1.
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7.
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9.
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12.
13.
The objective of the ordinary audit of financial statements is the expression of an opinion on:
a.
the fairness of the financial statements in all material respects.
b. the accuracy of the financial statements.
c.
the accuracy of the annual report.
d. the accuracy of the balance sheet and income statement.
The responsibility for the preparation of the financial statements and the accompanying footnotes belong to:
a.
the auditor.
b. management.
c.
both management and the auditor equally.
d. management for the statements and the auditor for the notes.
Auditors accumulate evidence to:
a.
defend themselves in the event of a lawsuit.
b. justify the conclusions they have otherwise reached.
c.
satisfy the requirements of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
d. enable them to reach conclusions about the fairness of the financial statements.
Management assertions are:
a.
directly related to the financial reporting framework used by the company.
b. stated in the footnotes to the financial statements.
c.
explicitly expressed representation about the company’ financial condition.
d. provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed on the financial statements.
This assertion addresses whether all transactions that should be included in the financial statements are in fact include.
a.
occurrence
b. completeness
c.
rights and obligations
d. existence
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
It would be a violation of the completeness assertion if management would record a sale that did not take place.
b. The completeness assertion deals with matters opposite from those of the existence assertion.
c.
The completeness assertion is concern with the possibility of omitting items from the financial statements that should behave
been included.
d. The existence assertion is concerned with inclusion of amount that should not have been.
Which of the following assertions does not relate to balance at period end?
a.
Existence
b. Occurrence
c.
Valuation or allocation
d. Rights and obligation
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Existence relates to whether the amounts in accounts are understated.
b. Completeness relates to whether balances exist.
c.
Existence relates to whether the balances are valid.
d. Occurrence relates to whether the amounts in accounts occurred in proper year.
Which of the following management assertions is not associated with transaction-related audit objectives?
a.
Occurrence
b. Classification and understandability
c.
Accuracy
d. Completeness
An assertion that transactions are recorded in proper accounting period is:
a.
classification
b. accuracy
c.
occurrence
d. cut-of
The auditor is determining that the record sales are for the amount of goods shipped are correctly billed and recorded. The auditor is
gathering evidence about which transaction related audit objective?
a.
existence
b. completeness
c.
accuracy
d. cut-of
In testing the cut-of , the objective is to determine:
a.
whether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded.
b. whether transactions are recorded in the correct accounting period.
c.
the proper cut-of between capitalizing and expensing expenditure.
d. the proper cut-of between disclosing items in footnotes or in account balances.
Which of the following statements are not correct?
a.
There are many ways an auditor can accumulate evidence to meet the overall audit objectives.
b. Sufficient appropriate evidence must be accumulated to meet the auditor’s professional responsibility.
c.
The cost of accumulating evidence should be minimized.
d. Gathering evidence and minimizing costs are equally important considerations that afect the approach the auditor selects.
14. When the auditors develops supporting evidence for amounts posted to account balances with documentary evidence, that process
is called:
a.
inquiry
b. confirmation
c.
vouching
d. physical examination
15. When the auditor uses tracing as an audit procedure for test of transactions, the auditor is primarily concerned with which audit
objective?
a.
Occurrence
b. Completeness
c.
Cut-of
d. Classification
16. When auditor use documentation to support recorded transactions and amounts, the process is usually called:
a.
tracing
b. conformations
c.
vouching
d. reperformance
17. When the auditor used the audit procedure vouching, the auditor is primarily concerned with which of the following audit objectives
when testing classes of transactions?
a.
Occurrence
b. Completeness
c.
Authorization
d. Classification
18. In performing your audit for a privately-held firm your inquiries have yielded that one of the company’s owner’s primary motivations
is to pay the least amount of income tax that is possible. Based on this observation which audit objective for ending inventory would
the auditor be most concerned about ascertaining?
a.
Completeness
b. Accuracy
c.
Rights and obligations
d. Existence
19. After the auditor has completed all audit procedures, it is necessary to combine the information obtained to reach an overall
conclusion as to whether the financial statements are fairly presented. This is a highly subjective process that relies heavily on:
a.
generally accepted auditing standards.
b. the Code of Professional Ethics.
c.
