mater?
a. Nervus spinosus.
b. Middle meningeal nerve.
b. The statement is false.
39. The temporalis muscle, masseter and
lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by
the
a. Lingual nerve.
b. Inferior alveolar nerve.
c. Mylohyoid nerve.
d. Buccal nerve.
40. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle
is innervated by the
c. Infraorbital nerve.
a. Chorda tympani nerve.
d. Both a and b are correct.
b. Mylohyoid nerve.
36. All of the following nerves branch off
from the anterior division of the mandibular
nerve, except
a. Medial pterygoid nerve.
b. Lateral pterygoid nerve.
c. Buccal nerve.
d. Deep temporal nerve.
37. The tensor veli palatini and the tensor
tympani muscles are innervated by the
a. Medial pterygoid nerve.
b. Lateral pterygoid nerve.
c. Buccal nerve.
c. Tensor Tympani nerve.
d. Palatine nerves.
41. The incisive nerve is sensory to the
a. skin of the chin and the skin and
mucous membrane of the lower lip.
b. pulpal tissues of the mandibular
first premolar, canine, and incisors
via the dental branches.
c. skin and mucous membrane of the
upper lip.
d. pulpal tissues of the maxillary
premolars, canine, and incisors via the
dental branches.
42. The MSAN and ASAN are branches
within the
a. Pterygopalatine fossa.
c. Long buccal nerve and incisive
nerve.
d. Inferior alveolar nerve.
b. Cranium.
c. Infraorbital canal.
d. Face.
43. The superior dental plexus is composed
of smaller nerve fibers from the three
superior alveolar nerves (PSAN, MSAN,
and ASAN). In the mandible, the inferior
dental plexus is composed of smaller fibers
from the inferior alveolar nerve.
a. The first statement is true, second
statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, second
statement is true.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect.
46. The primary innervation of the
mandibular canine and incisors comes from
the incisive branch of IAN. Possible
accessory innervation of the aforementioned
teeth may come from the nasopalatine nerve.
a. The first statement is true, second
statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, second
statement is true.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect.
47. The four basic processes (in
chronological order) involved in nociception
are as follows
a. Perception, transduction,
modulation and transmission.
44. Possible accessory innervation of the
maxillary molars and premolars could come
from the
a. Nasopalatine nerve.
b. Incisive nerve.
c. Anterior palatine nerve.
b. Modulation, perception,
transduction, and transmission.
c. Transduction, transmission,
perception, and modulation.
d. Transmission, modulation,
transduction, and perception.
d. Mental nerve.
45. Possible accessory innervation of the
mandibular molars and premolars could
come from the
a. Long buccal nerve and mylohyoid
nerve.
b. Mylohyoid nerve and incisive
nerve.
48. The type of receptor found in A delta
fibers is classified as
a. Polymodal receptor.
b. High-threshold mechanoreceptors.
c. Chemoreceptors.
d. all of the above.
49. This area in the brain identifies the
intensity, type and location of the pain
sensation and relates the sensation to past
experiences, memory and cognitive
activities.
53. Which one of the following nerves is
found within the cavernous sinus?
a. Trochlear nerve.
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
a. Reticular system.
c. Abducens nerve.
b. Somatosensory cortex.
d. Occulomotor nerve.
c. Limbic system.
d. all of the above.
50. The modulation of pain involves
inhibiting transmission of pain impulses in
the
a. Dorsal horn of spinal cord.
b. Ventral root of the spinal cord.
c. Limbic system.
d. Hypothalamus.
51. The skin of the upper lip is innervated by
the
a. Superior palpebral nerve.
b. Superior labial nerve.
54. No
55. The pterygopalatine ganglion gives rise
to
a. Frontal nerves.
b. Zygomatic nerves.
c. Pterygopalatine nerves.
d. Infraorbital nerves.
56. Your answer in the previous question
includes the following nerves except?
a. Nasopalatine nerves.
b. Anterior or greater palatine nerves.
c. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
d. Zygomatic nerves.
c. Superior alveolar nerve.
d. Incisive nerve.
