Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) To practice, paramedics must be approved not only by a regulatory agency, but also by:
A) a federal bureau.
B) the EMS systemʹs medical director.
C) a professional organization.
D) local authorities.
E) hospital administrators.
1)
2) Paramedics working in close contact with medical direction to provide care to patients in their
homes and to treat patients at emergency scenes without transport are examples of:
A) tertiary health care.
B) dependent health care.
C) palliative health care.
D) primary health care.
E) managed health care.
2)
3) The paramedic must be able to function ________ at an optimum level in a non -structured,
constantly changing environment.
A) aggressively
B) occasionally
C) fully
D) independently
E) thoroughly
3)
4) Many professional sports teams have found paramedics to be effective complements to their:
A) athletic trainers.
B) HMOs.
C) players.
D) physician assistants.
E) chiropractors.
4)
5) The primary concern of the paramedic is:
A) following system protocols.
B) the emergency patient.
C) the orders of the medical director.
D) the integrity of the unit.
E) the ability to practice invasive skills.
5)
6) A major advance in the development of EMS as a true health care profession was:
A) Our Bodies, Our Selves.
B) Emergency Incident Management.
C) Emergency!
D) Basic Trauma Life Support.
E) the National Occupational Competency Profiles.
6)
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7) Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined as a result of:
A) legislation.
B) litigation.
C) research.
D) lawsuits.
E) court orders.
7)
8) Safety inspections, accident prevention programs, medical screenings, and vaccination and/or
immunization programs are some of the responsibilities of paramedics working in:
A) industrial medicine.
B) ACLS.
C) sports medicine.
D) neonatal intensive care programs.
E) trauma care.
8)
9) One result of the increasing specialization of health care facilities has been expansion of the
paramedic role in:
A) ACLS.
B) neonatal care.
C) BCLS.
D) BTLS.
E) critical care transport.
9)
10) Ensuring that your patient receives the best possible care describes the characteristic of
A) leadership.
B) integrity.
C) compassion.
D) patient advocacy.
E) empathy.
10)
11) The publication that FIRST focused attention on the problem of emergency medical services was:
A) ʺAccidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.ʺ
B) ʺInjury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem.ʺ
C) ʺNational Occupational Competency Profiles.ʺ
D) ʺKKK-A-1822.ʺ
E) ʺA Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems.ʺ
11)
12) The program designed to refine and improve an EMS system with a special emphasis on customer
satisfaction is:
A) PDQ.
B) QPI.
C) CQI.
D) QID
E) QA.
12)
13) One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research in the future is:
A) funding.
B) medical direction.
C) public education.
D) communications.
E) transportation.
13)
2
14) In 1988, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration defined 10 elements necessary to all
EMS systems. Which of the following items is NOT one of those elements?
A) transport
B) consumer participation
C) evaluation
D) medical direction
E) regulation and policy
14)
15) The medical policies, procedures, and practices that have been set up in advance of calls by a
system physician are all elements of:
A) on-line medical direction.
B) medical management guidelines.
C) off-line medical direction.
D) the incident command system.
E) a tiered response system.
15)
16) The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient -care aspects of an EMS system is
the:
A) medical director.
B) system manager.
C) system administrator.
D) resource director.
E) ombudsman.
16)
17) ________ is accomplished by entering a personʹs name and essential information within a
particular record.
A) Authorization
B) Registration
C) Reciprocity
D) Certification
E) Licensure
17)
18) One element of EMS quality improvement requires following rigorous rules of evidence before a
new medication, process, or procedure is adopted. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for
rules of evidence?
A) There must be a theoretical basis for the change.
B) There must be ample scientific human research to support the idea.
C) The change must be clinically important.
D) It must be practical, affordable, and teachable.
E) The cost of the change should not be a factor when considering it.
18)
19) Which of the following is an EMR NOT permitted to do?
A) Perform spinal stabilization.
B) Perform CPR.
C) Perform endotracheal intubation.
D) Assist in childbirth.
E) Perform a primary assessment.
19)
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20) The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are:
A) ethics.
B) guidelines.
C) codes.
D) morals.
E) protocols.
20)
21) The use of continuing education programs is one way a paramedic can:
A) avoid lawsuits.
B) achieve practitioner status.
C) achieve intervener status.
D) be classified Level II.
E) maintain certification.
21)
22) A basic rule of thumb that can be applied to taking EMS continuing education programs is that as
the volume of calls decreases, training should:
A) correspondingly decrease.
B) remain at its initial level.
C) correspondingly increase.
D) focus only on frequently used skills.
E) none of the above
22)
23) Defending patients, protecting them, and in general acting in their best interests are all examples of
the professional attribute of:
A) empathy.
B) respect.
C) patient advocacy.
D) integrity.
E) leadership.
23)
24) Professionalism is a(n):
A) correlative to pay.
B) elective.
C) impression.
D) avocation.
E) attitude.
24)
25) Paramedics are often put in charge of a patientʹs wallet or other personal possessions. Treating
these things properly is an illustration of the professional attribute of:
A) integrity.
B) patient advocacy.
C) empathy.
D) respect.
E) leadership.
25)
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26) Which of the following is an example of a way in which paramedics support primary care for
patients in the out-of-hospital setting?
A) treat and release
B) lock and load
C) stay and play
D) load and go
E) assess and aid
26)
27) During the response, one of the paramedicʹs chief responsibilities is:
A) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.
B) decontaminating the unit.
C) anticipating risks based on dispatch information.
D) familiarizing herself with the local geography
E) assessing the patientʹs responsiveness.
27)
28) Making lists and keeping a personal calendar are two ways in which the paramedic can
demonstrate the professional attribute of:
A) communication skills.
B) self-motivation.
C) careful delivery of service.
D) time management skills.
E) teamwork.
28)
29) The conduct or qualities that characterize a practitioner in a particular field or occupation are
referred to as:
A) etiquette.
B) standards.
C) scope of practice.
D) ethics.
E) professionalism.
29)
30) Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedicʹs primary responsibilities?
A) treatment and management
B) scene assessment
C) response
D) preparation
E) rehabilitation
30)
31) During what phase of the CISM process do crews get a chance to vent their feeling about an
incident?
A) deferral
B) CISD
C) demobilization
D) defusing
E) preincident stress training
31)
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32) Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the ʺfight-or-flightʺ response?
A) heart rate increases
B) digestion slows
C) increased blood sugar
D) pupils constrict
E) blood pressure increases
32)
33) Which of the following is NOT one of the standard warning signs of cancer?
A) weight gain
B) change in a mole
C) lumps
D) blood in the stools
E) unexplained chronic fatigue
33)
34) To minimize the stress of shift work, on days off a worker should stick to sleeping at his/her:
A) shelter time.
B) control time.
C) anchor time.
D) baseline time.
E) standard time.
34)
35) Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of loss grows out of the patientʹs frustration related to his
inability to control the situation?
A) denial
B) anger
C) depression
D) retraction
E) bargaining
35)
36) Which of the following is NOT likely to be classified as a critical incident?
A) injury or death of an infant or child
B) a prolonged incident
C) a building collapse
D) death of a geriatric CHF patient in the ambulance
E) extreme threat to an EMS worker
36)
37) What personal protective equipment should be worn if you are attending a childbirth?
A) gloves, protective eyewear, N-95 respirator
B) gloves and mask
C) gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear
D) no PPE is required as newborns pose no risk of infection
E) gloves, protective eyewear, gown
37)
38) When developing muscular strength, you may use the form of exercise in which muscles are
worked through their full range of motion. This is known as:
A) hypertonic exercise.
B) isotonic exercise.
C) isoscelian exercise.
D) isometric exercise.
E) iatrogenic exercise.
38)
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39) Into which of the following categories of warning signs of excessive stress do suspiciousness,
exaggerated humor, and crying spells fall?
A) behavioural
B) cognitive
C) affectual
D) emotional
E) physical
39)
40) The study of the factors that influence the frequency, distribution, and causes of injury, disease,
and other health-related events in a population is known as:
A) toxicology.
B) epidemiology.
C) otolaryngology.
D) sociology.
E) pathophysiology.
40)
41) Which of the following factors is a key indicator of potentially poor health in newborns?
A) respiratory rate of 30 to 60
B) heart rate of 100 to 180
C) oxygen saturation of 95 to 98%
D) low birth weight
E) systolic blood pressure of 60 to 90
41)
42) The policies adopted by many managed-care organizations and HMOs that have led to increased
calls to EMS involve:
A) prenatal clinics.
B) early discharges.
C) medication errors.
D) immunizations.
E) elder-care clinics.
42)
43) Medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is
referred to as:
A) tertiary prevention.
B) anticipatory prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) primary prevention.
E) quaternary prevention.
43)
44) Programs that focus on keeping injuries from ever occurring are examples of:
A) anticipatory prevention.
B) primary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
E) quaternary prevention.
44)
45) Injury is the number ________ killer of Canadians under the age of 45 years.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
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45)
E) five
46) The most frequent cause of death in children is:
A) falls.