PFRS
d. the auditor’s professional judgment.
20. Which of the following audit procedures is used extensively throughout the audit and often is complementary to performing other
audit procedures?
a.
Inspection
b. Observation
c.
Inquiry
d. Confirmation
21. Which statement is incorrect regarding inquiry?
a.
Responses to inquiries may provide the auditor with information not previously possessed or with corroborative audit
evidence.
b. Responses to inquiries might provide information that difers significantly from other information that the auditor has obtained.
c.
Responses to inquiries may provide a basis for the auditor to modify or perform additional audit procedures.
d. Inquiry alone is sufficient to test the operating efectiveness of controls.
22. Observation
a.
Consist of looking at a process or procedure being performed by others.
b. Consist of seeking information of knowledgeable persons, both financial and non-financial, throughout the entity or outside the
entity.
c.
Is the process of obtaining a representation of information or of an existing condition directly from a third party?
d. Is the auditor’s independent execution of procedures or controls that were originally performed as part of the entity’s internal
control
23. This consists of checking the mathematical accuracy of documents or records.
a.
Reperformance
b. Recalculation
c.
Confirmation
d. Inspection
24. Even with the most efectively designed internal control, the auditor must obtain audit evidence, beyond testing the controls, for
every:
a.
transaction
b. financial statements account
c.
material financial statements account
d.
financial statement account that will be relied upon by third parties.
25. The sequence of steps in gathering evidence as the basis of the auditor’s opinion is
a.
Substantive tests, documentation of control structure, and tests of controls
b. Documentation of control structure, tests of controls, and substantive tests
c.
Documentation of control structure, substantive tests , and tests of controls
d. Tests of controls, documentation of control structure, and substantive tests
26. Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the audit process?
A. Perform tests of control
B. Develop an overall strategy for the expected conduct and scope of the audit
C. Obtain client’s written representation
D. Prepare engagement letter
E.
Perform substantive tests
a.
D, A, B, E, C
b. D, B, A, E, C
c.
D, B, C, A, E
d. D, B, E, A, C
27. Which of the following would an auditor least likely perform as part of the auditor’s preliminary engagement activities?
a.
Perform procedures regarding the continuance of the client relationship and the specific audit engagement.
b.
Evaluate compliance with ethical requirements, including independence.
c.
Established an understanding of the terms of the engagement.
d. Obtain understanding of the legal and regulatory framework applicable to the entity.
28. Which of the following is not one of the reasons why auditor should perform preliminary engagement activities?
a.
To ensure that the auditor maintains the necessary independence and ability to perform the engagement.
b. To help ensure that there are no issues with management integrity that may afect the auditor’s willingness to continue the
engagement.
c.
To ensure that there is no misunderstanding with the client as to the terms of the engagement.
d. To ensure that sufficient appropriate evidence will be obtained to support the auditor’s opinion on the financial statements.
29. Which of the following is not normally performed in the preplanning or pre-engagement phase?
a.
Deciding whether to accept or reject an audit engagement.
b. Inquiring from predecessor auditor.
c.
Preparing an engagement letter.
d. Making a preliminary estimate of materiality.
30. In making a decision to accept or to continue with a client, the auditor should consider:
31.
32.
33.
34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Its competence
YES
YES
YES
YES
Its independence
YES
NO
YES
NO
Its ability to serve the client properly
YES
YES
YES
NO
The integrity of client’s management
YES
YES
NO
YES
Before accepting an engagement to audit a new client, a CPA is required to obtain
a.
A preliminary understanding of the prospective client’s industry and business.
b. The prospective client’s signature to the engagement letter
c.
An understanding of the prospective clients control environment.
d. A representation letter from the prospective client.
Preliminary knowledge about the clients business and industry must be obtained prior to the acceptance of the engagement
primarily to
a.
Determine the degree of knowledge and expertise required by the engagement.
b. Determine the integrity of management.
c.
Determine whether the firm is independent with the client.
d. Gather evidence about the fairness of the financial statements.
A CPA firm’s quality control procedures pertaining to the acceptance of a prospective audit client would most likely include
a.