52. Sensation on the skin of the lower lip is
supplied by the
a. Mental nerve.
b. Incisive nerve.
c. Inferior labial nerve.
d. Mylohyoid nerve.
57. The undivided nerve of the mandibular
branch of the trigeminal nerve gives rise to
the following nerves
a. Middle meningeal nerve and
lateral pterygoid nerve.
b. Nerve to the medial pterygoid
muscle and lateral pterygoid nerve.
c. Nervus spinusus and nerve to the
medial pterygoid muscle.
d. Nervus spinusus.
58. Wala
59. Sensation in the skin of the cheek, the
retromolar triangle, as well as the buccal
gingiva of the mandibular molars and the
mucobuccal fold in that region is supplied
by the
a. Posterior superior alveolar nerve. I
63. Sensation of the skin on the angle of the
jaw is supplied by:
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. 2nd cervical spinal nerve
d. 1st cervical spinal nerve
b. Long buccal nerve.
c. Mylohyoid nerve.
d. Middle superior alveolar nerve.
60. The nerve that is commonly associated
with parenthesis is the:
a. Inferior alveolar nerve
64. According to this pain theory, pain
signals that originate in an area of injury or
disease do not travel directly or
automatically to the brain. Rather, there
exists within the spinal cord and trigeminal
nucleus a 'mechanism' that determines the
degree to which pain signals are transmitted
to the brain.
b. Lingual nerve
a. Specificity theory.
c. Myohyoid nerve
b. Surface charge theory.
d. Nerve to the medial pterygoid muscle
c. Gate control theory.
d. Summation theory.
61. The zygomatic nerve branches off from
the maxillary nerve and enters the orbital
cavity through the:
a. Superior orbital fissure
b. Infraorbital canal
c. Inferior orbital fissure
d. Foramen Ovale
65. The Tensor veli palatini is innervated by
the
a. Lesser (middle and posterior)
palatine nerve.
b. Nerve to the medial pterygoid
muscle.
c. Nerve to the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
62. Ganglion is to nucleus as schwann cells
is to:
d. Anterior or greater palatine nerve.
a. Neuron
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Leukocytes
d. Chromaffin cells
66. The tensor tympani is innervated by the:
a. Nerve to the medial pterygoid muscle
b. Auriculotemporal nerve
c. Accessory nerve
d. Nervus spinusus
67. The following muscles of mastication
are supplied by the buccal nerve, except:
71. Pulpal innervation of maxillary anterior
teeth including the supporting structures on
the labial aspect of these teeth comes from
the
a. PSA nerve.
a. Masseter muscle
b. MSA nerve.
b. Temporalis muscle
c. ASA nerve.
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. All of the above.
d. Medial pterygoid muscle
68. The thalamic nucleus which receives
impulses coming from the trigeminal
nucleus is called
a. Ventroposteromedial thalamic
nucleus.
b. Intralaminar thalamic nucleus.
c. Substancia gelatinosa.
72. The following nerves are found within
the common tendinous ring or annulus of
Zinn, except
a. Occulomotor nerve.
b. Abducens nerve.
c. Nasociliary nerve.
d. Frontal nerve.
d. Geniculate nucleus.
73. The common tendinous ring or annulus
of Zinn is the origin of the
69. Maxillary nerve is to foramen rotundum
as Opthalmic nerve is to
a. Infraorbital canal.
b. Foramen ovale.
c. Superior orbital fissure.
a. Intraocular muscles.
b. Extraocular muscles.
c. Orbicularis oculi muscles.
d. Axial muscles.
d. Foramen lacerum.
74. The muscles at the floor of the mouth is
innervated by:
70. Pulpal innervation of the mandibular 2nd
bicuspid comes from the
a. Inferior alveolar nerve
b. Mental nerve.
c. Incisive nerve.
d. Lingual nerve.
a. Lingual nerve
b. Mylohyoid nerve
c. Long buccal nerve
d. Inferior alveolar nerve
75. Cold sensation in the mouth is received
by the
80. The following cranial nerves are
classified as purely motor, except
a. A delta fibers.
a. Hypoglossal nerve.
b. Krause end bulbs.
b. Facial nerve.
c. C fibers.
c. Abducens nerve.
d. Free nerve endings.
d. Vagus nerve.
