Faculty surgery
Tests for IMF
1. FOR ACUTE APPENDICITIS, THE SYMPTOM IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC:
a) Rovzing
b) Voskresensky
c) Murphy
d) Obraztsov
e) Bartomier-Michelson
2. CLINICALLY ACUTE APPENDICITIS CAN BE TAKEN FOR:
a) salpingitis
b) acute cholecystitis
c) Meckel's diverticulitis
d) ectopic pregnancy
e) any of these types of pathology
3. FOR PERFORATIVE APPENDICITIS CHARACTERISTIC:
a) Razdolsky's symptom
b) an increase in the clinical picture of peritonitis
c) a sudden increase in abdominal pain
d) muscle tension of the anterior abdominal wall
e) all of the above
4. THE OPTIMUM LENGTH OF THE SKIN INCISION FOR APPENDECTOMY IN AN ADULT IS:
a) 2-2.5 cm
b) 3-4 cm
c) 5-6 cm
d) 6-8 cm
e) 10-12 cm
5. TYPICAL COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE APPENDICITIS ARE ALL EXCEPT:
a) appendicular infiltrate
b) para-appendicular abscess
c) local peritonitis
d) diffuse peritonitis
e) inflammation of Meckel's diverticulum
6. FOR DIFFUSIONAL PURULENT PERITONITIS OF APPENDICULAR ORIGIN, THE FOLLOWING ARE
INDICATED:
a) appendectomy and sanitation of the abdominal cavity
b) correction of water-electrolyte disturbances
c) antibacterial therapy
d) complete parenteral nutrition 1-2 days after surgery
e) all of the above is true
7. EMERGENCY APPENDECTOMY IS NOT INDICATED FOR:
a) acute catarrhal appendicitis
b) acute appendicitis in the second half of pregnancy
c) the first attack of acute appendicitis
d) an unknown cause of pain in the right iliac region in the elderly
e) acute appendicitis in infants
8. DEVELOPMENT OF THE PATHOLOGICAL PROCESS IN ACUTE APPENDICITIS BEGINS:
a) from the serous cover of the appendix
b) from the mucous membrane of the appendix
c) from the muscular layer of the appendix
d) from the dome of the cecum
e) from the terminal section of the small intestine
9.FOR ACUTE APPENDICITIS WITH WORM-LOOK IN THE PELVIS CHARACTERISTIC:
a) the presence of pain in the Scherrer triangle
b) an admixture of blood in the feces
c) severe pain reaction of the anterior wall of the rectum with al
research
d) lack of temperature reaction
e) a positive symptom of Pasternatsky
10. IN TREATMENT OF DIFFUSED PERITONITIS OF APPENDICULAR ORIGIN, THE MAIN IMPORTANCE IS:
a) elimination of the source of peritonitis
b) antibiotic therapy
c) correction of water-electrolyte disturbances
d) sanitation of the abdominal cavity
e) all of the above is true
11. ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS USUALLY BEGINS WITH:
a) temperature rise
b) the appearance of vomiting
c) pain in the right hypochondrium
d) stool disorders
e) severity in the epigastric region
12. INTRAVENOUS CHOLECYSTOGRAPHY IS SHOWN AND INFORMATIVE WHEN:
a) the presence of a palpable gallbladder
b) jaundice
c) peritonitis
d) a subsided attack of acute cholecystitis
e) cholangitis
13. LITOGENICITY INDEX IS DETERMINED BY THE RATIO:
a) cholesterol, bilirubin and lecithin
b) bilirubin, bile acids and lecithin
c) cholesterol, bile acids and bilirubin
d) cholesterol, bile acids and lecithin
e) bilirubin and lecithin
14. INTRAOPERATIVE HOLANGYOGRAPHY IS ABSOLUTELY SHOWN WITH EVERYTHING BUT:
a) the presence of small stones in the common bile duct
b) suspected cancer of the large duodenal nipple
c) expansion of the common bile duct
d) a history of obstructive jaundice
e) disabled gallbladder
15. THE COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE CALCULAR CHOLECYSTITIS DO NOT RELATE:
a) varicose veins of the esophagus
b) obstructive jaundice
c) cholangitis
d) subhepatic abscess
e) peritonitis
16.FOR MECHANICAL JAUNDICE DUE TO COLDOCHOLITHIASIS, NOT CHARACTERISTIC:
a) Courvoisier's symptom
b) increased direct blood bilirubin
c) increased alkaline phosphatase
d) a sharp increase in the level of transaminases in plasma:
e) lack of stercobilin in feces
17. FOR A COLIC CAUSED BY CHOLELITIASIS, NOT CHARACTERISTIC
a) intense pain in the right hypochondrium
b) nausea
c) Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom in the right hypochondrium
d) Ortner's symptom
e) Murphy's symptom
18. IN THE DEVELOPMENT OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS, THE MAJOR ROLE FOLLOWS:
a) microbial flora
b) plasmacytic infiltration
c) microcirculatory disorders
d) autoenzyme aggression
e) venous stasis
19.ESOPHAGOGASTRODUODENOSCOPY IN PATIENTS WITH ACUTE PANCREATITIS ALLOWS TO
PERFORM:
a) assessment of the state of the large duodenal papilla
b) confirmation of the presence of acute pancreatitis
c) clarification of the localization of the process in the pancreas
d) determining the prevalence of gland damage
e) establishing the form of acute pancreatitis
20. THE IMPOSSIBILITY OF DETERMINING THE PULSATION OF THE ABDOMINAL AORTIC REGION IN
EPIGASTRIUM IN ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS THE NAME OF THE SYMPTOM
a) Mayo-Robson
b) Mondor’s
c) Kera
d) Cullen
e) Voskresensky
21. WHEN PANCREATITIS DURING THE OPERATION IS DETECTED:
a) wound closure without any surgical aid
b) the imposition of a cholecystostomy
c) drainage of the stuffing box
d) cholecystectomy and resection of the pancreas
e) resection of the pancreas
22. IT IS NOT APPLIED FOR PURCHASING A PAIN AT ACUTE PANCREATITIS:
a) vagosympathetic blockade
b) epidural anesthesia
c) perirenal blockade
d) blockade of the round ligament of the liver
e) morphine
23. DOES NOT PARTICIPATE IN THE PATHOGENESIS OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS:
a) enterokinase
b) elastase
c) phospholipase
d) trypsin
e) streptokinase
24. THE MOST CHARACTERISTIC PAINS FOR ACUTE PANCREATITIS ARE:
a) aching
b) shingles
c) cramping
d) dagger
e) stupid
25. A 30-YEAR-OLD PATIENT WITH DESTRUCTIVE PANCREATITIS ON THE 14TH DAY OF DISEASE HAS
APPEARED HECTIC TEMPERATURE, TACHYCARDIA, SHIFT OF THE LEUKOCYTIC FORMULA TO THE LEFT:
a) cholangitis
b) pneumonia
c) pancreatic cyst
d) retroperitoneal phlegmon
e) suppurative pseudocyst of the pancreas
26. IN FATTY PANCREONEKROSIS:
a) laparotomy, drainage of the abdominal cavity
b) laparotomy with excision of the gland capsule
c) infusion therapy, antienzyme and cytostatic drugs
d) distal resection of the pancreas
e) everything is correct
27. FOR ALL KINDS OF ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION ARE CHARACTERISTIC:
a) intense abdominal pain
b) a sharp increase in peristalsis
c) persistent stool and gas retention
d) asymmetry of the abdomen
e) tension of the abdominal muscles
28. EVERYTHING IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR LOW COLUMN OCCURRENCE, BUT:
a) a gradual increase in symptoms
b) bloating
c) the appearance of the Kloyber bowls
d) stool retention
e) fast (within a day) dehydration
29. BLOODY DISCHARGE FROM THE RECTAL COLUMN CAN BE WITH INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION:
a) paralytic
b) spastic
c) invagination
d) adhesive
e) strangulation
30. THE CHOICE OF TREATMENT TACTICS IN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS NOT AFFECTED ONLY:
a) type of obstruction
b) the level of obstruction
c) the presence of peritoneal symptoms
d) the intensity of pain
e) X-ray data
31. THE MAIN SYMPTOM OF OBTURATIONAL INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS:
a) persistent abdominal pain
b) cramping abdominal pain
c) vomit of the color of "coffee grounds"
d) bloating
e) melena
32. FECES IN THE FORM OF RASPBERRY JELLY CHARACTER FOR
a) gastric bleeding
b) intussusception
c) spastic colitis
d) diverticulitis
e) lead poisoning
33. PAIN IN INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS CHARACTERIZED BY EVERYBODY, BUT IT IS:
a) periodic
b) weaker between attacks
c) localized in the navel
d) colicky
e) starts gradually
34. THE WORST TREATMENT RESULTS ARE OBSERVED WITH:
a) paralytic intestinal obstruction
b) intussusception
c) strangulation obstruction
d) adhesive disease
e) obstructive small bowel obstruction
35. IN PRIMARY PERITONITIS, PERITONAL INFECTION HAPPENS:
a) with perforation of a stomach ulcer
b) with perforation of the appendix
c) with adnexitis
d) hematogenous
e) in case of intestinal injury
36. PERITONITIS MAY BE A CONSEQUENCE OF THE LISTED DISEASES, EXCEPT:
a) perforation of Meckel's diverticulum
b) Crohn's disease
c) stenosis of the large duodenal papilla
d) Richter's infringement of hernia
e) acute intestinal obstruction
37. AT THE ABSCESS OF DUGLASOV SPACE IT IS SHOWN:
a) puncture through the abdominal wall
b) medicinal enemas
c) opening through the abdominal wall
d) puncture, opening and drainage through the rectum
e) conservative treatment
38. FIBRINOUS OILS ON THE PERITONAL DO NOT HAVE PERITONITIS:
a) serous
b) fibrinous
c) purulent
d) putrid
e) feces
39. INGUINAL HERNIA DIFFERENTIES WITH EVERYTHING BUT:
a) varicocele
b) tumors of the spermatic cord
c) testicular tumors
d) hydrocele
e) v. saphenamagna aneurysms
40. A straight inguinal hernia is characterized by a weakness of the wall:
a) back
b) top