B) drowning.
C) burns.
D) shootings.
E) MVCs.
46)
47) Years of productive life lost are determined by subtracting the age at death from
A) 78 for men and 83 for women.
B) 65.
C) 75.
D) 55.
E) 83 for men and 87 for women.
47)
48) When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can
vindicate your actions to others is known as the:
A) ethical efficacy test.
B) interpersonal justifiability test.
C) universalizability test.
D) impartiality test.
E) Good Samaritan test.
48)
49) The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of:
A) sovereignty.
B) beneficence.
C) justice.
D) secular equality.
E) libertarianism.
49)
50) The idea that each person must decide how to behave and that whatever decision that person
makes is okay is known as:
A) moral positivism.
B) the deontological method.
C) ethical relativism.
D) individual morality.
E) consequentialism.
50)
51) When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be
willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patientʹs place is known as the:
A) interpersonal justifiability test.
B) universalizability test.
C) impartiality test.
D) ethical efficacy test.
E) Good Samaritan test.
51)
52) Which of the following have the widest focus?
A) administrative laws
B) prerequisites
C) ethics
D) statutory laws
E) criminal laws
52)
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53) Territorial or provincial laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases,
and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to
protect the patientʹs:
A) refusal of consent.
B) right of discretion.
C) confidentiality.
D) well-being.
E) autonomy.
53)
54) The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are
known as:
A) protocols.
B) ethics.
C) morals.
D) codes.
E) prerequisites.
54)
55) A power grip involves:
A) the load suspended on the distal phalanges and the palms down.
B) the load supported between the thumb, index finger, and middle finger only.
C) the load resting on the proximal joint of the fingers and the thumbs extended laterally.
D) the palms and fingers in complete contact with the object and all fingers bent at the same
angle.
E) the weight distributed only on the palm of the hand with the fingers extended.
55)
56) The shock position involves positioning the patient with:
A) the supine patientʹs legs elevated 20 to 30 cm.
B) the supine patientʹs head elevated 20 to 30 cm.
C) the hips and legs flexed in a left side-lying position.
D) the patientʹs head and legs elevated 20 to 30 cm.
E) the hips and legs flexed in a right side-lying position.
56)
57) The safest way to move a seated patient up or down stairs is to use a:
A) scoop stretcher.
B) Smith cot.
C) long backboard.
D) standard stretcher.
E) stair chair.
57)
58) The extremity lift should NOT be used if:
A) the patient has injuries to his arms or legs.
B) the patient does not require spinal immobilization.
C) a patient is to be moved from the floor or a chair to a stretcher.
D) there are only two rescuers available.
E) the patient has an altered mental status.
58)
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59) In order to reduce the risk of injury when lifting as a member of a team,
A) all members should take turns being in charge.
B) all coordination should be done using only the eyes and slight nods of the head.
C) verbal signals that are clear to all members of the team should be employed throughout.
D) extensive use of hand and arm signals should be employed.
E) all lifts should be done by one person.
59)
60) Which of the following is NOT considered an emergency move?
A) extremity lift
B) shirt drag
C) blanket drag
D) cradle carry
E) one-rescuer crutch
60)
61) The most appropriate patient moving equipment to use for a patient with a suspected spine injury
who is lying down is a:
A) stair chair.
B) vest-type immobilization device.
C) standard stretcher.
D) long backboard.
E) short backboard.
61)
62) The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a
patient without the patientʹs permission is known as:
A) discretion.
B) confidentiality.
C) primum non nocere.
D) recusal.
E) personal directive.
62)
63) A written statement of a patientʹs own preference for future medical care is a(n):
A) health management statement.
B) patient narrative.
C) advance directive.
D) deposition.
E) power of direction.
63)
64) Performing systematic patient assessments, providing appropriate medical care, and maintaining
accurate and complete documentation offer the paramedic the best protection from:
A) statutory laws.
B) administrative laws.
C) ethical dilemnas.
D) scope of practice.
E) liability.
64)
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65) Promptly responding to both the physical and emotional needs of every patient is an example of a
paramedicʹs:
A) ethical responsibilities.
B) res ipsa loquitur responsibilities.
C) moral responsibilities.
D) scope of practice.
E) legal responsibilities.
65)
66) A person under 18 who is, for legal purposes, considered an adult is a(n):
A) emancipated minor.
B) truant.
C) WICS.
D) PINS.
E) GIDS.
66)
67) Injuring a personʹs name or character through malicious spoken statements is called:
A) breach of confidentiality.
B) deposition.
C) perjury.
D) slander.
E) libel.
67)
68) Most laws allow drivers operating an ambulance on a call to break some laws as long as they:
A) drive with due regard for others.
B) have taken an emergency vehicle driving course.
C) are responding to a truly emergent call.
D) are not involved in an accident.
E) demand the right of way.
68)
69) Which of the following patients would most benefit from air transport?
A) amputation of the fingers
B) pediatric patient with febrile seizures
C) bilateral femur fractures
D) revised trauma score of 14
E) trauma with heart rate of 100
69)
70) Scenario: You are dispatched to a rural area where a 25-year-old male has fallen down a cliff. He
is unresponsive and has several obvious deformities to the extremities. You are an hour from the
nearest facility. You are also 30 minutes from the nearest airport. The best choice for transport of
this patient would be by:
A) ground ambulance slowly.
B) helicopter.
C) fire apparatus.
D) fixed wing aircraft.
E) ground ambulance rapidly.
70)
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71) A disadvantage of air transport is:
A) availability of specialty equipment.
B) access to rural areas.
C) access to specialty facilities.
D) cost.
E) response time.
71)
72) An agencyʹs ability to respond to calls beyond those handled by the on-duty crews is its:
A) reserve capacity.
B) tiered response.
C) back up status.
D) system status.
E) peak load.
72)
73) When regulatory agencies set regulations for equipment on an ambulance, they tend to set:
A) standing orders.
B) gold standards.
C) essential standards.
D) protocols.
E) minimum standards.
73)
74) Which of the following colors is paired correctly with its priority in the START triage system?
A) red/priority 2
B) green/priority 1
C) blue/priority 4
D) yellow/priority 3
E) black/priority 0
74)
75) The process of sorting patients based upon the severity of their injuries is referred to as:
A) moulage.
B) logistics.
C) operations.
D) treatment.
E) triage.
75)
76) Which of the following data is considered essential for the transportation supervisorʹs tracking
sheet?
A) patientʹs age, gender, and injuries
B) driver of the ambulance
C) estimated time of arrival
D) results of treatment rendered
E) treatment rendered
76)
77) The widely accepted guidelines for management of a mass casualty incident were developed by
the:
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
B) National Fire Protection Association.
C) Environmental Protection Agency.
D) National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians.
E) Paramedic Association of Canada.
77)
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78) A physician at a mass casualty incident has ________ over paramedics in the treatment area.
A) no authority
B) indirect control
C) control through protocols
D) direct control
E) control through standing orders
78)
79) Before cutting the battery cable on an automobile, it is important to ________ so the extrication
does not become more complicated.
A) turn off the lights
B) deploy the air bag
C) deflate the tires
D) move back the electric seats
E) crib the vehicle
79)
80) The process of climbing over rocks and/or downed trees on a steep slope without the aid of a rope
is known as:
A) rappelling.
B) scrambling.
C) high-angle rescue.
D) ascending rescue.
E) abseiling.
80)
81) In a high-angle rescue, it is important NOT to use an aerial apparatus as a:
A) crane for lowering the basket.
B) platform for lowering the basket.
C) platform for scene lighting.
D) slide for lowering the basket.
E) tower for observing the extrication.
81)
82) Which type of water rescue involves recirculating currents that can entrap rescuers?
A) strainers
B) rivers
C) hydroelectric intakes
D) sweepers
E) low head dams
82)
83) Which of the following items is part of a patient protective equipment cache?
A) foot protector
B) flashlight
C) gloves
D) protective blanket
E) hazmat suit
83)
84) The universal decon solution, especially for reducing topical absorption, is:
A) water.
B) varsol.
C) isopropyl alcohol.
D) vegetable oil.
E) tincture of green soap.
84)
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85) A 24-hour telephone resource that can contact chemical manufacturers and provide hazmat field
assistance is:
A) CAMEO.
B) CHEMTREC.
C) NAERG.
D) WISER.
E) EPA.
85)
86) If indicated, pulmonary edema caused by chemical irritants can be treated with:
A) Alupent.
B) furosemide.
C) dimenhydrinate.
D) morphine.
E) terbutaline.
86)
87) The decontamination method usually used at a fast-break incident is the:
A) risk-to-benefit process.
B) two-step process.
C) eight-step process.
D) four-step process.
E) invasive decontamination process.
87)
88) The maximum concentration of a substance that should NEVER be exceeded is known as the:
A) ceiling level.
B) immediately dangerous to life concentration.
C) lethal concentration.
