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A 54-year-old client is going on an ocean cruise. What medication would be most effective for motion
sickness?
a. Ondansetron
A 70-year-old client is being treated for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with theophylline.
What will be a priority assessment by the nurse?
a. Nicotine Use
A client arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse
notes that the patient has vomiting, diarrhea, chest pain and confusion. When conducting a health history,
the nurse learns the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patients’
symptoms as:
a. Ergotism
A client asks the nurse how the anti-infective works in their body. What key point will the nurse use to
explain this to the client?
a. The goal of anti-infectives is to interfere with normal functioning of the organism.
A client has localized muscle spasms after an injury. The prescriber has ordered dantrolene to alleviate the
spasms. When obtaining the patient’s health history, the nurse should be concerned about which of the
following as a possible reason for considering another drug?
a. A history of liver damage
A client is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining
the clients medication history the nurse learns the client experienced a rash when given amoxicillin as a
child. What will the nurse do?
a. Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.
A client is being given theophylline to treat acute asthma symptoms. Which of the following foods should
the client avoid that may interfere with this medication?
a. Chocolate
A client is brought to the clinic by his daughter for a routine appointment. The daughter tells the nurse
that her father has only taken half of his amoxicillin prescription because he has limited finances and is
saving them for when he gets another infection. What does the nurse teach the client that is a potential
consequence of this behavior?
a. Increased risk for developing a superinfection.
A client brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The patient is in distress. The nurse
suspects an anaphylactic reaction resulting from taking oral penicillin. Which assessment finding would
support that diagnosis?
a. Facial swelling, difficulty breathing.
A client is given a prescription for gentamycin and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the
amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct?
a. A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster.
A client is receiving morphine 2-4mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The client is asleep, and the nurse notes a
heart rate of 86 bpm and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse
give this client?
a. Naloxone (Narcan) to block the effects of the morphine.
A client presents to the emergency department having an acute asthma attack. The physician has ordered
a sympathomimetic (epinephrine). The nurse expects what as the therapeutic effect of this drug?
a. Dilation of the bronchi with increased rate and depth of respirations.
A client receiving a cephalosporin develops severe diarrhea and fever. The nurse suspects a superinfection
and possible infection with which of the following?
a. Clostridium difficile
A client taking metoclopramide has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse will be most
concerned about a drug-drug interaction when learning the client is taking what other medication?
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a. Digoxin
15. A client who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation.
What does the nurse know about morphine?
a. It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.
16. A client with bronchitis is taking cotrimoxazole. Before administering the dose, the nurse notes that the
client has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103F and a heart rate of 100bpm. The patient looks ill and
reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?
a. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.
17. A client with chronic bronchial asthma is prescribed montelukast. What will the nurse instruct the client to
avoid taking?
a. Aspirin or other NSAIDS
18. A geriatric client received an opioid analgesic before leaving the post-anesthesia care unit to return to the
regular unit. Identify the priority nursing action by the nurse when the patient returns to their room?
a. .
b. Put side rails up and place bed in low position.
19. A nurse collects a culture sample of infected tissue. What does the result of testing the culture contribute
to the client’s care?
a. Identifies the specific organism causing the infection.
20. A nurse admitting a client to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen but stopped taking the
drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?
a. Seizures and hallucinations
21. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking NSAIDs. What statement made by the client indicates to
the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of the use of this therapy?
a. I asked my doctor to check for blood in my stool regularly.
22. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intrathecal baclofen. The client is unresponsive. After asking a
coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
a. Preparing to support respirations.
23. A nurse is caring for a client with severe rheumatoid arthritis who takes anti-inflammatory agents on a
regular basis. Which one of the following medications would have a negative interaction with an antiinflammatory agent?
a. Aspirin
24. A nurse is presenting an educational event for a group of new parents. One topic that the nurse addresses
is the overuse of acetaminophen, which can cause liver toxicity. What would the nurse tell the parents it’s
important to do?
a. Check the label of OTC medications carefully to watch for inclusions of acetaminophen in the
ingredients.
25. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who will be going home on baclofen prescribed for his
acute musculoskeletal pain. The nurse will stress the client should avoid what?
a. Drinking alcohol
26. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of asthma. Which of the following medications should
the nurse instruct the client to use to abort an acute asthma attack?
a. Albuterol
27. A nurse is teaching a client who has asthma about how to use an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following
actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. The client holds his breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
28. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student
reflects an understanding of the teaching.
a. Local anesthetics affect large, myelinated neurons first.
b. Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves.
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29. A nurse preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to a client notes that the dose is half the usual
dose for an adult. The nurse suspects that this is because the client has a history of:
a. Interpatient variation
30. A nursing student is caring for a client who is taking sucralfate and ciprofloxacin to treat peptic ulcer
disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the
student indicates a need for further teaching?
a. Sucralfate had a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity.
31. A patient has been taking psyllium (Metamucil) 2-3 times daily for several days. The patient complains of
stomach pain but has not had a stool What will the nurse do?
a. Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.
b. Palpate the patient’s abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.