Inquiry of management as to whether disagreements between the predecessor auditor and the prospective client were
resolved satisfactorily.
b. Consideration of whether sufficient competent evidential matter may be obtained to aford a reasonable basis for an opinion.
c.
Inquiry of third parties, such as the prospective client’s bankers and attorneys, about information regarding the prospective
client and its management.
d. Consideration of whether the internal control structure is sufficiently efective to permit a reduction in the required substantive
tests.
Prior to the acceptance of an audit engagement with a client who has terminated the services of the predecessor auditor, the CPA
should
a.
Contact the predecessor auditor without advising the prospective client and request a complete report of the circumstance
leading to the termination with the understanding that all information disclosed will be kept confidential.
b. Accept the engagement without contacting the predecessor auditor since the CPA can include audit procedures to verify the
reason given by the client for the termination.
c.
Not communicate with the predecessor auditor because this would in efect be asking the auditor to violate the confidential
relationship between the auditor and the client.
d. Advise the client of the intention to contact the predecessor auditor and request permission for the contact.
35. The purpose of the requirement in having communication between the predecessor and successor auditors is to:
a.
allow the predecessor to disclose information which would otherwise be confidential.
b. help the successor auditor evaluate whether to accept the engagement.
c.
help the client by facilitating the change of auditors.
d. ensure the predecessor collects all unpaid fees prior to a change in auditor.
36. Jenna, CPA, has been retained to audit the financial statements of JMV Co. JMV’s predecessor auditor was Moshe, CPA, who has
been notified by JMV that Moshe’s services have been terminated. Under these circumstances, which party should initiate the
communication between Jenna and Moshe?
a.
Jenna, the incoming auditor.
b. Moshe, the predecessor auditor
c.
JMV’s controller.
d. The chairman of JMV’s board of directors
37. In an audit, communication between the predecessor and incoming auditor should be
a.
authorized in an engagement letter
b. acknowledged in a representation letter
c.
either written or oral
d. written and included in the working papers
38. the predecessor auditor is required to respond to the request of the successor auditor fo9r information, but the response can be
limited to stating that no information will be provided when:
a.
the predecessor auditor has poor relations with the successor auditor.
b. the client is dissatisfied with the predecessor’s work.
c.
there are actual or potential legal problems between the client and the predecessor.
d. the predecessor believes that the client lacks integrity.
39. Arnel, CPA, is succeeding Von, CPA, on the audit engagement o f Jin Corporation. Arnel plans to consult Von and to review Von’s prior
year working papers. Arnel may do so if
a.
Von and Jin consent
b. Jin consents
c.
Von consents
d. Von and Arnel consents
40. Upon discovering material misstatements in a client’s financial statements that the client would not revise, the auditor withdrew
from the engagement. If asked by the incoming auditor about the termination the engagement, the predecessor auditor should
a.
State that he found material misstatements that the client would not revise
b. Suggest that the incoming auditor ask the client
c.
Suggest that the incoming auditor obtain the client’s permission to discuss the reasons
d. Indicate that a misunderstanding occurred
41. Before accepting an engagement to audit a new client, a CPA is required to obtain
a.
An understanding of the prospective client’s industry and business
b. The prospective client’s signature to the engagement letter.
c.
A preliminary understanding of the prospective client’s control environment
d. The prospective clients consent to make inquiries of the predecessor auditor, if any.
42. Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor auditor should make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor regarding
a.
Disagreements the predecessor had with the client concerning auditing procedures and accounting principles
b. The predecessor’s evaluation of matters of continuing accounting significance.
c.
The degree of cooperation the predecessor received concerning the inquiry of the client’s lawyer.
d. The predecessor’s assessments of inherent risk and judgments about materiality
43. Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor auditor should make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor regarding the
predecessor’s
a.
Opinion of any subsequent events occurring since the predecessor’s audit report was issued
b. Understanding as to the reasons for the change of auditors
c.
Awareness of the consistency in the application of PFRS between periods
d. Evaluation of all matters of continuing accounting significance
44. An incoming auditor most likely would make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor regarding
a.
Specialized accounting principles of the client’s industry
b. The competency of the client’s internal audit staf.
c.
The uncertainty inherent in applying sampling procedures.
d. Disagreements with management as to auditing procedures.