D) upper explosive limit.
E) threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit.
88)
89) If you have to approach a dark house with a flashlight, hold the light:
A) to the side of your body.
B) so that it illuminates you and your partner.
C) directly in front of your body.
D) in front of you but behind your partner.
E) in your non-dominant hand.
89)
90) When dealing with a victim of domestic violence, remember that:
A) this is a personal problem and you need to stay out of it.
B) the patient probably did something to provoke the abusive treatment.
C) the abuser may turn on you.
D) most cases of reported abuse are fraudulent and need not be taken seriously.
E) you should question the abuser about the problem.
90)
91) When EMS providers are confronted with a dangerous situation and retreat by an unconventional
path, they are using the method of:
A) treat and release.
B) contact and cover.
C) treat and retreat.
D) distraction and evasion.
E) cover and concealment.
91)
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92) If dispatch advises you that you are responding to a hostage situation, you should:
A) respond with lights and siren.
B) try to negotiate with the gunman.
C) stage until law enforcement secures the scene.
D) follow the police units closely enroute to the scene.
E) enter the structure to treat your patient.
92)
93) Direct and immediate access to medical consultation for the paramedic and the use of telemetry
are two of the benefits of:
A) on-line medical direction.
B) intervener physician access.
C) off-line medical direction.
D) the incident command system.
E) a tiered response system.
93)
94) The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration has set guidelines for quality improvement in
EMS. Which of the following is NOT a component of those guidelines?
A) information and analysis
B) human resources development and management
C) leadership
D) strategic quality planning
E) financing
94)
95) The process by which a regulatory agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an
applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the publicʹs protection is
called:
A) reciprocity.
B) authorization.
C) certification.
D) registration.
E) licensure.
95)
96) The organization responsible for establishing national standardization within the didactic and
clinical portion of paramedic education programs is the:
A) National Association of EMS Physicians.
B) National Council of State Paramedic Training Coordinators.
C) Joint Review Committee on Educational Programs for the EMT -Paramedic.
D) Paramedic Association of Canada.
E) Canadian EMS Education Chancellory.
96)
97) A paramedicʹs offering of consolation and support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is
an example of the professional attribute of:
A) integrity.
B) empathy.
C) patient advocacy.
D) respect.
E) leadership.
97)
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98) A paramedicʹs participation in ʺprudent heart livingʺ campaigns and seat -belt awareness and
child safety-seat programs are examples of his/her:
A) ethical behavior.
B) patient advocacy.
C) integrity.
D) community involvement.
E) time management.
98)
99) A professional paramedic is responsible for acting in a professional manner:
A) when on duty.
B) when conducting public education programs.
C) when in contact with a patient.
D) when in contact with a patient and hospital personnel.
E) when on or off duty.
99)
100) When considering the addition of a new EMS service or enhancement of an existing one,
paramedics should be sure to include a role for:
A) nurses.
B) community members.
C) intervener physicians.
D) the media.
E) attorneys.
100)
101) Which of the following is appropriate PPE when treating a suspected TB patient?
A) venturi mask
B) HEPA respirator
C) self-contained breathing apparatus
D) nonrebreather mask
E) surgical mask
101)
102) One of the keys to preventing a potentially hostile situation is:
A) effective communication.
B) maintaining a closed stance.
C) assertion of your authority.
D) moving into the personal space of bystanders.
E) rapid and aggressive movements.
102)
103) Probably the most important infection-control practice is:
A) proper immunizations.
B) proper disposal of gloves.
C) reverse isolation.
D) handwashing.
E) proper sterilization.
103)
104) Items that paramedics can document on patient forms to help implement future injury prevention
programs include:
A) risks that EMS personnel had to overcome.
B) use or non-use of protective devices.
C) scene conditions at the time of EMS arrival.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
104)
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105) The second-leading cause of injury-related deaths among seniors aged 65 and older is:
A) shootings.
B) motor-vehicle collisions.
C) burns.
D) falls.
E) suicide.
105)
106) If a paramedic suspects a pregnant patient may be having emotional problems adjusting to her
pregnancy, he should:
A) say nothing.
B) transport her immediately to the emergency room.
C) submit a report to his department.
D) refer her to an outside agency.
E) provide her with his personal contact information and advise her to call him anytime.
106)
107) When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an
action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the:
A) ethical efficacy test.
B) interpersonal justifiability test.
C) impartiality test.
D) universalizability test.
E) Good Samaritan test.
107)
108) The MOST common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will
usually face are those that involve:
A) triage.
B) automated external defibrillators.
C) anaphylaxsis.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) drug overdoses.
108)
109) Scenario: Your ambulance is parked outside the hospital when you see a woman leap from a third
floor window and land in the parking lot not far from your vehicle. You and your partner rush to
her and find her bleeding, unresponsive, and having difficulty breathing. You are about to begin to
administer emergency care, when a hospital aide rushes up and says, ʺDonʹt do anything. This
patient has a DNR order.ʺ The aide, however, does not have the order in his possession. You
should:
A) call medical direction and wait for guidance on how to proceed.
B) send the aide back to get the DNR order and begin treatment when he returns.
C) begin treating the patient immediately because you have not seen the DNR order.
D) not intervene as you have not been assigned to the incident by dispatch.
E) package the patient and move her to the emergency department, but make no resuscitative
efforts.
109)
110) Which of the following is a two-rescuer move?
A) blanket drag
B) shirt drag
C) cradle carry
D) extremity lift
E) piggyback carry
110)
17
111) A patient with abdominal pain typically finds comfort when positioned:
A) supine with legs elevated.
B) supine with legs extended.
C) side-lying with knees drawn up.
D) side-lying with legs extended.
E) prone with leg extended.
111)
112) Which of the following devices will provide in-line immobilization of the patientʹs axial skeleton?
A) portable ambulance stretcher
B) stair chair
C) short backboard
D) smith cot
E) pole stretcher
112)
113) Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are three types of:
A) standards of care.
B) breach of duty.
C) proximate conduct.
D) scope of practice.
E) abandonment.
113)
114) When EMS workers encounter cases involving spousal abuse, child neglect, animal bites, and
communicable diseases, the workers must usually:
A) report the cases to local/state authorities.
B) remain silent due to confidentiality laws.
C) undergo CISD.
D) call for law enforcement support.
E) obtain legal counsel.
114)
115) Scenario: You are dispatched to an automobile accident with multiple patients. There is a driving
thunderstorm with heavy lightning. All of the following requests would be appropriate EXCEPT
to have:
A) additional ambulances dispatched.
B) law enforcement dispatched for traffic control.
C) first responders give a scene size-up.
D) a helicopter dispatched.
E) additional fire units dispatched for manpower.
115)
116) Which of the following time factors would necessitate calling for air transport?
A) ground ALS unit 5 minutes away
B) ground transport time to trauma center of 15 minutes
C) extrication time of 15 minutes
D) ground transport to local facility longer than air transport to trauma facility
E) only one ambulance remaining to cover local community
116)
117) Transfer of command is always done:
A) when a senior member arrives on scene.
B) over the radio.
C) after the incident is completed.
D) face to face.
E) through written notice.
117)
18
118) The triage system based on the patientʹs ability to walk, respiratory effort, pulses/perfusions, and
neurological status is the:
A) primary triage system.
B) simple patient assessment system.
C) WALK triage system.
D) START triage system.
E) secondary triage system.
118)
119) The post that supports an automobileʹs roof at the windshield is the:
A) A post.
B) B post.
C) C post.
D) D post.
119)
E) E post.
120) Nearly ________ of all fatalities associated with confined spaces are people attempting to rescue a
victim.
A) 50 percent
B) 60 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 30 percent
120)
121) The most appropriate staging area for a hazmat response would be:
A) 100 meters from the actual product.
B) as close to the scene as possible.
C) downhill.
D) downwind.
E) upwind.
121)
122) A resource for dealing with hazardous material incidents that was developed by the EPA and
NOAA is:
A) CHEMTEL.
B) CAMEO.
C) NAERG
D) the poison control center.
E) CHEMTREC.
122)
123) In a highway encounter, potential warning signs of danger include all the following EXCEPT:
A) similar stories told by occupants.
B) arguing among passengers.
C) physical signs of drug or alcohol abuse.
D) abusive behavior.
E) open or unlatched trunks.
123)
124) To make a safe approach to a vehicle in a roadside emergency, you should:
A) approach from the driverʹs side.
B) dim ambulance lights.
C) approach from the passengerʹs side.
D) use a two-person approach.
E) observe the front seat.
124)
19
125) The highest level of prehospital care provider is:
A) primary care paramedic.
B) physicianʹs assistant.
C) nurse practitioner.
D) advanced care paramedic.
E) critical care paramedic.
125)
126) Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in EMS?
A) recognizing an emergency
B) accessing the EMS system
C) providing financial support for EMS agencies
D) initiating basic life support procedures
126)
127) Which of the following is/are the benefit(s) of taking continuing education programs?