76. Throbbing pain is transmitted by
a. A delta fibers.
b. B fibers.
c. C fibers.
d. A beta fibers.
77. Foramen lacerum provides entry for the
a. Nervus spinusus.
b. External carotid artery.
c. Internal carotid artery.
d. Internal maxillary artery.
78. Sensation in the skin of the chin is
supplied by the
a. Incisive nerve.
b. Lingual nerve.
c. Buccal nerve.
d. Mental nerve.
79. The interseptal bone in multi-rooted
teeth is innervated by the
a. Interradicular nerves.
b. Interdental nerves.
c. Dental nerves.
d. All of the above.
LABORATORY
1. The anterior superior alveolar nerve.
a. provides sensation to the palatal
mucosa in the region of the premaxilla.
b. provides innervation to the pulp,
buccal mucosa, periodontal ligament,
and the mucous membrane of the
maxillary cuspid and incisors.
c. provides general sensation at the
anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
d. sensory from the middle part of
the upper eyelid.
2. The Nasociliary Nerve
a. is sensory to the skin over the apex
and ala of the nose.
b. Innervates the masseter muscle.
c. is sensory to the lining of mastoid
4. The Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve
a. provides innervation to the pulp,
buccal mucosa, periodontal ligament,
and the mucous membrane of the
upper molars except the mesiobuccal
root of first molar.
b. provides innervation to the pulp,
buccal mucosa, periodontal ligament,
and the mucous membrane of the
upper premolars and the mesiobuccal
root of first molar.
c. provides sensation to the palatal
soft tissues and bone anterior to the first
premolar.
d. None of the above.
5. The Supraobital nerve
a. Largest branch of V3.
b. sensory from the middle part of
the upper eyelid.
c. Innervates the masseter muscle.
cells.
d. is sensory to the skin of the lower
d. All of the above.
eyelid.
6. The maximum dose of epinephrine in
healthy adult patient is:
3. The Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve
a. .04 mg
a. Sensory to the TMJ.
b. sensory to the anterior two-thirds
of the tongue.
b. .14 mg
c. .2 mg
d. .34 mg
c. sensory to the skin over the
zygomatic bone.
d. provides innervation to the pulp,
buccal mucosa, periodontal ligament,
and the mucous membrane of the
upper molars root of first molar.
except the mesiobuccal
7. Zygomaticotemporal nerve
a. sensory to the skin over the
zygomatic bone.
b. sensory from the skin of the
temporal region.
c. sensory from the mucous
membrane of the soft palate and tonsil area.
d. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
d. Sensory to the skin of the lower
eyelid.
11. The Lingual nerve
a. General sensation at the anterior
2/3 of the tongue.
b. Gustatory sensory to the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue.
c. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
8. The Anterior or greater palatine nerve
a. sensory to the lining of mastoid
d. Sensory to the skin of the lower
eyelid.
cells.
b. innervates the pulp tissues of the
mandibular first premolar, canine and
incisors.
c. provides sensation to the palatal
soft tissues and bone from premolar to
molars.
d. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
9. The Inferior Alveolar Nerve
a. Largest branch of V3.
b. sensory from the middle part of
the upper eyelid.
12. The Nasopalatine nerve
a. provides sensation to the palatal
mucosa in the region of the premaxilla.
b. innervates the pulp tissues of the
mandibular first premolar, canine and
incisors.
c. provides sensation to the palatal
soft tissues and bone anterior to the first
premolar.
d. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
13. The Mental nerve
c. Innervates the masseter muscle.
d. sensory to the TMJ.
10. The Lingual nerve
a. General sensation at the anterior
2/3 of the tongue.
b. Gustatory sensory to the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue.
c. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
a. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
b. innervates the pulp tissues of the
mandibular first premolar, canine and
incisors.
c. provides sensation to the palatal
soft tissues and bone anterior to the first
premolar.
d. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
14. The Incisive Nerve
a. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
b. provides sensory innervation to
the buccal gingiva of the mandibular molar.
d. innervates the pulp tissues of the
mandibular first premolar, canine and
incisors.