32. A postop client is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone for pain. The client asks the
nurse about using additional acetaminophen for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
a. Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity.
33. A client is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the client took a whole
bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8-10 hours ago. The nurse will
anticipate administering which of the following?
a. Acetylcysteine
34. An inhaled sympathomimetic drug has been ordered for an athlete who has exercise-induced asthma.
What should the client be instructed to do?
a. Use inhaler 30-60 minutes before exercising to ensure peak therapeutic levels when needed.
35. A patient’s provider has recommended a bulk-forming laxative for occasional constipation. Which
statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching about this agent?
a. I should take each dose with a full glass of water.
36. Antipyretic medications (aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen) are used to alleviate the discomforts of fever
and to protect vulnerable organs, such as the brain from extreme elevations in body temperature.
However, the use of aspirin in children is limited due to the possibility of what disease?
a. Reye’s syndrome
37. Clients taking metoclopramide need to be assessed for extrapyramidal symptoms. What effects are
considered adverse effects of the metoclopramide?
a. Spasms, abnormal facial and neck movements
38. The client is admitted to the acute care facility with an acute infection and has orders to receive
gentamicin and ampicillin IV. The nurse is performing an admission assessment that includes a complete
nursing history. What information provided by the client would indicate the need to consult the health
care provider before administering the ordered medication?
a. Takes furosemide, a potent diuretic daily.
39. A client receives a prescription for an antibiotic to treat a urinary tract infection. The client asks the nurse,
would you ask the doctor to give me refills on this prescription? I get a UTI almost once a year and I’d like
to have a refill I can store for the next time, so I don’t have to come back to the clinic. What’s the nurse’s
priority response?
a. Saving antibiotics for another time and self-diagnosing when antibiotics are needed leads to
resistant organisms that no longer responds to antibiotics.
40. The following medications are prescribed by the health care provider for a client having an acute asthma
attack. Which one will the nurse administer first?
a. Albuterol (Ventolin) 2.5mg per nebulizer
41. The nurse administers loperamide (Imodium) to decrease the number and liquidity of stool by what
mechanism?
a. Decreasing intestinal motility
42. The nurse administers psyllium expecting it to have what action?
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a. Adds bulk to the stool.
43. The nurse administers ranitidine cautiously to clients with evidence of what condition?
a. Renal disease
44. The nurse caring for a 38yo client started on albuterol should advise the client that he/she may experience
what adverse effect?
a. Tachycardia
45. The nurse has provided client teaching for a client who will be discharged to home on an anti-infective.
What statement made by the client indicates the nurse needs to provide additional teaching concerning
the use of anti-infectives?
a. I will stop taking the antibiotic as soon as I feel better.
46. The nurse is admitting a 12yo girl to the acute care facility and notices discolored secondary teeth. The
mother says she doesn’t know why the teeth are discolored because the child is very good about brushing
and flossing and sees the dentist regularly. What questions would the nurse ask?
a. Has she ever received tetracycline?
47. The nurse is caring for a client experiencing postoperative pain. The physician orders 2.5mg morphine IV
every 2 hours. Morphine is supplied in 10mg/ml vials. How many mL will the nurse administer?
a. 0.25
48. The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV aminoglycosides for an intractable infection in the leg. What
would it be important for the nurse to monitor this client for?
a. Renal dysfunction.
49. The nurse is caring for a client receiving penicillin. The nurse knows this type of antibiotic works by what
mechanism?
a. Inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis
50. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an opioid analgesic. What are the nurse’s priority
assessments?
a. Level of sedation and respiratory rate.
51. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron for nausea associated with chemotherapy.
The nurse would teach the client that what adverse effect may occur with this medication?
a. Headache and myalgia
52. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge with a prescription for sucralfate and teaches the client to
take the medication when?
a. 1hour before or 2 hours after meals and at bedtime
53. The nurse is preparing to contact the physician for an antibiotic order for the client’s infection. What
information will the nurse be prepared to provide for the physician to choose the proper antibiotic?
a. Culture and sensitivity test results
54. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who is being sent home on oral tetracycline. What
instructions should the nurse include?
a. Take the drug on an empty stomach.
55. The nurse teaches a client with rheumatic disease who is being prescribed salicylate therapy to monitor
himself for toxicity. Which symptom is a potential indication of toxicity?
a. Tinnitus
56. The nurse, writing a care plan for a client on an aminoglycoside, includes what intervention to reduce the
accumulation of the medication in the kidneys?
a. Increase fluids.
57. The physician orders dantrolene for a patient with severe spasticity. In what circumstances is the
mediation dantrolene contraindicated?
a. Spasticity that contributes to upright position
58. What action does the hitamine-2 antagonist administered by the nurse have on the human body that will
help to prevent peptic ulcer disease?
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a. Reduces the amount of hydrochloric acid secreted.
59. What classification of drugs does the nurse administer to treat peptic ulcers by suppressing the secretion
of hydrochloric acid into the lumen of the stomach?
a. Proton pump inhibitors
60. What is the best indicator of decreased nausea after administration of promethazine?
a. Client states, “I feel less nauseated.”