A) keeping up with technological advances in EMS
B) having opportunities for practicing skills
C) expansion of knowledge and skills
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
127)
128) Benefits associated with physical fitness include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) improved self-image.
B) improved mental outlook.
C) enhanced quality of life.
D) maintenance of sound motor skills.
E) enhanced anxiety levels.
128)
129) On a response to a call, paramedics can help patients and onlookers decrease chances of future
emergency calls through the use of:
A) injury-surveillance programs.
B) a teachable moment.
C) a conference call with medical direction.
D) a CISD.
E) the PCR.
129)
130) The four fundamental principles or values used in resolving problems in bioethics today include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A) beneficence.
B) autonomy.
C) nonmaleficence.
D) egalitarianism.
E) justice.
130)
131) Instances where emergency moves should be considered include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) fire or threat of fire.
B) patient with potentially limb-threatening injuries and a significant MOI.
C) inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care.
D) when life-saving care cannot be given because of the patientʹs location or position.
E) inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene.
131)
20
132) ʺCaseʺ law and ʺjudge-madeʺ law are other names for:
A) legislative law.
B) environmental law.
C) constitutional law.
D) administrative law.
E) common law.
132)
133) A system that responds with a basic unit followed by an advanced unit is referred to as a:
A) peak load system.
B) tiered response system.
C) status management system.
D) second alarm system.
E) primary responsibility system.
133)
134) Which of the following signs or symptoms might responders develop when they experience stress
related to a mass casualty incident?
A) more interest in work
B) flashbacks
C) increased physical activity
D) increased sexual drive
E) normal sleep patterns
134)
135) Before beginning patient removal in a low-angle rescue, the rescuers must:
A) call for air transport.
B) ensure media coverage is present.
C) recheck the anchors.
D) call for additional manpower.
E) provide advanced treatment.
135)
136) Introduction of a chemical into the body while initiating a catheter is an example of:
A) parenteral injection.
B) topical exposure.
C) gastrointestinal ingestion.
D) enteral exposure.
E) indirect exposure.
136)
137) When you are dealing with an emotionally disturbed patient, it is most important to:
A) try to diagnosis the patientʹs problem.
B) restrain the patient.
C) have an escape plan.
D) establish your authority at the call through posture and tone.
E) force the patient to go to the hospital.
137)
138) Which of the following are likely subjects of protocols?
A) how to handle DNR orders
B) when to use air transport vs. ground transport
C) which procedures can only be done with direct orders from medical direction
D) A and B only
E) all of the above
138)
21
139) Self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision are all
elements of the paramedic professional attribute of:
A) respect.
B) leadership.
C) empathy.
D) integrity.
E) patient advocacy.
139)
140) All of the following are proper principles to follow when lifting EXCEPT:
A) Ask for help when you need it.
B) Move a load only if you can safely handle it.
C) Lift with your legs, not your back.
D) Keep your palms down when possible.
E) Always avoid twisting and turning.
140)
141) To assure the success of prevention programs, EMS managers have the responsibility to provide
EMS personnel with:
A) instruction in basics of epidemiology.
B) open-ended funding.
C) health check-ups.
D) immunizations.
E) instruction in fundamentals of primary prevention.
141)
142) The right of a competent person to determine what happens to his or her own body is one example
of the principle of:
A) autonomy.
B) self-governance.
C) libertarianism.
D) latitude.
E) license.
142)
143) Which of the following would be an indication to use a direct ground lift?
A) the patient is on the ground or some other low surface
B) patient is unable to sit and a stretcher cannot be brought close to the patient
C) the patient weighs in excess of 75kg and only one rescuer is available
D) the patientʹs location prevents access to other patients requiring life -saving care
E) the patient is combative or uncooperative
143)
144) The category of law that deals with issues involving conflicts between two or more parties such as
personal injury cases, contract disputes, and matrimonial issues is:
A) common law.
B) civil law.
C) magistrate law.
D) interpersonal law.
E) criminal law.
144)
145) Which type of ambulance consists of a modular ambulance body built on a conventional truck
cab-chassis?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
145)
22
146) Which level of triage takes place after patients are moved to a treatment area to determine any
change in status?
A) immediate
B) tertiary
C) delayed
D) secondary
E) primary
146)
147) Safety glass, which consists of three layers fused together, is typically found
A) in an automobileʹs driverʹs side window.
B) in an automobileʹs side and back windows.
C) only in vehicles manufactured after 1998.
D) in an automobileʹs windshield.
E) in an automobileʹs rear window.
147)
148) EMS personnel who perform patient care in the warm zone should receive:
A) operations level training.
B) specialist level training.
C) EMS Level 2 training.
D) awareness level training.
E) EMS Level 1 training.
148)
149) When you are dealing with a crowd in a patient care situation, a sign of potential danger is:
A) the sound of people talking.
B) the presence of law enforcement.
C) a lack of pushing or shoving.
D) a gradual decrease in crowd size.
E) a rapid increase in crowd size.
149)
150) Which of the following is NOT normally a role of the medical director in an EMS system?
A) developing fund-raising strategies
B) develop clinical protocols
C) educating and training personnel
D) participating in personnel and equipment selection
E) participating in quality improvement and problem resolution
150)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
151) List and briefly describe three areas into which paramedic scope of practice has expanded.
151)
152) List and briefly describe three characteristics of a paramedic.
152)
153) Briefly explain the importance of a code of professional ethics and etiquette for
paramedics.
153)
154) Briefly explain ʺPatient Advocacyʺ.
154)
155) List and briefly describe two goals of the National Occupational Competency Profiles.
155)
23
156) List and briefly describe 3 components of an EMS systemʹs communications plan.
156)
157) List and briefly describe the four Ts of emergency care.
157)
158) Briefly describe the difference between quality assurance and continuous quality
improvement.
158)
159) List and briefly explain three benefits of active paramedic membership in professional
organizations.
159)
160) List the primary responsibilities of a paramedic and briefly summarize each in your own
words.
160)
161) List three examples where a paramedic must function as a patient advocate.
161)
162) List and briefly describe two methods by which paramedics may enhance primary care
initiatives in their community.
162)
163) List and briefly describe three benefits of paramedics teaching in their communities.
163)
164) Briefly describe the three methods of decontaminating and provide examples of where
each might be appropriate.
164)
165) List and briefly describe the three phases of the stress response
165)
166) Briefly describe the five stages of loss according to Kubler-Ross.
166)
167) Briefly contrast CIS defusing and CIS debriefing.
167)
168) List and briefly explain three areas where EMS provider commitment is required to
prevent responder illness and injury.
168)
169) List three injury prevention strategies that every paramedic may undertake.
169)
170) List three potential illness and injury prevention programs that EMS professionals in your
community might undertake.
170)
171) Briefly explain the difference between ethics and morals.
171)
172) List and briefly describe the four fundamental principles used to resolve problems in
bioethics.
172)
173) List the steps in resolving an ethical problem.
173)
174) List three examples of when emergency moves would be necessary.
174)
24
175) List three principles of sound body mechanics.
175)
176) List two instances where a patientʹs confidential information may be released.
176)
177) Briefly explain the difference between a living will and a do not resuscitate order.
177)
178) List four recommended actions that a paramedic should take when a patient chooses to
refuse care.
178)
179) Briefly explain the difference between minimum and gold standards with regard to
prehospital care.
179)
180) Briefly contrast the benefits and disadvantages of fixed wing vs. rotary wing air medical
transport.
180)
181) List and briefly describe the roles that exist within the command staff at an MCI.
181)
182) List and briefly describe the role of the functional groups with an EMS branch at an MCI.
182)
183) What five minimum skills are required for rescuers performing low-angle rescue?
183)
184) List three hazards associated with the water rescue environment.
184)
185) List and briefly describe the activities that would occur within each of the three control
zones at a hazardous materials incident.
185)
186) List three sources of information when attempting to identify the hazards associated with
a given product.
186)
187) List and briefly describe three types of evidence that may exist at a crime scene.
187)
188) What options does a paramedic have should violence erupt during the care of a patient.
188)
189) List and briefly describe the three levels of recognized trauma facilities in Canada.
189)
190) List, and in your own words describe, 4 professional attributes of a paramedic.
190)
191) List and cite examples of the core elements of physical fitness.
191)
192) Briefly explain the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary injury prevention.
192)
193) Briefly describe the difference between ethics and law as it pertains to the provision of
prehospital care.
193)
194) List four instances when a paramedic may be obligated to breach patient confidentiality
and report findings to authorities.
194)
25
195) Briefly explain the effect of projected demographic changes and peak load on deployment
of EMS resources.
195)
196) List and briefly describe the 4 components of disaster management.
196)
197) List and briefly describe the phases of a rescue operation.
197)
198) Briefly describe the NFPA 704 marking system and the zones within it.
198)
199) List three commonly observed gang characteristics.
199)
200) Briefly explain why injury prevention programs should specifically target the elderly.