c) front
d) bottom
e) all walls
41. THE PRIORITY MEASURES FOR A STRAINED INGUINAL HERNIA IS:
a) warm bath
b) reduction of the hernia
c) emergency operation
d) spasmolitics to facilitate the reduction of the hernia
e) analgetics before repositioning the hernia
42. When the adenomas of the prostate gland and the inguinal hernia are combined, it is shown:
a) observation
b) adenomectomy, then hernia repair
c) conservative treatment
d) hernia repair, then adenomectomy
e) the use of a bandage
43. THE TYPANICAL SOUND ABOVE THE HERNIAL HOOKING LETS SUSPECT AN INJURATION:
a) a large omentum
b) bladder
c) spermatic cord
d) intestinal loops
e) vermiform appendix
44. MOST OFTEN WITH AN INGUINAL HERNIA, IT IS INTRACTED:
a) large oil seal
b) small intestine
c) large intestine
d) bladder
e) peri-vesicular tissue
45. THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSE OF REDUCED RESISTANCE OF THE MUCOSA OF THE STOMACH,
LEADING TO THE DEVELOPMENT OF AN ULTRA IS
a) deficiency of plastic cells necessary for reproduction
substances and biochemically active substances
b) metabolic changes in the body
c) local ischemia of the gastro-duodenal mucosa
d) chronic gastritis
e) hormonal changes in the body
46. DETERMINING INDICATIONS FOR SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ULCER, IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO
CONSIDER:
a) data of endoscopic assessment of the ulcer and its localization
b) indications of X-ray examination of the stomach and duodenum
c) motor-evacuation function of the stomach and duodenum
d) functional state of the gastrin-producing system
e) the true dimensions of the antrum of the stomach
47. DEVELOPMENT OF GASTROGENIC TETANY IN SEVERE PYLORODUODENAL STENOSIS IS ASSOCIATED
WITH:
a) hypokalemia
b) hypochloremia
c) hypocalcemia
d) hypovolemia
e) hypoalbuminemia
48. THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD FOR DIAGNOSING PERFORATIVE ULCER IS:
a) esophagogastroduodenoscopy
b) ultrasound
c) laparocentesis
d) laparoscopy
e) survey fluoroscopy
49. AN EXTREMELY RARE COMPLICATION OF DUODENAL ULCER IS:
a) perforation
b) malignancy
c) bleeding
d) penetration
e) cicatricial deformity of the intestine
50. FOR PERFORATIVE GASTRIC ULCER IN THE FIRST 6 HOURS NOT CHARACTERISTIC:
a) sharp abdominal pain
b) plank belly
c) the disappearance of hepatic dullness
d) bloating
e) "sickle" of gas under the dome of the diaphragm
51. MALLORY-WEISS SYNDROME IS:
a) varicose veins of the esophagus and cardia, complicated by bleeding
b) bleeding ulcer of Meckel's diverticulum
c) bleeding from mucous membranes due to hemorrhagic angiomatosis
(Randu-Osler disease)
d) cracks in the cardiac part of the stomach with bleeding
e) hemorrhagic erosive gastroduodenitis
52. CONSERVATIVE THERAPY IN PERFORMED ULCERS IS PERMISSIBLE ONLY WHEN:
a) the patient has no ulcerative history
b) old age of patients
c) the absence of conditions for performing an emergency surgical intervention
d) extremely high degree of operational risk
e) a combination of gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer
53. IT IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR A BLOODY ULCERS DUODENUM:
a) vomit the color of coffee grounds
b) increased abdominal pain
c) drop in hemoglobin
d) melena
e) decrease blood volume
54. THE MOST RELIABLE METHOD FOR DIAGNOSTICS THE POLYPS OF THE LARGE INTESTINE IS:
a) fluoroscopic examination by oral administration of barium
b) irrigoscopy
c) colonoscopy
d) study of feces for occult blood
e) ultrasound
56. EVERYTHING IS PROMOTING THE DEVELOPMENT OF HEMORRHOIDS EXCEPT:
a) chronic inflammation of the anal canal
b) heredity
c) sitting work
d) a two-stage act of defecation
e) hyperplasia of the rectal zones and anal cavernous bodies
57. TO CONFIRM THE DIAGNOSIS OF ANAL PASSAGE CRACK, IT IS USED:
a) anoscopy
b) measurement of pressure in the rectum
c) colonoscopy
d) rectoscopy
e) irrigoscopy
58. DELAYED GASTRIC EVACUATION IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR TUMOR LOCALIZATION:
a) along the great curvature
b) in the cardiac department
c) in the body of the stomach
d) in the pyloric section
e) in small curvature
59. THE EARLY DIAGNOSIS OF GASTRIC CANCER IS PROVIDED BY:
a) ultrasound of the abdominal organs
b) search for the syndrome of "small signs"
c) the emergence of the cancer triad according to Melnikov
d) X-ray of the stomach
e) survey fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity
75. SPECIFIC FOR ACUTE APPENDICITIS IS A SYMPTOM:
a) Kocher-Volkovich
b) Rovzing
c) Sitkovsky
d) all three symptoms
e) none of them
76. FALSE FOR ACUTE APPENDICITIS IS THE STATEMENT THAT:
a) the rigidity of the abdominal wall may be absent with a retrocecal arrangement
scion
b) there may be no stiffness in the pelvic position
c) vomiting always precedes pain
d) pain can begin in the navel
e) pain often begins in the epigastric region
77. AN IMPORTANT SYMPTOM IN DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE APPENDICITIS WITH IMPAIRED
EXTRAUTERIC PREGNANCY IS:
a) Kocher-Volkovich symptom
b) Prompt's symptom
c) dizziness and fainting
d) Bartomier-Michelson symptom
e) puncture of the posterior fornix of the vagina
78. FOR SPILLED PURULENT PERITONITIS OF APPENDICULAR ORIGIN, APPLY:
a) midline laparotomy
b) appendectomy
c) washing the abdominal cavity
d) drainage of the abdominal cavity
e) all of the above
79. FOR DIAGNOSING ACUTE APPENDICITIS, THE METHODS ARE USED:
a) laparoscopy
b) clinical blood test
c) rectal examination
d) thermography
e) all of the above is true
80. THE INITIAL PHASE OF PERITONITIS ARE ALL THE LISTED SYMPTOMS, EXCEPT
a) soreness of the pelvic peritoneum during rectal examination
b) tachycardia
c) sharp electrolyte shifts
d) tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
e) tendencies to an increase in leukocytosis
81. SYMPTOMS OF APPENDICULAR INFILTRATE ARE EVERYTHING BUT:
a) subfebrile temperature
b) Rovzing's symptom
c) profuse diarrhea
d) leukocytosis
e) palpable tumor formation in the right iliac region
82. AFTER APPENDECTOMY IN ACUTE CATARAL APPENDICITIS, PRESCRIBE:
a) antibiotics
b) analgesics
c) sulfonamides
d) laxatives
e) all of the above
83 FOR TREATMENT OF APPENDICULAR INFILTRATE DO NOT USE:
a) physiotherapy treatment
b) antibiotics
c) inpatient treatment
d) narcotic drugs
e) diet
84. MAIN SYMPTOM ALLOWING TO DIAGNOSE PELVIC LOCATION OF INFLAMMATED APPENDIX:
a) Shchetkin-Blumberg
b) Rovzing
c) sharp soreness during rectal examination
d) muscle tension in the right iliac region
e) Krymova
85. ATTACK OF LIVER (GALL) COLUMNS ARISES:
a) suddenly, acutely
b) after the prodromal period
c) gradually, gradually
d) after prolonged fasting
e) after hypothermia
86. IN ACUTE AND CHRONIC CHOLECYSTITIS, USE CONTRAINDICATED:
a) omnopon
b) morphine hydrochloride
c) no-shpa
d) atropine sulfate
e) spazmalgon, baralgin and spazgan
87. A PATIENT WITH GANGRENOUS CHOLECYSTITIS IS SHOWN:
a) conservative treatment
b) deferred operation
c) decision making depends on the patient's age
d) operation in the absence of the effect of conservative therapy
e) emergency operation
88. IT IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR JARCUS ON THE SOIL OF COLEDOCHOLITHIASIS:
a) urobilinuria
b) increased alkaline phosphatase
c) normal or low blood protein
d) increased blood bilirubin
e) normal or moderately elevated transaminases
89. IN ACUTE CALCULAR CHOLECYSTITIS, IT MAY BE APPLIED:
a) emergency operation
b) urgent operation
c) conservative therapy and later planned surgery
d) only conservative therapy
e) all of the above
90. FOR CLARIFICATION OF THE CHARACTER OF JONDICE AND THE CAUSE OF ITS OCCURRENCE, DO
NOT USE:
a) computed tomography
b) intravenous cholecystocholangiography
c) percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
d) RCCG
e) ultrasound
91. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR A CLINIC OF ACUTE HOLANGITIS:
a) high temperature
b) pain in the right hypochondrium
c) jaundice
d) leukocytosis
e) unstable loose stools
92. IN THE CASE OF GALL STONE DISEASE, EMERGENCY SURGERY IS INDICATED FOR:
a) occlusion of the cystic duct
b) cholecystopancreatitis
c) perforated cholecystitis
d) obstructive jaundice
e) hepatic colic
93. HEMORRHAGIC PANCREONEKROSIS DEVELOPS AS A RESULT:
a) accession of infection against the background of fatty pancreatonecrosis
b) the formation of a demarcation inflammatory shaft around the foci of fatty necrosis
c) spontaneous relief of the autolytic process and involution small focal pancreatic necrosis
d) proteolytic necrosis of pancreatocytes and damage to the vascular wall under the influence of
proteolytic enzymes
e) damaging effect on pancreatocytes and interstitial fatty tissue lipolytic enzymes
94. DISEASE IN PALPATION IN THE LEFT COSTOVERTEBRAL ANGLE IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR THE
SYMPTOM:
a) Voskresensky
b) Mayo-Robson
c) Grunwald