61. What is the difference between antitussive medications and expectorants? The best response by the nurse
to explain this is:
a. Antitussives suppress coughing and expectorants loosen bronchial secretions.
62. What is the therapeutic action of the prochlorperazine in reducing nausea?
a. Change responsiveness of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
63. What nursing interventions are included in the plan of care for a client receiving antacids to relieve GI
discomfort?
a. Administer the antacid 1 hour before or 2 hours after other oral medications.
64. What priority teaching point does the nurse include when instructing clients about the use of antacids?
a. Be aware of risk of acid rebound with long-term use.
65. When administering anti-infectives to patients, the nurse is aware of the risk for what potentially fatal
adverse effect?
a. Anaphylaxis
66. When caring for a client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer, the nurse administers omeprazole along with what
antibiotic to eradicate Helicobacter pylori?
a. Amoxicillin
67. Why are inhaled steroids used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
a. They act locally to decrease release of inflammatory mediators.
68. Your client has maintained on theophylline for many years and has recently taken up smoking. The nurse
would expect the theophylline level for this client to:
a. Fall because nicotine stimulates liver metabolism of theophylline.
69. What priority teaching point does the nurse include when instructing clients about the use of antacids?
a. Be aware of risk of acid rebound with long-term use.
70. What action does the histamine-2 antagonist administered by the nurse have on the human body that will
help to prevent peptic ulcer disease?
a. Reduces the amount of hydrochloric acid secreted.
71. What drug is a safe and effective calcium channel blocker only if the nurse administers them as sustainedrelease or extended-release preparations to treat hypertension?
a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
72. While studying the antihypertensive drugs, the nursing students learn that the pressure in the
cardiovascular system is determined by three elements. What are they? (select all)
a. Heart rate
b. Stroke volume
c. Total peripheral resistance.
73. The nurse works with the patient diagnosed with hypertension and the patient’s family to determine the
goal of drug therapy for the patient taking an antihypertensive medication is what?
a. Maintaining the blood pressure within normal limits.
74. An older adult patient is taking a sustained-release antihypertensive drug. What is the nurse’s priority
teaching point about this medication?
a. Swallow the drug whole and do not cut, crush or chew it.
75. A patient taking diltiazem (Cardizem) for hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment.
What adverse effects would the nurse assess the patient for?
a. Peripheral edema and bradycardia
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76. A patient with glaucoma has been prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox). What adverse effects would the
nurse caution the patient about?
a. Paresthesia
b. Confusion
c. Drowsiness
77. A patient has just been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). After reviewing the patient’s medication history,
what drug would cause the nurse concern when taken with furosemide (Lasix)?
a. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
78. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a patient who has been prescribed
hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). Which situation would contraindicate the administration of
hydrochlorothiazide?
a. Allergy to sulfa drugs
79. Identify statement as T/F. There are 3 phases of general anesthetic, administration of general anesthetics:
induction, maintenance, recovery.
a. True
80. Before administering a macrolide antibiotic, the nurse would question the order for what patient?
a. 12-yo boy with hearing loss
81. For which client would the administration of an epidural block be most appropriate?
a. Second stage of labor.
82. A plan of care formulated by an OR nurse includes four nursing diagnoses. Which diagnoses will the nurse
include that is directly related to safety?
a. Risk for injury related to CNS depressive effects of drugs.
83. The nurse is caring for a patient in a state of hypnosis, which means the patient is in what state?
a. A state of extreme sedation in which the person no longer senses or reacts to incoming stimuli.
84. Which of the following are found to be as important as drug therapy when treating infections in
immunosuppressed?
a. Proper nutrition.
85. You are caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with pseudomonas. You know that in deciding
what medication to order for this patient the MD will take into account:
a. Drugs that cause the least complications
86. T/F: Because the adverse effects of the aminoglycosides, it is important to teach the patient to restrict
fluids and eat 6 small meals a day.
a. False
87. You are writing a plan of care for a patient receiving cefaclor. What would be an appropriate nursing
diagnosis for this patient?
a. Deficient fluid volume and imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to
diarrhea.
88. What is a contraindication to receiving a fluoroquinolone?
a. Allergy to cipro
89. T/F: Sulfonamides should not be given with thiazide diuretics because of a cross sensitivity of the drugs.
a. True
90. What important assessment should the nurse make before a patient receives a general anesthesia?
a. Assess skin lesions.
91. The GI system is controlled by the nerve plexus which maintains basic electrical rhythm.
a. True.
92. When the renal capsule becomes irritated the GI tract shuts down.
a. True
93. Drugs act in several ways on the secretions of the GI tract. Which action affects the GI secretions least?
a. Replaces secretions.
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94. There is a drug-drug interaction between the anti-peptides and penicillin.
a. False
95. What H2 antagonist has been associated with antiandrogenic effects?
a. Cimetidine
96. Which of the following is a very popular OTC laxative?
a. Bisacodyl
97. Pepto-Bismol can be involved in salicylate toxicity.
a. True
98. Why should laxatives be taken only on a short-term basis?
a. To prevent cathartic dependence.
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