200)
201) List and briefly describe three quick methods of testing ethics.
201)
202) Briefly define ʺemancipated minorsʺ and outline their rights regarding consent.
202)
203) Briefly contrast the benefits and shortcomings of using lights and sirens when responding.
203)
204) List and briefly describe the three priorities when managing an MCI.
204)
205) List three hazards associated with confined space rescues.
205)
206) List and differentiate between the four methods of decontamination.
206)
207) List four components of making a safe approach to a vehicle at a roadside emergency.
207)
208) Briefly identify the difference between expressed, implied, and involuntary consent.
208)
209) Briefly explain the difference between unified and singular command.
209)
210) List three hazards associated with highway operations and vehicle rescues.
210)
211) The role of a paramedic who finds herself first on-scene at a suspected hazardous
materials incident can be divided into 4 specific tasks. They are:
211)
212) List three potential indicators of marijuana grow operations.
212)
213) List and briefly describe the requisites of a successful negligence lawsuit.
213)
214) List three things a paramedic should do when confronted with an on -line medical
directive that he reasonably believes will be harmful to the patient.
214)
215) Briefly describe the difference between ethical, legal, and moral obligations.
215)
26
216) Briefly explain where borrowed servant doctrine would apply in paramedicine.
216)
TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false.
217) Paramedics are required, by scope of practice, to transport all patients.
217)
218) Paramedics are only permitted to work for ambulance services.
218)
219) The ability of the paramedic to think and work independently lends itself well to functioning in
non-traditional roles.
219)
220) Participation in research projects relevant to EMS is an important part of your profession as a
paramedic.
220)
221) The NOCP is the key to defining a national scope of practice for EMS in Canada.
221)
222) A paramedic may perform any skill included in their training program.
222)
223) The organization responsible for accrediting prehospital care training programs is the Paramedic
Association of Canada.
223)
224) An effective EMS dispatching system places ALS care on scene in less than 12 minutes.
224)
225) In case of a disagreement between on-line medical direction and an intervener physician, the
paramedic must take orders from the on-line physician.
225)
226) A tiered response system refers to a system that uses an escalating level of care provider as
determined by dispatch or protocols.
226)
227) Priority dispatching involves EMDs asking a series of protocol driven questions to determine the
acuity of the call and dispatch resources accordingly.
227)
228) A type I ambulance consists of a standard van, body, and cab to form an integral unit.
228)
229) The highest level of trauma centre is the Primary Trauma Centre (PTC).
229)
230) A program designed to maintain continuous monitoring and measurement of the quality of
clinical care delivered to patients is a continuous quality improvement program.
230)
231) To show-and feel-deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation for another is to display
respect.
231)
232) Self-confident paramedics are less likely to require assistance from co-workers than paramedics
who are less self-assured.
232)
233) The implementation of primary care initiatives would allows paramedics to transport patients to
facilities other than hospital emergency departments as a means of cost containment.
233)
27
234) Completing tasks without direct supervision, completing paperwork in a timely manner, and
taking advantage of learning opportunities are all examples of self -motivation.
234)
235) Paramedics are entitled to relax the same as any other person; as such their off -duty conduct will
not reflect on their on-duty professionalism.
235)
236) The paramedicʹs first priority during transfer of a patient from a hospital to another receiving
facility is documenting the verbal report given by the primary-care provider at the hospital.
236)
237) Your appearance, as well as your behaviour, is vital to establishing credibility and instilling
confidence.
237)
238) Key attributes of diplomacy include listening to others, respecting their opinions, and being
flexible.
238)
239) The elements of personal well-being involve mental and emotional well-being, in addition to
physical well-being.
239)
240) When moving heavy objects, if given the choice pull, do not push.
240)
241) The best way to remain safe from infectious diseases when dealing with patients is to consider the
blood and body fluids of every patient you treat as infectious.
241)
242) When lifting objects, use the large muscles in your legs, not your back.
242)
243) When you care for a patient with suspected or confirmed TB or SARS you should wear a HEPA or
N-95 respirator.
243)
244) The highest level of decontamination for medical equipment is disinfecting.
244)
245) The four major food groups are grain products, milk products, vitamins, and supplements.
245)
246) It is always appropriate to capitalize on ʺteachable momentsʺ regardless of the nature of illness or
injury.
246)
247) It is the responsibility of EMS personnel to prevent illness and injury only amongst those persons
involved in similar professions.
247)
248) Primary prevention involves keeping an illness or injury from ever occuring.
248)
249) ʺYears of productive lifeʺ refers to the age at death subtracted from 85.
249)
250) Injuries result from interaction with potential hazards in the environment, as such they may be
both predictable and preventable.
250)
251) Nearly half of all motor-vehicle collision fatalities involve alcohol.
251)
252) Low birth weight is a key indicator of poor health at the time of birth.
252)
28
253) A common approach to resolving problems in bioethics today is to employ four fundamental
principles or values: beneficence, nonmalfeasance, autonomy, and justice.
253)
254) Justice refers to the paramedicʹs obligation to treat all patients fairly.
254)
255) An Impartiality Test - asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar
circumstances.
255)
256) The Interpersonal Justifiability test - asks whether you can defend your actions to others.
256)
257) The single most important question a paramedic has to answer when faced with an ethical
challenge is, ʺWhat is in the patientʹs best interests?ʺ
257)
258) Nonmalfeasance means not doing harm.
258)
259) When performing the power lift you should raise yourself onto your toes to pre-tighten the
hamstring muscles.
259)
260) A slight outward curve should be maintained in the lower back when lifting.
260)
261) A conscious patient who is vomiting or nauseated should be allowed to remain in a position of
comfort.
261)
262) When carrying heavy objects, the rescuer should attempt to keep the weight as far from the body
as possible.
262)
263) The greatest danger in an emergency move is the possibility of worsening a spine injury.
263)
264) A medically appropriate term for swayback is kyphosis.
264)
265) Assault is defined as ʺan act that unlawfully places a person in apprehension of immediate bodily
harm without consentʺ.
265)
266) An emancipated minor is a person under 16 years of age who is married, pregnant, a parent, a
member of the armed forces, or financially independent and living away from home.
266)
267) The four elements needed to sustain a charge of negligence against a paramedic are duty to act,
breach of that duty, actual damages, and proximate cause.
267)
268) A civil wrong committed by one individual against another is called a tort.
268)
269) If it is safe to do so, reasonable force may be used to control an unruly or violent person to prevent
injury to themselves or others.
269)
270) The ʺdue regardʺ standard essentially means that emergency vehicles are exempt from regular
traffic laws enroute to an emergency and must always be afforded the right-of-way.
270)
29
271) Disadvantages of aeromedical evacuation include the ability to access remote areas and increased
access to specialty facilities.
271)
272) A tiered response system allows multiple vehicles to arrive at an EMS call at different times, often
providing different levels of care.
272)
273) Aeromedical evacuation would be indicated for patients with a trauma score < 12, a GCS < 10, or
spinal cord injury producing paralysis.
273)
274) Reserve capacity is the ability of an EMS agency to respond to calls beyond those handled by the
on-duty crews.
274)
275) Unified command is a process where a single individual is responsible for coordinating the
incident; most useful in multi-jurisdictional incidents.
275)
276) The START acronym in triage stands for ʺStandardized Triage Acuity Responsive Treatment.ʺ
276)
277) The individual responsible for preventing the premature commitment of resources and freelancing
by personnel at an MCI is the logistics officer.
277)
278) The safety officer monitors all on-scene actions and ensures that they do not create any potentially
harmful conditions.
278)
279) An open incident is one that has the potential to generate additional patients.
279)
280) Confined-space rescues carry a high risk of oxygen deficiency.
280)
281) The three types of hazardous terrain rescues include ʺlow-angleʺ, ʺhigh-angleʺ and swamp
rescues.
281)
282) Other hazards associated with highway traffic accidents include alternative fuel systems,
energy-absorbing bumpers, and supplemental restraint systems.
282)
283) Disentanglement is the process of freeing a patient from wreckage to allow for proper care,
removal, and transfer.
283)
284) Delayed effects of hazardous materials exposure may cause signs, symptoms, or conditions hours,
day, weeks or even years after the exposure.
284)
285) Product A with an IDLH of 100 ppm is more dangerous than Product B with an IDLH of 50 ppm.
285)
286) The most common route of toxic exposure is topical absorption.
286)
287) A major concern of EMS crews performing postexit medical monitoring of hazmat teams is
hydration status.
287)
288) The best strategy to maintain personal safety is to retreat whenever you spot indicators of violence
or potential physical confrontations.
288)
30
289) When approaching a vehicle at a roadside emergency, one paramedic should approach along the
passenger side while the other observes from the ambulance.
289)
290) Paramedics are fulfilling expanded scope of practice by participating in Tactical EMS teams that
provide on site medical support to law enforcement.
290)
291) Distraction and evasion are techniques used to slow an attacker while retreating to safety.