d) Mondora
e) Gray-Turner
95. DETECTION IN LAPAROSCOPY OF SEROSOUS FLUE AND PLAQUES STEATONEKROSIS MEETS:
a) edematous pancreatitis
b) fatty pancreatic necrosis
c) hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
d) purulent pancreatitis
e) such changes are not typical for acute pancreatitis
96. THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD OF RESEARCH IN ACUTE
PANCREATITE IS:
a) diagnostic pneumoperitoneum
b) survey fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity
c) laparoscopy
d) gastroduodenoscopy
e) determination of blood and urine amylase, ultrasound
97. IDENTIFICATION OF HEMORRHAGIC EMERGENCY IN THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY AND FOCUS OF FATTY
NECROSIS IN THE ABDOMINAL ALLOWS TO THINK:
a) about damage to the hollow organ
b) about a ruptured liver
c) about acute pancreatitis
d) about a perforated stomach ulcer
e) about mesenteric thrombosis
98. THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD FOR DIAGNOSING THE CYST OF THE PANCREAS IS:
a) RCCG
b) study of the passage of barium through the intestine
c) biochemical research
d) ultrasound
e) none of the named
99. A PATIENT WITH PANCREATITIS IN THE FIRST DAY IS APPOINTED:
a) table 15
b) table 5a
c) table 9
d) table 10
e) hunger
100. IN PREPULSED PEUDOCYSTE OF THE PANCREAS IS SHOWN:
a) conservative antibiotic therapy
b) conservative detoxification therapy
c) operation
d) observation
e) continue the previously prescribed therapy
101. A CHARACTERISTIC COMPLICATION FOR ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS:
a) b-cell adenoma
b) stones of the pancreas
c) pancreatic pseudocysts
d) sclerosis of the pancreas
e) calcification of the pancreas
102. WHEN NODE FORMATION AND INTEGRAL INTEGRITY IS SHOWN:
a) conducting conservative measures to resolve the obstruction
b) emergency surgical treatment
c) surgical treatment in the "cold" period
d) dynamic observation
e) thorough examination of the patient
103. THE CAUSE OF DEVELOPMENT OF PARALYTIC INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION CANNOT BE:
a) peritonitis
b) lead poisoning
c) acute pancreatitis
d) retroperitoneal hematoma
e) disorders of mesenteric circulation
104. CONSERVATIVE TREATMENT OF ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS APPLIED ONLY FOR:
a) bloat
b) nodulation
c) obstructive intestinal obstruction
d) dynamic obstruction
e) obturation with gallstone
105. WHEN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS SUSPECTED IN THE FIRST TIME, IT IS PRODUCED:
a) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
b) study of the passage of barium through the intestine
c) esophagogastroduodenoscopy
d) laparoscopy
e) biochemical blood test
106. DEHYDRATION OF THE ORGANISM DEVELOPS FASTEST WHEN:
a) volvulus of the small intestine
b) volvulus of the sigmoid colon
c) tumors of the rectum with symptoms of intestinal obstruction
d) obstructive colonic obstruction
e) ileocecal invagination
107. Large intestinal obstruction is most often caused by:
a) fecal stones
b) malignant neoplasm
c) diverticulitis
d) tuberculosis
e) inguinal hernia
108. THE OPERATION OF SELECTION FOR LOW BOWEL OBTURATIONAL OBSTRUCTION WITH A
STRONGLY BLOOD, BUT A VIABLE LEADING LOOP IS:
a) bowel resection with anastomosis
b) bypass anastomosis
c) colostomy imposition
d) Noble operation
e) hemicolectomy
109. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR PERITONITIS:
a) tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
b) Courvoisier's symptom
c) increased heart rate
d) delay in the discharge of gases
e) vomiting
110. LESS THAN TOTAL SUBDIAPHRAGMATIC ABSCESS MEASURES:
a) pain in the right half of the chest and upper abdomen, breath-related
b) pain when pressing in the area of the lower ribs
c) hectic temperature
d) Kloyber's cups for X-ray of the abdominal cavity
e) expansion of the boundaries of hepatic dullness
111. A MEDIUM LAPAROTOMY MUST BE CARRIED OUT WHEN:
a) diffuse peritonitis
b) local unbounded peritonitis
c) Douglas space abscess
d) appendicular infiltrate
e) acute appendicitis
112. EVERYTHING IS PROSPECTING TO THE FORMATION OF ABDOMINAL HERNIA, EXCEPT:
a) old age
b) progressive weight loss
c) structural features of the anterior abdominal wall at the sites of hernias
d) diseases that cause increased intra-abdominal pressure
e) paralysis of the nerves of the abdominal wall
113. WITH A STRIKED ABDOMINAL HERNIA, REGARDLESS OF THE PATIENT'S CONDITION, IT IS SHOWN:
a) antispasmolitics and a warm bath
b) observation
c) antibiotics and strict bed rest
d) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
e) emergency operation
114. INCREDIBLE FEMORAL HERNIA IS NECESSARY TO DIFFERENTIATE:
a) with a strangulated inguinal hernia
b) with acute thrombophlebitis of the varicose veins in the oval fossa
c) with acute lymphadenitis
d) with all diseases
e) only with b and c
115. IT IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC TO PRACTICE A HERNIA:
a) sharp pain in the hernia
b) sudden development of the disease
c) a positive cough push
d) the rapid development of diffuse peritonitis
e) irreducible hernia
116. THE MAIN SIGN OF A SLIDING HERNIA IS:
a) easy reposition
b) innate nature
c) one of the walls of the hernial sac is an abdominal organ,
partially covered with peritoneum
d) penetration between muscles and aponeurosis
e) all of the above is true
118. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR CHRONIC GASTRODUODENAL ULTRASONIC:
a) dense edges
b) the ability to penetrate into the depth of the wall
c) different sizes (from 0.3 to 6-8 cm or more) of the ulcer
d) lack of convergence of the folds of the mucous membrane to the edges of the ulcer
e) the possibility of developing various complications
119. THE INITIAL PURPOSE PROCESS IS RELATED TO:
a) with reverse diffusion of hydrogen ions
b) with decompensation of antral acid-neutralizing function
c) with impaired acid-neutralizing function of the duodenum
d) with mechanisms that upset the balance between protection factors and aggression of the
gastroduodenal zone
e) with a decrease in the secretory function of the pancreas
120. PLANNING A SURGERY FOR DUODENAL ULCERS , IT IS NECESSARY TO CARRY OUT:
a) endoscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract
b) study of gastric secretion
c) study of the secretory function of the pancreas
d) X-ray examination of the stomach
e) study of the functional state of the duodenum
121. PATIENTS WITH COMPENSATED PYLORODUODENAL STENOSIS WITHOUT SIGNS OF AN ACTIVE
ULCERS:
a) do not need surgical treatment
b) are subject to surgical treatment in case of exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease
c) operated only in case of progression of stenosis
d) require compulsory surgical treatment
e) are operated on after a 2-month course of intensive antiulcer therapy
122. WHEN DUODENAL ULCERS IS SUSPECTED, FIRST CARRY OUT:
a) study of gastric secretion
b) determination of serum gastrin level
c) cholecystography
d) general fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs
e) esophagogastroduodenoscopy
123. A RELIABLE X-RAY SIGN OF PERFORATION OF A GASTRODUODENAL ULCERS IS:
a) high position of the diaphragm
b) Kloyber's "bowls"
c) intestinal pneumatization
d) the presence of free gas in the abdominal cavity
e) enlarged gas bubble of the stomach
124. WHEN PERFORATIVE GASTRIC ULCERS IS SUSPECTED, THE FIRST STUDY SHOULD BE:
a) fluoroscopy of the stomach with barium suspension
b) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
c) emergency esophagogastroduodenoscopy
d) angiography (selective celiac artery)
e) laparoscopy
125. THE NATURE OF OPERATING INTERVENTION IN PERFORMED STOMACH ULTRA DETERMINES:
a) the patient's age
b) localization of the perforated hole
c) the severity of peritonitis
d) period from the moment of perforation
e) all of the above
126. FORCED POSITION OF A PATIENT WITH LEGS ADVANCED TO THE ABDOMINAL AND A TENSION OF
THE ABDOMINAL MUSCLES IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR:
a) hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
b) volvulus
c) perforated ulcer
d) renal colic
e) mesenteric thrombosis
127. IN RECURRENCY OF GASTRODUODENAL BLEEDING IS SHOWN:
a) emergency operation
b) urgent operation
c) endovascular selective hemostatic therapy
d) repeated endoscopic hemostatic therapy
e) intensive conservative hemostatic therapy
128. MEKKELEV DIVERTICULE IS ANATOMICAL ELEMENT:
a) the ileum
b) jejunum
c) it is a protrusion of the bile ducts
d) often occurs after appendectomy
e) all of the above is true
129. IN BLEEDING AFTER DEFECTION IN THE FORM OF BLOOD STREAM AND ITCHING IN THE REGION OF
ANAL OPENING, YOU CAN THINK ABOUT:
a) pararectal fistula
b) hemorrhoids
c) rectal cancer
d) rectal polyp
e) anal fissure
130. FOR PARARECTAL Fistula it is uncommon:
a) purulent discharge
b) periodic exacerbations
c) stool fear
d) maceration of the skin of the perineum