17. Wala
c. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
d. innervates the pulp tissues of the
mandibular first premolar, canine and
incisors.
15. The Auriculotemporal Nerve
a. Largest branch of V3.
b. sensory from the middle part of
the upper eyelid.
19. The Masseter Nerve
a. sensory from the middle part of
the upper eyelid.
b. sensory to from the skin of the
upper eyelid and lateral part of the eyebrow
region.
c. Sensory to the skin of the lower
eyelid.
c. Innervates the masseter muscle.
d. Innervates the masseter muscle.
d. sensory to the TMJ.
20. The Chorda tympani
16. The Inferior Palpebral nerve
a. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
b. Sensory to the skin of the lower
a. General sensation at the anterior
2/3 of the tongue.
b. Gustatory sensory to the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue.
eyelid.
c. sensory to the lining of mastoid
c. sensory from the middle part of
thE upper eyelid.
d. Innervates the masseter muscle.
18. The Nervus tentorii
a. sensory to the lining of mastoid
cells.
b. provides sensory innervation to
the buccal gingiva of the mandibular molar.
c. innervates the skin of the chin and
the skin of the lower lip.
cells.
d. Sensory to the skin of the lower
eyelid.
21. Taste from the posterior third of the
tongue is supplied by the
a. Facial nerve.
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
c. Trigeminal nerve.
d. Hypoglossal nerve.
22. Cranial nerve VI innervates the
a. Medial rectus muscle.
b. Superior rectus muscle.
c. Lateral rectus muscle.
d. Inferior rectus muscle.
23. Muscles of the tongue are innervated by
the
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
b. Hypoglossal nerve.
c. Facial nerve.
d. Trigeminal nerve.
24. The nervus spinosus reenters the
cranium through the
a. Foramen rotundum.
b. Foramen ovale.
c. Foramen lacerum.
d. Foramen spinosum.
25. It is also known as the buccinator nerve.
a. Facial nerve.
b. Mylohyoid nerve.
c. Long buccal nerve.
d. Anterior belly of the digastric
muscle.
a. Epinephrine..
MIDTERMS :
b. Norepinephrine.
1. Which one of the following statement is not
true regarding difficulty of reachieving profound
anesthesia?
a. More likely to develop if nerve
function returns before reinjection.
b. The duration, intensity, and spread of
anesthesia with reinjection are greatly
reduced.
c. Patient may develop tolerance to a drug
that is administered repeatedly.
d. Patient may develop allergic reaction
after readministration of local anesthetic.
c. Isoproterenol.
d. Phenylephrine.
5. —
6. The maximum dose of epinephrine in healthy
adult patient is
a. .04 mg.
b. .14 mg.
C. .2 mg.
d. .34 mg.
2. Stimulation of ß receptors produces the
following, EXCEPT;
a. Vasodilation.
7. The maximum dose of norepinephrine
1:30,000 in healthy adult patient is
b. Bronchodilation.
a. .04 mg.
c. Vasoconstriction.
b. .14 mg.
d. Increased heart rate and strength of
contraction
C. .2 mg.
d. .34 mg.
3. Stimulation of a receptors by a
sympathomimetic drug usually produces a
response that includes
a. Reuptake and vasoconstriction.
b. Bronchodilation.
c. Lipolysis.
8. Levonordefrin is available commercially as:
a. Isuprel.
b. Neo-Cobefrin.
C. Levophed.
d. Neo-synephrine.
d. Increased heart rate and strength of
contraction.
9. It is considered as the weakest vasoconstrictor.
4. Which of the following is a pure a-adrenergic
agonist?
a. Isuprel.
b. Neo-Cobefrin.
C. Levophed.
d. Neo-synephrine.
10. Levonordefrin should be avoided in patients
who are taking
14. Most clinically useful local anesthetic are
classified as of action.
a. Class A agent.
b. Class B agent.
a. B-blockers.
C. Class C agent.
b. Tricyclic antidepressants.
d. Class D agent.
c. MAO inhibitors.
d. All of the above.