291)
292) Protocols are designed to reduce the paramedicʹs ability to improvise.
292)
293) At the scene of an emergency, the paramedic is only responsible for the safety of himself and the
patient.
293)
294) The paramedic must employ superior communications skills in order to effectively interact with
patients, their families, bystanders, and fellow care providers.
294)
295) According to Kubler-Ross, the first stage of loss is depression.
295)
296) Isotonic exercise involves muscles exercised in a motionless manner.
296)
297) The core elements of physical fitness include cardiovascular strength, anaerobic endurance, and
back safety.
297)
298) Most children killed in motor-vehicle collisions are pedestrians or cyclists.
298)
299) Falls are the most frequent cause of injury to children younger than six years old.
299)
300) The time frame shortly after an injury occurs when patients and observers may be more receptive
to teaching about how similar injuries may be prevented in the future is known as an injury
surveillance program.
300)
301) Beneficence is defined as the obligation not to harm the patient.
301)
302) The Impartiality test - asks whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if
you were in the patientʹs place.
302)
303) The general principle for paramedics to follow when confronted with an ethical conflict regarding
a life or death intervention is ʺWhen in doubt, resuscitate.ʺ
303)
304) Unless there is a life-threatening emergency, a patient who has been injured should not be moved
until a primary assessment is completed.
304)
305) Body mechanics refers to the safest and most efficient methods of using your body to gain
mechanical advantage.
305)
306) Abandonment is defined as ʺthe termination of the paramedic-patient relationship without
assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continueʺ.
306)
31
307) Informed consent is consent for treatment that is given based on full disclosure of information.
307)
308) The highest volume of calls at a given time is referred to as demographic deployment index.
308)
309) Aeromedical evacuation should be considered if transport to a trauma centre will take > 10
minutes by ground or if patient extrication time exceeds 10 minutes.
309)
310) The public information officer coordinates all incident operations that involve outside agencies.
310)
311) The component of IMS that carries out directions from command and does the actual work at an
incident is operations.
311)
312) The technical portion of a rescue operation begins during the patient access phase.
312)
313) Common risks in confined-space rescues include eddies, strainers, and recirculating current.
313)
314) Two-step decon consists of removing clothing and personal effects followed by gross
decontamination (twice) using soap and water.
314)
315) The flash point of a product is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off enough
vapours to ignite.
315)
316) Signs that may alert you to the involvement of drugs at an EMS call include prior history of drugs
in the neighbourhood of the call and drug paraphernalia visible at the scene.
316)
317) It is important that paramedics are first on scene when responding to reports of violence or
possible danger as incidents frequently escalate if law enforcement arrives first.
317)
318) Autonomy refers to a competent adult patientʹs right to determine what happens to his own body.
318)
319) Whenever possible it is safer to slide or drag your patient rather than lift them.
319)
320) The provision of treatment to an unconscious patient is based upon involuntary consent.
320)
321) Regulations and guidelines set by local and regional EMS systems often approach a gold standard.
321)
322) The commonly accepted order of incident priorities at an MCI is: incident stabilization, life safety,
and property conservation.
322)
323) An in-water, head-up tuck or fetal position designed to reduce heat loss is the START position.
323)
324) Paramedics are more likely to be exposed to secondary contamination than to primary
contamination.
324)
325) The tactic of cover and concealment involves one paramedic providing patient contact (cover) and
the the other paramedic remaining hidden and observing for danger (concealment).
325)
326) A spotter should be used when using a stair chair to help guide and support.
326)
32
327) As a result of ʺborrowed servantʺ doctrine, a paramedic may be responsible for negligent acts
committed by lesser trained personnel under her supervision.
327)
328) A Type II ambulance consists of a conventional truck cab-chassis with a modular body.
328)
329) Span of control refers to the number of people or tasks that a single individual can monitor.
329)
330) Heat loss in water is 25 times faster than heat loss in air.
330)
331) Another term for ʺwarm zoneʺ at a hazmat incident is ʺcontamination reduction zoneʺ.
331)
332) Commonly observed gang characteristics include excessive body piercings, motorcycle riding, and
long hair.
332)
333) Scope of practice refers to the degree of care, skill, and judgement expected under like or similar
circumstances from a similarly trained, reasonable paramedic in the same community.
333)
334) According to New York statistics, the majority of all ambulance collisions occur at intersections.
334)
335) A rapid intervention team exists to care for the immediate needs of ill or injured rescuers only.
335)
336) The terms ʺactive rescue zoneʺ, ʺhot zoneʺ, and ʺinner circleʺ are interchangeable terms used to
describe the area where special rescue teams operate.
336)
337) The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a comprehensive, highly specific procedure manual for
mitigating all types of hazardous materials incidents.
337)
338) Warning signs of impending violence associated with crowds and bystanders include increasingly
loud voices and a rapid increase in the size of the crowd.
338)
339) The three phases of in-water patient immobilzation are: in-water spinal immobilization, rigid
cervical collar application, and backboarding and extrication.
339)
340) Neutralization is the most common method of decontamination used by EMS personnel.
340)
341) Hazards associated with clandestine drug labs include toxic fumes, booby traps, and violent
patients.
341)
33
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
1) B
2) D
3) D
4) A
5) B
6) E
7) C
8) A
9) E
10) D
11) A
12) C
13) A
14) B
15) C
16) A
17) B
18) E
19) C
20) A
21) E
22) C
23) C
24) E
25) A
26) A
27) C
28) D
29) E
30) E
31) D
32) D
33) A
34) C
35) B
36) D
37) C
38) B
39) A
40) B
41) D
42) B
43) C
44) B
45) A
46) E
47) B
48) B
49) C
50) C
34
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
51) C
52) C
53) C
54) B
55) D
56) A
57) E
58) A
59) C
60) A
61) D
62) B
63) C
64) E
65) A
66) A
67) D
68) A
69) C
70) B
71) D
72) A
73) E
74) E
75) E
76) A
77) B
78) D
79) D
80) B
81) A
82) E
83) D
84) A
85) B
86) B
87) B
88) A
89) A
90) C
91) D
92) C
93) A
94) E
95) E
96) D
97) B
98) D
99) E
100) B
35
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
101)
102)
103)
104)
105)
106)
107)
108)
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
114)
115)
116)
117)
118)
119)
120)
121)
122)
123)
124)
125)
126)
127)
128)
129)
130)
131)
132)
133)
134)
135)
136)
137)
138)
139)
140)
141)
142)
143)
144)
145)
146)
147)
148)
149)
150)
B
A
D
D
D
D
D
A
C
D
C
C
B
A
D
D
D
D
A
B
E
B
A
C
E
C
E
E
B
D
B
E
B
B
C
A
C
E
B
D
E
A
B
B
A
D
D
C
E
A
36
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
151) critical care transport, primary health care, tactical EMS, industrial medicine, sports medicine, heavy urban search and
rescue, hazmat
152) confident, excellent judgement, good communication skills, decisive, patient advocate
153) Adherence to a code of ethics ensures that the patientʹs and the publicʹs interests are always placed above personal,
corporate, or financial interests.
154) Being a patient advocate refers to ensuring that the patient is well informed and involved as reasonably as possible in
the direction of their own care. Being a patient advocate means ensuring that the patient receives the best possible
care, and that their rights and privileges are respected and protected throughout their interaction with the EMS
system.
155) standardize paramedical education across Canada; serve as a reference point to promote paramedic mobility between
provinces and territories; become a blueprint for a national registry exam
156) Citizen Access - universal access (911) with automatic caller locating (E-911)
Single Control Center - one call coordination center that dispatches all emergency resources within a large
geographical area
Operational communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with all emergency agencies within a
given region, including mutual aid and disaster resources
Medical communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with receiving facilities, medical control, and
in many cases provide telemetry and data transfer
Communications hardware - a plan exists to provide, utilize, and maintain the required radios, phones, pagers,
computers, and towers to ensure reliable communications
Communications software - the computer programs, radio frequencies, and policies that ensure seamless integration
of communications system components
157) Triage - assigning the appropriate resources to each patient
Treatment - providing care based upon patient advocacy, online medical direction, and protocols
Transport - the selection of an appropriate means of transport (air vs. ground) dependent upon factors such as
mechanism of injury, patient acuity, level of care required, transport time
Transfer - the selection of an appropriate receiving facility capable of providing the most definitive care
158) Quality assurance monitors and measure the quality of ʹclinicalʹ care delivered to patients.
Continuous quality improvement focuses on customer satisfaction.
159) It allows the paramedic to remain current and informed, to share ideas, to assist in the development of educational
programs and curricula, to provide input on operational policies and procedures, and to bring forward ideas on
means of advancing the profession.
160) Preparation - Knowledge of protocols, policies, procedures, geography, telecommunications equipment, support
agencies and resource access as well as maintenance of the ambulance and essential equipment.
Response - Safe and timely response to an incident using available time and dispatch information request additional
resources.