e) the presence of a fistula
131. EXCESSION OF HEMORRHOIDAL NODES IS CONTRAINDICATED IN:
a) loss of nodes
b) proctosigmoiditis
c) ulceration of nodes
d) repeated bleeding
e) portal hypertension
132. THE ABSOLUTE SIGN OF THE UNOPERATIVE STOMACH CANCER IS:
a) multiple liver metastases
b) metastases to the spleen
c) metastases in the greater omentum
d) large tumor size
e) all of the above is true
133. IN OPERATED GASTRIC OUTPUT CANCER WITH THE PHENOMENA OF STENOSIS IS SHOWN:
a) gastroduodenostomy
b) subtotal distal gastric resection
c) pyloroplasty
d) gastrostomy
e) gastroenterostomy
149. SYMPTOMS ARE RELATED TO PERITONEAL IN ACUTE APPENDICITIS:
a) Voskresensky ("shirt" symptom)
b) Shchetkin-Blumberg
c) Razdolsky
d) all named symptoms
e) none of them
150. ACUTE APPENDICITIS IN CHILDREN DIFFERS FROM THAT IN ADULTS IN ALL EXCEPT:
a) cramping nature of pain, diarrhea, repeated vomiting
b) the rapid development of diffuse peritonitis
c) high temperature
d) severe intoxication
e) a sharp muscle tension in the right iliac region
151. FOR DIAGNOSTICS OF ACUTE APPENDICITIS DO NOT USE:
a) palpation of the abdominal wall
b) clinical blood test
c) digital rectal examination
d) irrigoscopy
e) vaginal examination
152. WASHING THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IS SHOWN WHEN:
a) an established diagnosis of appendicular infiltration
b) periappendicular abscess
c) gangrenous appendicitis and local delimited peritonitis
d) inflammation of the lymph nodes of the mesentery of the small intestine
e) diffuse peritonitis
154. EVERYTHING IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR THE LATE STAGE OF PERITONITIS EXCEPT:
a) bloating
b) dehydration
c) the disappearance of intestinal noise
d) hypoproteinemia
e) enhanced peristalsis
155. FOR GANHRENOUS FORM OF APPENDICITIS IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC:
a) board-shaped belly
b) increased pain in the right iliac region
c) reduction of pain in the right iliac region
d) tachycardia
e) Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom
156. THE MOST RATIONAL METHOD FOR PROCESSING THE APPENDIX CULTURE IN ADULTS IS:
a) dressing with a silk ligature with immersion of the stump
b) ligation with a lavsan ligature with immersion of the stump
c) immersion of an unbound stump
d) ligation with catgut ligature without immersion of the stump
e) ligation with catgut ligature with immersion of the stump
157. CONTRAINDICATION TO APPENDECTOMY IS:
a) myocardial infarction
b) pregnancy 30-40 weeks
c) intolerance to novocaine
d) appendicular infiltrate
e) blood clotting disorders
158. SYMPTOMS ALLOWING TO SUSPECT CROWN DISEASE ARE:
a) pain in the right iliac region
b) diarrhea
c) fever
d) all of the above is true
e) all of the above is incorrect
159. A CHARACTERISTIC LABORATORY SIGN OF Acute Uncomplicated Cholecystitis IS:
a) diastasuria
b) leukocytosis
c) hypoglycemia
d) glucosuria
e) hyperbilirubinemia
160. THE BASIC METHOD OF STUDYING PATIENTS WITH UNCOMPLICATED CHOLECYSTITIS IS:
a) infusion cholegraphy
b) ERPHG
c) ultrasound of the gallbladder
d) laparoscopy
e) gastroduodenoscopy
161. PATIENTS WITH UNCOMPLICATED CALCULOUS CHOLECYSTITIS MOST OFTEN PERFORM:
a) cholecystostomy
b) cholecystectomy from the neck
c) cholecystectomy from the bottom
d) laparoscopic cholecystostomy
e) cholecystectomy with drainage of the common bile duct according to Halstead-Pikovsky
163. COURVOISIER'S SYMPTOM IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR:
a) acute calculous cholecystitis
b) cancer of the head of the pancreas
c) indurative pancreatitis
d) tumors of the large duodenal nipple
e) tumors of the common bile duct
164. IT IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR A CLINIC OF ACUTE OBTURATION CHOLANGITIS:
a) jaundice
b) temperature rise
c) a decrease in the size of the liver
d) leukocytosis with a shift to the left
e) enlarged liver
166. COMPLICATIONS OF CHOLEDOCHOLITHIASIS IS:
a) dropsy of the gallbladder
b) empyema of the gallbladder
c) jaundice, cholangitis
d) chronic active hepatitis
e) perforated cholecystitis, peritonitis
167. LATERAL PAIN RESISTANCE OF THE ANTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL IN THE PROJECTION OF THE
PANCREAS IN ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS THE NAME OF THE SYMPTOM
a) Mayo-Robson
b) Kerte
c) Gray-Turner
d) Mondor’s
e) Voskresensky
168. SPOTS OF CYANOSIS ON THE LATERAL WALLS OF THE ABDOMINAL IN ACUTE PANCREATITIS
CHARACTERISTIC FOR THE SYMPTOM:
a) Grunwald
b) Mondor’s
c) Gray-Turner
d) Ker’s
e) Voskresensky
169. ALL FORMS RELATED TO ACUTE PANCREATITIS, EXCEPT:
a) edematous
b) pseudotumorous pancreatitis
c) fatty pancreatic necrosis
d) hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
e) purulent pancreatitis
170. IN HEMORRHAGIC PANCREONEKROSIS NOT INDICATED:
a) emergency laparotomy
b) laparoscopic abdominal drainage
c) therapeutic catheterization of the celiac artery
d) antispasmodics, analgesics, protease inhibitors, fluorouracil
e) massive infusion therapy
171. THE MOST COMMON SYMPTOM OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS:
a) nausea and vomiting
b) hyperthermia
c) jaundice
d) bloating
e) pain in the upper abdomen
172. IN TREATMENT OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS DO NOT USE:
a) analgesics
b) infusion therapy
c) cytostatics
d) antispasmodics
e) morphine
173. DEVELOPMENT OF FATTY PANCREONEKROSIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
a) the secretion of a-cells of the islets of Langerhans
b) the secret of b-cells of the islets of Langerhans
c) a-amylase
d) lipase and phospholipase A
e) trypsinogen
174. PANCREATIC TOXEMIA IS CAUSED BY EVERYTHING BUT:
a) trypsin
b) histamine
c) bradykinin
d) kallikrein
e) amylase
175. PROCESSING THE DEVELOPMENT OF ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION CAN:
a) weakness of the abdominal muscles
b) alcohol abuse
c) eating fatty and spicy foods
d) eating large amounts of food rich in fiber
e) psychotrauma
176. FOR SMALL-INTESTINE INVAGINATION IT IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC ONLY:
a) bloody discharge from the rectum
b) acute development in children
c) palpable tumor formation in the right iliac region
d) cramping abdominal pain
e) preferential development in adults
177. IN ACUTE OBTURATIVE BOWEL OBSTRUCTION, EVERYTHING IS OBSERVED BUT:
a) persistent abdominal pain
b) bloating
c) the gradual development of peritonitis
d) cramping abdominal pain
e) stool and gas retention
178. Large-intestinal obstructive obstruction most often
CAUSED BY:
a) foreign bodies
b) gallstones
c) malignant tumors
d) adhesions of the abdominal cavity
e) helminths
179. IN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION, IT IS INSUFFICIENT ONLY:
a) gastroenterostomy
b) hemicolectomy in combination with enterostomy
c) resection of a section of the intestine
d) colostomy
e) Mikulich's operation
180. SOUND PERISTALTIC NOISES IN THE EARLY PERIOD OF DISEASE ARE CHARACTERISTIC FOR:
a) paralytic intestinal obstruction
b) perforated stomach ulcer
c) mechanical intestinal obstruction
d) gangrenous cholecystitis
e) mesenteric thrombosis
181. PAIN SYNDROME WITH INTESTINAL OBLIGATION IS CHARACTERIZED:
a) constant dull pain in the abdomen
b) acute "dagger" pain
c) minor intermittent pains in various departments
abdominal
d) severe cramping pain
e) severe persistent abdominal pain
182. THE MOST FREQUENT LOCALIZATION OF INVAGINATION IS:
a) cecum
b) ileocecal segment
c) ileo-ileal (iliac-iliac) segment
d) sigmoid colon
e) rectosigmoid department
183. THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF PERITONITIS IS:
a) acute appendicitis
b) perforated ulcer
c) salpingitis
d) strangulation of the small intestine
e) stomach cancer
184. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR PERITONITIS:
a) tachycardia
b) dry tongue
c) muscle tension of the anterior abdominal wall
d) lack of intestinal peristalsis
e) diarrhea
185. WITH SUBDIAPHRAGMATIC ABSCESS, IT CAN HAVE A PLACE IN EVERYTHING EXCEPT:
a) decrease in respiratory excursion of the lungs
b) high standing of the dome of the diaphragm
c) friendly effusion into the pleural cavity
d) pain radiating to the supraclavicular region
e) diarrhea
186. COLORED BALL LIQUID IN THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IS OBSERVED IN ALL CASES EXCEPT:
a) perforation of the gallbladder
b) perforation of duodenal ulcer
c) prolonged obstructive jaundice
d) rupture of a festering echinococcal cyst of the liver
e) spontaneous biliary peritonitis
187. THE LOWER WALL OF THE INJECTION CANAL IS:
a) transverse fascia
b) the lower edge of the external oblique abdominal muscle
c) zhimbernatova ligament
d) inguinal ligament
e) the edge of the ilium
188. WHEN INTRACTION OF A HERNIA IN A PATIENT WITH ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS SHOWN:
a) observation, cold on the stomach