11. Stimulation of this sympathetic receptors
produces reuptake of the drug.
15. The Hydrophillic group in local anesthetic
agent is usually made up of:
a. Benzoic acid.
b. Tertiary amine.
a. al receptor.
c. Ester.
b. a2 receptor.
d. Amide.
c. B1 receptor.
d. B2 receptor.
12. The following factors may influence the rapid
absorption of Local anesthetic, EXCEPT:
a. Application of cold in the injection
site.
16. Regional anesthesia is contraindicated in the
following cases, EXCEPT
a. patient is below the age of reason
b. mental deficiencies.
c. allergy to local anesthetics.
d. minor infection
b. Application of heat in the injection
site.
c. Vasodilating property of the drug.
d. absence of vasopressor.
17. Which of the following is the local anesthetic
of choice for patients with plasma cholinesterase
deficiency?
a. Mepivacaine.
13. The vasodilator activity of local anesthetics
affect:
a. Onset of action and duration.
b. Tetracaine.
c. Propoxycaine..
d. Procaine.
b. potency only.
c. duration only.
d. Potency and duration.
18. The local anesthetics suitable for use in
dentistry as topical anesthetic agent include
a. Benzocaine and Procaine.
c. 2% Lidocaine
epinephrine.
b. Pocaine and Lidocaine
with
1:100,000
d. All of the above.
c. Benzocaine and Lidocaine.
d. Benzocaine and Mepivacaine.
Question 23
Amide type of local anesthetics undergo
biotransformation primarily in the
Question 19
The
patient
developed
allergy
administration of amide type of local
after
anesthetics. The most propable cause is due to
a. Anesthetic drug.
b. Contamination.
c. Epinephrine.
d. Methylparaben.
Question 20
Faulty technique in the induction of local
anesthetics will most likely result in
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ineffective anesthesia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Prolonged Anesthesia
Question 21
In large doses, this anesthetic solution should be
avoided in patients suffering from idiopathic
methemoglobinemia
a.
b.
c.
d.
Propoxycaine
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Mepivacaine
a. Lungs.
b. Kidneys.
c. Liver.
d. Blood.
Question 24
The only local
vasoconstriction is
anesthetic
which
causes
a. Lidocaine.
b. Mepivacain.
c. Prilocaine.
d. Cocaine.
Question 26
The use of epinephrine for local hemostasis
during surgery might result in
a. cardiac arrhythmia.
b. acute asthmatic attack.
c. drastic drop of BP.
d. hypoglycemia.
Question 22
Which of the following is considered as short
acting anesthetics?
a. 2% Mepivacaine with 1:20,000
Levonordefrin.
b. 4% Prilocaine.
Question 27
The directly acting sympathomimetic amines
exert their actions directly on adrenergic
receptors and include the following, EXCEPT
a. Norepinephrine.
b. Amphetamines.
c. Adrenalin.
Question 32
d. Levonordefrin.
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors
produces
Question 28
Drugs that will temporarily interrupt propagation
of impulse when injected into the tissue is called
a. Antibiotics.
b. Decreases gastric secretion.
c. Bronchodilation.
d. Pupillary dilation.
b. Analgesics.
Question 33
c. Local anesthetics.
Vasoconstrictors are use with local anesthetics to
_________, EXCEPT:
d. Narcotics.
Question 29
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of
vasoconstrictors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. Bradycardia.
Palpitation
Hypertension
Hypotension
Bradycardia
a. Decrease blood flow in site of surgery
b. Prevent absorption of local anesthetics
into general circulation
c. Prolong the action of local anesthetics
d. Potentiates or increases anesthetic effect
Question 34
Epinephrine stimulates these adrenergic receptors
in the cardiovascular system.
a. Alpha and Beta.
Question 30:
a. Inhibiting synthesis of norepinephrine
b. Competitive inhibition of post junctional
adrenergic receptors
c. Increasing
the
metabolism
of
norepinephrine
d. All of the above
Question 31
Which of the following is a brand name of
Bupivacaine?
b. Beta only.
c. Alpha only.
d. Neither Alpha nor Beta.