Scene Assessment - Determination of hazards associated with the scene, MoI, # of patients, additional resources
required, as well as challenges to access/egress and patient care.
Patient Assessment - To search for conditions that are immediately life-threatening and to identify conditions that are
not or may become life-threatening utilizing MoI, history taking, physical exam, and diagnostics.
Patient Management - To remedy, within the paramedicʹs scope, those conditions that are immediately
life-threatening as well as those conditions that are not or may become life-threatening utilizing BLS and/or
measures that are highly invasive or pharmaceutical in nature.
Disposition and Transfer - Transporting patients to the most appropriate facility for treatment and providing for a
continuum of care through appropriate reporting to the receiving facility.
Documentation - Summary data recording to provide for administrative and medical requirements.
Clean-up, maintenance, and review - Decontamination of ambulance and equipment, reparation or replacement of
any defective or disposable equipment, and constructive critique of prior call with emphasis on ʺareas for
improvementʺ, not assigning blame.
37
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
161) Suspected child abuse.
Suspected elder abuse.
Patients who are unable to cope/live independently.
Patients who are not receiving fair treatment by other health -care providers.
Patients whose quality of life may benefit from accessing social assistance agencies.
162) Promote wellness as well as illness and injury prevention programs.
Establish protocols to provide for the transport of non-emergency patients.
Re-direct patients to the most appropriate care facility (not necessarily the ED).
Implement ʺtreat and releaseʺ protocols for stable, field-treatable conditions.
163) Lay rescuer education and training saves lives.
Promotes positive health practices.
Enhances EMS visibility.
Promotes a positive image.
Puts forth EMS personnel as positive role models.
Creates opportunities to improve integration of EMS with other health-care and public safety agencies.
164) Cleaning - refers to washing an object with soap and water. After caring for a patient, wash down work areas with
approved soaps.
Disinfecting - includes cleaning with an agent capable of killing many microorganisms on the surface of an object.
Disinfect equipment that had direct contact with the intact skin of a patient.
Sterilizing - is the use of a chemical, or physical method-such as pressurized steam-to kill all microorganisms on an
object. Items that were inserted into the patientʹs body should be sterilized by heat, steam, or radiation.
165) Alarm - characterized by the autonomic (sympathetic) physical response including increased heart rate and blood
pressure, pupil dilation, increased blood sugar, and bronchodilation. This reaction ends when the event is recognized
as not dangerous.
Resistance - occurs when the individual begins to cope with stress. Physiological parameters may return to normal.
Exhaustion - results when prolonged exposure to the same stressors leads to exhaustion of an individualʹs ability to
resist and adapt.
166) Denial - Inability or reffusal to believe the reality of the event.
Anger - Frustration related to the lack of control.
Bargaining - Attempts to make a deal or buy time to change the expected outcome.
Depression - The patient is overcome with sadness and despair.
Acceptance - The patient achieves a reasonable level of comfort with anticipated outcomes.
167) Defusing is typically held two to four hours, but not more than 12 hours after the event. It is a short, informal meeting
that allows responders to voice or vent their feelings about the incident. Usually conducted by a CISM trained peer.
Debriefing is a formal, structured, and carefully planned intervention. It occurs 24 to 72 hours after the event by a
trained CISM team that includes mental health workers and peer supporters.
168) BSI precautions - providers should use appropriate PPE on every call and at every potential exposure
Physical fitness - reduces the likelihood of injury from daily activities and reduces cardiovascular risk factors
Stress management - reduces the chance of ʺburnoutʺ occuring
Professional care and counseling - seeking professional consultation when faced with overwhelming physical,
emotional, or mental manifestations of job related stressors
Safe driving - avoiding injuries associated with MVCs through techniques that ensure due regard for the safety of
others
Proper lifting techniques - reducing the likelihood of ʺlost time injuriesʺ due to repetitive strain back injuries
169) Preserve the safety of the response team.
Recognize scene hazards.
Document findings/collect data.
Engage in on-scene education.
Know community resources.
Conduct a community needs assessment.
38
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
170) Childhood and flu immunization clinics
Prenatal and well-baby clinics
Eldercare clinics
Defensive driving classes
Workplace safety courses
Health clinics (in partnership with other health-care organizations)
Prevention information on your agencyʹs website
First aid and CPR classes
Car seat safety clinics and inspections
171) Ethics are the rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession.
Morals are social, religious or personal standards of right and wrong.
172) Beneficence - the principle of doing good for the patient; all actions taken should be directed at improving patient
outcomes
Nonmalfeasance - the obligation to not harm the patient; prophylactic actions that cause injury or discomfort to the
patient must be avoided
Autonomy - acknowledgement that a competent adult patient has the right to determine what happens to his or her
own body
Justice - the obligation to treat all persons fairly; regardless of gender, race, religion, etc.
173) 1. State the action in a universal form. Describe what should be done, who should do it, and under what conditions.
2. List the implications, or consequences, of the action.
3. Compare the consequences with relevant values.
174) Fire or threat of fire.
Explosion or the threat of explosion.
Inability to protect the patient from hazards at the scene.
Inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care.
When life-saving care cannot be provided because of the patientʹs location or position.
175) Use your legs, not your back, to lift.
Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible.
Stack your posture.
Reduce the height or distance you need to move the object.
176) The patient consents to the release of the records.
Other medical care providers have a need to know.
EMS is required by law to release a patientʹs medical records.
There are third-party billing requirements.
177) A living will specifies the type of medical treatment a person wishes to receive should an emergency arise. It is
established by the patient and needs only be signed by the patient and a witness.
A do not resuscitate order indicates to medical personnel what life-sustaining measures should be taken when the
patientʹs heart and respiratory function have stopped. It is typically signed by both the patient and their physician.
178) Ensure the patient is legally permitted to refuse care.
Make multiple, sincere attempts to convince the patient accept care.
Enlist the help of the patientʹs family or friends to help convince the patient to accept care.
Ensure the patient is fully informed about the implications and risks of refusing care.
Consult with online medical direction if available.
Have the patient and a disinterested witness sign a release-from-liability form.
Advise the patient to call again for help if necessary.
Attempt to get the patientʹs family or friends to stay with patient.
Document the entire situation.
39
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
179) Minimum standards are generic standards established by government or regulatory agencies for the guidance of EMS
agencies and providers.
Gold standards are far more detailed expectations that are usually introduced by the EMS agency with input from
staff, they aim to advance the profession.
180) Fixed - distances > 150 km, more rapid than rotary, requires prepared airfields
Rotary - able to touch down at the scene of major incidents in many cases, affords rapid access to specialized facilities
directly from the accident scene, only viable for short trips
181) Public information officer - collects data about the incident and releases it to the press
Safety officer - monitors all on-scene actions and ensures that they do not create any potentially harmful conditions
Liaison officer - coordinates all incident operations that involve outside agencies
CISM team - monitors the emotional status of all on-scene personnel
182) Triage- responsible for sorting and classifying patients; establishing and maintaining a morgue
Treatment - providing extended treatment to patients until transport can be initiated
Transport - to provide efficient transport of patients to the appropriate facilities based on patient acuity and resources
Staging - prevent the premature commitment or freelancing of resources
183) assembling/donning a hasty or commercial harness
setting up a hasty rope slide
rappelling and ascending by rope
packaging a patient in a litter
rigging a simple haul system
184) low-head dams
hydroelectric intakes
strainers/sweepers
fast moving water
cold (hypothermia)
recirculating currents
uneven bottom surface resulting in foot or extremity pins
185) Hot Zone - where the actual hazardous material exists, entry restricted to those involved in stopping the spill or leak
Warm Zone - location where decontamination of rescuers and patients occurs
Cold Zone - safe zone where command and immediately required resources are located
186) Emergency Response Guidebook
WHMIS
MSDS
CAMEO
CHEMTREC
CHEMTEL
187) Prints - finger, foot, or tire
Blood and blood spatter - not only is the blood itself important, the way in which it arrives on a surface is important
to police investigators as well
Body fluids - other body fluids such as semen and saliva are useful to police due to the presence of DNA
Particulate evidence - may include such things as clothing fibres or hairs
On-scene observations of EMS personnel - the findings of the EMS personnel responding to the call including such
things as patient location and position, conditions at the scene, and patient statements
188) 1. Quickly package the patient and leave the scene.