b) reduction of the hernia
c) the introduction of antispasmodics
d) Trendelenburg position
e) emergency operation
189. IRREDUCIBLE HERNIA IS A CONSEQUENCE OF:
a) adhesions between the organs protruding into the hernial sac and the wall of the sac
b) adhesions between the intestinal loops protruding into the hernial sac
c) cicatricial process between the hernial sac and the surrounding his tissues
d) inconsistency of the organs released into the hernial sac with the size of the hernial orifice
e) all of the above
190. FEMORAL HERNIA DIFFERENCES WITH ALL DISEASES EXCEPT:
a) cold drip
b) inguinal hernia
c) lipomas
d) cysts of the Bartholin gland
e) varicose veins
191. INDICATION FOR EMERGENCY SURGERY FOR SPONTANEOUS REGULATION OF A INCREDIBLE
HERNIA IS:
a) the presence of a hernial protrusion
b) the appearance of peritoneal signs
c) temperature rise
d) dysuric phenomena
e) the very fact of spontaneous reduction
193. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR PURPOSE IS:
a) high prevalence of the disease
b) more frequent development in men
c) preferential education at a young age
d) more persistent than with a gastric ulcer, the course
194. RELATIVE INDICATIONS FOR SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ULCER DISEASES AT:
a) pyloric stenosis
b) recurrence of ulcer bleeding after endoscopic stopping of it
c) low bulbous ulcers
d) malignant degeneration of the ulcer
e) atypical ulcer perforation
195. ETHIOPATOGENETICALLY JUSTIFIED OPERATING METHOD FOR UNCOMPLICATED DUODENAL
ULCERS IS:
a) SPV (selective proximal vagotomy)
b) ideal antrumectomy
c) combination of antrumectomy with vagotomy
d) high (2/3 or more) gastric resection
e) stem or selective vagotomy
196. THE HIGHEST ACIDITY NUMBERS ARE OBSERVED IN PURPOSE:
a) the fundus of the stomach
b) antrum
c) the pyloric canal
d) bodies
e) the cardiac part of the stomach
197. ENDOSCOPIC EXAMINATION DOES NOT ALLOW TO DIAGNOSE:
a) type of gastritis
b) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
c) early stomach cancer
d) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
e) the degree of pyloric stenosis
198. SPLITTING FOAM BLOOD OF BRIGHT RED COLOR, INCREASING WITH COUGH, CHARACTERISTIC
FOR:
a) bleeding stomach ulcers
b) tumors of the cardia
c) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
d) pulmonary hemorrhage
e) Randu-Osler syndrome
199. TO ESTABLISH THE SOURCE OF GASTRODUODENAL BLEEDING ALLOWS:
a) X-ray examination of the stomach
b) laparoscopy
c) nasogastric tube
d) re-determination of hemoglobin and hematocrit
e)FGDS
202. THE OPERATION OF SELECTION IN PERFECT GASTRIC ULCERS UNDER CONDITIONS OF PURULENT
PERITONITIS IS:
a) suturing perforation
b) excision of the ulcer with stem vagotomy and pyloroplasty
c) gastric resection
d) SPV with suturing of perforation
e) true antrumectomy
203. MEKKEL DIVERTICLE MAY CAUSE:
a) intussusception
b) intestinal obstruction
c) perforation
d) bleeding
e) all of the above is true
204. THE MOST SEVERE FORM OF ACUTE PARAPROCTITIS IS:
a) ischiorectal
b) retrorectal
c) submucous
d) pelviorectal
e) subcutaneous
205. IN ACUTE RIGHT-LATER INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION AND THE SEVERE CONDITION OF THE PATIENT
SHOULD DO:
a) right-sided hemicolectomy
b) the imposition of a bypass ileotransverse anastomosis
c) suspended ileostomy
d) cecostomy
e) resection of the intestine with a tumor
206. SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ANAL FACTION INCLUDES:
a) stretching the sphincter of the rectum
b) diathermocoagulation of the crack
c) excision of the crack
d) moxibustion with tincture of iodine
e) all of the above is true
207. THE MOST RATIONAL TREATMENT FOR ACUTE PARAPROCTITIS IS:
a) physiotherapy
b) sitz warm baths
c) puncture of the abscess
d) antibiotic therapy
e) opening the abscess
208. GASTROSTOMIA IS SHOWN IN:
a) inoperable cancers of the esophagus and cardia
b) nutrition of unconscious patients
c) bleeding stomach ulcer
d) swallowing disorders after surgery with irradiation of the pharynx
e) recurrent bleeding from varicose veins of the esophagus
209. RADICAL SURGERY FOR STOMACH CANCER ARE:
a) distal subtotal gastric resection
b) proximal subtotal resection
c) gastrectomy
d) extended combined operations
e) all listed operations
210. THE BASIC METHOD OF TREATMENT OF CARDIOSPASM IS:
a) Geller cardioplasty
b) Nissen fundoplication
c) cardiodilation
d) various methods of extramucous plastic
e) bougie
223. THE BASIC METHOD FOR DIAGNOSING GASTRIC CANCER IS:
a) ultrasound of the abdominal organs
b) gastroscopy with biopsy
c) laparoscopy
d) fluoroscopy
e) enzyme immunoassay
224. FOR A CLINICAL PICTURE ACUTE BLOOD LOSS IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC:
a) weakness
b) thirst
c) dizziness
d) bradycardia
e) tachycardia
228. ACUTE APPENDICITIS SHOULD DIFFERENTIATE WITH ALL THE LISTED DISEASES, EXCEPT:
a) glomerulonephritis
b) acute pancreatitis
c) acute adnexitis
d) acute gastroenteritis
e) right-sided renal colic
229. IN ACUTE APPENDICITIS IN THE ELDERLY AGE, IT IS PERFECT TO USE:
a) endotracheal anesthesia
b) intravenous anesthesia
c) local anesthesia
d) epidural anesthesia
e) spinal anesthesia
230. CONTRAINDICATION TO EMERGENCY APPENDECTOMY IS:
a) appendicular infiltration
b) myocardial infarction
c) the second half of pregnancy
d) hemorrhagic diathesis
e) diffuse peritonitis
232. IN ACUTE PHLEGMONOUS APPENDICITIS, THE SYMPTOM IS NOT OBSERVED:
a) Shchetkin-Blumberg
b) Bartomier-Michelson
c) Kocher-Volkovich
d) Georgievsky-Mussey
e) Krymova
233. ABSCESS OF DUGLASOV SPACE AFTER APPENDECTOMY IS CHARACTERIZED BY ALL SIGNS, EXCEPT:
a) hectic temperature
b) pain in the depth of the pelvis and tenesmus
c) limiting the mobility of the diaphragm
d) overhanging of the walls of the vagina or the anterior wall of the rectum
e) soreness during rectal examination
234. THE MOST IMPORTANT IN THE DIAGNOSTICS OF THE ABSCESS OF DOUGLASOV'S SPACE IS:
a) sigmoidoscopy
b) laparoscopy
c) percussion and auscultation of the abdomen
d) digital examination of the rectum
e) fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity
235. MEKKEL DIVERTICLE IS LOCATED TO:
a) jejunum
b) the ileum
c) the ascending colon
d) cecum
e) sigmoid colon
236. IN A TYPICAL PICTURE OF ACUTE APPENDICITIS, OPERATING ACCESS IS:
a) lower midline laparotomy
b) section according to Volkovich-Dyakonov
c) pararectal
d) transrectal
e) cross section
237. FOR APPENDICITIS COMPLICATED BY SPILLED PERITONITIS, USE THE ACCESS:
a) transrectal
b) pararectal
c) Kocher
d) middle
e) Volkovich-Dyakonov
238. NORMAL BLOOD BILIRUBIN LEVEL:
a) 0.10-0.68
b) 8.55-20.52
c) 2.50-8.33
d) 3.64-6.76
e) 7.62-12.88
240. AFTER CHOLECYSTEKTOMY, DRAINAGE IS MOST OF ALL APPLIED:
a) according to Robson-Vishnevsky
b) according to Halstead-Pikovsky
c) according to Spasokukotsky
d) according to Ker
e) combined drainage according to Pikovsky and Spasokukotsky
241. A PATIENT WITH CHOLEDOCHOLITIASIS NEEDS:
a) in an emergency operation
b) in conservative treatment
c) in urgent surgery after preoperative preparation
d) in celiac artery catheterization
e) in plasmapheresis
242. STONE FORMATION IN THE GALL BLADDER IS FACILITATED BY EVERYTHING BUT:
a) stagnation of bile in the bladder
b) metabolic disorders
c) inflammatory changes in the gallbladder
d) biliary dyskinesia
e) disorders of pancreatic secretion
243. GALL STONE DISEASE CAN CAUSE ANYTHING BUT:
a) vesico-duodenal fistula
b) obstructive jaundice
c) acute cholecystitis
d) intraperitoneal bleeding
e) cholangitis
247. DEVELOPMENT OF METEORISM IN PATIENTS WITH ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS CAUSED BY:
a) compression of the duodenum by the edematous head of the pancreas
b) frequent indomitable vomiting
c) intestinal paresis
d) deficiency of pancreatic hormones
e) enzymatic insufficiency of the pancreas
248. THE BASIC IN THE PATHOGENETIC TREATMENT OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS:
a) suppression of the secretory function of pancreas
b) elimination of hypovolemia
c) inactivation of pancreatic enzymes
d) nasogastric decompression of the gastrointestinal tract
e) the introduction of cytostatics
249. WITH A COMBINATION OF ACUTE PHLEGMONOUS CHOLECYSTITIS AND FATTY PANCREONEKROSIS:
a) active conservative therapy
b) emergency operation
c) conservative therapy and, if acute events have subsided, surgical treatment
d) dynamic observation against the background of conservative therapy and, in case
development of diffuse peritonitis, surgical treatment
e) laparoscopic abdominal drainage
for peritoneal dialysis
250. POSTNECROTIC COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS ARE RELATED TO:
a) pancreatic shock
b) acute liver failure
c) abscess of the omental bursa
d) pancreatogenic peritonitis
e) hemorrhagic pancreatitis
251. THE MOST COMMON CLINICAL AND MORPHOLOGICAL FORM OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS IS:
a) edematous pancreatitis
b) fatty pancreatic necrosis
c) hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
d) purulent pancreatitis
e) fatty pancreatic necrosis with enzymatic peritonitis
252. IN THE FIRST THREE DAYS OF DISEASE WITH ACUTE PANCREATITIS, APPLICATION IS
CONTRAINDICATED:
a) ultrasound
b) histroscopy
c) RCPG
d) fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs
e) laparoscopy
253. CLINICAL PANCREONEKROSIS IS NOT CHARACTERIZED:
a) girdle pain in the abdomen
b) repeated vomiting
c) pneumoperitoneum
d) collapse
e) tachycardia
254. INVAGINATION RELATED TO OBSTRACTION:
a) spastic
b) paralytic
c) obstructive
d) strangulation
e) mixed
255. IN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION, IT IS NOT PRACTICALLY USED:
a) angiography of the celiac artery
b) laboratory research
c) abdominal auscultation
d) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
e) digital examination of the rectum
256. BLOOD CIRCULATION IN THE MESENTERIUM IS NOT IMPAIRED AT:
a) bloat
b) obturation
c) nodulation
d) intussusception
e) infringement
257. THE FASTEST DEVELOPMENT OF INTESTINAL NECROSIS ARISES WHEN:
a) obturation of the ileum with a tumor
b) obturation of the colon with a tumor
c) obturation of the lumen of the jejunum with a gallstone
d) nodulation
e) obturation of the lumen of the colon with fecal calculus
258. CANNOT PROMOTE THE DEVELOPMENT OF STRANGULATORY INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION:
a) long narrow mesentery
b) adhesions of the abdominal cavity
c) a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure
d) overeating after prolonged fasting
e) prolonged fasting
259. NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR ACUTE HIGH INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION:
a) a rapid decrease in VCB
b) indomitable vomiting
c) bloating in the first hours of the disease
d) rapid dehydration
e) cramping pains
260. THE MAIN CAUSE OF PARALYTIC IMPOSSIBILITY IS CONSIDERED:
a) volvulus
b) intussusception
c) peritonitis
d) fecal impaction
e) abdominal trauma
261. FOR THE TREATMENT OF PARALYTIC ILEUS, EVERYTHING IS CONDUCTED BUT:
a) nasogastric aspiration
b) intravenous infusion
c) sedatives
d) immediate laparotomy
e) perirenal blockade
262. THE REACTIVE STAGE OF PERITONITIS CONTINUES:
a) 4-6 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 72 hours
e) more than 72 hours
263. THE MAIN SYMPTOM OF PERITONITIS IS:
a) vomiting
b) abdominal pain
c) bloody stools
d) stool and gas retention
e) tension of the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall
264. THE BEST WAY TO OPEN THE SUBDIAPHRAGMATIC ABSCESS IS:
a) thoracolaparotomy
b) lumbotomy
c) two-stage transpleural access
d) laparotomy according to Fedorov
e) extrapleural extraperitoneal method
265. BLOOD EXSUDATE IN THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IS ALWAYS OBSERVED, EXCEPT:
a) tuberculous peritonitis
b) violations of ectopic pregnancy
c) mesenteric thrombosis
d) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
e) a twisted ovarian cyst
266. RICHTER IS CALLED INTRESSION:
a) parietal
b) sigmoid colon in a sliding hernia
c) stomach in a diaphragmatic hernia
d) Meckel diverticulum
e) vermiform appendix
267. THE PRESENCE OF THE ESTATE IN THE HERNIA SACKS CHARACTERISTIC FOR HERNIA:
a) sliding
b) restrained
c) femoral
d) congenital
e) oblique inguinal
269. THE HERNIA SAC OF A CONGENITAL HERNIA IS FORMED:
a) parietal peritoneum
b) the mesentery of the intestine
c) the vaginal process of the peritoneum
d) visceral peritoneum
e) transverse fascia
270. MOST OF ALL IN THE FORMATION OF SLIDING HERNIA ARE PARTICIPATED BY:
a) jejunum and ileum
b) sigmoid and descending colon
c) cecum and bladder
d) oil seal
e) fatty suspensions of the colon
271. WHEN RESECTION OF THE LEADING DEPARTMENT OF THE INCREDIBLE INTESTINE, they retreat to:
a) 30-40 cm
b) 20-25 cm
c) 10-20 cm
d) 5-10 cm
e) 2-3 cm
272. IN CASE OF GASTRIC ULCER:
a) much more often than with duodenal ulcer, it is used surgery
b) increased motor function of the stomach during the interdigestive period
c) low pH numbers in the antrum
d) more rare than with duodenal ulcer, degeneration into cancer
e) less pronounced gastritis than with duodenal ulcer
274. THE MOST PHYSIOLOGICAL METHOD OF GASTRIC RESECTION IS CONSIDERED:
a) Billroth-2 modified by Hofmeister-Finsterer
b) resection in the modification of Ru
c) Billroth-1
d) modification of Balfour
e) Reichel-Polia resection
275. IN CASE OF A BLOODY CURRENT OF THE BODY OF THE STOMACH AND A LOW DEGREE OF
OPERATIONAL RISK IS SHOWN:
a) wedge-shaped excision of a bleeding ulcer with pyloroplasty and stem vagotomy
b) resection of the stomach with a bleeding ulcer
c) wedge-shaped excision of a bleeding ulcer with SPV
d) suturing a bleeding ulcer with pyloroplasty and stem vagotomy
e) excision of the ulcer
276. THE MOST FREQUENT COMPLICATION OF ANTERIOR WALL ULTRA IS:
a) perforation
b) bleeding
c) penetration into the head of the pancreas
d) malignancy
e) everything is wrong
277. FOR PERFORATIVE GASTRODUODENAL ULCER CHARACTERISTIC:
a) sudden onset with sharp pain in the epigastrium
b) a gradual increase in pain syndrome
c) cramping sharp pain
d) profuse repeated vomiting
e) rapidly growing weakness, dizziness
278. DISAPPEARANCE AND THE APPEARANCE OF "MELENA" IN DUODENAL ULCERS IS CHARACTERISTIC
FOR:
a) pyloroduodenal stenosis
b) perforation of the ulcer
c) malignancy of the ulcer
d) bleeding
e) penetration into the pancreas
279. SURGERY FOR DUODENAL ULCERS IS NOT INDICATED FOR:
a) the hormonal nature of the disease
b) massive bleeding
c) pyloric stenosis
d) the occurrence of ulcers during treatment with ulcerogenic drugs
e) lack of effect from conservative therapy
280 IS NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR DECOMPENSATED SENOSIS OF THE PILORUS:
a) vomiting of food eaten the day before
b) tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
c) oliguria
d) "splash noise" in the stomach on an empty stomach
e) retention of barium in the stomach for more than 24 hours
281. THE MOST COMMON CAUSES OF SMALL INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION ARE:
a) foreign bodies
b) gallstones
c) benign tumors
d) adhesions of the abdominal cavity
e) malignant tumors
283. THE THEORY IS CONSIDERED IN THE OCCURRENCE OF HEMORRHOIDS:
a) infectious
b) mechanical
c) endo- and exogenous intoxication
d) hypertrophy of the corpora cavernosa
e) neurogenic
284. IN ACUTE THROMBOSIS OF HEMORRHOIDAL VEINS DO NOT USE:
a) analgesics
b) anticoagulants
c) presacral blockade
d) sclerotherapy
e) diet
285. IN PYLORODUODENAL STENOSIS, IT IS NECESSARY FIRST TO RESEARCH:
a) the volume of circulating blood
b) the electrolyte composition of the plasma
c) intragastric pH
d) duodenal contents
e) diuresis
304. ACUTE APPENDICITIS SHOULD BE DIFFERENTIATED WITH ALL OF THE LISTED DISEASES, EXCEPT:
a) glomerulonephritis
b) acute pancreatitis
c) acute adnexitis
d) acute gastroenteritis
e) right-sided renal colic
305. PRIMARY-GANGRENOUS APPENDICITIS MOST OFTEN MEETS:
a) in children
b) in persons with severe trauma
c) in men
d) in women
e) in elderly and senile people
306. WHEN OPERATIONS FOR ACUTE APPENDICITIS IN ELDERLY PERSONS AGE PERFECT APPLICATION:
a) endotracheal anesthesia
b) intravenous anesthesia
c) local anesthesia
d) epidural anesthesia
e) spinal anesthesia
307. IN ACUTE PHLEGMONOUS APPENDICITIS IS NOT OBSERVED SYMPTOM:
a) Shchetkin-Blumberg
b) Bartomier-Michelson
c) Kocher-Volkovich
d) Georgievsky-Mussey
e) Krymova
308. WITH THE MOVEMENT OF A STONE FROM THE GALL BLADDER IN COLD DOES NOT DEVELOP:
a) hepatic colic
b) jaundice
c) purulent cholangitis
d) stenosing papillitis
e) Budd-Hiari syndrome
309. IT IS NOT USED TO DETECT CHOLEDOCHOLITHIASIS:
a) ultrasound
b) intravenous cholecystocholangiography
c) RCPG
d) transhepatic cholegraphy
e) hypotonic doudenography
310. ARE NOT CHARACTERISTIC FOR ACUTE CATARRAL CHOLECYSTITIS:
a) nausea
b) Kera's symptom
c) Murphy's symptom
d) lack of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
e) Mussey symptom
311. INTRAOPERATIVE HOLANGIOGRAPHY NOT SHOWN:
a) with a single large stone in the bladder and narrow choledochus
b) with cancer of the head of the pancreas
c) if there is a history of jaundice
d) with the expansion of the common bile duct
e) with jaundice at the time of surgery
312. COURVOISIER SYMPTOM IS NOT OBSERVED IN CANCER:
a) the head of the pancreas
b) supraduodenal part of the common bile duct
c) retroduodenal part of the common bile duct
d) large duodenal papilla
e) gallbladder
313. METHOD OF CHOICE IN TREATMENT OF CHRONIC CALCULAR CHOLECYSTITIS?
a) dissolution of calculi with litholytic preparations
b) microcholecystostomy
c) remote wave lithotripsy
d) cholecystectomy
e) complex conservative therapy
315. WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF THE DEVELOPMENT OF MECHANICAL
WHAT YELLOW?