45. Which of the following should an incoming auditor obtain from the predecessors auditor prior to accepting an audit engagement
a.
Analysis of balance sheet accounts
b. Analysis of income statements accounts
c.
All matters of continuing accounting significance
d. Facts that bear on the integrity of management
46. What information should an incoming auditor obtain during the inquiry of the predecessor auditor prior to acceptance of the audit?
I.
Facts that bear in the integrity of the management
II.
Whether statistical or non-statistical sampling was used to gather evidence
III.
Disagreement with management concerning auditing procedures
IV.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
The efect of the client’s internal audit function on the scope of the independent auditor’s examination
a.
I and II
b. I and III
c.
I and IV
d. III and IV
An incoming auditor should request the new client to authorize the predecessor auditor to allow a review of the predecessor’s
Engagement letter
Working Paper
a.
Yes
Yes
b.
No
No
c.
No
Yes
d.
No
No
Which of the following factors most likely would cause an auditor not to accept a new audit engagement”?
a.
An inadequate understanding of the entity’s interval control structure
b. The close proximity to the end of the entity’s fiscal year
c.
Concluding that that entity’s management probably lacks integrity
d. An inability to perform preliminary analytical procedures before assessing control risk
Which of the following factors most likely would influence an auditor’s determination of the auditability of entity’s financial
statements
a.
The complexity of the accounting system
b. The existence of related party transactions
c.
The adequacy of the accounting records
d. The operating efectiveness of control procedures
In auditing the financial statements of Star Corp., Land discovered information lending Land to believe that Star’s prior year’s
financial statements, which are audited by Jell, require substantial revisions. Under these circumstances, Land should
a.
Notify Star’s audit committee and stockholders that the prior year’s financial statements cannot be relied on.
b. Request Star to reissue the prior year’s financial statements with the appropriate revisions.
c.
Notify Jell about the information and make inquiries about the integrity of Star’s management.
d. Request star to arrange a meeting among the three parties to resolve the matter.
Hawkins requested permission to communicate with the predecessor auditor and review certain portions of the predecessor
auditor’s work papers. The prospective client’s refusal to permit this will bear directly on Hawkin’s decision concerning the:
a.
Adequacy of the preplanned audit program
b. Ability to established consistency in application of accounting principles between years
c.
Apparent scope limitation
d. Integrity of management
Ordinarily, the predecessor auditor permits the successor auditor to review the predecessor’s working paper analysis relating to
Contingencies
Balance sheet accounts
a.
Yes
Yes
b.
Yes
No
c.
No
Yes
d.
No
No
In making client acceptance decisions the audit firm will consider:
a.
inherent and control risk of the client.
b. audit risk to the CPA Firm.
c.
the client’s business risk and the CPA firm’s engagement risk.
d. CPA Firms
The purpose of an engagement letter is to:
a.
document the CPA firm’s responsibility to external users of the audited financial statements.
b. document the terms of the engagement
c.
notify the audit staf of an upcoming engagement so that personnel scheduling can be facilitated
d. emphasize management’s responsibility for approving the audit program
Before performing any audit procedures. The auditor and the client should agree on the
Type of opinion to be expressed
Terms of the engagement
a.
Yes
Yes
b.
No
Yes
c.
No
Yes
d.
Yes
Yes
Engagement letters
a.
may be either oral or written
b. must be written
c.
must be written and notarized
d. must be written if the client is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission
According to PSA 210, the auditor and the client should agree on the terms of engagement. The agreed terms would need to be
recorded in a(n)
a.
memorandum to be placed in the permanent section of the auditing working papers
b. engage letter
c.
client representation
d. comfort letter
58. The auditor should document the understanding established with a client through a(n)
a.
Oral communication with the client
b. Written communication with the client
c.
Written or oral communication with the client
d. Completely detailed audit plan
59. Which of the following is (are) valid reasons why an auditor sends to his client an engagement letter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To avoid misunderstanding with respect to engagement
Yes
Yes
No
Yes
To confirm the auditor’s acceptance of the appointment
Yes
Yes
Yes
No
To document the objective and scope of the audit
Yes
Yes
Yes
Yes
To ensure CPA’s compliance to PSA
Yes
No
No
Yes
60. Written communication that the auditor will provide reasonable assurance for the detection of fraud is found in:
a.
engagement letter
b. representation letter
c.
responsibility letter
d. client letter
61. Which of the following normally signs the engagement letter for an audit of a private company?
a.