2. Retreat without the patient.
189) Tertiary Trauma Centre - a pediatric or adult trauma facility with a 24-hour trauma response team, associated with a
university and partaking in trauma research
District Trauma Centre - provides a dedicated 24-hour trauma response team capable of resuscitation and treatment
Primary Trauma Centre - provides initial triage for all trauma situations
40
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
190) Leadership - self-confident, credible, able to communicate ideas clearly, decisive, accountable
Integrity - honest and trustworthy
Empathetic - recognize and appreciate the circumstances, feelings, and motives of others
Self-motivated - able to work and initiate work without direct supervision
Professional appearance and personal hygiene - well presented in appropriate uniform, subdued make-up and
scents; instill confidence through appearance
Self-confident - well-prepared, diligent, and therefore prepared for any challenge presented; maintains an awareness
of not only oneʹs strengths, but weaknesses as well, and works to improve
Superior communication skills - able to clearly communicate ideas with patients, paramedics, and other health care
providers; effectively employs active listening skills
Time management - able to prioritize tasks and organize activities to efficiently utilize available time
Teamwork and Diplomacy - places the success of the team ahead of personal success, respects the patient, other
care-providers, and the community
Respect - shows and feels deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation of others
Patient advocacy - represents the best interests of the patient
Careful delivery of service - attention to detail, maintenance of knowledge and skills to the point of mastery
191) Cardiovascular endurance - walking, jogging, swimming, biking, cross-country skiing, any activity performed at
least three times per week that raises oneʹs pulse to itʹs target heart rate.
Muscular strength - may include isotonic (active exercise through a muscleʹs range of motion) or isometric (active
exercise against stable resistance). May include the use of free weights, universal or nautilus type equipment.
Flexibility - is the stretching of major muscle groups and should be accomplished daily. All stretches should be held
for at least 60 seconds.
192) Primary prevention aims to keep injuries or illness from ever occurring.
Secondary prevention involves the medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from
occurring.
Tertiary prevention is rehabilitation after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring.
193) Ethics focuses on what is right and good. Laws define what is wrong in the eyes of society.
194) spousal abuse
child abuse and neglect
elder abuse
sexual assault
gunshot and stab wounds
animal bites
communicable diseases
195) Changing demographics such as increasing elderly population or decreased socio -economic status are likely to be
associated with increased call volumes.
Peak load may vary greatly based upon time of day; commuters returning to suburban residences at the end of a work
day in industrial or commercial urban areas.
Deployment must adapt to changing needs throughout the day, week, and year.
196) Mitigation - the limiting of situations that may contribute to the escalation of a small incident into a disaster through
legislation and prevention education
Planning - the prepositioning of resources and personnel to respond to anticipated disasters based on hazard
analysis
Response - the deployment of resources
Recovery - the return of the community and resources to a normal, pre-disaster, state
41
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
197) Arrival and scene assessment - recognition of a rescue situation and the type of specialists required, calling for
resources and establishing command
Hazard control - controlling or limiting the hazards to rescuers and the patient by using PPE and personnel trained
in the specific type of techniques required
Patient Access - gaining contact with the patient by coordinating efforts of key medical, technical, and command
personnel
Medical treatment - the initiation of appropriate treatment based on the nature of the patientʹs injuries and the
limitations of the environment
Disentanglement - the release of the patient from the cause of entrapment
Patient packaging - the application of an appropriate device to remove the patient from the environment
Removal and transport - removing the patient from the environment and transporting to an appropriate facility
198) The system is used on tanks and storage vessels at fixed facilities. The placard is divided into 4 color -coded
quadrants , each representing the products degree of hazard based upon health (blue), fire (red), reactivity (yellow), or
special considerations (white). The red, blue, and yellow quadrants will have a number between 0 and 4 representing
the relative threat (0 being safe, 4 being very hazardous). The white area is reserved for special information regarding
the product.
199) Appearance - common dress such as coloured bandanas or marked jackets
Graffiti - paintings or markings that indicate a particular gangʹs ʺturfʺ
Tattoos - some gangs require a common tattoo that may include the gangʹs name
Hand signals and language - slang or codes specific to the gang with little meaning to the uninformed, hand signals
that are not understood by outsiders
200) Falls account for the largest number of preventable injuries for persons over 75 years of age.
The aging process also places the elderly at greater risk of serious head injury as well as many other injuries.
Many elderly persons suffer some degree of dementia that may contribute to dangerous behaviours such as
wandering away.
Elderly patients are at greater risk of medication errors.
201) Impartiality test - would you be willing to undergo the procedure if you were in the patientʹs place
Universalizability test - would you want this action performed in all similar circumstances
Interpersonal justifiability test - can you justify your actions to others
202) A person under 18 years of age; married, pregnant, a parent, member of the armed forces, or financially independent
and living away from home.
The may provide informed consent to prehospital treatment and transport.
203) Benefits - increases the vehicles visibility, encourages traffic to move to the side of the road when being approached,
may expedite transport
Shortcomings - sirens can heighten a patientʹs anxiety, lights and sirens can provide a false sense of security to the
operator, sirens can cause other drivers to react erratically in an attempt to get out of the way, long term operation of
sirens can result in hearing loss
204) Life safety - the safety of rescuers, bystanders, and victims must be priority # 1.
Incident stabilization - limiting the extent of the incident and preventing it from growing.
Property conservation - protecting private and public property as well as limiting damage to the environment
205) oxygen-deficient atmospheres
toxic or explosive chemicals
engulfment
machinery entrapment
electricity
structural concerns (stability)
206) Dilution - the application of large quantities of water
Absorption - the use of towels or pads to ʺblotʺ a hazardous material
Neutralization - the application of one product to another that renders the product harmless
Isolation - separating a patient from the hazardous material such as removing jewellery or clothing
42
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
207) Park in a position that provides safety from traffic.
Notify dispatch of the location, situation, vehicle make and model, and plate number.
One person should approach while the other observes for danger from the ambulance.
The driver should remain ready to radio for help.
Use the ambulance lights to illuminate the other vehicle.
Approach from the passenger side.
Use the vehicle anatomy for cover.
Observe the rear seat while approaching.
Watch the occupants, use the side mirrors to see inside.
Retreat to the ambulance at the first sign of danger.
Plan your intended retreat and escape with the driver.
208) Expressed may be verbal, non-verbal, or written communication that they wish to receive care.
Implied is presumed for a patient who is mentally, physically, or emotionally unable to consent to treatment.
Involuntary is granted through the authority of a court order.
209) Singular command relies upon one individual to coordinate the incident; it is most useful in single-jurisdictional
incidents.
Unified command employs managers from different agencies or jurisdictions who coordinate their activities and
share responsibility for command.
210) traffic
fire and fuel
alternative fuel systems (hydrogen, high-voltage electricity)
sharp objects (glass, metal, plastic, or fibreglass)
downed power lines or underground electrical vaults
energy-absorbing bumpers
supplemental restraint systems/airbags
hazardous cargoes
rolling or unstable vehicles
211) Assess the incident.
Assess toxicological risk.
Activate the IMS.
Establish command.
212) windows covered over to prevent outsiders from observing in
no signs of daily activity
evidence of discarded items associated with grow ops
humming noises from large numbers of fans or lights
odd odours
frequent vehicular and pedestrian traffic at odd hours
213) Duty to act - the paramedic must have had an obligation to provide care
Breach of that duty - the paramedic failed to provide care, display skills and judgement consistent with his training
level and experience
Actual damages - the patient must have suffered physical, psychological, or financial harm
Proximate cause - the patientʹs injuries must have been caused or worsened by the action or inaction of the paramedic
214) Question the physician.
Refuse to carry out the order.
Document the order.
215) Ethical obligations are those established by the profession and represent appropriate conduct for a practitioner.
Legal obligations are those established by the regulatory body(ies); federal and provincial laws as well as service
regulations.
Moral obligations are those established by our social, religious, or personal backgrounds.
43
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
216) Borrowed servant doctrine applies when a paramedic is in a position to supervise other care providers such as an ACP
overseeing the care of a PCP or EMR; or to a paramedic who is supervising a paramedic student on practicum.
217) FALSE
218) FALSE
219) TRUE
220) TRUE
221) TRUE
222) FALSE
223) FALSE
224) FALSE
225) TRUE
226) TRUE
227) TRUE
228) FALSE
229) FALSE
230) FALSE
231) TRUE
232) FALSE
233) TRUE
234) TRUE
235) FALSE
236) FALSE
237) TRUE
238) TRUE
239) TRUE
240) FALSE
241) TRUE
242) TRUE
243) TRUE
244) FALSE
245) FALSE
246) FALSE
247) FALSE
248) TRUE
249) FALSE
250) TRUE
251) TRUE
252) TRUE
253) TRUE
254) TRUE
255) FALSE
256) TRUE
257) TRUE
258) TRUE
259) FALSE
260) FALSE
261) TRUE
262) FALSE
263) TRUE
264) FALSE
44
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
265)
266)
267)
268)
269)
270)
271)
272)
273)
274)
275)
276)
277)
278)
279)
280)
281)
282)
283)
284)
285)
286)
287)
288)
289)
290)
291)
292)
293)
294)
295)
296)
297)
298)
299)
300)
301)
302)
303)
304)
305)
306)
307)
308)
309)
310)
311)
312)
313)
314)
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
45
Answer Key
Testname: 1-3 QUIZ
315)
316)
317)
318)
319)
320)
321)
322)
323)
324)
325)
326)
327)
328)
329)
330)
331)
332)
333)
334)
335)
336)
337)
338)
339)
340)
341)
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
46