A) cicatricial strictures of the extrahepatic biliary tract
B) choledocholithiasis
C) cancer of the head of the pancreas
D) liver echinococcosis
E) liver metastases of tumors
317. WHICH METHOD OF PREOPERATIVE INSPECTION IS MOST INFORMATIVE FOR ASSESSMENT OF
PATHOLOGY BILIARY TRACT?
A) intravenous infusion cholangiography
B) endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C) percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
D) ultrasound
E) oral cholecystocholangiography
318. WHICH STUDY HAS THE MOST INFORMATIVE
FOR DIAGNOSING CALCULAR CHOLECYSTITIS?
A) oral cholecystocholangiography
B) laparoscopy
C) an overview X-ray of the abdominal cavity
D) ultrasound
E) endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
320. PATIENT 35 YEARS OLD, ADDRESSED TO THE CLINIC WITH THE DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE PANCREIATIT. THE MOST INFORMATIVE TEST IS THE RESEARCH:
A) blood amylase
B) trypsinogen
C) aminotransferase
D) aldolases
E) lactase
321. MECHANISM OF THE TREATMENT OF CYTOSTATICS IN ACUTE PANCREATE:
A) blockade of the vagus nerve
B) reduction of inflammation in the gland
C) pain relief
D) blockade of protein synthesis in the gland
E) inactivation of pancreatic enzymes
322. SPECIFY THE LABORATORY TEST OF THE INTERNAL SECRETARY FUNCTIONS OF THE PANCREAS:
A) blood insulin
B) blood secretin
C) blood pancreozymin
D) blood enzymes
E) blood adrenaline
323. NAME THE DIGESTIVE HORMONES PARTICIPATING IN THE REGULATION PANCREATIC JUICE
SECRETION CYES:
A) kallikrein
B) secretin, pancreozymin
C) bradykinin
D) trypsin
E) adrenaline
324. NORMAL VALUES OF AMYLASE ACTIVITY IN BLOOD SERUM COMPOSE
A) 2-8 mg / h ml
B) 12-32 mg / h ml
C) 0 mg / h ml
D) 4 mg / h ml
E) 8 mg / h ml
326. TRANSVERSE PAIN RESISTANCE OF THE ANTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL IN THE PROJECTION OF THE
PANCREAS IN ACUTE PANCREATITIS BEARS THE NAME OF THE SYMPTOM:
A) Mayo-Robson
B) Kerte
C) Gray-Turner
D) Mondor’s
E) Voskresensky
327. ESOPHAGOGASTRODUODENOSCOPY IN PATIENTS WITH ACUTE PANCREATITIS LETS PRODUCT:
A) assessment of the state of the large duodenal papilla
B) confirmation of the presence of acute pancreatitis
C) clarification of the localization of the process in the pancreas
D) determining the prevalence of gland lesions
E) establishing the form of acute pancreatitis
331. THE EARLY AND PERMANENT SYMPTOM OF ACUTE INTESTINE PERFECT IMPOSSIBILITY IS:
A) stool and gas retention
B) increased peristalsis
C) cramping abdominal pain
D) asymmetry of the abdomen
E) vomiting
332. AT NODE FORMATION, INTESTINAL INTEGRITY AND TURNING:
A) conservative measures should be taken To resolve obstruction
B) emergency operation is shown
C) operation in the "cold" period is preferable
D) dynamic observation is necessary
E) all the answers are wrong
333. WHEN INSUFFICIENT LOOP OF THE SMALL INTESTINAL IS PRODUCED:
A) resection of the adductor loop, 20 cm away from necrosis
B) bowel resection within the visible border of necrosis
C) the imposition of a bypass anastomosis
D) removal of the intestine
E) resection of the abduction loop, 15-20 cm away from necrosis
334. SCHWARTZ'S TEST IS A TEST ON:
A) the presence of bilirubin-gluconoid
B) drug tolerance
C) study of the passage of barium through the intestine
D) coagulopathy
E) the presence of blood in the feces
335. IN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION, IT IS INSUFFICIENT ONLY:
A) gastroenterostomy
B) hemicolectomy in combination with enterostomy
C) resection of a section of the intestine
D) colostomy
E) Mikulich's operation
337. THE MAIN SYMPTOM OF OBTURATIVE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION - THE BRIDGE IS:
A) persistent abdominal pain
B) cramping abdominal pain
C) vomit of the color of "coffee grounds"
D) bloating
E) melena
338. MAIN IN THE DIAGNOSTICS OF ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION IS AN:
A) the nature of the pain
B) history and laboratory data
C) clinical course of the disease
D) X-ray picture
E) physical examination
339. ON THE MECHANISM OF OCCURRENCE OF INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION DIVIDED BY:
A) mechanical and dynamic
B) colonic, small intestinal and mixed
C) obturation, strangulation and mixed
D) high and low
E) paralytic and spastic
340. SPASTIC ILEUS ARISES WHEN:
A) hypokalemia
B) porphyrin disease
C) pancreatitis
D) peritonitis
E) in none of these conditions
341. THE BEST WAY OF OPENING THE SUBDIAPHRAGM ABSCESS IS AN:
A) thoracolaparotomy
B) lumbotomy
C) two-stage transpleural access
D) laparotomy according to Fedorov
E) extrapleural extraperitoneal method
342. LARRHEA'S HERNIA IS DIAGNOSED AT:
A) plain fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity
B) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
C) X-ray contrast examination of the stomach
D) ultrasound
E) contrast examination of the esophagus
343. FOR POSTOPERATIVE VENTRAL HERNIA CHARACTERISTIC:
A) frequent irreducibility
B) wide hernial gates
C) dense edges of the hernial orifice
D) tendency to infringement
E) no tendency to increase
344. DIFFERENTIATE FEMORAL HERNIA FROM VARICOSIS THE OVAL FOOL IS ALLOWED:
A) ascending functional phlebography
B) auscultation (blowing noise when coughing) and palpation of the reverse
coughing blood waves
C) puncture of the node
D) thermography
E) radiography
345. THE UPPER PART OF THE SCARP TRIANGLE IS LIMITED:
A) sartorius muscle
B) scallop fascia
C) inguinal ligament
D) lacunar ligament
E) gimbernath ligament
346. WITH PHLEGMON OF THE HERNIA SAC THE OPERATION BEGINS:
A) from opening phlegmon
B) with a median laparotomy
C) with the isolation of the hernial sac from the surrounding tissues
D) with puncture of the hernial sac
E) with simultaneous operation from two accesses
347. WHEN RESECTION OF THE LEADING DEPARTMENT OF THE INCREDIBLE INTESTINE LOST:
A) by 30 – 40cm
B) by 20-25 cm
C) by 10-20 cm
D) by 5-10 cm
E) by 2-3 cm
348. ABOUT THE VIABILITY OF THE INTACTED INTESTINE SAYS:
A) no effusion in the abdominal cavity
B) the presence of fluid in the intestinal lumen
C) the state of the intestinal leading loop
D) the dimensions of the adductor loop of the intestine
E) the presence of intestinal peristalsis
349. WHAT KIND OF ACUTE INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION CAUSES RETRO HAPPY INTRACTION OF THE
SMALL INTESTINE?
A) adhesive
B) functional
C) obstructive
D) strangulation
E) mixed (obturation + strangulation)
350. WHAT TO RECOMMEND TO A PATIENT 80 YEARS OLD WITHOUT HARD SOMATIC
PATHOLOGIES AT FREQUENT INCRESSION HERNIA?
A) conservative treatment aimed at stool regulation
B) emergency surgery - hernia repair
C) elective surgery after outpatient examination
D) hospitalization, observation in the surgical department
E) wearing a suspensor
352. WHAT IS AN ELDERLY PATIENT WITH MIDLELINE HERNIA BEFORE OPERATION TO EXAMINATE THE
STOMACH?