Question 35
Which of the following is an endogenous
cathecolamine?
a. Ampethamine.
a. Benzocaine.
b. Phenylephrine.
b. Ravocaine.
c. Dopamine.
c. Citanest.
d. Ephedrine.
d. Sensorcaine.
Question 36
c. Benzocaine.
Which of the following is not a requirement of an
ideal local anesthetic agent
d. Lidocaine.
a. It must be non-toxic.
b. It must me easily administered.
c. It must be water soluble.
d. Its effect must be irreversible.
Question 40
Local anesthetic drugs block
a. motor conduction only.
b. synaptic transmission only.
c. motor and sensory conduction.
Question 37
d. sensory conduction only.
Effectiveness of a local anesthetic depends on the
following, EXCEPT
a. addition of vasoconstrictor.
b. concentration of drug used.
c. acidic tissue pH.
d. chemical nature of drug.
Question 41
The anesthetic drug that produces powerful
stimulation of cerebral cortex is
a. Cocaine.
b. Bupivacaine.
c. Tetracaine.
Question 38
d. Lidocaine.
At which tissue pH will the local anesthetic be
effectively diffused?
a. Below 7.
b. 9.1
c. 7.4
d. pH doesn't play a role.
Question 42
When vasoconstrictors produce constriction of
arterioles, the site of action is at which receptor?
a. Alpha.
b. Beta..
c. Gamma.
d. Delta.
Question 39
Which of the following exhibits weakest
effectivity as a topical anesthetics?
a. Tetracaine.
b. Mepivacaine.
Question 43
Each of the following drugs is considered to be an
indirect-acting catecholamines, EXCEPT
a. Dopamine.
b. Amphetamine.
c. Tyramine.
Question 48
d. Methamphetamine.
High pH (basic) of LA tends to shifts toward the
free base form resulting to formation of more RN.
a. The statement is true.
Question 44
The first sensation usually lost
administration of a local anesthetic is
b. The statement is false.
after
c. Both statements are true..
a. Pain.
d. Both statements are false.
b. Pressure.
c. Touch.
Question 49
d. Proprioception.
Low pH (acidic) of LA tends to shifts toward the
cationic form resulting to formation of more
RNH+.
Question 45
Which of the following is a local anesthetic
subject to inactivation by plasma esterases?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. The statement is true.
b. The statement is false.
Lignospan
Marcaine
Polocaine
Novocain
Question 46
Local anesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions during drug-receptor
interaction?
a. Chloride.
b. Sodium.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.
Question 50
The role of sodium metabisulfate in local
anesthetic agent is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Presrvative
Fungicide
Reducing agent
Vasoconstrictor
c. Potassium.
Question 51
d. Calcium.
Symptoms of epinephrine overdose following a
local anesthetic injection may include all of the
following, EXCEPT
Question 47
EMLA is a mixture of
a. Lidocaine and Prilocaine.
b. Mepivacaine and Lidocaine.
a. Restlessness.
b. Hypotension.
c. Apprehension.
d. Palpitation.
c. Lidocaine and Xylocaine.
d. Mepivacaine and prilocaine.
Question 52
Trismus during block anesthesia is a result of
a. Massive edema.
b. Damage to medial pterygoid muscle.
c. Damage to lateral pterygoid muscle.
Question 57
d. Damage to IAN.
Bupivacaine, a local anesthetic agent, is used in
dentistry in the concentration of
Question 54
The primary organ for the excretion of local
anesthetic and its metabolites is the
a. Lungs.
a. 2 %.
b. 4%.
c. 1.5%
d. 0.5%.
b. Liver.
c. Kidney..
Question 58
d. Skin.
The site of action of local anesthetic is on the
a. Axoplasm.
Question 55
b. Epineurium
Sodium bicarbonate when given with local
anesthetics has which of the following effect?
c. Nerve membrane.
d. Perineurium.
a. Causes rapid elimination of the
anesthetic drug.
b. Decrease diffusion of the anesthetic
drug.