Management.
b. Board of directors representative
c.
Audit committee representative
d. Corporate treasurer
62. If an auditor believes that an understanding with the client has not been established, he or she should ordinarily
a.
Perform the audit with increased professional skepticism
b. Decline to accept or perform the audit
c.
Assess the control risk at the maximum level and perform a primarily substantive audit
d. Modify the scope of the audit to reflect an increased risk of material misstatement due to fraud
63. Engagement letter that documents and confirms the auditor’s acceptance of the engagement would normally be sent to the client.
a.
before the audit report issued
b. after the audit report is issued
c.
at the end of the field work
d. before the commencement of the engagement
64. an engagement letter should ordinarily include information on the objectives of the engagement and
CPA’s responsibility
Clients responsibility
Limitation of engagement
a.
Yes
Yes
Yes
b.
Yes
No
Yes
c.
Yes
No
No
d.
No
No
No
65. Which of the following matters is generally included in an auditor’s engagement letter?
a.
Management’s responsibility for the entity’s compliance with laws and regulations
b. The factors to be considered in setting preliminary judgments about materiality
c.
Management’s explicit liability for illegal acts committed by its employees
d. The auditor’s responsibility to search for significant internal control deficiencies
66. Which of the following would be least likely to be included in the auditor’s engagement letter?
a.
Forms of the report
b. Extent of his responsibilities to his client
c.
Objectives and scope of the audit
d. Type of opinion to be issued
67. Which of the following is not one of the principal contents of an engagement letter?
a.
objective of the financial statements
b. unrestricted access to records and documents
c.
limitation of the engagement
d. management’s responsibility for the financial statements
68. An engagement letter would not normally include
a.
billing arrangement
b. arrangement concerning client’s assistance
c.
details of the procedure that will be performed
d. expectation of receiving a representation letter from management
69. The audit engagement letter should generally include a reference to each of the following except
a.
The expectation of receiving a written management representation letter
b. A request for the client to confirm the terms of the engagement
c.
A description of the auditor’s method of sample selection
d. The risk that material misstatements may remain undiscovered
70. After preliminary audit, arrangements have been made, an engagement confirmation letter should be sent to the client. The letter
usually would not conclude
a.
A reference to the auditor’s responsibility for the detection of errors or irregularities
b.
c.
d.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
An estimate of the time to be spent on the audit work by audit staf and management
A statement that management advisory services would be made available upon request
A statement that a management letter will be issued outlining comments and suggestions as to any procedures requiring the
client’s attention
Arrangements concerning which of the following are least likely to be included in engagement letters?
a.
auditor’s responsibilities
b. Fees and billing
c.
CPA investment in client securities
d. Other forms of reports to be issued in addition to the audit report
The use of an engagement is the best method of documenting
I.
The required communication of significant deficiencies in internal control structure
II.
Significantly lower materiality levels than those used in the prior audit
III.
The description of any letters or reports that the auditor expects to issue
IV.
Notification of any changes in the original arrangements of the audit
a.
I and II
b. I and IV
c.
II and III
d. III and IV
In which of the following situations would be the auditor be unlikely to send a new engagement letter to a continuing client?
a.
a change in terms of the engagements
b. a significant change in the nature or size of the client’s business
c.
a recent change of client management
d. a recent change in the partner and/or staf in the audit engagement
In continuing engagement, the continuing auditor would most likely send a new engagement letter when
a.
there is a change in the partner assigned to the engagement
b. there is a recent change in client’s management
c.
there are new accounting pronouncements afecting the client’s financial statements
d. there are expected minor changes in the nature or size of the client’s business
When the auditor of a parent entity is also the auditor of its subsidiary, branch or division (component); which of the following
factors would least likely influence the auditor’s decision to send separate letter to a component of a parent entity?
a.
Geographical location of the component.
b. Legal requirements
c.
Degree of ownership by parent
d. Degree of independence of component’s management.