A) to determine the nature of the organ in the hernial sac
B) to identify the size of the hernia gate
C) to identify peptic ulcer
D) to exclude stomach tumors
E) to exclude gastrostasis
355. WHOM IS FEMORAL HERNIA OBJECTED MORE?
A) in men
B) in women
C) in childhood
D) in adolescents
E) in old age in men
356. INDICATE THE CHARACTERISTIC SYMPTOMS OF STRANGULATING IN THE URINARY HERNIA
BUBBLE:
A) pain in the area of hernial protrusion
B) tenesmus
C) stool and gas retention
D) dysuria, hematuria
E) dyspepsia
358. FOR WHAT FORMS OF HERNIA, THE HERNIA SAC is IN THE SEED NOW CROWN?
A) straight inguinal
B) congenital and acquired oblique, reductive inguinal
C) postoperative
D) Spiegel line
E) inguinal hernias in women
360. WHAT IS RICHTER'S HERNIA INCISION?
A) infringement of the intestine in the area of the duodenal-jejunal sac
B) infringement of the twisted sigmoid colon
C) entrapment of the stomach in a diaphragmatic hernia
D) any parietal infringement of the intestine
E) entrapment of a Meckel diverticulum in an inguinal hernia
363. ABSOLUTE INDICATION FOR SURGERY IN ULCER DISEASE ARE:
A) a penetrating ulcer with the formation of an interorgan pathological fistula
B) a large pyloric ulcer, threatening the development of stenosis during healing
C) a combination of giant ulcers of the stomach and duodenum 12
D) the presence of a genetic predisposition to peptic ulcer disease
E) persistent duodenogastric reflux with gastritis and ulcer
364. WITH DECOMPENSATED PILORODUODENAL STENOSIS APPLICATION SHOWN:
A) SPV with pyloroplasty
B) stem vagotomy with gastroduodenoanastomosis
C) selective vagotomy with gastroenteroanastomosis
D) economical gastric resection with SPV
E) economical gastric resection with stem or selective vagotomy
365. FOR COMPENSATED PYLORODUODENAL STENOSIS CHARACTERISTIC:
A) the serious condition of patients, exhaustion, dehydration, weakness
B) profuse daily, sometimes repeated, often fetid vomiting
C) thirst, decreased urine output, constipation, and sometimes diarrhea
D) constant painful belching with an unpleasant smell
E) hungry pains in the epigastric region
366. THE MOST COMMON COMPLICATION OF PENETRATING STOMACH ULCER IS AN:
A) development of pyloric stenosis
B) malignant ulcer
C) the formation of an interorgan fistula
D) profuse bleeding
E) perforation
367. THE MOST RATIONAL OPERATION FOR STOMACH ULCER IS:
A) classical resection of at least 2/3 of the stomach
B) ideal (true) antrumectomy with removal of the ulcer
C) selective proximal vagotomy
D) stem vagotomy with pyloroplasty
E) excision of the ulcer
368. AT THREAT OF RECURRENT GASTRODUODENAL ULCER DUODENAL BLOODCURRENT RECOMMENDED:
A) exclusively conservative therapy
B) emergency surgery
C) urgent operation
D) systematic endoscopic control
E) surgical treatment in a planned manner
377. WHAT IS THE CONSERVATIVE METHOD OF STOPPING THE GASTROINTESTINAL
BLEEDING IS MOST EFFECTIVE?
A) transfusion of small doses of blood
B) intravenous administration of calcium and vicasol preparations
C) intake of peros thrombin, plasmin and aminocaproic acid
D) endoscopic application of the bleeding source with film-forming
drugs
E) endoscopic electrocoagulation of the bleeding source
379. OPERATION OF SELECTION FOR DECOMPENSATED STENOSIS AS AN OLD AGE?
A) subtotal gastric resection
B) antrumectomy with vagotomy
C) pyloroplasty with vagotomy
D) pyloric gastric resection
E) gastroenteroanastomosis
380. WHEN IS CONSERVATIVE TREATMENT INDICATED FOR AN EXERCISED ULCER?
A) if it is impossible to carry out the operation under general anesthesia
B) with the simultaneous presence of active pulmonary tuberculosis
C) with a clinical picture of general peritonitis
D) if the perforation occurred one hour before admission to the hospital
E) upon refusal of the patient from the operation
381. EVERYTHING IS RELATED TO TYPICAL COMPLICATIONS OF HEMORRHOIDS EXCEPT:
A) infringement of hemorrhagic nodes
B) inflammation of hemorrhagic nodes
C) thrombosis of hemorrhoids
D) paraproctitis
E) knots falling out
382. THE MEKKEL DIVERTICLE IS MOST OF ALL MANIFESTED:
A) bloody vomiting
B) intestinal bleeding
C) small bowel obstruction
D) constipation
E) diverticulitis
383. A PREDOMINING FACTOR IN THE EMERGENCE OF ANAL CHANNEL CRACK IS:
A) constipation
B) chronic paraproctitis
C) sphincter insufficiency
D) cryptite
E) papillitis
384. A RADICAL TREATMENT FOR ANAL FUNCTION IS:
A) stretching the sphincter of the rectum
B) diathermocoagulation of the crack
C) excision of the crack
D) moxibustion with tincture of iodine
E) all of the above is true
385. THE APPEARANCE OF "SPLASH NOISE" IN ACUTE INTESTINAL OBLIGATION
BRIDGE EXPLAINS:
A) the presence of effusion in the abdominal cavity
B) the accumulation of liquid and gas in the bowel adductor loop
C) accumulation of liquid and gas in the bowel discharge loop
D) the presence of free gas in the abdominal cavity
E) all of the above is incorrect
386. THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD OF INSTRUMENTAL DIAGNOSTIC STIKS OF ACUTE INTESTINAL
OBSTRUCTION IS
A) plain radiography of the abdominal cavity
B) laparoscopy
C) angiography
D) gastroscopy
E) colonoscopy
389. DURING EXAMINATION OF THE PATIENT, THE DIAGNOSIS OF “ACUTE PHLEGMONOUS
APPENDICITIS "WITHOUT PERITONITIS EFFECTS. FOR THE PERFORMANCE OF APPENDECTOMY,
OPTIMAL ACCESS WILL BE:
A) according to Kocher
B) pararectal incision
C) lower midline laparotomy
D) according to Volkovich - Dyakonov
E) transrectal incision
390. DEVELOPMENT OF PILEFLEBITIS IS MOST PROBABLY AT ONE OF THE FOLLOWING
GENERAL FORMS OF ACUTE APPENDICITIS:
A) catarrhal
B) phlegmonous
C) primary gangrenous
D) gangrenous with the transition of the necrotic process to the mesentery of the appendix
E) appendicular infiltrate
391. SPILLED PURULENT PERITONITIS CAN BE A CONSEQUENCE OF ALL NUMERICAL DISEASES, EXCEPT:
A) perforation of Meckel's diverticulum
B) destructive appendicitis
C) stenosis of the large duodenal papilla
D) Richter's infringement of hernia
E) acute intestinal obstruction
392. EVERYTHING IS CHARACTERISTIC FOR THE LATE STAGE OF PERITONITIS, EXCEPT:
A) bloating
B) hypovolemia
C) the disappearance of intestinal noise
D) hypoproteinemia
E) enhanced peristalsis
393. HOW IS THE DIAGNOSIS OF GENERAL PERITONITIS BEFORE OPERATED TO BE ESTABLISHED?
A) radiographically
B) anamnestically
C) laboratory determination of signs of an inflammatory reaction
D) by clinical signs
E) by the level of secretion of gastric juice
394. AMONG THE COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE PERITONITIS MEETS SHOCK, SEPSIS, SHOCK LUNG,
PNEUMONIA. WHAT ELSE DO YOU COULD BE ABOUT CHARACTERISTIC COMPLICATIONS?
A) hepatic renal failure
B) hypercoagulability
C) dysproteinemia
D) acute expansion of the stomach
E) pulmonary embolism
396. SPECIFY ADDITIONAL METHOD FOR TREATMENT OF ACUTE PURULENT PERITONITIS MOST
FREQUENTLY USED AFTER OPERATION?
A) drainage of the thoracic lymphatic duct with lymphosorption
B) hemosorption
C) intravenous forced diuresis
D) endolymphatic administration of antibiotics
E) local intraventricular hypothermia
397. AMONG THE REASONS PREFERRING THE EMERGENCY PARAPROCTITIS, IN THE FIRST PLACE IS
WORTH:
A) hemorrhoids
B) damage to the rectal mucosa during medical procedures
C) microtrauma of the rectal mucosa
D) gunshot wounds of the rectum
E) inflammatory diseases of organs adjacent to the rectum
401. FOR CHRONIC PARAPROCTITIS, THE MOST CHARACTERISTIC IS AN?
A) hematuria
B) the presence of a fistulous opening on the skin of the perineum
C) the release of scarlet blood at the end of the act of defecation
D) pain in the lower abdomen
E) diarrhea
402. TYPICAL FOR HEMORRHOIDS:
A) frequent loose stools, tenesmus, mucous-bloody discharge, Periodic increase in body temperature
B) severe pain after defecation, the release of drops of blood after it, Chronic constipation
C) unstable stool, sometimes mixed with blood, feces of the "sheep" type
D) constant pain in the anus, Worse after taking alcohol and spicy foods, Anal itching
E) the release of scarlet blood during bowel movements, Enlargement of hemorrhoids
403. THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF TREATMENT OF CHRONIC HEMORRHOUS IS:
A) surgical - hemorrhoidectomy
B) conservative - diet, suppositories, microclysters
C) sclerotherapy
D) ligation with latex, silk
E) physiotherapy
404. THE MOST COMMON FORM OF PARAPROCTITIS?
A) subcutaneous paraproctitis
B) submucous paraproctitis
C) ischio-rectal
D) pelvic-rectal
E) intercondylar paraproctitis
405. OPERATION FOR ACUTE PARAPROCTITIS IS BEST CONDUCT:
A) under intravenous anesthesia
B) under local anesthesia
C) with the use of sacral anesthesia
D) under epidural anesthesia
E) using any type of anesthesia, except for local anesthesia
406. CONSERVATIVE THERAPY FOR ACUTE ANAL FUNCTION CONSIDERED:
A) stool normalization
B) medicinal enemas
C) removal of sphincter spasm
D) the use of topical agents that promote healing of the wound surface
E) all of the above