Question 59
Oraqix is used for
c. Increase onset and depth of anesthesia.
a. Gow Gates Technique.
d. Causes rapid absorption of the
anesthetic drug.
b. Gasserian ganglion block.
c. Intrapulpal anesthesia.
d. Anesthetizing intact mucosa
Question 56
All of the following are complications of LA
toxicity, EXCEPT
a. Cardiac depression.
Question 60
The most common emergency seen after the use
of local anesthetic is
b. CNS depression.
a. Trismus.
c. Paresthesia.
b. Syncope.
d. Respiratory depression.
c. Toxic reaction.
d. Swelling
b. Infiltration produces adequate
anesthetia in primary molar so there's no
need to perform block anesthesia.
c. Two times as potent as lidocaine,
mepivacaine, and prilocaine.
Question 62
d. Only amide local anesthetic that also
contains an ester group.
Which of the following will happen if
intravascular injection of LA with epinephrine
was done accidentally?
a. Hypotension + Bradycardia.
b. Hypertension + Bradycardia.
c. Hypertension + Tachycardia.
Question 66
The maximum recommended dose of Articaine in
healthy patient is
a. 1.3 mg/kg.
d. Hypotension + Tachycardia.
b. 5 mg/kg.
Question 63
c. 7 mg/kg.
A patient who had history of hepatitis a month
ago should be preferably given which anesthetic
agent?
d. 2 mg/kg.
a. Lidocaine.
b. Propoxycaine.
c. Mepivacaine.
d. Procainamide.
Question 67
During mandiblock, local anesthetic solution is
deposited as close as possible to the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coronoid notch
Neck of mandibular condyle
External oblique ridge
Lingula
Question 64:
Which one of the following regional techniques
requires extraoral landmarks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
High tuberosity approach
Traditional IAN block
Gow gates technique
Vazirani-Akinosi Technique
Question 68
The following affects the duration of local
anesthesia, EXCEPT
a. Protein binding capacity of local
anesthetic.
b. Addition of vasoconstrictor.
Question 65
All are true about use of Articaine in pediatric
patient, EXCEPT
a. It's an amide which is metabolized in
the liver.
c. Vasodilator activity of local anesthetic.
d. Non-nervous tissue diffusibility.
Question 69
Which space has the highest incidence of
infection
after
Classical
IAN
Block
administration?
a. Buccal space.
b. Pterygomandibular space
c. Parapharygeal space.
d. Pretracheal space.
Question 70
Which of the following anesthetic agents would
be preferred in long dental procedure?
a. Lignospan.
b. Isocaine.
c. Citanest.
d. Vivacaine.
Question 73
It is considered as the safest of all local
anesthetics.
a. Xylonibsa.
b. Citanest.
c. Septocaine.
d. Marcaine.
Question 74
All are true about use of Benzocaine, except:
a. Poor sustainability in water
b. Poor absorption into the cardiovascular
system
c. Not suitable for injection
d. Inhibits the antibacterial action of
amoxycillin
Question 71
Question 76
The absolute maximum dose of Lidocaine in
healthy patient is
Epinephrine is
a. 200 mg.
b. 400 mg.
c. 500 mg.
a. an alcohol derivative.
b. a pyrocatechin derivative.
c. a phenol derivative.
d. a benzoyl derivative.
d. 600 mg.
Question 77
Question 72
The absolute maximum dose of Prilocaine in
healthy patient is
a. 200 mg.
b. 400 mg.
c. 500 mg.
d. 600 mg.
In inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle should
not penetrate more than
a. 1/2 inch.
b. 1/8 inch.
c. 3/4 inch.
d. 2 inches.
Question 79
The dissociation constant of Lidocaine HCI is
This injection technique secures regional
anesthesia by depositing a suitable amount of
anesthetic solution within close proximity to a
main nerve trunk.
a. 7.7.
a. Paraperiosteal injection.
b. 7.9.
b. Field block.
c. 8.
c. Nerve block.
d. 8.1.
d. Supraperiosteal injection.
Question 80
Question 83
Deep injections are avoided if the patient is
The nerves anesthetized in the infraorbital nerve
block are the following, except
a. anemic.
a. ASA nerve.
b. under ASA therapy.
b. MSA nerve.
c. under anti-coagulant therapy.
c. PSA nerve.
d. under antibiotic therapy.
d. Superior labial nerve.
Question 81
Question 84
Five minutes after inferior alveolar nerve block is
administered, the patient develops paralysis of
skin of the forehead, eyelid and upper lip on the
same side of the face. This may be the result of
a. diffusion of the anesthetic solution into
the V1.
b. injection of anesthetic solution into the
capsule of the parotid gland and
consequent blockade of CN VII.
c. anesthesia to the motor branches of the
mandibular nerve supplying the muscles
of mastication.
d. anesthesia to the otic region.
Patient with very limited mouth opening can
receive all of the following injection techniques,
except
a. Vazirani-Akinosi Technique.
b. Gow-Gates Technique.
c. Long buccal nerve block.
d. Paraperiostial injection.
Question 85
Hydrolysis of Procaine HCI occurs mainly in the
a. Liver.
Question 82
b. Lungs.
c. Kidney.
d. Blood.
b. Mepivacaine HCI.
c. Articaine HCI.
Question 86
The direct-acting adrenergic amines exert their
actions directly on adrenergic receptors and
include the following, except
a. Norepinephrine.
b. Adrenaline.
c. Dopamine.
d. Amphetamine.
d. none of the above..
Question 90
In adults patients, about block, should be
deposited during nasopalatine nerve
a. 1 ml.
b. .45 ml.
c. 1.4 ml.
d. 1.8 ml.
Question 87
Parasympathomimetic drugs produce which of
the following?
a. Vasodilation.
b. Vasoconstriction.
c. Dry skin.
d. cardiac stimulation.
Question 88
Question 91
The closed-mouth approach to the inferior
alveolar nerve is known as the
a. Gow-Gates technique.
b. Halsted technique..
c. Akinosi technique.
d. Traditional technique.
Which one of the following is classified as short
duration local anesthetics?
a. 2% Mepivacaine HCI with 1:20,000
Levonordefrin.
b. 2% Lidocaine HCI with 1:100,000
Epinephrine.
Question 92
Commercially injectable local anesthetics are
usually
a. acidic.
c. 4% Prilocaine HCI.
b. basic.
d. All of the above.
c. hypertonic.
d. hypotonic.
Question 89
In large doses, this anesthetic solution should be
avoided in patients suffering from idiopathic
methemoglobinemia.
a. LidocaineHCI.
Question 93
Which of the following exhibits weakest
effectivity as a topical anesthetic?
a. Lidocaine.
b. Tetracaine.
Question 97
c. Benzocaine.
Vasoconstrictors not having hydroxyl groups in
the 3rd and 4th position of the aromatic molecule
are
d. Mepivacaine.
a. catechols.
Question 94
b. not catechols.
Long duration local anesthetics usually last for
c. not amines..
a. 45 75 minutes.
d. benzoic acid derivatives.
b. 120 minutes.
c. 180 minutes or more.
Question 98
d. 90 minutes.
This vasoconstrictor is not recommended in
dentistry because it may cause tissue damage.
Question 95
a. Epinephrine.
If anesthesia of the mandibular incisors only is
required, it is possible to use which of the
following injection techniques
b. Noradrenaline..
c. Dopamine.
d. Felypressin.
a. mental nerve block.
b. inferior alveolar nerve block.
Question 99
c. incisive nerve block.
d. labial and lingual paraperiosteal
injections.
The only local anesthetic with thiophene attached
to the aromatic ring is
a. Lidocaine.
b. Mepivacaine
Question 96
Catecholamines
have
characteristics, except
the
c. Articaine.
following
d. Prilocaine.
a. they are parasympathomemitic drugs.
b. they have hydroxyl substitutions in the
3rd and 4th positions of the aromatic
ring.
c. they also contain an amine group
(NH2) attached to the alipathic chain.
d. none of the above..
Question 100
In administering PSAN block, long needle should
be avoided to prevent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Needle breakage
Hematoma
Paralysis of the nerve
All of the above